PPL Test Prep

TEST
PREP
PRIVATE PILOT
2016
STUDY & PREPARE Pass your test and know what is
essential to become a safe, competent pilot — from the most
trusted source in aviation training
TEST
PREP
PRIVATE PILOT
2016
Pass your test and know what is essential to
become a safe, competent pilot—from the most
trusted source in aviation training.
READER TIP:
The FAA Knowledge Exam Questions can change
throughout the year. Stay current with test changes;
sign up for ASA’s free email update service at
www.asa2fly.com/testupdate
Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc.

Newcastle, Washington
Private Pilot Test Prep About the Contributors
2016 Edition
Charles L. Robertson
Assistant Professor, UND Aerospace
University of North Dakota
7005 132nd Place SE
Newcastle, Washington 98059-3153 Charles Robertson as ground and flight instructor, ATP,
425.235.1500 assistant professor and manager of training at UND Aero-
www.asa2fly.com space, contributes a vital and substantial combination of
pilot and educator to ASA’s reviewing team. After graduat-
ing with education degrees from Florida State University
© 2015 Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc. in 1967, and Ball State University in 1975, he began his
twenty-year career in the United States Air Force as Chief
FAA Questions herein are from United States govern- of avionics branch, 58th Military Airlift Squadron, and went
ment sources and contain current information as of: on to flight instruction, training for aircraft systems, and
June 2015 airport managing, while gaining many thousands of hours
None of the material in this publication supersedes flying international passenger and cargo, aerial refueling
any documents, procedures or regulations issued by the and airlift missions. As Division Chief in 1988, Robertson
Federal Aviation Administration. directed the USAF Strategic Air Command’s “Alpha Alert
Force” and coordinated its daily flight training operations.
ASA assumes no responsibility for any errors or
omissions. Neither is any liability assumed for damages
resulting from the use of the information contained Jackie Spanitz
herein. Director of Curriculum Development
Important: This Test Prep should be sold with and used
in conjunction with Airman Knowledge Testing Supple- Jackie Spanitz earned a bachelor of science degree with
ment for Sport Pilot, Recreational Pilot, and Private Pilot Western Michigan University (WMU), in Aviation Technol-
(FAA-CT-8080-2F). Ebook customers can download the ogy and Operations. In her masters program at Embry-
supplement at asa2fly.com. Riddle Aeronautical University, she earned a degree in
Aeronautical Science, specializing in Management. As
Director of Curriculum Development for ASA, Jackie
ASA-TP -PVT-16-PD oversees new and existing product development, ranging
from textbooks and flight computers to flight simulation
ISBN 978-1-61954-235-8
software products, and integration of these products into
new and existing curricula.
Paul Hamilton
Sport Pilot and Light-Sport Aircraft Expert
Adventure Productions
Flight instructor, FAA Designated Examiner, and Sport/
Ultralight Pilot for more than 30 years, Paul contributed
sport pilot, light-sport aircraft information, and incorpo-
ration of weight-shift control and powered parachute
requirements.
Stay informed of aviation

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ii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Contents
Instructions Chapter 2 Aircraft Systems

Preface...................................................................... vii Reciprocating Engines........................................... 2 – 3
Updates and Practice Tests........................................ix Ignition and Electrical Systems............................. 2 – 4
Description of the Tests...............................................x Fuel Induction Systems......................................... 2 – 6
Knowledge Test Eligibility Requirements.................xi Carburetor Ice........................................................ 2 – 7
Process for Taking a Knowledge Test......................xi Aviation Fuel........................................................ 2 – 10
Use of Test Aids and Materials...............................xv Engine Temperatures........................................... 2 – 12
Retesting Procedures............................................ xvi Propellers............................................................ 2 – 15
Cheating or Other Unauthorized Conduct............. xvi Torque.................................................................. 2 – 16
Eligibility Requirements........................................... xvii Preflight Inspection Procedures........................... 2 – 18
Eligibility for the Private Pilot Certificate............... xvii Helicopter Systems.............................................. 2 – 19
Eligibility for the Sport Pilot Certificate.................. xix Glider Operations................................................ 2 – 25
Knowledge Exam References.................................. xxi Lighter-Than-Air Operations................................ 2 – 33
ASA Test Prep Layout.............................................. xxii Powered Parachute and
Opportunity Knocking: Become a Flight Instructor!.xxiii Weight-Shift Control Operations................... 2 – 41
Gyroplane............................................................ 2 – 48
Chapter 1 Basic Aerodynamics

Aerodynamic Terms............................................... 1 – 3 Chapter 3 Flight Instruments
Axes of Rotation and the Four Forces Pitot-Static Instruments......................................... 3 – 3
Acting in Flight................................................ 1 – 6 Airspeeds and the Airspeed Indicator.................... 3 – 4
Lift...................................................................... 1 – 7 The Altimeter and Altitudes................................... 3 – 8
Weight................................................................ 1 – 7 Gyroscopic Instruments....................................... 3 – 13
Thrust................................................................. 1 – 7 Attitude Indicator.............................................. 3 – 13
Drag.................................................................... 1 – 8 Turn Coordinator.............................................. 3 – 13
Stability................................................................ 1 – 10 Heading Indicator............................................. 3 – 13
Turns, Loads, and Load Factors.......................... 1 – 12 Magnetic Compass (Northern Hemisphere)........ 3 – 14
Maneuvers........................................................... 1 – 16
Rectangular Course......................................... 1 – 16
Turns Around a Point........................................ 1 – 16 Chapter 4 Regulations
S-Turns............................................................. 1 – 17 Introduction............................................................ 4 – 3
Stalls and Spins................................................... 1 – 19 Pilot Certificate Privileges and Limitations............ 4 – 3
Flaps.................................................................... 1 – 20 Pilot Ratings.......................................................... 4 – 9
Ground Effect...................................................... 1 – 21 Medical Certificates............................................. 4 – 10
Wake Turbulence................................................. 1 – 23 Required Certificates........................................... 4 – 12
Recent Flight Experience.................................... 4 – 14
High-Performance Airplanes............................... 4 – 16
Continued
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA iii

Glider Towing....................................................... 4 – 17 Chapter 6 Weather
Change of Address.............................................. 4 – 17 The Heating of the Earth....................................... 6 – 3
Responsibility and Authority of the Circulation and Wind............................................. 6 – 4
Pilot-in-Command......................................... 4 – 18
Temperature.......................................................... 6 – 5
Preflight Action.................................................... 4 – 19
Moisture................................................................. 6 – 6
Seatbelts.............................................................. 4 – 21
Air Masses and Fronts........................................... 6 – 8
Alcohol and Drugs............................................... 4 – 22
Stability of the Atmosphere.................................... 6 – 9
Right-of-Way Rules.............................................. 4 – 24
Clouds................................................................. 6 – 10
Aerobatic Flight.................................................... 4 – 26
Turbulence........................................................... 6 – 14
Parachutes.......................................................... 4 – 27
Thunderstorms.................................................... 6 – 15
Deviation from Air Traffic Control Instructions...... 4 – 28
Wind Shear.......................................................... 6 – 18
Minimum Safe Altitudes....................................... 4 – 30
Icing..................................................................... 6 – 19
Basic VFR Weather Minimums............................ 4 – 31
Fog ..................................................................... 6 – 21
Special VFR Weather Minimums......................... 4 – 35
Frost.................................................................... 6 – 22
VFR Cruising Altitudes........................................ 4 – 36
Categories of Aircraft........................................... 4 – 37
Formation Flight and Dropping Objects............... 4 – 38 Chapter 7 Weather Services
VFR Flight Plans.................................................. 4 – 39 Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)........... 7 – 3
Speed Limits........................................................ 4 – 40 Pilot Weather Reports (PIREPs) (UA)................... 7 – 5
Airworthiness....................................................... 4 – 41 Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)..................... 7 – 7
Maintenance and Inspections.............................. 4 – 44 Aviation Area Forecast (FA)................................... 7 – 9
Light-Sport Repairman Certificates.................. 4 – 44 Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB)...... 7 – 11
ADs, ACs, and NOTAMs...................................... 4 – 49 Weather Depiction Chart..................................... 7 – 12
Accident Reporting Requirements....................... 4 – 52 Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic
Chart ........................................................... 7 – 14
Inflight Weather Advisories (WA, WS, WST)....... 7 – 16
Chapter 5 Procedures and Obtaining a Telephone Weather Briefing............. 7 – 18
Airport Operations
Uncontrolled and Tower-Controlled Airports.......... 5 – 3
Airport Markings.................................................... 5 – 6 Chapter 8 Aircraft Performance
Airport Lighting.................................................... 5 – 14 Weight and Balance.............................................. 8 – 3
Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI).............. 5 – 15 Airplane.............................................................. 8 – 4
Surface Operations.............................................. 5 – 19 Weight-Shift Control........................................... 8 – 4
Airport/Facility Directory...................................... 5 – 22 Powered Parachute............................................ 8 – 4
Fitness for Flight.................................................. 5 – 24 Computing Weight and Balance Problems
Aeronautical Decision Making............................. 5 – 28 Using a Table.................................................. 8 – 6
Collision Avoidance............................................. 5 – 35 Computing Weight and Balance Problems
Aircraft Lighting.................................................... 5 – 38 Using a Graph............................................... 8 – 12
Density Altitude and Aircraft Performance........... 8 – 24
Takeoff Distance.................................................. 8 – 30
Cruise Power Setting Table.................................. 8 – 34
Landing Distance Graphs and Tables.................. 8 – 36
Headwind and Crosswind Component Graph..... 8 – 42
Maximum Range Performance............................ 8 – 44
iv ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 9 Enroute Flight Chapter 11 Communication Procedures
Pilotage.................................................................. 9 – 3 Phraseology, Techniques, and Procedures.......... 11 – 3
Time....................................................................... 9 – 5 Airport Traffic Area Communications and
Topography............................................................ 9 – 8 Light Signals............................................... 11 – 10
Dead Reckoning.................................................. 9 – 11 Radar Assistance to VFR Aircraft...................... 11 – 12
Plotting Courses............................................... 9 – 11 Transponder....................................................... 11 – 14
Magnetic Variation............................................ 9 – 12 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)............... 11 – 17
Magnetic Deviation........................................... 9 – 14
Wind and Its Effects............................................. 9 – 14
The Flight Computer (E6-B)................................ 9 – 17 Cross References
Finding Wind Correction Angle (WCA) and A: Question Number and Page Number.............. A – 1
Ground Speed.............................................. 9 – 17 B: Learning Statement Code and
Flight Computer Calculator Face...................... 9 – 19 Question Number........................................ B – 1
Finding Time, Rate, and Distance.................... 9 – 20
Calculating Fuel Consumption......................... 9 – 22
Finding True Airspeed and Density Altitude..... 9 – 23
Airspace............................................................... 9 – 32
Chapter 10 Navigation
VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)..................... 10 – 3
VOR Orientation.................................................. 10 – 3
Course Determination......................................... 10 – 6
VOR Airways....................................................... 10 – 8
VOR Receiver Check Points................................ 10 – 9
Global Positioning System (GPS)...................... 10 – 10
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA v

vi ASA Private Pilot Test Prep
Preface
Welcome to ASA’s Test Prep Series. ASA’s test books have been helping pilots prepare for the FAA
Knowledge Tests since 1984 with great success. We are confident that with proper use of this book, you
will score very well on any of the private and recreational pilot certificate tests.
Begin your studies with a classroom or home-study ground school course, which will involve read-
ing a comprehensive Private Pilot textbook. Conclude your studies with this Test Prep or comparable
software. Read the question, select your choice for the correct answer, then read the explanation. Use
the Learning Statement Codes and references that conclude each explanation to identify additional
resources if you need further study of a subject.
The FAA Private and Recreational Pilot questions have been arranged into chapters based on
subject matter. Topical study, in which similar material is covered under a common subject heading,
promotes better understanding, aids recall, and thus provides a more efficient study guide. Study and
place emphasis on those questions most likely to be included in your test (identified by the aircraft cat-
egory above each question). For example, a pilot preparing for the Private Airplane test would focus on
the questions marked “ALL” and “AIR,” and a pilot preparing for the Private Helicopter test would focus
on the questions marked “ALL” and “RTC.”
It is important to answer every question assigned on your FAA Knowledge Test. If in their ongoing
review, the FAA authors decide a question has no correct answer, is no longer applicable, or is otherwise
defective, your answer will be marked correct no matter which one you chose. However, you will not be
given the automatic credit unless you have marked an answer. Unlike some other exams you may have
taken, there is no penalty for “guessing” in this instance.
The FAA exams are “closed tests” which means the exact database of questions is not available to
the public. The question and answer choices in this book are based on our extensive history and expe-
rience with the FAA testing process. You might see similar although not exactly the same questions on
your official FAA exam. Answer stems may be rearranged from the A, B, C order you see in this book.
Therefore, be careful to fully understand the intent of each question and corresponding answer while
studying, rather than memorize the A, B, C answer. You may be asked a question that has unfamiliar
wording; studying and understanding the information in this book and the associated references will give
you the tools to answer all types of questions with confidence.
If your study leads you to question an answer choice, we recommend you seek the assistance of a
local instructor. We welcome your questions, recommendations or concerns:
7005 132nd Place SE
Newcastle, WA 98059-3153
Voice: 425.235.1500 Fax: 425.235.0128
Email: cfi@asa2fly.com Website: www.asa2fly.com
The FAA appreciates testing experience feedback. You can contact the branch responsible for the
FAA Knowledge Exams at:
Federal Aviation Administration
AFS-630, Airman Testing Standards Branch
PO Box 25082
Oklahoma City, OK 73125
Email: afs630comments@faa.gov
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA vii

viii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep
Updates and Practice Tests
Free Test Updates for the One-Year Life Cycle of Test Prep Books
The FAA rolls out new tests as needed throughout the year. The FAA Knowledge Exams are “closed
tests” which means the exact database of questions is not available to the public. ASA combines years
of experience with expertise in working with the tests to prepare the most comprehensive test prepara-
tion materials available in the industry.
You can feel confident you will be prepared for your FAA Knowledge Exam by using the ASA Test
Preps. ASA publishes test books each June and keeps abreast of changes to the tests. These changes
are then posted on the ASA website as a Test Update.
Visit the ASA website before taking your test to be certain you have the most current information.
While there, sign up for ASA’s free email Update service. We will then send you an email notification if
there is a change to the test you are preparing for so you can review the Update for revised and/or new
test information.
www.asa2fly.com/testupdate
We invite your feedback. After you take your official FAA exam, let us know how you did. Were you pre-
pared? Did the ASA products meet your needs and exceed your expectations? We want to continue to
improve these products to ensure applicants are prepared, and become safe aviators. Send feedback
to: cfi@asa2fly.com
www.prepware.com
Helping you practice for written exams.
As the experts in FAA Knowledge Exam preparation, we want you to
have the confidence needed before heading to the testing center,
and help eliminate the hassle and expense of retaking exams.
> Realistic Test Simulation > Performance Graphs > Gain Confidence > Succeed
Test questions and time Review how you did, track Go into your exam fully Pass your exam,
allowed replicate the your performance and prepared after practicing achieve your goals,
official FAA exam review explanations for the simulated tests and set new ones
questions you missed
Sport Pilot • Private Pilot • Instrument Rating • Commercial Pilot • Flight Instructor • Ground Instructor
Fundamentals of Instructing • Flight Engineer • Airline Transport Pilot • AMT General • Airframe • Powerplant
Practice tests are also available as an app! www.asa2fly.com/apps
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA ix

Description of the Tests
All test questions are the objective, multiple-choice type, with three choices of answers. Each question can
be answered by the selection of a single response. Each test question is independent of other questions,
that is, a correct response to one does not depend upon or influence the correct response to another.
As stated in 14 CFR §61.63, an applicant need not take an additional knowledge test provided the
applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot certificate level. For
example, an applicant transitioning from gliders to airplanes or helicopters will need to take the test. A
person transitioning from weight-shift or powered parachute to airplane will need to take the test. An
applicant transitioning from airplanes to gliders, or airplanes to helicopters, or airplanes to weight-shift
or powered parachute, will not be required to take the test.
For the most efficient and effective study program, refer to the following table, placing emphasis on
those questions most likely to be included on your test (identified by the aircraft category above each
question number). Use the Prepware software or www.prepware.com to practice the test as if you were
at the testing facility. These programs can also be used to obtain the endorsement you need to take the
official exam.
Test Test Name Test Prep Number of Min. Allotted Time

Code Study Questions Age (hrs)
RPA Recreational Pilot—Airplane ALL, AIR, REC 50 15 2.0
RPH Recreational Pilot—Helicopter ALL, RTC, REC 50 15 2.0
RPG Recreational Pilot—Gyroplane ALL, RTC, REC 50 15 2.0
PAR Private Pilot—Airplane ALL, AIR 60 15 2.5
PRH Private Pilot—Helicopter ALL, RTC 60 15 2.5
PRG Private Pilot—Gyroplane ALL, RTC 60 15 2.5
PGL Private Pilot—Glider ALL, GLI 60 14 2.5
PBH Private Pilot—Balloon–Hot Air ALL, LTA 60 14 2.5
PBG Private Pilot—Balloon–Gas ALL, LTA 60 14 2.5
PLA Private Pilot—Airship ALL, LTA 60 15 2.5
PPP Private Pilot Powered Parachute ALL, PPC 60 15 2.5
PWS Private Pilot Weight-Shift Control ALL, WSC 60 15 2.5
PAT Private Pilot Airplane/ ALL, AIR 30 15 1.5
Recreational Pilot—Transition
PGT Private Pilot Gyroplane/ ALL, RTC 30 15 1.5
PHT Private Pilot Helicopter/ ALL, RTC 30 15 1.5
PCP Private Pilot Canadian Conversion* ALL, AIR 40 16 2.0
x ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

SPA Sport Pilot Airplane SPO, LSA 40 15 2.0
SPB Sport Pilot Lighter-Than-Air SPO, LSL 40 15 2.0
(Balloon)
SPI Sport Pilot Glider SPO, LSG 40 15 2.0
SPL Sport Pilot Lighter-Than-Air SPO, LSL 40 15 2.0
(Airship)
SPP Sport Pilot Powered Parachute SPO, LSP 40 15 2.0
SPW Sport Pilot Weight-Shift Control SPO, LSW 40 15 2.0
SPY Sport Pilot Gyroplane SPO, LSR 40 15 2.0
*This test focuses on U.S. regulations, procedures and operations, not airplane know-how.
A score of 70 percent must be attained to successfully pass each test.
Knowledge Test Eligibility Requirements

If you are pursuing a recreational pilot or private pilot certificate, you should review Title 14 of the Code
of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 61, §61.23 “Medical Certificates: Requirement and Duration” and
14 CFR §61.35 “Knowledge Test: Prerequisites and Passing Grades.”
If you are pursuing a student pilot certificate, you should review 14 CFR §61.83 “Applicability and
Eligibility Requirements: General,” for additional detailed information pertaining to eligibility.
If you are pursuing a recreational pilot certificate, you should review 14 CFR §61.96 “Applicability
and Eligibility Requirements: General,” for additional detailed information pertaining to eligibility.
If you are pursuing a private pilot certificate, you should review 14 CFR §61.103 “Applicability and
Eligibility Requirements: General,” for additional detailed information pertaining to eligibility.
Recreational pilot and private pilot tests are comprehensive because they must test your knowledge
in many subject areas. If you are pursuing a recreational pilot certificate or added rating, you should
closely examine and understand 14 CFR Part 61, §61.97 “Aeronautical Knowledge” for the applicable
knowledge areas. If you are pursuing a private pilot certificate or added rating, you should closely exam-
ine and understand 14 CFR §61.105 “Aeronautical Knowledge” for the applicable knowledge areas.
Process for Taking a Knowledge Test

The FAA has designated two holders of airman knowledge testing (AKT) organization designation
authorization (ODA). These two AKT-ODAs sponsor hundreds of knowledge testing center locations.
The testing centers offer a full range of airman knowledge tests including: Aircraft Dispatcher, Airline
Transport Pilot, Aviation Maintenance Technician, Commercial Pilot, Flight Engineer, Flight Instructor,
Flight Navigator, Ground Instructor, Inspection Authorization, Instrument Rating, Parachute Rigger, Pri-
vate Pilot, Recreational Pilot, Sport Pilot, and Military Competence. Contact information for the AKT-ODA
holders is provided at the end of this section.
The first step in taking a knowledge test is the registration process. You may either call the testing
centers’ 1-800 numbers or simply take the test on a walk-in basis. If you choose to use the 1-800 number
to register, you will need to select a testing center, schedule a test date, and make financial arrange-
ments for test payment. You may register for tests several weeks in advance, and you may cancel your
appointment according to the AKT-ODA holder’s cancellation policy. If you do not follow the AKT-ODA
holder’s cancellation policies, you could be subject to a cancellation fee.
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xi

The next step in taking a knowledge test is providing proper identification. You should determine what
knowledge test prerequisites are necessary before going to the computer testing center. Your instructor
or local Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) can assist you with what documentation to take to the
testing facility. Testing center personnel will not begin the test until your identification is verified.
Acceptable Forms of Authorization

When you go to take your FAA Knowledge Test, you will be required to show proper identification and have
certification of your preparation for the examination, signed by an authorized Flight or Ground Instructor.
Ground Schools will have issued the endorsements as you complete the course.If you choose a home-
study for your Knowledge Test, you can either get an endorsement from your instructor or submit your
home-study materials to an FAA Office for review and approval prior to taking the test.
1. Certificate of graduation or a statement of accomplishment certifying the satisfactory completion of
the ground school portion of a course for the certificate or rating sought. The certificate or statement
may be issued by a Federal Aviation Administration certified pilot school or an agency such as a high
school, college, adult education program, Civil Air Patrol or Reserve Officers Training Corp (ROTC)
flight training school.
2. Written statement or logbook endorsement from an authorized ground or flight instructor certifying
that the applicant completed an applicable ground training or home study course and is prepared
for the knowledge test.
3. Failed, passing or expired Airman Knowledge Test Report, provided the applicant still has the original
test report in his/her possession. (See Retesting explanation.)
Private and Recreational Endorsement

I certify that (First name, MI, Last name) ________________________________________________
has received the required training in accordance with [Private §61.105] [Recreational §61.97]. I have
determined he/she is prepared for the (Test name/Aircraft category; e.g., Private–Airplane) __________
_______________________________ knowledge test.
Signed _____________________________________________ Date _______________________
CFI Number _________________________________________ Expires _____________________
Sport Pilot Endorsement

I certify that (First name, MI, Last name) _________________________________________________
has received the required aeronautical knowledge training of 14 CFR §61.309. I have determined he/she
is prepared for the Sport Pilot (category) _________________________ knowledge test.
Signed _____________________________________________ Date _______________________
CFI Number _________________________________________ Expires _____________________
The Prepware software or www.prepware.com can be used to get your test authorization directly
from ASA.
xii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Test-Taking Tips
Prior to launching the actual test, the AKT-ODA holder’s testing software will provide you with an oppor-
tunity to practice navigating through the test. This practice (or tutorial) session may include a “sample”
question(s). These sample questions have no relation to the content of the test, but are meant to familiar-
ize you with the look and feel of the system screens, including selecting an answer, marking a question
for later review, time remaining for the test, and other features of the testing software.
Follow these time-proven tips, which will help you develop a skillful, smooth approach to test-taking:
1. Be careful to fully understand the intent of each question and corresponding answer while studying,
rather than memorize the A, B, C answer choice — answer stems may appear in a different order
than you studied.
2. Take with you to the testing center a sign-off from an instructor, photo I.D., the testing fee, calculator,
flight computer (ASA’s E6-B or CX-2 Pathfinder), plotter, magnifying glass, and a sharp pointer, such
as a safety pin.
3. Your first action when you sit down should be to write on the scratch paper the weight and balance
and any other formulas and information you can remember from your study. Remember, some of
the formulas may be on your E6-B.
4. Answer each question in accordance with the latest regulations and guidance publications.
5. Read each question carefully before looking at the possible answers. You should clearly understand
the problem before attempting to solve it.
6. After formulating an answer, determine which answer choice corresponds the closest with your
answer. The answer chosen should completely resolve the problem.
7. From the answer choices given, it may appear that there is more than one possible answer. However,
there is only one answer that is correct and complete. The other answers are either incomplete,
erroneous, or represent popular misconceptions.
8. If a certain question is difficult for you, it is best to mark it for REVIEW and proceed to the other ques-
tions. After you answer the less difficult questions, return to those which you marked for review and
answer them. Be sure to untag these questions once you have answered them. The review marking
procedure will be explained to you prior to starting the test. Although the computer should alert you
to unanswered questions, make sure every question has an answer recorded. This procedure will
enable you to use the available time to the maximum advantage.
9. Perform each math calculation twice to confirm your answer. If adding or subtracting a column of
numbers, reverse your direction the second time to reduce the possibility of error.
10. When solving a calculation problem, select the answer nearest to your solution. The problem has
been checked with various types of calculators; therefore, if you have solved it correctly, your answer
will be closer to the correct answer than any of the other choices.
11. Remember that information is provided in the FAA Legends and FAA Figures.
12. Remember to answer every question, even the ones with no completely correct answer, to ensure
the FAA gives you credit for a bad question.
13. Take your time and be thorough but relaxed. Take a minute off every half-hour or so to relax the brain
and the body. Get a drink of water halfway through the test.
14. Your test will be graded immediately upon completion. You will be allowed 10 minutes to review any
questions you missed. You will see the question only; you will not see the answer choices or your
selected response. This allows you to review the missed areas with an instructor prior to taking the
Practical exam.
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xiii

Test Reports
Your test will be graded immediately upon completion and your score will display on the computer screen.
You will be allowed 10 minutes to review any questions you missed. You will see the question only; you
will not see the answer choices or your selected response. This allows you to review the missed areas
with an instructor prior to taking the Practical exam. After this review period you will receive your Airman
Test Report, with the testing center’s embossed seal, which reflects your score.
Validity of Airman Test Reports

Airman Test Reports are valid for the 24-calendar month period preceding the month you complete the
practical test. If the Airman Test Report expires before completion of the practical test, you must retake
the knowledge test.
Test Reports and Learning Statement Codes

The Airman Test Report lists the learning statement codes for questions answered incorrectly. The total
number of learning statement codes shown on the Airman Test Report is not necessarily an indication of
the total number of questions answered incorrectly. Study these knowledge areas to improve your under-
standing of the subject matter. See the Learning Statement Code/Question Number Cross-Reference in
the back of this book for a list of which questions apply to each learning statement code.
Your instructor is required to provide instruction on each of the knowledge areas listed on your Air-
man Test Report and to complete an endorsement of this instruction. The Airman Test Report must be
presented to the examiner prior to taking the practical test. During the oral portion of the practical test,
the examiner is required to evaluate the noted areas of deficiency.
If you wish to have your test hand-scored (if you believe a question or your score are in error), you
must submit a request, in the form of a signed letter, to the Airman Testing Standards Branch, AFS-
630. The request must be accompanied by a copy of your Airman Knowledge Test Report and a legible
photocopy of a government issued identification with your photograph and signature. Mail or fax this
information to (e-mail requests are not accepted due to security issues): FAA, AFS-630, PO Box 25082,
Oklahoma City, OK 73125 or fax to 405-954-4748.
Should you require a duplicate Airman Test Report due to loss or destruction of the original, send a
signed request accompanied by a check or money order for $1 payable to the FAA. Your request should
be sent to the Federal Aviation Administration, Airmen Certification Branch, AFS-760, P.O. Box 25082,
Oklahoma City, OK 73125.
Airman Knowledge Testing Sites

The following is a list of the airman knowledge testing (AKT) organization designation authorization
(ODA) holders authorized to give FAA knowledge tests. This list should be helpful in case you choose to
register for a test or simply want more information. The latest listing of computer testing center locations
is available on the FAA website at http://www.faa.gov/pilots/testing, under “Knowledge Test Centers”
select “Center List” and a PDF will download automatically.
Computer Assisted Testing Service (CATS) PSI / LaserGrade Computer Testing

777 Mariners Island Blvd., Suite 200 16821 S.E. McGillivray, Suite 201
San Mateo, CA 94404 Vancouver, WA 98683
Applicant inquiry and test registration: Applicant inquiry and test registration:
1-800-947-4228 1-800-211-2753
From outside the U.S.: (650) 259-8550 From outside the U.S.: (360) 896-9111
xiv ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Use of Test Aids and Materials
Airman knowledge tests require applicants to analyze the relationship between variables needed to solve
aviation problems, in addition to testing for accuracy of a mathematical calculation. The intent is that
all applicants are tested on concepts rather than rote calculation ability. It is permissible to use certain
calculating devices when taking airman knowledge tests, provided they are used within the following
guidelines. The term “calculating devices” is interchangeable with such items as calculators, computers,
or any similar devices designed for aviation-related activities.
Guidelines for Use of Test Aids and Materials

The applicant may use test aids and materials within the guidelines listed below, if actual test questions
or answers are not revealed.
1. Applicants may use test aids, such as scales, straightedges, protractors, plotters, navigation com-
puters, log sheets, and all models of aviation-oriented calculating devices that are directly related to
the test. In addition, applicants may use any test materials provided with the test.
2. Manufacturer’s permanently inscribed instructions on the front and back of such aids listed in 1(a),
e.g., formulas, conversions, regulations, signals, weather data, holding pattern diagrams, frequen-
cies, weight and balance formulas, and air traffic control procedures are permissible.
3. The test proctor may provide calculating devices to applicants and deny them use of their personal
calculating devices if the applicant’s device does not have a screen that indicates all memory has
been erased. The test proctor must be able to determine the calculating device’s erasure capability.
The use of calculating devices incorporating permanent or continuous type memory circuits without
erasure capability is prohibited.
4. The use of magnetic cards, magnetic tapes, modules, computer chips, or any other device upon
which prewritten programs or information related to the test can be stored and retrieved is prohib-
ited. Printouts of data will be surrendered at the completion of the test if the calculating device used
incorporates this design feature.
5. The use of any booklet or manual containing instructions related to the use of the applicant’s calcu-
lating device is not permitted.
6. Dictionaries are not allowed in the testing area.
7. The test proctor makes the final determination relating to test materials and personal possessions
that the applicant may take into the testing area.
Testing Procedures For Applicants Requesting

Special Accommodations
If you are an applicant with a learning or reading disability, you may request approval from the local
FSDO or FAA International Field Office (IFO) to take an airman knowledge test, using the special accom-
modations procedures outlined in the most current version of FAA Order 8080.6 “Conduct of Airman
Knowledge Tests.”
Prior to approval of any option, the FSDO or IFO Aviation Safety Inspector must advise you of the
regulatory certification requirement of being able to read, write, speak, and understand the English
language.
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xv

Retesting Procedures
Applicants retesting after failure are required to submit the applicable score report indicating failure,
along with an endorsement (on the test report) from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant
the additional training, and certifying the applicant is competent to pass the test. The original failed test
report (with retest endorsement) presented as authorization shall be retained by the proctor and attached
to the applicable sign-in/out log. The latest test taken will reflect the official score.
Applicants retesting in an attempt to achieve a higher passing score may retake the same test
for a better grade after 30 days. The latest test taken will reflect the official score. Applicants are required
to submit the original applicable score report indicating previous passing score to the testing center
prior to testing. Testing center personnel must collect and destroy this report prior to issuing the new
test report.
Note: The FAA does not require a “wait period” before retesting (either for a higher score or after fail-
ure). However, the testing centers do require a wait period of 24 hours before any applicant may retest.
Cheating or Other Unauthorized Conduct

Computer testing centers must follow strict security procedures to avoid test compromise. These proce-
dures are established by the FAA and are covered in FAA Order 8080.6 Conduct of Airman Knowledge
Tests. The FAA has directed testing centers to terminate a test at any time a test proctor suspects a
cheating incident has occurred. An FAA investigation will then be conducted. If the investigation deter-
mines that cheating or unauthorized conduct has occurred, then any airman certificate or rating that
you hold may be revoked, and you will be prohibited for 1 year from applying for or taking any test for a
certificate or rating under 14 CFR Part 61.
xvi ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Eligibility Requirements
Eligibility for the Private Pilot Certificate

Always check the current 14 CFR Part 61 for pilot certificate requirements. To be eligible for a private
pilot certificate with an airplane, helicopter, or glider rating a person must:
1. Be at least 17 years old (16 for a glider or balloon rating).
2. Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English or have a limitation placed on the certificate.
3. Have at least a current third-class medical certificate. This medical certificate is usually, but not
always, also the student pilot certificate. Glider and balloon applications need only certify they have
no known medical deficiency that would prevent them from piloting a glider or balloon safely.
4. Score at least 70 percent on the required FAA Knowledge Test on the appropriate subjects.
5. Pass an oral exam and flight check on the subjects and maneuvers outlined in the Private Pilot
Practical Test Standards (#ASA-8081-14, 8081-15, or 8081-3).
6. For an airplane or helicopter rating, have a total of 40 hours of instruction (for Part 61 programs) and
solo flight time which must include the following:
a. 20 hours of flight instruction including at least—
i. 3 hours cross-country,
ii. 3 hours at night including 10 takeoffs and landings and one cross-country flight of over 100
NM total distance for airplanes (50 NM for helicopters),
iii. 3 hours of instrument flight training in a single-engine airplane for the airplane rating, and
iv. 3 hours in an airplane or helicopter within the last 60 days in preparation for the flight test.
b. 10 hours of solo flight time including at least —
i. 10 hours in airplanes or helicopters
ii. 5 hours cross-country for airplanes, each flight with a landing more than 50 NM from the
point of departure and one flight of at least 150 NM with 3 landings, one of which must be
least 50 NM from the departure point. In helicopters, 3 hours of cross-country with landings
at three points at least 25 miles from each other and one cross-country flight of at least 75
NM total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight
being a straight-line distance of at least 25 NM between the takeoff and landing locations;
and
iii. 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop at an airport with an operating control tower, each land-
ing separated by an enroute phase of flight and involving a flight in the traffic pattern in a
helicopter.
7. For a glider rating, have at least one of the following:
a. If the applicant has not logged at least 40 hours of flight time as a pilot in a heavier-than-air aircraft,
at least 10 hours of flight training in a glider, and 20 training flights performed on the appropriate
areas, including —
i. 2 hours of solo flight in gliders in the areas of operation that apply to gliders, with not less than
10 launches and landings being performed; and
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xvii

ii. Three training flights in a glider in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period
preceding the practical test.
b. If the applicant has logged at least 40 hours of flight time in heavier-than-air aircraft, at least 3
hours of flight training in a glider, and 10 training flights performed on the appropriate areas,
including —
i. 10 solo flights in gliders on the areas of operation that apply to gliders, and
ii. Three training flights in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day waiting period pre-
ceding the test.
8. For a lighter-than-air rating, have at least one of the following:
a. For an airship rating:
i. 25 hours of flight training in airships, which consists of at least:
• 3 hours of cross-country flight training in an airship;
• 3 hours of night flight training in an airship that includes:
— A cross-country flight of over 25 NM total distance; and
— 5 takeoffs and 5 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic
pattern) at an airport.
ii. 3 hours of instrument flight training in an airship;
iii. 3 hours of flight training in an airship in preparation for the practical test within the 60 days
preceding the date of the test; and
iv. 5 hours performing the duties of PIC in an airship with an authorized instructor.
b. For a balloon rating. At least 10 hours of flight training that includes at least 6 training flights with
an authorized instructor, that includes —
i. If the training is in a gas balloon, at least 2 flights of 2 hours each that consists of —
• At least one training flight with an authorized instructor within 60 days prior to application
for the rating on the areas of operation for a gas balloon;
• At least one flight performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas balloon with an author-
ized instructor; and
• At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site.
ii. If the training is in a balloon with an airborne heater, at least —
• Two 1-hour flights within 60 days prior to application for the rating on the areas of operation
appropriate to a balloon with an airborne heater;
• One solo flight in a balloon with an airborne heater; and
• At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above the launch site.
9. For a powered parachute rating, have at least 25 hours of flight time in a powered parachute that
includes at least 10 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor, including 30 takeoffs and
landings, and 10 hours of solo flight training, that includes —
a. 1 hour of cross-country flight with a landing at an airport at least 25 nautical miles from the airport
of departure;
b. 3 hours of night flight training in a powered parachute that includes 10 takeoffs and landings (with
each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;
c. 3 hours of flight training within the last 60 days in preparation for the practical test in a powered
parachute; and
xviii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

d. 3 hours of solo flight time in a powered parachute, consisting of at least —
i. One solo cross-country flight with a landing at an airport at least 25 nautical miles from the
departure airport; and
ii. 20 solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in a traffic pat-
tern) at an airport, with at least 3 takeoffs and landings at an airport with an operating control
tower.
10. For a weight-shift control aircraft rating, have at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20
hours of flight training with an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training that includes —
a. 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a weight-shift control aircraft;
b. 3 hours of night flight training in a weight-shift control aircraft that includes —
i. One cross-country flight over 75 nautical miles total distance; and
ii. 10 takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an
airport;
c. 3 hours of flight training within the last 60 days in preparation for the practical test in a weight-shift
control aircraft, and
d. 10 hours of solo flight time in a weight-shift control aircraft, consisting of at least —
i. 5 hours of solo cross-country time;
ii. 1 solo cross-country flight over 100 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of
three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight line distance of at least 50 nautical
miles between takeoff and landing locations; and
iii. 3 takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport
with an operating control tower.
Eligibility for the Sport Pilot Certificate

Always check the current 14 CFR Part 61 for pilot certificate requirements. To be eligible for a Sport
Pilot Certificate a person must:
1. Be at least 17 years old (16 if you are applying to operate a glider or balloon).
2. Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English or have a limitation placed on the certificate.
3. Score at least 70 percent on the required FAA Knowledge Test.
4. Pass a practical test on the subjects and maneuvers outlined in the Sport Pilot Practical Test Stan-
dards (ASA-8081-SPORT Sport Pilot for Airplane, Weight-Shift Control, Powered Parachute, and
Flight Instructor ).
5. See 14 CFR §61.329 for the special provisions for obtaining a Sport Pilot certificate as a registered
ultralight pilot with an FAA-recognized ultralight organization.
6. The table on the next page explains the aeronautical experience you must have to apply for a Sport
Pilot Certificate.
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xix

Aeronautical Experience for the Sport Pilot Certificate
If you are applying for a
Then you must log at least… Which must include at least…
sport pilot certificate with…
(a) Airplane category and (1) 20 hours of flight time, including at (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training,
single-engine land or sea least 15 hours of flight training from an (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing
class privileges, authorized instructor in a single-engine involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;
airplane and at least 5 hours of solo flight (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 75 nautical miles total
training in the areas of operation listed in distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points and
§61.311, one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance
of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing
locations, and
(iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those
areas of operation specified in §61.311 in preparation for the
practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the
month of the test.
(b) Glider category privileges, (1) 10 hours of flight time in a glider, (i) Five solo launches and landings, and
and you have not logged at including 10 flights in a glider receiving (ii) at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor on those
least 20 hours of flight time in flight training from an authorized instructor areas of operation specified in §61.311 in preparation for the
a heavier-than-air aircraft, and at least 2 hours of solo flight training practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the
in the areas of operation listed in §61.311, month of the test.
(c) Glider category privileges, (1) 3 hours of flight time in a glider, including (i) Three solo launches and landings, and
and you have logged 20 five flights in a glider while receiving flight (ii) at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor on those
hours flight time in a heavier- training from an authorized instructor and areas of operation specified in §61.311 in preparation for the
than-air aircraft, at least 1 hour of solo flight training in the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the
areas of operation listed in §61.311, month of the test.
(d) Rotorcraft category and (1) 20 hours of flight time, including 15 (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training,
gyroplane class privileges, hours of flight training from an authorized (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing
instructor in a gyroplane and at least 5 involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport,
hours of solo flight training in the areas of (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total
operation listed in §61.311, distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and
one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance
of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing
locations, and
month of the test.
(e) Lighter-than-air category (1) 20 hours of flight time, including 15 (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training,
and airship class privileges, hours of flight training from an authorized (ii) Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing
instructor in an airship and at least 3 hours involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport,
performing the duties of pilot in command (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 25 nautical miles between
in an airship with an authorized instructor the takeoff and landing locations, and
in the areas of operation listed in §61.311, (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those
month of the test.
(f) Lighter-than-air category (1) 7 hours of flight time in a balloon, (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training and
and balloon class privileges, including three flights with an authorized (ii) 1 hour of flight training with an authorized instructor on those
instructor and one flight performing the areas of operation specified in §61.311 in preparation for the
duties of pilot in command in a balloon practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the
with an authorized instructor in the areas month of the test.
of operation listed in §61.311,
(g) Powered parachute (1) 12 hours of flight time in a powered (i) 1 hour of cross-country flight training,
category land or sea class parachute, including 10 hours of flight (ii) 20 takeoffs and landings to a full stop in a powered parachute
privileges, training from an authorized instructor with each landing involving flight in the traffic pattern at an
in a powered parachute, and at least 2 airport;
hours of solo flight training in the areas of (iii) 10 solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing
operation listed in §61.311, involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport,
(iv) One solo flight with a landing at a different airport and one
segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at
least 10 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations,
and
(v) 1 hour of flight training with an authorized instructor on those
month of the test.
(h) Weight-shift-control aircraft (1) 20 hours of flight time, including 15 (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training;
category land or sea class hours of flight training from an authorized (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing
privileges, instructor in a weight-shift-control aircraft involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport,
and at least 5 hours of solo flight training (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total
in the areas of operation listed in §61.311, distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and
one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of
at least 25 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations,
and
month of the test.
xx ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Knowledge Exam References
The FAA references the following documents to write the FAA Knowledge Exam questions. You should
be familiar with all of these as part of your ground school studies, which you should complete before
starting test preparation:
FAA-G-8082-17 Recreational and Private Pilot Test Guide
FAA-H-8083-25 Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge
Sectional Aeronautical Chart (SAC)
FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook;

FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook; or
FAA-H-8083-21 Helicopter Flying Handbook
FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook
FAA-H-8083-11 Balloon Flying Handbook
FAA-S-8081-14 Private Pilot Airplane Practical Test Standards;

FAA-S-8081-3 Recreational Pilot Practical Test Standards; or
FAA-S-8081-15 Private Pilot Helicopter Practical Test Standards; or
FAA-S-8081-29, FAA-S-8081-31 Sport Pilot Practical Test Standards
Airport/Facility Directory
AC 00-6 Aviation Weather
AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services
AC 91-51 Effect of Icing on Aircraft Control and Airplane Deice and Anti-Ice Systems
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
14 CFR Parts 1, 61, 43, 71, 91
49 CFR Part 830 (NTSB)
Visit the ASA website for these and many more titles and pilot supplies for your aviation endeavors:
www.asa2fly.com
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xxi

ASA Test Prep Layout
The sample FAA questions have been sorted into chapters according to subject matter. Within
each chapter, the questions have been further classified and all similar questions grouped together with
a concise discussion of the material covered in each group. This discussion material of “Chapter text”
is printed in a larger font and spans the entire width of the page. Immediately following the sample FAA
Question is ASA’s Explanation in italics. The last line of the Explanation contains the Learning Statement
Code and further reference (if applicable). See the EXAMPLE below.
Figures referenced by the Chapter text only are numbered with the appropriate chapter number,
i.e., “Figure 1-1” is Chapter 1’s first chapter-text figure.
Some Questions refer to Figures or Legends immediately following the question number, i.e.,
“3201. (Refer to Figure 14.).” These are FAA Figures and Legends which can be found in the separate
booklet: Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement (CT-8080-XX). This supplement is bundled with the
Test Prep and is the exact material you will have access to when you take your computerized test. We
provide it separately, so you will become accustomed to referring to the FAA Figures and Legends as
you would during the test.
Figures referenced by the Explanation and pertinent to the understanding of that particular ques-
tion are labeled by their corresponding Question number. For example: the caption “Questions 3245
and 3248” means the figure accompanies the Explanations for both Question 3245 and 3248.
Answers to each question are found at the bottom of each page.
EXAMPLE: Chapter text
Four aerodynamic forces are considered to be basic because they act upon an aircraft during all flight
maneuvers. There is the downward-acting force called WEIGHT which must be overcome by the
upward-acting force called LIFT, and there is the rearward-acting force called DRAG, which must be
overcome by the forward-acting force called THRUST.
Category rating. This question may
be found on tests for these ratings.*
ALL, SPO
3201. (Refer to Figure 14.) The four forces acting on an
See separate book: Airman Knowledge
airplane in flight are
Testing Supplement (CT-8080-XX)
A— lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
B— lift, weight, gravity, and thrust. Question and answer choices
C— lift, gravity, power, and friction.
Lift, weight, thrust, and drag are the four basic Explanation
aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft in flight.
(PLT235) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because the force of gravity is always the same Code line. FAA Learning Statement
number and reacts with the airplane’s mass to produce a different Code in parentheses, followed by
weight for almost every airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect because references for further study.
weight is the final product of gravity, thrust is the final product of
power, and drag is the final product of friction. Power, gravity, and
friction are only parts of the aerodynamic forces of flight.
Incorrect answer explanation. Reasons why
answer choices are incorrect explained here.
* Note: The FAA does not ALL = All aircraft SPO = Sport Pilot (all aircraft categories)
identify which questions are AIR = Airplane LSA = Sport Pilot Airplane
on the different ratings’ tests. GLI = Glider LSG = Sport Pilot Glider
Unless the wording of a LTA = Lighter-Than-Air (applies to hot air balloon, gas balloon and airship) LSL = Sport Pilot Lighter-Than-Air
question is pertinent to only REC = Recreational LSP = Sport Pilot Powered Parachute
one rating category, it may be RTC = Rotorcraft (applies to both helicopter and gyroplane) LSR = Sport Pilot Rotorcraft
found on any of the tests. PPC = Powered Parachute LSW = Sport Pilot Weight-Shift-control
WSC = Weight-Shift Control
xxii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Opportunity Knocking: Become a Flight Instructor!
by Greg Brown, 2000 FAA/Industry Flight Instructor of the Year
“Wanted — enthusiastic, knowledgeable pilots for part-time, full-time, or freelance professional

flying. Lots of fun and adventure, highly respected position, and great learning experience. Age
no factor. Travel as much (or as little) as you like. Get paid to fly!”
Where do flight instructors come from? The most visible Certified Flight Instructors (CFIs) are often
the aspiring airline pilots who populate flight schools on their way to a jet cockpit. Despite occasional
concerns about “time-building,” the vast majority of those folks do a super job.
But the current airline hiring boom is soaking up flight instructors faster than they can be replaced,
and there’s no end in sight. That means fewer CFIs to provide the quality instruction we need in both
general and professional aviation.
Where can we find flight instructors with the commitment and long-term interest to meet the needs
of general aviation? The answer is that more CFIs must sprout from the enthusiastic general aviation
pilots we meet every day at the airport. You know, people like us, who find flying a 172, a Kitfox, or a
Baron to be a blast. Pilots who delight in doing a professional job of piloting even while sustaining other
full-time careers. Aviators who’d love a professional flying career, but who aren’t interested in flying the
“heavy iron.”
Me? An Instructor?
Many student and private pilots wonder about the feasibility of one day becoming a CFI. Well, with the
CFI shortage upon us and deepening rapidly, that ad up above has your name on it! Let’s consider why
becoming a flight instructor is a worthy mission for you to pursue right now.
We’ve already touched upon some reasons for becoming a CFI; demand is high, and your experience
and dedication can benefit the industry. But there are other great reasons to become a flight instructor.
First, the old adage, “the best way to master a subject is to teach it,” is most definitely true. As an
active CFI your knowledge and flight proficiency will rapidly exceed your greatest expectations as a
Private Pilot. By teaching others you will truly learn to fly as a pro.
Next comes the reward of setting goals and achieving them. Many of us find ourselves sitting at
home on a given day, thinking, “Gee, I wish there was a reason to go flying today.” Well, there is! Start
working toward that CFI and you’ve got a meaningful personal and professional objective to justify the
time, effort, and investment in continuing regular flying.
Then there’s the contribution to be made to the aviation community. Not only can you as a CFI per-
sonally impact the safety and proficiency of pilots you train, but there’s also the critically important role
CFIs serve in recruiting new blood to aviation. The vast majority of new pilots sign up through the direct
or indirect efforts of active CFIs, and we need your help carrying the flag.
Best of all, here’s your big chance to become an honest-to-goodness pro. Almost every active pilot
harbors the dream of flying professionally. But for many reasons — age, family and lifestyle considerations,
success in another occupation — only a certain percentage of pilots are in position to pursue, say, the
captain’s seat in a Boeing or a LearJet. Well here’s your opportunity to fly professionally under schedule
and conditions more or less of your own choosing, all while having someone pay you to do it.
Continued
© 2000 Gregory N. Brown, used by permission
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xxiii

What Does It Take to Qualify?
“But hold on a minute,” you say, “becoming a CFI takes years of full-time study, and many thousands of
flight hours, right?”
Not at all! With dedication and concentrated effort one can become a CFI relatively quickly. After
earning your Private Pilot certificate, it takes only three more steps to become a primary flight instruc-
tor: an Instrument rating, the Commercial Pilot certificate, and then the Flight Instructor certificate itself.
That’s certainly not a long path.
Recent regulations allow new Private Pilots to begin training for the instrument rating as soon as
they like. (All CFI applicants must be instrument rated, even if they never plan to fly IFR.) The Instrument
rating is roughly comparable in flight training hours to earning one’s Private certificate, and is something
many of us go on to earn anyway. As with the Private, FAA Knowledge (written) and Practical (oral and
flight) Tests are required. But once earning your instrument rating the route to flight instructor status can
be a quick one.
You’ll need some flight experience to be eligible for your Commercial Pilot Certificate —190 to 250
hours total flight time are required by the time you complete your training. But earning the rating itself
requires only a fraction of the effort required to earn a Private; it’s entirely feasible to earn your Com-
mercial in fifteen hours or less, if you set your mind to it. Again there are Knowledge and Practical tests
to pass, and then you’re ready to pursue your Flight Instructor Certificate.
There is no minimum training requirement for the Flight Instructor certificate itself, but it will prob-
ably take you some fifteen to twenty flight hours to earn, plus a good deal of ground instruction. Along
with Knowledge and Practical Tests there is an additional FAA written addressing, “Fundamentals of
Instruction.”
The oral portion of the CFI Practical Test is notoriously challenging, but what’s covered there is largely
material you’ve seen before, so keep sharp on the Private and Commercial Pilot material you’ve learned,
and you’ll have little trouble mastering the CFI tests. Of course teaching technique is an important ele-
ment of the test, too. If there’s one certificate where you should seek out a truly outstanding instructor,
the CFI is it.
As for flight physicals, CFIs fall into the most favorable regulatory status of almost any professional
pilot. With recent regulation changes, one can instruct with a third-class medical certificate, so if you
qualify medically for a student pilot certificate you can instruct. What’s more, some instruction can even
be conducted without a medical.
And other than the fact that you must be eighteen to earn your Commercial and therefore CFI Cer-
tificates, there are no age limits on instructing. This is one case where the experience and maturity of
older pilots is desirable and unrestricted. You’re a sixty-year-old student pilot? Cool! Move right along
and earn your CFI.
How Soon Can I Become an Instructor?

Before we get on with more privileges and benefits of instructing, here are a few tips to speed you along
the path. First, many people don’t realize that they can become certificated as Ground Instructors —
teaching ground school and signing off applicants for their FAA Knowledge Exams — simply by passing
several FAA written tests. That means you can start your instructing career almost immediately! Not
only will ground instructing help pay for your flight training, but it’s great preparation for flight instructing.
And for those who plan to knock off their Commercial and CFI certificates in short order, here’s a
little trick to accelerate your progress. Arrange with your CFI and pilot examiner to train for and take your
Commercial Pilot Practical Test from the right seat. That way your right-seat flying skills will already be
nailed when you dive into CFI training — doing it this way could save you five or even ten hours of train-
ing. Ask at your flight school about the details for your situation.
xxiv ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

What Are the Privileges and Benefits of Being a CFI?
Your initial Flight Instructor certificate will allow you to train Private and Commercial Pilot applicants
through to their certificates, and also authorize you to perform flight reviews. (Imagine, you giving the
flight review!) Additional instructor ratings, such as instrument, multiengine, and those for other aircraft
categories such as glider and helicopter, are relatively easy to add if you have journeyman skills in the
ratings sought.
The really great news is that given today’s demand for flight instructors, you can be assured of
employability in most locations the moment you earn your temporary CFI certificate, and you’ll likely
have your choice of whether to do it full-time or part-time, or in some cases, as a freelancer.
Okay, now lets talk about the “get paid to fly” part. In the past, earnings have often been pretty limited
for full-time flight instructors, depending on location, employer, number of students and other factors. But
with the developing CFI shortage, instructor pay and benefits are rapidly going up. If you want to pursue
a full-time instructing career, excellent positions are now to be had around the country.
However, a great many CFIs choose to join the many part-timers and freelancers around the country
who ply their trade in a professional manner, and contribute beyond their numbers to the well-being of
general aviation. Many of those folks work other jobs, flying and non-flying, and instruct strictly for the
fun and personal reward of it. When you look at instructing as a part-time activity that supports your fly-
ing and that of others, it’s a pretty darned good deal.
First, instructing gets you up in the air on a regular basis at a price anyone can afford — free. Many
part-time CFIs reinvest their instructing income into a fund for personal flying, yielding a good return in
both professional and pleasure flying. Other not-so-obvious instructor benefits include discounts on aircraft
rental, lower insurance premiums for aircraft owners, and broader insurability in the planes you fly.
Did you realize that as a CFI you get to log all the time flown by your students as PIC time? And as
an instrument instructor the approaches flown by your students are often loggable for your own currency,
too. What’s more, each of those ratings you earn in the process of becoming a flight instructor — the IFR,
the Commercial, and your CFI — count as flight reviews. That’s the money-saving bureaucratic stuff. The
important part is that you’ll be sharp far beyond what flight reviews could do for you in themselves, and
it all comes in the course of business without the need for lots of currency flights.
Instruct well and charge appropriately for your services, and you can generate some pretty good
part-time income at this business. That also raises the possibility of deducting many flying expenses
from your income taxes, including charts, headsets, recurrent training, your flight physical, and some or
all flight training expenses. (Talk to your accountant for the official word on your situation.)
Now for the most important and rewarding reason to become a flight instructor — people. As a CFI
you’re going to meet many, many fine individuals from all walks of life who share your dream of flying.
It will be you who introduces them to the special fraternity of aviators, you who delivers them the key to
flight on their own, and you who conveys the skills and knowledge to help them fly safely and enjoyably
with their thousands of future passengers. Your words will be riding with them many years in the future
at times when they need you most.
Join the illustrious ranks of flight instructors. Whether you’re eighteen, or beginning a new life after
retirement; whether you’re a schoolteacher with summers available, or looking to change careers alto-
gether, we need you! No one cares whether you wear glasses or not, and the skies are yours to own in
everything from ultralights to jets.
Just bring along your passion, your life experience, and some dedication. Here’s your big chance to
experience the ultimate thrill of flying, all from the seat with the world’s greatest view — the spectacular
high of opening doors of flight to yet another generation of pilots. Carpe diem! Become a CFI!
Portions of this material first appeared in Flight Training magazine. Greg Brown is the author of The Savvy Flight
Instructor: Secrets of the Successful CFI, published by ASA.
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xxv

xxvi ASA Private Pilot Test Prep
Chapter 1
Basic Aerodynamics
Aerodynamic Terms 1 – 3
Axes of Rotation and the Four Forces Acting in Flight 1 – 6
Lift 1 – 7
Weight 1 – 7
Thrust 1 – 7
Drag 1 – 8
Stability 1 – 10
Turns, Loads, and Load Factors 1 – 12
Maneuvers 1 – 15
Rectangular Course 1 – 15
Turns Around a Point 1 – 16
S-Turns 1 – 16
Stalls and Spins 1 – 18
Flaps 1 – 19
Ground Effect 1 – 20
Wake Turbulence 1 – 22
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 1

1 – 2 ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Aerodynamic Terms
An airfoil is a structure or body which produces a useful reaction to air movement. Airplane wings,
helicopter rotor blades, and propellers are airfoils. See Figure 1-1.
The chord line is an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil.
See Figure 1-2. Changing the shape of an airfoil (by lowering flaps, for example) will change the chord
line. See Figure 1-3.
In aerodynamics, relative wind is the wind felt by an airfoil. It is created by the movement of air
past an airfoil, by the motion of an airfoil through the air, or by a combination of the two. Relative wind
is parallel and in the opposite direction to the flight path of the airfoil. See Figure 1-4.
Continued
Figure 1-1. A typical airfoil cross-section
Figure 1-3. Changing shape of wing changes the

chord line
Figure 1-2. Chord line
Figure 1-4. Relative wind

The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the relative wind. By
manipulating the aircraft controls, the pilot can vary the angle of attack. See Figure 1-5.
The angle of incidence is the angle at which a wing is attached to the aircraft fuselage. The airplane
pilot has no control over the angle of incidence. See Figure 1-6. The angle of incidence changes for a
powered parachute based on the design, and is controlled by the pilot on a weight-shift control aircraft.
Figure 1-6. Angle of incidence
ALL
3203. (Refer to Figure 1.) The acute angle A is the
angle of
A— incidence.
B— attack.
C— dihedral.
The angle of attack is the acute angle between the

relative wind and the chord line of the wing. (PLT168)
— FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because the angle of incidence is the angle
formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the dihedral is the upward angle of
the airplane’s wings with respect to the horizontal.
ALL, SPO
3204. The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle
A— between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
B— between the airplane’s climb angle and the
horizon.
C— formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane
Figure 1-5. Angle of attack and the chord line of the wing.
The angle of attack is the acute angle between the

relative wind and the chord line of the wing. (PLT168)
— FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no specific aviation term
for this. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the definition of the
angle of incidence.
Answers
3203 [B] 3204 [A]

ALL SPO
3204-1. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil 2225. The angle of attack at which an airfoil stalls will
and the relative wind is known as the angle of A— increase if the CG is moved forward.
A— lift. B— remain the same regardless of gross weight.
B— attack. C— change with an increase in gross weight.
C— incidence.
When the angle of attack is increased to between 18°
The angle of attack is the acute angle between the chord and 20° (critical angle of attack) on most airfoils, the
line of the wing and the direction of the relative wind. airstream can no longer follow the upper curvature of
(PLT168) — FAA-H-8083-25 the wing because of the excessive change in direc-
Answer (A) is incorrect because the angle of lift is not an aerody- tion. The airfoil will stall if the critical angle of attack is
namic term used in aviation. Answer (C) is incorrect because the exceeded. The indicated airspeed at which stall occurs
angle between the chordline of an airfoil and the longitudinal axis of will be determined by weight and load factor, but the stall
an aircraft is known as the angle of incidence.
angle of attack is the same. (PLT477) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because an airfoil will always stall
at the same angle of attack, regardless of the CG position or gross
ALL
weight.
3317. Angle of attack is defined as the angle between
the chord line of an airfoil and the
A— direction of the relative wind. SPO
B— pitch angle of an airfoil. 2225-1. What is the effect of advancing the throttle in
C— rotor plane of rotation. flight?
A— Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will
The angle of attack is the angle between the chord increase.
line of the airfoil and the direction of the relative wind. B— Airspeed will remain relatively constant but the
(PLT168) — FAA-H-8083-21 aircraft will climb.
C— The aircraft will accelerate, which will cause a
turn to the right.
During straight-and-level flight, if the angle of attack is

not coordinated (decreased) with an increase of thrust,
the aircraft will climb. (PLT132) — FAA-H-8083-25A
Answers
3204-1 [B] 3317 [A] 2225 [B] 2225-1 [B]

Axes of Rotation and the Four Forces Acting in Flight

Aircraft have three axes of rotation: the lateral axis, longitudinal axis, and the vertical axis. See Figure 1‑7.
The lateral axis is an imaginary line from wing tip to wing tip for an airplane. The rotation around this
axis is called pitch. Pitch is controlled by the elevators, and this rotation is referred to as longitudinal
control or longitudinal stability. See Figure 1-8.
The longitudinal axis is an imaginary line from the nose to the tail. Rotation around the longitudinal
axis is called roll. Roll is controlled by the ailerons, and this rotation is referred to as lateral control or
lateral stability. See Figure 1-9.
The vertical axis is an imaginary line extending vertically through the intersection of the lateral and
longitudinal axes. Rotation about the vertical axis is called yaw. Yaw is controlled by the rudder, and this
rotation is referred to as directional control or directional stability. See Figure 1-10.
The center of gravity (the imaginary point where all the weight is concentrated) is the point at which
an airplane would balance if it were suspended at that point. The three axes intersect at the center of
gravity. Weight-shift control and powered parachutes rotate around this center of gravity.
Figure 1-7. Axes of rotation Figure 1-8. Effect of elevators
Figure 1-10. Effect of rudder
Figure 1-9. Effect of ailerons

Four aerodynamic forces are considered to

be basic because they act upon an aircraft during
all flight maneuvers: there is the downward-acting
force called weight which must be overcome by
the upward-acting force called lift; and there is the
rearward-acting force called drag, which must be
overcome by the forward-acting force called thrust.
See Figure 1-11.
Lift
Air is a gas which can be compressed or expanded.
When compressed, more air can occupy a given Figure 1-11. Relationship of forces in flight
volume and air density is increased. When allowed
to expand, air occupies a greater space and density is decreased. Temperature, atmospheric pressure,
and humidity all affect air density. Air density has significant effects on an aircraft’s performance.
As the velocity of a fluid (gas or liquid) increases, its pressure decreases. This is known as Bernoulli’s
Principle. See Figure 1-12.
Lift is the result of a pressure difference between the top and the bottom of the wing. A wing is
designed to accelerate air over the top camber of the wing, thereby decreasing the pressure on the top
and producing lift. See Figure 1-13.
Several factors are involved in the creation of lift: angle of attack, wing area and shape (planform),
air velocity, and air density. All of these factors have an effect on the amount of lift produced at any given
moment. The pilot can actively control the angle of attack and the airspeed, and increasing either of
these will result in an increase in lift.
Figure 1-12. Flow of air through a constriction

Figure 1-13. Development of lift
Weight
Weight is the force with which gravity attracts all bodies vertically toward the center of the earth.
Thrust
Thrust is the forward force which is produced by the propeller acting as an airfoil to displace a large
mass of air to the rear.

