P6

NEET 2021
12
Important Instructions :
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single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions Nos. - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to
185). All questions are compulsory.
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200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
4. Polar molecules are the molecules:
PHYSICS (1) having a permanent electric dipole moment.
SECTION - A (2) having zero dipole moment.
1. The escape velocity from the Earth's Surface is v. The (3) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of
escape velocity from the surface of another planet electric field due to displacement of charges.
having a radius, four times that of Earth and same
(4) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
mass density is:
field is absent.
(1) 4 v
(2) v Ans: (1)
(3) 2 v 5. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the
(4) 3 v prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 .
Ans: (1)
2. A cup of coffee cools from 90oC to 80oC in t minutes,
when the room temperature is 20oC. The time taken
by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80oC to 60oC at
a room temperature same at 20oC is :
5 (1) 90o
(1) t
13
(2) 60o
13
(2) t (3) 30o
10
13 (4) 45o
(3) t
5 Ans: (2)
10 6. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field
(4) t 
13 ' E ' in the space between the plates. If the distance
Ans: (3) between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate is
3. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is : ( 0 
'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The permittivity of free space)
variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with
the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable is represented E2 Ad
(1)
by: ε0
1
(2) ε0E2
2
(3) ε0EAd
(1)
1
(4) ε0E2 Ad
2
Ans: (4)
7. A particle is released from height S from the surface of
(2) the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three
times its potential energy. The height from the surface
of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant
are respectively:

S 3gS
(1) ,
(3) 4 2
S 3 gS
(2) ,
4 2
S 3gS
(3) ,
4 2
(4)
S 3gS
(4) ,
2 2
Ans: (4) Ans: (1)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
8. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, 11. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '  ' is incident
when dropped in a container filled with glycerine on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function.
becomes constant after some time. If the density of If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface
d has de-Broglie wavelength d , then :
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the
2
 2h  2
ball will be : (1)     d
 mc 
(1) 2Mg
 2m  2
(2)     d
Mg  hc 
(2)
2
 2mc  2
(3)  d   
(3) Mg  h 

3  2mc  2
(4) Mg (4)     d
2  h 

Ans: (2) Ans: (4)

12. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2
9. The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
is the same as hole concentration in a p-type charge densities of the spheres  1 / 2  is :
semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied
across each of them. Compare the currents in them. R12
(1)
(1) No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow R22
in n-type. R1
(2) R
(2) current in n-type = current in p-type. 2

(3) current in p-type > current in n-type. R2

(3) R
(4) current in n-type > current in p-type. 1

Ans: (4)  R1 
(4)  
 R2 
10. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of
5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of Ans: (3)
105m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular 13. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance
distance between the electron and the conductor is C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are connected in series
20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the to an ac source of potential difference V volts as shown
force experienced by the electron at that instant. in figure.Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V,
10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current
flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A. The
impedance of the circuit is :

(1) 8  1020 N
(1) 5
(2) 4  1020 N
(2) 4 2
(3) 8 1020 N (3) 5 / 2

(4) 4 1020 N (4) 4

Ans: (1)
Ans: (1)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
14. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x- 18. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across an
direction, which one of the following combination gives ac source of voltage V, given by
the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and
V  V0 sin ωt
magnetic field (B) respectively?
The displacement current between the plates of the
(1)  ˆj  kˆ,  ˆj  kˆ
capacitor, would then be given by:
(2) ˆj  kˆ, ˆj  kˆ
(1) Id  V0 ωCsinωt
(3)  ˆj  kˆ,  ˆj  kˆ
(2) Id =V0ωCcosωt
(4) ˆj  kˆ,  ˆj  kˆ
V0
(3) Id = cosωt
Ans: (3) ωC
15. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and V0
identify the correct answer. (4) Id = sinωt
ωC
(A): A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when Ans: (2)
used as a voltage regulator.
19. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which
(B): The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between direction will it move?
0.1 V to 0.3 V
(1) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(2) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(3) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
(4) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
Ans: (4)
16. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown
in the figure is :
(1) towards the right as its potential energy will
increase.

(2) towards the left as its potential energy will

increase.

(3) towards the right as its potential energy will

decrease.
(1) 3C/2
(4) towards the left as its potential energy will
(2) 3 C decrease.
(3) 2 C
Ans: (3)
(4) C/2
20. The number of photons per second on an average
Ans: (3)
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
17. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of
3.3  103 watt will be :  h  6.6  10 Js 
34
EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of
the wire, the balance point occurs? (1) 1015
(1) 62 cm
(2) 1018
(2) 60 cm
(3) 1017
(3) 21.6 cm
(4) 64 cm (4) 1016

Ans: (2) Ans: (4)

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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
21. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, 25. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
starting from rest at time t=0 .Let Sn be the diatance frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is :
travelled by the block in the interval t=n-1 to t=n. Then,
(1) 4n
Sn
the ratio S is : (2) n
n1

2n (3) 2n
(1)
2n  1 (4) 3n
2n  1
(2) Ans: (3)
2n
2n  1 26. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The
(3)
2n  1 fraction of original activity that will remain after 150
2n  1 hours would be :
(4)
2n  1
2
Ans: (3) (1)
3 2
22. A screw gauge gives the following readings when used
to measure the diameter of a wire (2) 1/2

Main scale reading : 0 mm 1

(3)
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions 2 2
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 2
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the (4)
3
wire from the above data is :
(1) 0.052 cm Ans: (3)