Drag
Drag is a rearward-acting force which resists the
forward movement of an airplane through the air.
Drag may be classified into two main types: para-
site drag and induced drag.
Parasite drag is the resistance of the air pro-
duced by any part of an airplane that does not
produce lift (antennae, landing gear, etc.). Parasite
drag will increase as airspeed increases.
Induced drag is a by-product of lift. In other
words, drag is induced as the wing develops lift.
The high-pressure air beneath the wing, which is
trying to flow around and over the wing tips into
the area of low pressure, causes a vortex behind
the wing tip. This vortex induces a spanwise flow
and creates vortices all along the trailing edge
of the wing. As the angle of attack is increased Figure 1-14. Drag curve diagram
(up to the critical angle), lift will increase and so
will the vortices and downwash. This downwash redirects the lift vector rearward, causing a rearward
component of lift (induced drag). Induced drag will increase as airspeed decreases. See Figure 1-14.
During unaccelerated (straight-and-level) flight, the four aerodynamic forces which act on an airplane
are said to be in equilibrium, or:
Lift = Weight and Thrust = Drag
ALL ALL
3201-1. Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle? 3201. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
A— For every action there is an equal and opposite A— lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
reaction. B— lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
B— An additional upward force is generated as the C— lift, gravity, power, and friction.
lower surface of the wing deflects air downward.
C— Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface Lift, weight, thrust, and drag are the four basic aero-
of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top dynamic forces acting on an aircraft in flight. (PLT242)
surface. — FAA-H-8083-25
Bernoulli’s principle states in part that the pressure of a

fluid (liquid or gas) decreases at points where the speed AIR
of the fluid increases. In other words, high-speed flow is 3213. What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
associated with low pressure, and low-speed flow with A— To control yaw.
high pressure. Air traveling faster over the curved upper B— To control overbanking tendency.
surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top C— To control roll.
surface. (PLT025) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because these refer to Newton’s The purpose of the rudder is to control yaw. (PLT234)
Third Law of Motion. — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because the ailerons control overbanking.
Answer (C) is incorrect because roll is controlled by the ailerons.
Answers
3201-1 [C] 3201 [A] 3213 [A]

AIR, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP
3205. What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and 2229. Climb performance depends upon the
weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight? A— reserve power or thrust.
A— Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. B— maximum L/D ratio.
B— Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust. C— cruise power setting.
C— Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.
Climb depends upon the reserve power or thrust.
Lift and thrust are considered positive forces, while Reserve power is the available power over and above
weight and drag are considered negative forces and the that required to maintain horizontal flight at a given
sum of the opposing forces is zero. That is, lift = weight speed. (PLT125) — FAA-H-8083-25
and thrust = drag. (PLT235) — FAA-H-8083-25
LSA, LSG, LSW

AIR, GLI, WSC, PPC 2215. (Refer to Figure 73.) The horizontal dashed line
3202. When are the four forces that act on an airplane from point C to point E represents the
in equilibrium? A— ultimate load factor.
A— During unaccelerated flight. B— positive limit load factor.
B— When the aircraft is accelerating. C— airspeed range for normal operations.
C— When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.
C to E is the maximum positive load limit. In this case
In unaccelerated (steady state) flight the opposing forces it is 3.8 Gs, which is appropriate for normal category
are in equilibrium. (PLT242) — FAA-H-8083-25 airplanes. (PLT074) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because thrust must exceed drag in order for Answer (A) is incorrect because “ultimate load factor” is not a real
the airplane to accelerate. Answer (C) is incorrect because when the term; it is not depicted in the figure. Answer (C) is incorrect because
airplane is at rest on the ground, the only aerodynamic force acting this is depicted by the vertical line from point A to point J, to the verti-
on it is weight. cal line from point D to point G.
LSA, LSG, LSW LSA, LSG, LSW

2239. The best speed to use for a glide is one that will 2216. (Refer to Figure 73.) The vertical dashed line
result in the greatest glide distance for a given amount of from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed
A— altitude. indicator by the
B— fuel. A— upper limit of the yellow arc.
C— drag. B— upper limit of the green arc.
C— blue radial line.
The best speed for the glide is one at which the airplane
will travel the greatest forward distance for a given loss VNE (never exceed airspeed), the vertical line from point
of altitude in still air. This best glide speed corresponds E to F, is marked on airspeed indicators with a red radial
to an angle of attack resulting in the least drag on the line, the upper limit of the yellow arc. (PLT074) — FAA-
airplane and giving the best lift-to-drag ratio (L/DMAX). H-8083-25
(PLT257) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answers
3205 [A] 3202 [A] 2239 [A] 2229 [A] 2215 [B] 2216 [A]

Stability
Stability is the inherent ability of an airplane to return, or not return, to its original flight condition after
being disturbed by an outside force, such as rough air.
Positive static stability is the initial tendency of an aircraft to return or not return to its original posi-
tion. See Figure 1-15.
Positive dynamic stability is the tendency of an oscillating airplane (with positive static stability) to
return to its original position relative to time. See Figure 1-16.
Aircraft design normally ensures that the aircraft will be stable in pitch. The pilot can adversely affect
this longitudinal stability by allowing the center of gravity (CG) to move forward or aft of specified CG
limits through improper loading procedures. One undesirable
flight characteristic a pilot might experience in an airplane
loaded with the CG located aft of the aft CG limit would be
the inability to recover from a stalled condition.
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift
(CL) will determine the longitudinal stability of an airplane.
See Figure 1-17.
An airplane will be less stable at all airspeeds if it is loaded
to the most aft CG. An advantage of an airplane said to be
inherently stable is that it will require less effort to control.
Changes in pitch can also be experienced with changes
in power settings (except in T-tail airplanes). When power is
reduced, there is a corresponding reduction in downwash on
the tail, which results in the nose “pitching” down.
A properly designed weight-shift control is stable because
the center of lift is above the CG. Slower than trim, the cen-
ter of lift moves aft. Faster than trim, the center of lift moves
forward to make the aircraft stable.
Powered parachutes are stable because the center of
gravity is well below the wing, creating pendulum stability. Figure 1-15. Static stability
Figure 1-16. Positive static stability relative to dynamic stability

stability. The farther forward the CG is, the more stable

the airplane. (PLT213) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because the rudder and rudder trim tab
control the yaw. Answer (C) is incorrect because the relationship of
thrust and lift to weight and drag affects speed and altitude.
AIR, GLI
3212. What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch
nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not
adjusted?
A— The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are
reduced.
B— The downwash on the elevators from the
propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator
effectiveness is reduced.
C— When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift
is also reduced and the wings can no longer
Figure 1-17. Effect of CG on airplane stability support the weight.
The location of the center of gravity with respect to the

AIR, GLI, LSA, LSR, LSG, LSW, LSP
center of lift determines to a great extent the longitudinal
3210. An airplane said to be inherently stable will stability of an airplane. Center of gravity aft of the center
A— be difficult to stall. of lift will result in an undesirable pitch-up moment during
B— require less effort to control. flight. An airplane with the center of gravity forward of
C— not spin. the center of lift will pitch down when power is reduced.
This will increase the airspeed and the downward force
A stable airplane will tend to return to the original condi- on the elevators. This increased downward force on
tion of flight if disturbed by a force such as turbulent air. the elevators will bring the nose up, providing positive
This means that a stable airplane is easy to fly. (PLT213) stability. The farther forward the CG is, the more stable
— FAA-H-8083-25 the airplane. (PLT351) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because stability of an airplane has an effect Answer (A) is incorrect because the CG is not affected by changes
on its stall recovery, not the difficulty of stall entry. Answer (C) is in thrust or drag. Answer (C) is incorrect because thrust and weight
incorrect because an inherently stable aircraft can still spin. have a small relationship to each other, unless thrust is opposite
weight, as in the case of jet fighters and space shuttles.
AIR, GLI
3211. What determines the longitudinal stability of an AIR, GLI, WSC
airplane? 3287. An airplane has been loaded in such a manner
A— The location of the CG with respect to the center that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One unde-
of lift. sirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with
B— The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, this airplane would be
rudder, and rudder trim tab. A— a longer takeoff run.
C— The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and B— difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
drag. C— stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.
The location of the center of gravity with respect to the Loading in a tail-heavy condition can reduce the air-
center of lift determines to a great extent the longitudinal plane’s ability to recover from stalls and spins. Tail-heavy
stability of an airplane. Center of gravity aft of the center loading also produces very light stick forces, making it
of lift will result in an undesirable pitch-up moment during easy for the pilot to inadvertently overstress the airplane.
flight. An airplane with the center of gravity forward of (PLT003) — FAA-H-8083-25
the center of lift will pitch down when power is reduced. Answer (A) is incorrect because an airplane with an aft CG has less
This will increase the airspeed and the downward force drag from a reduction in horizontal stabilizer lift, resulting in a short
takeoff run. Answer (C) is incorrect because an airplane with an aft
on the elevators. This increased downward force on CG flies at a lower angle of attack, resulting in a lower stall speed.
the elevators will bring the nose up, providing positive
Answers
3210 [B] 3211 [A] 3212 [B] 3287 [B]

AIR, GLI AIR, GLI, WSC

3288. Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause 3211-1. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing
the airplane to be affect the aircraft’s
A— less stable at all speeds. A— lift/drag ratio.
B— less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at B— lifting capacity.
high speeds. C— aerodynamic balance and controllability.
C— less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low
speeds. The center of pressure of an asymmetrical airfoil moves
forward as the angle of attack is increased, and backward
Loading in a tail-heavy condition can reduce the air- as the angle of attack is decreased. This backward and
plane’s ability to recover from stalls and spins. Tail-heavy forward movement of the point at which lift acts, affects
loading also produces very light stick forces at all speeds, the aerodynamic balance and the controllability of the
making it easy for the pilot to inadvertently overstress aircraft. (PLT214) — FAA-H-8083-25
the airplane. (PLT328) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answer (A) is incorrect because the lift/drag ratio is determined by
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because an aft CG location the angle of attack. Answer (B) is incorrect because lifting capacity
causes an aircraft to be less stable at all airspeeds, due to less is determined by angle of attack and airspeed.
elevator effectiveness.
Turns, Loads, and Load Factors

When an airplane is banked into a turn, a portion of the vertical lift being developed is diverted into a
horizontal lift component. It is this horizontal (sideward) force that forces the airplane from straight-
and-level flight and causes it to turn. The reduced vertical lift component results in a loss of altitude
unless total lift is increased by increasing angle of attack, increasing airspeed, or increasing both. See
Figure 1-18.
In aerodynamics, load is the force (imposed stress) that must be supported by an airplane structure
in flight. The loads imposed on the wings in flight are stated in terms of load factor.
In straight-and-level flight, the wings of an airplane support a load equal to the sum of the weight of
the airplane plus its contents. This particular load factor is equal to “One G,” where “G” refers to the pull
of gravity.
However, a force called centrifugal force is generated which acts toward the outside of the curve
any time an airplane is flying a curved path (turns, climbs, or descents).
Whenever the airplane is flying in a curved flight path with a positive load, the load that the wings must
support will be equal to the weight of the airplane plus the load imposed by centrifugal force; therefore,
it can be said that turns increase the load factor on an airplane.
As the angle of bank of a turn increases, the load factor increases, as is shown in Figure 1-19.
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends on the speed of
the airplane. An example of this would be a change in direction made at high speed with forceful control
movement, which results in a high load factor being imposed.
An increased load factor (weight) will cause an airplane to stall at a higher airspeed, as shown in
Figure 1-20.
Some conditions that increase the weight (load) of an aircraft are: overloading the airplane, too steep
an angle of bank, turbulence and abrupt movement of the controls.
Because different types of operations require different maneuvers (and therefore varying bank angles
and load factors), aircraft are separated into categories determined by the loads that their wing structures
can support:
Answers
3288 [A] 3211-1 [C]

Level flight Medium banked turn Steeply banked turn
component
Vertical
component
Vertical
To
ta
Tota
l lif
Lift
t
l lift
Centrifugal
Horizontal force
component Centrifugal
force
Horizontal
component
R
Res
es
ul
Weight
Weight
Weight
ta
ult
nt
ant
lo
ad
load
Figure 1-18. Forces during normal coordinated turn
Figure 1-19. Increase in load on wings as angle of bank increases
Category Positive Limit Load

Normal.....................................3.8 times gross wt.
(nonacrobatic) (N)
Utility .......................................4.4 times gross wt.
(normal operations
and limited acrobatic
maneuvers)
Acrobatic..................................6.0 times gross wt.
(A)
The limit loads should not be exceeded in

actual operation, even though a safety factor
of 50% above limit loads is incorporated in the
strength of the airplane.
ASTM consensus standards determine similar
load limits for light-sport aircraft.
Figure 1-20. Effect of angle of bank on stall speed

AIR, WSC, PPC AIR, WSC, PPC

3214. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 3216. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 4,500
pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane
structure be required to support during a 60° banked structure be required to support during a 45° banked
turn while maintaining altitude? turn while maintaining altitude?
A— 2,300 pounds. A— 4,500 pounds.
B— 3,400 pounds. B— 6,750 pounds.
C— 4,600 pounds. C— 7,200 pounds.
Referencing FAA Figure 2, use the following steps: Referencing FAA Figure 2, use the following steps:
1. Enter the chart at a 60° angle of bank and proceed 1. Enter the chart at a 45° angle of bank and proceed
upward to the curved reference line. From the point upward to the curved reference line. From the point
of intersection, move to the left side of the chart and of intersection, move to the left side of the chart and
read a load factor of 2 Gs. read a load factor of 1.5 Gs.
2. Multiply the aircraft weight by the load factor: 2. Multiply the aircraft weight by the load factor.
2,300 x 2 = 4,600 lbs 4,500 x 1.5 = 6,750 lbs
Or, working from the table: Or, working from the table:
2,300 x 2.0 (load factor) = 4,600 lbs 4,500 x 1.414 (load factor) = 6,363 lbs
(PLT309) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answer B is the closest.
(PLT309) — FAA-H-8083-25
AIR, WSC, PPC
3215. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 AIR, WSC
pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane 3217. The amount of excess load that can be imposed
structure be required to support during a 30° banked on the wing of an airplane depends upon the
turn while maintaining altitude?
A— position of the CG.
A— 1,200 pounds. B— speed of the airplane.
B— 3,100 pounds. C— abruptness at which the load is applied.
C— 3,960 pounds.
At slow speeds, the maximum available lifting force of
Referencing FAA Figure 2, use the following steps: the wing is only slightly greater than the amount neces-
1. Enter the chart at a 30° angle of bank and proceed sary to support the weight of the airplane. However, at
upward to the curved reference line. From the point high speeds, the capacity of the elevator controls, or a
of intersection, move to the left side of the chart and strong gust, may increase the load factor beyond safe
read an approximate load factor of 1.2 Gs. limits. (PLT311) — FAA-H-8083-25
2. Multiply the aircraft weight by the load factor: Answer (A) is incorrect because the position of the CG affects the
stability of the airplane, but not the total load the wings can support.
3,300 x 1.2 = 3,960 lbs Answer (C) is incorrect because abrupt control inputs do not limit
load.
Or, working from the table:
3,300 x 1.154 (load factor) = 3,808 lbs
Answer C is the closest.
(PLT309) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because they are less than 3,300
pounds; load factor increases with bank for level flight.
Answers
3214 [C] 3215 [C] 3216 [B] 3217 [B]

AIR, WSC, PPC AIR, GLI, WSC, PPC

3218. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load 3301. What force makes an airplane turn?
factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level A— The horizontal component of lift.
flight? B— The vertical component of lift.
A— Climbs. C— Centrifugal force.
B— Turns.
C— Stalls. As the airplane is banked, lift acts horizontally as well
as vertically and the airplane is pulled around the turn.
A change in speed during straight flight will not produce (PLT242) — FAA-H-8083-3
any appreciable change in load, but when a change is Answer (B) is incorrect because the vertical component of lift has no
made in the airplane’s flight path, an additional load is horizontal force to make the airplane turn. Answer (C) is incorrect
imposed upon the airplane structure. This is particularly because the centrifugal force acts against the horizontal component
of lift.
true if a change in direction is made at high speeds with
rapid, forceful control movements. (PLT309) — FAA-H-
8083-25 AIR, GLI, WSC
Answer (A) is incorrect because the load increases only as the angle 3316. During an approach to a stall, an increased load
of attack is changed, momentarily. Once the climb attitude has been
set, the wings only carry the load produced by the weight of the
factor will cause the airplane to
aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because in a stall, the wings are not A— stall at a higher airspeed.
producing lift.
B— have a tendency to spin.
C— be more difficult to control.
Stall speed increases in proportion to the square root of

the load factor. Thus, with a load factor of 4, an aircraft
will stall at a speed which is double the normal stall
speed. (PLT312) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because an airplane’s tendency to spin does
not relate to an increase in load factors. Answer (C) is incorrect
because an airplane’s stability determines its controllability.
Answers
3218 [B] 3301 [A] 3316 [A]

Maneuvers
Rectangular Course
For best results when planning a rectangular course, the flight path should be positioned outside the
field boundaries just far enough that they may be easily observed from either pilot seat by looking out
the side of the airplane. The closer the track of the airplane is to the field boundaries, the steeper the
bank necessary at the turning points. See Figure 1-21.
Turns Around a Point

When flying turns around a point, the wings will be in alignment with the pylon only during the time the
airplane is flying directly upwind or directly downwind. At all other points, a wind correction angle will
keep the wings from pointing directly at the pylon.
If the student is instructed to not exceed a 45° bank in a turn around a point maneuver, the best place
to start is the point where the bank angle will be steepest, which is when flying downwind. Throughout
the remainder of the maneuver, the bank will be shallowing out.
The ground speed will be equal where the airplane is flying with the same headwind component. The
angle of bank will be the same only where the airplane is flying directly crosswind. See Figure 1-22.
Figure 1-21. Rectangular Course

S-Turns
In a steep turn, the ground speed will be the same
when the airplane has the same headwind com-
ponent. The steepest angle of bank is required at
the points where the airplane is flying downwind.
The airplane will have to be crabbed into the wind
the greatest amount where it is flying crosswind.
In the first half of an S-turn, the bank should
begin shallow and increase in steepness as the
airplane turns crosswind, and become steepest
where the turn is downwind. If the turn is started
with too steep a bank angle, the bank will increase
too rapidly and the upwind half of the “S” will be
smaller than the downwind half. The turn will not
be completed by the time the airplane is over the
reference line. See Figure 1-23.
Figure 1-22. Turns around a point
Figure 1-23. S-Turns

ALL, SPO AIR, GLI, WSC, PPC

3202-1. Select the four flight fundamentals involved in 3202-4. If an emergency situation requires a downwind
maneuvering an aircraft. landing, pilots should expect a faster
A— Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim. A— airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and
B— Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing. better control throughout the landing roll.
C— Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and B— groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll,
descents. and the likelihood of overshooting the desired
touchdown point.
The four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an C— groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll,
aircraft are: straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and and the likelihood of undershooting the desired
descents. (PLT219) — FAA-H-8083-3 touchdown point.
A downwind landing, using the same airspeed as is

ALL used on a normal upwind landing, will result in a higher
3202-2. (Refer to Figure 63.) In flying the rectangular approach ground speed, with the likelihood of overshoot-
course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90°? ing the desired touchdown point. The ground speed at
A— Corners 1 and 4. touchdown will be higher than normal, and the ground
B— Corners 1 and 2. roll will be longer. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-3
C— Corners 2 and 4. Answer (A) is incorrect because the airspeed will be the same, and
the control throughout the landing roll will be less due to the higher
The airplane will turn less than 90 degrees at corners 1 ground speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because the ground roll will
be longer, and there will be a greater likelihood of overshooting the
and 4. At corner 1, the airplane turns to a heading that touchdown point.
is crabbed into the wind, which makes the turn less than
90 degrees. At corner 4, the airplane is crabbed into the
wind when the turn is started, and the turn will be less AIR
than 90 degrees. (PLT219) — FAA-H-8083-3 3202-5. When executing an emergency approach to land
in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a
constant glide speed because variations in glide speed
ALL
3202-3. (Refer to Figure 67.) While practicing S-turns,
A— increase the chances of shock cooling the engine.
a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of B— assure the proper descent angle is maintained
the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed until entering the flare.
before crossing the road or reference line. This would C— nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of
most likely occur in turn gliding distance and landing spot.
A— 1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly A constant gliding speed should be maintained because
during the latter part of the turn. variations of gliding speed nullify all attempts at accuracy
B— 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly in judgment of gliding distance and the landing spot.
during the early part of the turn. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-3A
C— 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly
during the latter part of the turn.
In the half of an S-turn labeled 4-5-6, the bank should

begin shallow and increase in steepness as the airplane
turns crosswind and become steepest at point 6 where
the turn is downwind. If the turn at point 4 is started
with too steep a bank angle, the bank will increase too
rapidly, and the upwind half of the S will be smaller than
the downwind half. The turn will not be completed by the
time the airplane is over the reference line. (PLT219)
— FAA-H-8083-3
Answers
3202-1 [C] 3202-2 [A] 3202-3 [B] 3202-4 [B] 3202-5 [C]

Stalls and Spins

As the angle of attack is increased (to increase lift), the air will no longer flow smoothly over the upper
wing surface but instead will become turbulent or “burble” near the trailing edge. A further increase in the
angle of attack will cause the turbulent area to expand forward. At an angle of attack of approximately
18° to 20° (for most wings), turbulence over the upper wing surface decreases lift so drastically that flight
can not be sustained and the wing stalls. See Figure 1-24.
The angle at which a stall occurs is called the critical angle of attack. An airplane can stall at any
airspeed or any attitude, but will always stall at the same critical angle of attack. The indicated airspeed at
which a given airplane will stall in a particular con-
figuration, however, will remain the same regard-
less of altitude. Because air density decreases
with an increase in altitude, the airplane has to be
flown faster at higher altitudes to cause the same
pressure difference between pitot impact pressure
and static pressure.
An aircraft will spin only after it has stalled, and
will continue to spin as long as the outside wing
continues to provide more lift than the inside wing
and the aircraft remains stalled. Figure 1-24. Flow of air over wing at various
angles of attack
AIR, GLI, WSC, PPC SPO

3263. As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at 2233. The direct cause of every stall is excessive
which a given airplane stalls in a particular configura- A— angle of attack.
tion will B— density altitude.
A— decrease as the true airspeed decreases. C— upward vertical velocity.
B— decrease as the true airspeed increases.
C— remain the same regardless of altitude. The direct cause of every stall is an excessive angle of
attack. There are any number of flight maneuvers that
An increase in altitude has no effect on the indicated may produce an increase in the angle of attack, but the
airspeed at which an airplane stalls at altitudes normally stall does not occur until the angle of attack becomes
used by general aviation aircraft. This means that the excessive. (PLT477) — FAA-H-8083-25
same indicated airspeed should be maintained during
the landing approach regardless of the elevation or the
density altitude at the airport of landing. (PLT477) — AIR, GLI
FAA-H-8083-25 3309. In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed
Answer (A) is incorrect because true airspeed does not decrease in order to spin?
with increased altitude, and indicated airspeed at which an airplane A— Partially stalled with one wing low.
stalls does not change. Answer (B) is incorrect because the indi-
cated airspeed of the stall does not decrease with increased altitude. B— In a steep diving spiral.
C— Stalled.
A spin results when a sufficient degree of rolling or yaw-

ing control input is imposed on an airplane in the stalled
condition. If the wing is not stalled, a spin cannot occur.
(PLT245) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answer (A) is incorrect because the aircraft must be at a full stall
in order to spin. Answer (B) is incorrect because an airplane is not
necessarily stalled when in a steep diving spiral.
Answers
3263 [C] 2233 [A] 3309 [C]

AIR, GLI AIR, GLI, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSG, LSW, LSP
3310. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are 3311. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing
stalled? stalls will
A— Both wings are stalled. A— increase if the CG is moved forward.
B— Neither wing is stalled. B— change with an increase in gross weight.
C— Only the left wing is stalled. C— remain the same regardless of gross weight.
One wing is less stalled than the other, but both wings When the angle of attack is increased to between 18°
are stalled in a spin. (PLT245) — FAA-H-8083-3 and 20° (critical angle of attack) on most airfoils, the
Answer (B) is incorrect because both wings must be stalled through airstream can no longer follow the upper curvature of
the spin. Answer (C) is incorrect because both wings are stalled; but the wing because of the excessive change in direction.
the right wing is less fully stalled than the left. The airplane will stall if the critical angle of attack is
exceeded. The indicated airspeed at which stall occurs
will be determined by weight and load factor, but the stall
angle of attack is the same. (PLT168) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because an airplane will always
stall at the same angle of attack, regardless of the CG position or
gross weight.
Flaps
Extending the flaps increases the wing camber
and the angle of attack of a wing. This increases
wing lift and also increases induced drag. See
Figure 1-25.
The increased drag enables the pilot to make
steeper approaches to a landing, without an
increase in airspeed. VFR approaches to a landing
at night should be made the same as during the Figure 1-25. Use of flaps increases lift and drag
daytime.
AIR, GLI AIR, GLI

3219. One of the main functions of flaps during approach 3220. What is one purpose of wing flaps?
and landing is to A— To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches
A— decrease the angle of descent without increasing to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
the airspeed. B— To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous
B— permit a touchdown at a higher indicated pressure on the controls.
airspeed. C— To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
C— increase the angle of descent without increasing
the airspeed. Flaps increase drag, allowing the pilot to make steeper
approaches without increasing airspeed. (PLT473) —
Flaps increase drag, allowing the pilot to make steeper FAA-H-8083-25
approaches without increasing airspeed. (PLT473) — Answer (B) is incorrect because trim tabs help relieve control pres-
FAA-H-8083-25 sures. Answer (C) is incorrect because wing area usually remains
the same, except for certain specialized flaps which increase the
Answer (A) is incorrect because extending the flaps increases drag, wing area.
which enables the pilot to increase the angle of descent without
increasing the airspeed. Answer (B) is incorrect because flaps
increase lift at slow airspeed, which permits touchdown at a lower
indicated airspeed.
Answers
3310 [A] 3311 [C] 3219 [C] 3220 [A]

Ground Effect
Ground effect occurs when flying within one wingspan or less above the surface. The airflow around the
wing and wing tips is modified and the resulting pattern reduces the downwash and the induced drag.
These changes can result in an aircraft becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed
or floating during an approach to land. See Figure 1-26.
An airplane leaving ground effect after takeoff will require an increase in angle of attack to maintain
the same lift coefficient, which in turn will cause an increase in induced drag and therefore, require
increased thrust.
AIR, GLI, RTC, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSR, LSG, LSW

3312. What is ground effect?
A— The result of the interference of the surface of the
Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
B— The result of an alteration in airflow patterns
increasing induced drag about the wings of an
airplane.
C— The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns
Figure 1-26. Ground effect phenomenon about the wings of an airplane to the point where
the wings will no longer support the airplane in
flight.
ALL
3315. Ground effect is most likely to result in which Ground effect is the result of the interference of the
problem? surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an
A— Settling to the surface abruptly during landing. airplane. (PLT131) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— Becoming airborne before reaching Answer (B) is incorrect because induced drag is decreased.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the disruption of wing-tip vortices
recommended takeoff speed. increases lift.
C— Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is
sufficient for normal takeoff needs.
AIR, GLI, RTC, WSC, PPC
Due to the reduced drag in ground effect, the airplane 3313. Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground
may seem capable of takeoff well below the recom- effect will be most realized during an approach to land
mended speed. It is important that no attempt be made when at
to force the airplane to become airborne with a deficiency
of speed. The recommended takeoff speed is necessary A— less than the length of the wingspan above the
to provide adequate initial climb performance. (PLT131) surface.
— FAA-H-8083-25 B— twice the length of the wingspan above the
surface.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the airplane gains lift from a reduc-
tion in induced drag while entering ground effect; therefore, it does C— a higher-than-normal angle of attack.
not cause the airplane to settle abruptly. Answer (C) is incorrect
because ground effect helps the airplane become airborne before When the wing is at a height equal to its span, the
the airspeed is sufficient for a normal takeoff. reduction in induced drag is only 1.4%. However, when
the wing is at a height equal to one-fourth its span, the
reduction in induced drag is 23.5% and when the wing
is at a height equal to one-tenth its span, the reduction
in induced drag is 47.6%. (PLT131) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because ground effect extends up to one
wingspan length. Answer (C) is incorrect because floating will result
from higher-than-normal angle of attack.
Answers
3315 [B] 3312 [A] 3313 [A]

AIR, GLI, RTC, WSC, LSA, LSG, LSR, LSW RTC

3314. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of 3735. (Refer to Figure 47.) The airspeed range to avoid
ground effect? while flying in ground effect is
A— Wingtip vortices increase creating wake A— 25 – 40 MPH.
turbulence problems for arriving and departing B— 25 – 57 MPH.
aircraft. C— 40 MPH and above.
B— Induced drag decreases; therefore, any
excess speed at the point of flare may cause Use the following steps:
considerable floating. 1. Locate the ground effect unsafe area on FAA Figure
C— A full stall landing will require less up elevator 47.
deflection than would a full stall when done free
of ground effect. 2. Note that the ground effect altitude in the forward
flight region is 40 feet.
The reduction of the wing-tip vortices, due to ground 3. The diagram depicts that a pilot should avoid flight
effect, alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces of 40 MPH or greater at altitudes lower than 40 feet.
the induced angle of attack, and induced drag causing (PLT285) — FAA-H-8083-21
floating. (PLT131) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because wing-tip vortices are decreased.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a full stall landing will require more LSA, LSR, LSG, LSW
up-elevator deflection, due to the increased lift in ground effect.
2223-2. An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff
will
RTC A— experience a reduction in ground friction and
3324. Which is a result of the phenomenon of ground require a slight power reduction.
effect? B— experience an increase in induced drag and a
A— The induced angle of attack of each rotor blade is decrease in performance.
increased. C— require a lower angle of attack to maintain the
B— The lift vector becomes more horizontal. same lift coefficient.
C— The angle of attack generating lift is increased.
An airplane leaving ground effect will:
In ground effect, as downwash velocity is reduced, the 1. Require an increase in angle of attack to maintain
induced angle of attack is reduced and the lift vector the same lift coefficient.
becomes more vertical. Simultaneously, a reduction in 2. Experience an increase in induced drag and thrust
induced drag occurs. In addition, as the induced angle required.
of attack is reduced, the angle of attack generating lift is
increased. The net result of these actions is a beneficial 3. Experience a decrease in stability and a nose-up
increase in lift and a lower power requirement to support change in moments.
a given weight. (PLT131) — FAA-H-8083-21 4. Produce a reduction in static source pressure and
Answer (A) is incorrect because the induced angle of attack isn’t an increase in indicated airspeed.
described in the first place so we can’t assume a change. Answer (B)
is incorrect because if lift vector became more horizontal, lift would (PLT131) — FAA-H-8083-25
decrease but thrust would increase in the lateral direction.
Answers
3314 [B] 3324 [C] 3735 [C] 2223-2 [B]

Wake Turbulence
All aircraft leave two types of wake turbulence: Prop or jet blast, and wing-tip vortices.
The prop or jet blast could be hazardous to light aircraft on the ground behind large aircraft which
are either taxiing or running-up their engines. In the air, jet or prop blast dissipates rapidly.
Wing-tip vortices are a by-product of lift. When a wing is flown at a positive angle of attack, a pressure
differential is created between the upper and lower wing surfaces, and the pressure above the wing will
be lower than the pressure below the wing. In attempting to equalize the pressure, air moves outward,
upward, and around the wing tip, setting up a vortex which trails behind each wing. See Figure 1-27.
The strength of a vortex is governed by the weight, speed, and the shape of the wing of the generat-
ing aircraft. Maximum vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
Vortices generated by large aircraft in flight tend to sink below the flight path of the generating aircraft.
A pilot should fly at or above the larger aircraft’s flight path in order to avoid the wake turbulence created
by the wing-tip vortices. See Figure 1-28.
Close to the ground, vortices tend to move laterally. A crosswind will tend to hold the upwind vortex
over the landing runway, while a tailwind may move the vortices of a preceding aircraft forward into the
touchdown zone.
To avoid wake turbulence when landing, a pilot should note the point where a preceding large aircraft
touched down and then land past that point. See Figure 1-29.
On takeoff, lift off should be accomplished prior to reaching the rotation point of a preceding large
aircraft; the flight path should then remain upwind
and above the preceding aircraft’s flight path. See
Figure 1-30.
Figure 1-28. Vortices in cruise flight
Figure 1-29. Touchdown and wake end
Figure 1-27. Wing-tip vortices Figure 1-30. Rotation and wake beginning

ALL ALL, SPO

3829-2. When landing behind a large aircraft, which 3824. Wingtip vortices are created only when an air-
procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? craft is
A— Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way A— operating at high airspeeds.
to touchdown. B— heavily loaded.
B— Stay below and to one side of its final approach C— developing lift.
flightpath.
C— Stay well below its final approach flightpath and Lift is generated by the creation of a pressure differen-
land at least 2,000 feet behind. tial over the wing surface. The lowest pressure occurs
over the wing surface and the highest pressure occurs
When landing behind a large aircraft, stay at or above the under the wing. This pressure differential triggers the
large aircraft’s final approach path. Note its touchdown roll up of the airflow aft of the wing, resulting in wing-tip
point and land beyond it. (PLT509) — FAA-H-8083-25 vortices. Vortices are generated from the moment an
aircraft leaves the ground, since trailing vortices are
a by-product of wing lift. (PLT509) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL Answer (A) is incorrect because the greatest turbulence is produced
3829-3. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate from an airplane developing lift at a slow airspeed. Answer (B) is
around each wingtip? incorrect because even though a heavily loaded airplane may pro-
duce greater turbulence, an airplane does not have to be heavily
A— Inward, upward, and around each tip. loaded in order to produce wing-tip vortices.
B— Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
C— Outward, upward, and around each tip.
ALL, SPO
The vortex circulation is outward, upward, and around 3825. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the
the wing tips when viewed from either ahead or behind generating aircraft is
the aircraft. (PLT509) — AIM ¶7-3-4 A— light, dirty, and fast.
B— heavy, dirty, and fast.
ALL
C— heavy, clean, and slow.
3827. When taking off or landing at an airport where
The strength of the vortex is governed by the weight,
heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly
speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft.
alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating
turbulence tends to
aircraft is heavy, clean and slow. (PLT509) — FAA-H-
A— rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or 8083-25
landing path. Answer (A) is incorrect because light aircraft produce less vortex
B— rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the turbulence than heavy aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because in
airport. order to be fast, the wing tip must be at a lower angle of attack, thus
producing less lift than during climbout. Also, being dirty presents
C— sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below less of a danger than when clean and/or slow.
the aircraft generating the turbulence.
Flight tests have shown that the vortices from large ALL, SPO
aircraft sink at a rate of about 400 to 500 feet per min- 3826. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
ute. They tend to level off at a distance about 900 feet
below the path of the generating aircraft. (PLT509) — A— sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
FAA-H-8083-25 B— rise into the traffic pattern.
C— rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing
Answer (A) is incorrect because wing-tip vortices always trail behind
an airplane and descend toward the ground; they will also drift with runway.
the wind. Answer (B) is incorrect because wing-tip vortices descend.
Flight tests have shown that the vortices from large
aircraft sink at a rate of about 400 to 500 feet per min-
ute. They tend to level off at a distance about 900 feet
below the path of the generating aircraft. (PLT509) —
FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because wing-tip vortices sink
toward the ground; however, they may move horizontally depending
on crosswind conditions.
Answers
3829-2 [A] 3829-3 [C] 3827 [C] 3824 [C] 3825 [C] 3826 [A]

ALL SPO
3828. The wind condition that requires maximum caution 2039. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of
when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest
A— light, quartering headwind. period of time?
B— light, quartering tailwind. A— Light quartering headwind.
C— strong headwind. B— Direct tailwind.
C— Light quartering tailwind.
A tailwind condition can move the vortices of a preceding
aircraft forward into the touchdown zone. A light quarter- A light wind with a cross runway component of 1 to 5
ing tailwind requires maximum caution. Pilots should be knots could result in the upwind vortex remaining in the
alert to large aircraft upwind from their approach and touchdown zone for a period of time and hasten the
takeoff flight paths. (PLT509) — FAA-H-8083-25 drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway.
Answer (A) is incorrect because headwinds push the vortices out of Similarly, a tailwind condition can move the vortices of
the touchdown zone when landing beyond the touchdown point of the preceding aircraft forward into the touchdown zone.
the preceding aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because strong winds The light quartering tailwind requires maximum caution.
help diffuse wake turbulence vortices.
(PLT509) — AIM ¶7-3-4
ALL, SPO
SPO
3829. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot
2234-1. A go-around from a poor landing approach
should avoid wake turbulence by staying
A— should not be attempted unless circumstances
A— above the large aircraft’s final approach path and
make it absolutely necessary.
landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown
B— is preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a
point.
bad landing.
B— below the large aircraft’s final approach path and
C— should not be attempted after the landing flare
landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown
has been initiated regardless of airspeed.
point.
C— above the large aircraft’s final approach path and It is safer to make a go-around than to touch down
landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point. while drifting or while in a crab, or make a hard drop-in
landing from a high round-out or a bounced landing.
When landing behind a large aircraft stay at or above the
(PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-3
large aircraft’s final approach path. Note its touchdown
Answer (A) is incorrect because a go-around should be executed
point and land beyond it. (PLT509) — FAA-H-8083-25 whenever unfavorable conditions exist. Answer (C) is incorrect
Answer (B) is incorrect because below the flight path, you will fly into because the go-around can be started at any time in the landing
the sinking vortices generated by the large aircraft. Answer (C) is process.
incorrect because by landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown
point, you will have to fly below the preceding aircraft’s flight path,
and into the vortices.
ALL
3830. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot
should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
A— below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
B— above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
C— below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
When departing behind a large aircraft, note the large

aircraft’s rotation point, rotate prior to it, continue to climb
above it, and request permission to deviate upwind of
the large aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of the
aircraft’s wake. (PLT509) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3828 [B] 3829 [A] 3830 [B] 2039 [C] 2234-1 [B]


Chapter 2
Aircraft Systems
Reciprocating Engines 2 – 3
Ignition and Electrical Systems 2 – 4
Fuel Induction Systems 2 – 6
Carburetor Ice 2 – 7
Aviation Fuel 2 – 10
Engine Temperatures 2 – 12
Propellers 2 – 15
Torque 2 – 16
Preflight Inspection Procedures 2 – 18
Helicopter Systems 2 – 19
Glider Operations 2 – 25
Lighter-Than-Air Operations 2 – 33
Powered Parachute and Weight-Shift Control Operations 2 – 41
Gyroplane 2 – 48

Chapter 2 Aircraft Systems

Reciprocating Engines
Most small airplanes are powered by reciprocating (“recip”) engines made up, in part, of cylinders,
pistons, connecting rods and a crankshaft. The pistons move back and forth within the cylinders. Con-
necting rods connect the pistons to the crankshaft, which converts the back and forth movements of the
pistons to a rotary motion. It is this rotary motion which drives the propeller.
One cycle of the engine consists of two revolutions of the crankshaft. These two crankshaft revolu-
tions require four strokes of the piston; namely, the intake, compression, power, and exhaust strokes.
The top end of the cylinder houses an intake valve, an exhaust valve, and two spark plugs.
During the intake stroke, the intake valve is open and the piston moves away from the top of the
cylinder and draws in an air/fuel mixture (Figure 2-1A).
At the completion of the intake stroke, the intake valve closes and the piston returns to the top of the
cylinder and compresses the air/fuel mixture (Figure 2-1B).
When the piston reaches a precise point near the top of its stroke, the spark plugs ignite the com-
pressed mixture and the rapid expansion of the burning mixture forces the piston downward (Figure 2-1C).
As the piston completes the downward movement of the power stroke, the exhaust valve opens and
the piston rises to the top of the cylinder. This exhaust stroke forces out the burned gases and completes
one cycle of the engine (Figure 2-1D).
Because of the many moving parts in a reciprocating engine, as soon as the engine is started, power
should be set to the RPM recommended for engine warm-up and the engine gauges checked for the
desired indications.
Should it be necessary to start the engine by “hand propping,” it is extremely important that a
competent pilot be at the controls in the cockpit. In addition, the person turning the propeller should be
thoroughly familiar with the procedure.
Figure 2-1. Four strokes of an internal combustion engine

AIR As soon as the engine starts, check for unintentional move-

3657. Should it become necessary to handprop an ment of the aircraft and set power to the recommended
airplane engine, it is extremely important that a com- warm-up RPM. The oil pressure should then be checked
petent pilot to determine that the oil system is functioning properly with
A— call “contact” before touching the propeller. pressure at recommended levels within the manufacturer’s
B— be at the controls in the cockpit. time limit. (PLT343) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— be in the cockpit and call out all commands. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is usually done at the end of
the flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because brakes are checked when
beginning to taxi.
Because of the hazards involved in hand-starting air-
plane engines, it is extremely important that a compe-
tent pilot be at the controls in the cockpit and that all AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
communications and procedures be agreed upon and 3656-1. What is one purpose for using reciprocating
rehearsed beforehand. (PLT479) — FAA-H-8083-25 engines?
Answer (A) is incorrect because the person propping the engine
is not required to be a pilot, and calling “contact” is not required. A— Heat is distributed better.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a pilot must be in control of the B— To preserve cylinder head duration and maintain
aircraft, not only in the cockpit. Also, the person propping the engine lower temperatures.
calls out the commands.
C— They are relatively simple and inexpensive to
operate.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
3656. What should be the first action after starting an
Most training aircraft use reciprocating engines because
aircraft engine? they are relatively simple and inexpensive to operate.
(PLT141) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired
indications on the engine gauges.
B— Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily
in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
C— Test each brake and the parking brake.
Ignition and Electrical Systems

Most reciprocating engines used to power small aircraft incorporate two separate magneto ignition
systems.
A magneto (“mag”) is a self-contained source of electrical energy, so even if an aircraft loses total
electrical power, the engine will continue to run.
When checking for magneto operation prior to flight, the engine should run smoothly when operating
with the magneto selector set on “BOTH,” and should experience a slight drop in revolutions per minute
(RPM) when running on only one or the other magneto.
The main advantages of the dual ignition system are increased safety and improved engine
performance.
AIR, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP The dual ignition system has two magnetos to supply
3223. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an the electrical current to two spark plugs for each com-
aircraft engine is to provide for bustion chamber. This provides both a redundancy of
A— improved engine performance. ignition and an improvement of engine performance.
B— uniform heat distribution. (PLT478) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— balanced cylinder head pressure. Answer (B) is incorrect because heat distribution is not affected by
the ignition system. Answer (C) is incorrect because cylinder head
pressure in not affected by the ignition system.
Answers
3657 [B] 3656 [A] 3656-1 [C] 3223 [A]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP
3223-1. An electrical system failure (battery and alter- 2238. An electrical system failure (battery and alterna-
nator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would tor) occurs in a magneto equipped aircraft during flight.
A— experience avionics equipment failure. In this situation, you would
B— probably experience failure of the engine ignition A— probably experience engine failure due to the
system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also
avionics equipment. experience failure of the radio equipment, lights,
C— probably experience engine failure due to the and all instruments that require alternating
loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also current.
experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, B— probably experience failure of the engine ignition
and all instruments that require alternating current. system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and
avionics equipment.
If you experience an inflight electrical system failure, you C— experience avionics equipment failure.
have an avionics equipment failure and cannot use your
electrical fuel boost pump. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-25 If you experience an inflight electrical system failure, you
Answer (B) is incorrect because the ignition system of an aircraft have an avionics equipment failure and cannot use your
reciprocating engine is powered by two self-contained magnetos electrical fuel boost pump. (PLT207) — FAA-H-8083-25
that are not dependent upon the aircraft electrical system. Answer
Answer (A) is incorrect because the engine-driven fuel pumps are
(C) is incorrect because the engine-driven fuel pumps are mechani-
mechanical and not dependent on the electrical system. Answer (B)
cal and not dependent on the electrical system.
is incorrect because the ignition system of an aircraft reciprocating
engine is powered by two self-contained magnetos that are not
dependent upon the aircraft electrical system.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
3223-2. If the ground wire between the magneto and
the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP
noticeable result will be that the engine 2364. Concerning the advantages of an aircraft genera-
A— will run very rough. tor or alternator, select the true statement.
B— cannot be started with the switch in the ON A— A generator always provides more electrical
position. current than an alternator.
C— cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the B— An alternator provides more electrical power at
OFF position. lower engine RPM than a generator.
C— A generator charges the battery during low
If the ground wire between a magneto and the ignition engine RPM; therefore, the battery has less
switch becomes disconnected, the primary current chance to become fully discharged, as often
cannot be directed to ground, and the engine cannot occurs with an alternator.
be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
(PLT478) — FAA-H-8083-25 One of the basic differences between a generator and
an alternator used on an aircraft engine is the number
of magnetic poles used to produce the electricity. Gen-
LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP erators normally have 2 or 4 poles, while alternators
2242. One purpose of the dual ignition system on a have between 8 and 14 poles. Because of the greater
two-cycle engine is to provide for number of poles, an alternator can provide more elec-
A— system redundancy in the ignition system. trical power at a lower engine RPM than a generator.
B— uniform heat distribution. (PLT207) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— balanced cylinder head pressure.
The dual ignition system has two magnetos to supply

the electrical current to two spark plugs for each com-
bustion chamber. This provides both a redundancy of
ignition and an improvement of engine performance.
(PLT478) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3223-1 [A] 3223-2 [C] 2242 [A] 2238 [C] 2364 [B]

Fuel Induction Systems

Most light airplane engines use either a carburetor or a fuel injection system to deliver an air/fuel mix-
ture to the cylinders.
In a carburetor induction system, the float-type carburetor takes in air that flows through a restric-
tion (venturi), which creates a low-pressure area. The pressure difference between the low-pressure
area and outside air forces fuel into the airstream where it is mixed with the flowing air, drawn through
an intake manifold, and delivered to the combustion chambers and ignited.
Carburetors are normally set to deliver the correct air/fuel mixture at sea level. Since air density
decreases with altitude, a mixture control allows the pilot to decrease the fuel flow as altitude increases
and thus maintain the correct mixture. Otherwise the mixture may become too “rich” at high altitudes.
When descending, air density increases. Unless fuel flow is increased, the mixture may become
excessively “lean,” i.e., the amount of fuel is too small for the amount of air reaching the cylinders. Mod-
ern 4-stroke engines may automatically adjust the mixture control. Two-stroke engines typically require
main jet changes for operations at different altitudes.
In a fuel injection system the fuel and air are mixed just prior to entering the combustion chamber.
No carburetor is used.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC The mixture becomes richer as the airplane gains alti-
3225. The operating principle of float-type carburetors tude, because the carburetor meters the same amount
is based on the of fuel as at sea level. Leaning the mixture control pre-
A— automatic metering of air at the venturi as the vents this by decreasing the rate of fuel discharge to
aircraft gains altitude. compensate for the decrease in air density. (PLT249)
B— difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and — FAA-H-8083-25
the air inlet. Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot would increase the amount
C— increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi of fuel to compensate for increased air density. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because the pilot would decrease the amount of fuel to compen-
causing an increase in air pressure. sate for decreased air density.
In a carburetor system, outside air flows into the car-

buretor and through a venturi (a narrow throat in the AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
carburetor). When air flows rapidly through the venturi, 3228. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mix-
a low pressure area is created. This low pressure allows ture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to
the fuel to flow through the main fuel jet (located within 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
the throat) and into the airstream where it mixes with
A— The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
the flowing air. (PLT191) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is
Answer (A) is incorrect because fuel, rather than air, is metered
manually with the mixture control. Answer (C) is incorrect because
needed for normal combustion, and the excess
there is a decrease in air pressure. fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
C— The excessively rich mixture will create higher
cylinder head temperatures and may cause
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC detonation.
3226. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture
at altitude is to Air density increases in the descent, but the amount of
A— decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in fuel drawn into the carburetor remains the same. To re-
order to compensate for increased air density. establish a balanced fuel/air mixture in a descent, the
B— decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for mixture control must be adjusted toward “rich.’’ (PLT249)
decreased air density. — FAA-H-8083-25
C— increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to Answer (B) is incorrect because the mixture will become too lean
and the engine temperature will increase. Answer (C) is incorrect
compensate for the decrease in pressure and because an excessively lean mixture will result.
density of the air.
Answers
3225 [B] 3226 [B] 3228 [A]

Carburetor Ice
As air flows through a carburetor it expands rapidly. At the same time, fuel forced into the airstream is
vaporized. Expansion of the air and vaporization of the fuel causes a sudden cooling of the mixture which
may cause ice to form inside the carburetor. The possibility of icing should always be considered when
operating in conditions where the temperature is between 20°F and 70°F, and the relative humidity is high.
Carburetor heat preheats the air before it enters the carburetor and either prevents carburetor ice
from forming or melts any ice which may have formed. When carburetor heat is applied, the heated air
that enters the carburetor is less dense. This causes the fuel/air mixture to become enriched, and this
in turn decreases engine output and increases engine operating temperatures.
During engine runup prior to departure from a high-altitude airport, the pilot may notice a slight
engine roughness which is not affected by the magneto check, but grows worse during the carburetor
heat check. In this case, the air/fuel mixture may be too rich due to the lower air density at the high alti-
tude, and applying carburetor heat decreases the air density even more. A leaner setting of the mixture
control may correct this problem.
In an airplane with a fixed-pitch propeller, the first indication of carburetor ice would likely be a
decrease in RPM as the air supply is choked off. Application of carburetor heat will decrease air density,
causing the RPM to drop even lower. Then, as the carburetor ice melts, the RPM will rise gradually.
Fuel injection systems do not utilize a carburetor and are generally considered to be less susceptible
to icing than carburetor systems are.
AIR AIR, WSC, PPC

3227. During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a 3231. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch pro-
pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected peller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of
by the magneto check but grows worse during the car- carburetor ice would most likely be
buretor heat check. Under these circumstances, what A— increase of RPM.
would be the most logical initial action? B— engine roughness.
A— Check the results obtained with a leaner setting C— loss of RPM.
of the mixture.
B— Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance For airplanes with a fixed-pitch propeller, the first indica-
check. tion of carburetor ice is loss of RPM. (PLT190) — FAA-
C— Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation. H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because the RPM will decrease, not
When carburetor heat is applied, the air/fuel mixture of an increase. Answer (B) is incorrect because this symptoms may
engine will be enriched because any given volume of hot develop, but only after a loss of RPM.
air is less dense than cold air of the same volume. This
condition would be aggravated at high altitude where,
because of decreased air density, the mixture is already
richer than at sea level. (PLT253) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because the pilot should taxi back only if
positive results were not obtained by leaning the mixture. Answer
(C) is incorrect because detonation would not occur if the mixture
was too rich, and a rich fuel mixture was the condition described in
the question.
Answers
3227 [A] 3231 [C]

AIR, WSC, PPC AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3235. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft 3230. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even
equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by when the ambient air temperature is as
applying carburetor heat and noting A— high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
A— an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease B— high as 95°F and there is visible moisture.
in RPM. C— low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high.
B— a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM
indication. If the temperature is between -7°C (20°F) and 21°C
C— a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase (70°F) with visible moisture or high humidity, the pilot
in RPM. should be constantly on the alert for carburetor ice.
(PLT253) — FAA-H-8083-25
When heat is applied there will be a drop in RPM in Answer (B) is incorrect because icing is less likely to occur above
airplanes equipped with fixed-pitch propellers. If carbure- 70°F. Answer (C) is incorrect because icing is less likely to occur
tor ice is present, there will normally be a rise in RPM below 20°F.
after the initial drop. Then, when the carburetor heat is
turned off, the RPM will rise to a setting greater than
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
that before application of the heat. The engine should
3230-1. Carburetor icing can occur with an OAT as
also run more smoothly after the ice has been removed.
high as
(PLT190) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because the warm air decreases engine A— 100°F and visible moisture.
RPM; melting ice also decreases RPM. Once the ice is gone, the B— 20°C and high relative humidity.
RPM increases. Answer (B) is incorrect because this would happen C— 75°F and low relative humidity.
if there was no carburetor ice to begin with.
If the temperature is between –7°C (20°F) and 21°C
(70°F), with visible moisture or high humidity, the pilot
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
should constantly be on the alert for carburetor ice.
3229. Which condition is most favorable to the develop-
(PLT253) — FAA-H-8083-25
ment of carburetor icing?
A— Any temperature below freezing and a relative
humidity of less than 50 percent. AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
B— Temperature between 32 and 50°F and low 3232. Applying carburetor heat will
humidity. A— result in more air going through the carburetor.
C— Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high B— enrich the fuel/air mixture.
humidity. C— not affect the fuel/air mixture.
If the temperature is between -7°C (20°F) and 21°C Carburetors are normally calibrated at sea level pres-
(70°F) with visible moisture or high humidity, the pilot sure to meter the correct fuel/air mixture. As altitude
should be constantly on the alert for carburetor ice. increases, air density decreases and the amount of
(PLT190) — FAA-H-8083-25 fuel is too great for the amount of air — the mixture is
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because carburetor icing is more “too rich.” This same result may be brought about by the
likely with high humidity. application of carburetor heat. The heated air entering
the carburetor has less density than unheated air and the
fuel/air mixture is enriched. (PLT189) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because applying carburetor heat decreases
the density of air but does not affect the air going through the car-
buretor. Answer (C) is incorrect because the mixture is enriched by
applying carburetor heat.
Answers
3235 [C] 3229 [C] 3230 [A] 3230-1 [B] 3232 [B]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3233. What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when 3236. With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carbure-
carburetor heat is applied? tor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are
A— A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture. generally considered to be
B— The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. A— more susceptible to icing.
C— The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner. B— equally susceptible to icing.
C— less susceptible to icing.
Carburetors are normally calibrated at sea level pressure
to meter the correct fuel/air mixture. As altitude increases, Fuel injection systems are less susceptible to icing than
air density decreases and the amount of fuel is too great carburetor systems because of the lack of the tempera-
for the amount of air — the mixture is “too rich.” This same ture drop caused by the venturi in a carburetor. Be aware
result may be brought about by the application of car- that one can acquire carburetor ice even without easily
buretor heat. The heated air entering the carburetor has visible moisture and, in the right circumstances, even
less density than unheated air and the fuel/air mixture at full power. (PLT136) — FAA-H-8083-25
is enriched. (PLT253) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the venturi throat of
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the fuel/air mixture carburetors makes them more susceptible to icing than fuel injection
becomes richer. systems.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP

3234. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat 2341. Which condition is most favorable to the develop-
tends to ment of carburetor icing?
A— decrease engine performance. A— Any temperature below freezing and a relative
B— increase engine performance. humidity of less than 50 percent.
C— have no effect on engine performance. B— Temperature between 32 and 50°F and low
humidity.
Use of carburetor heat tends to reduce the output of the C— Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high
engine and also to increase the operating temperature. humidity.
(PLT189) — FAA-H-8083-25
If the temperature is between -7°C (20°F) and 21°C
(70°F) with visible moisture or high humidity, the pilot
should be constantly on the alert for carburetor ice.
(PLT190) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because carburetor icing is more likely with
high humidity. Answer (B) is incorrect because carburetor icing is
more likely with high humidity.
Answers
3233 [B] 3234 [A] 3236 [A] 2341 [C]

Aviation Fuel
Fuel does two things for the engine; it acts both as an agent for combustion and as an agent for cooling
(based on the mixture setting of the engine).
Aviation fuel is available in several grades. The proper grade for a specific engine will be listed in
the aircraft flight manual. If the proper grade of fuel is not available, it is possible to use the next higher
grade. A lower grade of fuel should never be used.
The use of low-grade fuel or an air/fuel mixture which is too lean may cause detonation, which is the
uncontrolled spontaneous explosion of the mixture in the cylinder. Detonation produces extreme heat.
Preignition is the premature burning of the air/fuel mixture. It is caused by an incandescent area
(such as a carbon or lead deposit heated to a red hot glow) which serves as an ignitor in advance of
normal ignition.
Fuel can be contaminated by water and/or dirt. The air inside the aircraft fuel tanks can cool at night,
and this cooling forms water droplets (through condensation) on the insides of the fuel tanks. These drop-
lets then fall into the fuel. To avoid this problem, always fill the tanks completely when parking overnight.
Thoroughly drain all of the aircraft’s sumps, drains, and strainers before a flight to get rid of all the
water that might have collected.
Dirt can get into the fuel if refueling equipment is poorly maintained or if the refueling operation is
sloppy. Use care when refueling an aircraft.
Two fuel pump systems are used on most airplanes. The main pump system is engine driven and an
auxiliary electric driven pump is provided for use in the event the engine pump fails. The auxiliary pump,
commonly known as the “boost pump,” provides added reliability to the fuel system, and is also used as
an aid in engine starting. The electric auxiliary pump is controlled by a switch in the cockpit.
AIR, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
3224. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is 3237. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is
the auxiliary electric driven pump used? lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely
A— All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump. cause
B— In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails. A— a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all
C— Constantly except in starting the engine. cylinders.
B— lower cylinder head temperatures.
Two fuel pump systems are used on most airplanes. The C— detonation.
main pump system is engine driven and an auxiliary
electric driven pump is provided for use in the event Using fuel of a lower rating is harmful under any circum-
the engine pump fails. The auxiliary pump, commonly stances because it may cause loss of power, excessive
known as the “boost pump,” provides added reliability heat, burned spark plugs, burned and sticky valves, high
to the fuel system, and is also used as an aid in engine oil consumption, and detonation. (PLT250) — FAA-H-
starting. The electric auxiliary pump is controlled by a 8083-25
switch in the cockpit. (PLT253) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answer (A) is incorrect because the carburetor will meter the lower-
grade fuel the same as the proper fuel. Answer (B) is incorrect
because lower-grade fuel raises cylinder head temperatures.
Answers
3224 [B] 3237 [C]

AIR, GLI, RTC, WSC AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3238. Detonation may occur at high-power settings when 3242. What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft
A— the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of if the recommended octane is not available?
burning progressively and evenly. A— The next higher octane aviation gas.
B— an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an B— The next lower octane aviation gas.
explosive gain in power. C— Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane
C— the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon rating.
deposits in the cylinder.
If the proper grade of fuel is not available, it is possible
Detonation or knock is a sudden explosion or shock to (but not desirable), to use the next higher (aviation) grade
a small area of the piston top, rather than the normal as a substitute. (PLT250) — FAA-H-8083-25
smooth burn in the combustion chamber. (PLT115) — Answer (B) is incorrect because burning lower octane fuel causes
FAA-H-8083-25 excessive engine temperatures. Answer (C) is incorrect because
only aviation fuel should be used, except under special circum-
Answer (B) is incorrect because detonation may occur with an stances.
excessively lean fuel mixture and a loss in power. Answer (C) is
incorrect because this describes preignition.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC 3243. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is
3238-1. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft considered a good operating procedure because this will
engine when A— force any existing water to the top of the tank
A— the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the away from the fuel lines to the engine.
wiring is defective. B— prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating
B— hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the airspace in the tanks.
fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition. C— prevent moisture condensation by eliminating
C— the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes airspace in the tanks.
instead of burning normally.
Water in the fuel system is dangerous and the pilot
Detonation is a sudden explosion, or instantaneous must prevent contamination. The fuel tanks should be
combustion, of the fuel/air mixture in the cylinders, filled after each flight, or at least after the last flight of
producing extreme heat and severe structural stresses the day. This will prevent moisture condensation within
on the engine. (PLT115) — FAA-H-8083-25 the tank, since no air space will be left inside. (PLT250)
Answer (A) is incorrect because detonation does not have anything — FAA-H-8083-25
to do with the wiring. Answer (B) is incorrect because this describes Answer (A) is incorrect because water will settle to the bottom of a
preignition, not detonation. gas tank. Answer (B) is incorrect because fuel is allowed to expand
by the fuel vent, whether the tanks are full or not.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP

3240. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP
advance of normal spark ignition is known as 3243-1. To properly purge water from the fuel system
of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel
A— combustion. strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
B— pre-ignition.
C— detonation. A— fuel strainer drain.
B— lowest point in the fuel system.
Preignition is defined as ignition of the fuel prior to normal C— fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
ignition. (PLT478) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because combustion is the normal engine Many aircraft are equipped with fuel strainers located
process. Answer (C) is incorrect because detonation is the exploding at the lowest point in the fuel lines and sump drains
of the fuel/air mixture. installed at the lowest point in each fuel tank. In order
to completely purge all of the liquid water from the fuel
system, the fuel strainer drain and the sumps in all of
the tanks must be drained. (PLT253) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3238 [A] 3238-1 [C] 3240 [B] 3242 [A] 3243 [C] 3243-1 [C]

LSA, LSR The crankcase breather requires special consideration

2353. During preflight in cold weather, crankcase when preparing for cold weather. Frozen breather lines
breather lines should receive special attention because can create numerous problems. When crankcase vapors
they are susceptible to being clogged by cool, they may condense in the breather line and subse-
A— congealed oil from the crankcase. quently freeze it closed. Special care is recommended
B— moisture from the outside air which has frozen. during the preflight to ensure that the breather system
C— ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed is free of ice. (PLT126) — AC 91-13
and subsequently frozen. Answer (A) is incorrect because oil that lays in the bottom of the
crankcase never gets into the breather lines. Answer (B) is incor-
rect because a low air temperature is usually associated with a low
moisture content.
Engine Temperatures
Engine lubricating oil not only prevents direct metal-to-metal contact of moving parts, it also absorbs
and dissipates some of the engine heat produced by internal combustion. If the engine oil level should
fall too low, an abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may result.
On the ground or in the air, excessively high engine temperatures can cause excessive oil consump-
tion, loss of power, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal
operating range, or if the pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during
climb-out, the pilot may have been operating with either too much power and the mixture set too lean,
using fuel of too low a grade, or operating the engine with an insufficient amount of oil in it. Reducing
the rate of climb and increasing airspeed, enriching the fuel mixture, or retarding the throttle will aid in
cooling an engine that is overheating.
The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
maintain safe airspeed.
AIR, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSW AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3239. If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed- 3221. Excessively high engine temperatures will
pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after A— cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and
takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
A— lean the mixture. B— cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption,
B— lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed. and possible permanent internal engine damage.
C— apply carburetor heat. C— not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
To prevent detonation, the pilot should use the correct Operating an engine at a higher temperature than it
grade of fuel, maintain a sufficiently rich mixture, open the was designed for will cause loss of power, excessive oil
throttle smoothly, and keep the temperature of the engine consumption, and detonation. It will also lead to seri-
within recommended operating limits. Some aircraft ous permanent injury to the engine including scoring of
have an automatically enriched mixture for enhanced cylinder walls, damage to pistons and rings, and burning
cooling in takeoff and climb-out at full throttle. Lowering and warping of valves. (PLT342) — FAA-H-8083-25
the nose will allow the aircraft to gain airspeed, which Answer (A) is incorrect because internal engine damage is more
eventually lowers the engine temperature. (PLT115) — likely to result before external damage occurs. Answer (C) is incor-
FAA-H-8083-25 rect because excessively high engine temperatures seriously affect
an aircraft engine.
Answer (A) is incorrect because leaning the mixture increases
engine temperatures; detonation results from excessively high
engine temperatures. Answer (C) is incorrect because although a
richer fuel mixture results from applying carburetor heat, the heat
may offset the cooling effect of the mixture change. The most effi-
cient initial action would be to increase airspeed.
Answers
2353 [C] 3239 [B] 3221 [B]


3221-1. Excessively high engine temperatures, either 3244. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines
in the air or on the ground, will are especially dependent on
A— increase fuel consumption and may increase A— a properly functioning thermostat.
power due to the increased heat. B— air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
B— result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and C— the circulation of lubricating oil.
warping of cylinder cooling fans.
C— cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, Oil, used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the
and possible permanent internal engine damage. engine, also cools the internal parts of the engine as it
circulates. (PLT342) — FAA-H-8083-25
High engine temperatures can lead to loss of power, Answer (A) is incorrect because most air-cooled aircraft engines do
excessive oil consumption, detonation, and serious not have thermostats. Answer (B) is incorrect because, although air-
engine damage. (PLT253) — FAA-H-8083-25 cooling is important, internal cooling is more reliant on oil circulation.
Air cools the cylinders, not the exhaust manifold.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

LSA, LSR
3222. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head
2354. Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft
temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operat-
during cold weather operations?
ing range, the pilot may have been operating with
A— The cabin area as well as the engine should be
A— the mixture set too rich.
preheated.
B— higher-than-normal oil pressure.
B— The cabin area should not be preheated with
C— too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
portable heaters.
Excessively high engine temperatures can result from C— Hot air should be blown directly at the engine
insufficient cooling caused by too lean a mixture, too through the air intakes.
low a grade of fuel, low oil, or insufficient airflow over
Low temperatures may cause a change in the viscosity
the engine. (PLT343) — FAA-H-8083-25
of engine oils, batteries may lose a high percentage of
Answer (A) is incorrect because a richer fuel mixture will normally their effectiveness, and instruments may stick. Because
cool an engine. Answer (B) is incorrect because high oil pressure
does not cause high engine temperatures. of the above, preheating the engines as well as the cabin
before starting is desirable in low temperatures. Extreme
caution should be used in the preheat process to avoid
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC fire. (PLT126) — AC 91-13
3241. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head
temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to
exceed their normal operating ranges? AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
3245. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indi-
A— Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel cation may be caused by
rating.
B— Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel A— the oil level being too low.
rating. B— operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C— Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure. C— operating with an excessively rich mixture.
Excessively high engine temperatures result from insuf- Oil, used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the
ficient cooling caused by too lean a mixture, too low engine, also helps reduce engine temperature by remov-
a grade of fuel, low oil, or insufficient airflow over the ing some of the heat from the cylinders. Therefore, if the
engine. (PLT250) — FAA-H-8083-25 oil level is too low, the transfer of heat to less oil would
Answer (B) is incorrect because higher octane fuel will burn at lower cause the oil temperature to rise. (PLT324) — FAA-H-
temperatures, keeping the engine cooler. Answer (C) is incorrect 8083-25
because high oil pressure does not cause high engine temperatures. Answer (B) is incorrect because the higher the viscosity, the bet-
ter the lubricating and cooling capability of the oil. Answer (C) is
incorrect because a rich fuel/air mixture usually decreases engine
temperature.
Answers
3221-1 [C] 3222 [C] 3241 [A] 3244 [C] 2354 [A] 3245 [A]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC AIR, RTC, WSC

3651. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an 3711. The most important rule to remember in the event
engine that is overheating during a climb? of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
A— Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed. A— immediately establish the proper gliding attitude
B— Reduce climb speed and increase RPM. and airspeed.
C— Increase climb speed and increase RPM. B— quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel
exhaustion.
To avoid excessive cylinder head temperatures, a pilot C— determine the wind direction to plan for the forced
can open the cowl flaps, increase airspeed, enrich the landing.
mixture, or reduce power. Any of these procedures will
aid in reducing the engine temperature. Establishing Maintaining the proper glide speed (safe airspeed) is
a shallower climb (increasing airspeed) increases the the most important rule to remember in the event of a
airflow through the cooling system, reducing high engine power failure. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-3
temperatures. (PLT342) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because these steps should be
Answer (B) is incorrect because reducing airspeed hinders cool- taken only after establishing the proper glide speed.
ing, and increasing RPM will further increase engine temperature.
Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing RPM will increase
engine temperature.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3652. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine
that is overheating?
A— Enrichen the fuel mixture.
B— Increase the RPM.
C— Reduce the airspeed.
To avoid excessive cylinder head temperatures, a pilot

can open the cowl flaps, increase airspeed, enrich the
mixture, or reduce power. Any of these procedures will
aid in reducing the engine temperature. (PLT342) —
FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because increasing the RPM increases the
engine’s internal heat. Answer (C) is incorrect because reducing the
airspeed decreases the airflow needed for cooling, thus increasing
the engine’s temperature.
Answers
3651 [A] 3652 [A] 3711 [A]

Propellers
A propeller provides thrust to propel the airplane through the air. Some aircraft are equipped with a
constant-speed propeller. This type of propeller allows the pilot to select the most efficient propeller
blade angle for each phase of flight. In these aircraft, the throttle controls the power output as registered
on the manifold pressure gauge, and the propeller control regulates the engine RPM.
A pilot should avoid a high manifold pressure setting with low RPM on engines equipped with a
constant-speed propeller. To avoid high manifold pressure combined with low RPM, reduce the manifold
pressure before reducing RPM when decreasing power settings (or increase the RPM before increasing
the manifold pressure when increasing power settings).
AIR A constant-speed propeller permits the pilot to select

3653. How is engine operation controlled on an engine the blade angle that will result in the most efficient per-
equipped with a constant-speed propeller? formance for a particular flight condition. A low blade
A— The throttle controls power output as registered angle allows higher RPM and horsepower, desirable
on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller for takeoffs. An intermediate position can be used for
control regulates engine RPM. subsequent climb. After airspeed is attained during
B— The throttle controls power output as registered cruising flight, the propeller blade may be changed to
on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller a higher angle for lower RPM, reduced engine noise,
control regulates a constant blade angle. generally lower vibration, and greater fuel efficiency.
C— The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on (PLT351) — FAA-H-8083-25
the tachometer and the mixture control regulates Answer (A) is incorrect because a constant-speed propeller is not
the power output. used to maintain airspeed, but rather constant engine RPM. Answer
(C) is incorrect because a constant-speed propeller may not be
smoother or operate with less vibration than a fixed-pitch propeller.
On aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller,
the throttle controls the engine power output which is
registered on the manifold pressure gauge. The propel- AIR
ler control changes the pitch angle of the propeller and 3655. A precaution for the operation of an engine
governs the RPM which is indicated on the tachometer. equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
(PLT343) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— avoid high RPM settings with high manifold
Answer (B) is incorrect because the propeller control does not main-
tain a constant pitch, it changes pitch in order to hold a constant
pressure.
RPM. Answer (C) is incorrect because the throttle does not directly B— avoid high manifold pressure settings with low
control RPM, and mixture control does not regulate power. RPM.
C— always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
AIR On aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller,

3654. What is an advantage of a constant-speed pro- the throttle controls the engine power output which is
peller? registered on the manifold pressure gauge. The propel-
A— Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired ler control changes the pitch angle of the propeller and
cruising speed. governs the RPM which is indicated on the tachom-
B— Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the eter. On most airplanes, for any given RPM, there is a
most efficient performance. manifold pressure that should not be exceeded. If an
C— Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM excessive amount of manifold pressure is carried for a
and eliminates vibrations. given RPM, the maximum allowable pressure within the
engine cylinders could be exceeded, thus putting undue
strain on them. (PLT351) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because high manifold pressure is allow-
able with high RPM settings, within specification limits. Answer (C)
is incorrect because the mixture should be leaned for best perfor-
mance.
Answers
3653 [A] 3654 [B] 3655 [B]

Torque
An airplane of standard configuration has an insistent tendency to turn to the left. This tendency is called
torque, and is a combination of four forces: namely, reactive force, spiraling slipstream, gyroscopic pre-
cession, and P-factor.
Reactive force is based on Newton’s Law of action and reaction. A propeller rotating in a clockwise
direction (as seen from the rear) produces a force which tends to roll the airplane in a counterclockwise
direction. See Figure 2-2.
The spiraling slipstream is the reaction of the air to a rotating propeller. (The propeller forces the
air to spiral in a clockwise direction around the fuselage.) This spiraling slipstream strikes the airplane’s
vertical stabilizer on the left side. This pushes the tail of the airplane to the right and the nose of the
airplane to the left. See Figure 2-3. Weight-shift control and powered parachutes do not have this effect.
Gyroscopic precession is the result of a deflective force applied to a rotating body (such as a
propeller). The resultant action occurs 90° later in the direction of rotation. See Figure 2-4.
Asymmetric propeller loading, called P-factor, is caused by the downward moving blade on the
right side of the propeller having a higher angle of attack, a greater action and reaction, and therefore
a higher thrust than the upward moving opposite blade. This results in a tendency for the aircraft to yaw
to the left around the vertical axis. Additional left-turning tendency from torque will be greatest when the
aircraft is operating at low airspeed with a high power setting.
Figure 2-2. Reactive force

Figure 2-3. Spiraling slipstream
Figure 2-4. Gyroscopic precession

AIR, WSC, PPC AIR, WSC, PPC

3207. In what flight condition is torque effect the great- 3209. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw
est in a single-engine airplane? to the left?
A— Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. A— When at low angles of attack.
B— Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack. B— When at high angles of attack.
C— High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. C— When at high airspeeds.
The effect of torque increases in direct proportion to The effects of P-factor, or asymmetric propeller loading,
the engine power, airspeed, and airplane attitude. If the usually occur when the airplane is flown at high angles
power setting is high, the airspeed slow, and the angle of attack (or a high deck angle for a PPC) and at high
of attack high (or a high deck angle for a PPC), the power settings. (PLT243) — FAA-H-8083-25
effect of torque is greater. (PLT243) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answer (A) is incorrect because the thrust differential between
Answer (B) is incorrect because the least amount of torque effect is ascending and descending propeller blades at low angles of attack
produced under these conditions. Answer (C) is incorrect because is slight. Answer (C) is incorrect because at higher airspeeds, an air-
torque effect is negligible at higher airspeeds due to increased sta- craft’s angle of attack decreases in straight-and-level flight; therefore
bility generated by more airflow moving over all airfoils. propeller-blade differential thrust becomes negligible.
AIR, WSC, PPC

3208. The left turning tendency of an airplane caused
by P-factor is the result of the
A— clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller
turning the airplane counter-clockwise.
B— propeller blade descending on the right,
producing more thrust than the ascending blade
on the left.
C— gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller
blades acting 90° in advance of the point the
force was applied.
The downward-moving blade on the right side of the

propeller has a higher angle of attack and greater action
and reaction than the upward moving blade on the left.
This results in a tendency for the airplane to yaw around
the vertical axis to the left. (PLT243) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because it describes the characteristics
involved with torque effect. Answer (C) is incorrect because it
describes gyroscopic precession.
Answers
3207 [A] 3208 [B] 3209 [B]

Preflight Inspection Procedures

A thorough preflight inspection should be performed on an aircraft to help ensure that the aircraft is
prepared for safe flight and should be a thorough and systematic means by which the pilot determines
the airplane is ready for safe flight. Prior to every flight, a pilot should at least perform a walk-around
inspection of the aircraft.
After an aircraft has been stored for an extended period of time, a special check should be made
during preflight for damage or obstructions caused by animals, birds, or insects.
The use of a written checklist for preflight inspection and starting the engine is recommended to
ensure that all necessary items are checked in a logical sequence.
Although 14 CFR Part 91 places primary responsibility on the owner or operator for maintaining
an aircraft in an airworthy condition, the pilot-in-command is responsible for determining whether that
aircraft is in condition for safe flight.
ALL, SPO ALL, SPO

3658. During the preflight inspection who is responsible 3660. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an
for determining the aircraft is safe for flight? aircraft in airworthy condition?
A— The pilot in command. A— Pilot-in-command.
B— The owner or operator. B— Owner or operator.
C— The certificated mechanic who performed the C— Mechanic.
annual inspection.
14 CFR Part 91 places primary responsibility on the
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is responsible for owner or operator for maintaining an aircraft in an air-
determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe worthy condition. (PLT374) — FAA-H-8083-25
flight. (PLT444) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL
3659. How should an aircraft preflight inspection be
accomplished for the first flight of the day?
A— Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
B— Thorough and systematic means recommended
by the manufacturer.
C— Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-
command.
The preflight inspection should be a thorough and

systematic means by which the pilot determines that
the airplane is ready for safe flight. Most Aircraft Flight
Manuals or Pilot’s Operating Handbooks contain a sec-
tion devoted to a systematic method of performing a
preflight inspection that should be used by the pilot for
guidance. (PLT445) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3658 [A] 3659 [B] 3660 [B]

Helicopter Systems
RTC on the advancing blade and increased angle of attack
3318. (Refer to Figure 10.) During flight, if cyclic control on the retreating blade through blade flapping action
pressure is applied which results in a maximum increase tends to equalize lift over the two halves of the rotor
in pitch angle of the rotor blade at position A, the rotor disc. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
disc will tilt
A— forward.
RTC
B— aft.
3321. The upward bending of the rotor blades resulting
C— left.
from the combined forces of lift and centrifugal force is
Gyroscopic precession is the resultant action of a spin- known as
ning object when a force is applied to the object. The A— coning.
action occurs approximately 90° later in the direction B— blade slapping.
of rotation. Thus, if the maximum increase in angle of C— inertia.
attack occurs at point A, maximum deflection takes
place 90° later. This is maximum upward deflection at As a vertical takeoff is made, two major forces are act-
the rear, and the tip-path plane tips forward. (PLT199) ing at the same time — centrifugal force acting outward,
— FAA-H-8083-21 perpendicular to the rotor mast, and lift, acting upward
and parallel to the mast. The result of these two forces
is that the blades assume a conical path instead of
RTC remaining in the plane perpendicular to the mast.
3319. The lift differential that exists between the advanc- (PLT027) — FAA-H-8083-21
ing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade
is known as
RTC
A— transverse flow effect.
3322. When a blade flaps up, the CG moves closer to
B— dissymmetry of lift.
C— hunting tendency. its axis of rotation giving that blade a tendency to
A— decelerate.
The difference in lift that exists between the advancing B— accelerate.
blade half of the disc and retreating blade half, created C— stabilize its rotational velocity.
by horizontal flight or by wind during hovering flight, is
called dissymmetry of lift. (PLT242) — FAA-H-8083‑21 When a rotor blade flaps up, the center of mass of that
blade moves closer to the axis of rotation and blade
acceleration takes place. (PLT197) — FAA-H-8083-21
RTC
3320. During forward cruising flight at constant airspeed
and altitude, the individual rotor blades, when compared RTC
to each other, are operating 3323. During a hover, a helicopter tends to drift to the
A— with increased lift on the retreating blade. right. To compensate for this, some helicopters have the
B— with a decreasing angle of attack on the A— tail rotor tilted to the left.
advancing blade. B— tail rotor tilted to the right.
C— at unequal airspeed, unequal angles of attack, C— rotor mast rigged to the left side.
and equal lift moment.
To counteract drift, the rotor mast in some helicopters is
As the helicopter moves into forward flight, the relative rigged slightly to the left side so that the tip-path plane
wind moving over each rotor blade becomes a combina- has a built-in tilt to the left, thus producing a small side-
tion of the rotational speed of the rotor and the forward ward thrust. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
movement of the helicopter. Increased lift on the advanc-
ing blade will cause the blade to flap, decreasing the
angle of attack. Decreased lift on the retreating blade
will cause the blade to flap down, increasing the angle
of attack. The combination of decreased angle of attack
Answers
3318 [A] 3319 [B] 3320 [C] 3321 [A] 3322 [B] 3323 [C]

RTC RTC
3325. Translational lift is the result of 3329. High airspeeds, particularly in turbulent air, should
A— decreased rotor efficiency. be avoided primarily because of the possibility of
B— airspeed. A— an abrupt pitchup.
C— both airspeed and groundspeed. B— retreating blade stall.
C— a low-frequency vibration developing.
Translational lift is that additional lift obtained when enter-
ing horizontal flight due to the increased efficiency of the A tendency for the retreating blade to stall in forward
rotor system. Translational lift depends upon airspeed flight is a major factor in limiting a helicopter’s forward
rather than ground speed. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21 airspeed. When operating at high airspeeds, stalls are
more liable to occur under conditions of high gross
weight, low RPM, high density altitude, steep or abrupt
RTC turns, and/or turbulent flight. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
3326. The primary purpose of the tail rotor system is to
A— assist in making a coordinated turn.
RTC
B— maintain heading during forward flight.
C— counteract the torque effect of the main rotor. 3330. The maximum forward speed of a helicopter is
limited by
The force that compensates for torque and keeps the A— retreating blade stall.
fuselage from turning in the direction opposite to the main B— the rotor RPM red line.
rotor is produced by means of an auxiliary rotor located C— solidity ratio.
on the end of the tail boom. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
A tendency for the retreating blade to stall in forward
flight is a major factor in limiting a helicopter’s forward
RTC airspeed. When operating at high airspeeds, stalls are
3327. If RPM is low and manifold pressure is high, what more liable to occur under conditions of high gross
initial corrective action should be taken? weight, low RPM, high density altitude, steep or abrupt
A— Increase the throttle. turns, and/or turbulent flight. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
B— Lower the collective pitch.
C— Raise the collective pitch.
RTC
Lowering the collective pitch will reduce the manifold pres- 3331. When operating at high forward airspeeds,
sure, decrease drag on the rotor, and therefore increase retreating blade stalls are more likely to occur under
the RPM. (PLT112) — FAA-H-8083-21 which condition?
A— Low gross weight and low density altitude.
B— High RPM and low density altitude.
RTC C— Steep turns in turbulent air.
3328. The purpose of the lead-lag (drag) hinge in a
three-bladed, fully articulated helicopter rotor system A tendency for the retreating blade to stall in forward
is to compensate for flight is a major factor in limiting a helicopter’s forward
A— Coriolis effect. airspeed. When operating at high airspeeds, stalls are
B— coning. more liable to occur under conditions of high gross
C— geometric unbalance. weight, low RPM, high density altitude, steep or abrupt
turns, and/or turbulent flight. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21
In a fully-articulated rotor system, each rotor blade is
attached to the hub by a vertical hinge called a drag
or lag hinge that permits each blade, independently of
the others, to move back and forth in the plane of the
rotor disc. This movement is called dragging, lead-lag,
or hunting. The purpose of the drag hinge and damp-
ers is to absorb the acceleration and deceleration of
the rotor blades caused by Coriolis effect. (PLT470)
— FAA-H-8083-21
Answers
3325 [B] 3326 [C] 3327 [B] 3328 [A] 3329 [B] 3330 [A]
3331 [C]

RTC The chart can be used to determine those altitude-

3332. Ground resonance is most likely to develop when airspeed combinations from which it would be impossible
A— on the ground and harmonic vibrations develop to successfully complete an autorotative landing. The
between the main and tail rotors. altitude-airspeed combinations that should be avoided
B— a series of shocks causes the rotor system to are represented by the shaded areas of the chart.
become unbalanced. (PLT285) — FAA-H-8083-21
C— there is a combination of a decrease in the angle
of attack on the advancing blade and an increase
RTC
in the angle of attack on the retreating blade.
3336. During surface taxiing, the collective pitch is
When one landing gear of the helicopter strikes the used to control
surface first, a shock is transmitted through the fuselage A— drift during a crosswind.
to the rotor. This shock may cause the blades straddling B— rate of speed.
the contact point to be forced closer together. When one C— ground track.
of the other landing gears strikes, the unbalance could
be aggravated. This sets up a resonance of the fuselage. Collective pitch is used to control rate of speed during
(PLT259) — FAA-H-8083-21 taxi. The higher the collective pitch, the faster will be the
taxi speed. (PLT112) — FAA-H-8083-21
RTC
3333. While in level cruising flight in a helicopter, a pilot RTC
experiences low-frequency vibrations (100 to 400 cycles 3337. During surface taxiing, the cyclic pitch stick is
per minute). These vibrations are normally associated used to control
with the A— forward movement.
A— engine. B— heading.
B— cooling fan. C— ground track.
C— main rotor.
Cyclic pitch is used to control ground track during surface
Low-frequency vibrations are always associated with taxi. (PLT112) — FAA-H-8083-21
the main rotor. (PLT472) — FAA-H-8083-21
RTC, LSR
RTC 3338. If the pilot experiences ground resonance, and
3334. Select the helicopter component that, if defective, the rotor RPM is not sufficient for flight,
would cause medium-frequency vibrations. A— open the throttle full and liftoff.
A— Tail rotor. B— apply the rotor brake and stop the rotor as soon
B— Main rotor. as possible.
C— Engine. C— attempt to takeoff at that power setting.
Medium-frequency vibrations are a result of trouble with Ground resonance is an aerodynamic phenomenon
the tail rotor in most helicopters. (PLT470) — FAA-H- associated with fully-articulated rotor systems. It devel-
8083-21 ops when the rotor blades move out of phase with each
other and cause the rotor disc to become unbalanced.
This condition can cause a helicopter to self-destruct
RTC in a matter of seconds. However, for this condition to
3335. The principal reason the shaded area of a Height occur, the helicopter must be in contact with the ground.
vs. Velocity Chart should be avoided is If you experience ground resonance, and the rotor
A— turbulence near the surface can dephase the RPM is not yet sufficient for flight, apply the rotor brake
blade dampers. to maximum and stop the rotor as soon as possible. If
B— rotor RPM may decay before ground contact is ground resonance occurs during takeoff, when rotor
made if an engine failure should occur. r.p.m. is sufficient for flight, lift off immediately. (PLT265)
C— insufficient airspeed would be available to ensure — FAA-H-8083-21
a safe landing in case of an engine failure.
Answers
3332 [B] 3333 [C] 3334 [A] 3335 [C] 3336 [B] 3337 [C]
3338 [B]

LSR RTC
2329. If ground resonance is experienced during rotor 3736. (Refer to Figure 47.) Which airspeed/altitude com-
spin-up, what action should you take? bination should be avoided during helicopter operations?
A— Taxi to a smooth area. A— 30 MPH/200 feet AGL.
B— Make a normal takeoff immediately. B— 50 MPH/300 feet AGL.
C— Close the throttle and slowly raise the spin-up C— 60 MPH/20 feet AGL.
lever.
Use the following steps:
A corrective action for ground resonance is an immedi- 1. Note the shaded “avoid operation” areas of FAA
ate takeoff if RPM is in proper range (for helicopters) Figure 47.
or an immediate closing of the throttle and placing the
blades in low pitch if the RPM is low. “During spin-up” 2. Locate each of the three height-above-terrain and
implies low RPM, so closing the throttle is appropriate. airspeed points on the diagram.
(PLT259) — FAA-H-8083-21 3. The 60 MPH/20 feet AGL point is located within the
low-altitude high airspeed area.
RTC
(PLT285) — FAA-H-8083-21
3733. With calm wind conditions, which flight operation
would require the most power? RTC
A— A right-hovering turn. 3737. (Refer to Figure 47.) Which airspeed/altitude com-
B— A left-hovering turn. bination should be avoided during helicopter operations?
C— Hovering out of ground effect. A— 20 MPH/200 feet AGL.
B— 35 MPH/175 feet AGL.
During a hovering turn to the left, the RPM will decrease
C— 40 MPH/75 feet AGL.
if throttle is not added. In a hovering turn to the right,
RPM will increase if throttle is not reduced slightly. (This Use the following steps:
is due to the amount of engine power that is being
absorbed by the tail rotor, which is dependent upon the 1. Note the shaded “avoid operation” areas of FAA
pitch angle at which the tail rotor blades are operating.) Figure 47.
(PLT268) — FAA-H-8083-21 2. Locate each of the three height-above-terrain and
airspeed points on the diagram.
RTC
3. The 20 MPH/200 feet AGL point is located within the
3734. If the pilot were to make a near-vertical power high-altitude low airspeed area.
approach into a confined area with the airspeed near (PLT285) — FAA-H-8083-21
zero, what hazardous condition may develop?
A— Ground resonance when ground contact is made.
B— A settling-with-power condition.
C— Blade stall vibration could develop.
The following combination of conditions are likely to

cause settling with power:
1. A vertical, or nearly vertical, descent of at least 300
feet per minute. Actual critical rate depends on the
gross weight, RPM, density altitude, and other per-
tinent factors.
2. The rotor system must be using some of the available
engine power (from 20 to 100 percent).
3. The horizontal velocity must be no greater than
approximately 10 miles per hour.
(PLT264) — FAA-H-8083-21
Answers
2329 [C] 3733 [B] 3734 [B] 3736 [C] 3737 [A]

RTC RTC
3738. If anti-torque failure occurred during the landing 3740. Under what condition should a helicopter pilot
touchdown, what could be done to help straighten out consider using a running takeoff?
a left yaw prior to touchdown? A— When gross weight or density altitude prevents a
A— A flare to zero airspeed and a vertical descent to sustained hover at normal hovering altitude.
touchdown should be made. B— When a normal climb speed is assured between
B— Apply available throttle to help swing the nose to 10 and 20 feet.
the right just prior to touchdown. C— When the additional airspeed can be quickly
C— A normal running landing should be made. converted to altitude.
If sufficient forward speed is maintained, the fuselage A running takeoff is used when conditions of load and/
remains fairly well streamlined. However, if descent is or density altitude prevent a sustained hover at nor-
attempted at slow speeds, a continuous turning move- mal hovering altitude. It is often referred to as a high-
ment to the left can be expected. (Know the manufac- altitude takeoff. With insufficient power to hover at least
turer’s recommendations in case of tail rotor failure for momentarily or at a very low altitude, a running takeoff
each particular helicopter you fly. This information will is not advisable. No takeoff should be attempted if the
generally be found under Emergency Procedures in the helicopter cannot be lifted off the surface momentarily
helicopter flight manual.) Directional control should be at full power. (PLT222) — FAA-H-8083-21
maintained primarily with cyclic control and, secondarily,
by gently applying throttle momentarily, with needles
joined, to swing the nose to the right. (PLT169) — FAA- RTC
H-8083-21 3741. What action should the pilot take if engine failure
occurs at altitude?
A— Open the throttle as the collective pitch is raised.
RTC
B— Reduce cyclic back stick pressure during turns.
3739. Which flight technique is recommended for use
C— Lower the collective pitch control, as necessary,
during hot weather?
to maintain rotor RPM.
A— Use minimum allowable RPM and maximum
allowable manifold pressure during all phases of By immediately lowering collective pitch (which must
flight. be done in case of engine failure), lift and drag will be
B— During hovering flight, maintain minimum engine reduced and the helicopter will begin an immediate
RPM during left pedal turns, and maximum descent, thus producing an upward flow of air through
engine RPM during right pedal turns. the rotor system. The impact of this upward flow of air
C— During takeoff, accelerate slowly into forward provides sufficient thrust to maintain rotor RPM through-
flight. out the descent. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-21
The following techniques should be used in hot weather:

1. Make full use of wind and translational lift.
2. Hover as low as possible and no longer than neces-
sary.
3. Maintain maximum allowable engine RPM.
4. Accelerate very slowly into forward flight.
5. Employ running takeoffs and landings when neces-
sary.
6. Use caution in maximum performance takeoffs and
steep approaches.
7. Avoid high rates of descent in all approaches.
(PLT222) — FAA-H-8083-21
Answers
3738 [B] 3739 [C] 3740 [A] 3741 [C]

RTC A downward pressure on the collective pitch will start the

3742. Which is a precaution to be observed during an helicopter descending. As the upslope skid touches the
autorotative descent? ground, apply cyclic stick in the direction of the slope. This
A— Normally, the airspeed is controlled with the will hold the skid against the slope while the downslope
collective pitch. skid is continuing to be let down with the collective pitch.
B— Normally, only the cyclic control is used to make (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-21
turns.
C— Do not allow the rate of descent to get too low at
RTC
zero airspeed.
3745. Takeoff from a slope is normally accomplished by
When making turns during an autorotative descent, A— moving the cyclic in a direction away from the
generally use cyclic control only. Use of antitorque pedals slope.
to assist or speed the turn causes loss of airspeed and B— bringing the helicopter to a level attitude before
downward pitching of the nose. This is especially true completely leaving the ground.
when the left pedal is used. When the autorotation is C— moving the cyclic stick to a full up position as the
initiated, sufficient right pedal pressure should be used helicopter nears a level attitude.
to maintain straight flight and prevent yawing to the left.
This pressure should not be changed to assist the turn. Recommended slope takeoff technique is to:
(PLT175) — FAA-H-8083-21 1. Adjust throttle to obtain takeoff RPM and move the
cyclic stick in the direction of the slope so that the
rotor rotation is parallel to the true horizontal rather
RTC
than the slope.
3743. The proper action to initiate a quick stop is to apply
2. Apply up-collective pitch. As the helicopter becomes
A— forward cyclic and lower the collective pitch.
light on the skids, apply the pedal as needed to
B— aft cyclic and raise the collective pitch.
maintain heading.
C— aft cyclic and lower the collective pitch.
3. As the downslope skid is rising and the helicopter
A quick stop is initiated by applying aft cyclic to reduce approaches a level attitude, move the cyclic stick back
forward speed. Simultaneously, the collective pitch to the neutral position, keeping the rotor disc parallel
should be lowered as necessary, to counteract any to the true horizon. Continue to apply up-collective
climbing tendency. The timing must be exact. If too little pitch and take the helicopter straight up to a hover
down collective is applied for the amount of aft cyclic before moving away from the slope. In moving away
applied, a climb will result. If too much down collective from the slope, the tail should not be turned upslope
is applied for the amount of aft cyclic applied, a descent because of the danger of the tail rotor striking the
will result. A rapid application of aft cyclic requires an surface.
equally rapid application of down collective. As collective (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-21
pitch is lowered, the right pedal should be increased to
maintain heading, and throttle should be adjusted to
maintain RPM. (PLT217) — FAA-H-8083-21 RTC
3746. Which action would be appropriate for confined
area operations?
RTC
3744. What is the procedure for a slope landing? A— Takeoffs and landings must be made into the
wind.
A— When the downslope skid is on the ground, hold B— Plan the flightpath over areas suitable for a forced
the collective pitch at the same position. landing.
B— Minimum RPM shall be held until the full weight of C— A very steep angle of descent should be used to
the helicopter is on the skid. land on the selected spot.
C— When parallel to the slope, slowly lower the
upslope skid to the ground prior to lowering the In any type of confined area operation, plan a flight
downslope skid. path over areas suitable for forced landings if possible.
(PLT349) — FAA-H-8083-21
Answers
3742 [B] 3743 [C] 3744 [C] 3745 [B] 3746 [B]

RTC RTC
3747. If possible, when departing a confined area, what 3749. Before beginning a confined area or pinnacle
type of takeoff is preferred? landing, the pilot should first
A— A normal takeoff from a hover. A— execute a high reconnaissance.
B— A vertical takeoff. B— execute a low reconnaissance.
C— A normal takeoff from the surface. C— fly around the area to discover areas of
turbulence.
If possible, a normal takeoff from a hover should be
made when departing a confined area. (PLT222) — The purpose of the high reconnaissance is to determine
FAA-H-8083-21 the suitability of an area for landing. In a high recon-
naissance, the following items should be accomplished:
1. Determine wind direction and speed.
RTC
3748. Which is a correct general rule for pinnacle and 2. Select the most suitable flight paths into and out of
ridgeline operations? the area, with particular consideration being given
to forced landing areas.
A— Gaining altitude on takeoff is more important than
gaining airspeed. 3. Plan the approach and select a point for touchdown.
B— The approach path to a ridgeline is usually 4. Locate and determine the size of barriers, if any.
perpendicular to the ridge.
C— A climb to a pinnacle or ridgeline should be The approach path should be generally into the wind.
performed on the upwind side. The purpose of the low reconnaissance is to verify what
was seen in the high reconnaissance.
If necessary to climb to a pinnacle or ridgeline, the (PLT221) — FAA-H-8083-21
climb should be performed on the upwind side, when
practicable, to take advantage of any updrafts. (PLT221)
— FAA-H-8083-21
Glider Operations
GLI GLI
3174. The minimum allowable strength of a towline used 3175. The minimum allowable strength of a towline used
for an aerotow of a glider having a certificated gross for an aerotow of a glider having a certificated gross
weight of 700 pounds is weight of 1,040 pounds is
A— 560 pounds. A— 502 pounds.
B— 700 pounds. B— 832 pounds.
C— 1,000 pounds. C— 1,040 pounds.
No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider
unless the towline used has a breaking strength not less unless the towline used has a breaking strength not less
than 80% of the maximum certificated operating weight than 80% of the maximum certificated operating weight
of the glider, and not greater than twice this operating of the glider, and not greater than twice this operating
weight unless safety links are used. weight unless safety links are used.
700 lbs 1,040 lbs
x 0.80 x 0.80
560 lbs 832 lbs
(PLT496) — 14 CFR §91.309 (PLT496) — 14 CFR §91.309
Answers
3747 [A] 3748 [C] 3749 [A] 3174 [A] 3175 [B]

GLI GLI
3177. When using a towline having a breaking strength 3341. To obtain maximum distance over the ground,
more than twice the maximum certificated operating the airspeed to use is the
weight of the glider, an approved safety link must be A— minimum control speed.
installed at what point(s)? B— best lift/drag speed.
A— Only the point where the towline is attached to C— minimum sink speed.
the glider.
B— The point where the towline is attached to the If the maximum distance over the ground is desired,
glider and the point of attachment of the towline the airspeed for best L/D should be used. (PLT132) —
to the towplane. Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 2
C— Only the point where the towline is attached to
the towplane.
GLI
The towline may have a breaking strength of more than 3342. What effect would gusts and turbulence have on
twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the the load factor of a glider with changes in airspeed?
glider if a safety link is installed at the point of attachment A— Load factor decreases as airspeed increases.
of the towline to the glider, and a safety link is installed B— Load factor increases as airspeed increases.
at the point of attachment of the towline to the towing C— Load factor increases as airspeed decreases.
aircraft. (PLT496) — 14 CFR §91.309
Both positive and negative gust load factors increase
with increasing airspeed. (PLT132) — Soaring Flight
GLI Manual, Chapter 2
3176. For the aerotow of a glider that weighs 700
pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require
the use of safety links at each end of the rope? GLI
A— 850 pounds. 3343. (Refer to Figure 11.) Which yaw string and incli-
B— 1,040 pounds. nometer illustrations indicate a slipping right turn?
C— 1,450 pounds. A— 3 and 6.
B— 2 and 6.
No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider C— 2 and 4.
unless the towline used has a breaking strength not less
than 80% of the maximum certificated operating weight In the case of a slipping right turn, the yaw string moves
of the glider, and not greater than twice this operating outside left and the ball moves inside, or right, as illus-
weight unless safety links are used. trated by 2 and 6 of FAA Figure 11. (PLT185) — Soaring
700 lbs Flight Manual, Chapter 3
x2
1,400 lbs GLI
(PLT496) — 14 CFR §91.309 3344. (Refer to Figure 11.) Which of the illustrations
depicts the excessive use of right rudder during the
entry of a right turn?
GLI
A— 2 only.
3340. What force provides the forward motion neces-
B— 2 and 4.
sary to move a glider through the air?
C— 3 and 4.
A— Lift.
B— Centripetal force. In the case of a skidding right turn, the yaw string moves
C— Gravity. inside right and the ball moves outside, or left, as illus-
trated by 3 and 4 of FAA Figure 11. (PLT185) — Soaring
The pull of gravity provides the forward motion necessary Flight Manual, Chapter 3
to move the wings through the air. (PLT241) — Soaring
Flight Manual, Chapter 1
Answers
3177 [B] 3176 [C] 3340 [C] 3341 [B] 3342 [B] 3343 [B]
3344 [C]

GLI GLI
3345. A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 23:1. How 3347. A sailplane has lost 2,000 feet in 9 nautical miles.
many feet will the glider lose in 8 nautical miles? The best glide ratio for this sailplane is approximately
A— 1,840 feet. A— 24:1.
B— 2,100 feet. B— 27:1.
C— 2,750 feet. C— 30:1.
L/D is lift divided by drag. This significant ratio is numeri- L/D is lift divided by drag. This significant ratio is numeri-
cally the same as glide ratio, the ratio of forward to down- cally the same as glide ratio, the ratio of forward to
ward motion. Hence, 23 to 1 glide ratio would indicate: downward motion. Assuming that 1 NM is approximately
1. 23 = 6,000 (feet/NM – forward) 6,000 feet, the glide ratio and L/D may be expressed as:
1 X (feet/NM – downward) 9 × 6,000 feet forward 54,000 54 27
= = = or 27:1
2,000 feet downard 2,000 2 1
2. 23
× X = 6,000 (PLT006) — Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 9
1
3. X = 261 feet downward for each 6,000 feet (1 NM)
forward. GLI
4. The total sink is 8 NM × 261 feet/NM or about 2,100 3348. How many feet will a sailplane sink in 15 nautical
feet in 8 NM in calm air. miles if its lift/drag ratio is 22:1?
(PLT006) — Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 9 A— 2,700 feet.
B— 3,600 feet.
C— 4,100 feet.
GLI
3346. A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 30:1. How L/D is lift divided by drag. This significant ratio is numeri-
many nautical miles will the glider travel while losing cally the same as glide ratio, the ratio of forward to down-
2,000 feet? ward motion. Hence, 22 to 1 glide ratio would indicate:
A— 10 nautical miles. 1. 22 6,000 (feet/NM – forward)
=
B— 15 nautical miles. 1 X (feet/NM – downward)
C— 21 nautical miles.
2. 22
× X = 6,000
L/D is lift divided by drag. This significant ratio is numeri- 1
cally the same as glide ratio, the ratio of forward to down- 3. X = 273 feet downward for each 6,000 feet (1 NM)
ward motion. Hence, 30 to 1 glide ratio would indicate: forward.
1. 30 X (feet/NM – forward) 4. The total sink is 15 NM × 273 feet/NM, or about 4,095
=
1 2,000 (feet/NM – downward) feet in 15 NM in calm air.
2. 30 (PLT012) — Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 9
x 2,000 = X
1
3. X = 60,000 feet (10 NM) forward for each 2,000 feet
downward.
(PLT006) — Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 9
Answers
3345 [B] 3346 [A] 3347 [B] 3348 [C]

GLI GLI
3349. How many feet will a glider sink in 10 nautical 3752. What is one recommended method for locating
miles if its lift/drag ratio is 23:1? thermals?
A— 2,400 feet. A— Fly an ever increasing circular path.
B— 2,600 feet. B— Maintain a straight track downwind.
C— 4,300 feet. C— Look for converging streamers of dust or smoke.
L/D is lift divided by drag. This significant ratio is numeri- Look for converging streamers of dust and smoke.
cally the same as glide ratio, the ratio of forward to down- (PLT494) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16
ward motion. Hence, 23 to 1 glide ratio would indicate:
1. 23 6,000 (feet/NM – forward)
= GLI
1 X (feet/NM – downward) 3753. What is a recommended procedure for entering
2. 23 a dust devil for soaring?
× X = 6,000
1 A— Enter above 500 feet and circle the edge in the
3. X = 261 feet downward for each 6,000 feet (1 NM) same direction as the rotation.
forward. B— Enter below 500 feet and circle the edge opposite
4. The total sink is 10 NM × 261 feet/NM, or about 2,610 the direction of rotation.
feet in 10 NM in calm air. C— Enter at or above 500 feet and circle the edge
opposite the direction of rotation.
At around 500 feet, the pilot makes a circle on the out-
side of the dust devil against the direction of rotation.
GLI (PLT494) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16
3750. What minimum upward current must a glider
encounter to maintain altitude?
A— At least 2 feet per second. GLI
B— The same as the glider’s sink rate. 3754. What is an important precaution when soaring
C— The same as the adjacent down currents. in a dust devil?
A— Avoid the eye of the vortex.
Zero sink occurs when upward currents are just strong B— Avoid the clear area at the outside edge of the
enough to hold altitude. For a sink rate of about 2 feet per dust.
second, there must be an upward air current of at least C— Maintain the same direction as the rotation of the
2 feet per second. (PLT516) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16 vortex.
The rarefied air in the eye provides very little lift, and the
GLI wall of the hollow core is very turbulent. (PLT494) — AC
3751. On which side of a rocky knoll, that is surrounded 00-6A, Chapter 16
by vegetation, should a pilot find the best thermals?
A— On the side facing the Sun.
B— On the downwind side. GLI
C— Exactly over the center. 3755. What is the best visual indication of a thermal?
A— Fragmented cumulus clouds with concave bases.
If a rocky knoll protrudes above a grassy plane, the B— Smooth cumulus clouds with concave bases.
most likely area for thermals to occur is over the eastern C— Scattered to broken sky with cumulus clouds.
slope in the forenoon and over the western slope in the
afternoon. (PLT494) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16 Look for a cumulus with a concave base, and with a
firm, sharp, unfragmented outline. (PLT494) — AC
00-6A, Chapter 16
Answers
3349 [B] 3750 [B] 3751 [A] 3752 [C] 3753 [C] 3754 [A]
3755 [B]

GLI GLI
3756. How can a pilot locate bubble thermals? 3858. To stop pitch oscillation (porpoising) during a
A— Look for wet areas where recent showers have winch launch, the pilot should
occurred. A— release back pressure and then pull back against
B— Look for birds that are soaring in areas of the cycle of pitching oscillation to get in phase
intermittent heating. with the undulations.
C— Fly the area just above the boundary of a B— signal the ground crew to increase the speed of
temperature inversion. the tow.
C— relax the back pressure on the control stick and
Birds may be soaring in a “bubble’’ thermal that has shallow the angle of climb.
been pinched off and forced upward through intermittent
shading. (PLT494) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16 “Porpoising’’ is caused by the horizontal stabilizer oscil-
lating in and out of a stalled condition during a winch
tow. The cure is to relax back pressure on the stick and
GLI shallow the climb angle. (PLT304) — Soaring Flight
3757. Where may the most favorable type thermals for Manual, Chapter 13
cross-country soaring be found?
A— Just ahead of a warm front.
GLI
B— Along thermal streets.
C— Under mountain waves. 3859. A pilot plans to fly solo in the front seat of a two-
place glider which displays the following placards on
Thermal streeting is a real boon to speed and distance. the instrument panel:
(PLT494) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16 MINIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 135 LB
MAXIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 220 LB
GLI NOTE: Seat ballast should be used as necessary.
3758. Where and under what condition can enough lift be The recommended towing speed for all tows is 55 – 65
found for soaring when the weather is generally stable? knots. What action should be taken if the pilot’s weight
A— On the upwind side of hills or ridges with is 115 pounds?
moderate winds present. A— Add 20 pounds of seat ballast to the rear seat.
B— In mountain waves that form on the upwind side B— Add 55 pounds of seat ballast to obtain the
of the mountains. average pilot weight of 170 pounds.
C— Over isolated peaks when strong winds are C— Add 20 pounds of seat ballast.
present.
Two criteria must be satisfied in the loading of a glider:
Stability affects the continuity and extent of lift over hills 1. The total weight must be within limits, and
or ridges, allowing relatively streamlined upslope flow.
An upslope wind of 15 knots creates lift of about 6 feet 2. Within those limits, placement of the weight with
per second. (PLT173) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16 respect to the aerodynamic center of the wing must
satisfy total moment conditions (Weight × Arm =
Moment).
GLI To satisfy the conditions specified in the question, first
3857. Which is an advantage of using a CG hook for a calculate the weight required:
winch tow rather than the nose hook?
135 – 115 = 20 lbs
A— A greater percent of the line length can be used
to reach altitude. In order for that weight to provide the same moment as
B— Maximum release altitude is limited. the “pilot weight” it replaces, it will also need to be at
C— It is the safest method of launching. the same (that is, the forward) seat location. (PLT328)
— Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 2
A distinct advantage of a CG hook is that the sailplane
can gain a greater altitude with a given line length.
Answers
3756 [B] 3757 [B] 3758 [A] 3857 [A] 3858 [C] 3859 [C]

GLI GLI
3860. A pilot plans to fly solo in the front seat of a two- 3871. (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration is a signal
place glider which displays the following placards on to stop operation?
the instrument panel: A— 2.
MINIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 135 LB B— 3.
MAXIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 220 LB C— 7.
NOTE: Seat ballast should be used as necessary.
Wing runners should use a paddle, flag or some signaling
The recommended towing speed for all tows is 55 – 65 device that is easily visible to the tow pilot. Moving the
knots. What action should be taken if the pilot’s weight signaling device and free hand back and forth over the
is 125 pounds? head is the signal to stop operation. (PLT502) — Soar-
A— Add 10 pounds of seat ballast to the rear seat. ing Flight Manual, Chapter 12
B— Add 10 pounds of seat ballast.
C— Add 45 pounds of seat ballast to obtain the
GLI
average pilot weight of 170 pounds.
3872. (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration is a signal
Two criteria must be satisfied in the loading of a glider: from the sailplane for the towplane to turn right?
1. The total weight must be within limits, and A— 5.
B— 6.
2. Within those limits, placement of the weight with C— 11.
respect to the aerodynamic center of the wing must
satisfy total moment conditions (Weight × Arm = To signal the towplane to turn, move the glider to the
Moment). side opposite the direction of turn and gently pull the
To satisfy the conditions specified in the question, first towplane’s tail out. (PLT502) — Soaring Flight Manual,
calculate the weight required: Chapter 12
135 – 125 = 10 lbs
In order for that weight to provide the same moment as GLI
the “pilot weight” it replaces, it will also need to be at 3873. (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration is a signal
the same (that is, the forward) seat location. (PLT328) that the glider is unable to release?
— Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 2 A— 8.
B— 10.
GLI
C— 11.
3869. (Refer to Figure 56.) Illustration 2 means
If the glider cannot release, he/she should move to
A— release towline. the left and rock the wings. (PLT502) — Soaring Flight
B— ready to tow. Manual, Chapter 12
C— hold position.
During all glider operations there should be a wing run- GLI

ner, if possible. Lowering the wing and raising the hands 3874. (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration is a signal
is the signal to hold position. (PLT502) — Soaring Flight to the towplane to reduce airspeed?
Manual, Chapter 12 A— 7.
B— 10.
GLI
C— 12.
3870. (Refer to Figure 56.) Illustration 3 means
To signal the towplane or ground launch crew to reduce
A— stop operations. airspeed or ground launch speed, fishtail the glider.
B— release towline or stop engine now. (PLT502) — Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 12
C— take up slack.
The wing runner moving his/her hand across the throat

is the signal to release the towline or stop engine now.
Answers
3860 [B] 3869 [C] 3870 [B] 3871 [C] 3872 [A] 3873 [B]
3874 [C]

GLI GLI
3875. (Refer to Figure 56.) Which illustration means 3878. The sailplane has become airborne and the
the towplane cannot release? towplane loses power before leaving the ground. The
A— 6. sailplane should release immediately,
B— 8. A— and maneuver to the right of the towplane.
C— 9. B— extend the spoilers, and land straight ahead.
C— and maneuver to the left of the towplane.
After the glider has signaled that he/she cannot release,
the towplane will attempt to release the glider. If the The glider should maneuver to the right of the towplane.
towplane cannot release, he/she should fishtail the The towplane should move over to the left. If there is a
towplane. A landing on tow will then be necessary. narrow runway, a full spoiler landing should be made as
(PLT502) — Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 12 soon as possible. (PLT221) — Soaring Flight Manual,
Chapter 12
GLI, LSG
3876. What corrective action should the sailplane pilot GLI
take during takeoff if the towplane is still on the ground 3879. What should a glider pilot do if a towline breaks
and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left? below 200 feet AGL?
A— Crab into the wind by holding upwind (right) A— Turn into the wind, then back to the runway for a
rudder pressure. downwind landing.
B— Crab into the wind so as to maintain a position B— Turn away from the wind, then back to the runway
directly behind the towplane. for a downwind landing.
C— Establish a right wing low drift correction to C— Land straight ahead or make slight turns to reach
remain in the flightpath of the towplane. a suitable landing area.
Crab into the wind to maintain a position directly behind At low altitude, the only alternative to landing straight
the towplane. (PLT304) — Soaring Flight Manual, ahead may be slight turns in order to reach a suitable
Chapter 12 landing area. (PLT221) — Soaring Flight Manual,
Chapter 12
GLI
3877. An indication that the glider has begun a turn too GLI
soon on aerotow is that the 3880. A pilot unintentionally enters a steep diving spiral
A— glider’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn. to the left. What is the proper way to recover from this
B— towplane’s nose is pulled to the outside of the attitude without overstressing the glider?
turn. A— Apply up-elevator pressure to raise the nose.
C— towplane will pitch up. B— Apply more up-elevator pressure and then use
right aileron pressure to control the overbanking
When a turn is begun too soon, the towplane’s nose is tendency.
pulled to the outside of the turn. (PLT221) — Soaring C— Relax the back pressure and shallow the bank;
Flight Manual, Chapter 12 then apply up-elevator pressure until the nose
has been raised to the desired position.
The correct recovery from a spiral dive is to relax back

pressure on the stick and at the same time reduce the
bank angle with coordinated aileron and rudder. When
the bank is less than 45°, the stick may be moved back
while continuing to decrease bank. (PLT219) — Soaring
Flight Manual, Chapter 14
Answers
3875 [C] 3876 [B] 3877 [B] 3878 [A] 3879 [C] 3880 [C]

GLI GLI
3881. What corrective action should be taken if, while 3883. How are forward slips normally performed?
thermalling at minimum sink speed in turbulent air, the A— With the direction of the slip away from any
left wing drops while turning to the left? crosswind that exists.
A— Apply more opposite (right) aileron pressure than B— With dive brakes or spoilers fully open.
opposite (right) rudder pressure to counteract the C— With rudder and aileron deflection on the same
overbanking tendency. side.
B— Apply opposite (right) rudder pressure to slow the
rate of turn. When using the forward slip to increase an angle of
C— Lower the nose before applying opposite (right) descent without acceleration, the dive brakes or spoil-
aileron pressure. ers are normally fully open. (PLT221) — Soaring Flight
Manual, Chapter 14
If a wing begins to drop during a turn, it is an indication
of a stall. The nose of the sailplane should be lowered
before applying coordinated opposite aileron and rudder GLI
to break the stall. (PLT494) — Soaring Flight Manual, 3884. What would be a proper action or procedure to
Chapter 14 use if the pilot is getting too low on a cross-country flight
in a sailplane?
A— Continue on course until descending to 1,000
GLI
feet above the ground and then plan the landing
3882. A sailplane pilot can differentiate between a spin approach.
and a spiral dive because in a spiral dive, B— Fly directly into the wind and make a straight-in
A— the speed remains constant. approach at the end of the glide.
B— the G loads increase. C— Have a suitable landing area selected upon
C— there is a small loss of altitude in each rotation. reaching 2,000 feet AGL, and a specific field
chosen upon reaching 1,500 feet AGL.
A spiral dive, as contrasted to a spin, can be recognized
by rapidly increasing speed and G loading. (PLT245) — It is always necessary to have a suitable landing site in
Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 14 mind. As altitude decreases, the plans have to get more
specific. The area should be narrowed down at 2,000
feet and a specific field should be selected by 1,500
feet. (PLT221) — Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 16
Answers
3881 [C] 3882 [B] 3883 [B] 3884 [C]

Lighter-Than-Air Operations
LTA LTA
3351. The part of a balloon that bears the entire load 3355. When ample liquid propane is available, propane
is the will vaporize sufficiently to provide proper operation
A— envelope material. between the temperatures of
B— envelope seams. A— +30 to +90°F.
C— load tapes (or cords). B— -44 to +25°F.
C— -51 to +20°F.
The load tape supports the weight of the balloon and
minimizes the strain on the envelope fabric. (PLT177) When ample liquid propane is available, propane will
— Balloon Ground School vaporize sufficiently to provide proper operation between
30°F and 90°F. (PLT250) — Balloon Ground School
LTA
3352. In hot air balloons, propane is preferred to butane LTA, LSL
or other hydrocarbons because it 3356. If ample propane is available, within which tem-
A— is less volatile. perature range will propane vaporize sufficiently to pro-
B— is slower to vaporize. vide enough pressure for burner operation during flight?
C— has a lower boiling point. A— 0 to 30°F.
B— 10 to 30°F.
Propane is preferred over butane and other hydrocarbons C— 30 to 90°F.
in balloon design because propane has a lower boiling
point (-44°F). (PLT253) — Balloon Digest When ample liquid propane is available, propane will
vaporize sufficiently to provide proper operation between
30°F and 90°F. (PLT251) — Balloon Ground School
LTA
3353. The initial temperature at which propane boils is
LTA
A— +32°F.
B— -44°F. 3357. The valve located on the top of the propane tank
C— -60°F. which opens automatically when the pressure in the tank
exceeds maximum allowable pressure is the
Propane is preferred over butane and other hydrocarbons A— pressure relief valve.
in balloon design because propane has a lower boiling B— metering valve.
point (-44°F). (PLT253) — Balloon Digest C— blast valve.
The pressure relief valve is located on top of the fuel

LTA, LSL tank and opens automatically when the pressure in
3354. On cold days, it may be necessary to preheat the the tank exceeds the maximum allowable pressure.
propane tanks because (PLT254) — FAA-H-8083-11
A— the temperature of the liquid propane controls the
burner pressure during combustion.
B— there may be ice in the lines to the burner.
C— the propane needs to be thawed from a solid to a
liquid state.
On very cold days, it may be necessary to preheat the

propane tanks since the temperature of the liquid pro-
pane controls the burner pressure during combustion.
(PLT254) — FAA-H-8083-11
Answers
3351 [C] 3352 [C] 3353 [B] 3354 [A] 3355 [A] 3356 [C]
3357 [A]

LTA LTA
3358. The valve located on each tank that indicates 3362. For what reason is methanol added to the propane
when the tank is filled to 80 percent capacity is the fuel of hot air balloons?
A— main tank valve. A— To check for fuel leaks.
B— vapor-bleed valve. B— As a fire retardant.
C— pilot valve. C— As an anti-icing additive.
A vapor-bleed valve, or “spit tube,” is located on each tank Since propane holds little water in solution, there is a
and indicates when the tank is filled to 80% of capacity. tendency for free water to collect in the bottom of the
(PLT254) — Balloon Ground School tanks where it may reach the dip tube, be piped into the
burner system, and freeze up the regulators. If water
contamination is suspected, methyl alcohol (methanol)
LTA, LSL should be added to the system. (PLT251) — Balloon
3359. The lifting forces which act on a hot air balloon are Ground School
primarily the result of the interior air temperature being
A— greater than ambient temperature.
LTA, LSL
B— less than ambient temperature.
C— equal to ambient temperature. 3363. On a balloon equipped with a blast valve, the
blast valve is used for
A hot air balloon derives lift from the fact that air inside A— climbs and descents only.
the envelope is warmer and therefore, “lighter” than the B— altitude control.
air around the balloon. (PLT237) — FAA-H-8083-11 C— emergencies only.
The blast valve is located on the burner and controls

LTA, LSL ascent or descent by use of short bursts of power. When
3360. Burner efficiency of a hot air balloon decreases reaching the desired altitude, the pilot should reduce the
approximately what percent for each 1,000 feet above frequency of blasts. As the envelope cools, the desired
MSL? altitude can be maintained by using short blasts of heat
A— 4 percent. evenly spaced. (PLT177) — FAA-H-8083-11
B— 8 percent.
C— 15 percent.
LTA, LSL
Burner efficiency of a hot air balloon system decreases 3364. The term “weigh-off” means to determine the
at approximately 4% per 1,000 feet above MSL. (PLT177) A— static equilibrium of the balloon as loaded for
— Balloon Ground School flight.
B— amount of gas required for an ascent to a
preselected altitude.
LTA, LSL C— standard weight and balance of the balloon.
3361. While in flight, frost begins forming on the out-
side of the fuel tank in use. This would most likely be A weigh-off is used to determine the static equilibrium
caused by of the balloon. (PLT123) — Powerline Excerpts
A— water in the fuel.
B— a leak in the fuel line.
C— vaporized fuel instead of liquid fuel being drawn
from the tank into the main burner.
If large quantities of vapor are withdrawn rapidly from a

propane cylinder, the cooling effect of the vaporization in
the tank cools the propane and lowers the vapor pres-
sure and the rate of vaporization. (PLT254) — Balloon
Ground School
Answers
3358 [B] 3359 [A] 3360 [A] 3361 [C] 3362 [C] 3363 [B]
3364 [A]

LTA, LSL LTA, LSL

3365. What causes false lift which sometimes occurs 3368. Under which condition will an airship float in the
during launch procedures? air?
A— Closing the maneuvering vent too rapidly. A— When buoyant force equals horizontal equilibrium
B— Excessive temperature within the envelope. existing between propeller thrust and airship drag.
C— Venturi effect of the wind on the envelope. B— When buoyant force is less than the difference
between airship weight and the weight of the air
False lift is caused by the venturi effect produced by the volume being displaced.
wind blowing across an inflated but stationary envelope. C— When buoyant force equals the difference
This is “dynamic lift” created by relative air movement. between airship weight and the weight of the air
If the balloon is released, the relative wind decreases volume being displaced.
as the balloon accelerates to the speed of the wind and
false lift decreases. (PLT237) — Powerline Excerpts A lighter-than-air craft is in equilibrium when buoyancy
equals weight. The buoyant force is equal to the weight
of the air volume displaced. (PLT153) — Goodyear Air-
LTA ship Operations Manual
3366. What is the relationship of false lift with the wind?
A— False lift increases as the wind accelerates the
LTA, LSL
balloon.
B— False lift does not exist if the surface winds are 3369. During flight in an airship, when is vertical equi-
calm. librium established?
C— False lift decreases as the wind accelerates the A— When buoyancy is greater than airship weight.
balloon. B— When buoyancy equals airship weight.
C— When buoyancy is less than airship weight.
False lift is caused by the venturi effect produced by the
wind blowing across an inflated but stationary envelope. A lighter-than-air craft is in equilibrium when buoyancy
This is “dynamic lift” created by relative air movement. equals weight. The buoyant force is equal to the weight
If the balloon is released, the relative wind decreases of the air volume displaced. (PLT153) — Goodyear Air-
as the balloon accelerates to the speed of the wind and ship Operations Manual
false lift decreases. (PLT237) — Powerline Excerpts
LTA, LSL
LTA 3370. An airship descending through a steep tempera-
3367. What would cause a gas balloon to start a descent ture inversion will
if a cold air mass is encountered and the envelope A— show no change in superheat as altitude is lost.
becomes cooled? B— show a decrease in superheat as altitude is lost.
A— A density differential. C— become progressively lighter, thus becoming
B— A barometric pressure differential. increasingly more difficult to drive down.
C— The contraction of the gas.
As the airship descends into the colder temperature of
As the gas is cooled, it contracts and becomes more the inversion, the weight of the displaced air volume is
dense and so displaces less air. (PLT183) — Balloon increasing, thereby increasing buoyancy. (PLT153) —
Digest Goodyear Airship Operations Manual
Answers
3365 [C] 3366 [C] 3367 [C] 3368 [C] 3369 [B] 3370 [C]

LTA LTA
3371. What is airship superheat? 3375. How does the pilot know when pressure height
A— A condition of excessive exterior temperature of has been reached?
the envelope. A— Liquid in the gas manometer will rise and the liquid
B— The temperature of the lifting gas exceeding the in the air manometer will fall below normal levels.
red line. B— Liquid in the gas and air manometers will fall
C— The difference between outside air temperature below the normal level.
and the temperature inside the envelope. C— Liquid in the gas manometer will fall and the liquid
in the air manometer will rise above normal levels.
Superheat is the difference between outside air tem-
perature and the temperature in the airship envelope. When pressure height has been reached, the liquid
(PLT153) — Goodyear Airship Operations Manual in the gas manometer will rise and the liquid in the air
manometer will fall below normal levels. (PLT153) —
Goodyear Airship Operations Manual
LTA
3372. In relation to the operation of an airship, what is
the definition of aerostatics? LTA, LSL
A— The gravitational factors involving equilibrium of a 3376. The pressure height of an airship is the altitude
body freely suspended in the atmosphere. at which
B— The science of the dynamics involved in the A— the airship would be unable to gain more altitude.
expansion and contraction of hydrogen gas. B— gas pressure would reach 3 inches of water.
C— The expansion and contraction of the lifting gas C— the ballonet(s) would be empty.
helium.
Expansion of the gas will cause the ballonets to com-
Aerostatics are the gravitational factors involving equi- pletely deflate at pressure height. Thus, no further
librium of a body freely suspended in the atmosphere. increase in displaced air volume is possible. (PLT153)
(PLT124) — Goodyear Airship Operations Manual — Goodyear Airship Operations Manual
LTA LTA, LSL

3373. Below pressure height, each 5°F of positive 3377. The maximum altitude that a rigid airship can
superheat amounts to approximately reach (under a given atmospheric condition) and then
A— 1 percent of gross lift. return safely to the surface is determined by
B— 2 percent of net lift. A— the disposable load.
C— 2 percent of total lift. B— ballonet capacity.
C— pressure altitude.
Each 5°F amounts to about 1% of gross lift. (PLT153)
— Goodyear Airship Operations Manual Expansion of the gas will cause the ballonets to com-
pletely deflate at pressure height. Thus, no further
increase in displaced air volume is possible. (PLT153)
LTA — Goodyear Airship Operations Manual
3374. When the airship is at pressure height and super-
heat increases, constant pressure must be maintained
by valving LTA, LSL
A— gas from the envelope. 3378. An unbalanced condition of an airship in flight
B— air from the envelope. must be overcome by
C— gas from the ballonets. A— valving air from the ballonets.
B— valving gas from the envelope.
Expansion of the gas will cause the ballonets to com- C— a negative or a positive dynamic force.
pletely deflate at pressure height. Gas must be valved
from the envelope to maintain constant pressure. Dynamic force, created by movement through the air,
(PLT153) — Goodyear Airship Operations Manual must be used to overcome any out-of-equilibrium condi-
tion. (PLT153) — Goodyear Airship Operations Manual
Answers
3371 [C] 3372 [A] 3373 [A] 3374 [A] 3375 [A] 3376 [C]
3377 [C] 3378 [C]

LTA LTA
3379. Air damper valves should normally be kept closed 3885. Why should propane tanks not be refueled in a
during climbs because any air forced into the system closed trailer or truck?
would A— Propane vapor is one and one-half times heavier
A— increase the amount of gas that must be than air and will linger in the floor of the truck or
exhausted to prevent the airship from ascending trailer.
at an excessively high rate. B— The propane vapor is odorless and the refuelers
B— increase the amount of air to be exhausted, may be overcome by the fumes.
resulting in a lower rate of ascent. C— Propane is very cold and could cause damage to
C— decrease the purity of the gas within the the truck or trailer.
envelope.
Since propane vapor is 1-1/2 times heavier than air,
Any air entering the ballonets through the damper valves it can linger on the floor. (PLT254) — FAA-H-8083-11
will have to be exhausted overboard as the gas expands.
This slows the rate of ascent. (PLT221) — Goodyear
Airship Operations Manual LTA
3886. Why should special precautions be taken when
filling the propane bottles?
LTA
A— Propane is transferred from the storage tanks to
3380. To check the gas pressures (pressure height) of an the propane bottles under high pressure.
airship during a climb, the air damper valves should be B— During transfer, propane reaches a high
A— opened forward and closed aft. temperature and can cause severe burns.
B— opened aft and closed forward. C— Propane vapor is super-cold and may cause
C— closed. severe freeze burns.
If damper valves are open, ram air pressure will keep Precautions, such as wearing gloves, should be taken
the ballonets inflated longer than they should be inflated. when filling the propane bottles because propane is
(PLT158) — Goodyear Airship Operations Manual super-cold and may cause severe freeze burns. (PLT250)
— FAA-H-8083-11
LTA, LSL
3396. What condition does a rising barometer indicate LTA, LSL
for balloon operations? 3895. All fuel tanks should be fired during preflight to
A— Decreasing clouds and wind. determine
B— Chances of thunderstorms. A— the burner pressure and condition of the valves.
C— Approaching frontal activity. B— that the pilot light functions properly on each tank.
C— if there are any leaks in the tank.
Within a high-pressure system, flying conditions are
generally more favorable than in low-pressure areas Burner output is dependent on fuel pressure. Proper
because there are normally fewer clouds, better visibility, valve operation is critical to safety and control. (PLT177)
calm or light winds, and less turbulence. (PLT516) — AC — FAA-H-8083-11
00-6A, Chapter 4
Answers
3379 [B] 3380 [C] 3396 [A] 3885 [A] 3886 [C] 3895 [A]

LTA LTA
3896. What is a recommended ascent upon initial 3899. What is one procedure for relighting the burner
launch? while in flight?
A— Maximum ascent to altitude to avoid low-level A— Open the regulator or blast valve full open and
thermals. light the pilot light.
B— Shallow ascent to avoid flashbacks of flames as B— Close the tank valves, vent the fuel lines, reopen
the envelope is cooled. the tank valves, and light the pilot light.
C— A moderate-rate ascent to determine wind C— Open another tank valve, open the regulator or
directions at different levels. blast valve, and light the main jets with reduced
flow.
A moderate-rate ascent is recommended initially to accu-
rately determine the wind direction at various altitudes. The pilot should open another tank valve, open the regu-
(PLT304) — Balloon Ground School lar, or blast valve and light off the main jet with reduced
flow. (PLT177) — Balloon Ground School
LTA, LSL
3897. What is a potential hazard when climbing at LTA
maximum rate? 3900. The windspeed is such that it is necessary to
A— The envelope may collapse. deflate the envelope as rapidly as possible during a
B— Deflation ports may be forced open. landing. When should the deflation port (rip panel) be
C— The rapid flow of air may extinguish the burner opened?
and pilot light. A— The instant the gondola contacts the surface.
B— As the balloon skips off the surface the first time
The positive pressure on the top of the envelope could and the last of the ballast has been discharged.
force the deflation ports open. (PLT219) — FAA-H- C— Just prior to ground contact.
8083-11
In a high-wind landing, the envelope should be ripped
just prior to ground contact. (PLT184) — Balloon Ground
LTA School
3898. How should a roundout from a moderate-rate
ascent to level flight be made?
LTA, LSL
A— Reduce the amount of heat gradually as the
balloon is approaching altitude. 3901. When landing a free balloon, what should the
B— Cool the envelope by venting and add heat just occupants do to minimize landing shock?
before arriving at altitude. A— Be seated on the floor of the basket.
C— Vent at altitude and add heat upon settling back B— Stand with knees slightly bent, in the center of the
down to altitude. gondola, facing the direction of movement.
C— Stand back-to-back and hold onto the load ring.
The most efficient roundout is to reduce the frequency
of blasts so that the envelope cools to a level flight By facing forward with knees bent, the body is balanced
temperature just as the balloon reaches the desired and the legs act as springs, absorbing the landing shock.
altitude. (PLT219) — FAA-H-8083-11 (PLT184) — How to Fly a Balloon
Answers
3896 [C] 3897 [B] 3898 [A] 3899 [C] 3900 [C] 3901 [B]

LTA LTA, LSL

3902. Prior to a high-wind landing, the pilot in command 3905. In addition to the required documents, what carry-
should brief the passengers to prepare for the landing by on equipment should be accounted for during preflight?
A— kneeling on the floor and facing aft. A— Flotation gear.
B— crouching on the floor and jumping out of the B— Emergency locator transmitter.
basket upon contact with the ground. C— Two means of burner ignition.
C— crouching while hanging on in two places, and
remaining in the basket until advised otherwise. As a precaution against flameout, an ignitor must be
carried to relight the burner. A second ignitor is neces-
By facing forward with knees bent, the body is balanced sary in case the first malfunctions or is lost overboard.
and the legs act as springs absorbing the landing shock. (PLT473) — FAA-H-8083-11
It is important that everyone remain in the basket until
the envelope cannot lift the balloon back into the air.
(PLT208) — Balloon Ground School LTA, LSL
3906. How should a balloon fuel system be checked
for leaks prior to flight?
LTA
A— Listen and smell.
3903. Which precaution should be exercised if con- B— Check all connections with a lighted match.
fronted with the necessity of having to land a balloon C— Cover all connections and tubing with soapy
when the air is turbulent? water.
A— Land in any available lake close to the upwind
shore. Propane is under pressure and has an artificial odor. If
B— Land in the center of the largest available field. a leak exists, the fuel will “hiss’’ out and can be smelled.
C— Land in the trees to absorb shock forces, thus (PLT251) — Balloon Ground School
cushioning the landing.
At one time or another a balloonist will be faced with LTA, LSL

the necessity of having to land in turbulent air. When 3907. In a balloon, best fuel economy in level flight can
this happens, the landing should be attempted in the be accomplished by
middle of the largest field available. (PLT486) — Balloon A— riding the haze line in a temperature inversion.
Ground School B— short blasts of heat at high frequency.
C— long blasts of heat at low frequency.
LTA The desired envelope temperature for level flight is best
3904. What action is most appropriate when an envelope maintained by short blasts at high frequency. (PLT130)
over-temperature condition occurs? — FAA-H-8083-11
A— Throw all unnecessary equipment overboard.
B— Descend; hover in ground effect until the
envelope cools. LTA
C— Land as soon as practical. 3908. The minimum size a launch site should be is at
least
An envelope over-temperature can seriously degrade the A— twice the height of the balloon.
strength of the envelope, so land as soon as is practical. B— 100 feet for every 1 knot of wind.
(PLT208) — Balloon Ground School C— 500 feet on the downwind side.
A free balloon will move about 100 feet per minute for
every knot of wind. A pilot should allow 100 feet of travel
for each knot of wind speed. (PLT389) — Powerline
Excerpts
Answers
3902 [C] 3903 [B] 3904 [C] 3905 [C] 3906 [A] 3907 [B]
3908 [B]

LTA, LSL LTA

3909. What is a hazard of rapid descents? 3913. Which takeoff procedure is considered to be most
A— Wind shear can cavitate one side of the envelope, hazardous for an airship?
forcing air out of the mouth. A— Maintaining only 50 percent of the maximum
B— The pilot light cannot remain lit with the turbulent permissible positive angle of inclination.
air over the basket. B— Failing to apply full engine power properly on all
C— Aerodynamic forces may collapse the envelope. takeoffs, regardless of wind.
C— Maintaining a negative angle of inclination during
Turbulent airflow may extinguish the pilot light. (PLT125) takeoff after elevator response is adequate for
— FAA-H-8083-11 controllability.
The most hazardous takeoff condition would be maintain-

LTA, LSL ing a negative angle of inclination during takeoff, after
3910. It may be possible to make changes in the direc- elevator response is adequate for stability. (PLT221) —
tion of flight in a hot air balloon by Goodyear Operations Manual
A— flying a constant atmospheric pressure gradient.
B— operating at different flight altitudes.
LTA
C— operating above the friction level, if there is no
gradient wind. 3914. Which action is necessary in order to perform a
normal descent in an airship?
A free balloon has no propulsion and so must take A— Valve gas.
advantage of differing wind directions at various altitudes. B— Valve air.
(PLT219) — FAA-H-8083-11 C— Take air into the aft ballonets.
An airship is normally flown heavy, so a power reduc-

LTA tion would cause a descent. Air should be taken into
3911. What action should be taken if a balloon encoun- the forward ballonets. (PLT133) — Goodyear Opera-
ters unforecast weather and shifts direction abruptly tions Manual
while in the vicinity of a thunderstorm?
A— Land immediately.
LTA, LSL
B— Descend to and maintain the lowest altitude
possible. 3915. If an airship should experience failure of both en
C— Ascend to an altitude which will ensure adequate gines during flight and neither engine can be restarted,
obstacle clearance in all directions. what initial immediate action must the pilot take?
A— The airship must be driven down to a landing
Weather conditions during flight may take a sudden and before control and envelope shape are lost.
unpredictable change. When this occurs and if power- B— The emergency auxiliary power unit must be
ful wind gusts, thermals, wind shears, or precipitation started for electrical power to the airscoop
and lightning, are encountered, the appropriate action blowers so that ballonet inflation can be
is to land as soon as possible. (PLT208) — Goodyear maintained.
Operations Manual C— Immediate preparations to operate the airship as
a free balloon are necessary.
LTA An airship without power must be operated as a free
3912. To land an airship that is 250 pounds heavy when balloon. (PLT208) — Goodyear Operations Manual
the wind is calm, the best landing can usually be made
if the airship is
A— in trim.
B— nose heavy approximately 20°.
C— tail heavy approximately 20°.
A heavy airship should be trimmed tail heavy to provide

dynamic lift during approach. (PLT221) — Goodyear
Operations Manual
Answers
3909 [B] 3910 [B] 3911 [A] 3912 [C] 3913 [C] 3914 [A]
3915 [C]

Powered Parachute and Weight-Shift Control Operations

The explanations for the answers given describe the concepts that should be understood before taking
the test. Many of these questions are based on older weight-shift and PPC designs and unique charac-
teristics of specific designs. The answers given are the best of the choices provided.
PPC, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSP, LSW PPC, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSP, LSW
3958. The formation of ice in a carburetor’s throat is 3960. A standby source of fuel to an engine in a powered
indicated by parachute is typically
A— rough engine operation, followed by a decrease in A— from an electrically powered pump.
oil pressure. B— through gravity feed.
B— a rapid increase in RPM, followed by rough C— from a pressurized fuel tank.
engine operation.
C— a drop in RPM, followed by rough engine Some engines use an electric boost pump similar to an
operation. airplane to supply a back-up pump in case the engine-
driven fuel pump fails when low to the ground. (PLT253)
Carb ice restricts the airflow into the engine reducing its — The Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 5
power and resultant RPM, which also results in rough Answer (B) is incorrect because if a gravity feed system was used,
engine operation. (PLT190) — The Powered Parachute then this would supply fuel and no standby pump would be needed.
Bible, Chapter 5 Answer (C) is incorrect because pressurized fuel tanks are not nor-
mally used for light-sport aircraft.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because oil pressure is not sig-
nificantly affected by carb ice, and carb ice will not increase RPM.
PPC, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSP, LSW
3961. The fuel vents on many powered parachutes and
weight shift control aircraft are located
3959. The purpose of the fuel tank vent system is to
A— in the fuel cap.
A— remove dangerous vapors from the aircraft and
B— adjacent to the crankcase breather.
prevent an explosion.
C— in the fuel tank pressure relief valve.
B— allow air to enter the tank as fuel is consumed.
C— ensure a proper fuel to air ratio.
The fuel vent in many but not all fuel tanks is in the fuel
cap. (PLT253) — The Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 1
Fuel tanks are not normally sealed systems; they need
air venting because the fuel level is falling, therefore Answer (B) is incorrect because the crankcase breather is used on
a 4-stroke engine and has nothing to do with the fuel supply system
no vacuum builds up in the fuel tank. (PLT253) — The on a 2-stroke engine. Answer (C) is incorrect because most PPCs do
Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 1 not have pressurized fuel tanks nor a fuel tank pressure relief valve.
Answer (A) is incorrect because fuel tanks are isolated and fuel
vapors are prevalent within the fuel tank confined area. Answer (C)
relates to 2-stroke engines only. It is incorrect because fuel and oil PPC, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSP, LSW
are mixed either before the mixture is poured into the fuel tank (pre-
3962. Combusted fuel is expelled from a 2-cycle engine
mix), or after when oil is injected into the air/fuel mixture oil before it
goes into the combustion chamber. through an
A— exhaust valve and exhaust port.
B— exhaust valve.
C— exhaust port.
All 2-stroke engines expel exhaust through a passage

called the exhaust port. (PLT253) — The Powered
Parachute Bible, Chapter 4
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because only some higher power
engines use an exhaust valve, while all have an exhaust port.
Answers
3958 [C] 3959 [B] 3960 [A] 3961 [A] 3962 [C]

3963. Fuel enters a two-cycle engine through an 3966. Coolant in a liquid cooled engine is normally
A— intake port and intake valve. circulated by
B— intake port and reed valve. A— capillary attraction.
C— intake valve and reed valve. B— an electric pump.
C— an engine driven pump.
The air/fuel/oil mixture enters the crankcase through
an intake port that some types of valve systems use to Most liquid-cooled systems are driven from some
close off the crankcase and pressurize the air/fuel/oil mechanical source or pump on the engine. (PLT342)
mixture, before it is ported up to the top of the piston. — The Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 5
Many engines use the positioning of the piston as the Answer (A) is incorrect because capillary attraction is not normally
intake valve system, others use a rotary valve, while used for engine cooling. Answer (B) is incorrect because electric
still others use a one-way flow “reed” or “poppet” valve. pumps are usually used as coolant pumps.
(PLT253) — The Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 5
Answer (B) is incorrect because not all two-stroke engines use a
reed valve. Answer (C) is incorrect because you must have an intake
port. 3967. In order to improve engine efficiency, two-cycle
engine exhaust systems are tuned to
A— close the exhaust valve to stop the fuel mixture
from exiting the cylinder.
3964. The first indication of carburetor ice in an aircraft B— stop the fuel mixture from exiting the cylinder
with a four-cycle engine and fixed-pitch propeller is before combustion.
A— an increase in RPM. C— use a reed valve to stop the fuel mixture from
B— a decrease in RPM. exiting the cylinder.
C— a decrease in oil pressure.
If there is not an exhaust valve, tuned exhaust systems
The first symptom of carb ice in a 4-stroke engine is a are designed to provide back pressure pulses at the
reduction in engine RPM. (PLT190) — The Powered exhaust port. The tuned exhaust bounces pressure back
Parachute Bible, Chapter 5 at the appropriate time, so the fuel mixture stays in the
Answer (A) is incorrect because carb ice reduces RPM. Answer (C) combustion chamber while both intake and exhaust
is incorrect because carb ice has no noticeable effect on oil pres- ports are open. (PLT343) — The Powered Parachute
sure. Bible, Chapter 4
Answer (A) is incorrect because if the exhaust port has a valve, it is
not as critical to have a tuned exhaust to provide back pressure at
PPC, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSP, LSW the exhaust port. There are not usually exhaust valves in a 2-stroke
3965. Air cooled engines dissipate heat engine; however, some 2-stroke engines do have them. An example
of this is the RAVE exhaust valve on the ROTAX 618. Answer (C) is
A— through cooling fins on the cylinder and head. incorrect because the reed valve is typically used for the intake air/
B— by air flowing through the radiator fins. fuel mixture.
C— through the cylinder head temperature probe.
Air cooled engines use fins on the cylinder and head,

forcing air past them as the primary means to dissi-
pate heat. (PLT342) — The Powered Parachute Bible,
Chapter 5
Answer (B) is incorrect because air cooled engines do not have sep-
arate radiators; only water and oil coolers need a radiator. Answer
(C) is incorrect because the probe is not used to dissipate heat.
Answers
3963 [A] 3964 [B] 3965 [A] 3966 [C] 3967 [B]

3968. 2-cycle engine thrust and fuel efficiency can be 3971. Many 4-cycle engines utilize what type of lubrica-
greatly compromised when tion system?
A— exhaust systems are installed that are not A— Forced.
specifically tuned for an engine. B— Gravity.
B— carbon deposits build up on exhaust valves. C— Fuel/oil mixture.
C— intake valve lifters fail to pressurize and provide
adequate fuel to the combustion chamber. Most 4-stroke engines have an oil pump that forces
the oil through the system. (PLT343) — The Powered
The exhaust systems should be tuned to the engine for Parachute Bible, Chapter 5
maximum efficiency. (PLT343) — The Powered Para- Answer (B) is incorrect because gravity systems are not a typical
chute Bible, Chapter 4 oil supply system. Answer (C) is incorrect because a fuel/oil mixture
system is on 2-stroke engines only.
Answer (B) is incorrect because most 2-stroke engines do not have
exhaust valves. Answer (C) is incorrect because not all 2-stroke
engines have intake valve lifters.
3972. Adding more oil to the fuel than specified by the
PPC, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSP, LSW manufacturer of a 2-cycle engine will result in
3969. The purpose of a kill switch is to A— increased engine performance.
A— shut off the fuel to the carburetor. B— increased carbon buildup and engine fouling.
B— ground the lead wire to the ignition coil shutting C— increased engine lubrication and optimal
down the powerplant. performance.
C— ground the battery eliminating current for the
ignition system. Extra oil in the fuel would cause inefficient burning
and more carbon buildup as a result. (PLT343) — The
The kill switch shuts down the engine. (PLT207) — The Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 5
Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 6 Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because oil does not increase
Answer (A) is incorrect because a fuel valve shuts off fuel. Answer performance.
(C) is incorrect because the battery should already be grounded.

PPC, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSP, LSW 3973. Pilots should refrain from revving an engine with
3970. A typical two-cycle engine ignition coil is pow- a reduction drive because
ered by A— the crankshaft counterbalances may be dislodged
A— a battery. and cause extreme engine vibration.
B— a battery or an alternator. B— the propeller blade tips may exceed their RPM
C— a magneto. limits.
C— the torque exerted on the gears during excessive
The magneto is an engine-driven generator that pow- acceleration and deceleration can cause the gear
ers the ignition system and also supplies extra power box to self-destruct.
to aircraft electrical system. (PLT478) — The Powered
Parachute Bible, Chapter 7 Revving the engine causes more stress than not revving
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the battery is further it; it is good practice to not rev it unnecessarily. (PLT343)
down the line, and is also powered by the magneto. — The Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 5
Answer (A) is incorrect because not all engines have counterbal-
ances. Answer (B) is incorrect because the propeller is designed to
not exceed its maximum RPM at full power.
Answers
3968 [A] 3969 [B] 3970 [C] 3971 [A] 3972 [B] 3973 [C]

PPC, WSC, LSA, LSR, LSP, LSW WSC, LSW

3974. During preflight, the fuel vent system should 3977. During a wing stall, the wing tips of a weight shift
always be checked aircraft are
A— to ensure the vent is closed. A— ineffective for stall recovery.
B— to ensure the vent is open. B— effective for stall recovery.
C— to ensure the vent system pressure is in the C— effective only when combined with maximum
green range. engine output.
The fuel vent needs to be open for flight for the air to fill Since the wing tips are at a lower angle of attack, they
the fuel tank as the fuel is consumed. (PLT253) — The do not normally stall when the rest of the wing is stalled.
Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 1 They keep flying, creating an up-force in back of the
Answer (A) is incorrect because a closed fuel vent would cause a CG — causing the nose to rotate down and decrease
power loss in flight when air is unable to fill the tank as fuel is used. the angle of attack of the wing—therefore they are very
Answer (C) is incorrect because there is no pressure in the fuel tank effective for stall recovery. (PLT214) — Trikes, the Flex-
since it is vented.
Wing Flyers, Chapter 3
Answer (A) is incorrect because the tips are very effective for stall
recovery, allowing the nose to fall through. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the tips have more effect for stall recovery than the engine
3975. Carburetor ice can form power.
A— only at temperatures near freezing and the
humidity near the saturation point.
WSC, LSW
B— when the outside air temperature is as high as
100 degrees F and the humidity is as low as 50%. 3978. The crosstube is positioned by
C— at any temperature or humidity level. A— a quick release pin.
B— self-locking bolts.
Carburetor ice can form when the outside air temperature C— restraining cables attached to the rear of the keel.
is as high as 100°F and the humidity is as low as 50%.
This is not the optimum conditions for the ice to form, The crossbar is pulled back to tension the airframe into
but it can form under these conditions. (PLT190) — The the sail with the crossbar cables. These are attached to
Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 5 a connection point on the rear of the keel. (PLT346) —
Answer (A) is incorrect because carb ice can form when it is as high Trikes, the Flex-Wing Flyers, Chapter 3
at 100°F. Answer (C) is incorrect because some moisture is needed Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because these are fasteners and
to form the ice. would only make smaller variations in the crossbar position if these
fasteners were adjusted to different settings.
WSC, LSW
3976. As a weight shift aircraft wing approaches a stall,
the wing tips
A— decrease the wing’s angle of attack.
B— act in much the same way as ailerons on a three-
axis aircraft.
C— increase the wing’s angle of attack.
As the angle of attack of the wing is increased, the nose

is at a higher angle of attack and therefore stalls first
while the tips keep flying. This drops the nose and as a
result, decreases the wing’s angle of attack. (PLT214)
— Trikes, the Flex-Wing Flyers, Chapter 3
Answer (B) is incorrect because the wing tips act the same way aile-
rons do while flying normally and while approaching a stall. Answer
(C) is incorrect because the tips only increase the wing’s angle of
attack when the wing is at a low angle of attack, far from a stall.
Answers
3974 [B] 3975 [B] 3976 [A] 3977 [B] 3978 [C]

WSC, LSW WSC, LSW

3979. On some trikes, the hang point is part of 3981. How does the wing design feature “washout”
A— a variable trim arrangement that allows the pilot affect the production of lift?
to adjust the aircraft center of gravity during flight A— The wing tips continue producing lift when the
to obtain the most favorable aircraft performance. main body of the wing is not producing lift.
B— an adjustable trim arrangement that allows B— The main body of the wing continues to produce
the pilot to adjust the aircraft center of gravity lift when the wing tips are not producing lift.
during flight to obtain the most favorable aircraft C— The center of lift moves from the trailing edge of
performance. the wing, to the leading edge of the wing, as the
C— an adjustable trim arrangement that allows the wing begins to stall.
center of gravity to shift fore and aft along the
wing’s keel. The washout/twist in the wing, starts with a high angle
of attack at the root/nose, and decreases the angle of
Most trikes have an adjustment to move the position on attack as the you approach each tip. This washout/twist,
the keel fore and aft on the ground. This is a common sweep, and airfoil shape is designed into the wing to
way to adjust the trim speed and bar position of the wing. make the nose lose lift first while the tips keep flying at
(PLT214) — Trikes, the Flex-Wing Flyers, Chapter 3 high angles of attack. (PLT214) — Trikes, the Flex-Wing
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because although this is a viable Flyers, Chapter 3
design concept that has been and may be used for trikes, not many Answer (B) is incorrect because this happens only when the wing is
incorporate the complexity of a variable CG during flight. at very low angles of attack where the wing is not near the critical
angle of attack to stall. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is not
the design of any trike wing and would produce a wing that would be
WSC, LSW unstable near the stall.
3980. The keel pocket’s purpose is to
A— act as a longitudinal stabilizer, keeping the wing WSC, LSW
from wandering left and right. 3982. The wing of a weight-shift aircraft twists so that
B— act as a roll stabilizer, keeping the wing from the angle of attack
wandering left and right.
A— from the center of the wing to the wing tip is
C— act as a yaw stabilizer, keeping the wing from
variable and can be adjusted by the pilot in flight
wandering left and right.
to optimize performance.
The most significant effect a keel pocket could have B— changes from a low angle of attack at the center
on stability would be for yaw. This was an early design of the wing, to a high angle of attack at the tips.
concept used in the development of the flex wing. Today, C— changes from a high angle of attack at the center
the wing sweep, washout, and airfoil shape are designed of the wing, to a low angle of attack at the tips.
to optimize the tracking (yaw) for the vertical axis. Keel
The fundamental design of the flex wing is for the wing
pockets today are a fabric channel in the sail material
to twist from a high angle of attack at the nose, to a
the keel is inserted into, to hold the keel in place at the
lower angle of attack at the tips. (PLT214) — Trikes, the
root of the wing. (PLT346) — Trikes, the Flex-Wing Fly-
Flex-Wing Flyers, Chapter 3
ers, Chapter 3
Answer (A) is incorrect because this would provide a wing that would
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the keel pocket does not be unstable and dangerous. Flex wings are not designed this way.
supply this stability. Answer (B) is incorrect because this only applies for some wing
designs but not all. Varying the twist in the wing is common to most
high performance hang gliders in flight and used as one method to
trim weight-shift wings as well.
Answers
3979 [C] 3980 [C] 3981 [A] 3982 [C]

PPC, LSP PPC, LSP

3983. During flight, advancing thrust will 3986. The center of gravity tube is
A— increase airspeed. A— lengthened for heavier pilots.
B— cause the aircraft to climb. B— shortened for lighter pilots.
C— cause the aircraft to increase airspeed and climb. C— lengthened for lighter pilots.
Throttle controls vertical speed in a PPC. Advancing The lighter the pilot, the more rearward the wing attach-
the throttle will produce decreased descent rates or ment should be for the hanging airframe to be balanced
increased climb rates. Speed in a PPC is controlled by properly. Most modern designs have a number of wing
the weight and not the throttle. (PLT346) — The Powered attachment points fore and aft on the airframe. For the
Parachute Bible, Chapter 1 tube CG adjustment system, lengthening the CG tube
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because throttle does not affect moves the wing attachment point back to account for
airspeed. the lightweight person in the front. (PLT346) — The
Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 3
Answer (A) is incorrect because this would balance the airframe with
PPC, LSP the nose wheel too low. Answer (B) is incorrect because this would
3984. The torque effect of an engine that rotates clock- move the CG forward and the front wheel would be too high.
wise in a powered parachute is counteracted by
A— increasing the length of the right and decreasing PPC, LSP
the length of the left riser cables. 3987. The fan guard surrounds the propeller and
B— decreasing the length of the left riser cables.
C— decreasing the length of right riser cables. A— increases aerodynamic efficiency.
B— reduces “P” factor.
A clockwise or right-turning propeller when viewed from C— protects the parachute suspension lines from
the rear creates an opposite reaction to turn the under- damage.
carriage aircraft to the left. Therefore, a slight right-hand
turn needs to be built into the aircraft to accommodate The purpose of the fan guard is to protect the parachute
for this torque. Many designs are used by manufacturers lines from hitting the prop. (PLT346) — The Powered
to accomplish this. Decreasing the length of the right- Parachute Bible, Chapter 1
hand riser will accomplish this by bringing the right side Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the fan guard reduces
of the wing down. (PLT346) — The Powered Parachute performance and has no effect on P factor.
Bible, Chapter 2
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because they would create a turn
PPC, LSP
in the wrong direction.
3988. Cross ports in the parachute ribs aid in
A— weight reduction of the canopy.
PPC, LSP B— the pressurization of the neighboring cells.
3985. The steering bars C— drying of the canopy.
A— are used during taxi operations with the
parachute stowed. Cross ports in the wing ribs allow air to flow sideways
B— control the outboard trailing edge of the parachute. from cell to cell, called “cross flow” in the wing. This
C— control the main landing gear brakes. causes the cells next to each other to transfer pressure
inside the wing and cells to pressurize neighboring cells.
The steering bars are the main control to turning in (PLT346) — The Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 2
flight. Pushing on the right-hand steering bar will pull
the right control line, lower the trailing edge of the right
wing, create more drag on the right side and turn the
aircraft to the right. (PLT346) — The Powered Parachute
Bible, Chapter 1
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the steering bars control
the wing and are not used for ground operations.
Answers
3983 [B] 3984 [C] 3985 [B] 3986 [C] 3987 [C] 3988 [B]