(2) 0.52 cm
27. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the
(3) 0.026 cm correct match from the given choices.
(4) 0.26 cm List - I List – II
Ans: (1)
1
23. A radioactive nucleus A
X undergoes spontaneous (A) Root mean square (P) nmv 2
Z 3
decay in the sequence ZA X  Z 1 B  Z 3 C Z 2 D , speed of gas molecules
where Z is the atomic number of element X. The
possible decay particles in the sequence are : 3RT
(B) Pressure exerted by (Q)

(1) β , α, β  M
ideal gas
(2) α, β  , β 
(3) α, β  , β 5
(C) Average kinetic energy (R) RT
2
(4) β  , α, β  of a molecule
Ans: (4)
24. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best 3
(D) Total internal energy of (S) kB T
suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope 2
since: 1 mole of a diatomic gas

(1) a large aperture contributes to the quality and

visibility of the images. (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q),(C) - (P),(D) - (S),

(2) a large area of the objective ensures better light (2) (A) - (R), (B) - (P),(C) - (S),(D) - (Q),
gathering power. (3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R),(C) - (S),(D) - (P),
(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution. (4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P),(C) - (S),(D) - (R),
(4) all of the above.
Ans: (4)
Ans: (4)

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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
28. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as 32. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
the fundamental physical quantities. Find the
fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
dimensions of energy.
energy per nucleon of unframented nuclei is 7.6 MeV
(1) [F] [A-1] [T]
while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the
(2) [F] [A] [T]
Binding Energy in the process is :
(3) [F] [A] [T2]
(4) [F] [A] [T-1] (1) 216 MeV
Ans: (3)
(2) 0.9 MeV
29. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/ (3) 9.4 MeV
s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force
are 10% of the input energy. How much power is (4) 804 MeV
generated by the turbine? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 7.0 kW Ans: (1)
(2) 10.2 kW
(3) 8.1 kW 33. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave
(4) 12.3 kW lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same
Ans: (3) axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a parallel
beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam,
30. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be :
cross-section and same material is 0.25  . What will
be the effective resistance if they are connected in (1) 30
series?
(2) 25
(1) 4 
(2) 0.25  (3) 15
(3) 0.5  (4) 50
(4) 1 
Ans: (1) Ans: (3)

31. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated 34. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time
with flow of current through a metallic conductor. period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is
Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving suspended by it is :
electrical quantities. Match Column-I and Column-II with
appropriate relations. (1) 0.628 s

Column- I Column – II (2) 0.0628 s

m (3) 6.28 s
A) Drift Velocity P)
ne2 
(4) 3.14 s
B) Electrical Resistivity Q) nev d

eE Ans: (1)
C) Relaxation Period R) 
m
35. If E and G repsectively denote energy and gravitational
E E
D) Current Density S) constant, then has the dimensions of :
J G
(1) M  L   T 
2 2 1
(1)  A   R  ,  B    Q  ,  C    S  , D    P 
(2) M  L   T 
2 1 0
(2)  A   R  ,  B    S  ,  C   P  , D    Q 
(3)  A   R  ,  B    S  ,  C    Q  , D    P  (3) M L1   T 1 
(4)  A   R  ,  B    P  ,  C    S  , D    Q  (4) M L0   T0 
Ans: (2) Ans: (2)

5
 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
SECTION - B 39. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance
‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of,
36. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V
each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate (i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.
the potential of the bigger drop.
(ii) a square of side ‘a’.
(1) 1980 V The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case
(2) 660 V respectively are :

(3) 1320 V (1) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2

(4) 1520 V (2) 3 Ia2 and 3Ia2

Ans: (1) (3) 3Ia2 and Ia2

37. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform (4) 3 Ia2 and 4Ia2
speed takes a time T to complete one revolution.
Ans: (2)
If this particle were projected with the same speed at
40. Two condcuting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are
an angle '  ' to the horizontal, the maximum height
placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding.
attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection,  , is
If R1 >> R2, the mutual indcutance M between them
then given by :
will be directly proportional to :
1
 2gT 2 
1
2
R22
(1)   sin  2  (1)
 R  R1
1
 gT2  2 R1
(2)   cos 1  2  (2) R
  R 2

1 R2
 2R 
1
2
(3) R
(3)   cos  2  1
 gT 
R12
1
(4)
1   R 
2 2
R2
(4)   sin  2 
 gT 
Ans: (1)
Ans: (1)
41. A partile of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity
38. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an arc v  kVe k  1  from the surface of the earth.
correspoonding to a 90° sector is removed. The
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring (Ve= escape velocity)
about an axis passing through the centre of the ring The maximum height above the surface reached by
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ‘K’ times the particle is :
‘MR2’. Then the value of ‘K’ is :
Rk 2
(1)
1 1  k2
(1)
8 2
 k 
3 (2) R  
(2) 1 k 
4
2
7  k 
(3) R  
(3) 1 k 
8

1 R2k
(4) (4)
4 1 k

Ans: (2) Ans: (1)

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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
42. A step down tranformer connected to an ac mains 45. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At t =
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration
the current in the primary circuit ? of the ball at t = 6 s?
(1) 4 A (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(2) 0.2 A
(1) 20 2 m / s, 10 m / s2
(3) 0.4 A
(2) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
(4) 2 A
(3) 20 m/s, 0
Ans: (2)
(4) 20 2 m / s, 0
43. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied
at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output Ans: (1)
at the terminal y ?
46. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a
convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens
and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image
would be formed at a distance of :

(1) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual

image.
(2) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.