PPC, LSP PPC, LSP

3989. Splicing severed suspension lines 3992. Swapping wings from one brand or type of pow-
A— is permissible if using the same size material as ered parachute to another is
the original line. A— permissible as long as the basic shape of the
B— is a very dangerous practice. parachutes are similar.
C— is an acceptable field repair. B— dangerous since every wing is designed for a
specific aircraft.
Splicing lines is dangerous because you can change C— permissible if the overall area of the parachutes is
the airfoil; the lines could come loose and go through the same.
the prop. (PLT346) — The Powered Parachute Bible,
Chapter 2 Every wing is designed for a specific airframe configura-
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because splicing is a dangerous tion, engine torque and weight. (PLT346) — The Powered
practice. Parachute Bible, Chapter 2
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because there can be a different
length in the lines between the right and left, which has nothing to do
PPC, LSP with the shape and area of the wing.
3990. Tying a severed suspension line
A— will change the shape of the wing and is not PPC, LSP
permissible. 3993. Degradation of the parachute’s protective poly-
B— is permissible if it is shortened no more than six urethane coating results in
inches.
C— is an acceptable field repair. A— increased takeoff distances, decreased maximum
gross weight, and increased fuel consumption.
Tying a severed suspension line would shorten it and B— reduced takeoff distances, increased maximum
create a discontinuity in the wing shape and is not gross weight, and reduced fuel consumption.
acceptable. (PLT346) — The Powered Parachute Bible, C— increased takeoff distances, increased maximum
Chapter 2 gross weight, and increased fuel consumption.
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because tying is a dangerous
practice. A degradation of the fabric results in air leaking through
the fabric and a loss in performance since this creates
more drag. (PLT346) — The Powered Parachute Bible,
PPC, LSP Chapter 2
3991. What gives your powered parachute wing/canopy Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because there is no increased
its airfoil shape? gross weight.
A— The risers because, by decreasing the length
of the right riser you will get the precise airfoil PPC, LSP
shape. 3994. Flaring allows the pilot to touchdown at a
B— The suspension lines as they are precisely
measured and fitted to a specific location. A— higher rate of speed and a slower rate of descent.
C— The air as it enters the cell openings on the B— lower rate of speed and a higher rate of descent.
leading edge of the airfoil. C— lower rate of speed and a lower rate of descent.
The precise lengths of the suspension lines determine Flaring slows you down and decreases your descent rate
the bottom shape of the airfoil. Airfoil-shaped ribs for a soft and slow landing. (PLT221) — The Powered
attached to the bottom of the airfoil where the suspen- Parachute Bible, Chapter 1
sion lines are attached define the top shape of the airfoil. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because flaring does not produce
(PLT346) — The Powered Parachute Bible a higher rate of speed or a higher rate of descent.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the decreased length of the right

riser is used to counteract torque on some designs, thus causing a
turn. Answer (C) is incorrect because the air inflates the canopy to
whatever airfoil shape the suspension lines and ribs define.
Answers
3989 [B] 3990 [A] 3991 [B] 3992 [B] 3993 [A] 3994 [C]

PPC, LSP LSW

3995. Flaring during a landing 2348. Which aircraft component ensures the wing has
A— decreases the powered parachute’s speed due to a pitch-up tendency?
increased drag. A— Keel pocket.
B— increases the powered parachute’s speed due to B— Luff lines.
reduced drag. C— Washout rod.
C— decreases the powered parachute’s drag due to
increased speed. The luff lines can be used for pitch up stability in level
flight by pulling the trailing edge up, creating a reflex in
Flaring or pulling down on the trailing edge creates more the training edge of the wing from the root out towards
drag and slows the aircraft similar to a flap on an airplane. the tips. The luff lines also provide a positive pitch up
(PLT221) — The Powered Parachute Bible, Chapter 1 tendency in a steep dive or slight negative angles of
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because flaring does not increase attack by increasing reflex in the airfoil by keeping the
the speed of a PPC. trailing edge pulled up in this unusual situation. (PLT114)
— Trikes, the Flex-Wing Flyers
Answer (A) is incorrect because the keel pocket simply holds the
LSW keel in place. Answer (C) is incorrect because the washout rods only
2347. One of the functions of the wing’s crossbar is to provide a positive pitch-up moment when the aircraft is in a steep
dive at zero angle of by holding the trailing edge up at the tips; the
A— hold the wings open. washout rods have no effect on the flight characteristics of the air-
B— provide surface to grip and control the aircraft. craft in normal flight conditions.
C— provide an attachment point for the carriage.
The purpose of the crosstube is to hold the leading

edges open and therefore the wing. (PLT114) — Trikes,
the Flex-Wing Flyers
Answer (B) is incorrect because it is the control bar you grip to
control the aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because the attachment
point for the carriage is the keel, the carriage cannot be attached to
the crossbar.
Gyroplane
LSR LSR
2326. Why should gyroplane operations within the 2327. The principal factor limiting the never-exceed
cross-hatched portion of a Height vs. Velocity chart be speed (VNE) of a gyroplane is
avoided? A— turbulence and altitude.
A— The rotor RPM may build excessively high if it is B— blade-tip speed, which must remain below the
necessary to flare at such low altitudes. speed of sound.
B— Sufficient airspeed may not be available to ensure C— lack of sufficient cyclic stick control to
a safe landing in case of an engine failure. compensate for dissymmetry of lift or retreating
C— Turbulence near the surface can dephase the blade stall, depending on which occurs first.
blade dampers causing geometric unbalanced
conditions on the rotor system. Retreating blade stall is the principal factor limiting the
never-exceed speed. (PLT260) — FAA-H-8083-21
The chart can be used to determine those altitude-
airspeed combinations from which it would be impossible
to successfully complete an autorotative landing. The
altitude-airspeed combinations that should be avoided
are represented by the shaded areas of the chart.
(PLT123) — FAA-H-8083-21
Answers
3995 [A] 2347 [A] 2348 [B] 2326 [B] 2327 [C]

Chapter 3
Flight Instruments
Pitot-Static Instruments 3 – 3
Airspeeds and the Airspeed Indicator 3 – 4
The Altimeter and Altitudes 3 – 8
Gyroscopic Instruments 3 – 13
Attitude Indicator 3 – 13
Turn Coordinator 3 – 13
Heading Indicator 3 – 13
Magnetic Compass (Northern Hemisphere) 3 – 14

Chapter 3 Flight Instruments

Pitot-Static Instruments
The pressure altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, and airspeed indicator operate in response to pressures
through the pitot-static system. See Figure 3-1.
Static (atmospheric) pressure is taken from the static vents and is provided to all three instruments.
Clogging of the static vents or line will cause all three instruments to become inoperative or to display
erroneous readings.
Impact (ram) pressure is taken from the pitot tube and furnished to the airspeed indicator only.
Clogging of the pitot opening will not affect operation of the altimeter or vertical speed indicator.
Figure 3-1. Pitot-static system
ALL ALL
3248. Which instrument will become inoperative if the 3249. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if
pitot tube becomes clogged? the static vents become clogged?
A— Altimeter. A— Airspeed only.
B— Vertical speed. B— Altimeter only.
C— Airspeed. C— Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
The pitot tube provides input for the airspeed indicator Airspeed, altimeter and vertical speed all receive static
only. (PLT337) — FAA-H-8083-25 input and would indicate inaccurately if the static sources
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the altimeter and vertical became plugged. (PLT337) — FAA-H-8083-25
speed indicator operate off the static system and are not affected by
a clogged pitot tube.
Answers
3248 [C] 3249 [C]

AIR, GLI, RTC, LSA, LSG, LSR, LSW AIR, GLI, RTC, LSA, LSG, LSR, LSW
3247. If the pitot tube and outside static vents become 3262. The pitot system provides impact pressure for
clogged, which instruments would be affected? which instrument?
A— The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and- A— Altimeter.
slip indicator. B— Vertical-speed indicator.
B— The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical C— Airspeed indicator.
speed indicator.
C— The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip The pitot tube provides input for the airspeed indicator
indicator. only. (PLT337) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the altimeter and vertical
Airspeed, altimeter and vertical speed all receive static speed indicator operate off the static system.
input and would indicate inaccurately if the static sources
became plugged. (PLT337) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the turn-and-slip indica-
tor and attitude indicator are gyroscopic instruments, and are not
part of the pitot-static system.
Airspeeds and the Airspeed Indicator

A pilot must be familiar with the following airspeed terms and abbreviations:
Indicated Airspeed (IAS)—the uncorrected reading obtained from the airspeed indicator.
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)—indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument error.
True Airspeed (TAS)—calibrated airspeed corrected for temperature and pressure variations.
A number of airspeed limitations, abbreviated as “V” speeds, are indicated by color-coded marking
on the airspeed indicator (see Figure 3-2):
VS0 —stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration (the lower limit of the
white arc).
VFE—maximum flap extended speed (the upper limit of the white arc). The entire white arc defines
the flap operating range.
VS1—the stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration (the lower limit of
the green arc). The entire green arc defines the normal operating range.
VNO—the maximum structural cruising speed (the upper limit of the green arc and lower limit of the
yellow arc). The yellow arc defines the caution range, which should be avoided unless in smooth air.
VNE—never exceed speed (the upper limit of the yellow arc) marked in red.
There are other important airspeed limitations that are not color-coded on the airspeed indicator:
VLE—the maximum landing gear extended speed.
VA—the design maneuvering speed. If rough air or severe turbulence is encountered, airspeed should
be reduced to maneuvering speed or less to minimize stress on the airplane structure.
VY —the best rate-of-climb speed (the airspeed that will result in the most altitude in a given period
of time).
VX —the best angle-of-climb speed (the airspeed that will result in the most altitude in a given distance).
Answers
3247 [B] 3262 [C]

AIR, GLI, RTC, WSC

3268. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the
never-exceed speed?
A— Upper limit of the green arc.
B— Upper limit of the white arc.
C— The red radial line.
The upper end of the arc is marked by a red radial line

which is the never-exceed speed (VNE). (PLT088) —
FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because the upper limit of the green arc is
the beginning of the caution range. Answer (B) is incorrect because
the upper limit of the white arc is the maximum speed at which flaps
may be extended.
AIR, WSC
power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
A— Upper limit of the green arc.
B— Upper limit of the white arc.
Figure 3-2. Airspeed indicator C— Lower limit of the green arc.
AIR, GLI, RTC, WSC The green arc is the normal operating range. The lower
3006. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? end of the arc (VS1) is the stalling speed in a specified
configuration. (PLT088) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— VA.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the upper limit of the green arc
B— VLO. indicates the maximum structural cruising speed. Answer (B) is
C— VNE. incorrect because the upper limit of the white arc is the maximum
flaps-extended speed.
VA is design maneuvering speed. (PLT506) — 14 CFR
§1.2
AIR, WSC, PPC
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the maximum landing gear
operating speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the never 3011. Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude
exceed speed. in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
A— VY.
AIR, GLI, RTC, WSC, LSA, LSG, LSR, LSW
B— VA.
3264. What does the red line on an airspeed indicator C— VX.
represent?
VX (best angle) is the calibrated airspeed at which the
A— Maneuvering speed. aircraft will attain the highest altitude in a given horizontal
B— Turbulent or rough-air speed. distance. (PLT123) — 14 CFR §1.2
C— Never-exceed speed. Answer (A) is incorrect because VY is best rate of climb. Answer (B)
is incorrect because VA is design maneuvering speed.
The upper end of the arc is marked by a red radial line
which is the never-exceed speed (VNE). (PLT132) —
FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the maneuvering speed
and turbulent or rough-air speed is not indicated on the airspeed
indicator.
Answers
3006 [A] 3264 [C] 3268 [C] 3269 [C] 3011 [C]

AIR, WSC AIR

3012-1. After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot 3270. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-
use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time? extended speed?
A— VY. A— 65 knots.
B— VX. B— 100 knots.
C— VA. C— 165 knots.
VY (best rate) is the calibrated airspeed at which the The flap operating range is marked by the white arc. The
airplane will obtain the maximum increase in altitude high end is VFE (maximum flap extended speed), which is
per unit of time (feet per minute) after takeoff. (PLT123) 100 knots for this airplane. (PLT088) — FAA-H-8083-25
— 14 CFR §1.2 Answer (A) is incorrect because 65 knots is the lower limit of the
Answer (B) is incorrect because VX is the best angle of climb. Answer green arc, which is the power-off stall speed, VS1. Answer (C) is
(C) is incorrect because VA is the design maneuvering speed. incorrect because 165 knots is the upper limit of the green arc,
which is VNO .
AIR
AIR
3265. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the full flap operating
range for the airplane?
normal flap operating range?
A— 55 to 100 knots.
A— The yellow arc.
B— 55 to 208 knots.
B— The green arc.
C— 55 to 165 knots.
C— The white arc.
The flap operating range is marked by the white arc.
The flap operating range is marked by the white arc.
The low end is VS0 (stall speed in a landing configura-
The low end is VS0 (stall speed in a landing configura-
tion), and the high end is VFE (maximum flap extended
tion), and the high end is VFE (maximum flap extended
speed). (PLT088) — FAA-H-8083-25
speed). (PLT088) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because 55 to 208 knots is the entire operat-
ing range of this airplane, from the stall speed to the never-exceed Answer (A) is incorrect because the yellow arc is the caution range.
speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because 55 to 165 knots is the nor- Answer (B) is incorrect because the green arc indicates the normal
mal operating range for this airplane (green arc). operating range.
AIR, WSC AIR

3267. (Refer to Figure 4.) The maximum speed at which 3272. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the
the airplane can be operated in smooth air is power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing
gear in the landing configuration?
A— 100 knots.
B— 165 knots. A— Upper limit of the green arc.
C— 208 knots. B— Upper limit of the white arc.
C— Lower limit of the white arc.
The caution range (yellow arc) includes speeds which
should only be flown in smooth air; the maximum speed The flap operating range is marked by the white arc. The
in the caution range is 208 knots for this airplane. low end is VS0 (stall speed in a landing configuration).
(PLT088) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT088) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because 100 knots is the upper limit of the Answer (A) is incorrect because the upper limit of the green arc is
white arc, which is the maximum flaps-extended speed. Answer (B) VNO. Answer (B) is incorrect because the upper limit of the white arc
is incorrect because 165 knots is the upper limit of the green arc, is VFE.
which is the maximum structural cruising speed.
Answers
3012-1 [A] 3265 [A] 3267 [C] 3270 [B] 3271 [C] 3272 [C]

AIR, WSC VLE is the maximum calibrated airspeed at which the

3273. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum struc- airplane can be safely flown with the landing gear
tural cruising speed? extended. (PLT506) — 14 CFR §1.2
A— 100 knots. Answer (B) is incorrect because VLO is maximum landing gear oper-
B— 165 knots. ating speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because VFE is maximum flap
extended speed.
C— 208 knots.
The green arc is the normal operating range. The upper AIR, GLI, WSC
end of the arc (VNO ) is defined as the “maximum struc- 3009. VNO is defined as the
tural cruising speed.” (PLT088) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because 100 MPH is the upper limit of the
A— normal operating range.
white arc, which is the maximum flaps extended speed. Answer (C) B— never-exceed speed.
is incorrect because 208 knots is the never-exceed speed. C— maximum structural cruising speed.
VNO is the maximum calibrated airspeed for normal

AIR, WSC operation, or the maximum structural cruising speed.
3274. What is an important airspeed limitation that is (PLT506) — 14 CFR §1.2
not color coded on airspeed indicators? Answer (A) is incorrect because this is not designated a V-speed;
A— Never-exceed speed. but rather it is the green arc on the airspeed indicator. Answer (B) is
incorrect because this is VNE.
B— Maximum structural cruising speed.
C— Maneuvering speed.
AIR, GLI
Maneuvering speed (VA) is not displayed on the airspeed 3010. VS0 is defined as the
indicator. (PLT278) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because the never-exceed speed is indi-
A— stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in
cated by a red line on the airspeed indicator. Answer (B) is incorrect the landing configuration.
because the maximum structural cruising speed can be found on the B— stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in
airspeed indicator by the upper limit of the green arc. a specified configuration.
C— stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.
AIR, GLI
VS0 is the calibrated power-off stalling speed or the
3007. Which V-speed represents maximum flap extend minimum steady-flight speed at which the aircraft is
ed speed? controllable in the landing configuration. (PLT506) —
A— VFE. 14 CFR §1.2
B— VLOF. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is VS1. Answer (C) is incorrect
C— VFC. because VS is stalling speed, and V2 is the minimum takeoff safety
speed.
VFE is the highest calibrated airspeed permissible
with the wing flaps in a prescribed extended position.
AIR, GLI, WSC
(PLT506) — 14 CFR §1.2
3266. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the caution range of
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the liftoff speed. Answer (C)
is incorrect because this is the maximum speed for stability charac- the airplane?
teristics. A— 0 to 60 knots.
B— 100 to 165 knots.
C— 165 to 208 knots.
AIR, GLI
3008. Which V-speed represents maximum landing The caution range (yellow arc) includes speeds which
gear extended speed? should only be flown in smooth air, and is 165 to 208
A— VLE. knots for this airplane. (PLT088) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— VLO. Answer (A) is incorrect because 0 to 60 knots is less than stall
C— VFE. speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because 100 to 165 knots is the nor-
mal operating airspeed range from maximum flap extension speed
to maximum structural cruising speed, the upper limit of the green
arc and lower limit of the yellow arc.
Answers
3273 [B] 3274 [C] 3007 [A] 3008 [A] 3009 [C] 3010 [A]
3266 [C]

The Altimeter and Altitudes

An altimeter is an instrument used to measure height (altitude) by responding to atmospheric pressure
changes. See Figure 3-3 on the next page.
Altitude is indicated by three hands on the face of the altimeter. The shortest hand indicates altitude in
tens of thousands of feet; the intermediate hand, in thousands of feet; and the longest hand in hundreds
of feet. The altimeter is subdivided into 20-foot increments.
“Altitude” means elevation with respect to any assumed reference level, and different terms identify
the reference level used. See Figure 3-4.
Indicated altitude—the altitude read on the altimeter after it is set to the current local altimeter
setting.
Absolute altitude—the height above the surface.
True altitude —the true height above Mean Sea Level (MSL) normally measured in feet.
Pressure altitude — the altitude that is indicated whenever the altimeter setting dial (Kohlsman
window) is adjusted to 29.92. This is the Standard Datum Plane; a theoretical level where air pressure
is equal to 29.92 inches of mercury (in. Hg). The Standard Datum Plane may be above, at, or below sea
level.
Density altitude—the pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and/or pressure.
Rotating the setting knob on the altimeter simultaneously rotates the setting dial and the altimeter hands
at a rate of one inch per 1,000 feet of altitude. Thus, increasing the setting dial from 29.15 to 29.85 would
cause the hands of the altimeter to show an increase of 700 feet.
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to the current local altimeter setting. This is the value to
which the scale of the altimeter is set so that the altimeter indicates true altitude at field elevation. If the
altimeter setting is not available, the altimeter should be set to the elevation of the departure airport.
After takeoff, the altimeter should remain set to the current local altimeter setting until climbing through
18,000 feet MSL. At that time, the altimeter should be set to 29.92.
On a standard day (29.92" Hg and +15°C) at sea level, pressure altitude, true altitude, indicated
altitude, and density altitude are all equal. Any variation from standard temperature or pressure will have
an effect on the altimeter.
To compensate for the effect of nonstandard conditions, the altimeter must be set to the altimeter
setting of a station within 100 NM of the aircraft (unless it is above 18,000 feet MSL).
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure/low temperature to an area of high pressure/high
temperature without adjusting the altimeter setting, the altimeter will indicate lower than the actual altitude
above ground level. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure/high temperature to an area of low
pressure/low temperature without adjusting the altimeter setting, the altimeter will indicate higher than
the actual altitude above mean sea level.

Figure 3-3. Altimeter components

Figure 3-4. Types of altitude
ALL ALL
3105. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, 3107. At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92,
to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? when climbing to cruising flight level?
A— The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to A— 14,500 feet MSL.
mean sea level. B— 18,000 feet MSL.
B— The elevation of the departure area. C— 24,000 feet MSL.
C— Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard
temperature. The altimeter should be set to 29.92" Hg at 18,000
feet MSL and above. Note: 18,000 feet is Class A air-
The altimeter should be set to the elevation of the space, which requires an instrument rating to operate
departure airport for airplanes, and the departure area in. (PLT381) — 14 CFR §91.121
for other aircraft. (PLT381) — 14 CFR §91.121 Answer (A) is incorrect because 14,500 feet is the base of Class
Answer (A) is incorrect because airport elevation is always expressed E airspace, when not designated lower. Answer (C) is incorrect
in feet above MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect because pressure altitude because 24,000 feet MSL is the altitude at which DME is required.
adjusted for nonstandard temperature is not true altitude, but density
altitude.
ALL
3254. Altimeter setting is the value to which the baro-
ALL metric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the
3106. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to altimeter indicates
which altitude or altimeter setting?
A— calibrated altitude at field elevation.
A— The current local altimeter setting, if available, or B— absolute altitude at field elevation.
the departure airport elevation. C— true altitude at field elevation.
B— The corrected density altitude of the departure
airport. The local altimeter setting corrects for the difference
C— The corrected pressure altitude for the departure between existing pressure and standard atmospheric
airport. pressure. Whether local pressure is higher or lower than
standard, it will indicate true altitude (MSL) at ground
The altimeter should be set to the elevation of the level, when the aircraft altimeter is set to the local altim-
departure airport for airplanes, and the departure area eter setting (assuming no setting scale error). (PLT041)
for other aircraft. (PLT381) — 14 CFR §91.121 — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because density altitude is pressure altitude Answer (A) is incorrect because “calibrated” does not apply to alti-
corrected for nonstandard temperature variations and only concerns tudes; it only applies to airspeeds. Answer (B) is incorrect because
the performance of the aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because absolute altitude is the height above the ground.
pressure altitude is the altitude indicated on the altimeter when the
altimeter is set to 29.92.
Answers
3105 [B] 3106 [A] 3107 [B] 3254 [C]

ALL ALL, SPO

3255. How do variations in temperature affect the 3257. What is absolute altitude?
altimeter? A— The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
A— Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the B— The vertical distance of the aircraft above the
indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. surface.
B— Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels C— The height above the standard datum plane.
and the indicated altitude is higher than true
altitude. Absolute altitude is height above the surface. This height
C— Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and may be indicated directly on a radar altimeter. Absolute
the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. altitude may be approximately computed from indicated
altitude and chart elevation data. (PLT023) — FAA-H-
On a warm day, the expanded air is lighter than on a cold 8083-25
day, and consequently the pressure levels are raised. Answer (A) is incorrect because the altitude read from the altimeter
For example, the pressure level where the altimeter is indicated altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because the height
indicates 10,000 feet will be higher on a warm day than above the standard datum plane is pressure altitude.
under standard conditions. On a cold day the reverse is
true. (PLT165) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL, SPO
Answer (B) is incorrect because raising the pressure levels would
3258. What is density altitude?
not cause the indicated altitude to be higher than the true altitude.
Answer (C) is incorrect because lowering the pressure levels would A— The height above the standard datum plane.
not cause the indicated altitude to be lower than the true altitude.
B— The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard
temperature.
ALL, SPO
C— The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
3256. What is true altitude?
Under standard atmospheric conditions, each level of air
A— The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea in the atmosphere has a specific density, and under stan-
level. dard conditions, pressure altitude and density altitude
B— The vertical distance of the aircraft above the identify the same level. At temperatures higher or lower
surface. than standard, density altitude cannot be determined
C— The height above the standard datum plane. directly from the altimeter. (PLT023) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because the height above the standard
True altitude is height above sea level. Airport terrain datum plane is pressure altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because
and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts the altitude read from the altimeter is indicated altitude.
are true altitudes. (PLT023) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because the vertical distance above the sur-
face is absolute altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because the height ALL, SPO
above the standard datum plane is pressure altitude. 3259. What is pressure altitude?
A— The indicated altitude corrected for position and
ALL
installation error.
3392. Under what condition will true altitude be lower
B— The altitude indicated when the barometric
than indicated altitude? pressure scale is set to 29.92.
C— The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard
A— In colder than standard air temperature. temperature and pressure.
B— In warmer than standard air temperature.
C— When density altitude is higher than indicated
altitude.
True altitude will be lower than indicated altitude in colder

than standard air temperature, even with an accurate
altimeter set to 29.92. (PLT023) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 3
Answers
3255 [A] 3256 [A] 3392 [A] 3257 [B] 3258 [B] 3259 [B]

The pressure altitude can be determined by either of ALL

two methods: 3388. Under which condition will pressure altitude be
equal to true altitude?
1. Setting the barometric scale of the altimeter to 29.92
and reading the indicated altitude, or A— When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
B— When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
2. Applying a correction factor to the elevation (true
C— When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure
altitude) according to the reported “altimeter setting.”
altitude.
(PLT023) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because the altimeter is not corrected for Pressure altitude is equal to true altitude under stan-
position and installation error. Answer (C) is incorrect because indi- dard atmospheric conditions. (PLT023) — AC 00-6A,
cated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure
defines density altitude.
Chapter 3
ALL
ALL, SPO
3389. Under what condition is pressure altitude and
3260. Under what condition is indicated altitude the
same as true altitude? density altitude the same value?
A— If the altimeter has no mechanical error. A— At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F.
B— When at sea level under standard conditions. B— When the altimeter has no installation error.
C— When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at C— At standard temperature.
29.92.
When conditions are standard, pressure altitude and
On a standard day (29.92" Hg and +15°C) at sea level, density altitude are the same. (PLT345) — AC 00-6A,
pressure altitude, indicated altitude, and density altitude Chapter 3
are all equal. Any variation from standard temperature Answer (A) is incorrect because standard temperature at sea level
is 59°F. Answer (B) is incorrect because installation errors apply to
or pressure will have an effect on the altimeter. (PLT023) airspeed indicators, not altimeters.
— FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because mechanical error does not apply to
true altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because when the altimeter is ALL
set to 29.92, it indicates pressure altitude.
3390. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure
into an area of high pressure without the altimeter set-
ALL, SPO
ting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
3261. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 A— the actual altitude above sea level.
to 29.85, what change occurs? B— higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
A— 70-foot increase in indicated altitude. C— lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
B— 70-foot increase in density altitude.
If a flight is made from a high-pressure area to a low-
C— 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
pressure area without adjusting the altimeter, the actual
When the knob on the altimeter is rotated, the pressure altitude of the airplane will be lower than the indicated
scale moves simultaneously with the altimeter pointers. altitude, and when flying from a low-pressure area to
The numerical values of pressure indicated in the win- high-pressure area, the actual altitude of the airplane
dow increase while the altimeter indicates an increase will be higher than the indicated altitude. (PLT167) — AC
in altitude; or decrease while the altimeter indicates a 00-6A, Chapter 3
decrease in altitude. This is contrary to the reaction on Answer (A) is incorrect because a correct altimeter setting must be
used and/or standard atmospheric conditions must exist. Answer
the pointers when air pressure changes, and is based (B) is incorrect because the altimeter will indicate a lower altitude
solely on the mechanical makeup of the altimeter. The than actual.
difference between the two settings is equal to 0.70"
Hg (29.85 – 29.15). At the standard pressure lapse rate
of 1" Hg = 1,000 feet in altitude, the amount of change
equals 700 feet. (PLT166) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3260 [B] 3261 [C] 3388 [B] 3389 [C] 3390 [C]

ALL On altimeter #2 the 10,000-foot pointer is between

3391. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure 10,000 feet and 20,000 feet. The 1,000-foot pointer is
into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter set- between 4,000 feet and 5,000 feet, and the 100-foot
ting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate pointer is on 500 feet. (PLT041) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
B— higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
ALL
C— the actual altitude above sea level.
3252. (Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates
If a flight is made from a high-pressure area to a low- A— 9,500 feet.
pressure area without adjusting the altimeter, the actual B— 10,950 feet.
altitude of the airplane will be lower than the indicated C— 15,940 feet.
altitude, and when flying from a low-pressure area to
high-pressure area, the actual altitude of the airplane On altimeter #3 the 10,000-foot pointer is not quite to
will be higher than the indicated altitude. (PLT167) — AC 10,000 feet. The 1,000-foot pointer is halfway between
00-6A, Chapter 3 9,000 and 10,000 feet, and the 100-foot pointer is on
Answer (A) is incorrect because this change would indicate a flight 500 feet. (PLT041) — FAA-H-8083-25
into a high-pressure area from a low-pressure area. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the lack of change would indicate constant pres-
sure, thus actual altitude. ALL
3253. (Refer to Figure 3.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s)
more than 10,000 feet?
ALL
3393. Which condition would cause the altimeter to A— 1, 2, and 3.
indicate a lower altitude than true altitude? B— 1 and 2 only.
C— 1 only.
A— Air temperature lower than standard.
B— Atmospheric pressure lower than standard. The shortest hand (10,000 foot) in #1 is between 1 and
C— Air temperature warmer than standard. 2, indicating 10,000 feet plus. The shortest hand in #2
also indicates 10,000 feet plus. The shortest hand in
The altimeter will indicate a lower altitude than actu-
#3 indicates less than 10,000 feet. (PLT041) — FAA-
ally flown, in air temperature warmer than standard.
H-8083-25
(PLT023) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 3
Answer (A) is incorrect because if the air temperature was lower, this
would indicate a higher indicated altitude and a lower true altitude. ALL
Answer (B) is incorrect because when atmospheric pressure is lower
than standard, the same conditions exist as described in Answer (A). 3387. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11
to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
A— Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher.
ALL B— Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
3250. (Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates C— Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
A— 500 feet.
B— 1,500 feet. When the knob on the altimeter is rotated, the altimeter
C— 10,500 feet. setting pressure scale moves simultaneously with the
altimeter pointers. The numerical values of pressure
On altimeter #1 the 10,000-foot pointer (shortest hand) is indicated in the window increase while the altimeter
just above 10,000 feet, the 1,000-foot pointer (fat hand) indicates an increase in altitude, or decrease while
is between 0 and 1,000 feet, and the 100-foot pointer is the altimeter indicates a decrease in altitude. This is
on 500 feet. (PLT041) — FAA-H-8083-25 contrary to the reaction on the pointers when air pres-
sure changes and is based solely on the mechanical
makeup of the altimeter. The difference between the
ALL two settings is equal to 0.15" Hg (30.11 – 29.96 = 0.15).
3251. (Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 2 indicates At the standard pressure lapse rate of 1" Hg = 1,000
A— 1,500 feet. feet in altitude, the amount of change equals 150 feet.
B— 4,500 feet. (PLT167) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 3
C— 14,500 feet.
Answers
3391 [B] 3393 [C] 3250 [C] 3251 [C] 3252 [A] 3253 [B]
3387 [C]

Gyroscopic Instruments
Some aircraft instruments use gyroscopes. Simply stated, gyroscopes are rapidly spinning wheels or
disks which resist any attempt to move them from their plane of rotation. This is called “rigidity in space.”
Three aircraft instruments which use gyroscopes are the attitude indicator, the turn coordinator, and
the heading indicator.
Attitude Indicator
The rigidity in space principle makes the gyroscope an excellent “artificial horizon” around which the
attitude indicator (and the airplane) pivot.
When viewing the attitude indicator, the direction of bank is determined by the relationship of the
miniature airplane to the horizon bar. The miniature airplane may be moved up or down from the horizon
with an adjustment knob. Normally, the miniature airplane will be adjusted so that the wings overlap the
horizon bar whenever the airplane is in straight-and-level flight.
Turn Coordinator
The turn coordinator (also using the principle of the gyroscope) uses a miniature airplane to provide infor-
mation concerning rate of roll and rate of turn. As the airplane enters a turn, movement of the miniature
aircraft indicates rate of roll. When the bank is held constant, rate of turn is indicated. Simultaneously,
the quality of turn, or movement about the yaw axis, is indicated by the ball of the inclinometer.
Heading Indicator
The heading indicator is a gyroscopic instrument designed to avoid many of the errors inherent in a
magnetic compass. However, the heading indicator does suffer from precession, caused mainly by bear-
ing friction. Because of this precessional error, the heading indicator must periodically be realigned with
the magnetic compass during straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight.
AIR, RTC AIR

3278. (Refer to Figure 7.) How should a pilot determine 3275. (Refer to Figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides
the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as an indication of the
the one illustrated? A— movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll
A— By the direction of deflection of the banking scale axis.
(A). B— angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
B— By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar C— attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longi
(B). tudinal axis.
C— By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to
the deflected horizon bar (B). The movement of the miniature airplane on the instru-
ment is proportional to the roll rate of the airplane. When
The relationship of the miniature aircraft C to the horizon the roll rate is reduced to zero, i.e., the bank is held
bar B is the same as the relationship of the real aircraft constant, the instrument provides an indication of the
to the actual horizon. (PLT132) — FAA-H-8083-25 rate of turn. This design features a realignment of the
Answer (A) is incorrect because the bank scale shows degrees, and gyro in such a manner that it senses airplane movement
not direction of bank. Answer (B) is incorrect because the horizon about the yaw and roll axis. (PLT187) — FAA-H-8083-25
line deflects opposite the direction of turn, in order to correct horizon
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the miniature aircraft
representation.
indicates rate of turn, not angle of bank or attitude.
Answers
3278 [C] 3275 [A]

AIR, RTC AIR, RTC

3277. (Refer to Figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make 3276. (Refer to Figure 6.) To receive accurate indica-
on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the tions during flight from a heading indicator, the instru-
A— horizon bar to the level-flight indication. ment must be
B— horizon bar to the miniature airplane. A— set prior to flight on a known heading.
C— miniature airplane to the horizon bar. B— calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C— periodically realigned with the magnetic compass
The miniature airplane “C” is adjusted so that the wings as the gyro precesses.
overlap the horizon bar “B” when the airplane is in
straight-and-level cruising flight. (PLT166) — FAA-H- Because the heading indicator is run by a gyroscope
8083-25 instead of a magnetic source, precession will cause
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because adjustment is only made creep or drift from a heading to which it is set. It is impor-
to the miniature airplane. tant to check the indications frequently and reset the
heading indicator to align it with the magnetic compass
when required. (PLT118) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because they don’t do anything to
correct for precession in flight.
Magnetic Compass (Northern Hemisphere)

Deviation is a compass error caused by magnetic disturbances from electrical and metal components
in the aircraft. The correction for this error is displayed on a compass correction card placed near the
magnetic compass in the aircraft. Variation is the angular difference between the true, or geographic,
poles and the magnetic poles at a given point. The compass magnet is aligned with the magnetic poles,
while aeronautical charts are oriented to the geographic poles. This variation must be taken into consid-
eration when determining an aircraft’s actual geographic location. Indicated on charts by isogonic lines,
it is not affected by the airplane’s heading.
The magnetic compass, attracted to a magnetic field in the earth, points down as well as north. This
downward pointing tendency, called “magnetic dip,” causes errors in compass indications.
When turning toward north from an easterly or westerly heading, the compass lags behind the actual
aircraft heading. When a turn is initiated while on a northerly heading, the compass first indicates a turn
in the opposite direction. The compass lags whenever turns are made to or from north.
When turning toward south from an easterly or westerly heading, the compass leads the actual air-
craft heading. When a turn is initiated while on a southerly heading, the compass shows an immediate
lead in the same direction as the turn. The compass leads whenever turns are made to or from south.
Accelerating or decelerating while heading either east or west will also cause compass errors. If
acceleration occurs on a heading of east or west, the compass will indicate a turn to the north, while
deceleration will cause an indication of a turn to the south. Therefore, it becomes apparent that the
indications of a magnetic compass are accurate only during straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight.
The magnetic compass is also influenced by lines of force from magnetic fields within the aircraft.
These errors are called deviations.
Answers
3277 [C] 3276 [C]

ALL ALL
3279. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the 3282. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass
A— presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
the compass. A— an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west
B— difference in the location between true north and heading.
magnetic north. B— a left turn is entered from a west heading.
C— magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the C— an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west
lines of magnetic force. heading.
Magnetic disturbances from magnetic fields produced by While on an east or west heading, an increase in
metals and electrical accessories in an aircraft disturb airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to
the compass card and produce an additional error which indicate a turn toward the north and a deceleration will
is referred to as deviation. (PLT215) — FAA-H-8083-25 cause the compass to indicate a turn to the south. If
Answer (A) is incorrect because deviation is not caused by magnet on a north or south heading, no error will be apparent
flaws. Answer (B) is incorrect because the difference between mag- because of acceleration or deceleration. (Remember
netic north and true north is called variation. ANDS = Accelerate North Decelerate South). (PLT215)
— FAA-H-8083-25
ALL
3279-1. The angular difference between true north and ALL
magnetic north is 3283. In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic com-
A— magnetic deviation. pass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
B— magnetic variation. A— a left turn is entered from an east heading.
C— compass acceleration error. B— a right turn is entered from a west heading.
C— the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
The angular difference between magnetic north, the
reference for the magnetic compass, and true north is While on an east or west heading, an increase in
variation. (PLT320) — FAA-H-8083-25 airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to
Answer (A) is incorrect because deviation is the error caused by indicate a turn toward the north and a deceleration will
magnetic fields produced by metal and electrical accessories within
the airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect because compass acceleration
cause the compass to indicate a turn to the south. If
errors are fluctuations in the compass during changes in speed. on a north or south heading, no error will be apparent
because of acceleration or deceleration. (Remember
ANDS = Accelerate North Decelerate South). (PLT215)
ALL — FAA-H-8083-25
3279-2. Deviation error of the magnetic compass is Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because on east and west head-
caused by ing, turning error is negligible.
A— northerly turning error.

B— certain metals and electrical systems within the ALL
aircraft. 3283-1. What should be the indication on the magnetic
C— the difference in location of true north and compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right
magnetic north. from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Magnetic disturbances from magnetic fields produced by A— The compass will initially indicate a turn to the
metals and electrical accessories in an aircraft disturb left.
the compass card and produce an additional error which B— The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but
is referred to as deviation. (PLT215) — FAA-H-8083-25 at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
Answer (A) is incorrect because this describes acceleration error. C— The compass will remain on south for a short
Answer (C) is incorrect because the difference between magnetic time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
north and true north is called variation. heading of the airplane.
Continued
Answers
3279 [C] 3279-1 [B] 3279-2 [B] 3282 [C] 3283 [C] 3283-1 [B]

If you are on a southerly heading and roll into a standard- ALL

rate turn to the right, the compass will immediately 3281. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass
indicate a turn toward the west (to the right) because will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if
of the northerly turning error. During the first part of the A— an aircraft is decelerated while on a south
turn, it will show a faster rate of turn than you are actu- heading.
ally making. (PLT215) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— an aircraft is accelerated while on a north
Answer (A) is incorrect because the compass will initially indicate heading.
a turn to the left when rolling into a standard rate turn from a north C— a left turn is entered from a north heading.
heading in the Northern Hemisphere. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the compass indication will lead the turn when rolling into a
standard rate turn from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere. If on a northerly heading and a turn is made toward
east or west, the initial indication of the compass lags,
or indicates a turn in the opposite direction. (PLT215)
ALL — FAA-H-8083-25
3284. In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because acceleration error does
accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will not occur on north or south headings.
normally indicate
A— a turn momentarily. ALL
B— correctly when on a north or south heading. 3286. During flight, when are the indications of a mag-
C— a turn toward the south. netic compass accurate?
While on an east or west heading, an increase in A— Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to B— As long as the airspeed is constant.
indicate a turn toward the north and a deceleration will C— During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.
on a north or south heading, no error will be apparent The magnetic compass should be read only when the
because of acceleration or deceleration. (Remember aircraft is flying straight-and-level at a constant speed.
ANDS = Accelerate North Decelerate South). (PLT215) This will help reduce errors to the minimum. (PLT215)
— FAA-H-8083-25 — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because acceleration error only Answer (B) is incorrect because airspeed can remain constant in
occurs on an easterly/westerly heading; if accelerating, indicates a a turn, and the compass is subject to turning errors. Answer (C) is
turn to the north and if decelerating, to the south. incorrect because no matter how steep the turn, the compass is still
susceptible to turning errors.
ALL
GLI
3280. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass
3285. In the Northern Hemisphere, if a glider is acceler-
will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
ated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally
A— a left turn is entered from a north heading. indicate
B— a right turn is entered from a north heading.
A— a turn toward north while decelerating on an east
C— an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
heading.
If on a northerly heading and a turn is made toward B— correctly only when on a north or south heading.
east or west, the initial indication of the compass lags, C— a turn toward south while accelerating on a west
or indicates a turn in the opposite direction. (PLT215) heading.
— FAA-H-8083-25
While on an east or west heading, an increase in
Answer (A) is incorrect because a left turn would indicate a turn
toward the east, while turning west. Answer (C) is incorrect because
airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to
acceleration error does not occur on a north or south heading. indicate a turn toward the north and a deceleration will
on a north or south heading, no error will be apparent
because of acceleration or deceleration. (Remember
ANDS = Accelerate North Decelerate South). (PLT215)
— FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3284 [B] 3280 [B] 3281 [C] 3286 [A] 3285 [B]

Chapter 4
Regulations
Introduction 4 – 3
Pilot Certificate Privileges and Limitations 4 – 3
Pilot Ratings 4 – 9
Medical Certificates 4 – 10
Required Certificates 4 – 12
Recent Flight Experience 4 – 14
High-Performance Airplanes 4 – 16
Glider Towing 4 – 17
Change of Address 4 – 17
Responsibility and Authority of the Pilot-in-Command 4 – 18
Preflight Action 4 – 19
Seatbelts 4 – 21
Alcohol and Drugs 4 – 22
Right-of-Way Rules 4 – 24
Aerobatic Flight 4 – 26
Parachutes 4 – 27
Deviation from Air Traffic Control Instructions 4 – 28
Minimum Safe Altitudes 4 – 30
Basic VFR Weather Minimums 4 – 31
Special VFR Weather Minimums 4 – 35
VFR Cruising Altitudes 4 – 36
Categories of Aircraft 4 – 37
Formation Flight and Dropping Objects 4 – 38
VFR Flight Plans 4 – 39
Speed Limits 4 – 40
Airworthiness 4 – 41
Maintenance and Inspections 4 – 44
Light-Sport Repairman Certificates 4 – 44
ADs, ACs, and NOTAMs 4 – 49
Accident Reporting Requirements 4 – 52

Chapter 4 Regulations

Introduction
Although “FAR” is used as the acronym for “Federal Aviation Regulations,” and found throughout the
regulations themselves and hundreds of other publications, the FAA is now actively discouraging its
use. “FAR” also means “Federal Acquisition Regulations.” To eliminate any possible confusion, the FAA
cites the federal aviation regulations with reference to Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. For
example, “FAR Part 91.3” is referenced as “14 CFR Part 91 Section 3.”
While Federal Aviation Regulations are many and varied, some are of particular interest to all pilots.
14 CFR Part 1 contains definitions and abbreviations of many terms commonly used in aviation. For
example, the term “night” means “the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning
of morning civil twilight, as published in the American Air Almanac, converted to local time” and is used
for logging night time.
14 CFR Part 61, entitled “Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors and Ground Instructors,” prescribes
the requirements for issuing pilot and flight instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions of issue,
and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings.
14 CFR Part 91, entitled “General Operating and Flight Rules,” describes rules governing the opera-
tion of aircraft (with certain exceptions) within the United States.
The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) has established rules and requirements for
notification and reporting of aircraft accidents and incidents. These are contained in NTSB Part 830.
ALL, SPO Night is the time between the end of evening civil twilight
3005. The definition of nighttime is and the beginning of morning civil twilight converted to
A— sunset to sunrise. local time, as published in the American Air Almanac.
B— 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. (PLT395) — 14 CFR §1.1
C— the time between the end of evening civil twilight Answer (A) is incorrect because it refers to the time when lighted
and the beginning of morning civil twilight. position lights are required. Answer (B) is incorrect because it refers
to the currency requirement to carry passengers.
Pilot Certificate Privileges and Limitations

The types of pilot certificates and the attendant privileges are contained in 14 CFR Part 61 and are
briefly stated as follows:
• The holder of a student pilot certificate is limited to solo flights or flights with an instructor.
• Recreational pilots may not carry more than one passenger, pay less than the pro rata share of the
operating expenses of a flight with a passenger (provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport
expenses, or aircraft rental fees), fly an aircraft with more than 4 seats or high-performance character-
istics, demonstrate an aircraft to a prospective buyer, fly between sunset and sunrise, or fly in airspace
in which communication with air traffic control is required. Recreational pilots may fly beyond 50 NM
from the departure airport with additional training and endorsements from an authorized instructor.
• A sport pilot may act as pilot-in-command of a light-sport aircraft, carry up to 1 passenger, during
daylight hours, outside Class A, B, C, or D airspace (unless the sport pilot obtains further training
and an endorsement), when visibilities are greater than 3 SM. Additional requirements are defined
in 14 CFR §61.315
Continued
Answers
3005 [C]

• A private pilot has unlimited solo privileges, and may carry passengers or cargo as long as the fly-
ing is for the pilots’ pleasure or personal business and is not done for hire. A private pilot may fly in
conjunction with his/her job as long as that flying is incidental to his/her employment.
• A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with
passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. The
only time passengers may pay for the entire flight is if a donation is made by the passengers to the
charitable organization which is sponsoring the flight.
• Commercial pilots may fly for compensation or hire.
• An Airline Transport Pilot may act as pilot-in-command (PIC) of airline and scheduled commuter
operations.
• All pilot certificates (except student pilot) are valid indefinitely unless surrendered, superseded or
revoked.
ALL ALL
3064. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private 3066. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act
pilot may as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers
A— not pay less than the pro rata share of the who pay for the flight?
operating expenses of a flight with passengers A— If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.
provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, B— If a donation is made to a charitable organization
airport expenditures, or rental fees. for the flight.
B— act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying C— There is no exception.
a passenger for compensation if the flight is in
connection with a business or employment. A private pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an air-
C— not be paid in any manner for the operating craft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by
expenses of a flight. a charitable organization, and for which the passengers
make a donation to the organization. This can be done
A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share if the sponsor of the airlift notifies the FAA General
of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, Aviation District Office having jurisdiction over the area
provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport concerned, at least 7 days before the flight, and fur-
expenditures, or rental fees. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.113 nishes any essential information that the office requests.
(PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.113
ALL
3065. According to regulations pertaining to privileges REC
and limitations, a private pilot may 3044. According to regulations pertaining to privileges
A— be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if and limitations, a recreational pilot may
at least three takeoffs and three landings were A— be paid for the operating expenses of a flight.
made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days. B— not pay less than the pro rata share of the
B— not be paid in any manner for the operating operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
expenses of a flight. C— not be paid in any manner for the operating
C— not pay less than the pro rata share of the expenses of a flight.
operating expenses of a flight with passengers
provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, A recreational pilot may not pay less than the pro rata
airport expenditures, or rental fees. share of the operating expenses of a flight with a pas-
senger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil,
A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share airport expenditures, or rental fees. (PLT448) — 14
of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, CFR §61.101
provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport
expenditures, or rental fees. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.113
Answers
3064 [A] 3065 [C] 3066 [B] 3044 [B]

REC REC
3045. In regard to privileges and limitations, a recre- 3048. A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command
ational pilot may of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of
A— fly for compensation or hire within 50 nautical A— 160.
miles from the departure airport with a logbook B— 180.
endorsement. C— 200.
B— not be paid in any manner for the operating
expenses of a flight from a passenger. A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of
C— not pay less than the pro rata share of the an aircraft that is certificated with a powerplant of more
operating expenses of a flight with a passenger. than 180 horsepower. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101
A recreational pilot may not pay less than the pro rata
share of the operating expenses of a flight with a pas- REC
senger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, 3049. What exception, if any, permits a recreational
airport expenditures, or rental fees. (PLT448) — 14 pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying
CFR §61.101 a passenger for hire?
A— If the passenger pays no more than the operating
expenses.
REC
B— If a donation is made to a charitable organization
3046. When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in com- for the flight.
mand on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nautical C— There is no exception.
miles from the departure airport?
A— After receiving ground and flight instructions A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of
on cross-country training and a logbook an aircraft that is carrying a passenger or property for
endorsement. compensation or hire, in furtherance of a business, or for
B— 12 calendar months after receiving his or her a charitable organization. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101
recreational pilot certificate and a logbook Answer (A) is incorrect because the passenger may only pay an
endorsement. equal share of the operating expenses. Answer (B) is incorrect
because a recreational pilot may not carry passengers for hire, even
C— After attaining 100 hours of pilot-in-command if the flight is a donation to a charitable organization.
time and a logbook endorsement.
A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may REC

act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on a flight that 3050. May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command
exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?
provided that person has received ground and flight train-
ing from an authorized instructor, been found proficient A— Yes, if the flight is only incidental to that business.
in cross-country flying, and received an endorsement, B— Yes, providing the aircraft does not carry a person
which is carried in the person’s possession in the aircraft. or property for compensation or hire.
(PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101 C— No, it is not allowed.
A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of

REC an aircraft in furtherance of a business. (PLT448) — 14
3047. A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command CFR §61.101
of an aircraft that is certificated for a maximum of how
many occupants?
A— Two.
B— Three.
C— Four.
A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an

aircraft that is certificated for more than four occupants.
(PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101
Answers
3045 [C] 3046 [A] 3047 [C] 3048 [B] 3049 [C] 3050 [C]

REC For the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or

3051. With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest ratings while under the supervision of an authorized
time a recreational pilot may take off? instructor, a recreational pilot may fly as the sole occu-
A— One hour before sunrise. pant of an aircraft between sunset and sunrise, provided
B— At sunrise. the flight or surface visibility is at least 5 SM. (PLT448)
C— At the beginning of morning civil twilight. — 14 CFR §61.101

an aircraft between sunset and sunrise. The earliest a REC
recreational pilot may takeoff is at sunrise. (PLT467) — 3053. When may a recreational pilot operate to or from
14 CFR §61.101 an airport that lies within Class C airspace?
A— Anytime the control tower is in operation.
B— When the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the
REC surface visibility is at least 2 miles.
3052. If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil C— After receiving training and a logbook
twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate endorsement from an authorized instructor.
the flight?
A— 2021. A recreational pilot may not operate in airspace where
B— 2043. air traffic control is required until they receive and log
C— 2121. ground and flight training and an endorsement from
an authorized instructor. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §61.101
an aircraft between sunset and sunrise. A recreational
pilot must land by sunset. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101 REC
3054. Under what conditions may a recreational pilot
operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace
SPO and that has a part-time control tower in operation?
2130. If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twi- A— Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is in
light is 2043, when must a sport pilot terminate the flight? operation, the ceiling is at least 2,500 feet, and
A— 2021. the visibility is at least 3 miles.
B— 2043. B— Any time when the tower is in operation, the
C— 2121. ceiling is at least 3,000 feet, and the visibility is
more than 1 mile.
A sport pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an C— Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is
aircraft at night. A sport pilot must land by the end of closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the
evening twilight. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.315 visibility is at least 3 miles.

REC an aircraft in airspace in which communication with ATC
3052-1. When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in is required. If the tower is closed, no communication is
command of an aircraft at night? required and it reverts to Class E airspace. The visibil-
A— When obtaining an additional certificate or rating ity and cloud clearances for Class E airspace require
under the supervision of an authorized instructor, a ceiling at least 1,000 feet and the visibility at least 3
provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 1 miles. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §61.101
statute mile. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because a recreational pilot may
B— When obtaining an additional certificate or rating not operate in airspace that requires communication with ATC.
under the supervision of an authorized instructor,
provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 3
statute miles.
C— When obtaining an additional certificate or rating
under the supervision of an authorized instructor,
provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 5
statute miles.
Answers
3051 [B] 3052 [A] 2130 [B] 3052-1 [C] 3053 [C] 3054 [C]

REC REC
3055. When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 3059. When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot
feet MSL? in command in an aircraft towing a banner?
A— When 2,000 feet AGL or below. A— If the pilot has logged 100 hours of flight time in
B— When 2,500 feet AGL or below. powered aircraft.
C— When outside of controlled airspace. B— If the pilot has an endorsement in his/her pilot
logbook from an authorized flight instructor.
A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of C—It is not allowed.
an aircraft at an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL
or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher. (PLT448) — 14 A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command
CFR §61.101 of an aircraft that is towing any object. (PLT401) — 14
CFR §61.101
REC
3056. During daytime, what is the minimum flight or REC
surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class 3043. How many passengers is a recreational pilot
G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL? allowed to carry on board?
A— 1 mile. A— One.
B— 3 miles. B— Two.
C— 5 miles. C— Three.
A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of A recreational pilot may not carry more than one pas-
an aircraft when the flight or surface visibility is less than senger. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101
3 statute miles. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §61.101
SPO
REC 2123. How many passengers is a sport pilot allowed
3057. During daytime, what is the minimum flight visibil- to carry on board?
ity required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace A— One.
below 10,000 feet MSL? B— Two.
A— 1 mile. C— Three.
B— 3 miles.
C— 5 miles. Sport Pilots may not act as pilot in command of a light-
sport aircraft while carrying more than one passenger.
A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.315
an aircraft when the flight or surface visibility is less than
3 statute miles. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §61.101
REC
3058. Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational
pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective
buyer?
A— The buyer pays all the operating expenses.
B— The flight is not outside the United States.
C— None.
A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command

of an aircraft to demonstrate that aircraft in flight to a
prospective buyer. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101
Answers
3055 [A] 3056 [B] 3057 [B] 3058 [C] 3059 [C] 3043 [A]
2123 [A]

REC REC
3060. When must a recreational pilot have a pilot-in- 3135. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight
command flight check? visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR
A— Every 400 hours. above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL dur-
B— Every 180 days. ing daylight hours is
C— If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and A— 1 mile.
has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft B— 3 miles.
within the preceding 180 days. C— 5 miles.
A recreational pilot who has logged fewer than 400 flight Minimum flight or surface visibility for recreational pilots
hours and who has not logged pilot-in-command time in is 3 miles. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §61.101
an aircraft within the preceding 180 days may not act as
pilot-in-command of an aircraft until flight instruction is
received from an authorized flight instructor who certifies SPO
in the pilot’s logbook that the pilot is competent to act as 2061. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight
pilot-in-command of the aircraft. This requirement can visibility requirement for a sport pilot flying above 1,200
be met in combination with the requirements of flight feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight
reviews, at the discretion of the instructor. (PLT448) — hours is
14 CFR §61.101 A— 1 statute mile.
B— 3 statute miles.
C— 5 statute miles.
REC
3061. A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of Minimum flight or surface visibility for sport pilots is 3
an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight statute miles in all airspace at all times. (PLT467) — 14
instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least CFR §61.315
A— 3 miles.
B— 4 miles.
C— 5 miles. SPO
2061-1. The minimum flight visibility requirement for
For the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or rat- a sport pilot is
ings, while under the supervision of an authorized flight A— 1 statute mile.
instructor, a recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant B— 3 statute miles.
of an aircraft between sunset and sunrise, provided C— 5 statute miles.
the flight or surface visibility is at least 5 statute miles.
(PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101 Minimum flight or surface visibility for sport pilots is 3
statute miles. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §61.315
REC
3134. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds
are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace
at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
A— 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
B— 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
C— 3 miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds.
Minimum flight or surface visibility for recreational pilots

is 3 miles and minimum cloud clearance for all pilots in
Class G airspace, below 1,200 AGL, is clear of clouds.
(PLT163) — 14 CFR §61.101
Answer (A) is incorrect because this would be for private pilots.
Answer (C) is incorrect because this is for controlled airspace.
Answers
3060 [C] 3061 [C] 3134 [B] 3135 [B] 2061 [B] 2061-1 [B]

Pilot Ratings
When a pilot certificate is issued, it lists the cat-
egory, class, and type (if appropriate) of aircraft
in which the certificate holder is qualified. See
Figure 4-1.
The term “category” means a broad classifica-
tion of aircraft, such as airplane, rotorcraft, glider,
and lighter-than-air. The term “class” means a
classification within a category having similar
operating characteristics, such as single-engine,
multi-engine, land, water, helicopter, and balloon.
The term “type” means a specific make and basic
model of aircraft, such as Cessna 172 or Gulf-
stream IV.
A type rating must be held by the pilot-in-
command of a large aircraft. “Large aircraft” means
aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum
certificated takeoff weight.
All turbojet-powered airplanes, regardless of
weight, require the PIC to have a type rating.
In addition to the category, class, and type
ratings, if a pilot wishes to fly IFR, an instrument
rating is required.
Figure 4-1. Airman certificate
ALL, SPO ALL

3001. With respect to the certification of airmen, which 3002. With respect to the certification of airmen, which
is a category of aircraft? is a class of aircraft?
A— Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon. A— Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
B— Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. B— Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and
C— Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
sea. C— Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas
balloon.
With respect to the certification of airmen, “category”
means a broad classification of aircraft such as airplane, With respect to the certification of airmen, a “class”
rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air, weight-shift control, and refers to aircraft with similar operating characteristics
powered parachute. (PLT371) — 14 CFR §1.1 such as single-engine land/sea and multi-engine land/
Answer (A) is incorrect because it refers to classes of rotorcraft and sea, gyroplane, helicopter, airship, and free balloon.
lighter-than-air craft. Answer (C) is incorrect because it refers to (PLT371) — 14 CFR §1.1
classes of airplanes.
Answer (A) is incorrect because it refers to categories of aircraft.
Answer (C) is incorrect because it refers to lighter-than-air category.
Airship and free balloon are lighter-than-air class ratings, but hot air
balloon and gas balloon are not.
Answers
3001 [B] 3002 [B]

AIR, RTC A type rating is required in order for a pilot to act as pilot-
3024. The pilot in command is required to hold a type in-command of a large aircraft (except lighter-than-air)
rating in which aircraft? which is further defined as more than 12,500 pounds
A— Aircraft operated under an authorization issued maximum certificated takeoff weight or a turbojet-
by the Administrator. powered aircraft. (PLT451) — 14 CFR §61.31
B— Aircraft having a gross weight of more than Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because they don’t address the
12,500 pounds. weight or type of propulsion.
C— Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or
test flights.
Medical Certificates
Student pilot, recreational pilot, and private pilot operations, other than glider and balloon pilots, require
a Third-Class Medical Certificate. A Third-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of:
1. The 60th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person
has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination; or
2. The 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate if the person has
reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.
The holder of a Second-Class Medical Certificate may exercise commercial privileges during the
first 12 calendar months, but the certificate is valid only for private pilot privileges during the following
(12 or 48) calendar months, depending on the applicant’s age.
The holder of a First-Class Medical Certificate may exercise Airline Transport Pilot privileges during
the first (6 or 12) calendar months, commercial privileges during the following (6 or 0) calendar months,
and private pilot privileges during the following (12 or 48) calendar months, depending on the applicant’s
age. To state another way, a medical certificate may last 6 months to a year with first-class privileges,
12 months (from the date of the examination) with second-class privileges, and 2 or 5 years with third-
class privileges—depending on whether the applicant is above or below 40 years of age.
Each type of medical certificate is valid through the last day of the month (of the month it expires),
regardless of the day the physical examination was given.
ALL ALL
3039. A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 3020. A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a
19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise
privileges of a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate, the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical
the medical certificate will expire at midnight on certificate will be valid until midnight on
A— August 10, 2 years later. A— August 10, 3 years later.
B— August 31, 5 years later. B— August 31, 5 years later.
C— August 31, 2 years later. C— August 31, 3 years later.
A Third-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of A Third-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of
the last day of the 60th month after the month of the the last day of the 60th month after the month of the
date of the examination shown on the certificate if the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the
person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or
before the date of examination, for operations requiring before the date of examination, for operations requiring
a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate. (PLT447) — a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate. (PLT447) —
14 CFR §61.23 14 CFR §61.23
Answers
3024 [B] 3039 [B] 3020 [B]

ALL GLI
3021. A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 3062. Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with
51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the a glider rating, the pilot must have in his or her posses-
privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical sion what type of medical?
certificate will be valid until midnight on A— A statement from a designated medical examiner.
A— May 3, 1 year later.  B— A third-class medical certificate.
B— May 31, 1 year later. C— A medical certificate is not required.
C— May 31, 2 years later.
A person is not required to hold a medical certificate
A Third-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of when exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with
the last day of the 24th month after the month of the date a glider category rating. (PLT447) — 14 CFR §61.23
of the examination shown on the certificate if the person
has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the
date of examination, for operations requiring a Private LTA
Pilot Certificate. (PLT447) — 14 CFR §61.23 3063. Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with
a balloon rating, the pilot must have in his or her pos-
session what class of medical?
ALL
A— A third-class medical certificate.
3022. For private pilot operations, a Second-Class B— A medical certificate is not required.
Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July C— A statement from a designated medical examiner.
15, this year, will expire at midnight on
A— July 15, 2 years later. A person is not required to hold a medical certificate
B— July 31, 1 year later. when exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with
C— July 31, 2 years later. a balloon class rating. (PLT427) — 14 CFR §61.23
A Second-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end

of the last day of the 24th month after the month of
the date of the examination shown on the certificate if
the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or
before the date of examination, for operations requiring
a Private Pilot Certificate. (PLT447) — 14 CFR §61.23
ALL
3023. For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical
Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21,
this year, will expire at midnight on
A— October 21, 2 years later.
B— October 31, next year.
C— October 31, 5 years later.
A First-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of

the last day of the 60th month after the month of the
date of the examination shown on the certificate if the
person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or
before the date of examination, for operations requiring
a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate. (PLT447) —
14 CFR §61.23
Answers
3021 [C] 3022 [C] 3023 [C] 3062 [C] 3063 [B]

Required Certificates
When acting as pilot-in-command, a pilot must have a current pilot license, a photo ID, and a current
medical certificate in his/her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. Glider and balloon
pilots do not need a medical certificate. A recreational pilot acting as PIC must have a current logbook
endorsement in his/her personal possession within flights 50 NM from the departure airport.
A pilot must present his/her pilot license and medical certificate for inspection upon request of any
FAA, NTSB or federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
ALL No person may act as pilot-in-command (PIC), or in any

3016. What document(s) must be in your personal other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, of
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while a civil aircraft of United States registry unless he/she
operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? has in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a
A— Certificates showing accomplishment of a current pilot certificate and a photo ID. (PLT399) — 14
checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review. CFR §61.3
B— A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because a crew chief does not
accomplishment of an annual flight review and a require a pilot certificate, and pilots must have certificates, regard-
less of whether carrying passengers or not.
pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
C— An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate
current medical certificate if required. ALL
3018. A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in
No person may act as pilot-in-command (PIC), or in any command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot
other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, of flight crewmember, must have in their personal pos-
a civil aircraft of United States registry unless he/she session or readily accessible in the aircraft a current
has in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft
a current pilot certificate and photo ID. Except for free A— logbook endorsement to show that a flight review
balloon pilots piloting balloons and glider pilots piloting has been satisfactorily accomplished.
gliders, no person may act as pilot-in-command or in any B— medical certificate if required and an appropriate
other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of pilot certificate.
an aircraft unless he/she has in possession or readily C— endorsement on the pilot certificate to show
accessible in the aircraft an appropriate current medical that a flight review has been satisfactorily
certificate. (PLT399) — 14 CFR §61.3 accomplished.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because aircraft checkouts don’t
need to be recorded, and a flight review record and currency proof No person may act as pilot-in-command (PIC), or in any
don’t need to be in your possession. other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, of
a civil aircraft of United States registry unless he/she
has in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a
ALL current pilot certificate and a photo ID. Except for free
3017. When must a current pilot certificate be in the balloon pilots piloting balloons and glider pilots piloting
pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the gliders, no person may act as pilot-in-command or in any
aircraft? other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of
A— When acting as a crew chief during launch and an aircraft unless he/she has in possession or readily
recovery. accessible in the aircraft an appropriate current medical
B— Only when passengers are carried. certificate. (PLT399) — 14 CFR §61.3
C— Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because proof of a flight review
required crewmember. does not need to be in your possession while acting as pilot-in-
command.
Answers
3016 [C] 3017 [C] 3018 [B]

ALL REC
3019. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a 3038. A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command
medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the must have in his or her personal possession while
request of the Administrator, the National Transportation aboard the aircraft
Safety Board, or any A— a current logbook endorsement to show
A— authorized representative of the Department of that a flight review has been satisfactorily
Transportation. accomplished.
B— person in a position of authority. B— a current logbook endorsement that permits
C— federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. flights within 50 NM from the departure airport.
C— the pilot logbook to show recent experience
Each person who holds a pilot or medical certificate shall requirements to serve as pilot in command have
present it for inspection upon the request of the FAA been met.
Administrator, an NTSB representative, or any federal,
state, or local law enforcement officer. (PLT399) — 14 A recreational pilot may act as PIC on a flight within 50
CFR §61.3 NM from the departure airport, provided they receive
from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement,
which is carried in the person’s possession in the aircraft.
SPO (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.101
2129. Each person who holds a pilot certificate, a U.S.
driver’s license, or a medical certificate shall present it
for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the
National Transportation Safety Board, or any
A— authorized representative of the Department of
Transportation.
B— authorized representative of the Department of
State.
C— federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
Each person who holds a pilot or medical certificate shall

present it for inspection upon the request of the FAA
Administrator, an NTSB representative, or any Federal,
State, or local law enforcement officer. (PLT399) — 14
CFR §61.3
Answers
3019 [C] 2129 [C] 3038 [B]

Recent Flight Experience

No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft unless within the preceding 24 calendar months
he/she has accomplished a flight review. This review is given in an aircraft for which the pilot is rated
by an appropriately-rated instructor or other person designated by the FAA. A logbook entry will docu-
ment satisfactory accomplishment of this requirement. If the pilot takes a proficiency check (as for a
certificate or a new rating), it counts for the flight review.
No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers unless, within the preceding 90 days,
he/she has made three takeoffs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls in an aircraft
of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, in the same type. Touch and go landings
are acceptable unless the passengers are to be carried in a tailwheel airplane, in which case the landing
must be to a full stop, and they must be in a tailwheel airplane.
If passengers are to be carried during the period from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise,
the PIC must have made, within the preceding 90 days, at least three takeoffs and three landings during
that period. The landings must have been to a full stop and in the same category and class of aircraft
to be used.
ALL ALL
3028. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying 3030. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying
passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement passengers, the pilot must have made at least three
the satisfactory completion of a flight review or comple- takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same
tion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the
A— 6 calendar months. same type, within the preceding
B— 12 calendar months. A— 90 days.
C— 24 calendar months. B— 12 calendar months.
C— 24 calendar months.
Each pilot must complete a flight review every 24 cal-
endar months. (PLT449) — 14 CFR §61.56 No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft
carrying passengers, unless, within the preceding 90
days, he/she has made three takeoffs and three land-
ALL ings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an
3029. If recency of experience requirements for night aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type
flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest rating is required, of the same type. If the aircraft is a
time passengers may be carried is tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made
A— 1829. to a full stop. (PLT411) — 14 CFR §61.57
B— 1859.
C— 1929.
ALL
No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft 3031. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying
carrying passengers during the period beginning one passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs
hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise (as and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an
published in the American Air Almanac) unless, within aircraft of the same
the preceding 90 days, he/she has made at least three A— make and model.
takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that B— category and class, but not type.
period in the category and class of aircraft to be used. C— category, class, and type, if a type rating is
1830 + 59 minutes = 1929 required.
(PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.57 No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft
carrying passengers, unless, within the preceding 90
days, he/she has made three takeoffs and three land-
ings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an
Answers
3028 [C] 3029 [C] 3030 [A] 3031 [C]

aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type AIR

rating is required, of the same type. If the aircraft is a 3032. The takeoffs and landings required to meet the
tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made recency of experience requirements for carrying pas-
to a full stop. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.57 sengers in a tailwheel airplane
A— may be touch and go or full stop.
B— must be touch and go.
ALL
C— must be to a full stop.
3034. To meet the recency of experience requirements
to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft
a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three carrying passengers, unless, within the preceding 90
landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in days, he/she has made three takeoffs and three land-
A— the same category and class of aircraft to be ings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an
used. aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type
B— the same type of aircraft to be used. rating is required, of the same type. If the aircraft is a
C— any aircraft. tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made
to a full stop. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.57
No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft
carrying passengers during the period beginning one
hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
(as published in the American Air Almanac) unless, 3033. The three takeoffs and landings that are required
within the preceding 90 days, he/she has made at least to act as pilot in command at night must be done during
three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the time period from
that period in the category and class of aircraft to be A— sunset to sunrise.
used. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.57 B— 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C— the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of
morning civil twilight.
ALL
3040. If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft
on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review carrying passengers during the period beginning one
required? hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise
A— August 8, 2 years later. (as published in the American Air Almanac) unless,
B— August 31, next year. within the preceding 90 days, he/she has made at least
C— August 31, 2 years later. three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during
that period in the category and class of aircraft to be
Each pilot must have completed a biennial flight review used. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.57
since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the requirement for position
the month in which that pilot acts as pilot-in-command. lights. Answer (C) is incorrect because it refers to the time which may
be logged as night flight.
A calendar month always ends at midnight of the last
day of the month. If a pilot had a flight review on August
8, the next flight review would be due on August 31, two
years later. (PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.56
ALL
3041. Each recreational or private pilot is required to have
A— a biennial flight review.
B— an annual flight review.
C— a semiannual flight review.
Each pilot must have completed a biennial flight review

since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before
the month in which that pilot acts as pilot-in-command.
(PLT442) — 14 CFR §61.56
Answers
3034 [A] 3040 [C] 3041 [A] 3032 [C] 3033 [B]

High-Performance Airplanes
No person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate may act as pilot-in-command of an airplane
that has more than 200 horsepower, unless he/she has received instruction from an authorized flight
instructor who has certified in his/her logbook that he/she is competent to pilot a high-performance
airplane.
AIR AIR
3025. What is the definition of a high-performance 3027. In order to act as pilot in command of a high-
airplane? performance airplane, a pilot must have
A— An airplane with an engine of more than 200 A— made and logged three solo takeoffs and
horsepower. landings in a high-performance airplane.
B— An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable B— passed a flight test in a high-performance
landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller. airplane.
C— An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess C— received and logged ground and flight
of 200 knots. instruction in an airplane that has more than 200
horsepower.
A high-performance airplane is one with an engine of
more than 200 horsepower. (PLT395) — 14 CFR §61.31 A high-performance airplane is one with more than 200
horsepower. No person holding a Private or Commercial
pilot certificate may pilot a high-performance aircraft
AIR unless he or she has received ground and flight instruc-
3026. Before a person holding a Private Pilot Certificate tion and has been certified proficient in his/her logbook.
may act as pilot in command of a high-performance (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.31
airplane, that person must have Answer (A) is incorrect because landings are only required in order
A— passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA to carry passengers, and they don’t need to be solo. Answer (B) is
incorrect because a flight test is not required.
inspector.
B— an endorsement in that person’s logbook that he
or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
C— received ground and flight instruction from an
authorized flight instructor who then endorses that
person’s logbook.
No person holding a Private or Commercial pilot certifi-

cate may pilot a high-performance aircraft unless he or
she has received instruction and has been certified com-
petent in his/her logbook. (PLT448) — 14 CFR §61.31
Answer (A) is incorrect because a flight test is not required. Answer
(B) is incorrect because instruction is required.
Answers
3025 [A] 3026 [C] 3027 [C]

Glider Towing
A private pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider unless at least 100 hours
of pilot flight time is logged in the aircraft category, class, and type (if required), or 200 hours total pilot
time. Also, within the preceding 24 months he/she has made at least three actual/simulated glider tows
while accompanied by a qualified pilot or has made three flights as PIC of a towed glider.
AIR, GLI, WSC AIR, GLI, WSC

3036. A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in 3037. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft tow-
command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is ing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the
entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of preceding 24 months.
A— 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that A— at least three flights as observer in a glider being
the pilot is using to tow a glider. towed by an aircraft.
B— 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft B— at least three flights in a powered glider.
category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot C— at least three actual or simulated glider tows while
is using to tow a glider. accompanied by a qualified pilot.
C— 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft
category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot No person may act as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft
is using to tow a glider. towing a glider unless within the preceding 24 months
he/she has —
With a Private pilot certificate, no person may act as PIC 1. Made at least three actual or simulated glider tows
of an aircraft towing a glider unless he/she has had, and while accompanied by a qualified pilot who meets
entered in his/her logbook, at least: the requirements of 14 CFR §61.69, or
1. 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft 2. Made at least three flights as pilot-in-command of a
category, class, and type (if required), or glider towed by an aircraft.
2. 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in powered or (PLT407) — 14 CFR §61.69
other aircraft.
(PLT407) — 14 CFR §61.69
Answer (A) is incorrect because the 100 hours must be as PIC and
in the proper category, class, and type, if required. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the 200 hours of flight time can be in a combina-
tion of powered and other-than-powered aircraft.
Change of Address
If a pilot changes his/her permanent mailing address without notifying the FAA Airmen’s Certification
Branch, in writing, within 30 days, then he/she may not exercise the privileges of his/her certificate.
ALL, SPO The holder of a Pilot or Flight Instructor Certificate who

3035. If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing has made a change in his/her permanent mailing address
address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification may not, after 30 days from the date moved, exercise
Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of his/her certificate unless he/she has
the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only notified in writing the Department of Transportation,
A— 30 days after the date of the move. Federal Aviation Administration, Airmen Certification
B— 60 days after the date of the move. Branch, Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the
C— 90 days after the date of the move. new address. (PLT387) — 14 CFR §61.60
Answers
3036 [B] 3037 [C] 3035 [A]

Responsibility and Authority of the Pilot-in-Command

The pilot-in-command (PIC) of an aircraft is directly responsible, and is the final authority, for the safety
and operation of that aircraft. Should an emergency require immediate action, the PIC may deviate from
14 CFR Part 91 to the extent necessary in the interest of safety. Upon request, a written report of any
deviation from the rules must be sent to the Administrator.
If a pilot receives a clearance that would cause a deviation from a rule, he/she should query the
controller and request that the clearance be amended.
ALL ALL, SPO

3070. The final authority as to the operation of an 3074. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft
aircraft is the is in condition for safe flight?
A— Federal Aviation Administration. A— A certificated aircraft mechanic.
B— pilot in command. B— The pilot in command.
C— aircraft manufacturer. C— The owner or operator.
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is responsible for
for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe
aircraft. (PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.3 flight. The pilot shall discontinue the flight when unair-
worthy mechanical, electrical or structural conditions
occur. (PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.7
ALL, SPO
3072. If an in-flight emergency requires immediate
action, the pilot in command may LTA
A— deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the 3071. Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is
extent required to meet the emergency, but must the responsibility of
submit a written report to the Administrator within A— all passengers.
24 hours. B— the pilot.
B— deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the C— a crewmember.
extent required to meet that emergency.
C— not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 The pilot-in-command is responsible for briefing
unless prior to the deviation approval is granted crewmembers and occupants in all areas of the flight,
by the Administrator. including inflation, tether, infight, landing, emergency,
and recovery procedures. (PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.3
If an emergency requires immediate action, the pilot-in-
command may deviate from the operating rules of Part
91 to the extent necessary to meet that emergency. LSL
No report of such deviation is required unless the FAA 2308. The person directly responsible for the pre-launch
requests one. (PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.3 briefing of passengers for a flight is the
A— safety officer.
B— pilot in command.
ALL, SPO
C— ground crewmember.
3073. When must a pilot who deviates from a regula-
tion during an emergency send a written report of that The pilot-in-command is responsible for briefing
deviation to the Administrator? crewmembers and occupants in all areas of the flight,
A— Within 7 days. including inflation, tether, inflight, landing, emergency,
B— Within 10 days. and recovery procedures. (PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.3
C— Upon request.
Each pilot-in-command who deviates from a rule in an

emergency shall, upon request, send a written report
of that deviation to the Administrator. (PLT440) — 14
CFR §91.3
Answers
3070 [B] 3072 [B] 3073 [C] 3074 [B] 3071 [B] 2308 [B]

Preflight Action
Before beginning a flight, the pilot-in-command is required to become familiar with all available information
concerning that flight. This information must include the following:
1. Runway lengths, and
2. Takeoff and landing information for airports of intended use, including aircraft performance data.
If the flight will not be in the vicinity of the departure airport, the pilot must also consider the following:
1. Weather reports and forecasts,
2. Fuel requirements (enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing, and at normal cruising
speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes if during the day, or for at least 45 minutes at night
when in an airplane), and
3. Alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
ALL, SPO ALL, SPO

3080. Which preflight action is specifically required of 3081. Preflight action, as required for all flights away
the pilot prior to each flight? from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
A— Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate A— the designation of an alternate airport.
entries. B— a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports
B— Become familiar with all available information of intended use.
concerning the flight. C— an alternate course of action if the flight cannot
C— Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures. be completed as planned.
Each pilot-in-command shall, before each flight, become Each pilot-in-command shall, before each flight, become
familiar with all available information concerning that familiar with all available information concerning that
flight. This information must include: flight. This information must include:
(a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity (a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity
of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel
requirements, alternatives available if the planned requirements, alternatives available if the planned
flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic
delays of which the pilot has been advised by ATC; delays of which the pilot has been advised by ATC;
(b) For any flight, runway lengths of airports of intended (b) For any flight, runway lengths of airports of intended
use, and the following takeoff and landing distance use, and the following takeoff and landing distance
information: information:
1. For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane 1. For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane
or rotorcraft flight manual containing takeoff and or rotorcraft flight manual containing takeoff and
landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and
landing distance data contained therein; and landing distance data contained therein; and
2. For civil aircraft other than those specified in 2. For civil aircraft other than those specified in
paragraph (b)(1) of this section, other reliable paragraph (b)(1) of this section, other reliable
information appropriate to the aircraft, relating information appropriate to the aircraft, relating
to aircraft performance under expected values of to aircraft performance under expected values of
airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross
weight, and wind and temperature. weight, and wind and temperature.
(PLT445) — 14 CFR §91.103 (PLT445) — 14 CFR §91.103
Answers
3080 [B] 3081 [C]

ALL AIR, REC, WSC, PPC

3082. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR 3131. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight
flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A— Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising
A— review traffic control light signal procedures. speed with adverse wind conditions.
B— check the accuracy of the navigation equipment B— Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing
and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT). and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal
C— determine runway lengths at airports of intended cruising speed.
use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance C— Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing
data. and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal
cruising speed.
Each pilot-in-command shall, before each flight, become
familiar with all available information concerning that No person may begin a flight in an airplane under
flight. This information must include: VFR unless (considering wind and forecast weather
(a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point
of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising
requirements, alternatives available if the planned speed, and day operations, to fly after that for at least
flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic 30 minutes. (PLT413) — 14 CFR §91.151
delays of which the pilot has been advised by ATC;
(b) For any flight, runway lengths of airports of intended RTC
use, and the following takeoff and landing distance 3133. No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under
information: VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of
1. For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed,
or rotorcraft flight manual containing takeoff and to fly thereafter for at least
landing distance data is required, the takeoff and A— 20 minutes.
landing distance data contained therein; and B— 30 minutes.
2. For civil aircraft other than those specified in C— 1 hour.
paragraph (b)(1) of this section, other reliable
information appropriate to the aircraft, relating No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR
to aircraft performance under expected values of unless (considering wind and forecast weather condi-
airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross tions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of
weight, and wind and temperature. intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed,
(PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.103 to fly after that for at least 20 minutes. (PLT413) — 14
CFR §91.151
AIR, WSC, PPC

3132. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight SPO
under VFR at night in an airplane? 2033. How should an aircraft preflight inspection be
accomplished for the first flight of the day?
A— Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising
speed with adverse wind conditions. A— Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
B— Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing B— Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-
and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal command.
cruising speed. C— Thorough and systematic means recommended
C— Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing by the manufacturer.
and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal
cruising speed. The preflight inspection should be a thorough and
systematic means by which the pilot determines that
No person may begin a flight in an airplane under the airplane is ready for safe flight. Most Aircraft Flight
VFR unless (considering wind and forecast weather Manuals or Pilot’s Operating Handbooks contain a sec-
conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point tion devoted to a systematic method of performing a
of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising preflight inspection that should be used by the pilot for
speed, and night operations, to fly after that for at least guidance. (PLT444) — FAA-H-8083-25
45 minutes. (PLT413) — 14 CFR §91.151
Answers
3082 [C] 3132 [C] 3131 [B] 3133 [A] 2033 [C]

Seatbelts
All required flight crewmembers must remain in their seats with seatbelts secured during the entire flight
unless absent in connection with duties or physiological needs. When shoulder harnesses are installed
they must be used during takeoffs and landings.
Prior to takeoff, the pilot-in-command must ensure that each person on board has been briefed on
the use of seatbelts. In addition, he/she must ensure that the passengers are notified to fasten their
seatbelts during taxi, takeoffs, and landings. A child who has not reached his/her second birthday may
be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth.
ALL ALL
3083. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their 3085. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if
safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use
A— takeoffs and landings. of safety belts?
B— all flight conditions. A— The pilot in command must instruct the
C— flight in turbulent air. passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for
the entire flight.
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each B— The pilot in command must brief the passengers
required flight crewmember shall keep his/her seatbelt on the use of safety belts and notify them to
fastened while at the station. During takeoff and land- fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and
ing this includes shoulder harness (if installed) unless landing.
it interferes with required duties. (PLT440) — 14 CFR C— The pilot in command has no obligation in regard
§91.105 to passengers’ use of safety belts.
Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no

ALL, SPO pilot may takeoff in a civil aircraft unless the pilot-in-
3084. Which best describes the flight conditions under command of that aircraft ensures that each person on
which flight crewmembers are specifically required to board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that per-
keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? son’s seatbelt, and that each person has been notified
A— Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder to fasten the seatbelt during taxi, takeoff and landing.
harnesses during takeoff and landing. (PLT465) — 14 CFR §91.107
B— Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder
harnesses during takeoff and landing and while
ALL
en route.
C— Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while 3086. With certain exceptions, safety belts are required
en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and to be secured about passengers during
landing. A— taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
B— all flight conditions.
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each C— flight in turbulent air.
required flight crewmember shall keep his/her seatbelt
fastened while at his/her station. During takeoff and During taxi, takeoff and landing, each person on board
landing this includes shoulder harness (if installed) the aircraft must occupy a seat or berth with a seatbelt
unless it interferes with required duties. (PLT464) — 14 and shoulder harness, properly secured if installed.
CFR §91.105 (PLT465) — 14 CFR §91.107
Answers
3083 [A] 3084 [C] 3085 [B] 3086 [A]

SPO ALL, SPO

2232. The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring 3087. Safety belts are required to be properly secured
that each person on board applicable U.S. registered about which persons in an aircraft and when?
aircraft is briefed and instructed on how and when to A— Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
A— fasten and unfasten their seat belt and shoulder B— Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
harness. C— Each person on board the aircraft during the
B— adjust their seat. entire flight.
C— operate the fire extinguisher.
During taxi, takeoff and landing, each person on board
Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, no pilot may the aircraft must occupy a seat or berth with a safety
takeoff in a civil aircraft unless the pilot-in-command belt and shoulder harness, properly secured if installed.
ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to However, a person who has not reached his/her second
fasten and unfasten that person’s seatbelt, and that each birthday may be held by an adult who is occupying a
person has been notified to fasten the seatbelt during seat or a berth, and a person on board for the purpose
taxi, takeoff and landing. (PLT441) — 14 CFR §91.107 of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of
the aircraft as a seat. (PLT465) — 14 CFR §91.107
Alcohol and Drugs

No person may act as a crewmember on an aircraft under the following conditions:
1. Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
2. While under the influence of alcohol (.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood);
3. While using any drug that affects his/her faculties in any way contrary to safety.
Except in an emergency, no pilot of an aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or
under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.
A conviction for the violation of any law relating to drugs or alcohol is grounds for: (1) Denial of an
application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under Part 61 for a period of up to 1 year
after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authoriza-
tion issued under Part 61.
Pilots shall provide a written report of each alcohol- or drug-related motor vehicle action to the FAA,
Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
ALL ALL
3077. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil 3078. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a
aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by person who is obviously under the influence of drugs
that person within the preceding to be carried aboard an aircraft?
A— 8 hours. A— In an emergency or if the person is a medical
B— 12 hours. patient under proper care.
C— 24 hours. B— Only if the person does not have access to the
cockpit or pilot’s compartment.
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember C— Under no condition.
of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption
of any alcoholic beverage. Remember “8 hours bottle Except in an emergency, or a medical patient under
to throttle.” (PLT463) — 14 CFR §91.17 proper care, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person
who appears to be intoxicated, or who demonstrates
by manner or physical indications that the individual is
under the influence of drugs, to be carried in that aircraft.
(PLT463) — 14 CFR §91.17
Answers
2232 [A] 3087 [B] 3077 [A] 3078 [A]

ALL, SPO SPO

3079. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember 2126. A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft under
of a civil aircraft with the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the
A— .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the person’s faculties, is grounds for a
blood. A— denial of an application for an FAA certificate,
B— .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part
blood. 61.
C— .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the B— written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical
blood. Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the
conviction.
No person may act, or attempt to act, as a crewmember C— written report to be filed with the FAA Civil
of a civil aircraft while having .04 percent or more, by Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later
weight, alcohol in the blood. (PLT463) — 14 CFR §91.17 than 60 day after the conviction.
A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State

SPO statute relating to drugs or alcohol is grounds for: (1)
2087. Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or
within the human body? authorization issued under Part 61 for a period of up to 1
A— A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. year after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension
B— An increase in altitude decreases the adverse or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization
effect of alcohol. issued under Part 61. (PLT463) — 14 CFR §61.15
C— Judgment and decision-making abilities can be Answer (B) is incorrect because the report must be filed with AMC-
adversely affected by even small amounts of 700. Answer (C) is incorrect because this applies to automobile
convictions, not aircraft convictions.
alcohol.
As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or

SPO
four ounces of wine can impair flying skills. (PLT205)
2127. A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal
— AIM ¶8-1-1
or State statute relating to the process, manufacture,
Answer (A) is incorrect because all mental and physical activities transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is
will be decreased with even small amounts of alcohol in the blood-
stream. Answer (B) is incorrect because the adverse effects of alco- grounds for
hol are increased as altitude is increased. A— a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil
Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later
than 60 days after the conviction.
ALL
B— notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil
3079-1. How soon after the conviction for driving while
Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after
intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to
the conviction.
the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
C— suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating,
A— No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
action.
B— No later than 30 working days after the motor A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State
vehicle action. statute relating to the growing, processing, manufac-
C— Required to be reported upon renewal of medical ture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or
certificate. importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant
or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for: (1)
Each person holding a pilot certificate shall provide a Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or
written report of each drug or alcohol-related motor authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date
vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Divi- of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of
sion (AMC-700), not later than 60 days after the motor any certificate, rating, or authorization. (PLT463) — 14
vehicle action. (PLT463) — 14 CFR §61.15 CFR §61.15
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because a written report to AMC-
700 is only necessary for motor vehicle actions.
Answers
3079 [C] 2087 [C] 3079-1 [A] 2126 [A] 2127 [C]

SPO Each person holding a pilot certificate shall provide a

2128. A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA,
while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), not later than
influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a 60 days after the motor vehicle action. (PLT463) — 14
A— written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical CFR §61.15
Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor
vehicle action.
B— written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security
Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after
the conviction.
C— notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation
Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days
after the motor vehicle action.
Right-of-Way Rules
When weather conditions permit, vigilance must be maintained so as to see and avoid other aircraft.
An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic. When aircraft of the same category
are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft on the
other’s right has the right-of-way. See Figure 4-2.
If the aircraft are of different categories, the following applies:

1. A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft;
2. A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, rotorcraft, weight-shift control, or powered
parachute; and
3. An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane, rotorcraft, weight-shift control, or powered parachute.
An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has

the right-of-way over all other engine driven aircraft.
When aircraft are approaching each other
head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft
(regardless of category), shall alter course to the
right. See Figure 4-3.
An aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-
way. The overtaking aircraft shall alter course to
the right to pass well clear. See Figure 4-4.
When two or more aircraft are approaching an
airport for landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude
has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage
of this rule to cut in front of, or overtake another
aircraft.
Figure 4-2. Aircraft on converging courses: Aircraft on the

right has right-of-way — aircraft on the left must yield.
Answers
2128 [B]

Figure 4-3. Aircraft approaching head-on

Figure 4-4. One aircraft overtaking another
ALL, SPO ALL

3089. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other 3092. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the
air traffic? airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft
A— A balloon. has the right-of-way?
B— An aircraft in distress. A— The airship.
C— An aircraft on final approach to land. B— The airplane.
C— Each pilot should alter course to the right.
An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other
air traffic. (PLT414) — 14 CFR §91.113 An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or
rotorcraft. (PLT414) — 14 CFR §91.113
ALL, SPO
3090. What action is required when two aircraft of the ALL
same category converge, but not head-on? 3091. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other
A— The faster aircraft shall give way. aircraft listed?
B— The aircraft on the left shall give way. A— Gyroplane.
C— Each aircraft shall give way to the right. B— Airship.
C— Aircraft towing other aircraft.
When two aircraft of the same “right-of-way” category
converge at approximately the same altitude, the aircraft An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-
to the other’s right has the right-of-way. (PLT414) — 14 of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft. (PLT414)
CFR §91.113 — 14 CFR §91.113
Answer (A) is incorrect because speed has nothing to do with right-
of-way. Answer (C) is incorrect because “each aircraft giving way to
the right” is the rule when approaching head-on. ALL
3095. When two or more aircraft are approaching
an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way
ALL belongs to the aircraft
3093. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other
aircraft listed? A— that has the other to its right.
B— that is the least maneuverable.
A— Glider. C— at the lower altitude, but it shall not take
B— Airship. advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to
C— Aircraft refueling other aircraft. overtake another.
A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, When two aircraft are approaching an airport for landing,
or rotorcraft. (PLT414) — 14 CFR §91.113 the lower aircraft has the right-of-way. A pilot shall not
Answer (B) is incorrect because a glider has the right-of-way over take advantage of that rule to overtake or cut in front of
powered aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because an aircraft refu-
eling other aircraft only has right-of-way over other engine-driven
another aircraft. (PLT414) — 14 CFR §91.113
aircraft.
Answers
3089 [B] 3090 [B] 3093 [A] 3092 [A] 3091 [C] 3095 [C]

AIR, WSC, PPC AIR, GLI, REC, WSC, PPC

3096. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing 3094. What action should the pilots of a glider and an
courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
which has the right-of-way? A— The airplane pilot should give way to the left.
A— The motorboat. B— The glider pilot should give way to the right.
B— The seaplane. C— Both pilots should give way to the right.
C— Both should alter course to the right.
When two aircraft are approaching each other from
For water operation, when aircraft, or an aircraft and a head-on, or nearly so, each pilot must alter course to the
vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel right. This rule does not give right-of-way by categories.
to the other’s right has the right-of-way. (PLT414) — 14 (PLT414) — 14 CFR §91.113
CFR §91.115
Aerobatic Flight
Aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s altitude, an
abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight. Aerobatic flight is prohibited:
1. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement;
2. Over an open-air assembly of people;
3. Within the lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D or E airspace designated for an airport;
4. Within 4 nautical miles of the centerline of a federal airway;
5. Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface, or;
6. When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.
AIR, GLI, REC, WSC, PPC AIR, GLI, REC, WSC, PPC
3167. No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic 3168. In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight
flight when prohibited?
A— flight visibility is less than 5 miles. A— Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL.
B— over any congested area of a city, town, or B— Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
settlement. C— Class E airspace not designated for Federal
C— less than 2,500 feet AGL. Airways above 1,500 feet AGL.
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight — No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight
1. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settle- in any class of airspace below an altitude of 1,500 feet
ment; above the surface. (PLT369) — 14 CFR §91.303
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because aerobatic flight is permit-
2. Over an open-air assembly of persons; ted in both these locations.
3. Within the lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D or E
airspace designated for an airport;
4. Within 4 nautical miles of the centerline of a federal
airway;
5. Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or
6. When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.
(PLT369) — 14 CFR §91.303
Answers
3096 [B] 3094 [C] 3167 [B] 3168 [B]

AIR, GLI, REC, WSC, PPC AIR, GLI, REC, WSC, PPC
3169. What is the lowest altitude permitted for aerobatic 3170. No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic
flight? flight when the flight visibility is less than
A— 1,000 feet AGL. A— 3 miles.
B— 1,500 feet AGL. B— 5 miles.
C— 2,000 feet AGL. C— 7 miles.
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight — No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight —
1. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settle- 1. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settle-
ment; ment;
2. Over an open-air assembly of persons; 2. Over an open-air assembly of persons;
3. Within the lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D or E 3. Within the lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D or E
airspace designated for an airport; airspace designated for an airport;
4. Within 4 nautical miles of the centerline of a federal 4. Within 4 nautical miles of the centerline of a federal
airway; airway;
5. Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or 5. Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or
6. When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles. 6. When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.
(PLT369) — 14 CFR §91.303 (PLT369) — 14 CFR §91.303
Parachutes
If any passengers are carried, the pilot of an aircraft may not intentionally exceed 60° of bank or 30°
of pitch unless each occupant is wearing an approved parachute. However, this requirement does not
apply when a Certified Flight Instructor is giving instruction in spins or any other flight maneuver required
by regulations for a rating.
If the parachute is of the chair type, it must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately-
rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days.
ALL ALL
3172. An approved chair-type parachute may be carried 3173. With certain exceptions, when must each occu-
in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed pant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the A— When a door is removed from the aircraft to
preceding facilitate parachute jumpers.
A— 120 days. B— When intentionally pitching the nose of the
B— 180 days. aircraft up or down 30° or more.
C— 365 days. C— When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.
No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an
available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft, carrying
unless, if a chair type, it has been packed by a certifi- any person (other than a crewmember) may execute
cated and appropriately-rated parachute rigger within an intentional maneuver that exceeds 60° bank or 30°
the preceding 180 days. (PLT405) — 14 CFR §91.307 nose up or down, relative to the horizon. (PLT369) — 14
CFR §91.307
Answers
3169 [B] 3170 [A] 3172 [B] 3173 [B]

Deviation from Air Traffic Control Instructions

An ATC clearance is authorization for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within
controlled airspace. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot-in-command may deviate from
that clearance, except in an emergency, unless he/she obtains an amended clearance. If a pilot does
deviate from a clearance or ATC instruction during an emergency, he/she must notify ATC of the deviation
as soon as possible. If, in an emergency, a pilot is given priority over other aircraft by ATC, he/she may
be requested to submit a detailed report even though no deviation from a rule occurred. The requested
report shall be submitted within 48 hours to the chief of the ATC facility which granted the priority.
ALL ALL, SPO

3108. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, 3109. When would a pilot be required to submit a
no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot
unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The to deviate from an ATC clearance?
one exception to this regulation is A— Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
A— when the clearance states “at pilot’s discretion.” B— Immediately.
B— an emergency. C— Within 7 days.
C— if the clearance contains a restriction.
Each pilot-in-command who deviated from an ATC
Except in an emergency, no person may operate an clearance during an emergency must submit a detailed
aircraft contrary to an ATC clearance or instruction. report within 48 hours if requested by ATC. (PLT403)
(PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.123 — 14 CFR §91.123
ALL ALL
3108-1. As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which 3110. What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot
situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance? deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency
A— When operating in Class A airspace at night. and is given priority?
B— If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR A— Take no special action since you are pilot in
conditions. command.
C— In response to a traffic alert and collision B— File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief
avoidance system resolution advisory. of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
C— File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as
The regulations authorize deviations from a clearance possible.
in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance
system resolution advisory. You must notify ATC as Each pilot-in-command who (though not deviating from
soon as possible following the deviation. (PLT444) — 14 a rule of 14 CFR Part 91) is given priority by ATC in an
CFR §91.123 emergency shall, if requested by ATC, submit a detailed
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because neither of these are report of that emergency within 48 hours to the chief of
acceptable reasons to deviate from an ATC clearance. that ATC facility. (PLT444) — 14 CFR §91.123
Answers
3108 [B] 3108-1 [C] 3109 [A] 3110 [B]

ALL ALL
3837. An ATC clearance provides 2004. While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact
A— priority over all other traffic. with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event
B— adequate separation from all traffic. of an emergency?
C— authorization to proceed under specified traffic A— 121.5 MHz.
conditions in controlled airspace. B— 122.5 MHz.
C— 128.725 MHz.
An ATC Clearance is an authorization by air traffic con-
trol, for the purpose of preventing collisions between Although the frequency in use or other frequencies
known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified assigned by ATC are preferable, the following emer-
traffic conditions within controlled airspace. (PLT370) — gency frequencies can be used for distress or urgency
Pilot/Controller Glossary communications: 121.5 MHz, 243.0 MHz, or 406 MHz.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a clearance does not provide prior- (PLT116) — AIM ¶6-3-1
ity. Answer (B) is incorrect because a clearance does not relieve the
pilot of the responsibility for collision avoidance with aircraft not in
instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
SPO
2003. An ATC clearance means an authorization by
ATC for an aircraft to proceed under specified condi-
tions within
A— controlled airspace.
B— uncontrolled airspace.
C— published Visual Flight Rules (VFR) routes.
An ATC clearance means an authorization by air traffic

control for the purpose of preventing collision between
known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified
traffic conditions within controlled airspace. (PLT044) —
Pilot/Controller Glossary
Answer (B) is incorrect because ATC does not provide clearances
in uncontrolled airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because an ATC
clearance is not required to fly these routes.
Answers
3837 [C] 2003 [A] 2004 [A]

Minimum Safe Altitudes

No minimum altitude applies during takeoff or landing. During other phases of flight, however, the fol-
lowing minimum altitudes apply:
Anywhere— The pilot must maintain an altitude which, in the event of engine failure, will allow an
emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
Over congested areas—An altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a hori-
zontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft must be maintained over any congested area of a city, town, or
settlement or over any open-air assembly of people.
Over other than congested areas—An altitude of 500 feet above the surface must be maintained
except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In that case, the aircraft may not be operated closer
than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
ALL, SPO AIR, GLI, LTA, REC, WSC, PPC

3101. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, 3103. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing,
what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to
an aircraft anywhere? operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
A— An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an A— An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an
emergency landing without undue hazard to emergency landing without undue hazard to
persons or property on the surface. persons or property on the surface.
B— An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and B— An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open
no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, water or a sparsely populated area, which
vehicle, or structure. requires 500 feet from any person, vessel,
C— An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle vehicle, or structure.
within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet. C— An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle
within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person
may operate an aircraft anywhere below an altitude Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no per-
allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing son may operate an aircraft over other than congested
without undue hazard to persons or property on the areas below an altitude of 500 feet above the surface
surface. (PLT430) — 14 CFR §91.119 except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In
that case, the aircraft may not be operated closer than
500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
AIR, GLI, LTA, REC, WSC, PPC (PLT430) — 14 CFR §91.119
3102. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing,
what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to
operate an aircraft over congested areas? AIR, GLI, LTA, REC, WSC, PPC
A— An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, 3104. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an
vessel, vehicle, or structure. aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance
B— An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the A— 500 feet.
aircraft. B— 700 feet.
C— An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest C— 1,000 feet.
obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of
the aircraft. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no per-
son may operate an aircraft closer than 500 feet to any
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. (PLT430) — 14
may operate an aircraft over any congested area of a CFR §91.119
city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly
of persons, below an altitude of 1,000 feet above the
highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet
of the aircraft. (PLT430) — 14 CFR §91.119
Answers
3101 [A] 3102 [C] 3103 [B] 3104 [A]

Basic VFR Weather Minimums

Rules governing flight under Visual Flight Rules (VFR) have been adopted to assist the pilot in meeting
his/her responsibility to see and avoid other aircraft. See the figure for Questions 3136 through 3147.
In addition, when operating within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class B, C, D or E
airspace designated for an airport, the ceiling must not be less than 1,000 feet. If the pilot intends to
land, take off, or enter a traffic pattern within such airspace, the ground visibility must be at least 3 miles
at that airport. If ground visibility is not reported, 3 miles flight visibility is required in the pattern.
ALL
3136. During operations within controlled airspace at
altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum hori-
zontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A— 1,000 feet.
B— 1,500 feet.
C— 2,000 feet.
Minimum horizontal distance from clouds within Class

C, D, or E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL is 2,000 feet.
See the figure to the left. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
ALL
3138. What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR
flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
A— 1 mile.
B— 3 miles.
C— 4 miles.
An airway below 10,000 feet MSL is in either Class B, C,

or D, or E airspace, and requires 3 miles flight visibility.
See the figure to the left. (PLT467) — 14 CFR §91.155
ALL
3139. The minimum distance from clouds required for
VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
A— remain clear of clouds.
B— 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet
horizontally.
C— 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet
horizontally.
Questions 3136 through 3147
An airway below 10,000 feet MSL is in either Class B,
C, or D, or E airspace, and requires a cloud clearance
of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet
horizontally. See the figure to the left. (PLT468) — 14
CFR §91.155
Answers
3136 [C] 3138 [B] 3139 [B]

ALL ALL
3140. During operations within controlled airspace at 3146. For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL
altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds distance from clouds required is
requirement for VFR flight is A— 1,000 feet.
A— 500 feet. B— 2,000 feet.
B— 1,000 feet. C— 1 mile.
C— 1,500 feet.
Controlled airspace above 10,000 feet which allows VFR
Class B, C, D, and E airspace are all controlled airspace is Class E airspace, and requires cloud clearance of
in which VFR flight is allowed, and requires a cloud 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 SM horizontal
clearance of 1,000 feet above at altitudes of more than during operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than
1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL. See the 1,200 feet AGL. See the previous figure. (PLT163) — 14
previous figure. (PLT468) — 14 CFR §91.155 CFR §91.155
ALL ALL
3141. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet 3147. During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200
AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum
visibility and vertical cloud clearance of distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A— 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above A— 500 feet.
the clouds in controlled airspace. B— 1,000 feet.
B— 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above C— 1,500 feet.
the clouds at all altitudes.
C— 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above Controlled airspace above 10,000 feet which allows VFR
the clouds only in Class A airspace. is Class E airspace, and requires cloud clearance of
1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 SM horizontal
With the exception of Class B airspace, VFR flight into during operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than
controlled airspace requires 3 statute miles visibility 1,200 feet AGL. See the previous figure. (PLT163) — 14
and cloud clearance of 500 feet below and 1,000 feet CFR §91.155
above when operating above 1,200 feet AGL and below
10,000 feet MSL. See the previous figure. (PLT468) —
14 CFR §91.155 ALL
3620-1. (Refer to Figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and
cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during
ALL daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet
3145. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR AGL are
flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet A— 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and
AGL in controlled airspace is 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
A— 1 mile. B— 1 mile and clear of clouds.
B— 3 miles. C— 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and
C— 5 miles. 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
Controlled airspace above 10,000 feet which allows VFR The Sandpoint Airport Class E airspace starts at 700 feet
is Class E airspace, and requires 5 statute miles visibility AGL. The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to
above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL. operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport
See the previous figure. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155 at 1,200 feet AGL are 3 SM, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet
above, and 2,000 feet horizontal. (PLT064) — AIM ¶3-1-4
Answers
3140 [B] 3141 [A] 3145 [C] 3146 [C] 3147 [B] 3620-1 [C]

ALL ALL
3620-2. (Refer to Figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and 3621-3. (Refer to Figure 79.) What are the basic VFR
cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA
Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are (K36) airport during the day?
A— 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, A— 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the
and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds and 2,000
B— 3 miles and clear of clouds. feet horizontally from the clouds.
C— 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and B— 0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. C— 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
The Sandpoint Airport Class E airspace starts at 700 Onawa, IA (K36) is in the bottom right quadrant of the
feet AGL. Below 700 feet AGL, the visibility and cloud sectional excerpt. It is outside any shading or lines,
clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight indicating the airport is in Class G airspace. The basic
hours is 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. At night, VFR weather minima for a daytime departure from a
the requirements are 3 SM, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet Class G airport is 1 statute mile and clear of clouds.
above, and 2,000 feet horizontal. (PLT064) — AIM ¶3-1-4 (PLT064) — AIM ¶3-1-4
ALL ALL
3621-1. (Refer to Figure 27, area 2.) The visibility and 3137. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds
cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at
daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are A— 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
A— 1 mile and clear of clouds. B— 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above,
B— 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C— 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
C— 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. Minimum visibility and cloud clearance for Class G air-
space at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours
For VFR flight during daylight hours, between 1,200 is 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. See the previous
feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL, in Class E airspace, figure. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
visibility and cloud clearances require 3 miles and 1,000 Answer (B) is incorrect because this is for Class C, D, or E airspace.
feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is for Class B airspace.
(PLT101) — AIM ¶3-1-4
ALL
ALL 3142. During operations outside controlled airspace
3621-2. (Refer to Figure 27, area 2.) The day VFR vis- at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than
ibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR
the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing flight at night is
out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are A— 1 mile.
A— 3 miles and clear of clouds. B— 3 miles.
B— 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and C— 5 miles.
2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
C— 1 mile and clear of clouds. At altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than
10,000 feet MSL, Class G airspace requires 3 miles
Cooperstown is in Class G airspace from the surface visibility at night. See the previous figure. (PLT163) —
to 700 feet AGL. Therefore, the visibility and cloud 14 CFR §91.155
clearance requirements are 1 mile and clear of clouds.
(PLT064) — AIM ¶3-1-4
Answers
3620-2 [A] 3621-1 [C] 3621-2 [C] 3621-3 [C] 3137 [A] 3142 [B]

ALL ALL, SPO

3143. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight 3149. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating
visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet an aircraft within Class D airspace are
AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is A— 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
A— 1 mile. B— 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
B— 3 miles. C— clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.
C— 5 miles.
Except for Special VFR procedures, no person may
At altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than operate an aircraft under VFR within Class D airspace,
10,000 feet MSL, Class G airspace requires 1 mile vis- beneath the ceiling when the ceiling is less than 1,000
ibility during the day. See the previous figure. (PLT163) feet. No person may takeoff or land an aircraft, or enter
— 14 CFR §91.155 the traffic pattern of an airport under VFR, within Class
D airspace unless ground visibility at that airport is at
least 3 statute miles. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
ALL
3144. During operations outside controlled airspace
at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than SPO
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds 2137. During operations within Class E airspace at
requirement for VFR flight at night is altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum
A— 500 feet. horizontal distance from clouds requirement for flight is
B— 1,000 feet. A— 500 feet.
C— 1,500 feet. B— 1,000 feet.
C— 2,000 feet.
At altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than
10,000 feet MSL, Class G airspace requires a cloud Minimum horizontal distance from clouds within Class
clearance of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and C, D, or E airspace below 10,000 feet is 2,000 feet.
2,000 feet horizontal, during both day and night flights. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
See the previous figure. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
SPO
ALL, SPO 2040. Sport Pilot minimum flight visibility for Class E
3148. No person may take off or land an aircraft under airspace less than 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) is
basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace A— 2,000 feet horizontal.
unless the B— 3 statute miles.
A— flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. C— 3 nautical miles.
B— ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
C— ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. The minimum flight visibility for Class E airspace less
than 10,000 feet MSL is 3 SM. (PLT163) — FAA-H-
Except for Special VFR procedures, no person may 8083-25
operate an aircraft under VFR within Class D airspace, Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the required distance from
beneath the ceiling when the ceiling is less than 1,000 clouds, not flight visibility. Answer (C) is incorrect because flight vis-
feet. No person may takeoff or land an aircraft, or enter ibility is based on statute miles, not nautical.
the traffic pattern of an airport under VFR, within Class
D airspace unless ground visibility at that airport is at
least 3 statute miles. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
Answers
3143 [A] 3144 [A] 3148 [C] 3149 [B] 2137 [C] 2040 [B]

SPO SPO
2203. You need to maintain this distance below clouds: 2186-1. (Refer to Figure 59.) In flight and approaching
A— 500 feet. the Lowe Airstrip (area 1) the weather minimums are
B— 1,000 feet. A— 1 statute mile visibility.
C— 2,000 feet. B— 3 statute miles in all airspace.
C— no visibility, remain clear of clouds.
Sport pilots need to maintain this distance from clouds:
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet hori- This airport lies in Class G airspace where you must
zontal in all controlled airspace. (PLT163) — 14 CFR have 3 miles of visibility and be clear of clouds to oper-
§91.155 ate. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the distance you must
maintain above clouds. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the
distance you must maintain horizontally from clouds.
Special VFR Weather Minimums

If an appropriate ATC clearance (Special VFR) has been received, an aircraft may be operated within
the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport when
the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than 3 miles.
Special VFR requires the aircraft to be operated clear of clouds with flight visibility of at least 1 statute
mile.
For Special VFR operation between sunset and sunrise, the pilot must hold an instrument rating and
the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
Requests for Special VFR arrival or departure clearance should be directed to the airport traffic
control tower if one is in operation.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC No person may operate an aircraft (other than a heli-
3150. A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of copter) in a Class D airspace under special VFR unless
an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace clear of clouds and flight visibility is at least 1 statute
when the visibility is mile. (PLT376) — 14 CFR §91.157
A— less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000
feet.
RTC
B— at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of
3152. Under what conditions, if any, may a private pilot
clouds.
C— at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear operate a helicopter under special VFR at night within
of clouds. Class D airspace?
A— The helicopter must be fully instrument equipped
No person may operate an aircraft (other than a heli- and the pilot must be instrument rated.
copter) in a Class D airspace under Special VFR unless B— The flight visibility must be at least 1 mile.
clear of clouds and flight visibility is at least 1 statute C— There are no conditions; regulations permit this.
mile. (PLT376) — 14 CFR §91.157
There are no restrictions on helicopters for Special VFR
operations within Class D airspace. (PLT161) — 14
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC CFR §91.157
3151. What is the minimum weather condition required
for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D
airspace?
A— 1 mile flight visibility.
B— 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
C— 3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
Answers
2203 [A] 2186-1 [B] 3150 [B] 3151 [A] 3152 [C]

AIR, WSC, PPC AIR

3153. What are the minimum requirements for airplane 3154. No person may operate an airplane within Class
operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
night? A— flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
A— The airplane must be under radar surveillance at B— airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
all times while in Class D airspace. C— flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
B— The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an
altitude reporting transponder. No person may operate an aircraft (other than a heli-
C— The pilot must be instrument rated, and the copter) in a Class D airspace under special weather
airplane must be IFR equipped. minimums between sunset and sunrise unless the
airplane and pilot are certified for instrument flight.
No person may operate an aircraft (other than a heli- (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.155
copter) in a Class D airspace under special weather
minimums between sunset and sunrise unless the pilot
and airplane are certified for instrument flight. (PLT161) AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
— 14 CFR §91.157, §91.205 3813. What ATC facility should the pilot contact to
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because radar and transponder receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D
are not required in Class D airspace. airspace?
A— Automated Flight Service Station.
B— Air Traffic Control Tower.
C— Air Route Traffic Control Center.
When a control tower is in operation, requests for spe-

cial VFR clearances should be to the tower. (PLT161)
— AIM ¶4-4-6
VFR Cruising Altitudes

When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface
and below 18,000 feet MSL, a pilot is required to maintain an appropriate altitude in accordance with
certain rules. This requirement is sometimes called the “Hemispherical Cruising Rule,” and is based on
magnetic course, not magnetic heading. See Figure 4-5.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3155. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR
flight on a magnetic course of 135°?
A— Even thousandths.
B— Even thousandths plus 500 feet.
C— Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
When operating below 18,000 feet MSL in VFR cruising

flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface and on a
magnetic course of 0° through 179°, any odd thousand-
foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (i.e., 3,500, 5,500, etc.)
is appropriate. On a course of 180° through 359°, even
thousands plus 500 feet (4,500, 6,500, etc.) is appropri-
ate. (PLT467) — 14 CFR §91.159
Figure 4-5. VFR cruising altitudes
Answers
3153 [C] 3154 [B] 3813 [B] 3155 [C]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC When operating below 18,000 feet MSL in VFR cruising
3156. Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface and on a
flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? magnetic course of 0° through 179°, any odd thousand-
The terrain is less than 1,000 feet. foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (i.e., 3,500, 5,500, etc.)
A— 4,500 feet. is appropriate. On a course of 180° through 359°, even
B— 5,000 feet. thousands plus 500 feet (4,500, 6,500, etc.) is appropri-
C— 5,500 feet. ate. (PLT467) — 14 CFR §91.159
When operating below 18,000 feet MSL in VFR cruising

flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface and on a AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
magnetic course of 0° through 179°, any odd thousand- 3158. Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruis-
foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (i.e., 3,500, 5,500, etc.) ing altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot
is appropriate. On a course of 180° through 359°, even altitude while on a
thousands plus 500 feet (4,500, 6,500, etc.) is appropri- A— magnetic heading of 0° through 179°.
ate. (PLT467) — 14 CFR §91.159 B— magnetic course of 0° through 179°.
C— true course of 0° through 179°.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC When operating below 18,000 feet MSL in VFR cruising
3157. Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface and on a
flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of magnetic course of 0° through 179°, any odd thousand-
185°? foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (i.e., 3,500, 5,500, etc.)
A— 4,000 feet. is appropriate. On a course of 180° through 359°, even
B— 4,500 feet. thousands plus 500 feet (4,500, 6,500, etc.) is appropri-
C— 5,000 feet. ate. (PLT467) — 14 CFR §91.159
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because VFR altitudes are based
on a magnetic course.
Categories of Aircraft
The term “category,” when used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a grouping of aircraft
based upon intended use or operating limitations. Examples include normal, utility, aerobatic, restricted,
experimental, transport, limited and provisional categories.
Both restricted and experimental category aircraft are prohibited from carrying persons or property
for compensation or hire. In addition, both categories are normally prohibited from flying over densely
populated areas or in congested airways.
ALL ALL
3003. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which 3004. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which
is a category of aircraft? is a class of aircraft?
A— Normal, utility, acrobatic. A— Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B— Airplane, rotorcraft, glider. B— Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
C— Landplane, seaplane. C— Transport, restricted, provisional.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, “a category With respect to the certification of aircraft, “class” is a
of aircraft” means a grouping of aircraft based upon broad grouping of aircraft having similar means of pro-
intended use or operating limitations. Examples include pulsion, flight, or landing. Examples include airplane,
normal, utility, acrobatic, transport, limited, restricted, rotorcraft, glider, balloon, landplane, and seaplane.
and provisional. (PLT371) — 14 CFR §1.1 (PLT371) — 14 CFR §1.1
Answer (B) is incorrect because it refers to the certification of air- Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because they refer to category of
men, not aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because it is not any kind aircraft rather than class.
of category.
Answers
3156 [C] 3157 [B] 3158 [B] 3003 [A] 3004 [A]

ALL AIR, GLI, RTC, WSC, PPC

3179. Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no per- 3178. Which is normally prohibited when operating a
son may operate an aircraft that has an experimental restricted category civil aircraft?
certificate A— Flight under instrument flight rules.
A— beneath the floor of Class B airspace. B— Flight over a densely populated area.
B— over a densely populated area or in a congested C— Flight within Class D airspace.
airway.
C— from the primary airport within Class D airspace. No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft
within the United States:
Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in 1. Over a densely populated area.
special operating limitations, no person may operate
an aircraft that has an experimental certificate over 2. In a congested airway.
a densely populated area or in a congested airway. 3. Near a busy airport where passenger transport
(PLT383) — 14 CFR §91.319 operations are conducted.
(PLT373) — 14 CFR §91.313
Formation Flight and Dropping Objects

Flying so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard is prohibited. If the intent is to fly forma-
tion, prior arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft is required. In any case, no person
may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire in formation flight.
The PIC of an aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped while in flight unless reasonable pre-
cautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
ALL, SPO a hazard to persons or property. However, this does not

3088. No person may operate an aircraft in formation prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precau-
flight tions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or
A— over a densely populated area. property. (PLT401) — 14 CFR §91.15
B— in Class D airspace under special VFR.
C— except by prior arrangement with the pilot in
SPO
command of each aircraft.
2133-1. Which is true with respect to formation flights?
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight Formation flights are
except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of A— authorized when carrying passengers for hire,
each aircraft in the formation. The only restriction to with prior arrangement with the pilot in command
formation flight is when carrying passengers for hire. of each aircraft in the formation.
(PLT431) — 14 CFR §91.111 B— not authorized, except by arrangement with the
pilot in command of each aircraft.
C— not authorized, unless the pilot in command of
ALL each aircraft is trained and found competent in
3076. Under what conditions may objects be dropped formation.
from an aircraft?
A— Only in an emergency. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another
B— If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may
to persons or property on the surface. operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrange-
C— If prior permission is received from the Federal ment with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the
Aviation Administration. formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying
passengers for hire, in formation flight. (PLT431) — 14
No pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft may allow any CFR §91.111
object to be dropped from an aircraft in flight that creates
Answers
3179 [B] 3178 [B] 3088 [C] 3076 [B] 2133-1 [B]

VFR Flight Plans

Although filing a VFR flight plan is not mandatory (except under certain circumstances), it is considered
good operating practice.
When a VFR flight plan is filed, the information provided should include the following:
• In Block 7 enter the initial cruising altitude (even if more than one cruising altitude is intended).
• In Block 9, for maximum protection, file only to the point of first intended landing, and re-file for each
leg to final destination. Enter the name or coded identifier of the destination airport. When a “stop-
over” flight is anticipated, it is recommended that a separate flight plan be filed for each “leg” when
the stop is expected to be more than 1 hour duration.
• In Block 12, enter the total amount of usable fuel on board, expressed in hours.
The pilot must close a VFR flight plan at the completion of a flight. This can be done by contacting
the nearest flight service station (FSS) or other FAA facility upon landing.
ALL AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3818. How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the 3816. (Refer to Figure 52.) What information should be
completion of the flight at a controlled airport? entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?
A— The tower will automatically close the flight plan A— The name of the airport of first intended landing.
when the aircraft turns off the runway. B— The name of destination airport if no stopover for
B— The pilot must close the flight plan with the more than 1 hour is anticipated.
nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing. C— The name of the airport where the aircraft is
C— The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest based.
FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for
landing. Enter the destination airport identifier code or name, or
separate flight plans for each leg if a stopover will be
The pilot-in-command, upon canceling or completing more than one hour. (PLT455) — AIM ¶5-1-4
the flight under the flight plan, shall notify an FAA Flight
Service Station or ATC facility. (PLT225) — AIM ¶5-1-13
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
3817. (Refer to Figure 52.) What information should be
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?
3815. (Refer to Figure 52.) If more than one cruising A— The actual time enroute expressed in hours and
altitude is intended, which should be entered in block minutes.
7 of the flight plan? B— The estimated time enroute expressed in hours
A— Initial cruising altitude. and minutes.
B— Highest cruising altitude. C— The total amount of usable fuel onboard
C— Lowest cruising altitude. expressed in hours and minutes.
Block 7 of the flight plan is the place to enter the “initial Specify the fuel on board in hours and minutes. (PLT455)
cruising altitude.” (PLT455) — AIM ¶5-1-4 — AIM ¶5-1-4
Answers
3818 [B] 3815 [A] 3816 [B] 3817 [C]

Speed Limits
The following maximum speed limits for aircraft have been established in the interest of safety:
1. Below 10,000 feet MSL, the speed limit is 250 knots indicated air speed (KIAS). See Figure 4-6a on
the next page.
2. The speed limit within Class B airspace (Figure 4-6b) is also 250 KIAS.
3. The maximum speed authorized in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace (Figure 4-6c) or in
airspace underlying Class B airspace (Figure 4-6d) is 200 KIAS.
4. In Class D airspace, aircraft are restricted to a maximum of 200 KIAS (Figure 4-6e).
5. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500
feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated
airspeed of more than 200 knots.
At or above 10,000 MSL: No Speed Limit
Below 10,000 MSL: 250 Knots
Class B: 250 Knots
VFR Corridor: 200 Knots
200 Knots Below Class B:

200 Knots
Class C or D
250 Knots
Figure 4-6. Maximum speed limits

AIR, RTC AIR, RTC

3097. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maxi- 3099. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B
mum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? A— 200 knots.
A— 200 knots. B— 230 knots.
B— 250 knots. C— 250 knots.
C— 288 knots.
No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace
Maximum speed below 10,000 feet MSL is 250 knots. underlying Class B airspace at a speed of more than
(PLT383) — 14 CFR §91.117 200 knots. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.117
AIR, RTC AIR, RTC

3098. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indi- 3100. When flying in a VFR corridor designated through
cated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of A— 180 knots.
the primary airport of Class C airspace is B— 200 knots.
A— 200 knots. C— 250 knots.
B— 230 knots.
C— 250 knots. Maximum speed in a VFR corridor through Class B
airspace is 200 KIAS. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.117
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no
person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet
AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or
Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more
than 200 knots. (PLT383) — 14 CFR §91.117
Airworthiness
Each aircraft is issued an Airworthiness Certificate, which remains valid as long as the aircraft is main-
tained and operated as required by regulations. This Airworthiness Certificate, along with the Aircraft
Registration Certificate, operating limitations, and weight and balance must be aboard the aircraft during
flight. Remember:
• Airworthiness
• Registration
• Operating Limitations
• Weight and Balance
The aircraft’s operating limitations may be found in the airplane flight manual, approved manual
material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
Summarized below are important points in understanding the definition of light-sport aircraft and the
privileges associated with the Sport Pilot certificate:
• Two-place maximum (pilot and one passenger)
• Maximum gross takeoff weight 1,320 lbs (599 kg); 1,430 lbs for seaplanes
• Lighter-than-air light-sport aircraft maximum gross weight 660 lbs (300 kg)
• Maximum stall speed 51.8 mph (45 knots)
Continued
Answers
3097 [B] 3098 [A] 3099 [A] 3100 [B]

• Maximum speed in level flight with maximum continuous power 138 mph (120 knots)
• All LSA aircraft logbook signoffs are based on a specific make and model, allowing you to fly a similar
“set” of performance and handling aircraft. Aircraft are organized by the FAA from large “Categories”
of aircraft to specific “Sets” in the following order:
Category and Class Light-Sport Aircraft — fixed wing/airplane category (land and sea classes),
weight-shift control/trike category (land and sea classes), powered parachute category (land and sea
classes), glider, rotorcraft category (gyroplane class), lighter-than-air category (balloon and airship
classes).
Sets are a more detailed breakdown of similar performance and handling.
Make and Model — manufacturer specific that define/specify a set.
Type —E-LSA or S-LSA.
• Single, non-turbine engine only, includes rotary or diesel engines
• Fixed or ground-adjustable propeller
• Unpressurized cabin with fixed landing gear
• Seaplanes with landing gear that can be configured so the wheels rotate for amphibious operation
• Will have FAA registration N number
• U.S. or foreign manufacture of light-sport aircraft is authorized
• (S-LSA) Special Light-Sport aircraft manufactured and sold ready-to-fly under a new certification
without 14 CFR Part 23 compliance, but must meet ASTM consensus standards. Aircraft under this
certification may be used for sport and recreation, flight training, and aircraft rental.
• (E-LSA) Experimental Light-Sport Aircraft is a kit built from an S-LSA design. May be used for sport
and recreation and flight instruction for the owner of the aircraft.
• (E-LSA) Experimental Light-Sport Aircraft which was operated as an ultralight trainer or overweight
single-place ultralight (fat ultralight). This existing fleet of ultralight trainers can be used for training
until January 31, 2010.
• Aircraft with a standard airworthiness certificate (vintage production aircraft) that meet LSA speci-
fications may be flown by sport pilots. However, that airworthiness certification category will not be
changed to a light-sport aircraft. Maintenance must therefore be done by an A&P as it has in the past.
• Holders of a Sport Pilot Certificate may fly an aircraft with a standard airworthiness certificate if it
meets the definition of a light-sport aircraft.
• May be operated at night if the aircraft is equipped per 14 CFR §91.209 and the pilot holds at least
a Private Pilot certificate and a minimum of a third-class medical.
• E-LSA Experimental amateur-built, in which the builder completes 51% of the building of the aircraft.

ALL ALL, SPO

3075. Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be 3187. How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of
found? an aircraft remain valid?
A— On the Airworthiness Certificate. A— As long as the aircraft has a current Registration
B— In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, Certificate.
approved manual material, markings, and B— Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major
placards, or any combination thereof. damage.
C— In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks. C— As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated
as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
No person may operate a civil aircraft without complying
with the limitations found in the approved flight manual, Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, revoked, or
markings, and placards. (PLT373) — 14 CFR §91.9 a termination date is otherwise established by the
Administrator, Standard Airworthiness Certificates
and Airworthiness Certificates issued for restricted or
ALL limited category aircraft are effective as long as the
3075-1. Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations
be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special are performed in accordance with Parts 43 and 91 and
light-sport airworthiness certificate? the aircraft are registered in the United States. (PLT377)
A— Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate. — 14 CFR §21.181
B— In the current, FAA-approved flight manual.
C— In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
Operating limitations for experimental and special light

sport aircraft are attached to the airworthiness certificate.
14 CFR §21.190 and §91.319 describe the qualifica-
tion for issuance and operating limitations. FAA Order
8130.2G specifically states that the operating limitations
will be attached to FAA Form 8130-7. (PLT400) — 14
CFR §21.190, §91.319
ALL, SPO
3159. In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate,
what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft
during flight?
A— Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and
owner’s manual.
B— Radio operator’s permit, and repair and alteration
forms.
C— Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it:

1. An appropriate and current Airworthiness Certificate,
displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it
is legible to passengers or crew.
2. A Registration Certificate issued to its owner.
3. An approved flight manual, manual material, mark-
ings and placards or any combination thereof, which
show the operating limitations of the aircraft.
(PLT400) — 14 CFR §91.203
Answers
3075 [B] 3075-1 [A] 3159 [C] 3187 [C]

Maintenance and Inspections

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy
condition, including compliance with airworthiness directives. He/she is also responsible for all records
of maintenance, repairs, and alterations. (The pilot-in-command is responsible for determining that the
aircraft is in an airworthy condition prior to flight.) The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by
a preflight inspection and a review of the maintenance records.
The holder of a pilot certificate is allowed (within certain limits) to perform preventive maintenance
on any aircraft owned and operated by that pilot. Preventive maintenance is limited to tasks such as
replacing defective safety wire, servicing landing gear wheel bearings, replacing safety belts, and other
tasks listed in 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A. After preventive maintenance has been performed on an
aircraft, the signature, certificate type and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for
return to service, and a description of the work, must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
An aircraft may not be operated unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an
annual inspection and has been approved for return to service. This will be indicated by the appropriate
notation in the aircraft maintenance records. To determine the expiration date of the last annual inspec-
tion, refer to the aircraft maintenance records. For example, if the aircraft’s last annual inspection was
performed on July 12, 1993, the next annual inspection will be due no later than midnight, July 31, 1994.
If an aircraft is used to carry passengers for hire or used for flight instruction for hire, it must have,
in addition to the annual inspection, an inspection each 100 hours of flight time. (An annual inspection
may be substituted for the 100-hour inspection, but a 100-hour inspection may not be substituted for an
annual inspection.) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to
reach a place at which the inspection can be done. The excess time should not be used in computing
the next 100 hours of time in service. The next 100-hour inspection should be performed 100 hours after
the previous inspection was due, not after the time the inspection was actually completed. For example:
a 100-hour inspection was due at 3,302.5 hours on the hobbs meter. The 100-hour inspection was actu-
ally done at 3,309.5 hours. The next 100-hour inspection is due at 3,402.5 hours.
The transponder cannot be operated unless within the preceding 24 calendar months, it has been
inspected and found satisfactory.
If an aircraft has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in any manner that may have appreciably
changed its flight characteristics or operation in flight, no passengers may be carried until it has been
flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot (with at least a Private Pilot Certificate) and approved for
return to service.
Light-Sport Repairman Certificates

Two additional repairman certificates are available for working on light-sport aircraft: the maintenance
and inspection ratings.
The maintenance rating allows repairmen to do maintenance, preventative maintenance, and
alterations to E-LSA and S-LSA. The course is 120 hours (airplane category); 104 hours (weight-shift or
powered parachute); 80 hours (glider or lighter-than-air). An A&P certificate counts towards these hour
requirements for Light-Sport Aircraft qualifications, but additional training on specific category of aircraft
will be required.
The inspection rating allows E-LSA repairmen/owners the ability to perform the annual inspection
on their own aircraft. This course is 16 hours on the specific aircraft category and class. The 100-hour
inspection required for training and hire for all E-LSA and S-LSA must be done by an appropriately-rated
A&P mechanic or an LSA repairman with a maintenance rating.

Light-Sport Aircraft FAA Designated Airworthiness Representatives (DAR) must attend a three-day
FAA course to inspect and issue experimental (E-LSA) and special (S-LSA) airworthiness certificates.
Special Light-Sport Airworthiness Certificated Aircraft (S-LSA) Maintenance

A certificated pilot (Sport Pilot rating or higher) can perform preventive maintenance as specified by the
manufacturer (typically similar to 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix A) and return to service on his own aircraft
with no sport pilot repairman certificate. However, the annual and 100-hour condition inspection must
be completed by:
• An appropriately rated A&P mechanic;
• An appropriately rated repair station; or
• A light-sport repairman with a maintenance rating.
Experimental Light-Sport Airworthiness Certificated Aircraft (E-LSA) Maintenance

No rating is required to perform maintenance on (E-LSA). The annual condition inspection can be com-
pleted by:
• An appropriately-rated A&P mechanic;
• An appropriately-rated repair station;
• A light-sport repairman with a maintenance rating; or
• A light-sport repairman with an inspection rating (16 hour course) on their own aircraft.
ALL The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by

3180-1. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft a preflight inspection and a review of the maintenance
is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that records. Each owner or operator shall ensure that
of the maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the
A— pilot-in-command. aircraft maintenance records indicating maintenance
B— owner or operator. done and the aircraft has been approved for return to
C— mechanic who performs the work. service. (PLT377) — 14 CFR §91.405
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily respon-

sible for maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition. ALL
The pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft is responsible 3181-1. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance
for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft
safe flight. (PLT374) — 14 CFR §91.403 maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been
approved for return to service lies with the
A— owner or operator.
ALL B— pilot in command.
3180-2. The airworthiness of an aircraft can be deter- C— mechanic who performed the work.
mined by a preflight inspection and a
A— statement from the owner or operator that the The registered owner or operator shall ensure that the
aircraft is airworthy. aircraft maintenance records include the signature and
B— log book endorsement from a flight instructor. the certificate number of the person approving the aircraft
C— review of the maintenance records. for return to service. (PLT374) — 14 CFR §91.417
Answers
3180-1 [B] 3180-2 [C] 3181-1 [A]

ALL No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the

3181-2. Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an annual
entries are made in maintenance records indicating the inspection in accordance with Part 43 and has been
aircraft has been approved for return to service? approved for return to service by an authorized person.
A— Owner or operator. (PLT372) — 14 CFR §91.409
B— Certified mechanic.
C— Repair station.
ALL
Each owner or operator shall ensure that maintenance 3186. To determine the expiration date of the last annual
personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
maintenance records indicating maintenance done and A— Airworthiness Certificate.
the aircraft has been approved for return to service. B— Registration Certificate.
(PLT374) — 14 CFR §91.405 C— aircraft maintenance records.
Each registered owner or operator shall keep records

ALL of the maintenance and alteration, and records of the
3182. Completion of an annual condition inspection 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or
and the return of the aircraft to service should always approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft
be indicated by (including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor,
A— the relicensing date on the Registration and appliance of an aircraft. (PLT372) — 14 CFR §91.417
Certificate.
B— an appropriate notation in the aircraft
ALL
maintenance records.
3188. What aircraft inspections are required for rental
C— an inspection sticker placed on the instrument
panel that lists the annual inspection completion aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
date. A— Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
B— Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.
Each registered owner or operator shall keep records C— Annual condition and 50-hour inspections.
of the maintenance and alteration, and records of the
100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or No person may operate an aircraft carrying any person
approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire
(including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor, in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within
and appliance of an aircraft. The records must include: the preceding 100 hours of time in service it has received
1. A description (or reference to data acceptable to the an annual or 100-hour inspection and been approved for
Administrator) of the work performed; return to service. (PLT426) — 14 CFR §91.409
2. The date of completion of the work performed; and

3. The signature and certificate number of the person ALL
approving the aircraft for return to service. 3191. No person may use an ATC transponder unless
it has been tested and inspected within at least the
(PLT372) — 14 CFR §91.417 preceding
A— 6 calendar months.
ALL B— 12 calendar months.
3185. An aircraft’s annual condition inspection was per- C— 24 calendar months.
formed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection
will be due no later than No person may use an ATC transponder unless within
the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder
A— July 1, next year. has been tested and inspected and found to comply with
B— July 13, next year. Appendix F of Part 43. (PLT426) — 14 CFR §91.413
C— July 31, next year.
Answers
3181-2 [A] 3182 [B] 3185 [C] 3186 [C] 3188 [A] 3191 [C]

ALL ALL
3192. Maintenance records show the last transponder 3013-2. What regulation allows a private pilot to perform
inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The preventive maintenance?
next inspection will be due no later than A— 14 CFR Part 91.403.
A— September 30, 2015. B— 14 CFR Part 43.7.
B— September 1, 2016. C— 14 CFR Part 61.113.
C— September 30, 2016.
14 CFR §43.7 Persons authorized to approve aircraft,
No person may use an ATC transponder unless within airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, or
the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder component parts for return to service after maintenance,
has been tested and inspected and found to comply with preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration says
Appendix F of Part 43. (PLT508) — 14 CFR §91.413 a person holding at least a private pilot certificate may
approve an aircraft for return to service after performing
preventive maintenance under the provisions of §43.3(g).
ALL (PLT375) — 14 CFR §43.7
3013-1. Preventive maintenance has been performed Answer (A) is incorrect because 14 CFR §91.403 explains that the
on an aircraft. What paperwork is required? owner or operator must maintain the aircraft in airworthy condition.
Answer (C) is incorrect because 14 CFR §61.113 details the private
A— A full, detailed description of the work done must pilot privileges and limitations while operating as pilot-in-command.
be entered in the airframe logbook.
B— The date the work was completed, and the name
of the person who did the work must be entered ALL
in the airframe and engine logbook. 3013-3. Who may perform preventive maintenance on
C— The signature, certificate number, and kind of an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
certificate held by the person approving the work
1. Student or Recreational pilot.
and a description of the work must be entered in
2. Private or Commercial pilot.
the aircraft maintenance records.
3. None of the above.
Each registered owner or operator shall keep records A— 1.
of preventative maintenance. The records must include: B— 2.
1. A description of the work performed; C— Neither 1 or 2.
2. The date of completion of the work performed; and A person holding at least a private pilot certificate may
3. The signature and certificate number of the person approve an aircraft for return to service after performing
approving the aircraft for return to service (could be preventive maintenance. (PLT375) — 14 CFR §43.7
pilot certificate number for Part 43 when you are
doing your own preventative maintenance).
ALL
(PLT446) — 14 CFR §91.417 3014. Which operation would be described as preven-
Answer (A) is incorrect because it is incomplete. Answer (B) is incor- tive maintenance?
rect because it refers to who performed the work rather than who
approved it. A— Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
B— Repair of portions of skin sheets by making
additional seams.
C— Repair of landing gear brace struts.
Preventative maintenance items which can be performed

by the pilot are listed in Part 43 and include such basic
items as oil changes, wheel bearing lubrication, and
hydraulic fluid (brakes, landing gear system) refills.
(PLT446) — 14 CFR Part 43
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because they both list major
maintenance.
Answers
3192 [C] 3013-1 [C] 3013-2 [B] 3013-3 [B] 3014 [A]


3183. If an alteration or repair substantially affects an 3189. An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the
aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour
flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for inspection due?
return to service prior to being operated A— 1349.6 hours.
A— by any private pilot. B— 1359.6 hours.
B— with passengers aboard. C— 1369.6 hours.
C— for compensation or hire.
The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more
No person may carry any person (other than crewmem- than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which
bers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or the inspection can be done. The excess time, however,
altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed is included in computing the next 100 hours in service.
its flight characteristics or substantially affected its 1259.6 time at 100-hour inspection
operation in flight until an appropriately-rated pilot with + 100.0 time in service
at least a Private Pilot Certificate flies the aircraft, makes
1359.6 time next inspection due
an operational check of the maintenance performed or
alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records. (PLT372) — 14 CFR §91.409
(PLT375) — 14 CFR §91.407
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
ALL 3190. A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours.
3184. Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5
that has been altered in a manner that may have appre- hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
ciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight A— 3312.5 hours.
tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a B— 3402.5 hours.
A— Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument C— 3395.5 hours.
rating.
B— Private Pilot Certificate. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more
C— Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic’s than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which
certificate. the inspection can be done. The excess time, however,
is included in computing the next 100 hours in service.
No person may carry any person (other than crewmem- 3302.5 time inspection was due
bers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or + 100.0 time in service
altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed 3402.5 time next inspection due
its flight characteristics or substantially affected its
operation in flight until an appropriately-rated pilot with (PLT372) — 14 CFR §91.409
at least a Private Pilot Certificate flies the aircraft, makes
an operational check of the maintenance performed or
alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records.
(PLT375) — 14 CFR §91.407
Answers
3183 [B] 3184 [B] 3189 [B] 3190 [B]

ADs, ACs, and NOTAMs

Airworthiness Directives (ADs) identify unsafe aircraft conditions and prescribe regulatory actions (such
as inspections or modifications) or limitations under which the affected aircraft may continue to be oper-
ated and are mandatory. Compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive must be entered in the
appropriate aircraft maintenance records. The owner or operator is responsible for ensuring ADs are
complied with. Pilots may operate an aircraft not in compliance with an AD, if the AD allows for this.
In addition to ADs, light-sport aircraft must comply with manufacturers’ safety directives.
Advisory Circulars are issued by the FAA to inform the aviation community in a systematic way of
non-regulatory material of interest. In many cases, they are the result of a need to fully explain a particular
subject (wake turbulence, for example). They are issued in a numbered-subject system corresponding
to the subject areas of the Federal Aviation Regulations. Advisory Circulars (some free, others at cost)
may be obtained by ordering from the Government Printing Office (GPO).
Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) provide the most current information available. They provide time-critical
information on airports and changes that affect the national airspace system and are of concern to
instrument flight rule (IFR) operations. NOTAM information is classified into four categories: NOTAM (D)
or distant, Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs, pointer NOTAMs, and military NOTAMs.
NOTAM-Ds are attached to hourly weather reports and are available at flight service stations (AFSS/
FSS). FDC NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data Center and contain regulatory information,
such as temporary flight restrictions or an amendment to instrument approach procedures.
Pointer NOTAMs highlight or point out another NOTAM, such as an FDC or NOTAM (D). This type
of NOTAM will assist pilots in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an
airport or NAVAID identifier. Military NOTAMs pertain to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy NAVAIDs/
airports that are part of the NAS.
NOTAM-Ds and FDC NOTAMs are contained in the Notices to Airmen publication, which is issued
every 28 days. Prior to any flight, pilots should check for any NOTAMs that could affect their intended
flight.
An FDC NOTAM will be issued to designate a temporary flight restriction (TFR). The NOTAM will
begin with the phrase “FLIGHT RESTRICTIONS” followed by the location of the temporary restriction,
effective time period, area defined in statute miles, and altitudes affected. The NOTAM will also contain
the FAA coordination facility and telephone number, the reason for the restriction, and any other infor-
mation deemed appropriate. The pilot should check the NOTAMs as part of flight planning. Some of the
purposes for establishing a temporary restriction are: protect persons and property in the air or on the
surface from an existing or imminent hazard, provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster
relief aircraft, prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft above an incident or event, which
may generate a high degree of public interest, protect declared national disasters for humanitarian rea-
sons in the State of Hawaii, protect the President, Vice President, or other public figures, provide a safe
environment for space agency operations.