(1) (3) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.

(4) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
(2) image.

(3) Ans: (1)

(4) 47. In the product

   
Ans: (3)    
F  q v  B  qv  Bi  Bj  B0 k
 
For q = 1 and v  2i  4j  6k and F  4 i  20j  12k
44. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. 
What will be the complete expression for B ?
The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g =
10 m/s2) nearly : (1) 6i  6j  8 k

(2) 8 i  8j  6k

(1) 1.4 kg m/s
(2) 0 kg m/s
(3) 6i  6j  8k
(3) 4.2 kg m/s
(4) 8i  8j  6k
(4) 2.1 kg m/s

Ans: (3) Ans: (3)

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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
48. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 µF SECTION - A (CHEMISTRY)
capacitor and 40  resistor is connected to 230 V
variable frequency ac sources. The angular frequencies 51. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
of the source at which power transffered to the circuit (1) 0
is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are
likely to be : (2) 120
(1) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s (3) 180
(2) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
(4) 60
(3) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(4) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s Ans: (1)

Ans: (4) 52. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and
49. Three resistors having resistances r 1, r2 and r 3 are
i3 vapour phase, are :
connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio i
of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit
1 (1) Chain in both
is:
(2) Chain and dimer, respectively
(3) Linear in both
(4) Dimer and Linear, respectively

Ans: (2)

r2
(1) r  r 53. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s
1 3 reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali
r1
(2) r  r
2 3

r2 (1)
(3) r  r
2 3

r1 (2)
(4) r  r
1 2

Ans: (3) (3)

50. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass (4)
of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and
another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod Ans: (4)
at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value
of ‘m’ such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)
54. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3 COONa
at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and
91.0 Scm2mol1 respectively. The molar conductance
of CH3 COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right
1 option for your answer
(1) kg
12
1 (1) 540.48 Scm2mol1
(2) kg
2
(2) 201.28 Scm2mol1
1
(3) kg
3 (3) 390.71 Scm2mol1
1 (4) 698.28 Scm2mol1
(4) kg
6
Ans: (1) Ans: (3)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6

55. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and 59. Choose the correct option for graphical representation
of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph of pressure vs.
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are
volume of a gas at different temperatures

(1) 12, 6

(2) 8, 4

(3) 6, 12

(4) 2, 1
(1)
Ans: (4)

56. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which

of the following particles?

(1) Neutron (n)

(2) Beta (  )

(3) Alpha (  )

(4) Gamma (  ) (2)

Ans: (2)

57. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon

and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option
for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic
wt. of C is 12, H is 1]

(1) CH4

(2) CH
(3)
(3) CH2

(4) CH3

Ans: (4)

58. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound

formed in the following chemical reaction?
i  C H MgBr,dry Ether
Acetone 
2 5
ii H2 O,H
 Product

(1) 2-methyl butan-2-ol

(4)
(2) 2-methyl propan-2-ol

(3) pentan-2-ol

(4) pentan-3-ol

Ans: (1) Ans: (1)

9
 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
60. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is: 64. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order
given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI
Statement II: As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I
(1)
increases down the group, the bond
strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI
decreases and so the acid strength
(2) increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct

answer from the options given below.
(3)
(1) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true
(4) (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans: (2)
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
61. Match List - I with List - II.
Ans: (2)
List - I List – II
a) PCl5 i) Square pyramidal 65. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is
b) SF6 ii) Trigonal planar exhibited by” is
c) BrF5 iii) Octahedral (1) Urea solution
d) BF 3 iv) Trigonal bipyramidal (2) NaCl solution
(3) Glucose solution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
a b c d (4) Starch solution

(1) iv iii ii i Ans: (4)

(2) iv iii i ii
(3) ii iii iv i 66. The correct option for the number of body centred unit
cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is:
(4) iii i iv ii
Ans: (2)
(1) 3
62. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in (2) 7
blast furnace is:
(3) 5
(1) upto 5000 K
(4) 2
(2) upto 1200 K
(3) upto 2200 K Ans: (1)
(4) upto 1900 K
67. Which of the following reactions is the metal
Ans: (3)
displacement reaction? Choose the right option.

63. Which one among the following is the correct option (1) 2Pb NO3 2  2PbO  4NO2  O2
for right relationship between Cp and CV for one mole
of ideal gas? 
(2) 2KClO3   2KCl  3O2
(1) CV = RCP

(2) CP + CV = R (3) Cr2O3  2Al   Al2O3  2Cr
(3) CP - CV = R
(4) Fe  2HCl  FeCl2  H2 
(4) CP = RCV
Ans: (3) Ans: (3)

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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
68. For a reaction A  B, enthalpy of reaction is -4.2 kJ 72. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
mol-1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol-1. The (1) Vitamin B2
correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown
(2) Vitamin B12
in option.
(3) Vitamin B6
(4) Vitamin B1

(1) Ans: (2)

73. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving

10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g
of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of
surcrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right
(2)
option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of
these solutions is:
(1) P3 > P1 > P2
(2) P2 > P1 > P3
(3) (3) P1 > P2 > P3
(4) P2 > P3 > P1

Ans: (2)