ALL including compliance with the Airworthiness Directives

3193. Which records or documents shall the owner or (ADs) found in 14 CFR Part 39. (PLT374) — 14 CFR
operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with §91.403
an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
A— Aircraft maintenance records.
ALL
B— Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot’s Operating
3999. What information is contained in the Notices to
Handbook.
C— Airworthiness and Registration Certificates. Airman Publication (NTAP)?
A— Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
Each registered owner or operator shall keep records B— All Current NOTAMs.
of the maintenance and alteration, and records of the C— Current FDC NOTAMs.
100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or
approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft The Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP) is published
(including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor, by Air Traffic Publications every 28 days and contains
and appliance of an aircraft. (PLT425) — 14 CFR §91.417 all current NOTAM (D)s and FDC NOTAMs (except FDC
NOTAMs for temporary flight restrictions) available for
publication. (PLT323) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL
3012-2. What should an owner or operator know about
Airworthiness Directives (AD’s)? ALL
3709. FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost)
A— For Informational purposes only.
B— They are mandatory. are available to all pilots and are obtained by
C— They are voluntary. A— distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
B— ordering those desired from the Government
Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are mandatory. No person Printing Office.
may operate a product to which an airworthiness directive C— subscribing to the Federal Register.
applies except in accordance with the requirements of
that airworthiness directive. (PLT426) — 14 CFR §39.3 Advisory circulars which are offered for sale or free may
be ordered from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S.
Government Printing Office. (PLT116) — AC 00-2
ALL, SPO
3012-3. May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in
compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? ALL
3854. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter
A— Yes, under VFR conditions only.
B— Yes, AD’s are only voluntary. specifically related to Airmen are issued under which
C— Yes, if allowed by the AD. subject number?
A— 60.
No person may operate a product to which an airwor- B— 70.
thiness directive applies except in accordance with the C— 90.
requirements of that airworthiness directive. (PLT378)
— 14 CFR §39.3 Appendix II of the Advisory Circular Checklist contains
the Circular Numbering System wherein advisory cir-
cular numbers relate to Federal Aviation Regulations
ALL subchapter titles and correspond to the Parts and/or
3181-3. Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness sections of the regulations. The four to remember are:
Directives (ADs) are complied with?
20 — Aircraft;
A— Owner or operator. 60 — Airmen;
B— Repair station. 70 — Airspace; and
C— Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA). 90 — Air Traffic and General Operating Rules
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily respon- (PLT116) — AC 00-2

sible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition,
Answers
3193 [A] 3012-2 [B] 3012-3 [C] 3181-3 [A] 3999 [A] 3709 [B]
3854 [A]

ALL SPO
3855. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter 2110. Some Advisory Circulars (ACs) are available free
specifically related to Airspace are issued under which of charge while the remaining ACs must be purchased.
subject number? All aviation safety ACs may be obtained by following the
A— 60. procedures in the AC Checklist (AC 00-2) or by
B— 70. A— referring to the FAA internet home page and
C— 90. following the links to ACs.
B— contacting the local airport Fixed Base Operator
Appendix II of the Advisory Circular Checklist contains and requesting the desired AC.
the Circular Numbering System wherein advisory cir- C— reading the ACs in the Aeronautical Information
cular numbers relate to Federal Aviation Regulations Manual (AIM).
subchapter titles and correspond to the Parts and/or
sections of the regulations. The four to remember are: A number of FAA organizations have made their ACs
20 — Aircraft; available on the Internet. These ACs may be found
60 — Airmen; through the FAA home page at: www.faa.gov located
70 — Airspace; and under Regulatory/Advisory, select Advisory Circulars.
90 — Air Traffic and General Operating Rules (PLT116) — AC 00-2
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because FBOs are not respon-
(PLT116) — AC 00-2 sible for distributing ACs, nor are they included as part of the AIM.
ALL, SPO SPO

3856. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter 2120. Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMS are issued by
specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General the National Flight Data Center and contain regulatory
Operations are issued under which subject number? information, such as
A— 60. A— temporary flight restrictions.
B— 70. B— markings and signs used at airports.
C— 90. C— standard communication procedures at
uncontrolled airports.
Appendix II of the Advisory Circular Checklist contains
the Circular Numbering System wherein advisory cir- FDC NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data
cular numbers relate to Federal Aviation Regulations Center and contain regulatory information, such as
subchapter titles and correspond to the Parts and/or temporary flight restrictions. (PLT323) — FAA-H-8083-25
sections of the regulations. The four to remember are:
20 — Aircraft;
60 — Airmen; SPO
70 — Airspace; and 2121. Time-critical information on airports and changes
90 — Air Traffic and General Operating Rules that affect the national airspace system are provided by
(PLT116) — AC 00-2 A— Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).
B— the Airport/Facilities Directory (A/FD).
C— Advisory Circulars (ACs).
SPO
2109. Unless incorporated into a regulation by refer- Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) provide the most current
ence, Advisory Circulars (ACs) are issued to inform the information available. They provide time-critical infor-
public of nonregulatory material mation on airports and changes that affect the national
airspace system. (PLT323) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— and are not binding.
B— but are binding. Answer (B) is incorrect because A/FDs are only revised every 8
weeks. Answer (C) is incorrect because the FAA issues ACs to
C— and self-cancel after 1 year. inform the aviation public in a systematic way of nonregulatory
material.
The FAA issues advisory circulars to inform the aviation
public in a systematic way of nonregulatory material.
Unless incorporated into a regulation by reference, the
contents of an advisory circular are not binding on the
public. (PLT116) — AC 00-2
Answers
3855 [B] 3856 [C] 2109 [A] 2110 [A] 2120 [A] 2121 [A]

SPO SPO
2122. NOTAM-Ds are maintained at each Flight Service 2053. One of the purposes for issuing a Temporary
Station (FSS) for facilities in their area only. NOTAM-D Flight Restriction (TFR) is to
information for other FSS areas must be specifically A— announce Parachute Jump Areas.
requested from the FSS B— protect public figures.
A— that has responsibility for the airport concerned. C— identify Airport Advisory Areas.
B— with which the pilot communicates.
C— where the flight plan is filed. Temporary flight restrictions (TFR) are imposed in
order to:
NOTAM-Ds include items of a local nature, such as 1. Protect persons and property in the air or on the
taxiway closures or construction near a runway. These surface from an existing or imminent flight associ-
NOTAMs are maintained by the FSS nearest the affected ated hazard;
airport. NOTAM-Ds must be requested from the FSS
for which the NOTAM was issued. (PLT323) — FAA- 2. Provide a safe environment for the operation of
H-8083-25 disaster relief aircraft;
3. Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft
above an incident;
4. Protect the President, Vice President, or other pub-
lic figures; and,
5. Provide a safe environment for space agency opera-
tions.
Pilots are expected to check appropriate NOTAMs during
flight planning when conducting flight in an area where
a temporary flight restriction is in effect. (PLT376) —
FAA-H-8083-15, Glossary
Answer (A) is incorrect because this is done through NOTAMs.
Answer (C) is incorrect because these are identified through the
Sectional and A/FD.
Accident Reporting Requirements

The National Transportation Security Board (NTSB) Part 830 contains rules pertaining to notification
and reporting of aircraft accidents and incidents. It also addresses preservation of aircraft wreckage,
mail, cargo, and records.
The term accident means “an occurrence in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or
in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.”
Serious injury means any injury which: (1) requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, com-
mencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received; (2) results in a fracture of any bone (except
simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose); (3) causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon
damage; (4) involves any internal organ; or (5) involves second or third degree burns, or any burns
affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface.
Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength,
performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or
replacement of the affected component. The following is not considered “substantial damage”: engine
failure, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground dam-
age to rotor or propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories,
brakes, or wingtips.
Answers
2122 [A] 2053 [B]

The term “incident” means “an occurrence other than an accident, which affects or could affect the
safety of operations.”
Immediate notification of the NTSB is required when an aircraft accident occurs, and any of a speci-
fied list of incidents, which include:
1. Inability of a flight crewmember to perform his/her duties due to illness or injury;
2. Infight fire;
3. An aircraft is overdue and believed to have been involved in an accident;
4. Flight control system malfunction or failure; or
5. When aircraft collide in flight or damage of more than $25,000 occurs to property other than the
aircraft.
The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident which requires notification of the NTSB
is responsible for preserving the wreckage, mail, or cargo until the NTSB takes custody. These items
may be moved to protect the wreckage from further damage.
The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within 10 days.
A report of an incident must be reported only upon request.
ALL, SPO ALL

3194. If an aircraft is involved in an accident which 3196. Which incident would necessitate an immediate
results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
NTSB field office should be notified A— An in-flight generator/alternator failure.
A— immediately. B— An in-flight fire.
B— within 48 hours. C— An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.
C— within 7 days.
Immediate notification of the NTSB is necessary if an
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by inflight fire occurs. (PLT366) — NTSB §830.5
the most expeditious means available, notify the near-
est NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs.
(PLT366) — NTSB §830.5 ALL
3197. Which incident requires an immediate notification
be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
ALL
A— An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved
3195. Which incident requires an immediate notification in an accident.
to the nearest NTSB field office? B— An in-flight radio communications failure.
A— A forced landing due to engine failure. C— An in-flight generator or alternator failure.
B— Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
C— Flight control system malfunction or failure. When an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been
involved in an accident, the NTSB must be notified
A flight control system malfunction or failure requires immediately. (PLT366) — NTSB §830.5
immediate NTSB notification. (PLT366) — NTSB §830.5
Answers
3194 [A] 3195 [C] 3196 [B] 3197 [A]

ALL, SPO SPO

3198. May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time 2189. While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing
the NTSB takes custody? gear, wheel, and tire are damaged by striking ground
A— Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local equipment. What action would be required to comply
law enforcement officer. with NTSB Part 830?
B— Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further A— A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field
damage. office within 7 days.
C— No, it may not be moved under any B— An immediate notification must be filed by the
circumstances. operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB
field office.
Prior to the time the Board and its authorized represen- C— No notification or report is required.
tative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, it may not be
disturbed or moved except to remove persons injured or This unfortunate event would not require notification
trapped, to protect the wreckage from further damage, or a report with the NTSB, as it is not an accident or
or to protect the public from injury. (PLT366) — NTSB considered “substantial damage” per the regulations.
§830.10 (PLT366) — NTSB §830.2
Answer (A) is incorrect because a report must be filed within 7
days for certain accidents or injuries, of which the taxiing incident
ALL, SPO described here does not qualify. Answer (B) is incorrect because an
3199. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved immediate notification must be filed only when an aircraft accident
occurs, of which the taxiing incident described here does not qualify.
in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report
within how many days?
A— 5. SPO
B— 7. 2211. Which publication covers the procedures required
C— 10. for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibili-
ties for pilots?
The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on Board A— FAR Part 61.
Form 6120.1 or 6120.2 within 10 days of an accident. B— FAR Part 91.
(PLT366) — NTSB §830.15 C— NTSB Part 830.
NTSB Part 830 contains regulations pertaining to notifi-

ALL, SPO
cation and reporting of aircraft accidents or incidents and
3200. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved
overdue aircraft, and preservation of aircraft wreckage,
in an incident is required to submit a report to the near-
mail, cargo, and records. (PLT366) — NTSB Part 830
est field office of the NTSB
Answer (A) is incorrect because 14 CFR Part 61 contains regula-
A— within 7 days. tions on certification of pilots. Answer (B) is incorrect because 14
B— within 10 days. CFR Part 91 contains regulations on general operating and flight
rules.
C— when requested.
A report on an incident for which notification is required

shall be filed only as requested by an authorized rep-
resentative of the Board. (PLT366) — NTSB §830.15
Answers
3198 [B] 3199 [C] 3200 [C] 2189 [C] 2211 [C]

SPO SPO
2212. Notification to the NTSB is required when there 2214. Which incident would require that the nearest
has been substantial damage NTSB field office be notified immediately?
A— which requires repairs to landing gear. A— In-flight fire.
B— to an engine caused by engine failure in flight. B— Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch.
C— which adversely affects structural strength or C— Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar
flight characteristics. which results in damage to other property of more
than $25,000.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the
most expeditious means available, notify the nearest The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by
NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. An the most expeditious means available notify the near-
aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the est NTSB field office of any infight fire. (PLT416) — 49
operation of an aircraft which takes place between the CFR §830.5
time any person boards the aircraft with the intention Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the regulation specifies
of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and “infight” fires only.
in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or
in which the aircraft receives substantial damage which
adversely affects the structural strength, performance, SPO
or flight characteristics of the aircraft. (PLT366) — 49 2117. The Federal Aviation Administration publication
CFR §830.2, §830.5 that provides the aviation community with basic flight
information and Air Traffic Control procedures for use in
the National Airspace System of the United States is the
SPO A— Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
2213. What period of time must a person be hospital- B— Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD).
ized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as C— Advisory Circular Checklist (AC 00-2).
a “serious injury”?
A— 10 days, with no other extenuating The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) is the official
circumstances. guide to basic flight information and ATC procedures.
B— 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of (PLT116) — AIM
the injury. Answer (B) is incorrect because the A/FD contains information on
C— 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date airports, communications, NAVAIDs, instrument landing systems,
VOR receiver check points, preferred routes, Flight Service Sta-
of the injury. tion/Weather Service telephone numbers, Air Route Traffic Control
Center (ARTCC) frequencies, part-time surface areas, and various
“Serious injury” means any injury requiring hospitaliza- other pertinent special notices essential to air navigation. Answer
tion for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days (C) is incorrect because AC 00-2 is the Advisory Circular checklist
and status of other FAA publications, contains advisory circulars that
from the date the injury was received. (PLT395) — 49 are for sale as well as those distributed free-of-charge by the FAA.
CFR §830.2
Answers
2212 [C] 2213 [B] 2214 [A] 2117 [A]


Chapter 5
Procedures and Airport Operations
Uncontrolled and Tower-Controlled Airports 5 – 3
Airport Markings 5 – 6
Airport Lighting 5 – 14
Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) 5 – 15
Surface Operations 5 – 19
Airport/Facility Directory 5 – 22
Fitness for Flight 5 – 24
Aeronautical Decision Making 5 – 28
Collision Avoidance 5 – 35
Aircraft Lighting 5 – 38

Chapter 5 Procedures and Airport Operations

Uncontrolled and Tower-Controlled Airports

Airport Traffic Control Towers (ATCT) are established to promote the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow
of air traffic. The tower controller will issue instructions for aircraft to follow the desired flight path while
in the airport traffic area whenever necessary by
using terminology as shown in Figure 5-1.
The ATCT will also direct aircraft taxiing on
the surface movement area of the airport. In all
instances, an appropriate clearance must be re-
ceived from the tower before taking off or landing.
At airports without an operating control tower,
pilots of fixed-wing and weight-shift control aircraft
must circle the airport to the left (“left traffic”) unless
visual indicators indicate right traffic.
A common visual indicator is the segmented
circle system, which consists of the following com- Figure 5-1
ponents (see Figure 5-2):
• The segmented circle is located in a position readily visible to pilots in the air and on the ground.
• A tetrahedron may be used to indicate the direction of landings and takeoffs. The small end of the
tetrahedron points in the direction of landing. Pilots are cautioned against using the tetrahedron to
determine wind direction, because it may not indicate the correct direction in light winds.
• A wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee may be installed near the operational runway to indicate wind
direction. The large end of the wind cone or sock points into the wind as does the cross bar of the
wind tee. See Figure 5-3.
Figure 5-3. Wind/landing direction indicators
Figure 5-2. Segmented circle and landing

direction indicator

The tetrahedron, wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee may be located in the center of the segmented
circle and may be lit for night operations.
Landing runway (landing strip) indicators are installed in pairs and used to show alignment of run-
ways. See Figure 5-4(a). Traffic pattern indicators are installed in pairs in conjunction with landing strip
indicators, and are used to indicate the direction of turns. See Figure 5-4(b).
Approaching to land at an airport without a control tower, or when the control tower is not in opera-
tion, the pilot should observe the indicator for the approach end of the runway to be used. VFR landings
at night should be made the same as during daytime.
Aircraft departing an uncontrolled airport must comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for
that airport.
ALL
3807. (Refer to Figure 51.) The segmented circle indi-
cates that the airport traffic is
A— left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for
Runway 18.
B— left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for
Runway 36.
C— right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for
Runway 27.
Figure 5-4. Landing runway and traffic pattern indicators
The traffic pattern indicators on a segmented circle are
ALL, SPO used to indicate the direction of turns. The traffic pattern
3123. Which is the correct traffic pattern departure indicators, shown as extensions from the segmented
procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport? circle, represent the base and final approach legs.
(PLT039) — AIM ¶4-3-3
A— Depart in any direction consistent with safety,
after crossing the airport boundary.
B— Make all turns to the left. ALL, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP
C— Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established 3808. (Refer to Figure 51.) The traffic patterns indicated
for the airport. in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid
flights over an area to the
In the case of an aircraft departing an airport without
an operating control tower, comply with any FAA traffic A— south of the airport.
pattern for that airport. (PLT201) — 14 CFR §91.127 B— north of the airport.
C— southeast of the airport.
ALL The segmented circle depicts the direction of landing for

3123-1. The recommended entry position to an airport each airport; the long part of the “L” depicts the runway,
traffic pattern is and the short part depicts the airport traffic pattern for
that runway. This figure indicates there are no flights
A— 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern
that cross the southeast area of the airport. (PLT039)
altitude.
— AIM ¶4-3-3
B— to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg
at traffic pattern altitude.
C— to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern
altitude and join the downwind leg.
The recommended entry position for an airport traffic

pattern is 45° to the midpoint of the downwind leg at
traffic pattern altitude. (PLT150) — AIM ¶4-3-3
Answers
3123 [C] 3123-1 [B] 3807 [A] 3808 [C]

ALL SPO
3809. (Refer to Figure 51.) The segmented circle indi- 2060. When approaching to land at an airport in Class G
cates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a airspace that does not have light signals or other visual
A— right-quartering headwind. markings, an airplane pilot must make
B— left-quartering headwind. A— a straight-in approach.
C— right-quartering tailwind. B— all turns to the right.
C— all turns to the left.
The large end of the wind cone (wind sock) points into
the wind. The wind cone in FAA Figure 51 indicates a When approaching to land at an airport without an
wind from the northwest. When landing on RWY 26, operating control tower in a Class G airspace area, each
this would be a right quartering headwind. (PLT039) pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane
— AIM ¶4-3-3 to the left unless the airport displays approved light
signals or visual markings indicate otherwise. (PLT435)
— 14 CFR §91.126
ALL, SPO
3810. (Refer to Figure 51.) Which runway and traffic
pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone SPO
in the segmented circle? 2194. When approaching to land at an airport, without
A— Right-hand traffic on Runway 9. an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the
B— Right-hand traffic on Runway 18. pilot should
C— Left-hand traffic on Runway 36. A— enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
B— make all turns to the left, unless otherwise
The large end of the wind cone (wind sock) points into indicated.
the wind. The wind cone in FAA Figure 51 indicates a C— fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
wind from the northwest. Landing into the wind can be
accomplished on either Runway 27 or Runway 36. The When approaching to land at an airport without an
traffic pattern indicators require right traffic to Runway operating control tower in Class G airspace, each pilot
27 and left traffic to Runway 36. (PLT039) — AIM ¶4-3-3 of an airplane must make all turns to the left unless the
airport displays approved light signals or visual mark-
ings indicating that turns should be made to the right.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC (PLT435) — 14 CFR §91.126
3719. VFR approaches to land at night should be Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the traffic pattern altitude
accomplished will vary for each airport and aircraft; however, all turns should be to
the left unless otherwise indicated.
A— at a higher airspeed.
B— with a steeper descent.
C— the same as during daytime. SPO
2002. Entries into traffic patterns while descending
Inexperienced pilots often have a tendency to make
create specific collision hazards and
approaches and landings at night with excessive air-
speed. Every effort should be made to execute the A— should be avoided.
approach and landing in the same manner as during B— should be used whenever possible.
the day. (PLT221) — FAA-H-8083-3 C— are illegal.
Entries into traffic patterns while descending create spe-

RTC, PPC cific collision hazards and should be avoided. (PLT170)
3122. Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching — AIM ¶4-4-15
an airport for landing?
A— Remain below the airplane traffic pattern altitude.
B— Avoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic.
C— Fly right-hand traffic.
Helicopters and powered parachutes must avoid the

flow of fixed-wing aircraft. (PLT170) — 14 CFR §91.127,
§91.129
Answers
3809 [A] 3810 [C] 3719 [C] 3122 [B] 2060 [C] 2194 [B]
2002 [A]

SPO SPO
2007-1. Inbound to an airport with no tower, FSS, or 2034-1. (Refer to Figure 56.) What is the recommended
UNICOM in operation, a pilot should self-announce on communications procedure for departure at Currituck
MULTICOM frequency County Airport (area 3)?
A— 123.0. A— Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing
B— 122.9. runway of departure.
C— 122.7. B— Calling the Elizabeth City tower on 120.5.
C— Radio need not be used.
Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on
the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self- Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate
announce procedures. (PLT204) — AIM ¶4-1-9 on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi,
and until 10 miles from the airport unless regulations
or local procedures require otherwise. (PLT435) — AIM
SPO ¶4-1-9
2007-2. Inbound to an airport with no tower, FSS, or Answer (B) is incorrect because this is a nontowered airport; 120.5
UNICOM in operation, a pilot should self-announce on is the CTAF. Answer (C) is incorrect because pilots should use the
MULTICOM frequency radio to announce intentions.
A— 20 miles out.
B— 10 miles out.
C— 5 miles out.
Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate

as appropriate on the designated frequency from 10
miles to landing. (PLT204) — AIM ¶4-1-9
Airport Markings
Runway numbers and letters are determined from the approach direction. The number is the magnetic
heading of the runway rounded to the nearest 10°. For example, an azimuth of 183° would result in a
runway number of 18; a magnetic azimuth of 076° would result in a runway numbered 8. Runway letters
differentiate between left (L), right (R), or center (C). See Figure 5-5.
The designated beginning of the runway that is available and suitable for the landing of aircraft is
called the threshold (Figure 5-6a). A threshold that is not at the beginning of the full-strength runway
pavement is a displaced threshold. The paved area behind the displaced threshold is marked by arrows
(Figure 5-6b) and is available for taxiing, takeoff, and landing rollout, but is not to be used for landing,
usually because of an obstruction in the approach path. See Figure 5-6.
Stopways are found extending beyond some usable runways. These areas are marked by chevrons,
and while they appear usable, they are suitable only as overrun areas. See Figure 5-7.
A closed runway which is unusable and may be hazardous, even though it may appear usable, will
be marked by an “X.”
LAHSO is an acronym for “Land And Hold Short Operations.” These operations include landing and
holding short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a run-
way other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. LAHSO is an air traffic control procedure that requires
pilot participation to balance the needs for increased airport capacity and system efficiency, consistent
with safety. Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program. The
pilot-in-command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance. The
safety and operation of the aircraft remain the responsibility of the pilot. Pilots are expected to decline a
Answers
2007-1 [B] 2007-2 [B] 2034-1 [A]

Figure 5-6. Threshold marking
Figure 5-5. Runway numbers and letters
LAHSO clearance if they determine it will com-

promise safety. Available Landing Distance (ALD)
data are published in the special notices section of
the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) and in the U.S.
Terminal Procedures Publications. Pilots should
only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a
minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles
Figure 5-7. Stopway marking
visibility. The intent of having “basic” VFR weather
conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.
Looking at FAA Figure 65 in the Computer Testing Supplement:
A is a surface painted runway marking
B is a stop bar/ILS hold
C is vehicle lanes
D is hold marking for land and hold short operations
E is taxiway/taxiway hold marking
F is taxiway edge marking (do not cross)
Looking at FAA Figure 66 in the Computer Testing Supplement:

A is a taxiway/runway hold position sign.
B is a runway approach hold position sign.
C is an ILS critical area hold position sign.
Continued

D is a no entry sign.
E is a taxiway location sign.
F is a runway location sign.
G is a runway safety area/obstacle free zone boundary.
H is an ILS critical area boundary.
I is an inbound destination sign.
J is an outbound destination sign.
K is a taxiway direction sign.
L is a runway distance remaining (in 1,000 foot increments).
M is a runway/runway hold position sign.
N is a taxiway ending marker.
A closed runway which is unusable and may be hazardous, even though it may appear usable, will
be marked by an “X.”
ALL ALL
3778. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that 3778-1. The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends
the runway is oriented approximately of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated
A— 009° and 027° true. approximately
B— 090° and 270° true. A— 008° and 026° true.
C— 090° and 270° magnetic. B— 080° and 260° true.
C— 080° and 260° magnetic.
The runway number is the whole number nearest one-
tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the The runway number is the whole number nearest
runway, measured clockwise from magnetic north. For one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of
example: 272° = RWY 27; 087° = RWY 9. (PLT141) — the runway, measured clockwise from magnetic north.
AIM ¶2-3-3 (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-3
SPO ALL
2024. The numbers 35 and 17 on a runway indicate 3778-2. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxi-
that the runway is oriented approximately way, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
A— 035°; and 017°; magnetic heading. A— Indicates direction to take-off runway.
B— 350°; and 170°; magnetic heading. B— Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway
C— 350°; and 170°; true heading. from runway.
C— Indicates designation and direction of taxiway
The runway number is the whole number nearest one- leading out of an intersection.
tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the
runway, measured clockwise from magnetic north. For The taxiway directional sign identifies the designation(s)
example: 352° = RWY 35; 172° = RWY 17. (PLT141) of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of the intersec-
— AIM ¶2-3-3 tion that a pilot would normally be expected to turn onto
Answer (A) is incorrect because runway numbers drop the last digit or hold short of. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-10
from the heading. Answer (C) is incorrect because runway numbers Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the runway
are based on magnetic direction. location sign. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the purpose of
the destination sign.
Answers
3778 [C] 2024 [B] 3778-1 [C] 3778-2 [C]

ALL, SPO ALL

3778-3. (Refer to Figure 65.) Which symbol indicates 3957. (Refer to the Runway Incursion Figure.) You have
a taxiway/taxiway intersection hold position marking? requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway
A— B. 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions:
B— D. “N123, Taxi to runway 16.” Where are you required to
C— E. stop in order to be in compliance with the controller’s
insructions?
Symbol “E” indicates a taxiway/taxiway hold marking.
(PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-4
Answer (A) is incorrect because “B” is a stop bar/ILS hold marking.
Answer (B) is incorrect because “D” is a hold marking for land and
hold short operations.
ALL, SPO
3778-4. (See Figure 65.) Which marking indicates a
vehicle lane?
A— A.
B— C.
C— E.
The vehicle roadway markings are used when nec-

essary to define a pathway for vehicle operations on
or crossing areas that are also intended for aircraft.
These markings consist of a white solid line to delin-
eate each edge of the roadway and a dashed line
to separate lanes within the edges of the roadway.
In lieu of the solid lines, zipper markings may be
used to delineate the edges of the vehicle roadway.
(PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-6
ALL
3778-5. The “yellow demarcation bar” marking indicates
A— runway with a displaced threshold that precedes
the runway. A— 5 (Five).
B— a hold line from a taxiway to a runway. B— 6 (Six).
C— the beginning of available runway for landing on C— 9 (Nine).
the approach side.
When ATC clears an aircraft to “taxi to” an assigned
A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions
threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that does not authorize the aircraft to “cross” all runways
precedes the runway. A demarcation bar is 3 feet (1 m) which the taxi route intersects except the assigned
wide and yellow, since it is not located on the runway. takeoff runway. A clearance must be obtained prior to
(PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-3 crossing any runway. It does not include authorization
to “taxi onto” or “cross” the assigned takeoff runway at
any point. You should taxi and hold short of runway 16,
which is position 5. (PLT3957) — AIM ¶4-3-18
Answer (B) is incorrect because “taxi to” does not authorize the
aircraft to “taxi onto” the assigned takeoff runway. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the airplane should taxi the most direct route to
the assigned runway unless instructed otherwise; position 9 would
not be encountered for the airplane at the west ramp to taxi to run-
way 16.
Answers
3778-3 [C] 3778-4 [B] 3778-5 [A] 3957 [A]

ALL ALL
3951. Who should not participate in the Land and Hold 3955. What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive
Short Operations (LAHSO) program? a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A— Recreational pilots only. A— 3 nautical miles.
B— Military pilots. B— 3 statute miles.
C— Student pilots. C— 1 statute mile.
Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when
not participate in the program. (PLT140) — AIM ¶4-3-11 there is a minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 statute
miles visibility. The intent of having “basic” VFR weather
conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with
ALL other aircraft and ground vehicle operations. (PLT141)
3952. Who has final authority to accept or decline any — AIM ¶4-3-11
land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A— Pilot-in-command.
ALL
B— Air traffic controller.
C— Second-in-command. 3955-1. When approaching taxiway holding lines from
the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
The pilot-in-command has the final authority to accept A— may continue taxiing.
or decline any land and hold short clearance. The safety B— should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
and operation of the aircraft remain the responsibility of C— should continue taxiing until all parts of the
the pilot. (PLT444) — AIM ¶4-3-11 aircraft have crossed the lines.
When approaching the holding line from the side with

ALL the continuous lines, a pilot should not cross the hold-
3953. When should pilots decline a land and hold short ing line without ATC clearance at a controlled airport, or
(LAHSO) clearance? without making sure of adequate separation from other
A— When it will compromise safety. aircraft at uncontrolled airports. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2‑3‑5
B— Only when the tower operator concurs. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because no part of the aircraft
C— Pilots can not decline clearance. may cross the hold line without ATC clearance.
Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if

they determine it will compromise safety. (PLT140) — ALL, SPO
AIM ¶4-3-11 3955-2. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold
position sign?
A— Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
ALL B— Denotes area protected for an aircraft
3954. Where is the “Available Landing Distance” (ALD) approaching or departing a runway.
data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold C— Denotes intersecting runways.
Short Operations (LAHSO)?
A— Special Notices Section of the Airport/Facility Mandatory instruction signs are used to denote an
Directory (A/FD). entrance to a runway or critical area and areas where
B— 14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight an aircraft is prohibited from entering. The runway
Rules. holding position sign is located at the holding position
C— Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that
intersect other runways. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-8
ALD data are published in the special notices section of
the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) and in the U.S. Ter-
minal Procedures Publications. (PLT140) — AIM ¶4-3-11
Answers
3951 [C] 3952 [A] 3953 [A] 3954 [A] 3955 [B] 3955-1 [B]
3955-2 [C]

SPO ALL
2026. The ‘runway hold position’ sign denotes 3955-3. What does the outbound destination sign
A— an entrance to a runway from a taxiway. identify?
B— an area protected for an aircraft approaching a A— Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
runway. B— Identifies direction to take-off runways.
C— an entrance to a taxiway from a runway. C— Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
Mandatory instruction signs are used to denote an Outbound destination signs provide information for
entrance to a runway or critical area and areas where locating the departure runway. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-11
an aircraft is prohibited from entering. The runway Answer (A) is incorrect because this is a runway marking. Answer
holding position sign is located at the holding position (C) is incorrect because this is a runway location sign.
on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that
intersect other runways. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-8
ALL, SPO
3955-4. What is the purpose of the No Entry sign?
SPO A— Identifies a paved area where aircraft are
2028. What is the purpose for the runway hold position prohibited from entering.
markings on the taxiway? B— Identifies area that does not continue beyond
A— Holds aircraft short of the runway. intersection.
B— Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway. C— Identifies the exit boundary for the runway
C— Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. protected area.
Runway holding position markings on taxiways identify The no entry sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an
the locations on a taxiway where an aircraft is supposed area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway
to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto intended to be used in only one direction or at the
the runway. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-5 intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways
or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a
taxiway or other aircraft movement surface. (PLT141)
SPO — AIM ¶2-3-8
2030. Holding position signs have Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the purpose of a hold posi-
A— red inscriptions on white background. tion sign. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the
runway boundary sign.
B— white inscriptions on red background.
C— yellow inscriptions on red background.
ALL
Hold position signs have white inscriptions on red back- 3955-5. (Refer to Figure 66.) Which airport marking
ground. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-5 is a runway safety area/obstacle free zone boundary?
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because these color combination
are not used in airport signs. A— G.
B— H.
C— N.
SPO
2031. ‘Runway hold position’ markings on the taxiway The runway boundary sign has a yellow background and
a black inscription, with a graphic that depicts the pave-
A— identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
ment holding-position marking. This sign, which faces
B— identifies an area where aircraft are prohibited.
the runway and is visible to the pilot exiting the runway,
C— allows an aircraft permission onto the runway.
is located adjacent to the holding-position marking on
Runway holding position markings on taxiways identify the pavement. The sign is intended to provide pilots with
the locations on a taxiway where an aircraft is supposed another visual cue they can use as a guide in deciding
to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto when they are “clear of the runway.” (PLT141) — AIM
the runway. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-5 ¶2-3-9
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is an ILS critical area bound-
ary sign. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is a taxiway-ending
marker.
Answers
2026 [A] 2028 [A] 2030 [B] 2031 [A] 3955-3 [B] 3955-4 [A]
3955-5 [A]

SPO ALL
2025. ‘Runway hold position’ markings on the taxiway 3776. (Refer to Figure 49.) Area C on the airport depicted
A— identify areas where aircraft are prohibited. is classified as a
B— identify where aircraft hold short of the runway. A— stabilized area.
C— allow an aircraft permission onto the runway. B— multiple heliport.
C— closed runway.
Runway holding position markings on taxiways identify
the locations on a taxiway where an aircraft is supposed An “X” painted on the end of runway means it is closed.
to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto (PLT077) — AIM ¶2-3-3
the runway. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-5
ALL, SPO
ALL, SPO 3777. (Refer to Figure 50.) The arrows that appear on
3773. (Refer to Figure 49.) That portion of the runway the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
identified by the letter A may be used for A— may be used only for taxiing.
A— landing. B— is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
B— taxiing and takeoff. C— cannot be used for landing, but may be used for
C— taxiing and landing. taxiing and takeoff.
Thresholds are marked at the beginning of a full-strength The paved area behind the displaced runway threshold
runway surface able to endure landing impacts or at a is available for taxiing, landing rollout, and the takeoff
point on the runway which will encourage pilots to avoid of aircraft. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-3
short approaches due to hidden noise or obstacle prob-
lems. Area A of FAA Figure 49 is marked with arrows
which point towards a displaced threshold. Thus, the SPO
paved surface prior to the threshold is available for 2206. Which publication contains an explanation of
taxi, takeoff and landing rollout, but not for touchdown. airport signs and markings?
(PLT077) — AIM ¶2-3-3 A— Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
B— Advisory Circulars (AC).
C— Airport Facility Directory (A/FD).
ALL
3774. (Refer to Figure 49.) According to the airport Both the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) and
diagram, which statement is true? the Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge (FAA-
A— Runway 32 is equipped at position E with H-8083-25) contain explanations of airport signs and
emergency arresting gear to provide a means of markings. (PLT141) — AIM Chapter 2, Section 3
stopping military aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because ACs provide information on non-
B— Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway regulatory material of interest. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
A/FD provides only comprehensive information on a given airport
25, and the landing portion of this runway begins (such as runway lengths, available services, lighting, etc.).
at position B.
C— The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 25
begins at position B.
Thresholds are marked at the beginning of a full-strength

runway surface able to endure landing impacts or at a
point on the runway which will encourage pilots to avoid
short approaches due to hidden noise or obstacle prob-
lems. Area A of FAA Figure 49 is marked with arrows
which point towards a displaced threshold. Thus, the
paved surface prior to the threshold is available for
taxi, takeoff and landing rollout, but not for touchdown.
(PLT077) — AIM ¶2-3-3
Answers
2025 [B] 3773 [B] 3774 [B] 3776 [C] 3777 [C] 2206 [A]

ALL SPO
3805. (Refer to Figure 50.) Select the proper traffic 2029. (Refer to Figure 66) Which sign indicates the
pattern and runway for landing. runway on which the aircraft is located?
A— Left-hand traffic and Runway 18. A— E
B— Right-hand traffic and Runway 18. B— F
C— Left-hand traffic and Runway 22. C— L
The small end of the tetrahedron points into the wind, “F” is a runway location sign, which identifies the runway
indicating the direction of landing. The wind is coming on which the aircraft is located. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-9
from the southwest. However, the runway most nearly Answer (A) is incorrect because E is a taxiway location sign, which
aligned into the wind is closed (X), leaving RWY 18 as identifies the taxiway on which the aircraft is located. Answer (C) is
the most suitable runway. The traffic pattern indicators on incorrect because this is a runway distance remaining sign, which
identifies the runway length remaining.
a segmented circle are used to indicate the direction of
turns. The traffic pattern indicators, shown as extensions
from the segmented circle, represent the base and final SPO
approach legs. The traffic pattern indicator shows right 2218. The “taxiway ending” marker
traffic for RWY 18. (PLT039) — AIM ¶4-3-4
A— indicates taxiway does not continue.
B— identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
ALL, SPO C— provides general taxiing direction to named
3806. (Refer to Figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by taxiway.
the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
Taxiway ending markers are used to indicate that the
A— Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the taxiway does not continue. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-3-4
right.
B— Runway 22 directly into the wind.
C— Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the
right.
The small end of the tetrahedron points into the wind

indicating the direction of landing. Landing to the south
on RWY 18, the pilot could expect a right crosswind.
(PLT077) — AIM ¶4-3-3
Answers
3805 [B] 3806 [A] 2029 [B] 2218 [A]

Airport Lighting
At night, the location of an airport can be determined by the presence of an airport rotating beacon
light. The colors and color combinations that denote the type of airports are:
White and green..................... Lighted land airport
*Green alone.......................... Lighted land airport
White and yellow.................... Lighted water airport
*Yellow alone.......................... Lighted water airport
Green, yellow, white............... Lighted heliport
*Note: Green alone or amber alone is used only in connection with a white-and-green or white-and-
amber beacon display, respectively.
A civil-lighted land airport beacon will show alternating white and green flashes. A military airfield
will be identified by dual-peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
In Class B, C, D, or E airspace, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often
indicates the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than 3 miles. However, pilots should
not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR.
Runway edge lights are used to outline the runway at night or during periods of low visibility. For
the most part, runway edge lights are white, and may be high-, medium-, or low-intensity, while taxiways
are outlined by blue omnidirectional lights.
Radio control of lighting is available at some airports, providing airborne control of lights by keying
the aircraft’s microphone. The control system is responsive to 7, 5, or 3 microphone clicks. Keying the
microphone 7 times within 5 seconds will turn the lighting to its highest intensity; 5 times in 5 seconds
will set the lights to medium intensity; low intensity is set by keying 3 times in 5 seconds.
ALL, SPO AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3769. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during 3718. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at
daylight hours indicates night by
A— there are obstructions on the airport. A— white directional lights.
B— that weather at the airport located in Class D B— blue omnidirectional lights.
airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. C— alternate red and green lights.
C— the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
A taxiway-edge lighting system consists of omnidirec-
In Class B, C, D or E airspace, operation of the airport tional blue lights which outline the usable limits of taxi
beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that paths. (PLT141) — FAA-H-8083-3
the weather in the airspace is below basic VFR weather
minimums (ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the
ceiling is less than 1,000 feet). (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-1-9
Answers
3769 [B] 3718 [B]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC

3768. To set the high intensity runway lights on medium 3771. A military air station can be identified by a rotat-
intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven ing beacon that emits
times, and then click it A— white and green alternating flashes.
A— one time within four seconds. B— two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
B— three times within three seconds. C— green, yellow, and white flashes.
C— five times within five seconds.
Military airport beacons flash alternately white and green,
To save money at low-usage airports, pilot-controlled but are differentiated from civil beacons by dual-peaked
lighting is installed. Key the mike seven times to set the (two quick) white flashes between the green flashes.
highest level, then adjust to medium with five clicks. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-1-9
(PLT462) — AIM ¶2-1-8
AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC

AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC 3772. How can a military airport be identified at night?
3770. A lighted heliport may be identified by a A— Alternate white and green light flashes.
A— green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. B— Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between
B— flashing yellow light. green flashes.
C— blue lighted square landing area. C— White flashing lights with steady green at the
same location.
A lighted heliport has a green, yellow and white beacon
flashing 30 to 60 times per minute. A flashing yellow light Military airport beacons flash alternately white and green,
identifies a lighted water port. (PLT141) — AIM ¶2-1-9 but are differentiated from civil beacons by dual-peaked
(two quick) white flashes between the green flashes.
(PLT141) — AIM ¶2-1-9
Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)

The Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) is a lighting system arranged so as to provide visual-
descent guidance information during approach to a runway. The lights are visible for up to 5 miles dur-
ing the day. The VASI glide path provides obstruction clearance, while lateral guidance is provided by
the runway or runway lights. When operating to an airport with an operating control tower, the pilot of
an airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a VASI is required to maintain an altitude at or
above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for landing.
Most VASI installations consist of two bars,
near and far, which provide one visual glide path.
On final approach flying toward the runway of
intended landing, if the pilot sees both bars as red,
the aircraft is below the glide path (Figure 5-8A).
Maintaining altitude, the pilot will see the near bar
turn pink and then white, while the far bar remains
red, indicating the glide path is being intercepted
(Figure 5-8B). If the aircraft is above the glide path,
the pilot will see both near and far bars as white
(Figure 5-8C).
Tri-color visual approach slope indicators
normally consist of a single light unit projecting a
three-color visual approach path. The below-glide
Figure 5-8. A 2-bar VASI
Answers
3768 [C] 3770 [A] 3771 [B] 3772 [B]

path indication is red, the above-glide path indication is amber, and the on-glide path indication is green.
See Figure 5-9.
Pulsating VASIs normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path.
The below-glide path indication is normally red or pulsating red, and the above-glide path indication is
normally pulsating white. The on-glide path indication is usually steady white. See Figure 5-10.
The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) uses a single row of lights. Four white lights means
“too high.” One red light and three white lights means “slightly high,” etc. See Figure 5-11.
Amber
th
Pa Green
l i de
e G a t h
Ab
ov lide P
On G Red
G li d e Path
Below
Threshold
Figure 5-10. Pulsating VASI system

Figure 5-9. Tri-color VASI
Figure 5-11. Precision approach path indicator (PAPI)

ALL ALL, SPO

3762. An above glide slope indication from a tri-color 3764. A below glide slope indication from a pulsating
VASI is approach slope indicator is a
A— a white light signal. A— pulsating white light.
B— a green light signal. B— steady white light.
C— an amber light signal. C— pulsating red light.
A tri-color VASI normally is a single light unit projecting Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally
a three-color visual approach path. Below the glide path consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color
is red, on the glide path is green, and above the glide visual approach path. The below-glide path indication
path is amber. (PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2 is red or pulsating red. The on-glide path indication is
a steady white light for one type of system, while for
another system it is an alternating red and white light.
ALL (PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2
3762-1. Which approach and landing objective is
assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath
of the VASI? ALL
A— Continuation of course guidance after transition to 3120. While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot
VFR. of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served
B— Runway identification and course guidance. by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
C— Lateral course guidance to the runway. A— maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to
the runway before going below the VASI.
The VASI is a system of lights arranged to provide visual B— maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
descent guidance information during the approach to a until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe
runway. These lights are visible from 3 to 5 miles during landing.
the day, and up to 20 miles or more at night. The visual C— stay high until the runway can be reached in a
glidepath of the VASI provides safe obstruction clearance power-off landing.
within ±10° of the extended runway centerline, and to 4
NM from the runway threshold. (PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2 An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by
a visual approach indicator, shall maintain an altitude at
or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is neces-
ALL sary for a safe landing. (PLT170) — 14 CFR §91.129
3763. An on glide slope indication from a tri-color
VASI is
ALL
A— a white light signal.
B— a green light signal. 3121. When approaching to land on a runway served by
C— an amber light signal. a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
A— maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope
A tri-color VASI normally is a single light unit projecting at least 2 miles downwind from the runway
a three-color visual approach path. Below the glide path threshold.
is red, on the glide path is green, and above the glide B— maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
path is amber. (PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2 C— remain on the glide slope and land between the
two-light bar.
An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by

a visual approach indicator, shall maintain an altitude at
or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is neces-
sary for a safe landing. (PLT147) — 14 CFR §91.129
Answers
3762 [C] 3762-1 [B] 3763 [B] 3764 [C] 3120 [B] 3121 [B]

ALL ALL
3760. A slightly high glide slope indication from a preci- 3765. (Refer to Figure 48.) Illustration A indicates that
sion approach path indicator is the aircraft is
A— four white lights. A— below the glide slope.
B— three white lights and one red light. B— on the glide slope.
C— two white lights and two red lights. C— above the glide slope.
The precision approach path indicator (PAPI) uses light The two-bar VASI on-glide slope indication is red over
units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row white lights. (PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2
of either two or four light units. Four white lights means
you are above the glide slope, three white lights and
one red light means you are slightly high, two red and ALL
two white lights means you are on the glide slope, three 3766. (Refer to Figure 48.) VASI lights as shown by
reds and one white light means you are slightly low and illustration C indicate that the airplane is
four red lights means you are below the glide slope. A— off course to the left.
(PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2 B— above the glide slope.
C— below the glide slope.
ALL, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP The two-bar VASI above-glide slope indication is white
3761. A below glide slope indication from a tri-color over white lights. VASI lights do not give horizontal direc-
VASI is a tion. (PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2
A— red light signal.
B— pink light signal.
C— green light signal. ALL, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP
3767. (Refer to Figure 48.) While on final approach
A tri-color VASI normally is a single light unit projecting to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the
a three-color visual approach path. Below the glide path lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means
is red, on the glide path is green, and above the glide that the aircraft is
path is amber. (PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2 A— above the glide slope.
B— below the glide slope.
C— on the glide slope.
The below-glide slope indication from a two-bar VASI is

red over red lights. (PLT147) — AIM ¶2-1-2
Answers
3760 [B] 3761 [A] 3765 [B] 3766 [B] 3767 [B]

Surface Operations
Taxiing to or from the runway generally presents no problems during calm or light wind conditions.
However, when taxiing in moderate to strong wind conditions, the airplane’s control surfaces must be
used to counteract the effects of wind. In airplanes equipped with a nose wheel (tricycle-gear), use the
following taxi procedures:
1. The elevator should be in the neutral position when taxiing into a headwind.
2. The upwind aileron should be held in the up position when taxiing in a crosswind, (or the upwind
wing will tend to be lifted).
3. The elevator should be held in the down position and the upwind aileron down when taxiing with a
quartering tailwind (the most critical condition for a nosewheel-type airplane). See Figure 5-12.
When an airplane equipped with a tailwheel is taxied into a headwind, the elevator should be held
in the up position to hold the tail down. In a quartering tailwind, both the upwind aileron and the elevator
should be in the down position.
AIR, REC
3303. Which aileron positions should a pilot generally
use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
A— Aileron up on the side from which the wind is
blowing.
B— Aileron down on the side from which the wind is
blowing.
C— Ailerons neutral.
When taxiing a nosewheel aircraft in the presence of

moderate to strong winds, extra caution should be taken.
For a quartering headwind, the elevator should be held in
the neutral position, and the aileron on the upwind side
should be in the up position. (PLT486) — FAA-H-8083-3
AIR, REC
3304. Which wind condition would be most critical when
taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?
A— Quartering tailwind.
Figure 5-12. Control position while taxiing B— Direct crosswind.
C— Quartering headwind.
AIR, REC, LSA
When taxiing a nosewheel aircraft in the presence
3302. When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds,
of moderate to strong winds, extra caution should be
which aileron positions should be used?
taken. Taxiing with a quartering tailwind produces the
A— Aileron down on the downwind side. most hazardous conditions. (PLT486) — FAA-H-8083-3
B— Ailerons neutral.
C— Aileron down on the side from which the wind is
blowing.
Taxiing with a quartering tailwind provides the most

hazardous conditions. In this case, the elevator should
be in the down position and the aileron on the upwind
side should also be in the down position to keep the
wing from lifting. (PLT486) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answers
3302 [C] 3303 [A] 3304 [A]

AIR, REC AIR, REC

3305. (Refer to Figure 9, area A.) How should the flight 3308. (Refer to Figure 9, area C.) How should the flight
controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped
airplane into a left quartering headwind? airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
A— Left aileron up, elevator neutral. A— Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
B— Left aileron down, elevator neutral. B— Left aileron down, elevator down.
C— Left aileron up, elevator down. C— Left aileron up, elevator down.
When taxiing a nosewheel aircraft in the presence of Taxiing with a quartering tailwind produces the most
moderate to strong winds, extra caution should be taken. hazardous conditions. In this case, the elevator should
For a quartering headwind, the elevator should be held in be in the down position, and the aileron on the upwind
the neutral position, and the aileron on the upwind side side should also be in the down position to keep the
should be in the up position. (PLT112) — FAA-H-8083-3 wing from lifting. (PLT112) — FAA-H-8083-3
AIR, REC AIR, GLI, REC

3306. (Refer to Figure 9, area B.) How should the flight 3308-1. To minimize the side loads placed on the land-
controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a ing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the
right quartering headwind? A— direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the
A— Right aileron up, elevator up. runway.
B— Right aileron down, elevator neutral. B— longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the
C— Right aileron up, elevator down. direction of its motion.
C— downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate
When taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a quartering the tendency for the aircraft to drift.
headwind, the aileron on the upwind side should be up,
and the elevator held in the up position to hold the tail It is extremely important that the touchdown occur
down. (PLT112) — FAA-H-8083-3 with the airplane’s longitudinal axis exactly parallel to
the direction in which the airplane is moving along the
runway. Failure to accomplish this imposes severe side
AIR, REC loads on the landing gear. To avoid these side stresses,
3307. (Refer to Figure 9, area C.) How should the flight the pilot should not allow the airplane to touch down
controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with while turned into the wind or drifting. (PLT170) — FAA-
a left quartering tailwind? H-8083-3
A— Left aileron up, elevator neutral. Answer (A) is incorrect because moving alongside the runway is not
B— Left aileron down, elevator neutral. sufficient to reduce or eliminate side loads on the landing gear; the
aircraft must be heading straight down the runway. Answer (C) is
C— Left aileron down, elevator down. incorrect because this describes what happens on final approach,
but the aircraft must be heading straight before it touches down.
When taxiing a tailwheel aircraft with a quartering tail-
wind, the upwind aileron should be down to keep that
wing from lifting, and the elevator should also be down.
(PLT112) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answers
3305 [A] 3306 [A] 3307 [C] 3308 [B] 3308-1 [B]

LSR LSR
2328. Select the true statement concerning gyroplane 2332. During the transition from pre-rotation to flight,
taxi procedures. all rotor blades change pitch
A— Taxi speed should be limited to no faster than a A— simultaneously to the same angle of incidence.
brisk walk in ideal conditions. B— simultaneously but to different angles of
B— The cyclic stick should be held in the neutral incidence.
position at all times. C— in sequence to the same angle of incidence.
C— The cyclic stick should be held slightly aft of
neutral at all times. Compensation for dissymmetry of lift requires constant
change in the blade angle of incidence, with one increas-
A gyroplane should not be taxied in close proximity ing as another simultaneously decreases. During the
to people or obstructions while the rotor is turning. In transition from prerotation to flight (or any time there is
addition, taxi speed should be limited to no faster than a dissymmetry of lift) all rotor blades change pitch simul-
brisk walk in ideal conditions, and adjusted appropriately taneously, but to different angles of incidence. (PLT260)
according to the circumstances. (PLT149) — FAA-H- — FAA-H-8083-21
8083-21
RTC
LSR 3339. What precaution should be taken while taxiing
2331. Select the true statement concerning gyroplane a gyroplane?
taxi procedures. A— The cyclic stick should be held in the neutral
A— Avoid abrupt control movements when blades are position at all times.
turning. B— Avoid abrupt control movements when blades are
B— The cyclic stick should be held in the neutral turning.
position at all times. C— The cyclic stick should be held slightly aft of
C— The cyclic stick should be held slightly aft of neutral at all times.
neutral at all times.
Avoid abrupt control motions while taxiing. (PLT170) —
A gyroplane should not be taxied in close proximity FAA-H-8083-21
to people or obstructions while the rotor is turning. In
addition, taxi speed should be limited to no faster than a
brisk walk in ideal conditions, and adjusted appropriately
according to the circumstances. Avoid abrupt control
motions while taxiing. (PLT149) — FAA-H-8083-21
Answers
2328 [A] 2331 [A] 2332 [B] 3339 [B]

Airport/Facility Directory
The Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) is a publication designed primarily as a pilot’s operational manual
containing all airports, seaplane bases, and heliports open to the public including communications
data, navigational facilities, and certain special notices and procedures. Directories are reissued in their
entirety each 56 days.
Because of the wealth of information provided, an extensive legend is required for the Airport/Facility
section. See FAA Legends 2 through 9.
ALL, SPO ALL

3619. (Refer to Figure 72, area 4 and Legend 1.) For 3842. (Refer to Figure 53.) Traffic patterns in effect at
information about the parachute jumping operations at Lincoln Municipal are
Lincoln Regional/Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to A— to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 36.
A— notes on the border of the chart. B— to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35; to the
B— the Airport/Facility Directory. left on Runway 36.
C— the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication. C— to the right on Runways 14 – 32.
Tabulations of parachute jump areas in the U.S. are Traffic is to the left unless otherwise stated in the Airport/
contained in the Airport/Facility Directory. (PLT064) — Facility Directory as “Rgt tfc.” (PLT078) — A/FD Legend
AIM ¶3-5-4
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

ALL 3838. (Refer to Figure 53.) When approaching Lincoln
3619-1. Information concerning parachute jumping sites Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of land-
may be found in the ing, initial communications should be with
A— NOTAMs. A— Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
B— Airport/Facility Directory. B— Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz.
C— Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data. C— Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.
Tabulations of parachute jump areas in the U.S. are Arriving aircraft landing at airports within Class C air-
contained in the Airport/Facility Directory. (PLT281) — space should contact Approach Control from outside the
AIM ¶3-5-4 Class C airspace on the specified frequency.
1. Figure 53 shows UTC-6(-5DT). This means that local
time is 6 hours behind UTC time, and 5 hours behind
ALL
during daylight saving time. In order to convert local
3841. (Refer to Figure 53.) Where is Loup City Municipal
time to UTC time, add this difference to local time:
located with relation to the city?
1200 local
A— Northeast approximately 3 miles.
+ 0600 UTC conversion
B— Northwest approximately 1 mile.
C— East approximately 7 miles. 1800 Z
Lincoln Muni approach should be contacted since
Airport location is expressed as distance and direction its hours of operation are 1130 – 0630Z.
from the center of the associated city in NM and cardinal
2. Identify the appropriate frequency for the aircraft’s
points. The first item in parentheses is the airport identi-
arrival from the west, 270°. Two frequencies are avail-
fier and the second item is the relation from the city. In
able. Aircraft approaching from any direction between
this case, “1 NW.” (PLT078) — A/FD Legend
170° and 349° should make contact on 124.0 MHz.
(PLT078) — AIM ¶3-2-4
Answers
3619 [B] 3619-1 [B] 3841 [B] 3842 [B] 3838 [A]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC SPO

3839. (Refer to Figure 53.) Which type radar service is 2118. The most comprehensive information on a given
provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal? airport is provided by
A— Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and A— the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD).
standard separation. B— Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).
B— Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and C— world aeronautical (WAC) charts.
conflict resolution so that radar targets do not
touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation. The Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) provides the most
C— Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic comprehensive information on a given airport. (PLT281)
advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts. — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because NOTAMs provide time-critical infor-
Radar service in Class C airspace consists of sequenc- mation on airports and changes that affect the national airspace
ing to the primary airport, standard IFR/IFR separation, system. Answer (C) is incorrect because WACs provide a standard
series of aeronautical charts covering land areas of the world at a
IFR/VFR separation (so that targets do not touch or size and scale convenient for navigation by moderate speed aircraft.
have less than 500-foot separation), and providing traffic
advisories and safety alerts. (PLT078) — AIM ¶3-2-4
SPO
2119. For a complete listing of information provided in
AIR, RTC, REC, WSC, PPC an Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) and how the informa-
3840. (Refer to Figure 53.) What is the recommended tion may be decoded, refer to the
communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Munici-
pal during the hours when the tower is not in operation? A— ‘Directory Legend Sample’ located in the front of
each A/FD.
A— Monitor airport traffic and announce your position B— Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
and intentions on 118.5 MHz. C— legend on sectional, VFR terminal area, and
B— Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic world aeronautical charts.
advisories.
C— Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then For a complete listing of information provided in an A/FD
announce your position on 122.95 MHz. and how the information may be decoded, refer to the
“Directory Legend Sample” located in the front of each
At an airport where the tower is operated on a part- A/FD. (PLT078) — FAA-H-8083-25
time basis, a pilot should self-announce on the CTAF.
(PLT078) — AIM ¶4-1-9
SPO
2107. The Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) will generally
have the latest information pertaining to airport eleva-
tion, runway facilities, and control tower frequencies. If
there are differences, it should be used in preference
to the information
A— on the sectional chart.
B— in the Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical
Knowledge.
C— in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
A/FDs are revised every 8 weeks; sectional charts are

revised semiannually. If there are differences, the A/FD
should be relied upon since they are more current.
(PLT078) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because these publications do not
have airport specific information.
Answers
3839 [C] 3840 [A] 2107 [A] 2118 [A] 2119 [A]

Fitness for Flight

Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by a number of physiological factors. While some of the
factors may be beyond the control of the pilot, awareness of cause and effect can help minimize any
adverse effects.
Hypoxia, a state of oxygen deficiency, impairs functions of the brain and other organs. Headache,
drowsiness, dizziness, and euphoria are all symptoms of hypoxia.
For optimum protection, pilots should avoid flying above 10,000 feet MSL for prolonged periods
without using supplemental oxygen. Federal Aviation Regulations require that when operating an aircraft
at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental
oxygen shall be used by the minimum flight crew during that time in excess of 30 minutes at those
altitudes. Every occupant of the aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen above 15,000 feet.
Aviation-breathing oxygen should be used to replenish an aircraft oxygen system for high-altitude
flight. Oxygen used for medical purposes or welding normally should not be used because it may con-
tain too much water. The excess water could condense and freeze in oxygen lines when flying at high
altitudes. This could block oxygen flow. Also, constant use of oxygen containing too much water may
cause corrosion in the system. Specifications for “aviators’ breathing oxygen” are 99.5% pure oxygen
and not more than .005 mg. of water per liter of oxygen.
Hyperventilation, a deficiency of carbon dioxide within the body, can be the result of rapid or extra
deep breathing due to emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. Symptoms will subside after the rate and depth
of breathing are brought under control. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future
occurrences of hyperventilation by talking aloud, breathing into a bag, or slowing the breathing rate.
Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes. Symp-
toms of carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, drowsiness, or dizziness. Large accumulations
of carbon monoxide in the human body result in a loss of muscular power. Susceptibility increases as
altitude increases.
A pilot who detects symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning should immediately shut off the heater
and open air vents.
Various complex motions, forces, and visual scenes encountered in flight may result in misleading
information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs. Spatial disorientation may result if these
body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. The best way to overcome spatial disorientation is by
relying on the flight instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. Weight-shift control
and powered parachutes can use the compass heading as an instrument indication.
ALL No person may operate civil aircraft at cabin pressure

3163. When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure alti- altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including
tudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight
feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during crew uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight
A— the entire flight time at those altitudes. at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration.
B— that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those (PLT438) — 14 CFR §91.211
altitudes.
C— that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those
altitudes.
Answers
3163 [C]

ALL ALL
3164. Unless each occupant is provided with supple- 3845. When a stressful situation is encountered in flight,
mental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in
U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of and out can cause a condition known as
A— 12,500 feet MSL. A— hyperventilation.
B— 14,000 feet MSL. B— aerosinusitis.
C— 15,000 feet MSL. C— aerotitis.
No person may operate a civil aircraft at cabin pressure An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed
altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL unless each occupant in and out of the lungs flushes an excessive amount
is provided with supplemental oxygen. (PLT438) — 14 of carbon dioxide from the lungs and blood, causing
CFR §91.211 hyperventilation. (PLT332) — AIM ¶8-1-3
ALL, SPO ALL, SPO

3832. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the 3846. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
human body result in A— Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
A— tightness across the forehead. B— The excessive consumption of alcohol.
B— loss of muscular power. C— An extremely slow rate of breathing and
C— an increased sense of well-being. insufficient oxygen.
A large accumulation of carbon monoxide in the body Hyperventilation is most likely to occur during periods
results in loss of muscular power, vomiting, convulsions, of stress or anxiety. (PLT332) — AIM ¶8-1-3
and coma. (PLT097) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because hypoxia gives you an
increased sense of well-being; stress could result in tightness across ALL
the forehead. 3847. A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventila-
tion should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide
level in the body by
ALL
3844. Which statement best defines hypoxia? A— slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper
bag, or talking aloud.
A— A state of oxygen deficiency in the body. B— breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining
B— An abnormal increase in the volume of air mental control of the situation.
breathed. C— increasing the breathing rate in order to increase
C— A condition of gas bubble formation around the lung ventilation.
joints or muscles.
The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a
Hypoxia is an oxygen deficiency in the body usu- few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are
ally caused by flight at higher altitudes. For optimum consciously brought back under control. The buildup of
protection from hypoxia, pilots are encouraged to use carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled
supplemental oxygen above 10,000 feet during the day, breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose
and above 5,000 feet at night. (PLT330) — AIM ¶8-1-2 and mouth. Talking aloud often helps, while normally-
Answer (B) is incorrect because it describes hyperventilation. paced breathing at all times prevents hyperventilation.
Answer (C) is incorrect because it describes the bends.
(PLT332) — AIM ¶8-1-3
Answers
3164 [C] 3832 [B] 3844 [A] 3845 [A] 3846 [A] 3847 [A]

ALL ALL
3848. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning 3852. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if
increases as A— they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner
A— altitude increases. ear.
B— altitude decreases. B— visual cues are taken away, as they are in
C— air pressure increases. instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
C— eyes are moved often in the process of cross-
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases checking the flight instruments.
with altitude. As altitude increases, air pressure
decreases and the body has difficulty getting oxygen. Sight, supported by other senses, allows the pilot to
Add carbon monoxide, which further deprives the body of maintain orientation. However, during periods of low
oxygen, and the situation can become critical. (PLT097) visibility, the supporting senses sometimes conflict with
— FAA-H-8083-25 what is seen. When this happens, a pilot is particularly
vulnerable to disorientation and must rely more on flight
instruments. (PLT334) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL
3850. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight
in poor visual conditions may be reduced by ALL
A— shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior 3853. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during
visual field and the instrument panel. flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to
B— having faith in the instruments rather than taking overcome the effect is to
a chance on the sensory organs. A— rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
C— leaning the body in the opposite direction of the B— concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations.
motion of the aircraft. C— consciously slow the breathing rate until
symptoms clear and then resume normal
Even if the natural horizon or surface reference is clearly breathing rate.
visible, rely on instrument indications to overcome the
effects of spatial disorientation. Shifting the eyes quickly Even if the natural horizon or surface reference is clearly
from outside to inside, and leaning, will only compound visible, rely on instrument indications to overcome the
the problem. (PLT334) — AIM ¶8-1-5 effects of spatial disorientation. Shifting the eyes quickly
from outside to inside, and leaning, will only compound
the problem. (PLT334) — AIM ¶8-1-6
ALL
3851. A lack of orientation with regard to the position,
attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined SPO
as 2202. Which will almost always affect your ability to fly?
A— spatial disorientation. A— Over-the-counter analgesics and antihistamines.
B— hyperventilation. B— Antibiotics and anesthetic drugs.
C— hypoxia. C— Prescription analgesics and antihistamines.
Spatial disorientation is the state of confusion due to Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by both
misleading information being sent to the brain from vari- prescribed and over-the-counter medications, as well
ous sensory organs, resulting in a lack of awareness as by the medical conditions for which they are taken.
of the aircraft position in relation to a specific reference Flying is almost always precluded while using prescrip-
point. (PLT334) — FAA-H-8083-2 tion analgesics since these drugs may cause side
effects such as mental confusion, dizziness, headaches,
nausea, and vision problems. Depressants, including
antihistamines, lower blood pressure, reduce mental
processing, and slow motor and reaction responses.
(PLT098) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because over-the-counter analgesics such as
aspirin, Tylenol and Advil, and antihistamines have few side effects
when taken in the correct dosage. Answer (B) is incorrect because
these drugs do not typically limit flying (but the medical conditions for
which they are being taken may indeed limit flying activities).
Answers
3848 [A] 3850 [B] 3851 [A] 3852 [B] 3853 [A] 2202 [C]

SPO SPO
2089. As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer 2092. As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can expe-
temperatures increases the susceptibility of dehydra- rience
tion since the A— decreased breathing rate and depth.
A— dry air at altitude tends to increase the rate of B— heightened awareness and feeling of well being.
water loss from the body. C— symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.
B— moist air at altitude helps retain the body’s
moisture. As hyperventilation “blows off” excessive carbon diox-
C— temperature decreases with altitude. ide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of
light-headedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the
As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer tempera- extremities, and coolness and react to them with even
tures or at high altitudes increases the susceptibility of greater hyperventilation. Incapacitation can eventually
dehydration since the dry air at altitude tends to increase result from uncoordination, disorientation, and painful
the rate of water loss from the body. If this fluid is not muscle spasms. Finally, unconsciousness can occur.
replaced, fatigue progresses to dizziness, weakness, (PLT332) — AIM ¶8-1-3
nausea, tingling of hands and feet, abdominal cramps,
and extreme thirst. (PLT098) — FAA-H-8083-25
SPO
2093. To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation,
SPO a pilot should
2091. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms A— swallow or yawn.
or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by B— slow the breathing rate.
A— closely monitoring the flight instruments to control C— increase the breathing rate.
the airplane.
B— slowing the breathing rate or breathing into a bag. The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a
C— increasing the breathing rate in order to increase few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are
lung ventilation. consciously brought back under control. The buildup of
carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled
The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose
few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are and mouth. (PLT332) — AIM ¶8-1-3
consciously brought back under control. The buildup of
carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled
breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose SPO
and mouth. Talking aloud often helps, while normally- 2097. A state of temporary confusion resulting from
paced breathing at all times prevents hyperventilation. misleading information being sent to the brain by vari-
(PLT332) — AIM ¶8-1-3 ous sensory organs is defined as
A— spatial disorientation.
B— hyperventilation.
SPO
C— hypoxia.
2090. If advice is needed concerning possible flight with
an illness, a pilot should contact Disorientation, or vertigo, is actually a state of temporary
A— an Aviation Medical Examiner. spatial confusion resulting from misleading information
B— their family doctor. sent to the brain by various sensory organs. (PLT334)
C— the nearest hospital. — AIM ¶8-1-5
The safest rule is not to fly while suffering from any

illness. If this rule is considered too stringent for a
particular illness, the pilot should contact an Aviation
Medical Examiner for advice. (PLT098) — AIM ¶8-1-1
Answers
2089 [A] 2091 [B] 2090 [A] 2092 [C] 2093 [B] 2097 [A]

Aeronautical Decision Making

The pilot is responsible for determining whether he/she is fit to fly for a particular flight. Most preventable
accidents have one common factor: human error, rather than a mechanical malfunction. Good aeronauti-
cal decision making (ADM) is necessary to prevent human error. ADM is a systematic approach to the
mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response
to a given set of circumstances.
The ADM process addresses all aspects of decision making in the cockpit and identifies the steps
involved in good decision making. Steps for good decision making are:
1. Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
2. Learning behavior modification techniques.
3. Learning how to recognize and cope with stress.
4. Developing risk assessment skills.
5. Using all resources in a multicrew situation.
6. Evaluating the effectiveness of one’s ADM skills.
There are a number of classic behavioral traps into which pilots have been known to fall. Pilots, par-
ticularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please
passengers, meet schedules, and generally demonstrate that they have the “right stuff.” These tenden-
cies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.
All experienced pilots have fallen prey to, or have been tempted by, one or more of these tendencies
in their flying careers. These dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns, which must be identified and
eliminated, include:
Peer Pressure. Poor decision making based upon emotional response to peers rather than evaluat-
ing a situation objectively.
Mind Set. The inability to recognize and cope with changes in the situation different from those
anticipated or planned.
Get-There-Itis. This tendency, common among pilots, clouds the vision and impairs judgment by
causing a fixation on the original goal or destination combined with a total disregard for any alternative
course of action.
Duck-Under Syndrome. The tendency to sneak a peek by descending below minimums during
an approach. Based on a belief that there is always a built-in “fudge” factor that can be used or on an
unwillingness to admit defeat and shoot a missed approach.
Scud Running. Pushing the capabilities of the pilot and the aircraft to the limits by trying to maintain
visual contact with the terrain while trying to avoid physical contact with it. This attitude is characterized
by the old pilot’s joke: “If it’s too bad to go IFR, we’ll go VFR.”
Continuing Visual Flight Rules (VFR)into instrument conditions often leads to spatial disorienta-
tion or collision with ground/obstacles. It is even more dangerous if the pilot is not instrument qualified
or current.
Getting Behind the Aircraft. Allowing events or the situation to control your actions rather than the
other way around. Characterized by a constant state of surprise at what happens next.
Loss of Positional or Situation Awareness. Another case of getting behind the aircraft which
results in not knowing where you are, an inability to recognize deteriorating circumstances, and/or the
misjudgment of the rate of deterioration.

Operating Without Adequate Fuel Reserves. Ignoring minimum fuel reserve requirements, either
VFR or Instrument Flight Rules (IFR), is generally the result of overconfidence, lack of flight planning,
or ignoring the regulations.
Descent Below the Minimum Enroute Altitude. The duck-under syndrome (mentioned above)
manifesting itself during the enroute portion of an IFR flight.
Flying Outside the Envelope. Unjustified reliance on the (usually mistaken) belief that the aircraft’s
high performance capability meets the demands imposed by the pilot’s (usually overestimated) flying
skills.
Neglect of Flight Planning, Preflight Inspections, Checklists, etc. Unjustified reliance on the
pilot’s short- and long-term memory, regular flying skills, repetitive and familiar routes, etc.
Each ADM student should take the Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test in order
to gain a realistic perspective on his/her attitudes toward flying. The inventory test requires the pilot to
provide a response which most accurately reflects the reasoning behind his/her decision. The pilot must
choose one of the five given reasons for making that decision, even though the pilot may not consider
any of the five choices acceptable. The inventory test presents extreme cases of incorrect pilot decision
making in an effort to introduce the five types of hazardous attitudes.
ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes:
1. Antiauthority (don’t tell me!). This attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them
what to do. In a sense they are saying “no one can tell me what to do.” They may be resentful of
having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or
unnecessary. However, it is always your prerogative to question authority if you feel it is in error.
The antidote for this attitude is: Follow the rules. They are usually right.
2. Impulsivity (do something quickly!). is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do
something — anything — immediately. They do not stop to think about what they are about to do,
they do not select the best alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to mind. The antidote
for this attitude is: Not so fast. Think first.
3. Invulnerability (it won’t happen to me). Many people feel that accidents happen to others, but
never to them. They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone can be affected. They
never really feel or believe that they will be personally involved. Pilots who think this way are more
likely to take chances and increase risk. The antidote for this attitude is: It could happen to me.
4. Macho (I can do it). Pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than anyone else
are thinking “I can do it — I’ll show them.” Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves
by taking risks in order to impress others. While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic,
women are equally susceptible. The antidote for this attitude is: taking chances is foolish.
5. Resignation (what’s the use?). Pilots who think “what’s the use?” do not see themselves as being
able to make a great deal of difference in what happens to them. When things go well, the pilot is apt
to think that’s good luck. When things go badly, the pilot may feel that “someone is out to get me,”
or attribute it to bad luck. The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or worse. Sometimes,
such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be a “nice guy.” The antidote for
this attitude is: I’m not helpless. I can make a difference.
Continued

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous
thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process. Pilots should become familiar with a
means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought. When a pilot recog-
nizes a thought as hazardous, the pilot should label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought
by stating the corresponding antidote.
If you hope to succeed at reducing stress associated with crisis management in the air or with your
job, it is essential to begin by making a personal assessment of stress in all areas of your life. Good
cockpit stress management begins with good life stress management. Many of the stress coping
techniques practiced for life stress management are not usually practical in flight. Rather, you must
condition yourself to relax and think rationally when stress appears. The following checklist outlines
some thoughts on cockpit stress management.
1. Avoid situations that distract you from flying the aircraft.
2. Reduce your workload to reduce stress levels. This will create a proper environment in which to
make good decisions.
3. If an emergency does occur, be calm. Think for a moment, weigh the alternatives, then act.
4. Maintain proficiency in your aircraft; proficiency builds confidence. Familiarize yourself thoroughly
with your aircraft, its systems, and emergency procedures.
5. Know and respect your own personal limits.
6. Do not let little mistakes bother you until they build into a big thing. Wait until after you land, then
“debrief” and analyze past actions.
7. If flying is adding to your stress, either stop flying or seek professional help to manage your stress
within acceptable limits.
The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical
way of approaching decision making. The six elements of the DECIDE Model represent a continuous
loop decision process which can be used to assist a pilot in the decision making process when he/she
is faced with a change in a situation that requires a judgment. This DECIDE Model is primarily focused
on the intellectual component, but can have an impact on the motivational component of judgment as
well. If a pilot practices the DECIDE Model in all decision making, its use can become very natural and
could result in better decisions being made under all types of situations.
1. Detect. The decisionmaker detects the fact that change has occurred.
2. Estimate. The decisionmaker estimates the need to counter or react to the change.
3. Choose. The decisionmaker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight.
4. Identify. The decisionmaker identifies actions which could successfully control the change.
5. Do. The decisionmaker takes the necessary action.
6. Evaluate. The decisionmaker evaluates the effect(s) of his/her action countering the change.

ALL, SPO ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes:

3931. What is it often called when a pilot pushes his Antiauthority (don’t tell me!), Impulsivity (do something
or her capabilities and the aircraft’s limits by trying to quickly!), Invulnerability (it won’t happen to me!), Macho
maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility (I can do it!), Resignation (what’s the use?). (PLT103)
and ceiling? — AC 60-22
A— Scud running.
B— Mind set.
ALL, SPO
C— Peer pressure.
3931-2. In the aeronautical decision making (ADM)
Scud running is pushing the capabilities of the pilot process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazard-
and the aircraft to the limits by trying to maintain visual ous attitude?
contact with the terrain while trying to avoid physical A— Making a rational judgement.
contact with it. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
C— Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.
ALL, SPO Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot

3932. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the haz- judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirect-
ardous attitude of “antiauthority”? ing that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action
A— Rules do not apply in this situation. can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is
B— I know what I am doing. the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process.
C— Follow the rules. (PLT103) — AC 60-22
The antiauthority (don’t tell me!) attitude is found in

people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. ALL, SPO
The antidote for this attitude is: follow the rules, they are 3931-3. Risk management, as part of the aeronautical
usually right. (PLT103) — FAA-H-8083-25 decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features
to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
A— Application of stress management and risk
ALL element procedures.
3933. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the haz- B— Situational awareness, problem recognition, and
ardous attitude of “impulsivity”? good judgment.
A— It could happen to me. C— The mental process of analyzing all information in
B— Do it quickly to get it over with. a particular situation and making a timely decision
C— Not so fast, think first. on what action to take.
Impulsivity (do something quickly!) is the attitude of Risk management is the part of the decision making
people who frequently feel the need to do something, process which relies on situational awareness, problem
anything, immediately. They do not stop to think about recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associ-
what they are about to do, they do not select the best ated with each flight. (PLT271) — AC 60-22
alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to
mind. The antidote for this attitude is: Not so fast. Think
first. (PLT103) — FAA-H-8083-25 ALL, SPO
3934. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the haz-
ardous attitude of “invulnerability”?
ALL A— It will not happen to me.
3931-1. Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to B— It can not be that bad.
some degree at some time. What are some of these C— It could happen to me.
hazardous attitudes?
A— Poor risk management and lack of stress Invulnerability (it won’t happen to me) is found in people
management. who think accidents happen to others, but never to
B— Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and them. Pilots who think this way are more likely to take
invulnerability. chances and increase risk. The antidote for this attitude
C— Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and is: It could happen to me. (PLT103) — FAA-H-8083-25
lack of a decision making process.
Answers
3931 [A] 3932 [C] 3933 [C] 3931-1 [B] 3931-2 [B] 3931-3 [B]
3934 [C]

ALL SPO
3935. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the haz- 2078. Who is responsible for determining whether a
ardous attitude of “macho”? pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though the
A— I can do it. pilot holds a current and valid U.S. driver’s license?
B— Taking chances is foolish. A— The FAA.
C— Nothing will happen. B— The pilot.
C— The medical examiner.
Macho (I can do it) is the attitude found in pilots who
are always trying to prove they are better than anyone The pilot is responsible for determining whether he/she is
else. Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove fit to fly for a particular flight. (PLT443) — FAA-H-8083‑25
themselves by taking risks in order to impress others.
The antidote for this attitude is: taking chances is foolish.
(PLT103) — FAA-H-8083-25 ALL, SPO
3938. What is the one common factor which affects
most preventable accidents?
ALL
A— Structural failure.
3936. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the haz- B— Mechanical malfunction.
ardous attitude of “resignation”? C— Human error.
A— What is the use.
B— Someone else is responsible. Most preventable accidents have one common factor:
C— I am not helpless. human error, rather than a mechanical malfunction.
(PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-25
Resignation (what’s the use?) is the attitude in pilots who
do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal
of difference in what happens to them. When things go ALL
well, the pilot is apt to think it’s due to good luck. When 3939. What often leads to spatial disorientation or col-
things go badly, the pilot may feel that “someone is out lision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual
to get me,” or attribute it to bad luck. The antidote for Flight Rules (VFR)?
this attitude is: I’m not helpless. I can make a difference. A— Continual flight into instrument conditions.
(PLT103) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— Getting behind the aircraft.
C— Duck-under syndrome.
ALL Continuing visual flight rules (VFR) into instrument con-
3937. Who is responsible for determining whether a ditions often leads to spatial disorientation or collision
pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or with ground/obstacles. It is even more dangerous if the
she holds a current medical certificate? pilot is not instrument qualified or current. (PLT334) —
A— The FAA. FAA-H-8083-25
B— The medical examiner.
C— The pilot.
ALL, SPO
The pilot is responsible for determining whether he/she is 3940. What is one of the neglected items when a pilot
fit to fly for a particular flight. (PLT443) — FAA-H-8083-25 relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?
A— Checklists.
B— Situation awareness.
C— Flying outside the envelope.
Unjustified reliance on the pilot’s short and long term

memory, regular flying skills, repetitive and familiar routes
usually results in neglect of flight planning, preflight
inspections, and checklists. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3935 [B] 3936 [C] 3937 [C] 2078 [B] 3938 [C] 3939 [A]
3940 [A]

ALL SPO
3940-1. A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 2074. What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt
foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and A— Risk management, stress management, and risk
after computing the density altitude it is determined the elements.
takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. B— Poor decision making, situational awareness, and
The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What judgment.
would be the best choice? C— Antiauthority (don’t tell me), impulsivity (do
A— Takeoff off into the headwind will give the extra something quickly without thinking), macho (I can
climb-out time needed. do it).
B— Try a takeoff without the passengers to make
sure the climb is adequate. ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes:
C— Wait until the temperature decreases, and Antiauthority (don’t tell me!), Impulsivity (do something
recalculate the takeoff performance. quickly!), Invulnerability (it won’t happen to me), Macho
(I can do it), Resignation (what’s the use?). (PLT103)
The conditions described provide only 120 feet for a — AC 60-22
margin of error between required takeoff distance and
available runway. This is too risky; the pilot should wait
until conditions improve and there is a larger margin of SPO
safety between available and needed runway distance. 2195. What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-2 as hazardous?
A— Label that thought as hazardous, then correct
that thought by stating the corresponding learned
SPO
antidote.
2073. A series of judgmental errors which can lead to B— Avoid developing this hazardous thought.
a human factors-related accident is sometimes referred C— Develop this hazardous thought and follow
to as the through with modified action.
A— error chain.
B— course of action. When a pilot recognizes a thought as hazardous, the
C— DECIDE model. pilot should label that thought as hazardous, then cor-
rect that thought by stating the corresponding antidote.
The poor judgment chain, sometimes referred to as the (PLT103) — AC 60-22
“error chain,” is a term used to describe this concept of
contributing factors in a human factors-related accident.
Breaking one link in the chain normally is all that is SPO
necessary to change the outcome of the sequence of 2176. Pilots should be familiar with positive alterna-
events. (PLT271) — FAA-H-8083-25 tives to
A— Counteract hazardous attitudes.
B— Ensure the right choices have been made.
SPO
C— Ensure they are applying the appropriate
2085. Which of the following is the first step of the Decide antidote.
Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical
Decision Making? The pilot must examine decisions carefully to ensure
A— Identify. choices have not been influenced by hazardous attitudes
B— Detect. and be familiar with positive alternatives to counteract the
C— Evaluate. hazardous attitudes (referred to as antidotes). (PLT103)
— FAA-H-8083-25
The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process,
is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of
approaching decision making: Detect, Estimate, Choose,
Identify, Do, and Evaluate. (PLT022) — AC 60-22
Answers
3940-1 [C] 2073 [A] 2085 [B] 2074 [C] 2195 [A] 2176 [A]

SPO SPO
2079. Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a 2197. A pilot who relies on short- and long-term memory
A— mental process of analyzing all information in a for repetitive tasks often neglects
particular situation and making a timely decision A— flying outside the envelope.
on what action to take. B— checklists.
B— systematic approach to the mental process C— situation awareness.
used by pilots to consistently determine the best
course of action for a given set of circumstances. Unjustified reliance on the pilot’s short- and long-term
C— decision making process which relies on good memory, regular flying skills, repetitive and familiar routes
judgment to reduce risks associated with each usually results in neglect of flight planning, preflight
flight. inspections, and checklists. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-25
ADM is a systematic approach to the mental process

used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best SPO
course of action in response to a given set of circum- 2063. Consistent adherence to approved checklists is
stances. (PLT022) — AC 60-22 a sign of a
A— disciplined and competent pilot.
B— pilot who lacks the required knowledge.
SPO
C— low-time pilot.
2083. Ignoring minimum fuel reserve requirements is
generally the result of overconfidence, disregarding To avoid missing important steps, always use the appro-
applicable regulations, or priate checklists whenever they are available. Consistent
A— lack of flight planning. adherence to approved checklists is a sign of a disci-
B— impulsivity. plined and competent pilot. (PLT122) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— physical stress.
Ignoring minimum fuel reserve requirements is generally SPO

the result of overconfidence, lack of flight planning, or 2069. The positive three-step process in the exchange
disregarding applicable regulations. (PLT104) — FAA- of flight controls between pilots includes these verbal
H-8083-25 steps: (1) You have the flight controls, (2) I have the
flight controls and (3)
A— You have the flight controls.
SPO
B— I have the aircraft.
2196. The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the C— I have the flight controls.
“right stuff” can have an adverse effect on safety, by
A— a total disregard for any alternative course of There must always be a clear understanding who has
action. control of the aircraft. Prior to flight, a briefing should be
B— generating tendencies that lead to practices that conducted that includes the procedure for the exchange
are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a of flight controls. A positive three-step process in the
mishap. exchange of flight controls between pilots is a proven
C— allowing events, or the situation, to control his or procedure: You have the flight controls, I have the flight
her actions. controls, You have the flight controls. (PLT340) — FAA-
H-8083-9
Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience,
as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned,
please passengers, meet schedules, and generally
demonstrate that they have the “right stuff.” These
tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are
dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.
(PLT103) — AC 60-22
Answers
2079 [B] 2083 [A] 2196 [B] 2197 [B] 2063 [A] 2069 [A]

SPO SPO
2068. To avoid missing important steps, always use the 2082. An extreme case of a pilot getting behind the
A— appropriate checklists. aircraft can lead to the operational pitfall of
B— placarded airspeeds. A— loss of situational awareness.
C— airworthiness certificate. B— loss of workload.
C— internal stress.
To avoid missing important steps, always use the appro-
priate checklists whenever they are available. Consistent Getting behind the aircraft can result in not knowing
adherence to approved checklists is a sign of a disci- where you are, an inability to recognize deteriorating
plined and competent pilot. (PLT122) — FAA-H-8083-25 circumstances, and/or the misjudgment of the rate of
deterioration. (PLT104) — FAA-H-8083-25
Collision Avoidance
Vision is the most important body sense for safe flight. Major factors that determine how effectively
vision can be used are the level of illumination and the technique of scanning the sky for other aircraft.
Atmospheric haze reduces the ability to see traffic or terrain during flight, making all features appear
to be farther away than they actually are.
In preparation for a night flight, the pilot should avoid bright white lights for at least 30 minutes before
the flight.
Scanning the sky for other aircraft is a key factor in collision avoidance. Pilots must develop an
effective scanning technique which maximizes visual capabilities. Because the eyes focus only on a
narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye
movements. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least one
second. At night, scan slowly to permit the use of off-center vision.
Prior to starting any maneuver, a pilot should visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a
collision course. If a target shows neither lateral nor vertical motion, but increases in size, take evasive
action.
When climbing or descending VFR on an airway, execute gentle banks, right and left, to provide for
visual scanning of the airspace.
ALL, SPO ALL, SPO

3710-1. Most midair collision accidents occur during 3710. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
A— hazy days. A— check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
B— clear days. B— visually scan the entire area for collision
C— cloudy nights. avoidance.
C— announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
The FAA Near Mid-Air Collision Report indicates that
81% of the incidents occurred in clear skies and unre- Scanning the sky for other aircraft is a key factor in col-
stricted visibility conditions. (PLT194) — AC 90-48 lision avoidance. (PLT194) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because checking your instruments is impor-
tant but secondary to collision avoidance. Answer (C) is incorrect
because announcing your intentions on the nearest CTAF does not
guarantee that anyone is listening.
Answers
2068 [A] 2082 [A] 3710-1 [B] 3710 [B]

ALL, SPO SPO

3833. What effect does haze have on the ability to see 2064. To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should
traffic or terrain features during flight? A— slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to
A— Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity. the other at intervals.
B— The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not B— concentrate on any peripheral movement
detect relative movement easily. detected.
C— All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther C— use a series of short, regularly spaced eye
away than their actual distance. movements that bring successive areas of the
sky into the central visual field.
Atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a
greater distance from objects on the ground and in the Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short,
air. (PLT333) — AIM ¶8-1-5 regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive
areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each move-
ment should not exceed 10°, and each area should be
SPO observed for at least one second to enable detection.
2240. Haze creates which of the following atmospheric (PLT194) — AIM ¶8-1-6
illusions?
A— Being at a greater distance from the runway.
SPO
B— Being at a closer distance from the runway.
C— Haze creates no atmospheric illusions. 2062. Guy wires, which support antenna towers, can
extend horizontally; therefore, the towers should be
Atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a avoided horizontally by at least
greater distance from objects on the ground and in the A— 2,000 feet horizontally.
air. (PLT280) — AIM ¶8-1-5 B— 300 feet horizontally.
C— 1,000 feet horizontally.
SPO Most skeletal structures are supported by guy wires
2066. Pilots who become apprehensive for their safety which are very difficult to see in good weather and can
for any reason should be invisible at dusk or during periods of reduced visibility.
A— request assistance immediately. These wires can extend about 1,500 feet horizontally
B— reduce their situational awareness. from a structure; therefore, all skeletal structures should
C— change their mindset. be avoided horizontally by at least 2,000 feet. (PLT116)
— AIM ¶7-5-3
Pilots who become apprehensive for their safety for any
reason should request assistance immediately. Ready
and willing help is available in the form of radio, radar, ALL
direction finding stations and other aircraft. Delay has 3834. The most effective method of scanning for other
caused accidents and cost lives. Safety is not a luxury! aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is
Take action! (PLT116) — AIM ¶6-1-2 to use
A— regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and
12-o’clock positions.
B— a series of short, regularly spaced eye
movements to search each 10-degree sector.
C— peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and
utilizing offcenter viewing.
Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short,

regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive
areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each move-
ment should not exceed 10°, and each area should be
observed for at least one second to enable detection.
(PLT194) — AIM ¶8-1-6
Answers
3833 [C] 2240 [A] 2066 [A] 2064 [C] 2062 [A] 3834 [B]

ALL AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC

3835. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for 3712. What is the most effective way to use the eyes
traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight? during night flight?
A— Systematically focus on different segments of the A— Look only at far away, dim lights.
sky for short intervals. B— Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
B— Concentrate on relative movement detected in C— Concentrate directly on each object for a few
the peripheral vision area. seconds.
C— Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right
to left. During daylight, an object can be seen best by looking
directly at it, but at night, a scanning procedure to permit
Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, “off-center” viewing of the object is more effective. In
regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive addition, the pilot should consciously practice moving
areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each move- the eyes more slowly than in daylight to optimize night
ment should not exceed 10°, and each area should be vision. Off-center viewing must be utilized during night
observed for at least one second to enable detection. flying because of the distribution of rods and cones in
(PLT194) — AIM ¶8-1-6 the eye. (PLT099) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL, SPO AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC

3836. How can you determine if another aircraft is on 3713. The best method to use when looking for other
a collision course with your aircraft? traffic at night is to
A— The other aircraft will always appear to get larger A— look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
and closer at a rapid rate. B— scan the visual field very rapidly.
B— The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same C— look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.
point in space.
C— There will be no apparent relative motion During daylight, an object can be seen best by looking
between your aircraft and the other aircraft. directly at it, but at night, a scanning procedure to permit
“off-center” viewing of the object is more effective. In
Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and addition, the pilot should consciously practice moving
stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision the eyes more slowly than in daylight to optimize night
course. (PLT194) — AIM ¶8-1-8 vision. Off-center viewing must be utilized during night
flying because of the distribution of rods and cones in
the eye. (PLT099) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL
3849. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt
the eyes for night flying? AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC
A— Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for 3714. The most effective method of scanning for other
flight. aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours
B— Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the is to use
flight. A— regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and
C— Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes 12-o’clock positions.
before the flight. B— a series of short, regularly spaced eye
Exposure to total darkness for at least 30 minutes is C— peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and
required for complete dark adaptation. Any degree of utilizing offcenter viewing.
dark adaptation is lost within a few seconds of view-
ing a bright light. Red lights do not affect night vision. During daylight, an object can be seen best by looking
(PLT333) — AIM ¶8-1-6 directly at it, but at night, a scanning procedure to permit
“off-center” viewing of the object is more effective. In
addition, the pilot should consciously practice moving
the eyes more slowly than in daylight to optimize night
vision. Off-center viewing must be utilized during night
flying because of the distribution of rods and cones in
the eye. (PLT099) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answers
3835 [A] 3836 [C] 3849 [C] 3712 [B] 3713 [A] 3714 [C]

SPO Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short,

2096. The most effective method of scanning for other regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive
aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each move-
to use ment should not exceed 10°, and each area should be
A— regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and observed for at least one second to enable detection.
12-o’clock positions. (PLT099) — AIM ¶8-1-6
B— a series of short, regularly spaced eye
C— peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and
utilizing offcenter viewing.
Aircraft Lighting
When an aircraft is being operated during the period from sunset to sunrise (except in Alaska), it must
display lighted position lights and an anticollision light. The anticollision light may be either aviation red
or aviation white. See Figure 5-13.
For collision avoidance, a pilot must know where each colored light is located on an aircraft. For
example, if a pilot observes a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude,
the other aircraft is crossing to the left; a steady white and a flashing red light indicates that the other
aircraft is headed away from the observer; and steady red and green lights at the same altitude as the
observer indicates that the other aircraft is approaching head-on.
Right wing
green light
with integral
white light
pointed back
Left wing
red light
with integral
white light
pointed back
Note: Taxi lights not shown
Figure 5-13. Aircraft lighting
Answers
2096 [B]

ALL AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC

3162. Except in Alaska, during what time period should 3715. During a night flight, you observe a steady red
lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same
A— End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of altitude. What is the general direction of movement of
morning civil twilight. the other aircraft?
B— 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. A— The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
C— Sunset to sunrise. B— The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
C— The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
An aircraft must display lighted position lights from sunset
to sunrise. (PLT119) — 14 CFR §91.209 Airplanes have a red light on the left wing tip, a green
Answer (A) is incorrect because it applies to logging of night time. light on the right wing tip and a white light on the tail.
Answer (B) is incorrect because it applies to the night landing The flashing red light is the rotating beacon which can
requirement. be seen from all directions around the aircraft. If the
only steady light seen is red, then the airplane is cross-
ing from right to left in relation to the observing pilot.
ALL
(PLT119) — FAA-H-8083-3
3916. Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing
lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night,
and when operating within AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC
A— Class B airspace. 3716. During a night flight, you observe a steady white
B— 10 miles of any airport. light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same
C— within 15 miles of a towered airport. altitude. What is the general direction of movement of
the other aircraft?
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights A— The other aircraft is flying away from you.
when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, espe- B— The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
cially when operating within 10 miles of any airport or in C— The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
conditions of reduced visibility and in areas where flocks
of birds may be expected. (PLT119) — AIM ¶4-3-23 Airplanes have a red light on the left wing tip, a green
light on the right wing tip and a white light on the tail.
The flashing red light is the rotating beacon which can
ALL
be seen from all directions around the aircraft. When
3916-1. The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
the only steady light seen is white, then the airplane
specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing
is headed away from the observing pilot. (PLT119) —
lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night,
FAA-H-8083-3
and especially when operating
A— in Class B airspace.
B— in conditions of reduced visibility. AIR, RTC, LTA, WSC, PPC
C— within 5 miles of a controlled airport. 3717. During a night flight, you observe steady red and
green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, espe- A— The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
cially when operating within 10 miles of any airport or in B— The other aircraft is flying away from you.
conditions of reduced visibility and in areas where flocks C— The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
of birds may be expected. (PLT119) — AIM ¶4-3-23
When both a red and green light of another airplane
are observed, the airplane would be flying in a general
direction toward you. Airplanes have a red light on the
left wing tip, a green light on the right wing tip and a
white light on the tail. (PLT119) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answers
3162 [C] 3916 [B] 3916-1 [B] 3715 [A] 3716 [A] 3717 [C]

SPO
2020. Pilots must operate the anti-collision lights
A— at night or in inclement weather.
B— at night when the visibility is less than three miles
and flying in Class B airspace.
C— day and night, except when the pilot-in-command
determines that they constitute a hazard to
safety.
Aircraft equipped with an anti-collision light system are

required to operate that light system during all types of
operations (day and night). However, the pilot-in-com-
mand may determine that the anti-collision lights should
be turned off when their operation would constitute a
hazard to safety. (PLT119) — 14 CFR §91.209
Answers
2020 [C]

Chapter 6
Weather
The Heating of the Earth 6 – 3
Circulation and Wind 6 – 4
Temperature 6 – 5
Moisture 6 – 6
Air Masses and Fronts 6 – 8
Stability of the Atmosphere 6 – 9
Clouds 6 – 10
Turbulence 6 – 14
Thunderstorms 6 – 15
Wind Shear 6 – 18
Icing 6 – 19
Fog 6 – 21
Frost 6 – 22

Chapter 6 Weather

Chapter 6 Weather
The Heating of the Earth

The major source of all weather is the sun. Changes or variations of weather patterns are caused by the
unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is a result of unequal heating of the Earth’s
surface. The heating of the Earth (and therefore the heating of the air surrounding the Earth) is unequal
around the entire planet. Both north or south of the equator, one square foot of sunrays is not concen-
trated over one square foot of the surface, but over a larger area. This lower concentration of sunrays
produces less radiation of heat over a given surface area; therefore, less atmospheric heating takes
place in that area.
The unequal heating of the Earth’s atmosphere creates a large air-cell circulation pattern (wind)
because the warmer air has a tendency to rise (low pressure) and the colder air has a tendency to settle
or descend (high pressure) and replace the rising warmer air. This unequal heating, which causes pres-
sure variations, will also cause variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points.
Because the Earth rotates, this large, simple air-cell circulation pattern is greatly distorted by a
phenomenon known as the Coriolis force. When the wind (which is created by high pressure trying to
flow into low pressure) first begins to move at higher altitudes, the Coriolis force deflects it to the right
(in the Northern Hemisphere) causing it to flow parallel to the isobars (lines of equal pressure). These
deflections of the large-cell circulation pattern create general wind patterns as depicted in Figure 6-1.
ALL, SPO
3382. What causes variations in altimeter settings
between weather reporting points?
A— Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.
B— Variation of terrain elevation.
C— Coriolis force.
All altimeter settings are corrected to sea level. Unequal

heating of the Earth’s surface causes pressure differ-
ences. (PLT165) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 2
GLI
3448. The development of thermals depends upon
A— a counterclockwise circulation of air.
B— temperature inversions.
Figure 6-1. Prevailing wind systems C— solar heating.
ALL, SPO Thermals are updrafts in convective currents dependent

3381. Every physical process of weather is accompanied on solar heating. A temperature inversion would result
by, or is the result of, a in stable air with very little, if any, convective activity.
A— movement of air.
B— pressure differential.
C— heat exchange.
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by,

or is a result of, unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.
Answers
3381 [C] 3382 [A] 3448 [C]

Chapter 6 Weather
GLI One fundamental point is that dry areas get hotter than
3647. (Refer to Figure 21.) Over which area should moist areas. Dry fields or dry ground of any nature are
a glider pilot expect to find the best lift under normal better thermal sources than moist areas. This applies
conditions? to woods or forests, which are poor sources of thermals
A— 2. because of the large amount of moisture given off by
B— 7. foliage. (PLT064) — American Soaring Handbook,
C— 5. page 5-10
Circulation and Wind

The general circulation and wind rules in the Northern Hemisphere are as follows:
1. Air circulates in a clockwise direction around a high;
2. Air circulates in a counterclockwise direction around a low;
3. The closer the isobars are together, the stronger the wind speed; and
4. Due to surface friction (up to about 2,000 feet AGL), surface winds do not exactly parallel the isobars,
but move outward from the center of the high toward lower pressure. See Figure 6-2.
Knowing that air flows out of the high in a clockwise direction and into the low in a counterclockwise
direction is useful in preflight planning. Assume a flight from point A to point B as shown in Figure 6-3.
Going direct would involve fighting the wind flowing around the low. However, by traveling south of the
low-pressure area, the circulation pattern could help instead of hinder. Generally speaking, in the North-
ern Hemisphere, when traveling west to east, the most favorable winds can be found by flying north of
high-pressure areas and south of low-pressure areas. Conversely, when flying east to west, the most
favorable winds can be found south of high-pressure areas and north of low-pressure areas.
Figure 6-2. Gradient and surface wind Figure 6-3. Circulation and wind
Answers
3647 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL Caused by the heating of land on warm, sunny days,

3395. The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the sea breeze usually begins during early forenoon,
the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction reaches a maximum during the afternoon, and subsides
is primarily due to around dusk after the land has cooled. The leading edge
A— stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes. of the cool sea breeze forces warmer air inland to rise.
B— friction between the wind and the surface. Rising air from over land returns seaward at higher
C— stronger Coriolis force at the surface. altitude to complete the convective cell. (PLT516) — AC
00-6A, Chapter 16
Friction between the wind and the surface slows the Answer (A) is incorrect because there will be cooler air over the
wind. The Coriolis force has less affect on slower winds, water. Answer (B) is incorrect because land absorbs and radiates
heat faster.
therefore there will be less deflection with surface winds
than with winds at 5,000 feet AGL. (PLT516) — AC
00-6A, Chapter 4 GLI
Answer (A) is incorrect because pressure gradient is not the reason 3350. What is the proper airspeed to use when flying
for wind direction differences; it is the force which causes wind.
Answer (C) is incorrect because slower wind speed results in weaker between thermals on a cross-country flight against a
Coriolis force at the surface. headwind?
A— The best lift/drag speed increased by one-half the
estimated wind velocity.
ALL
B— The minimum sink speed increased by one-half
3450. Convective circulation patterns associated with
the estimated wind velocity.
sea breezes are caused by
C— The best lift/drag speed decreased by one-half
A— warm, dense air moving inland from over the water. the estimated wind velocity.
B— water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the
land. When gliding into a headwind, maximum distance will be
C— cool, dense air moving inland from over the water. achieved by adding approximately one-half the estimated
headwind velocity to the best L/D speed. (PLT303) —
Soaring Flight Manual, Chapter 2
Temperature
In aviation, temperature is measured in degrees Celsius (°C). The standard temperature at sea level
is 59°F (15°C). The average decrease in temperature with altitude (standard lapse rate) is 2°C (3.5°F)
per 1,000 feet. Since this is an average, the exact value seldom exists; in fact, temperature sometimes
increases with altitude (an inversion). The most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature
inversion is one that is produced by terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
ALL An increase in temperature with altitude is defined as an

3383. A temperature inversion would most likely result inversion. An inversion often develops near the ground
in which weather condition? on clear, cool nights when wind is light. The ground
A— Clouds with extensive vertical development above radiates heat and cools much faster than the overlying
an inversion aloft. air. Air in contact with the ground becomes cold while
B— Good visibility in the lower levels of the the temperature a few hundred feet above changes
atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion very little. Thus, the temperature increases with height.
aloft. A ground-based inversion usually means poor visibility.
C— An increase in temperature as altitude is (PLT301) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 2
increased. Answer (A) is incorrect because a temperature inversion will not
result in vertical development, since warm air will not rise if the air
above is warmer. Answer (B) is incorrect because a temperature
inversion will trap dust, smoke, and other particles, thus causing
reduced visibilities.
Answers
3395 [B] 3450 [C] 3350 [A] 3383 [C]

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL An inversion often develops near the ground on clear,

3384. The most frequent type of ground or surface-based cool nights when wind is light. The ground radiates heat
temperature inversion is that which is produced by and cools much faster than the overlying air. Air in contact
A— terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. with the ground becomes cold while the temperature a
B— warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of few hundred feet above changes very little. Thus, the
mountainous terrain. temperature increases with height. (PLT301) — AC
C— the movement of colder air under warm air, or the 00-6A, Chapter 2
movement of warm air over cold air. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is an example of convective
activity. Answer (C) is incorrect because this describes a cold front
and a warm front.
Moisture
Air has moisture (water vapor) in it. The water vapor content of air can be expressed in two different
ways. The two commonly used terms are relative humidity and dew point.
Relative humidity relates the actual water vapor present in the air to that which could be present in
the air. Temperature largely determines the maximum amount of water vapor air can hold. Warm air can
hold more water vapor than can cold air. See Figure 6-4.
Air with 100% relative humidity is said to be saturated, and less than 100% is unsaturated.
Dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated by the water already
present in the air. See Figure 6-5.
Moisture can be added to the air by either evaporation or sublimation. Moisture is removed from the
air by either condensation or sublimation.
When water vapor condenses on large objects such as leaves, windshields, or airplanes, it will form
dew; and when it condenses on microscopic particles such as salt, dust, or combustion by-products
(condensation nuclei), it will form clouds or fog.
Figure 6-4. Capacity of air to hold water

Figure 6-5. Relative humidity and dew point
Answers
3384 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
To summarize, relative humidity can be increased either by lowering the air temperature or by increas-
ing the amount of moisture in the air. If the temperature and dew point spread is small and decreasing,
condensation is about to occur. If the temperature is above freezing, the weather most likely to develop
will be fog or low clouds.
ALL, SPO ALL

3397. What is meant by the term “dewpoint”? 3400. What are the processes by which moisture is
A— The temperature at which condensation and added to unsaturated air?
evaporation are equal. A— Evaporation and sublimation.
B— The temperature at which dew will always form. B— Heating and condensation.
C— The temperature to which air must be cooled to C— Supersaturation and evaporation.
become saturated.
Evaporation is the changing of liquid water to invisible
Dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled water vapor. Sublimation is the changing of solid water
to become saturated by the water vapor already present directly to the vapor phase or water vapor to ice, by
in the air. (PLT512) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 5 passing the liquid state in each process. (PLT512) — AC
Answer (A) is incorrect because evaporation is not directly related 00-6A, Chapter 5
to the dew point. Answer (B) is incorrect because dew will form only Answer (B) is incorrect because heating and condensation alone do
when an object cools below the dew point of the surrounding air. not add moisture to unsaturated air. Answer (C) is incorrect because
“supersaturation” does not fit the context of the question.
ALL
3398. The amount of water vapor which air can hold SPO
depends on the 2369. Moisture is added to air by
A— dewpoint. A— sublimation and condensation.
B— air temperature. B— evaporation and condensation.
C— stability of the air. C— evaporation and sublimation.
Temperature largely determines the maximum amount of Evaporation is the changing of liquid water to invisible
water vapor air can hold. (PLT512) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 5 water vapor. Sublimation is the changing of ice directly
to water vapor. (PLT512) — AC 00-6A
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because condensation removes
ALL, SPO moisture from the air.
3399. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
A— water vapor condenses.
ALL
B— water vapor is present.
3444. If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and
C— relative humidity reaches 100 percent.
decreasing, and the temperature is 62°F, what type
As water vapor condenses or sublimates on condensa- weather is most likely to develop?
tion nuclei, liquid or ice particles begin to grow. Some A— Freezing precipitation.
condensation nuclei have an affinity for water and can B— Thunderstorms.
induce condensation or sublimation even when air is C— Fog or low clouds.
almost, but not completely, saturated. (PLT512) — AC
00-6A, Chapter 5 With a small temperature/dew point spread, the air is
Answer (B) is incorrect because the presence of water vapor does close to saturation. This will usually result in fog or low
not result in clouds, fog, or dew unless condensation occurs. Answer clouds. Anticipate fog when the temperature/dew point
(C) is incorrect because it is possible to have 100% humidity without spread is 5°F or less and decreasing. (PLT512) — AC
the occurrence of condensation, which is necessary for clouds, fog,
or dew to form. 00-6A, Chapter 12
Answer (A) is incorrect because precipitation will not freeze at a tem-
perature of 62°F. Answer (B) is incorrect because temperature/dew
point spread does not relate to the development of thunderstorms.
Answers
3397 [C] 3398 [B] 3399 [A] 3400 [A] 2369 [C] 3444 [C]

Chapter 6 Weather
Air Masses and Fronts

When a body of air comes to rest on, or moves slowly over, an extensive area having fairly uniform
properties of temperature and moisture, the air takes on these properties. The area over which the air
mass acquires its identifying distribution of temperature and moisture is its “source region.” As this air
mass moves from its source region, it tends to take on the properties of the new underlying surface. The
trend toward change is called air mass modification.
A ridge is an elongated area of high pressure. A trough is an elongated area of low pressure. All
fronts lie in troughs. A cold front is the leading edge of an advancing cold air mass. A warm front is
the leading edge of an advancing warm air mass. Warm fronts move about half as fast as cold fronts.
Frontal waves and cyclones (areas of low pressure) usually form on slow-moving cold fronts or sta-
tionary fronts. Figure 6-6 shows the symbols that would appear on a weather map.
The physical manifestations of a warm or cold front can be different with each front. They vary with
the speed of the air mass on the move and the degree of stability of the air mass being overtaken. A
stable air mass forced aloft will continue to exhibit stable characteristics, while an unstable air mass
forced to ascend will continue to be characterized by cumulus clouds, turbulence, showery precipitation,
and good visibility.
Frontal passage will be indicated by the following discontinuities:
1. A temperature change (the most easily recognizable discontinuity);
2. A continuous decrease in pressure followed by an increase as the front passes; and
3. A shift in the wind direction, speed, or both.
ALL
3422. One of the most easily recognized discontinuities
across a front is
A— a change in temperature.
B— an increase in cloud coverage.
C— an increase in relative humidity.
Temperature is one of the most easily recognized discon-

tinuities across a front. (PLT511) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 8
Answer (B) is incorrect because cloud coverage is not always pres-
ent across a front. Answer (C) is incorrect because relative humidity
is not an easily recognized discontinuity across a front.
ALL
3423. One weather phenomenon which will always occur
Figure 6-6. Weather map symbols when flying across a front is a change in the
A— wind direction.
ALL B— type of precipitation.
3421. The boundary between two different air masses C— stability of the air mass.
is referred to as a
A— frontolysis. Wind direction always changes across a front. (PLT511)
B— frontogenesis. — AC 00-6A, Chapter 8
C— front. Answer (B) is incorrect because precipitation does not always exist
with a front. Answer (C) is incorrect because the stability on both
sides of the front may be the same.
A front is the boundary between two different air masses.
Answers
3421 [C] 3422 [A] 3423 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
GLI A sea breeze begins during early afternoon and reaches

3451. During which period is a sea breeze front most a maximum in the afternoon, subsiding around dusk.
suitable for soaring flight? (PLT516) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16
A— Shortly after sunrise.
B— During the early forenoon.
C— During the afternoon.
Stability of the Atmosphere

Atmospheric stability is defined as the resistance of the atmosphere to vertical motion. A stable atmo-
sphere resists any upward or downward movement. An unstable atmosphere allows an upward or
downward disturbance to grow into a vertical (convective) current.
Determining the stability of the atmosphere requires measuring the difference between the actual
existing (ambient) temperature lapse rate of a given parcel of air and the dry adiabatic (3°C per 1,000
feet) lapse rate.
A stable layer of air would be associated with a temperature inversion. Warming from below, on the
other hand, would decrease the stability of an air mass.
The conditions shown in Figure 6-7 can be characteristic of stable or unstable air masses.
ALL
3403. What measurement can be used to determine
the stability of the atmosphere?
A— Atmospheric pressure.
B— Actual lapse rate.
C— Surface temperature.
The difference between the existing lapse rate of a given

mass of air and the adiabatic rates of cooling in upward
moving air determines if the air is stable or unstable.
Figure 6-7
ALL
ALL 3404. What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
3385. Which weather conditions should be expected
A— Warming from below.
beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when
B— Cooling from below.
the relative humidity is high?
C— Decrease in water vapor.
A— Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
B— Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain. When air near the surface is warm and moist, suspect
C— Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type instability. Surface heating, cooling aloft, converging or
clouds, and showery precipitation. upslope winds, or an invading mass of colder air may
lead to instability and cumuliform clouds. (PLT173) —
A ground-based inversion leads to poor visibility by trap- AC 00-6A, Chapter 6
ping fog, smoke, and other restrictions into low levels of Answer (B) is incorrect because cooling from the air below would
the atmosphere. The layer is stable and convection is increase the stability of the air. Answer (C) is incorrect because an
suppressed. (PLT301) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 2 increase in water vapor will result in a decrease in stability.
Answer (B) is incorrect because wind shears would occur above the
inversion. Answer (C) is incorrect because showery precipitation
and turbulent air are not associated with the presence of a low-level
temperature inversion.
Answers
3451 [C] 3385 [A] 3403 [B] 3404 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL, SPO Characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass include

3405. What is a characteristic of stable air? cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation, rough air
A— Stratiform clouds. (turbulence), and good visibility (except in blowing
B— Unlimited visibility. obstructions). (PLT511) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 6
C— Cumulus clouds.
Since stable air resists convection, clouds in stable air ALL

form in horizontal, sheet-like layers or “strata.” (PLT173) 3413. What are characteristics of unstable air?
— AC 00-6A, Chapter 6 A— Turbulence and good surface visibility.
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because unlimited visibility and B— Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
cumulus clouds are characteristics of unstable air. C— Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.
Characteristics of an unstable air mass include cumuli-

ALL form clouds, showery precipitation, rough air (turbulence),
3408. What feature is associated with a temperature and good visibility (except in blowing obstructions).
inversion? (PLT511) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 6
A— A stable layer of air.
B— An unstable layer of air.
C— Chinook winds on mountain slopes. ALL
3414. A stable air mass is most likely to have which
If the temperature increases with altitude through a layer characteristic?
(an inversion), the layer is stable and convection is sup- A— Showery precipitation.
pressed. (PLT492) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 6 B— Turbulent air.
C— Poor surface visibility.
ALL, SPO Characteristics of a stable air mass include stratiform
3412. What are characteristics of a moist, unstable clouds and fog, continuous precipitation, smooth air,
air mass? and fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke. (PLT511)
A— Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. — FAA-H-8083-25
B— Poor visibility and smooth air.
C— Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.
Clouds
Stability determines which of two types of clouds will be formed: cumuliform or stratiform.
Cumuliform clouds are the billowy-type clouds having considerable vertical development, which
enhances the growth rate of precipitation. They are formed in unstable conditions, and they produce
showery precipitation made up of large water droplets. See Figure 6-8.
Stratiform clouds are the flat, more evenly based clouds formed in stable conditions. They produce
steady, continuous light rain and drizzle made up of much smaller raindrops. See Figure 6-9.
Steady precipitation (in contrast to showery) preceding a front is an indication of stratiform clouds
with little or no turbulence.
Clouds are divided into four families according to their height range: low, middle, high, and clouds
with extensive vertical development. See Figure 6-10.
The first three families—low, middle, and high — are further classified according to the way they are
formed. Clouds formed by vertical currents (unstable) are cumulus (heap) and are billowy in appear-
ance. Clouds formed by the cooling of a stable layer are stratus (layered) and are flat and sheet-like in
appearance. A further classification is the prefix “nimbo-” or suffix “-nimbus,” which means raincloud.
Answers
3405 [A] 3408 [A] 3412 [A] 3413 [A] 3414 [C]

Chapter 6 Weather
Figure 6-9. Stratiform clouds
Figure 6-8. Cumulus clouds
Cirrocumulus
Cirrus
Altocumulus
Altostratus
6,500 feet to 23,000 feet Virga

16,500 feet to 45,000 feet
Stratocumulus
Cumulonimbus Stratus
Surface to 6,500 feet
Figure 6-10. Cloud families

Chapter 6 Weather
High clouds, called cirrus, are composed mainly of ice crystals; therefore, they are least likely to
contribute to structural icing (since it requires water droplets).
The base of a cloud (AGL) that is formed by vertical currents (cumuliform clouds) can be roughly
calculated by dividing the difference between the surface temperature and dew point by 4.4 and multi-
plying the rounded result by 1,000. The convergence of the temperature and the dew point lapse rate
is 4.4°F per 1,000 feet.
Problem: What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature is 70°F
and the dew point is 61°F?
Solution:
1. 70°F (Temperature)
– 61°F (Dew point)
9°F
2. 9 ÷ 4.4 = 2.05 or 2
3. 2 x 1,000 = 2,000 feet (base of cloud, AGL)
ALL ALL
3406. Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected 3424. Steady precipitation preceding a front is an
to indication of
A— produce stratus type clouds. A— stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
B— cause showers and thunderstorms. B— cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
C— develop convective turbulence. C— stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
When stable air is forced upward the air tends to retain Precipitation from stratiform clouds is usually steady
horizontal flow and any cloudiness is flat and stratified. and there is little or no turbulence. (PLT511) — AC
(PLT192) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 6 00-6A, Chapter 8
ALL, SPO
ALL
3407. If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what 3433. The conditions necessary for the formation of
type clouds can be expected? cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and
A— Stratus clouds with little vertical development. A— unstable air containing an excess of condensation
B— Stratus clouds with considerable associated nuclei.
turbulence. B— unstable, moist air.
C— Clouds with considerable vertical development C— either stable or unstable air.
and associated turbulence.
For a cumulonimbus cloud or thunderstorm to form, the
When unstable air is forced upward, the disturbance air must have:
grows. Any resulting cloudiness shows extensive vertical
development. (PLT192) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 6 1. Sufficient water vapor,
2. An unstable lapse rate, and
3. An initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm
process in motion.
Answers
3406 [A] 3407 [C] 3424 [C] 3433 [B]

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL When lifted, unsaturated air cools at approximately 5.4°F

3409. What is the approximate base of the cumulus per 1,000 feet. The dew point cools at approximately 1°F
clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL per 1,000 feet. Therefore, the convergence of the tem-
is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F? perature and dew point lapse rates is 4.4°F per 1,000
A— 4,000 feet MSL. feet. The base of a cloud (AGL) that is formed by vertical
B— 5,000 feet MSL. currents can be roughly calculated by dividing the dif-
C— 6,000 feet MSL. ference between the surface temperature and the dew
point by 4.4 and multiplying the rounded result by 1,000.
When lifted, unsaturated air cools at approximately 5.4°F 1. 82°F surface temperature
per 1,000 feet. The dew point cools at approximately 1°F – 38°F dew point
per 1,000 feet. Therefore, the convergence of the tem- 44°F
perature and dew point lapse rates is 4.4°F per 1,000
feet. The base of a cloud (AGL) that is formed by vertical 2. 44 ÷ 4.4 = 10
currents can be roughly calculated by dividing the dif- 3. 10 x 1,000 = 10,000 feet AGL
ference between the surface temperature and the dew
point by 4.4 and multiplying the rounded result by 1,000.
1. 70°F surface temperature
– 48°F dew point ALL, SPO
22°F 3415. The suffix “nimbus,” used in naming clouds, means
2. 22 ÷ 4.4 = 5 A— a cloud with extensive vertical development.

B— a rain cloud.
3. 5 x 1,000 = 5,000 feet AGL C— a middle cloud containing ice pellets.
4. 5,000 feet AGL
+ 1,000 feet field elevation The prefix “nimbo-” or suffix “-nimbus” means rain cloud.
6,000 feet MSL (PLT192) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 7
ALL
3416. Clouds are divided into four families according
ALL
to their
3410. At approximately what altitude above the surface
would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if A— outward shape.
the surface air temperature is 82°F and the dewpoint B— height range.
is 38°F? C— composition.
A— 9,000 feet AGL. For identification purposes, clouds are divided into four
B— 10,000 feet AGL. families: high clouds, middle clouds, low clouds, and
C— 11,000 feet AGL. clouds with extensive vertical development. (PLT192)
— AC 00-6A, Chapter 7
Answers
3409 [C] 3410 [B] 3415 [B] 3416 [B]

Chapter 6 Weather
Turbulence
Cumulus clouds are formed by convective currents (heating from below); therefore, a pilot can expect
turbulence below or inside cumulus clouds, especially towering cumulus clouds. The greatest turbulence
could be expected inside cumulonimbus clouds.
If severe turbulence is encountered either inside or outside of clouds, the airplane’s airspeed should
be reduced to maneuvering speed and the pilot should attempt to maintain a level flight attitude because
the amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased. Any attempt to maintain
a constant altitude will greatly increase the stresses that are applied to the aircraft.
ALL ALL, SPO

3419. What clouds have the greatest turbulence? 3420. What cloud types would indicate convective
A— Towering cumulus. turbulence?
B— Cumulonimbus. A— Cirrus clouds.
C— Nimbostratus. B— Nimbostratus clouds.
C— Towering cumulus clouds.
Cumulonimbus are the ultimate manifestation of insta-
bility. They are vertically-developed clouds of large Towering cumulus signifies a relatively deep layer of
dimensions with dense boiling tops, often crowned with unstable air. They show considerable vertical develop-
thick veils of dense cirrus (the anvil). Nearly the entire ment and have billowing cauliflower tops. Showers can
spectrum of flying hazards are contained in these clouds result from these clouds. Expect very strong turbulence,
including violent turbulence. (PLT192) — AC 00-6A, and perhaps some clear icing above the freezing level.
Chapter 7 (PLT192) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 7
ALL ALL
3417. An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears 3425. Possible mountain wave turbulence could be
stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
more, is referred to as A— across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
A— an inactive frontal cloud. B— down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.
B— a funnel cloud. C— parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.
C— a lenticular cloud.
Always anticipate possible mountain wave turbulence
Crests of standing waves may be marked by stationary, when strong winds of 40 knots or greater blow across a
lens-shaped clouds known as standing lenticular clouds. mountain or ridge and the air is stable. (PLT263) — AC
(PLT192) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 7 00-6A, Chapter 9
ALL SPO
3418. Crests of standing mountain waves may be 2159. One of the most dangerous features of mountain
marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as waves is the turbulent areas in and
A— mammatocumulus clouds. A— below rotor clouds.
B— standing lenticular clouds. B— above rotor clouds.
C— roll clouds. C— below lenticular clouds.
Crests of standing waves may be marked by stationary, Rotor clouds appear to remain stationary, parallel the
lens-shaped clouds known as standing lenticular clouds. range, and stand a few miles leeward of the mountains.
(PLT192) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 7 Turbulence is most frequent and most severe in and
below the standing rotors just beneath the wave crests
at or below mountaintop levels. (PLT501) — AC 00-6A,
Chapter 9
Answers
3419 [B] 3417 [C] 3418 [B] 3420 [C] 3425 [A] 2159 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL The primary concern is to avoid undue stress on the

3442. Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight airframe. This can best be done by attempting to maintain
condition should the pilot attempt to maintain? a constant attitude while keeping the airspeed below
A— Constant altitude and airspeed. design maneuvering speed (VA ). (PLT263) — AC 00-6A,
B— Constant angle of attack. Chapter 11
C— Level flight attitude. Answer (A) is incorrect because attempting to maintain a constant
altitude or airspeed may result in overstressing the aircraft. Answer
(B) is incorrect because a constant angle of attack would be impos-
sible to maintain with the wind shear and shifts encountered in
severe turbulence.
Thunderstorms
Thunderstorms present many hazards to flying. Three conditions necessary to the formation of a thun-
derstorm are:
1. Sufficient water vapor;
2. An unstable lapse rate; and
3. An initial upward boost (lifting).
The initial upward boost can be caused by heating from below, frontal lifting, or by mechanical lifting
(wind blowing air upslope on a mountain).
There are three stages of a thunderstorm: the
cumulus, mature, and dissipating stages. See
Figure 6-11.
The cumulus stage is characterized by
continuous updrafts, and these updrafts create
low-pressure areas. Thunderstorms reach their
greatest intensity during the mature stage, which
is characterized by updrafts and downdrafts inside
the cloud. Precipitation inside the cloud aids in the
development of these downdrafts, and the start of
rain from the base of the cloud signals the begin-
ning of the mature stage. The precipitation that
evaporates before it reaches the ground is called Figure 6-11. Stages of thunderstorms
virga. The dissipating stage of a thunderstorm
is characterized predominantly by downdrafts.
Lightning is always associated with a thunderstorm.
Hail is formed inside thunderstorms by the constant freezing, melting, and refreezing of water as it
is carried about by the up- and downdrafts.
A pilot should always expect the hazardous and invisible atmospheric phenomena called wind shear
turbulence when operating anywhere near a thunderstorm (within 20 NM).
Thunderstorms that generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are called squall-line
thunderstorms. These non-frontal, narrow bands of thunderstorms often develop ahead of a cold front.
Embedded thunderstorms are those that are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be
seen.
Answers
3442 [C]

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL ALL
3434. What feature is normally associated with the 3437. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which
cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A— Roll cloud. A— Cumulus.
B— Continuous updraft. B— Dissipating.
C— Frequent lightning. C— Mature.
The key feature of the cumulus stage is an updraft. Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloudbase is the thunderstorm cell and the storm dies rapidly. (PLT495)
signal that a downdraft has developed also and a cell — AC 00-6A, Chapter 11
has entered the mature stage. (PLT495) — AC 00-6A, Answer (A) is incorrect because updrafts occur during the cumulus
Chapter 11 stage. Answer (C) is incorrect because both updrafts and downdrafts
occur during the mature stage.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a roll cloud is associated with a
mountain wave. Answer (C) is incorrect because frequent lightning
may be present in any stage.
ALL, SPO
3438. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity
ALL during the
3435. Which weather phenomenon signals the begin- A— mature stage.
ning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? B— downdraft stage.
A— The appearance of an anvil top. C— cumulus stage.
B— Precipitation beginning to fall.
C— Maximum growth rate of the clouds. All thunderstorm hazards reach their greatest inten-
sity during the mature stage. (PLT495) — AC 00-6A,
The key feature of the cumulus stage is an updraft. Chapter 11
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloudbase is the
signal that a downdraft has developed also and the cell ALL, SPO
has entered the mature stage. (PLT495) — AC 00-6A, 3439. Thunderstorms which generally produce the most
Chapter 11 intense hazard to aircraft are
Answer (A) is incorrect because the appearance of an anvil top
is characteristic of the dissipating stage. Answer (C) is incorrect A— squall line thunderstorms.
because the maximum growth rate of the clouds is during the mature B— steady-state thunderstorms.
stage of a thunderstorm, but it does not signal the beginning of that C— warm front thunderstorms.
stage.
A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active
thunderstorms. The line may be too long to easily detour
ALL, SPO
and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains
3436. What conditions are necessary for the formation
severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the
of thunderstorms?
single, most intense weather hazard to aircraft. (PLT495)
A— High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. — AC 00-6A, Chapter 11
B— High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus
clouds.
C— Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.
For a cumulonimbus cloud or thunderstorm to form, the

air must have:
1. Sufficient water vapor,
2. An unstable lapse rate, and
3. An initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm
process in motion.
Answers
3434 [B] 3435 [B] 3436 [A] 3437 [B] 3438 [A] 3439 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL ALL
3440. A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms 3452-1. The destination airport has one runway, 08-26,
that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm
A— prefrontal system. wind is a left hand pattern to runway 08. There is no
B— squall line. other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles
C— dry line. west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting
to reach the ground. The pilot decides to
A squall line is a nonfrontal, narrow band of active A— fly the pattern to runway 08 since the storm is too
thunderstorms. The line may be too long to easily detour far away to affect the wind at the airport.
and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains B— fly the normal pattern to runway 08 since
severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the the storm is west and moving north and any
single, most intense weather hazard to aircraft. (PLT495) unexpected wind will be from the east or
— AC 00-6A, Chapter 11 southeast toward the storm.
C— fly an approach to runway 26 since any
unexpected wind due to the storm will be
ALL
westerly.
3441. If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of
an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous The thunderstorm is reaching its greatest intensity at
atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the the mature stage, with wind and wind shear turbulence
landing approach? reaching as far as 20 minutes laterally from a severe
A— Precipitation static. storm. If the pilot cannot divert to an airport further
B— Wind-shear turbulence. away from the storm, then runwy 26 should be used to
C— Steady rain. maintain distance from the thunderstorm. (PLT271) —
FAA-H-8083-2
Wind shear is an invisible hazard associated with all
thunderstorms. Shear turbulence has been encountered
20 miles laterally from a severe storm. (PLT495) — AC GLI, LSG
00-6A, Chapter 11 3449. Which is considered to be the most hazardous
Answer (A) is incorrect because precipitation static is not considered condition when soaring in the vicinity of thunderstorms?
a hazardous atmospheric phenomenon. Answer (C) is incorrect A— Static electricity.
because showery precipitation is a characteristic of thunderstorm
activity. B— Lightning.
C— Wind shear and turbulence.
ALL During the mature stage of a thunderstorm, updrafts

3452. Which weather phenomenon is always associated and downdrafts in close proximity create strong vertical
with a thunderstorm? shears and a very turbulent environment. A lightning
strike can puncture the skin of an aircraft and damage
A— Lightning.
communication and navigation equipment. (PLT120) —
B— Heavy rain.
AC 00-6A, Chapter 11
C— Hail.
A thunderstorm is, in general, a local storm invariably

produced by a cumulonimbus cloud, and is always
accompanied by lightning and thunder. (PLT495) — AC
00-6A, Chapter 11
Answers
3440 [B] 3441 [B] 3452 [A] 3452-1 [C] 3449 [C]

Chapter 6 Weather
Wind Shear
Wind shear is defined as a change in wind direction and/or speed over a very short distance in the
atmosphere. This can occur at any level of the atmosphere and can be detected by the pilot as a sud-
den change in airspeed.
Low-level (low-altitude) wind shear can be expected during strong temperature inversions, on all
sides of a thunderstorm and directly below the cell. A pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature
inversion whenever the wind speed at 2,000 feet to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least 25 knots.
Low-level wind shear can also be found near frontal activity because winds can be significantly dif-
ferent in the two air masses which meet to form the front.
In warm front conditions, the most critical period is before the front passes. Warm front shear may
exist below 5,000 feet for about 6 hours before surface passage of the front. The wind shear associated
with a warm front is usually more extreme than that found in cold fronts.
The shear associated with cold fronts is usually found behind the front. If the front is moving at 30
knots or more, the shear zone will be 5,000 feet above the surface 3 hours after frontal passage.
Basically, there are two potentially hazardous shear situations—the loss of a tailwind or the loss of
a headwind.
A tailwind may shear to either a calm or headwind component. The airspeed initially increases, the
aircraft pitches up, and altitude increases. Lower than normal power would be required initially, followed
by a further decrease as the shear is encountered, and then an increase as the glide slope is regained.
See Figure 6-12.
A headwind may shear to a calm or tailwind component. Initially, the airspeed decreases, the aircraft
pitches down, and altitude decreases. See Figure 6-13.
Some airports can report boundary winds as well as the wind at the tower. When a tower reports a
boundary wind which is significantly different from the airport wind, there is a possibility of hazardous
wind shear.
Figure 6-12. Tailwind shearing to headwind or calm

Figure 6-13. Headwind shearing to tailwind or calm

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL, SPO ALL, SPO

3426. Where does wind shear occur? 3428. A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a tem-
A— Only at higher altitudes. perature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to
B— Only at lower altitudes. 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
C— At all altitudes, in all directions. A— 10 knots.
B— 15 knots.
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift C— 25 knots.
or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
(PLT518) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 9 An increase in temperature with altitude is defined as a
temperature inversion. A pilot can be relatively certain of
a shear zone in the inversion if the pilot knows the wind
ALL, SPO at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or more. (PLT518) —
3427. When may hazardous wind shear be expected? AC 00-6A, Chapter 9
A— When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where
it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.
SPO
B— In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal
zones, and clear air turbulence. 2163. If a temperature inversion is encountered imme-
C— Following frontal passage when stratocumulus diately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing,
clouds form indicating mechanical mixing. a potential hazard exists due to
A— wind shear.
Hazardous wind shear can occur near the ground with B— strong surface winds.
either thunderstorms or a strong temperature inversion. C— strong convective currents.
Answer (A) is incorrect because turbulence can be expected when When taking off or landing in calm wind under clear skies
stable air crosses a mountain barrier. Answer (C) is incorrect within a few hours before or after sunrise, be prepared
because turbulence can be expected following frontal passage when for a temperature inversion near the ground. You can
stratocumulus clouds form, indicating mechanical mixing.
be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if
you know the wind at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or
more. Allow a margin of airspeed above normal climb or
approach speed to alleviate danger of stall in event of
turbulence or sudden change in wind velocity. (PLT518)
Icing
Structural icing occurs on an aircraft whenever supercooled condensed droplets of water make contact
with any part of the aircraft that is also at a temperature below freezing. An inflight condition necessary
for structural icing to form is visible moisture (clouds or raindrops).
Icing in precipitation (rain) is of concern to the VFR pilot because it can occur outside of clouds. Air-
craft structural ice will most likely have the highest accumulation in freezing rain which indicates warmer
temperature at a higher altitude. See Figure 6-14. The effects of structural icing on an aircraft may be
seen in Figure 6-15.
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there is freezing rain at a higher altitude,
while wet snow indicates that the temperature at your altitude is above freezing. A situation conducive
to any icing would be flying in the vicinity of a front.
Answers
3426 [C] 3427 [B] 3428 [C] 2163 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
Figure 6-14. Clear and rime ice
Figure 6-15. Effects of structural icing
ALL A condition favorable for rapid accumulation of clear icing

3402. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is is freezing rain below a frontal surface. (PLT274) — AC
evidence that there 00-6A, Chapter 10
A— are thunderstorms in the area. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because although cumulus clouds
B— has been cold frontal passage. with below-freezing temperatures and freezing drizzle are conducive
to structural icing, they will not have as high an accumulation rate as
C— is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a freezing rain.
higher altitude.
Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at higher altitude. ALL

(PLT301) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 5 3956. During a cross-country flight you picked up rime
icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge
of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2,000
feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport
3429. One in-flight condition necessary for structural under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10
icing to form is miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right
A— small temperature/dewpoint spread. down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3°C.
B— stratiform clouds. You decide to:
C— visible moisture. A— use a faster than normal approach and landing
speed.
Two conditions are necessary for structural icing in flight:
B— approach and land at your normal speed since
1. The aircraft must be flying through visible water such the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable
as rain or cloud droplets, and effect.
2. The temperature at the point where the moisture C— fly your approach slower than normal to lessen
strikes the aircraft must be 0°C (32°F) or colder. the “wind chill” effect and break up the ice.
(PLT274) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 10 Ice will accumulate unevenly on the airplane. It will add
weight and drag, and decrease thrust and lift. With ice
accumulations, landing approaches should be made with
a minimum wing flap setting and with an added margin of
3430. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most
airspeed. Sudden and large configuration and airspeed
likely to have the highest accumulation rate?
changes should be avoided. (PLT128) — FAA-H-8083-3
A— Cumulus clouds with below freezing Answer (B) is incorrect because ice having a thickness similar to
temperatures. sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
B— Freezing drizzle. reduce wing lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%.
C— Freezing rain. Answer (C) is incorrect because ice will increase drag, requiring
additional lift (airspeed); “wind chill” effect cannot be relied upon to
melt/remove the ice that has already accumulated; flying slower than
normal increases the possibility of a stall due to the decreased lift.
Answers
3402 [C] 3429 [C] 3430 [C] 3956 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
Fog
Fog is a surface-based cloud (restricting visibility) composed of either water droplets or ice crystals. Fog
may form by cooling the air to its dew point or by adding moisture to the air near the ground. A small
temperature/dew point spread is essential to the formation of fog. An abundance of condensation nuclei
from combustion products makes fog prevalent in industrial areas.
Fog is classified by the way it is formed.
Radiation fog (ground fog) is formed when terrestrial radiation cools the ground, which in turn cools
the air in contact with it. When the air is cooled to its dew point (or within a few degrees), fog will form.
This fog will form most readily in warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm (no wind) nights.
Advection fog (sea fog) is formed when warm, moist air moves (wind is required) over colder ground
or water (e.g., an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter).
Upslope fog is formed when moist, stable air is cooled to its dew point as it moves (wind is required)
up sloping terrain. Cooling will be at the dry adiabatic lapse rate of approximately 3°C per 1,000 feet.
Precipitation (rain or drizzle)-induced fog is most commonly associated with frontal activity and
is formed by relatively warm drizzle or rain falling through cooler air. Evaporation from the precipitation
saturates the cool air and fog forms. This fog is especially critical because it occurs in the proximity of
precipitation and other possible hazards such as icing, turbulence, and thunderstorms.
Steam fog forms in the winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over comparatively warm
ocean waters. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in a steam fog.
ALL ALL
3443. What situation is most conducive to the formation 3445. In which situation is advection fog most likely
of radiation fog? to form?
A— Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, A— A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of
calm nights. mountains.
B— Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. B— An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
C— The movement of cold air over much warmer C— A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.
water.
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder
Conditions favorable for radiation fog are clear sky, little ground or water. It is most common along coastal areas.
or no wind, and small temperature/dew point spread This fog frequently forms offshore as a result of cold
(high relative humidity). Radiation fog is restricted to water, then is carried inland by the wind. (PLT226) — AC
land because water surfaces cool little from nighttime 00-6A, Chapter 12
radiation. (PLT226) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 12 Answer (A) is incorrect because a warm, moist air mass on the wind-
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because radiation fog will not form ward side of mountains will form upslope fog and/or rain. Answer (C)
over water since water surfaces cool little from nighttime radiation. is incorrect because a light breeze blowing colder air out to sea will
form steam fog.
Answers
3443 [A] 3445 [B]

Chapter 6 Weather
ALL ALL
3446. What types of fog depend upon wind in order 3447. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can
to exist? become hazardous in which type of fog?
A— Radiation fog and ice fog. A— Rain-induced fog.
B— Steam fog and ground fog. B— Upslope fog.
C— Advection fog and upslope fog. C— Steam fog.
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder Steam fog forms in the winter when cold, dry air passes
ground or water. It is most common along coastal areas, from land areas over comparatively warm ocean waters.
but often develops deep in continental areas. Advection Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become
fog deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 hazardous in a steam fog. (PLT226) — AC 00-6A,
knots. Wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog Chapter 14
into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus. Upslope fog
forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adia-
batically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once upslope
wind ceases, the fog dissipates. (PLT226) — AC 00-6A,
Chapter 12
Answer (A) is incorrect because radiation fog and ice fog do not
depend upon wind in order to exist. Answer (B) is incorrect because
ground fog does not depend on wind in order to exist.
Frost
Frost is described as ice deposits formed by sublimation on a surface when the temperature of the
collecting surface is at or below the dew point of the adjacent air and the dew point is below freezing.
Frost causes early airflow separation on an airfoil resulting in a loss of lift. Therefore, all frost should
be removed from the lifting surfaces of an airplane before flight or it may prevent the airplane from
becoming airborne.
ALL AIR
3401. Which conditions result in the formation of frost? 3432. How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an
A— The temperature of the collecting surface is at or airplane on takeoff?
below freezing when small droplets of moisture A— Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming
fall on the surface. airborne at normal takeoff speed.
B— The temperature of the collecting surface is at or B— Frost will change the camber of the wing,
below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the increasing lift during takeoff.
dewpoint is below freezing. C— Frost may cause the airplane to become airborne
C— The temperature of the surrounding air is at or with a lower angle of attack at a lower indicated
below freezing when small drops of moisture fall airspeed.
on the collecting surface.
The roughness of the surface of frost spoils the smooth
Frost forms in much the same way as dew. The differ- flow of air, thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This
ence is that the dew point of surrounding air must be slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over
colder than freezing. (PLT493) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 5 the affected airfoil, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because ice will form in these amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from
situations. becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. (PLT128)
Answer (B) is incorrect because frost does not change the basic
aerodynamic shape of the airfoil. Answer (C) is incorrect because
frost may prevent the aircraft from becoming airborne at normal
takeoff speed and will not lower the angle of attack.
Answers
3446 [C] 3447 [C] 3401 [B] 3432 [A]

Chapter 6 Weather
AIR, GLI SPO

3206. How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect 2170. Which is true with respect to a high- or low-
takeoff performance? pressure system?
A— Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the A— A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising
wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability. air.
B— Frost will change the camber of the wing, B— A low-pressure area or trough is an area of
increasing its lifting capability. descending air.
C— Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne C— A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of
with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall descending air.
speed.
Highs and ridges are areas of descending air. (PLT517)
The roughness of the surface of frost spoils the smooth — AC 00-6A, Chapter 4
flow of air, thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This Answer (A) is incorrect because a high or ridge is an area of
slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over descending air. Answer (B) is incorrect because a low or trough is
the affected airfoil, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small an area of rising air.
amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from
becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. (PLT134)
LSG
— FAA-H-8083-25
2312. During which period is a sea breeze front most
Answer (B) is incorrect because frost will not change the shape of
the wing. Answer (C) is incorrect because frost on the wings of an
suitable for soaring flight?
airplane will increase the stall speed. A— Shortly after sunrise.
B— During the middle of the morning.
C— During the afternoon.
3431. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight? A sea breeze begins during early afternoon and reaches
A— Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of a maximum in the afternoon, subsiding around dusk.
the airfoils, thereby increasing lift. (PLT511) — AC 00-6A, Chapter 16
B— Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby
increasing control effectiveness.
C— Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings,
thereby decreasing lifting capability.
The roughness of the surface of frost spoils the smooth

flow of air, thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This
slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over
the affected airfoil, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small
amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from
becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. (PLT128)
Answer (A) is incorrect because frost does not change the basic
aerodynamic shape of the airfoil, nor does it increase lift. Answer
(B) is incorrect because frost does not have an effect on the control
effectiveness.
Answers
3206 [A] 3431 [C] 2170 [C] 2312 [C]

Chapter 6 Weather

Chapter 7
Weather Services
Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) 7 – 3
Pilot Weather Reports (PIREPs) (UA) 7 – 5
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) 7 – 7
Aviation Area Forecast (FA) 7 – 9
Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB) 7 – 11
Weather Depiction Chart 7 – 12
Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart 7 – 14
Inflight Weather Advisories (WA, WS, WST) 7 – 16
Obtaining a Telephone Weather Briefing 7 – 18

Chapter 7 Weather Services

Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)

An international weather reporting code is used for weather reports (METAR) and forecasts (TAFs)
worldwide. The reports follow the format shown in Figure 7-1.
For aviation purposes, the ceiling is the lowest broken or overcast layer, or vertical visibility into an
obscuration.
Key to Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) Key to Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)

and Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) and Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)
TAF KPIT 091730Z 0918/1024 15005KT 5SM HZ FEW020 WS010/31022KT Forecast Explanation Report
FM091930 30015G25KT 3SM SHRA OVC015 WS010/ In U.S. TAF, nonconvective low-level (≤ 2,000 feet) Wind Shear;
TEMPO 0920/0922 1/2SM +TSRA OVC008CB 31022KT 3-digit height (hundreds of feet); “ / ”; 3-digit wind direction and 2–3
FM100100 27008KT 5SM SHRA BKN020 OVC040 digit wind speed above the indicated height, and unit, KT
PROB30 1004/1007 1SM -RA BR In METAR, ReMarK indicator and remarks. For example: Sea-Level RMK SLP045
FM101015 18005KT 6SM -SHRA OVC020 Pressure in hectoPascals and tenths, as shown: 1004.5 hPa; Temp/ T01820159
BECMG 1013/1015 P6SM NSW SKC dewpoint in tenths °C, as shown: temp. 18.2°C, dewpoint 15.9°C
Note: Users are cautioned to confirm DATE and TIME of the TAF. FM091930 FroM: Changes are expected at: 2-digit date, 2-digit hour, and 2-digit
For example FM100000 is 0000Z on the 10th. Do not confuse with 1000Z! minute beginning time: indicates significant change. Each FM starts
on a new line, indented 5 spaces
METAR KPIT 091955Z COR 22015G25KT 3/4SM R28L/2600FT TSRA OVC010CB
18/16 A2992 RMK SLP045 T01820159 TEMPO TEMPOrary: Changes expected for <1 hour and in total, < half of
0920/0922 the period between the 2-digit date and 2-digit hour beginning, and
Forecast Explanation Report 2-digit date and 2-digit hour ending time
TAF Message type: TAF: routine or TAF AMD: amended forecast; METAR: METAR PROB30 PROBability and 2-digit percent (30 or 40): Probable condition in the
hourly; SPECI: special or TESTM: noncommissioned ASOS report 1004/1007 period between the 2-digit date and 2-digit hour beginning time,
and the 2-digit date and 2-digit hour ending time
KPIT ICAO location indicator KPIT
BECMG BECoMinG: Change expected in the period between the 2-digit date
091730Z Issuance time: ALL times in UTC “ Z ”, 2-digit date, 4-digit time 091955Z
1013/1015 and 2-digit hour beginning time, and the 2-digit date and 2-digit
0918/1024 Valid period: Either 24 hours or 30 hours. The first two digits of hour ending time
EACH four-digit number indicate the date of the valid period, the final
two digits indicate the time (valid from 18Z on the 9th to 24Z on the
10th). Table of Significant Present, Forecast and Recent Weather – Grouped in categories
In U.S. METAR: CORrected ob; or AUTOmated ob for automated COR and used in the order listed below; or as needed in TAF, No Significant Weather
report with no human intervention; omitted when observer logs on. QUALIFIERS
15005KT Wind: 3-digit true-north direction, nearest 10 degrees (or VaRiaBle); 22015G25KT Intensity or Proximity
next 2–3 digits for speed and unit, KT (KMH or MPS); as needed, “–” = Light No sign = Moderate “+” = Heavy
Gust and maximum speed; 00000KT for calm; for METAR, if “VC” = Vicinity, but not at aerodrome. In the U.S. METAR, 5 to 10 SM from the point of observation.
direction varies 60 degrees or more, Variability appended, e.g., In the U.S. TAF, 5 to 10 SM from the center of the runway complex. Elsewhere, within 8000m.
180V260 Descriptor
5SM Prevailing visibility: In U.S., Statute Miles and fractions; above 6 3/4SM BC Patches BL Blowing DR Drifting FZ Freezing
miles in TAF Plus6SM. (Or, 4-digit minimum visibility in meters and MI Shallow PR Partial SH Showers TS Thunderstorm
as required, lowest value with direction.) WEATHER PHENOMENA
Runway Visual Range: R; 2-digit runway designator Left, Center, or R28L/2600FT Precipitation
Right as needed; “ / ”; Minus or Plus in U.S., 4-digit value, FeeT in DZ Drizzle GR Hail GS Small hail or snow pellets
U.S. (usually meters elsewhere); 4-digit value Variability, 4-digit value IC Ice crystals PL Ice pellets RA Rain SG Snow grains
(and tendency Down, Up or No change) SN Snow UP Unknown precipitation in automated observations
HZ Significant present, forecast and recent weather: See table (to the TSRA Obscuration
right) BR Mist (≥ 5/8SM) DU Widespread dust FG Fog (<5/8SM) FU Smoke
HZ Haze PY Spray SA Sand VA Volcanic ash
FEW020 Cloud amount, height and type: SKy Clear 0/8, FEW >0/8-2/8, OVC010CB
Other
SCaTtered 3/8-4/8, BroKeN 5/8-7/8, OVerCast 8/8; 3-digit height in
DS Dust storm FC Funnel cloud +FC Tornado or waterspout
hundreds of feet; Towering CUmulus or CumulonimBus in METAR; in PO Well-developed dust or sand whirls SQ Squall SS Sandstorm
TAF, only CB. Vertical Visibility for obscured sky and height “VV004”.
More than 1 layer may be reported or forecast. In automated METAR • Explanations in parentheses “( )” indicate different worldwide practices.
reports only, CLeaR for “clear below 12,000 feet.” • Ceiling is not specified; defined as the lowest broken or overcast layer, or the vertical visibility.
• NWS TAFs exclude BECMG groups and temperature forecasts, NWS TAFs do not use PROB in the first 9 hours
Temperature: Degrees Celsius; first 2 digits, temperature “ / ” last 2 18/16 of a TAF; NWS METARs exclude trend forecasts. U.S. Military TAFs include Turbulence and Icing groups.
digits, dewpoint temperature; Minus for below zero, e.g., M06
Altimeter setting: Indicator and 4 digits; in U.S., A: inches and A2992
hundredths; (Q: hectoPascals, e.g., Q1013)
Continued
Figure 7-1. TAF/METAR weather card

ALL, SPO The wind is reported as a five-digit group (six digits

3462. (Refer to Figure 12.) Which of the reporting sta- if speed is over 99 knots). The first three digits is the
tions have VFR weather? direction the wind is blowing from rounded to the near-
A— All. est tens of degrees relative to true north, or “VRB” if the
B— KINK, KBOI, and KJFK. direction is variable. The next two digits is the speed in
C— KINK, KBOI, and KLAX. knots, or if over 99 knots, the next three digits. If the wind
is gusty, it is reported as a “G” after the speed followed
IFR conditions are a ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or by the highest gust reported. The abbreviation “KT” is
visibility less than 3 miles. appended to denote the use of knots for wind speed.
The wind group for KJFK is 18004KT which means the
KINK: Visibility is 15 statute miles and the sky is clear:
wind is from 180° at 4 knots. (PLT059) — AC 00-45
VFR.
KBOI: Visibility is 30 statute miles and sky is scattered at
15,000 feet: VFR. ALL
KLAX: Visibility is 6 statute miles with mist and the sky 3465. (Refer to Figure 12.) What are the wind conditions
is scattered at 700 feet (SCT does not constitute a at Wink, Texas (KINK)?
ceiling): VFR. A— Calm.
KMDW: Visibility is 1-1/2 statute miles with rain and the B— 110° at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots.
ceiling is overcast at 700 feet: IFR. C— 111° at 2 knots, gusts 18 knots.
KJFK: Visibility is 1/2 statute mile with fog and the ceiling The wind is reported as a five-digit group (six digits
is overcast at 500 feet: IFR. if speed is over 99 knots). The first three digits is the
(PLT059) — AC 00-45 direction the wind is blowing from rounded to the near-
est tens of degrees relative to true north, or “VRB” if the
direction is variable. The next two digits is the speed in
ALL, SPO knots, or if over 99 knots, the next three digits. If the wind
3463. For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the is gusty, it is reported as a “G” after the speed followed
height above the Earth’s surface of the by the highest gust reported. The abbreviation “KT” is
A— lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer appended to denote the use of knots for wind speed.
of clouds reported as overcast. The wind group for KINK is 11012G18KT which means
B— lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility the wind is from 110° at 12 knots, with gusts to 18 knots.
into an obscuration. (PLT059) — AC 00-45
C— lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered,
broken, or thin.
ALL
3466. (Refer to Figure 12.) The remarks section for
For aviation purposes, the ceiling is the lowest broken
or overcast layer, or vertical visibility into an obscuration. KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means
(PLT026) — AC 00-45 A— blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2
SM.
B— rain began at 1835Z.
ALL, SPO C— the barometer has risen .35" Hg.
3464. (Refer to Figure 12.) The wind direction and
velocity at KJFK is from The entry RAB35 means that rain began 35 minutes
A— 180° true at 4 knots. past the hour. (PLT059) — AC 00-45
B— 180° magnetic at 4 knots. Answer (A) is incorrect because mist is reported as BR. Answer (C)
is incorrect because there is no format for reporting a change in
C— 040° true at 18 knots. altimeter in a METAR.
Answers
3462 [C] 3463 [B] 3464 [A] 3465 [B] 3466 [B]

ALL The current conditions at KMDW are 1-1/2 SM visibility

3467. (Refer to Figure 12.) What are the current condi- (1-1/2 SM) with rain (RA), ceiling overcast at 700 feet
tions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)? (OVC007). (PLT059) — AC 00-45
A— Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain
B— Sky 7000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, heavy
rain
C— Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2
SM, with rain.
Pilot Weather Reports (PIREPs) (UA)

Aircraft in flight are the only means of directly observing cloud tops, icing, and turbulence; therefore, no
observation is more timely than one made from the cockpit. While the FAA encourages pilots to report
inflight weather, a report of any unforecast weather is required by regulation. A PIREP (identified by the
letters “UA”) is usually transmitted in a prescribed format. See Figure 7-2.
PIREP FORM Encoding Pilot Weather Reports (PIREP)

Pilot Weather Report = Space Symbol 1. UA - Routine PIREP, UUA - Urgent PIREP
2. /OV - Location: Use 3-letter or 4-letter NAVAID idents only.
3-Letter SA Identifier
1. UA Routine
UUA Urgent
a. Fix: /OV ABC, /OV ABC 090025.
b. Fix to fix: /OV ABC-DEF, /OV ABC-DEF 120020,
/OV ABC 045020-DEF 120005, /OV ABC-DEF-GHI.
Report Report
3. /TM - Time: 4 digits in UTC: /TM 0915
Location:
4. /FL - Altitude/Flight Level: 3 digits for hundreds of
2. /OV feet. If not known, use UNKN: /FL095,

/FL310, /FLUNKN.
Time: 5. /TP - Type aircraft: 4 digits maximum. If not known use UNKN:
3. /TM /TP L329./TP B727 /TP UNKN

6. /SK - Sky cover: Describe as follows:
Altitude/Flight Level: a. Height of cloud base in hundreds of feet. If
/FL
unknown, use UNKN.
4. b. Cloud cover symbol.
c. Height of cloud tops in hundreds of feet.
Aircraft Type: d. Use solidus (/) to separate layers.
5. /TP
e. Use a space to separate each sub element.
f. Examples: /SK 038 BKN. /SK 038 OVC 045,
/SK 055 SCT 073/085 BKN 105, /SK UNKN OVC
Items 1 through 5 are mandatory for all PIREPs
Sky Cover: 7. /WX - Flight Visibility and Weather: Flight visibility reported first.
Use standard weather symbols. /WX FV02 R H, /WX FV01 TRW.
6. /SK 8. /TA - Air temperature in Celsius: If below zero, prefix with an “M.”
/TA 15, /TA -M06.
Flight Visibility and Weather:
/WX
9. /WV - Wind: Direction and speed.
7. /WV 27045, /WV 280110.
Temperature (Celsius): 10. /TB - Turbulence: Use standard contractions for intensity and
/TA
type (use CAT or CHOP when appropriate). Include altitude only
if different from /FL.
8. /TB EXTRM, /TB LGT-MDT BLO-090.
Wind:
11. /IC - Icing: Describe using standard intensity and type contractions.
9. /WV Include altitude only if different than /FL: /IC LGT-MDT RIME, /IC SVR CLR
028-045.
Turbulence:
12. /RM - Remarks: Use free form to clarify the report. Most hazardous element first:
10. /TB /RM LLWS - 15KT SFC-003 DURGC RNWY 22 JFK.