(4) 74. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,

broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz(kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
emitted by the transmitter is: [speed of light, c = 3.0 ×
Ans: (3) 108 ms-1]
69. The pkb of dimethylamine and pka of acetic acid are (1) 21.92 cm
3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
option for the p H of dimethylammonium acetate (2) 219.3 m
solution is: (3) 219.2 m
(1) 6.25 (4) 2192 m
(2) 8.50
Ans: (2)
(3) 5.50
75. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
(4) 7.75 towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement
about them.
Ans: (4) (1) Noble gases have large positive values of electorn
gain enthalpy.
70. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product (2) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
formation is based on? (3) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
points.
(1) Huckel’s Rule
(4) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
(2) Saytzeff’s Rule
Ans: (3)
(3) Hund’s Rule
(4) Hofmann Rule 76. Given below are two statements:
Statement - I : Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the
Ans: (2) class of narcotic analgesics.
Statement - II : Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic
71. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by analgesics. In the light of the above
addition polymerisation? statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
(1) Dacron
(2) Teflon (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(3) Nylon-66 (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Novolac
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Ans: (2) Ans: (3)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
77. Which one of the following methods can be used to 83. The major product of the following chemical reaction
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room is
temperature ?
(1) Zone refining
(2) Electrolysis
(3) Chromatography
(4) Distillation (1)
Ans: (4)

78. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C - X’ bond (2)

is
(1) CH3  Cl  CH3  F  CH3  Br  CH3  I
(2) CH3  F  CH3  Cl  CH3  Br  CH3  I (3)
(3) CH3  F  CH3  Cl  CH3  Br  CH3  I
(4) CH3  F  CH3  Cl  CH3  Br  CH3  I
Ans: (3) (4)

79. The compound which shows metamerism is

(1) C 4H10 O Ans: (2)

(2) C 5H12 84. The incorrect statement among the following is :

(3) C 3H8 O (1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially
when finely divided
(4) C 3H6 O (2) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
element than Lanthanoid contraction
Ans: (1)
(3) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless
in the solid state
80. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is
(4) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
(1) Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms electricity
(2) Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N”
donor atoms Ans: (3)
(3) Unidentate ligand 85. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one
(4) Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is

Ans: (2) (1) Beryllium chloride

(2) Calcium chloride
81. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and (3) Strontium chloride
ionic radii because of
(4) Magnesium chloride
(1) having similar chemical properties
(2) belonging to same group Ans: (1)
(3) diagonal relationship
SECTION - B
(4) lanthanoid contraction
86. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a
Ans: (4) solution at 45C with benzene to octane in molar ratio
3 : 2 is :
82. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. [At 45C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
Hybridization and number of electrons around the and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
central atom, respectively are
(1) sp2 and 8 (1) 350 mm of Hg
(2) sp3 and 4 (2) 160 mm of Hg
(3) sp and 6
3
(3) 168 mm of Hg
(4) sp2 and 6 (4) 336 mm of Hg
Ans: (4) Ans: (4)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
NaOH,  ?
87.For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under 91. CH3 CH2 COONa 
Heat
 CH3 CH3  Na2 CO3
isothermal condition, the correct option is : Consider the above reaction and identify the
(1) U  0, S total  0 missing reagent/chemical
(1) DIBAL - H
(2) U  0, S total  0
(2) B 2H6
(3) U  0, Stotal  0
(3) Red Phosphorus
(4) U  0, S total  0 (4) CaO

Ans: (4) Ans: (4)

88. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following 92. Which of the following molecules is non - polar in
chemical reaction is nature?
(1) NO2
(2) POCl3
(3) CH2 O
(4) SbCl5
Ans: (4)
(1)  1
93. The slope of Arrhenius Plot  ln k v s  of first oder
 T
reaction is 5  103 K . The value of Ea of the reaction
is. Choose the correct option for your answer
(2) Given R  8.314 JK 1 mol1 
(1) 83 kJ mol1
(2) 41.5 kJ mol1
(3)
(3) 83.0 kJ mol1
(4) 166 kJ mol1

Ans: (2)
(4)
94. Match List - I with List - II
Ans: (2) List - I List – II

89. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in a) 2SO2  g   O2  g   i) Acid rain
atm) in a mixture of 4g O2 and 2g H2 confined in a 2SO3  g 
total volume of one litre at 0C is : b) HOCl  g  
h
 ii) Smog
 
Given R  0.082 L atm mol K , T  273K 
1 1
OH  Cl
(1) 26.02 c) CaCO3  H2 SO4  iii) Ozone
(2) 2.518 CaSO4  H2 O  CO2 depletion
(3) 2.602
(4) 25.18 d) NO2  g   h
 iv) Tropospheric
NO  g   O  g  pollution
Ans: (4)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
90. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an below.
a b c d
iso - electronic pair ?
(1) Fe2 , Mn2 (1) iii ii iv i
2
(2) O , F  (2) i ii iii iv
(3) Na , Mg 2 (3) ii iii iv i
(4) Mn2  , Fe3  (4) iv iii i ii

Ans: (1) Ans: (4)

13
 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
95. Match List - I with List - II 97. The product formed in the following chemical reaction
is :
List - I List – II

a) i) Hell -Volhard Zelinsky

reaction

b) ii) Gattermann - Koch

reaction

(1)
c) iii) Haloform reaction

d) iv) Esterification

Choose the correct answer from the options given (2)

below.

a b c d

(1) ii iii iv i

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) iii ii i iv (3)

(4) i iv iii ii

Ans: (1)

96. Match List - I with List - II

List - I List – II (4)
3
a) Fe  CN6  i) 5.92 BM

Fe H2 O 6 
3 Ans: (1)
b) ii) 0 BM

4 98. In which of the following arrangements the given

c) Fe  CN6  iii) 4.90 BM
sequence is not strictly according to the properties
2 indicated against it ?
d) Fe H2 O 6  iv) 1.73 BM
(1) CO2  SiO2 : Increasing oxidizing
Choose the correct answer from the options given
 SnO2  PbO2 power
below.
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic
a b c d
strength
(1) iv i ii iii
(3) H2 O  H2 S : Increasing pK a values
(2) iv ii i iii H2 Se  H2 Te
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) NH3  PH3 : Increasing acidic
(4) i iii iv ii  AsH3  SbH3 character
Ans: (1) Ans: (3)
14
 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
99. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S 102. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
cm2 mol-1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic (1) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and
acid? Choose the correct option. RNA molecules in both directions between
nucleus and cytoplasm.
 HO  350 S cm2 mol1  (2) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
 O 
  50 S cm2 mol1  conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
 CH3COO 
organelles.
(1) 2.50  105 mol L1 (3) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal
cells.
(2) 1.75  104 mol L1 (4) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between
(3) 2.50  104 mol L1 the materials present inside the nucleus and that
of the cytoplasm.
(4) 1.75  105 mol L1 Ans: (2)
Ans: (4) 103. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it
100. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical
is known as :
reaction is : (1) Safety testing
(2) Biopiracy
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Molecular diagnosis
Ans: (3)

(1) CuCN/KCN 104. During the purification process for recombinant DNA
(2) H2O technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates
out :
(3) CH3CH2OH
(1) Polysaccharides
(4) HI (2) RNA
Ans: (3) (3) DNA
(4) Histones
BOTANY Ans: (3)

SECTION - A 105. Match List - I with List - II.

101. Match List-I with List-II. List - I List – II

(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
List - I List – II
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
a) Cells with active (i) Vascular tissues
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
cell division capacity
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
b) Tissue having all cells (ii) Meristematic tissue
similar in structure Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
and function
a b c d
c) Tissue having (iii) Sclereids
(1) iv iii ii i
different types of
(2) iii iv ii i
cells
(3) ii i iv iii
d) Dead cells with (iv) Simple tissue
highly thickened (4) iii iv i ii
walls and narrow Ans: (3)
lumen
106. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
Select the correct answer from the options given below. equal arms of chromsomes, the chromosome is
a b c d referred as :
(1) iii ii iv i (1) Acrocentric
(2) ii iv i iii (2) Metacentric
(3) iv iii ii i (3) Telocentric
(4) i ii iii iv (4) Sub-metacentric
Ans: (2) Ans: (2)
15
 NEET-2021 / Code-P6

107. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population 113. Match List - I with List - II.
is List - I List – II
(1) Genetic drift a) Cristae i) Primary constriction
in chromosome
(2) Natural selection
b) Thylakoids ii) Disc-shaped sacs in
(3) Genetic recombination
Golgi apparatus
(4) Mutation
c) Centromere iii) Infoldings in
Ans: (1) mitochondria
d) Cisternae iv) Flattened
108. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in membranous sacs in
a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ? stroma of plastids
(1) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension a b c d
(2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (1) ii iii iv i
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (2) iv iii ii i
(4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (3) i iv iii ii
(4) iii iv i ii
Ans: (2)
Ans: (4)
109. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which 114. Match List - I with List - II.
mechanism the competing species might have evolved List - I List – II
for their survival ? a) Cohesion i) More attraction in
(1) Predation liquid phase
(2) Resource partitioning b) Adhesion ii) Mutual attraction
among water
(3) Competitive release molecules
(4) Mutalism c) Surface tension iii) Water loss in liquid
phase
Ans: (2)
d) Guttation iv) Attraction towards
110. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is : polar surfaces
(1) 8-nucleate and 8-celled Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) 8-nucleate and 7-celled below.
(3) 7-nucleate and 8-celled a b c d
(1) ii i iv iii
(4) 7-nucleate and 7-called
(2) ii iv i iii
Ans: (2) (3) iv iii ii i
(4) iii i iv ii
111. The site of perception of light in plants during
photoperiodism is : Ans: (2)
(1) Leaf 115. Match List - I with List - II.
(2) Shoot apex List - I List – II
(3) Stem a) Lenticels i) Phellogen
(4) Axillary bud b) Cork cambium ii) Suberin deposition
Ans: (1) c) Secondary cortex iii) Exchange of gases
d) Cork iv) Phelloderm
112. Which of the following plants is monoecious ? a b c d
(1) Cycas circinalis (1) iv ii i iii
(2) Carica papaya (2) iv i iii ii
(3) Chara (3) iii i iv ii
(4) Marchantia polymorpha (4) ii iii iv i
Ans: (3) Ans: (3)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
116. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers 123. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during (1) Zeatin
pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen (2) Kinetin
grains to stigma, is : (3) Infrared rays
(1) Cleistogamy (4) Gamma rays
(2) Xenogamy
(3) Geitonogamy Ans: (4)
(4) Chasmogamy 124. In the equation GPP-R=NPP. R represents :
Ans: (2) (1) Respiration losses
(2) Radiant energy
117. Which of the following is not an application of PCR (3) Retardation factor
(Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(4) Environment factor
(1) Detection of gene mutation
(2) Molecular diagnosis Ans: (1)
(3) Gene amplification
(4) Purification of isolated protein 125. Plants follow different pathways in response to
environment or phases of life to form different kinds
Ans: (4) of structures. This ability is called :
118. The production of gametes by the parents, formation (1) Maturity
of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood (2) Elasticity
from a diagram called : (3) Flexibility
(1) Net square (4) Plasticity
(2) Bullet square Ans: (4)
(3) Punch square
(4) Punnett square 126. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:
Ans: (4) (1) IBA
(2) IAA
119. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen? (3) NAA
(1) Blue-green algae (4) 2, 4-D
(2) Green algae
Ans: (4)
(3) Brown algae
(4) Red algae 127. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Ans: (4) (1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is
upright.
120. Amensalism can be represented as : (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(1) Species A (+) ; Species B (0) (3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(2) Species A (-) ; Species B (0) (4) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(3) Species A (+) ; Species B (+)
(4) Species A (-) ; Species B (-) Ans: (3)
Ans: (2) 128. Gemmae are present in :
(1) Some Liverworts
121. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
(2) Mosses
division of centromere?
(1) Telephase II (3) Pteridophytes
(2) Metaphase I (4) Some Gymnosperms
(3) Metaphase II Ans: (1)
(4) Anaphase II
129. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is :
Ans: (4)
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid
122. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. (2) Pyruvic acid
(3) Oxaloacetic acid
(a)
(4) Succinic acid
(1) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; Ans: (3)
(d)-protein
(2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; 130. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
(d)-protein reserve food material?
(3) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (1) Ulothrix
(d)-Transduction (2) Ectocarpus
(4) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (3) Gracilaria
(d)-protein (4) Volvox
Ans: (4) Ans: (2)
17
 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
131. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide 138. Identify the correct statement.
when viewed under UV raidation,appear as : (1) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
(1) Bright blue bands prokaryotes.
(2) Yellow bands
(2) In capping,methyl guanosine triphosphate is
(3) Bright orange bands
added to the 3’ end of hnRNA.
(4) Dark red bands
(3) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
Ans: (3) terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
132. Diadelphous stamens are found in : (4) The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied
(1) China rose and citrus to an mRNA.
(2) China rose
Ans: (3)
(3) Citrus
(4) Pea 139. Which of the following statements is correct ?
Ans: (4) (1) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
133. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites (2) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
in plants ? (3) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
(1) Rubber,gums non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
(2) Morphine,codeine (4) Organisms that depend on living plants are called
(3) Amino acids,glucose saprophytes.
(4) Vinblastin,curcumin
Ans: (3)
Ans: (3)
134. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon,nitrogen, 140. DNA fingerprinting involves indentifying differences is
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
time,is reffered as : (1) Polymorphic DNA
(1) Standing crop (2) Satellite DNA
(2) Climax (3) Repetitive DNA
(3) Climax community (4) Single nucleotides
(4) Standing state Ans: (3)
Ans: (4) 141. Select the correct pair.
135. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two (1) Loose parenchyma - Spongy parenchyma
kinds of spores. Such plants are known as : cells rupturing the
(1) Heterosporous epidermis and forming
(2) Homosorus a lens-shaped opening
(3) Heterosorus in bark
(4) Homosporous
(2) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
Ans: (1)
cells in the epidermis
SECTION - B (BIOLOGY : BOTONY) of grass leaves
136. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site within (3) In dicot leaves, - Conjunctive tissue
gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this vascular bundles are
enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β -galactoside surrounded by large
production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in thick-walled cells
an E.coli strain
(1) it will be able to produce a novel protien with dual (4) Cells of medullary - Interfascicular
ability. rays that form part cambium
(2) it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance of cambial ring
to the host cell. Ans: (4)
(3) the transformed cells will have the ability to resist
ampicilin as well as produce β -galactoside. 142. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(4) it will lead to lysis of host cell. (1) Oxidation -reduction reactions produce proton
Ans: (2) gradient in respiration.
137. In some member of which of the following pairs of (2) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months to the terminal stage.
after release ? (3) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule
(1) Rosaceae;Leguminosae of NADH+H+ gives rise to 2ATP molecules, and one
(2) Poaceae;Rosaceae FADH2 gives rise to 3ATP molecules.
(3) Poaceae;Leguminosae (4) ATP is synthesized through complex V.
(4) Poaceae;Solanaceae
Ans: (1) Ans: (3)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
143. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 148. Match List - I with List - II
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and List - I List – II
PS II
(a) Protein i) C = C double bonds
(2) Both ATP and NADPH + H  are synthesized during
non-cyclic photophosphorylation. (b) Unsaturated fatty ii) Phosphodiester
(3) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP acid bonds
reductase. (c) Nucleic acid iii) Glycosidic bonds
(4) Grana lamelllae have both PS I and PS II.
(d) Polysaccharide iv) Peptide bonds
Ans: (1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
144. Match Column-I with Column-II. below.
Column- I Column – II a b c d
(1) iv iii i ii
(a) Nitrococcus i) Denitrification
(2) iv i ii iii
(b) Rhizobium ii) Conversion of (3) i iv iii ii
ammonia to nitrite
(4) ii i iv iii
(c) Thiobacillus iii) Conversion of nitrite
to nitrate Ans: (2)
(d) Nitrobacter iv) Conversion of 149. Match List - I with List - II.
atmospheric List - I List – II
nitrogen to ammonia
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are
a b c d synthesized
(1) iv iii ii i (b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
(2) ii iv i iii
(c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between
(3) i ii iii iv
mitosis and initiation
(4) iii i iv ii
of DNA replication
Ans: (2) (d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
145. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of Choose the correct answer from the options given
transcription in eukaryotes? below
(1) Transcribes only snRNAs a b c d
(2) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.85S) (1) ii iv iii i
(3) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA (2) iii ii i iv
(4) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(3) iv ii iii i
Ans: (3) (4) iv i ii iii
146. In the exponential growth equation Ans: (4)
N t  N o e rt .e represents :
150. Match Column - I with Column - II.
(1) The base of geometric logarithms
Column- I Column– II
(2) The base of number logarithms
(3) The base of exponential logarithms (a) (i) Brassicaceae
(4) The base of natural logarithms
Ans: (4) (b) (ii) Liliaceae

147. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene

causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to (c) (iii) Fabaceae
hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells,
followed by its detection using autoradiograpy because: (d) (iv) Solanaceae
(1) mutated gene does not appear on photographic
film as the probe has complimentarity with it. Select the correct answer from the option given below.
(2) mutated gene partially appears on a photographic a b c d
film (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
a photographic film.
(3) (i) (ii) (iii (iv)
(4) mutated gene does not appear on a photographic
film as the probe has no complimentarity with it. (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans: (4) Ans: (2)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
156. Match the following :
ZOOLOGY
List - I List – II
SECTION - A (a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster

151. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of
on : war
(1) Zona pellucida (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
(2) Corona radiata (d) Pinctada (iv) Hook worm
(3) Vitelline membrane
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Perivitelline space below.
Ans: (1) a b c d
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
152. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation
of chiasmata as its distinctive feature ? (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) Pachytene (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) Leptotene (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Zygotene Ans: (4)
(4) Diakinesis 157. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
Ans: (4) (1) Troposphere
(2) CFCs
153. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane (3) Stratosphere
system are : (4) Ozone
(1) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Ans: (4)
Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes 158. Which one of the following belongs to the family
and Lysosomes Muscidae ?
(1) House fly
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes
(2) Fire fly
and Vacuoles
(3) Grasshopper
(4) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and (4) Cockroach
Lysosomes
Ans: (1)
Ans: (3)
159. Veneral diseases can spread through:
154. A specfic recognition sequence identified by (a) Using sterile needles
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
within the DNA is : (c) Infected mother to foetus
(1) Poly(A) tail sequences (d) Kissing
(2) Degenerate primer sequence (e) Inheritance
(3) Okazaki sequences
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences below.
Ans: (4) (1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
155. Select the favourable conditions required for the (3) (b), (c) and (d) only
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
(4) (b) and (c) only
(1) Low pO2 , low pCO2 , more H  , higher Ans: (4)
temperature Note: Kissing also can transmit a few STIs like CMV, herpes
(2) High pO2 , low pCO2 , Less H , lower and syphilis.
temperature 160. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability to
catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the
(3) Low pO2 , high pCO2 , more H  , higher process of transcription in prokaryotes
temperature (1) DNase
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) High pO2 , lhigh pCO2 , Less H  , lower (3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
temperature (4) DNA Ligase
Ans: (2) Ans: (3)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
161. Match List-I with List-II. 166. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the
List - I List – II synthesis of protein?
(1) siRNA
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm (2) mRNA
through Cervix is (3) tRNA
blocked (4) rRNA
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas Ans: (1)
deferens
(c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of 167. Succus entericus is referred to as :
sperms within the (1) Chyme
Uterus (2) Pancreatic juice
(3) Intenstinal juice
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian
(4) Gastric juice
tube
Ans: (3)
a b c d
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 168. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) recipients”. This is due to :
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (1) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (2) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of
Ans: (3) RBCs
(3) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
162. Match List-I with List-II. (4) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
List - I List – II Ans: (1)
(a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid 169. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid respect to cockraoch?
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid (1) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
butylicum pair of anal cerci.
(2) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid midgut and hind gut.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the
below. mouth parts.
a b c d (4) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital
pouch.
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Ans: (2)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 170. Which of the following statements wrongly represents
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) the nature of smooth muscle?
Ans: (2) (1) These muscles are present in the wall of blood
vessels
163. Identify the incorrect pair. (2) These muscle have no striations
(1) Drugs - Ricin (3) They are involuntary muscles
(2) Alkaloids - Codeine (4) Communication among the cells is performed by
(3) Toxin - Abrin intercalated discs
(4) Lectins - Concanavalin A Ans: (4)
Ans: (1)
171. Which of the following organisms bears hollow and
164. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and pneumatic long bones?
carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) (1) Ornithorhynchus
are: (2) Neophron
(1) pO2  159 and pCO2  0.3 (3) Hemidactylus
(2) pO2  104 and pCO2  40 (4) Ma cro p u s
(3) pO2  40 and pCO2  45 Ans: (2)
(4) pO2  95 and pCO2  40
172. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will
Ans: (2) be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine
165. Sphincter of oddi is present at : in it?
(1) Junction of jejunum and duodenum (1) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
(2) Ileo-caecal junction (2) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
(3) Junction of hepato-pacreatic duct and duodenum (3) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
(4) Gastro-oesophageal junction (4) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
Ans: (3) Ans: (4)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
173. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ? Echinoderms.
(1) Thrombokinase Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Thrombin below.
(3) Renin
(1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(4) Epinephrine
(2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
Ans: (2) (3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
174. In a cross between a male and female, both (4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what Ans: (1)
percentage of the progeny will be diseased ? 180. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
(1) 100% formation is produced by :
(2) 50% (1) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
(3) 75% (2) Alpha cells of pancreas
(4) 25%
(3) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
Ans: (4) (4) The cells of bone marrow
175. Which one of the following is an example of Hormone Ans: (1)
releasing IUD ? 181. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(1) Multiload 375 (a) C-pepide is not present in mature insulin.
(2) CuT (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-
(3) LNG 20 peptide.
(4) Cu 7 (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
Ans: (3) (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
176. The centriole undergoes duplication during : interconnected by disulphide bridges.
(1) G2 phase Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) S-phase below.
(3) Prophase (1) (a) and (d) only
(4) Metaphase (2) (b) and (d) only
Ans: (2) (3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
177. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro Ans: (4)
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as 182. Match List - I with List - II.
(1) Gout List - I List – II
(2) Arthritis (a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
(3) Muscular dystropy
(4) Myasthenia gravis (b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora
Ans: (4) (c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
178. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis (d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
and understanding its pathophysiology is very Choose the correct answer from the options given
important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic below.
techniques is very useful for early detection ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Hybridization Technique (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Western Blotting Technique (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Southern Blotting Technique (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) ELISA Technique (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Ans: (4)
Ans: (4)
179. Read the following statements.
183. Which of the following is not an objective of
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate Biofortification in crops ?
animals. (1) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body (2) Improve protein content
organization. (3) Improve resistance to diseases
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in (4) Improve vitamin content
digestion. Ans: (3)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
184. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if Choose the correct answer from the options given
very high temperature is not maintained in the below.
beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will (1) (b) and (c) are correct
be affected first ?
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(1) Ligation
(2) Annealing (3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(3) Extension (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) Denaturation Ans: (2)
Ans: (4)
189. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
185. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET) ?
interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes
at G 1 phase is 8, what would be the number of (1) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
chromosomes after S phase ? mothers at 8-32 cell stage
(1) 32 (2) Cow is administered hormone having LH like
(2) 8 activity for super ovulation
(3) 16 (3) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
(4) 4 (4) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
Ans: (2) Ans: (2)
SECTION - B (BIOLOGY : ZOOLOGY)
190. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the
186. Assertion-(A) : A person goes to high altitude and leakage of the substances across a tissue and
experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
symptoms like breathing difficulty and via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
heart palpitations. (1) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
Reason-(R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at (2) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.
high altitude, the body does not get (3) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
sufficient oxygen. (4) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
respectively.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Ans: (3)
answer from the options given below.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true 191. Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin,
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct during the later phase of pregnancy ?
explanation of (A) (1) Uterus
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the (2) Graafian follicle
correct explanation of (A) (3) Corpus luteum
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) Foetus
Ans: (2) Ans: (3)

187. Statement-I : The codon ‘AUG’ codes for 192. During muscular contraction which of the following
methionine and phenylalanine. events occur ?
Statement-II : ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for (a) ‘H’ zone disappears
the amino acid lysine. (b) ‘A’ band widens
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi
answer from the options given below. (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is true
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-I are true
below.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(1) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is false (2) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
Ans: (1) (3) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(4) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
188. Following are the statements about prostomium of
Ans: (2)
earthworm.
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth. 193. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can (1) Addison’s disease
(2) Dysfunction of Immune system
crawl.
(3) Parkinson’s disease
(c) It is one of the sensory structures. (4) Digestive disorder
(d) It is the first body segment. Ans: (2)
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 NEET-2021 / Code-P6
194. Match List - I with List - II Choose the correct answer from the options given
List - I List – II below.
(a) Adaptive radiation (i) Selection of resistant a b c d
varieties due to (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
excessive use of (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
herbicides and (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
pesticides (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) Convergent evolution (ii) Bones of forelimbs in
Man and Whale Ans: (4)
(c) Divergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly 198. Match List -I with List -II.
and Bird List - I List – II
(d) Evolution by a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus
anthropogenic action (iv) Darwin Finches influenzae
Choose the correct answer from the options given b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
below. c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria
a b c d bancrofti
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) histolytica
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Choose the correct answer from the options given
Ans: (2) below.
a b c d
195. Which of these is not an important component of (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
initiation of parturition in humans ?
(1) Release of Prolactin (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Synthesis of prostaglandins (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Release of Oxytocin
Ans: (3)
Ans: (1)
199. Which one of the following statements about Histones
196. Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’. is wrong ?
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called (1) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
unsaturated fatty acids.
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. (2) Histones are organised to form a unit of 8
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. molecules.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including (3) The pH of histones is slighly acidic.
carboxyl carbon. (4) Histones are rich in amino acids- Lysine and
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. Arginine.
Choose the correct answer from the options given Ans: (3)
below.
(1) (b) and (e) only 200. Match List -I with List -II
(2) (a) and (b) only List - I List – II
(3) (c) and (d) only
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
(4) (b) and (c) only
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
Ans:(4)
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
197. Match List -I With List- II
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
List - I List – II
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat below.
(b) Physiological a b c d
adaptation (ii) Desert lizard (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) Behavioural (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
adaptation (iii) Marine fish at depth (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) Biochemical (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
adaptation (iv) Polar seal
Ans: (1)
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