Examples of Completed PIREPS
Icing:
/IC
UUA /OV ABQ090045/TM 1430/FL130/TP BE30/TB SEV/RM BROKE ALL THE BOTTLES
11. IN THE BAR
Remarks: UA /OV KMRB-KPIT/TM 1600/FL100/TP BE55/SK BKN024-TOP032/BKN-OVC043-
/RM
TOPUNKN/TA M12/IC LGT-MOD RIME 055-080
12.
FAA FORM 7110-2 (1-85) Supersedes Previous Edition
(Side A)
Figure 7-2
Answers
3467 [A]

UA/OV KOKC-KTUL/TM 1800/FL120/TP BE90//SK BKN018-TOP055/OVC072-TOP089/CLR ABV/TA

M7/WV 08021/TB LGT 055-072/IC LGT-MOD RIME 072-089.
Decodes as follows:
Pilot report, Oklahoma City to Tulsa at 1800Z at 12,000 feet.
Type of aircraft is a Beech King Air 90.
The first cloud layer has a base of 1,800 feet broken, with tops at 5,500 feet.
The second cloud layer base is 7,200 feet overcast with tops at 8,900 feet.
It is clear above.
Outside air temperature is -7° Celsius.
The wind is 080° at 21 knots.
There is light turbulence between 5,500 feet and 7,200 feet.
There is light to moderate rime icing reported between 7,200 feet and 8,900 feet.
ALL ALL
3472. (Refer to Figure 14.) The base and tops of the 3474. (Refer to Figure 14.) If the terrain elevation is
overcast layer reported by a pilot are 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level
A— 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL. of the base of the ceiling?
B— 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL. A— 505 feet AGL.
C— 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL. B— 1,295 feet AGL.
C— 6,586 feet AGL.
Cloud layers in a PIREP are found after the “SK” heading.
Height of the cloud base is given in hundreds of feet, Cloud layers in a PIREP are found after the “SK” heading.
then the cloud cover symbol (SCT, BKN, etc.) is given, Height of the cloud base is given in hundreds of feet,
followed by the height of cloud tops in hundreds of feet. then the cloud cover symbol (SCT, BKN, etc.) is given,
A diagonal slash is used to separate cloud layers. followed by the height of the cloud tops in hundreds of
The base of the broken (BKN) layer was reported to feet. All cloud heights in a PIREP are MSL.
be 1,800 feet and tops at 5,500 feet (BKN018-TOP055). The first cloud layer was reported by a pilot to have
The question is asking for the overcast (OVC) layer bases at 1,800 feet and tops at 5,500 feet with broken
that has a reported base at 7,200 feet and tops at 8,900 (BKN) cloud cover (a broken cloud layer does constitute
feet. All cloud heights in a PIREP are MSL (OVC072- a ceiling).
TOP089). (PLT061) — AC 00-45 If the field elevation is 1,295 feet MSL and the base
of the first cloud layer (BKN) is 1,800 feet MSL, then
the base of the ceiling is 505 feet AGL.
ALL
1,800 MSL
3473. (Refer to Figure 14.) The wind and temperature
– 1,295 MSL
at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
505 AGL
A— 090° at 21 MPH and -9°F.
B— 090° at 21 knots and -9°C. (PLT061) — AC 00-45
C— 080° at 21 knots and -7°C.
Winds are given after the “WV” heading. Wind direction

is listed first, followed by wind speed in knots. WV 08021/
means wind from 080° at 21 knots. Air temperature is
given in 2 digits, (in degrees Celsius), after the “TA”
heading. If below zero, it will be prefixed with an “M.”
Therefore, /TA M7/ means that the outside air tempera-
ture is -7°C. (PLT061) — AC 00-45
Answers
3472 [C] 3473 [C] 3474 [A]

ALL ALL
3475. (Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity of the turbu- 3476. (Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity and type of
lence reported at a specific altitude is icing reported by a pilot is
A— moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet. A— light to moderate.
B— moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet. B— light to moderate rime.
C— light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet. C— light to moderate clear.
Turbulence in a PIREP is found after the “TB” heading. The intensity and type of icing is listed in a PIREP after
/TB LGT 055-072/ means light turbulence between 5,500 the “IC” heading. /IC LGT-MOD RIME 072-089 means
feet MSL and 7,200 feet MSL. (PLT061) — AC 00-45 light (LGT) to moderate (MOD) rime icing from 7,200
feet MSL to 8,900 feet MSL. (PLT061) — AC 00-45
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)

A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions
at an airport during a specified period (usually 24 hours). TAFs use the same code used in the METAR
weather reports (See Figure 7-1).
TAFs are issued in the following format:
TYPE / LOCATION / ISSUANCE TIME / VALID TIME / FORECAST
Note: The “/ ” above are for separation purposes and do not appear in the actual TAFs.
ALL, SPO ALL

3479. (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the valid period for 3480. (Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF for KMEM, what
the TAF for KMEM? does “SHRA” stand for?
A— 1800Z to 1800Z. A— Rain showers.
B— 1200Z to 1800Z. B— A shift in wind direction is expected.
C— 1200Z to 1200Z. C— A significant change in precipitation is possible.
The valid period is the four-digit group of the forecast in “SH” stands for showers, and “RA” stands for rain.
UTC, usually a 24-hour period. FAA Figure 15 uses a (PLT072) — AC 00-45
six-digit group, and includes the date. The valid period Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because a permanent change in
for KMEM is a 24-hour period from 1800Z to 1800Z on existing conditions during the valid period of the TAF is indicated by
the 12th of the month (121818). (PLT072) — AC 00-45 the change groups FMHH (FroM) and BECMG (BECoMinG) HHhh.
Answers
3475 [C] 3476 [B] 3479 [A] 3480 [A]

ALL ALL
3481. (Refer to Figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z 3484. (Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the
the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be clear sky becomes
A— 1/2 statute mile. A— overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period
B— 3 statute miles. between 2200Z and 2400Z.
C— 6 statute miles. B— overcast at 200 feet with a 40% probability of
becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast
Between 1000Z and 1200Z, the visibility at KMEM is period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
forecast to be 3 statute miles (BECMG 1012…3SM). C— overcast at 200 feet with the probability of
(PLT072) — AC 00-45 becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast
period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
ALL Between 2200Z and 2400Z (BECMG 2224), the sky
3482. (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the forecast wind will be overcast at 2,000 feet (OVC020). (PLT072) —
for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast? AC 00-45
A— No significant wind.
B— Variable in direction at 4 knots.
ALL
C— Variable in direction at 6 knots.
3485. (Refer to Figure 15.) During the time period from
From 1600Z until the end of the forecast, wind will be 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
variable in direction at 6 knots (VRB06KT). (PLT072) A— Greater than 6 statute miles.
— AC 00-45 B— Not forecasted.
C— Possibly 6 statute miles.
ALL During the period from 0600Z to 0800Z (0608), the vis-
3483. (Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the ibilities are forecast to be greater than 6 statute miles
“FM (FROM) Group” is forecast for the hours from 1600Z (P6SM). (PLT072) — AC 00-45
to 2200Z with the wind from
A— 160° at 10 knots.
ALL
B— 180° at 10 knots, becoming 200° at 13 knots.
C— 180° at 10 knots. 3486. (Refer to Figure 15.) The only cloud type forecast
in TAF reports is
The FROM group is forecast for the hours from 1600 A— nimbostratus.
(FM1600) to 2200Z (BECMG 2224) with the wind from B— cumulonimbus.
180° at 10 knots (18010KT). (PLT072) — AC 00-45 C— scattered cumulus.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 18010 indicates the wind will be
from 180. Answer (B) is incorrect because “BECMG” indicates Cumulonimbus clouds are the only cloud types forecast
another change group; the wind will change from 200 at 13 knots in TAFs. (PLT072) — AC 00-45
between 2200 and 2400Z.
Answers
3481 [B] 3482 [C] 3483 [C] 3484 [A] 3485 [A] 3486 [B]

Aviation Area Forecast (FA)

The aviation Area Forecast is a forecast of general weather conditions over an area the size of several
states. It is used to determine forecast en route weather and to interpolate conditions at airports which
do not have TAFs issued.
The Area Forecast is issued 3 times a day, and is comprised of four sections: a communications and
product header section, a precautionary statement section, and two weather sections; a SYNOPSIS
section and a VFR CLOUDS/WX section.
ALL, SPO ALL

3478. From which primary source should information 3488. (Refer to Figure 16.) What is the outlook for the
be obtained regarding expected weather at the esti- southern half of Indiana after 0700Z?
mated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal A— VFR.
Forecast? B— Marginal VFR.
A— Low-Level Prognostic Chart. C— IFR.
B— Weather Depiction Chart.
C— Area Forecast. The Area Forecast for the southern half of Indiana (bot-
tom of Figure 16) is forecasting scattered clouds at 3,000
An Area Forecast (FA) is used to determine forecast feet AGL, another scattered cloud deck at 10,000 feet,
enroute weather and to interpolate conditions at airports with an outlook for VFR conditions. (PLT081) — AC 00-45
which do not have Terminal Forecasts (FT) issued.
(PLT291) — AC 00-45
ALL
3489. To determine the freezing level and areas of prob-
ALL, SPO able icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the
3487. To best determine general forecast weather A— Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories.
conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot B— Weather Depiction Chart.
should refer to C— Area Forecast.
A— Aviation Area Forecasts.
B— Weather Depiction Charts. Freezing levels and probable icing aloft are found in
C— Satellite Maps. AIRMETs and SIGMETs. Hazardous weather is not
included in the area forecast (FA), but is included in
An Area Forecast (FA) is a forecast of general condi- the Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories. (PLT274) —
tions over an area the size of several states. (PLT514) AC 00-45
— AC 00-45
Answers
3478 [C] 3487 [A] 3488 [A] 3489 [A]

ALL ALL
3490. The section of the Area Forecast entitled “VFR 3492. (Refer to Figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast
CLDS/ WX” contains a general description of section is valid until the twenty-fifth at
A— cloudiness and weather significant to flight A— 1945Z.
operations broken down by states or other B— 0800Z.
geographical areas. C— 1400Z.
B— forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and
obstructions to vision along specific routes. The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the 25th
C— clouds and weather which cover an area greater day of the month at 0800Z. (PLT081) — AC 00-45
than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR Answer (A) is incorrect because 1945Z is the time the forecast was
flight operations. written. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1400Z is the time through
which the synopsis and outlook are valid.
The “VFR CLDS/WX” section may be broken down by
states or well-known geographical areas. The specific
ALL
forecast section gives a general description of clouds
3493. (Refer to Figure 16.) What sky condition and type
and weather that cover an area greater than 3,000
obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in
square miles and are significant to VFR flight operations.
the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?
(PLT291) — AC 00-45
A— Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with
visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
ALL B— Ceiling becoming 100 feet overcast with visibility
3491. (Refer to Figure 16.) What sky condition and 3 to 5 statue miles in mist.
visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern C— Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with
portions after 2300Z? visibility 3 to 5 nautical miles in mist.
A— Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles
visibility. In the western portions of upper Michigan, ceilings are
B— Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical forecast to be overcast at 1,000 feet with visibility between
miles visibility. 3–5 statute miles in mist. (PLT081) — AC 00‑45
C— Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute
miles visibility.
In the eastern portion of upper Michigan after 2300Z,

the ceiling is forecast to be overcast at 1,000 feet MSL,
with visibilities between 3–5 statute miles in light rain
and mist. (PLT081) — AC 00-45
Answers
3490 [C] 3491 [C] 3492 [B] 3493 [A]

Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB)

The winds and temperatures aloft forecast is displayed in a 6-digit format (DDffTT). It shows wind direc-
tion (DD), wind velocity (ff), and the temperature (TT) that is forecast to exist at specified levels. For
example, “234502” decodes as: winds from 230 degrees true north, at 45 knots, temperatures 02°C.
When the wind speed (ff) is between 100 and 199 knots, the wind direction (DD) portion of the code
will be greater than 50. In cases such as this, you will need to subtract 50 from the coded wind direction,
and add 100 to the coded wind speed in order to decipher the code. For example, “734502” decodes as:
winds from 230 degrees true north at 145 knots, temperature 02 degrees C.
Temperatures with a negative symbol in front of them (DDff-37) are negative. For flight levels above
24,000, temperatures are always negative and will not have a negative symbol. Light and variable winds
or wind speeds below 5 knots are indicated by 9900, followed by the forecast temperature. For example,
the coded winds aloft forecast for flight level FL270 (flight level 27,000) is “990017” and decodes as:
winds are light and variable, temperature negative 17.
The observed winds aloft chart shows temperature, wind direction, and speed at selected stations.
Arrows with pennants and barbs indicate wind direction and speed. Each pennant is 50 knots, each barb
is 10 knots, and each half barb is 5 knots. Wind direction is shown by an arrow drawn to the nearest 10
degrees, with the second digit of the coded direction entered at the outer end of the arrow. Thus, a wind
in the northwest quadrant with the digit 3 indicates 330 degrees, and a wind in the southwest quadrant
with the digit 3 indicates 230 degrees.
ALL, SPO ALL

3500. (Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for 3502. (Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and
STL at 9,000 feet? temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet.
A— 230° true at 32 knots. A— 230° magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47°C.
B— 230° magnetic at 25 knots. B— 230° true at 53 knots, temperature -47°C.
C— 230° true at 25 knots. C— 230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.
A six-digit group shows wind directions (in reference to A six-digit group shows wind directions (in reference to
true north) in the first two digits, wind speed (in knots) in true north) in the first two digits, wind speed (in knots)
the second two digits, and temperature (in Celsius) in the in the second two digits, and temperature (in Celsius)
last two digits. In this case, 2332+02 means 230° at 32 in the last two digits. In this case, 2321-04 means 230°
knots, and the temperature is 2°C. (PLT076) — AC 00-45 at 21 knots, and the temperature is -4°C. (PLT076) —
AC 00-45
ALL
3501. (Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for ALL
STL at 12,000 feet? 3503. (Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and
A— 230° true at 56 knots. temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 feet.
B— 230° magnetic at 56 knots. A— 200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.
C— 230° true at 39 knots. B— 050° true at 7 knots, temperature missing.
C— 200° magnetic at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.
A six-digit group shows wind directions (in reference to
true north) in the first two digits, wind speed (in knots) A six-digit group shows wind directions (in reference to
in the second two digits, and temperature (in Celsius) true north) in the first two digits, wind speed (in knots)
in the last two digits. In this case, 2339-04 means 230° in the second two digits, and temperature (in Celsius) in
at 39 knots, and the temperature is -4°C. (PLT076) — the last two digits. In this case, 2006+03 means 200° at 6
AC 00-45 knots, and the temperature is 3°C. (PLT076) — AC 00-45
Answers
3500 [A] 3501 [C] 3502 [C] 3503 [A]

ALL ALL
3505. What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts? 3506. When the term “light and variable” is used in
A— Magnetic direction and knots. reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group
B— Magnetic direction and miles per hour. and windspeed is
C— True direction and knots. A— 0000 and less than 7 knots.
B— 9900 and less than 5 knots.
A six-digit group shows wind directions (in reference to C— 9999 and less than 10 knots.
true north) in the first two digits, wind speed (in knots)
in the second two digits, and temperature (in Celsius) When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded
in the last two digits. (PLT284) — AC 00-45 group is “9900” and reads “light and variable” on the
Winds Aloft Forecast. (PLT284) — AC 00-45
Weather Depiction Chart

The Weather Depiction Chart, which shows conditions that existed at the valid time of the chart, allows
the pilot to readily determine general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.
A legend in the lower right-hand corner of the chart describes the method of identifying areas of
VFR, MVFR, and IFR conditions.
Total sky cover is depicted by shading of the station circle as shown in Figure 7-3. Cloud height is
entered under the station circle in hundreds of feet above ground level. Symbols for weather and obstruc-
tions to vision are normally shown to the left of the station circle.
Visibility (in statute miles) is entered to the left of any weather symbol. If the visibility is greater than
6 miles it will be omitted. Figure 7-4 shows examples of plotted data. Radar Weather Reports (SDs) are
of special interest to the pilot because they indicate the location of precipitation with type and intensity.
ALL
3507. (Refer to Figure 18.) What is the status of the
front that extends from Nebraska through the upper
peninsula of Michigan?
A— Cold.
B— Warm.
C— Stationary.
The front extending from Nebraska through the upper

peninsula of Michigan is a cold front, indicated by the
line with triangles on one side. (PLT289) — AC 00-45
Figure 7-3. Total sky cover symbols
Question 3507
Answers
3505 [C] 3506 [B] 3507 [A]

ALL
3509. (Refer to Figure 18.) Of what value is the Weather
Depiction Chart to the pilot?
A— For determining general weather conditions on
which to base flight planning.
B— For a forecast of cloud coverage, visibilities, and
frontal activity.
C— For determining frontal trends and air mass
characteristics.
The Weather Depiction Chart is computer-prepared from

METAR reports to give a broad overview of observed
flying category conditions as of the valid time of the
chart. From it, you can determine general weather con-
ditions more readily than any other source. Therefore,
the Weather Depiction Chart is a choice place to begin
the weather briefing and flight planning. (PLT289) —
AC 00-45
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because this chart does not
include forecast or trend information.
SPO
2365. The position of fronts and pressure systems (as
of chart time) is best determined by referring to a
A— Surface Analysis Chart.
B— Radar Summary Chart.
C— Weather Depiction Chart.
The position of fronts and pressure systems is shown

on a Surface Analysis Weather Chart by the use of
Figure 7-4. Weather depiction chart station plot model broken lines to represent the fronts. A space between
the warm or cold pips indicates frontogenesis — the front
is building up. A dash between the warm or cold pips
ALL
indicates frontolysis — the front is dissipating. (PLT071)
3508. (Refer to Figure 18.) The IFR weather in northern
— AC 00-45
Texas is due to
A— dust devils.
B— low ceilings. ALL
C— intermittent rain. 3510. (Refer to Figure 18.) The marginal weather in
central Kentucky is due to low
The IFR category observed weather is shown as a A— visibility.
hatched area, outlined by a smooth line. The station B— ceiling and visibility.
circles reporting IFR conditions show the obstruction to C— ceiling.
vision as mist (=) which restricts visibility to 1-1/2 mile
and a ceiling of 400 feet. (PLT071) — AC 00-45 The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low
ceilings. Visibility is normally entered to the left of the
weather symbols. Since it is omitted, we know the vis-
ibilities are greater than 6 miles. (PLT075) — AC 00-45
Answers
3508 [B] 3509 [A] 2365 [A] 3510 [C]

ALL ALL
3511. (Refer to Figure 18.) What weather phenomenon 3513. Radar weather reports are of special interest to
is causing IFR conditions in central Oklahoma? pilots because they indicate
A— Low visibility only. A— location of precipitation along with type, intensity,
B— Heavy rain showers. and cell movement of precipitation.
C— Low ceilings and visibility. B— location of precipitation along with type, intensity,
and trend.
The contoured area with shading indicates IFR condi- C— large areas of low ceilings and fog.
tions due to ceilings less than 1,000 feet and/or visibilities
less than 3 miles. (PLT289) — AC 00-45 The radar weather report (SD) includes the type, inten-
sity, and location of the echo top of the precipitation. The
intensity trend of precipitation is no longer coded on the
ALL SD. (PLT353) — AC 00-45
3512. (Refer to Figure 18.) According to the Weather
Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern
Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings
A— 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.
B— less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3
miles.
C— greater than 3, 000 feet and visibility greater than
5 miles.
The lack of contours along this route indicates VFR

areas with ceilings greater than 3,000 feet and visibility
greater than 5 miles. (PLT075) — AC 00-45
Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart

The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart (surface to 24,000 feet) portrays forecast weather
which may influence flight planning, including information on those areas to avoid and/or altitudes of the
freezing level and turbulence. The chart is a 24-hour forecast and it consists of four panels. The left-hand
upper and lower panels forecast weather for the first 12 hours, while the right-hand upper and lower pan-
els portray the forecast for the last 12 hours of the forecast period. A legend is in the center of the chart.
The chart uses standard weather symbols and significant weather prognostic symbols as shown in
Figure 7-5. The upper two panels depict areas of IFR and MVFR (marginal VFR: ceiling 1,000 to 3,000
feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive) conditions, turbulence, and freezing levels. Figures above
and below a short line show the expected base and top of the turbulent layer in hundreds of feet MSL.
Absence of a figure below the line indicates turbulence from the surface upward. No figure above the
line indicates turbulence extending above the upper limit of the chart.
The zigzag line shows where the freezing level is forecast to be at the surface and is labeled “32°”
or “SFC.” The freezing level aloft, shown by a small dashed line, is drawn at 4,000-foot intervals (4,000
feet MSL, 8,000 feet MSL, etc.).
The two lower panels outline areas of forecast precipitation and thunderstorms and the movement
of fronts and pressure centers.
Answers
3511 [C] 3512 [C] 3513 [A]

Figure 7-5
ALL ALL
3520. (Refer to Figure 20.) How are Significant Weather 3521. (Refer to Figure 20.) Interpret the weather symbol
Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot? depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather
A— For overall planning at all altitudes. Prognostic Chart.
B— For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels A— Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet.
and turbulence). B— Base of clear air turbulence, 18,000 feet.
C— For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud C— Thunderstorm tops at 18,000 feet.
coverage.
The symbol indicates moderate turbulence. The “180/”
While Significant Weather Prognostic Charts portray indicates the turbulent layer is from the surface to 18,000
forecast weather which may influence flight planning, feet. (PLT068) — AC 00-45
they are most useful in identifying the freezing level and
areas of turbulence. (PLT068) — AC 00-45
Answers
3520 [B] 3521 [A]

ALL ALL
3522. (Refer to Figure 20.) What weather is forecast 3523. (Refer to Figure 20.) The enclosed shaded area
for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front associated with the low pressure system over northern
during the first 12 hours? Utah is forecast to have
A— Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 A— continuous snow.
miles with intermittent precipitation. B— intermittent snow.
B— Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 C— continuous snow showers.
miles with continuous precipitation.
C— Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less The double asterisks (**) in the bottom left panel indi-
than 3 miles with continuous precipitation. cate continuous snow, as the arrow points them into the
shaded area. (PLT068) — AC 00-45
The two left panels are 12-hour progs. The upper left
panel is the 12-hour prog of significant weather from the
surface (SFC) to 400 millibars (24,000 feet). The Florida ALL
area is outlined in a scalloped line, indicating MVFR 3524. (Refer to Figure 20.) At what altitude is the
conditions of ceiling 1,000–3,000 feet inclusive and/or freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12-hour
visibility 3–5 miles inclusive. The bottom left panel is the Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
12-hour surface prog. The shaded area with 3 circles A— 4,000 feet.
indicates continuous rain. (PLT068) — AC 00-45 B— 12,000 feet.
C— 8,000 feet.
The dashed line indicates the freezing level above mean

sea level. The “120” indicates the freezing level to be at
12,000 feet over the middle of Florida. (PLT068) — AC
00-45
Inflight Weather Advisories (WA, WS, WST)

Inflight Weather Advisories advise enroute pilots of the possibility of encountering hazardous flying
conditions that may not have been forecast at the time of the preflight weather briefing.
AIRMETs (WA) contain information on weather that may be hazardous to single engine, other light
aircraft, and VFR pilots. The items covered are moderate icing or turbulence, sustained winds of 30 knots
or more at the surface, widespread areas of IFR conditions, and extensive mountain obscurement.
SIGMETs (WS) advise of weather potentially hazardous to all aircraft. The items covered are severe
icing, severe or extreme turbulence, and widespread sandstorms, dust storms or volcanic ash lowering
visibility to less than 3 miles.
SIGMETs and AIRMETs are broadcast upon receipt and at 30-minute intervals (H + 15 and H + 45)
during the first hour. If the advisory is still in effect after the first hour, an alert notice will be broadcast.
Pilots may contact the nearest FSS to ascertain whether the advisory is pertinent to their flights.
Convective SIGMETs (WST) cover weather developments such as tornadoes, lines of thunder-
storms, and embedded thunderstorms, and they also imply severe or greater turbulence, severe icing,
and low-level wind shear. When a SIGMET forecasts embedded thunderstorms, it indicates that the
thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen. Convective SIGMET bulle-
tins are issued hourly at H + 55. Unscheduled convective SIGMETs are broadcast upon receipt and at
15-minute intervals for the first hour (H + 15; H + 30; H + 45).
Answers
3522 [B] 3523 [A] 3524 [B]

ALL ALL, SPO

3495. What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE 3497. SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather
SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms? conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
A— Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of A— Small aircraft only.
the area. B— Large aircraft only.
B— Moderate or severe turbulence. C— All aircraft.
C— Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.
A SIGMET advises of weather potentially hazardous to
Convective SIGMETs include: severe thunderstorms, all aircraft. (PLT290) — AC 00-45
embedded thunderstorms, line of thunderstorms, thun-
derstorms greater than or equal to VIP (Digital Video
Interrogator and Processor) level “A” affecting 40% or ALL
more of an area of 3,000 square miles. (PLT290) — 3498. Which in-flight advisory would contain informa-
AC 00-45 tion on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
A— Convective SIGMET.
B— SIGMET.
ALL
C— AIRMET.
3496. What information is contained in a CONVEC-
TIVE SIGMET? A SIGMET advises of weather potentially hazardous
A— Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail to all aircraft other than convective activity. Some items
3/4 inch or greater in diameter. included are severe icing, and severe or extreme tur-
B— Severe icing, severe turbulence, or widespread bulence. (PLT290) — AC 00-45
dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.
C— Surface winds greater than 40 knots or
thunderstorms equal to or greater than video ALL
integrator processor (VIP) level 4. 3499. AIRMET’s are advisories of significant weather
phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMET’s and
Any convective SIGMET implies severe or greater tur- are intended for dissemination to
bulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear. The A— only IFR pilots.
forecast may be issued for any of the following: B— all pilots.
Severe thunderstorms due to — C— only VFR pilots.
1. Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots, or AIRMETs are intended for dissemination to all pilots
2. Hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inch in the preflight and enroute phase of flight to enhance
in diameter, or safety. (PLT290) — AC 00-45
3. Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, lines of thun-
derstorms.
(PLT290) — AC 00-45
Answers
3495 [C] 3496 [A] 3497 [C] 3498 [B] 3499 [B]

Obtaining a Telephone Weather Briefing

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should:
• Identify themselves as pilots;
• State whether they intend to fly VFR or IFR;
• State the intended route, destination, and type of aircraft;
• Request a standard briefing to get a “complete” weather briefing;
• Request an abbreviated briefing to supplement mass disseminated data or when only one or two
items are needed; and
• Request an outlook briefing whenever the proposed departure time is 6 or more hours from the time
of briefing.
ALL ALL, SPO

3455. When telephoning a weather briefing facility for 3458. Which type of weather briefing should a pilot
preflight weather information, pilots should state request to supplement mass disseminated data?
A— whether they intend to fly VFR only. A— An outlook briefing.
B— that they possess a current pilot certificate. B— A supplemental briefing.
C— the full name and address of the formation C— An abbreviated briefing.
commander.
Request an abbreviated briefing when you need infor-
When requesting a preflight weather briefing, identify mation to supplement mass disseminated data, update
yourself as a pilot or the tail number of the aircraft to be a previous briefing, or when you need only one or two
flown and provide the type of flight planned (e.g., VFR specific items. (PLT514) — AC 00-45
or IFR). (PLT514) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL, SPO
ALL 3459. To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot
3456. To get a complete weather briefing for the planned should request
flight, the pilot should request A— an abbreviated briefing.
A— a general briefing. B— a standard briefing.
B— an abbreviated briefing. C— an outlook briefing.
C— a standard briefing.
Request an abbreviated briefing when you need infor-
You should request a standard briefing any time you are mation to supplement mass disseminated data, update
planning a flight and you have not received a previous a previous briefing, or when you need only one or two
briefing. (PLT514) — AC 00-45 specific items. (PLT514) — AC 00-45
ALL, SPO
3457. Which type weather briefing should a pilot request,
when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather
information has been received?
A— Outlook briefing.
B— Abbreviated briefing.
C— Standard briefing.
You should request a standard briefing any time you are

planning a flight and you have not received a previous
briefing. (PLT514) — AC 00-45
Answers
3455 [A] 3456 [C] 3457 [C] 3458 [C] 3459 [A]

ALL ALL, SPO

3460. A weather briefing that is provided when the 3527. What should pilots state initially when telephoning
information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of a weather briefing facility for preflight weather informa-
the proposed departure time is tion?
A— an outlook briefing. A— Tell the number of occupants on board.
B— a forecast briefing. B— Identify themselves as pilots.
C— a prognostic briefing. C— State their total flight time.
You should request an outlook briefing whenever your When requesting a briefing, pilots should identify them-
proposed time of departure is 6 or more hours from the selves and provide as much information regarding the
time of the briefing. This type of briefing is provided for proposed flight as possible. The information received will
planning purposes only. You should obtain a standard or depend on the type of briefing requested. The following
abbreviated briefing prior to departure in order to obtain would be helpful to the briefer.
such items as current conditions, updated forecasts, 1. Type of flight, visual flight rule (VFR) or instrument
winds aloft and NOTAMs. (PLT514) — AC 00-45 operating rule (IFR)
2. Aircraft number or pilot’s name
ALL 3. Aircraft type
3461. When requesting weather information for the
4. Departure point
following morning, a pilot should request
5. Route of flight
A— an outlook briefing.
B— a standard briefing. 6. Destination
C— an abbreviated briefing. 7. Flight altitude(s)
8. Estimated time of departure
You should request an outlook briefing whenever your
proposed time of departure is 6 or more hours from the 9. Estimated time en route or estimated time of arrival
time of the briefing. This type of briefing is provided for (PLT445) — FAA-H-8083-25
planning purposes only. You should obtain a standard or
abbreviated briefing prior to departure in order to obtain
such items as current conditions, updated forecasts, ALL
winds aloft and NOTAMs. (PLT514) — AC 00-45 3528. When telephoning a weather briefing facility for
preflight weather information, pilots should state
A— the aircraft identification or the pilot’s name.
ALL
B— true airspeed.
3526. What should pilots state initially when telephoning
C— fuel on board.
a weather briefing facility for preflight weather informa-
tion? When requesting a briefing, make known you are a pilot.
A— The intended route of flight radio frequencies. Give clear and concise facts about your flight:
B— The address of the pilot in command. 1. Type of flight: VFR or IFR
C— The intended route of flight and destination.
2. Aircraft identification or pilot’s name
When requesting a briefing, pilots should identify them- 3. Aircraft type
selves and provide as much information regarding the 4. Departure point
proposed flight as possible. (PLT445) — FAA-H-8083‑25
Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot only needs to identify the
5. Route-of-flight
route of flight. Answer (B) is incorrect because the caller only needs 6. Destination
to provide an aircraft number or pilot’s name.
7. Altitude
8. Estimated time of departure
9. Estimated time en route or estimated time of arrival
(PLT514) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because these are necessary
when filing a flight plan, but not when obtaining a weather briefing.
Answers
3460 [A] 3461 [A] 3526 [C] 3527 [B] 3528 [A]

ALL GLI
3528-1. When speaking to an AFSS weather briefer, 3470. (Refer to Figure 13.) What effect do the clouds
you should state mentioned in the weather briefing have on soaring
A— the pilot-in-command’s full name and address. conditions?
B— a summary of your qualifications. A— All thermals stop at the base of the clouds.
C— whether the flight is VFR or IFR. B— Thermals persist to the tops of the clouds at
25,000 feet.
When requesting a briefing, make known you are a pilot. C— The scattered clouds indicate thermals at least to
Give clear and concise facts about your flight: the tops of the lower clouds.
1. Type of flight: VFR or IFR
The telephone weather briefing indicates a few scattered
2. Aircraft identification or pilot’s name clouds at 5,000 feet AGL, with higher scattered cirrus
3. Aircraft type at 25,000 feet MSL. This briefing shows two different
4. Departure point clouds bases and does not give cloud tops. Thermals are
a product of instability. The height of thermals depends
5. Route of flight on the depth of the unstable layer, and their strength
6. Destination depends on the degree of instability. A cloud grows with
a rising thermal and scattered cumulus clouds are posi-
7. Altitude
tive signs of thermals. Whereas an abundant convective
8. Estimated time of departure cloud cover reduces thermal activity, thermals will exist
9. Estimated time en route or estimated time of arrival at least to the tops of the scattered clouds, especially
if the outline is firm and sharp, indicating a growing
(PLT514) – FAA-H-8083-25
cumulus. (PLT316) — AC 00-45
GLI
GLI
3525. In addition to the standard briefing, what additional
3471. (Refer to Figure 13.) At what time will thermals
information should be asked of the weather briefer in
begin to form?
order to evaluate soaring conditions?
A— Between 1300Z and 1500Z while the sky is clear.
A— The upper soundings to determine the thermal
B— By 1500Z (midmorning) when scattered clouds
index at all soaring levels.
begin to form.
B— Dry adiabatic rate of cooling to determine the
C— About 2000Z (early afternoon) when the wind
height of cloud bases.
begins to increase.
C— Moist adiabatic rate of cooling to determine the
height of cloud tops. The telephone weather briefing indicates there should
be a few scattered clouds at 5,000 feet AGL by 15Z.
Since thermals depend on sinking cold air forcing
The sky must be clear enough for the sun to warm
warm air upward, strength of thermals depends on the
the earth’s surface in order for thermals to develop.
temperature difference between the sinking air and the
(PLT494) — AC 00-45
rising air — the greater the temperature difference, the
stronger the thermals. To arrive at an approximation of
this difference, a thermal index is computed. A thermal
index may be computed for any level using upper sound-
ings. (PLT514) — AC 00-45
Answers
3528-1 [C] 3525 [A] 3470 [C] 3471 [A]

GLI LTA
3471-1. (Refer to Figure 13.) When are the thermals 3469. (Refer to Figure 13.) According to the weather
at the best? briefing, good balloon weather will begin to deteriorate
A— Between 1300Z and 1500Z while the sky is clear. A— soon after 1300Z as the wind starts to increase.
B— By 1500Z (midmorning) when scattered clouds B— about 1500Z when the lower scattered clouds
begin to form. begin to form.
C— About 2000Z (early afternoon) when the wind C— at 2000Z due to sharp increase in wind
begins to form. conditions.
The telephone weather briefing indicates there should The telephone weather briefing given at 13Z indicates
be a few scattered clouds at 5,000 feet AGL by 15Z. only a few scattered clouds at 5,000 feet AGL, with
Thermals are a product of instability. A cloud grows higher scattered cirrus at 25,000 feet MSL to form by
with a rising thermal and scattered cumulus clouds are 15Z. After 20Z, however, the wind should pick up to
positive signs of thermals. Whereas abundant convective about 15 knots from the south. The marked increase of
cloud cover reduces thermal activity, thermals will exist wind at 20Z indicates deteriorating ballooning weather.
at least to the tops of the scattered clouds — especially (PLT316) — AC 00-45
if the outline is firm and sharp, indicating a growing
cumulus. (PLT494) — AC 00-45
LTA
3477. Which weather reports and forecasts are most
LTA important for local area balloon operations?
3411. What early morning weather observations indicate A— Winds Aloft Forecasts and Radar Summary
the possibility of good weather conditions for balloon Charts.
flight most of the day? B— Winds Aloft Forecasts and Surface Analysis
A— Clear skies and surface winds, 10 knots or less. Charts.
B— Low moving, scattered cumulus clouds and C— Winds Aloft Forecasts and Aviation Routine
surface winds, 5 knots or less. Weather Reports.
C— Overcast with stratus clouds and surface winds, 5
knots or less. Local information is provided by the Aviation Routine
Weather Report (METAR). (PLT515) — AC 00-45
Stratiform clouds indicate no turbulence and 5 knots or Answer (A) is incorrect because it is a local flight. Answer (B) is
less winds are well within safety parameters. (PLT173) incorrect because Surface Analysis Charts are a nationwide refer-
— AC 00-6A, Chapter 6 ence.
LTA
3468. (Refer to Figure 13.) According to the weather
briefing, the most ideal time to launch balloons is
A— as soon as possible after 1300Z.
B— at 1500Z when the ground will be partially
shaded.
C— at 2000Z when there is enough wind for cross-
country.
The telephone weather briefing given at 13Z indicates

no clouds until 15Z, and no wind until after 20Z. The
ideal time to launch balloons is as soon after 13Z as
possible before the clouds and wind develop. (PLT316)
— AC 00-45
Answers
3471-1 [B] 3411 [C] 3468 [A] 3469 [C] 3477 [C]


Chapter 8
Aircraft Performance
Weight and Balance 8 – 3
Airplane 8 – 4
Weight-Shift Control 8 – 4
Powered Parachute 8 – 4
Computing Weight and Balance Problems Using a Table 8 – 6
Computing Weight and Balance Problems Using a Graph 8 – 12
Density Altitude and Aircraft Performance 8 – 24
Takeoff Distance 8 – 30
Cruise Power Setting Table 8 – 34
Landing Distance Graphs and Tables 8 – 36
Headwind and Crosswind Component Graph 8 – 42
Maximum Range Performance 8 – 44

Chapter 8 Aircraft Performance

Weight and Balance

Even though an aircraft has been certificated for flight at a specified maximum gross weight, it may not be
safe to take off with that load under all conditions. High altitude, high temperature, and high humidity are
additional factors which may require limiting the load to some weight less than the maximum allowable.
Some of the problems caused by overloading an aircraft are:
• The aircraft will need a higher takeoff speed, which results in a longer takeoff run.
• Both the rate and angle of climb will be reduced.
• The service ceiling will be lowered.
• The cruising speed will be reduced.
• The cruising range will be shortened.
• Maneuverability will be decreased.
• A longer landing roll will be required because the landing speed will be higher.
• Excessive loads will be imposed on the structure, especially the landing gear.
The empty weight is obtained from appropriate charts. It includes the airframe, engine, all fixed
equipment, and unusable fuel and oil. Some aircraft include all oil in the aircraft empty weight. The use-
ful load includes the pilot, passengers, baggage, fuel and oil. The takeoff weight is the empty weight
plus the useful load. The landing weight is the takeoff weight minus any fuel used.
The arm is the horizontal distance measured in inches from the datum line to a point on the aircraft.
If measured aft, toward the tail, the arm is given a positive (+) value; if measured forward, toward the
nose, the arm is given a negative (-) value. See Figure 8-1.
The moment is the product of the weight of
an object multiplied by its arm and is expressed
in pound-inches (lbs-in). A formula that is used to
find moment is usually expressed as follows:
Weight × Arm = Moment
The moment index is a moment divided by a
constant such as 100 or 1,000. It is used to simplify
computations where heavy items and long arms
result in large, unmanageable numbers. This is
usually expressed as Moment/100 or Mom/1,000, Figure 8-1. Positive and negative arm
etc.
The center of gravity (CG) is the point about which an aircraft will balance, and it is expressed in
inches from datum. The center of gravity is found by dividing the total moment by the total weight, and
the formula is usually expressed as follows:
Total Moment
= CG (inches aft of datum)
Total Weight
Continued

Standard weights have been established for numerous items involved in weight and balance
computations. These weights should not be used if actual weights are available. Some of the standard
weights are:
Item Weight
General aviation crew and passenger.........................190 lbs each
Gasoline......................................................................6 lbs/U.S. gallon
Oil................................................................................7.5 lbs/U.S. gallon
Water...........................................................................8.35 lbs/U.S. gallon
Airplane
In addition to considering the weight to be carried, the pilot must ensure that the load is arranged to keep
the aircraft in balance. The balance point, or Center of Gravity ( ), is the point at which all of the weight
of the airplane is considered to be concentrated. For an aircraft to be safe to fly, the center of gravity
must fall between specified limits. All aircraft categories have unique balance requirements; some need
to be balanced precisely while others are less sensitive to fore and aft weight distribution. The specific
balance requirements for each aircraft category are covered in the Pilot Operating Handbook (POH) and
will be tested on during the practical (checkride). To keep the CG within safe limits it may be necessary
to move weight toward the nose of the aircraft (forward), which moves the CG forward, or toward the
tail (aft) which moves the CG aft.
The specified forward and aft points within which the CG must be located for safe flight are called
the center of gravity limits. These limits are specified by the manufacturer. The distance between the
forward and aft CG limits is called the center of gravity range.
Weight-Shift Control
Weight and loading is typically used for weight-shift control. The cart normally does not have balance
requirements, but the attachment point to the cart is specified in the Pilot’s Operating Handbook.
Powered Parachute
Weight and loading is used for powered parachutes. The POH procedure for the fore and aft attachment
points of the wing to the cart must be followed so that the cart will obtain the proper deck angle (the
angle of the cart bottom with the horizontal plane).

ALL ALL, LSA, LSR, LSW, LSP

3663-1. (Refer to Figure 62.) If 50 pounds of weight is 3661. Which items are included in the empty weight
located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much of an aircraft?
weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank? A— Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
A— 30 pounds. B— Only the airframe, powerplant, and optional
B— 50 pounds. equipment.
C— 300 pounds. C— Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity.
Find the moments left and right of the fulcrum, and set Empty weight consists of the airframe, engines, and all
them equal to one another. items of operating equipment that have fixed locations
Left = right and are permanently installed in the airplane. It includes
optional and special equipment, fixed ballast, hydraulic
50(50) + Y(25) = 100(100) fluid, unusable (residual) fuel, and undrainable (residual)
2,500 + 25Y = 10,000 oil. (PLT328) — FAA-H-8083-25
Y = 300 pounds Answer (B) is incorrect because empty weight also includes operat-
ing fluids and unusable fuel. Answer (C) is incorrect because empty
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25 weight does not include full fuel.

3663-2. (Refer to Figure 61.) How should the 500-pound 3662. An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum
weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum? certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained
A— 1 inch to the left. to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel
B— 1 inch to the right. should be drained?
C— 4.5 inches to the right. A— 15.7 gallons.
B— 16.2 gallons.
1. Find the moments left and right of the fulcrum, and C— 18.4 gallons.
set them equal to one another.
left = right 1. Determine the total weight to be removed (110
pounds) and the weight per gallon of gasoline (6
500(X) = 250(20) + 200(15) pounds).
500X = 8,000 2. Calculate the amount of gasoline to be drained using
X = 16 inches the formula:
Pounds
2. The 500-pound weight must be 16 inches from the Gallons =
fulcrum to be in balance. It is currently located at 15 Pounds/Gallon
inches, therefore the weight should be shifted 1 inch or:
to the left. 110
= 18.33 gallons
(PLT092) — FAA-H-8083-25 6
When “rounding” an answer, do so in the sense that will
provide the greater flight safety. In this case, round to
18.4. (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3663-1 [C] 3663-2 [A] 3661 [A] 3662 [C]


3663. If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum 2371. (Refer to Figure 73.) The positive limit load factor
certificated gross weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained is represented by the
to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel A— vertical dashed line from E to F.
should be drained? B— vertical solid line from D to G.
A— 10 gallons. C— horizontal dashed line from C to point E.
B— 12 gallons.
C— 15 gallons. C to E is the maximum positive load limit. In this case
it is 3.8 Gs, which is appropriate for normal category
1. Determine the total weight to be removed (90 pounds) airplanes. (PLT074) — FAA-H-8083-25
and the weight per gallon of gasoline (6 pounds). Answer (A) is incorrect because the vertical dashed line from E to F
is the never-exceed airspeed (VNE). Answer (B) is incorrect because
2. Calculate the amount of gasoline to be drained using the vertical solid line from D to G is the high end for normal opera-
the formula: tions.
Pounds
Gallons =
Pounds/Gallon
or:
90
= 15 gallons
6
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25
Computing Weight and Balance Problems Using a Table

Problem:
Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits.
Front seat occupants................................ 340 lbs
Rear seat occupants................................. 295 lbs
Fuel (main wing tanks)............................... 44 gal
Baggage..................................................... 56 lbs
Solution:
1. Determine the total weight. Using the information provided in the question, enter the items and the
weights:
Item Weight (lbs) Arm (in) Moment (lbs-in)
Front seat occupants 340
Rear seat occupants 295
Fuel (main wing tanks) 264 *
Baggage 56
Empty weight + 2,015 **
2,970 lbs
*44 gal x 6 lbs/gal **found in FAA Figure 33
Answers
3663 [C] 2371 [C]

2. Fill in the arms (found in FAA Figure 33) and calculate the moments. Moments are determined by
multiplying in each row: weight x arm. Then divide that moment by 100 to keep the number a man-
ageable size, and finally, total all moments.
Item Weight (lbs) Arm (in) Moment/100 (lbs-in)
Front seat occupants 340 85 289.0
Rear seat occupants 295 121 357.0
Fuel (main wing tanks) 264 75 198.0
Baggage 56 140 78.4
Empty weight + 2,015 1,554.0
2,970 lbs 2,476.4 lbs-in
3. Determine the balance conditions. Looking at FAA Figure 34, notice that the table stops at the maxi-
mum weight of 2,950. Even though the weight is off the scale, the Moment of 2,476.4 is between the
minimum and maximum Moment limits given in the table. Therefore, we are 20 pounds overweight
and within balance limits.
AIR AIR
3664. GIVEN: 3665. (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the
WEIGHT ARM MOMENT airplane weight and balance is within limits.
(LB) (IN) (LB-IN) Front seat occupants.......................................... 340 lb
Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0 Rear seat occupants........................................... 295 lb
Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 — Fuel (main wing tanks)....................................... 44 gal
Fuel (30 gal usable– — 96.0 — Baggage............................................................... 56 lb
no reserve)
A— 20 pounds overweight, CG aft of aft limits.
The CG is located how far aft of datum? B— 20 pounds overweight, CG within limits.
A— CG 92.44. C— 20 pounds overweight, CG forward of forward
B— CG 94.01. limits.
C— CG 119.8.
When multiplying a weight by its arm you must divide
1. Compute the total weight and moment using the by 100 to get moment index (Moment/100). Moments
formula: listed in FAA Figures 33 and 34 are already divided by
Weight x Arm = Moment 100, and are therefore moment indexes.
or: 1. Calculate weight and moment index using the infor-
Item Weight Arm Moment mation from the question and from FAA Figures 33
Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0 and 34 and the formula:
Pilot & passenger 380.0 64.0 24,320.0 Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index
Fuel (30 x 6) 180.0 96.0 17,280.0 Item Weight Arm Moment/100
Total 2,055.0 lbs 193,193.0 Empty weight 2,015 lbs 1,554.0 lbs-in
2. Compute the center of gravity using the formula: Front seat 340 lbs 85 289.0 lbs-in
Total Moment Rear seat 295 lbs 121 357.0 lbs-in
CG = Fuel (44 x 6) 264 lbs 75 198.0 lbs-in
Total Weight
Baggage 56 lbs 140 78.4 lbs-in
or:
Total 2,970 lbs 2,476.4 lbs-in
193,193
CG = = 94.01 inches aft of datum 2. Consult the Moment Limits vs. Weight Table, FAA
2,055
Figure 34. The aircraft weight is 2,970 pounds or
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25 20 pounds in excess of the maximum weight on the
chart. The moment of 2,476.4 lbs-in would be within
limits if the chart went to 2,970 pounds gross weight.
(PLT121) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3664 [B] 3665 [B]

AIR AIR
3666. (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) What is the maxi- 3667. (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) Calculate the weight
mum amount of baggage that can be carried when the and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of
airplane is loaded as follows? the airplane are within limits.
Front seat occupants.......................................... 387 lb Front seat occupants.......................................... 350 lb
Rear seat occupants........................................... 293 lb Rear seat occupants........................................... 325 lb
Fuel..................................................................... 35 gal Baggage............................................................... 27 lb
A— 45 pounds. Fuel..................................................................... 35 gal
B— 63 pounds. A— CG 81.7, out of limits forward.
C— 220 pounds. B— CG 83.4, within limits.
C— CG 84.1, within limits.
1. When multiplying a weight times its arm you must
divide by 100 to get moment index. Calculate total Use the following steps:
weight and total moment index using the information 1. Calculate weight and moment index using the infor-
from the question and from FAA Figures 33 and 34 mation from the problem and from FAA Figures 33
and the formula: and 34 and the formula:
Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index
Item Weight Arm Moment/100 Item Weight Arm Moment/100
Empty weight 2,015 lbs 1,554.0 lbs-in Empty weight 2,015 lbs 1,554.0 lbs-in
Front seat 387 lbs 85 329.0 lbs-in Front seat 350 lbs 85 297.5 lbs-in
Rear seat 293 lbs 121 354.5 lbs-in Rear seat 325 lbs 121 393.3 lbs-in
Fuel (35 x 6) 210 lbs 75 157.5 lbs-in Baggage 27 lbs 140 37.8 lbs-in
Total 2,905 lbs 2,395.0 lbs-in Fuel (35 x 6) 210 lbs 75 157.5 lbs-in
2. The maximum takeoff weight is 2,950 pounds. Cal- Total 2,927 lbs 2,440.1 lbs-in
culate what the allowed baggage weight would be:
2. Calculate the position of CG using the formula:
2,950 – 2,905 = 45 pounds
Total Mom Ind
3. Verify that the CG would remain within the allowable CG = x Reduction Factor
Total Weight
range with this much baggage by calculating the new or:
weight and moment index.
Item Weight Arm Moment/100 2,440.1
CG = x 100 = 83.4 inches aft of datum
Original total 2,905 lbs 2,395.0 lbs-in 2,927
Baggage + 45 lbs 140 + 63.0 lbs-in (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25
New Total 2,950 lbs 2,458.0 lbs-in
4. Consult the Moment Limit vs. Weight Table, FAA
Figure 34. For a weight of 2,950 pounds, the range
of allowable moments is 2,422 to 2,499. The new
total moment index of 2,458.0 is acceptable.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3666 [A] 3667 [B]

AIR AIR
3668. (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the 3674. (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) Upon landing, the
airplane weight and balance is within limits. front passenger (180 pounds) departs the airplane. A
Front seat occupants.......................................... 415 lb rear passenger (204 pounds) moves to the front pas-
Rear seat occupants........................................... 110 lb senger position. What effect does this have on the CG
Fuel, main tanks................................................. 44 gal if the airplane weighed 2,690 pounds and the MOM/100
Fuel, aux. tanks.................................................. 19 gal was 2,260 just prior to the passenger transfer?
Baggage............................................................... 32 lb A— The CG moves forward approximately 3 inches.
A— 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits. B— The weight changes, but the CG is not affected.
B— 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward. C— The CG moves forward approximately 0.1 inch.
C— Weight within limits, CG out of limits.
Use the following steps: 1. Consider the effect on the total weight.
1. Calculate weight and moment index using the infor- Item Weight
mation from the problem and from FAA Figures 33 Original weight 2,690 pounds
and 34, and the formula: Deplaned passenger – 180 pounds
New Weight 2,510 pounds
Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index
Item Weight Arm Moment/100 2. Consider the effect on the total moment index using
Empty weight 2,015 lbs 1,554.0 lbs-in the arms given in FAA Figure 33, and the formula:
Front seat 415 lbs 85 352.8 lbs-in Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index
Rear seat 110 lbs 121 133.1 lbs-in
Item Weight Arm Moment/100
Fuel main 44 x 6 264 lbs 75 198.0 lbs-in
Fuel aux. 19 x 6 114 lbs 94 107.2 lbs-in Original weight & Mom Ind 2,690 2,260.0 lbs-in
Baggage 32 lbs 140 44.8 lbs-in Passenger exiting, front -180 85 -153.0 lbs-in
Passenger exiting, rear -204 121 -246.8 lbs-in
Passenger into front + 204 85 + 173.4 lbs-in
2. Calculate the CG using the formula: New Total Weight & Moment 2,510 2,033.6 lbs-in
Total Mom Ind
CG = x Reduction Factor 3. Determine both the original and new CG using the
Total Weight
or: formula:
Total Mom Ind
2,389.9 CG = x Reduction Factor
CG = x 100 = 81.0 inches aft of datum Total Weight
2,950 or:
3. Consult the Moment Limits vs. Weight Table (FAA a. Original CG =
Figure 34). A CG of 81 inches is 1.1 inches forward 2,260
of the forward CG limit for a weight (allowed) of x 100 = 84.0 inches aft of datum
2,690
2,950 pounds (2,422 ÷ 2,950 = 82.1); (82.1 – 81 =
1.1 inches forward). b. New CG =
2,033.6
(PLT121) — FAA-H-8083-25 x 100 = 81.0 inches aft of datum
2,510
4. Calculate the change in CG:
84 – 81 = 3 inches (forward)
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3668 [C] 3674 [A]

AIR AIR
3675. (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) Which action can 3676. (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) What effect does
adjust the airplane’s weight to maximum gross weight a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight
and the CG within limits for takeoff? and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and
Front seat occupants.......................................... 425 lb the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff?
Rear seat occupants........................................... 300 lb A— Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is
Fuel, main tanks................................................. 44 gal aft of limits.
A— Drain 12 gallons of fuel. B— Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is
B— Drain 9 gallons of fuel. unaffected.
C— Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to C— Weight is reduced to 2,680 pounds and the CG
the auxiliary tanks. moves forward.
Use the following steps: Use the following steps:

1. Calculate the original weights and moment index 1. Calculate the change in both weight and moment
using the information from the problem and FAA index caused by a burn of 35 gallons, using the
Figures 33 and 34, and the formula: information from FAA Figures 33 and 34.
Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index
Item Weight Arm Moment/100 Item Weight Arm Moment
Empty weight 2,015 lbs 1,554.0 lbs-in Fuel (35 x 6) 210 lbs 75 158 lbs-in
Front seat 425 lbs 85 361.3 lbs-in 2. Determine the effect of burn on total weight and
Rear seat 300 lbs 121 363.0 lbs-in moment index:
Fuel (44 x 6) 264 lbs 75 198.0 lbs-in Item Weight Arm Moment/100
Total 3,004 lbs 2,476.3 lbs-in Original total 2,890 lbs 2,452.0 lbs-in
2. If the aircraft has a maximum allowable takeoff weight Fuel burn – 210 lbs 75 – 158.0 lbs-in
of 2,950 lbs, compute the weight to be removed to New Total 2,680 lbs 2,294.0 lbs-in
reach an acceptable takeoff weight. 3. Consult the Moment Limits vs. Weight Table (FAA
3,004 – 2,950 = 54 pounds Figure 34). The allowed range of moment indexes
3. Compute the amount of fuel (in gallons) that totals for a weight of 2,680 lbs is 2,123 to 2,287 lbs-in/100.
54 lbs: Hence the new moment index exceeds the maximum
allowed and the CG is aft of limits.
54 ÷ 6 = 9 gallons
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25
4. Compute the revised weight and moment index:
Original totals 3,004 lbs 2,476.3 lbs-in
Fuel – 54 lbs 75 – 40.5 lbs-in
New Total 2,950 lbs 2,435.8 lbs-in
5. Consult the Moment Limits vs. Weight Chart. At 2,950
lbs takeoff weight, 2,435.8 is within the Moments
Limits.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3675 [B] 3676 [A]

AIR
3677. (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) With the airplane
loaded as follows, what action can be taken to balance
the airplane?
Front seat occupants.......................................... 411 lb
Rear seat occupants........................................... 100 lb
Main wing tanks.................................................. 44 gal
A— Fill the auxiliary wing tanks.
B— Add a 100-pound weight to the baggage
compartment.
C— Transfer 10 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to
the auxiliary tanks.

1. Calculate the weights and moments using the infor-
mation from the problem and FAA Figures 33 and
34, and the formula:
Weight x Arm ÷ 100 = Moment/Index
Empty weight 2,015 lbs 1,554.0 lbs-in
Front seat 411 lbs 85 349.4 lbs-in
Rear seat 100 lbs 121 121.0 lbs-in
Fuel 44 x 6 264 lbs 75 198.0 lbs-in
2. Consulting the Moment Limits vs. Weight Table (FAA
Figure 34), the allowed range of moments for 2,790
lbs is between 2,243 and 2,374 lbs-in/100.
3. Since the moment index is too small, add weight, and
for maximum increase in moment index with minimum
weight penalty, as far aft as practical. Add 100 lbs in
the baggage compartment and recompute weight and
moment index:
Original totals 2,790 lbs 2,222.4 lbs-in
Add weight + 100 lbs 140 + 140.0 lbs-in
New Totals 2,890 lbs 2,362.4 lbs-in
4. Consult the Moment Limits vs. Weight Table. The
allowed range of moments for 2,890 pounds is 2,354
to 2,452 lbs-in/100. The new moment is now within
limits.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3677 [B]

Computing Weight and Balance Problems Using a Graph

Problem:
Referring to FAA Figure 35, determine the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard
the airplane for the CG to remain within the loading envelope.
Item Weight (lbs) Moment/1,000 (lbs-in)
Empty weight 1,350 51.5
Pilot, front passenger 250 —
Rear passengers 400 —
Baggage — —
Fuel 30 gal. — —
Oil 8 qt. — —
Solution:
1. Determine the total weight. Using the information provided in the question, enter the items and the
weights:
Pilot, front passenger 250
Rear passengers 400
Fuel 180 *
Oil 15 **
Baggage —
Empty weight + 1,350 †
2,195 lbs
*30 gal x 6 lbs/gal **given in the note in the middle of FAA Figure 35 † given in problem
2. Determine the moments. Using FAA Figure 35, locate the moments for all the given weights:
Pilot, front passenger 250 9.3
Rear passengers 400 29.3
Fuel 180 8.7
Oil 15 -0.2 *
Baggage — —
Empty weight + 1,350 51.5
2,195 lbs 98.6 lbs-in
*from note in center of FAA Figure 35
3. From the Center of Gravity Moment Envelope, bottom of FAA Figure 35, determine the maximum
allowable gross weight of the aircraft, as indicated by the top of the “Normal Category” envelope
(2,300 pounds). Comparing the total weight of this problem with the maximum allowable weight
shows that 105 pounds of baggage could be carried:
2,300
– 2,195
105

4. From the Loading Graph, determine the Mom/1,000 of 105 pounds of baggage.
Add that amount to the previous total Mom/1,000:
Totals 2,195 98.6
Baggage + 105 + 10.0
New Totals 2,300 lbs 108.6 lbs-in
5. Enter the Center of Gravity Moment Envelope Graph at the total Mom/1,000 (108.6) and the maxi-
mum allowable gross weight line at 2,300 pounds. The point of intersection falls within the “Normal
Category” envelope and acceptable weight and balance conditions.
AIR 4. Plot the position of the point determined by 2,300

3669. (Refer to Figure 35.) What is the maximum amount pounds and the moment of 108.6 lbs-in/1,000 on the
of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for center of gravity moment envelope graph. The point
the CG to remain within the moment envelope? is in the normal category envelope.
WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 (PLT092) — FAA-H-8083-25
Empty weight 1,350 51.5
Pilot and front passenger 250 —
Rear passengers 400 — AIR
Baggage — — 3670. (Refer to Figure 35.) Calculate the moment of the
Fuel, 30 gal — — airplane and determine which category is applicable.
Oil, 8 qt — -0.2 WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000
A— 105 pounds. Empty weight 1,350 51.5
B— 110 pounds. Pilot and front passenger 310 —
C— 120 pounds. Rear passengers 96 —
Fuel, 38 gal — —
Use the following steps: Oil, 8 qt — -0.2
1. Find total weight and moment index (except baggage) A— 79.2, utility category.
by using the loading graphs in FAA Figure 35. Note B— 80.8, utility category.
that the reduction factor is 1,000 in this problem. The C— 81.2, normal category.
standard weight for gasoline is 6 lbs/U.S. gallon, and
for oil, 7.5 lbs/U.S. gallon. Use the following steps:
Item Weight Moment/1,000 1. Find total weight and moment index by using the
B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in loading graph (FAA Figure 35). The standard weight
Pilot & Pax (a) 250 lbs 9.3 lbs-in for gasoline is 6 lbs/U.S. gallons and for oil, 7.5 lbs
Rear Pax (b) 400 lbs 29.3 lbs-in U.S. gallon.
Fuel (30 x 6) (c) 180 lbs 8.7 lbs-in Item Weight Moment/1,000
Oil 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in
Total 2,195 lbs 98.6 lbs-in Pilot & Pax (a) 310 lbs 11.5 lbs-in
2. Calculate the maximum allowable weight for baggage: Rear Pax (b) 96 lbs 7.0 lbs-in
Fuel (38 x 6) (c) 228 lbs 11.0 lbs-in
2,300 – 2,195 = 105 pounds Oil 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in
3. Add baggage and calculate the new totals for weight Total 1,999 lbs 80.8 lbs-in
and moment index.
2. Plot the position of the point determined by 1,999
Weight Moment/1,000 pounds and a moment of 80.8 lbs-in/1,000. The point
2,195 lbs 98.6 lbs-in is just inside the utility category envelope.
+ 105 lbs 10.0 lbs-in
(PLT092) — FAA-H-8083-25
2,300 lbs 108.6 lbs-in
Answer (A) is incorrect because this answer choice doesn’t have any
significance. Answer (C) is incorrect because the oil moment needs
to be subtracted.
Answers
3669 [A] 3670 [B]

AIR AIR
3671. (Refer to Figure 35.) What is the maximum amount 3673. (Refer to Figure 35.) Determine the aircraft loaded
of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff if moment and the aircraft category.
loaded as follows? WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000
WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5
Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380 —
Pilot and front passenger 340 — Fuel, 48 gal 288 —
Rear passengers 310 — Oil, 8 qt — —
Baggage 45 — A— 78.2, normal category.
Oil, 8 qt — — B— 79.2, normal category.
A— 24 gallons. C— 80.4, utility category.
B— 32 gallons.
C— 40 gallons. Use the following steps:
1. Find the total weight and moment index by using the
1. Find the total weight and moment index (except fuel) loading graph from FAA Figure 35.
by using the loading graph in FAA Figure 35. Item Weight Moment/1,000
Item Weight Moment/1,000 B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in
B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in Pilot & Pax (a) 380 lbs 14.0 lbs-in
Pilot & Pax (a) 340 lbs 12.6 lbs-in Fuel (b) 288 lbs 13.8 lbs-in
Rear Pax (b) 310 lbs 22.6 lbs-in Oil (c) 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in
Baggage (c) 45 lbs 4.2 lbs-in Total 2,033 lbs 79.1 lbs-in
Oil (d) 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in
Total 2,060 lbs 90.7 lbs-in 2. Plot the position of the point determined by 2,033
lbs. and a moment of 79.1 lbs-in/1,000. The point is
2. Calculate the additional fuel weight which can be within the normal category envelope.
added:
(PLT092) — FAA-H-8083-25
2,300 – 2,060 = 240 lbs
3. Calculate the number of gallons of fuel at 6 lbs/
AIR, WSC
gallon:
3672. (Refer to Figure 35.) Determine the moment with
240 ÷ 6 = 40 gallons the following data:
4. Calculate the added fuel moment index from the WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000
graph (40 gal fuel – 11.5 MOM/1,000). Empty weight 1,350 51.5
5. Calculate the new total weight and moment index: Pilot and front passenger 340 —
Weight Moment/1,000
Fuel (std tanks) Capacity —
Oil, 8 qt — —
2,060 lbs 90.7 lbs-in
+ 240 lbs 11.5 lbs-in A— 69.9 pound-inches.
2,300 lbs 102.2 lbs-in B— 74.9 pound-inches.
C— 77.6 pound-inches.
6. Plot the position of the point determined by 2,300
pounds and a moment index of 102.2 lbs-in/1,000. 1. Find the total weight and moment index by using the
The point lies on the normal category envelope. loading graph from FAA Figure 35.
(PLT092) — FAA-H-8083-25 Item Weight Moment/1,000
B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in
Pilot & Pax (a) 340 lbs 12.6 lbs-in
Fuel (Std. Tanks) (b) 228 lbs 11.0 lbs-in
Oil (c) 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in
Total 1,933 lbs 74.9 lbs-in
(PLT003) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3671 [C] 3673 [B] 3672 [B]

RTC 2. Find the offset to the right or left:

3720. (Refer to Figure 44.) What action, if any, should
2,700.0 lbs-in (right)
be taken for lateral balance if the helicopter is loaded
– 1,350.0 lbs-in (left)
as follows?
1,350.0 lbs-in offset (right)
Gross weight.................................................... 1,800 lb
Pilot........................140 lb, 13.5 in. left of “0” MOM arm 3. Enter the bottom of the Lateral Offset Moment
Copilot.................180 lb, 13.5 in. right of “0” MOM arm Envelope Graph of FAA Figure 44 at 1,350 right of
the zero point. Proceed upward until intercepting the
A— Add 10 pounds of weight to the pilot’s side. 1,800-pound gross weight line. The point of intercept
B— Decrease the gross weight 50 pounds. falls outside the envelope to the right.
C— No action is required.
4. Try adding 50 pounds to the pilot’s side and do the
Use the following steps: same computations:
1. Compute the left and right moments using the Copilot 200 x 13.5 = 2,700 (right)
formula: Pilot 150 x 13.5 = 2,025 (left)
Weight x Arm = Moment 2,700 (right)
– 2,025 (left)
Item Weight Arm Moment
Pilot 140 lbs 13.5 1,890 lbs-in (left)
675 (right)
Copilot 180 lbs 13.5 2,430 lbs-in (right) Plot the new values on the lateral offset envelope graph
of FAA Figure 44.
2. Find the offset to the left or right:
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21
2,430.0 lbs-in (right)
– 1,890.0 lbs-in (left)
540.0 lbs-in offset (right) RTC
3. Enter the bottom of the Lateral Offset Moment Graph 3722. (Refer to Figure 42.) Determine the weight and
at 540 lbs-in right of the zero point. Proceed upward balance of the helicopter.
until intercepting the 1,800-pound gross weight line. WEIGHT ARM MOMENT
The point of intercept lies inside the envelope. (LB) (IN) (LB-IN)
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21 Empty weight 1,495.0 — 151,593.0
Pilot and one passenger 350.0 64.0 —
Fuel (40 gal usable) — 96.0 —
RTC A— Over gross weight limit, but within CG limit.
3721. (Refer to Figure 44.) What action should be taken B— Within gross weight limit and at the aft CG limit.
for lateral balance if the helicopter is loaded as follows? C— Over gross weight limit and exceeds the aft CG
Gross weight.................................................... 1,800 lb limit.
Pilot........................100 lb, 13.5 in. left of “0” MOM arm
Copilot.................200 lb, 13.5 in. right of “0” MOM arm Use the following steps:
A— Add 50 pounds of weight to the pilot’s side. 1. Calculate the weight and moment using the informa-
B— Decrease the gross weight 50 pounds. tion given in the problem and the formula:
C— No action is required. Weight x Arm = Moment
Use the following steps: Note: The standard weight of gasoline is 6 lbs/U.S.
gallon.
1. Compute the left and right moments using the
formula:
Weight x Arm = Moment Pilot & Pax 350 lbs 64 22,400.0 lbs-in
Item Weight Arm Moment Fuel 40 x 6 240 lbs 96 23,040.0 lbs-in
Copilot 200 lbs 13.5 2,700 lbs-in (right) Total 2,085 lbs 197,033.0 lbs-in
Pilot 100 lbs 13.5 1,350 lbs-in (left)
Continued
Answers
3720 [C] 3721 [A] 3722 [B]

2. Determine the position of the CG using the formula: RTC

3724. (Refer to Figure 43.) What effect does adding a
Total Moment
CG = 185-pound passenger have on the CG, if prior to board-
Total Weight ing the passenger, the helicopter weighed 1,380 pounds
or: and the moment is 136,647.5 pound-inches?
197,033
CG = = 94.5 inches aft of datum A— The CG is moved forward 1.78 inches.
2,085
B— The CG is moved aft 1.78 inches.
3. Locate the point on FAA Figure 42 defined by a C— The CG is moved forward 2.36 inches.
weight of 2,085 pounds and a CG of 94.5 inches,
and find the aircraft within gross weight limit and at Use the following steps:
the aft CG limit. 1. Calculate the original position of the CG using the
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21 formula:
Total Moment
CG =
Total Weight
RTC
or:
3723. (Refer to Figure 43.) Determine if the helicopter’s
136,647.5
CG is within limits. CG = = 99.02 inches aft of datum
WEIGHT MOMENT 1,380
(LB) (lb-in) 2. Determine the revised weight and moment. The sta-
Empty weight (including oil) 1,025 102,705 tion for the passenger is 83.90 inches as shown on
Pilot and passenger 345 — the Loading Chart of FAA Figure 43. Use the following
Fuel, 35 gal — — formula:
A— Out of limits forward. Weight x Arm = Moment
B— Within limits. Item Weight Arm Moment
C— Out of limits aft. Original total 1,380 lbs 136,647.5 lbs-in
Passenger +185 lbs 83.9 15,521.5 lbs-in
Use the following steps: New Total 1,565 lbs 152,169.0 lbs-in
1. Calculate the weights and moments using the infor- 3. Calculate the new CG:
mation from the problem and the Loading Chart of
FAA Figure 43. Use the formula: 152,169
CG = = 97.23 inches aft of datum
1,565
Weight x Arm = Moment
4. Compute the change in CG:
Note: The standard weight of gasoline is 6 lbs/U.S
gallon. Original CG 99.02 inches aft of datum
minus new CG – 97.23 inches aft of datum
Movement 1.79 inches (forward)
Pilot & Pax (a) 345 lbs 83.90 28,945.5 lbs-in (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21
Fuel 35 x 6 (b) 210 lbs 107.0 22,470.0 lbs-in
RTC
2. Determine the position of the CG using the formula:
3725. How is the CG of the helicopter affected after a
Total Moment fuel burn of 20 gallons?
CG =
Total Weight Gross weight prior to fuel burn........................ 2,050 lb
or: Moment.................................................... 195,365 lb-in
154,120.5 Fuel arm............................................................ 96.9 in
1,580
A— CG shifts forward 1.0 inch.
3. Plot the point determined by a weight of 1,580 pounds B— CG shifts forward 0.1 inch.
and a moment of 154,120.5 lbs-in on the CG limit C— CG shifts aft 1.0 inch.
graph of FAA Figure 43. The point is within the forward
and aft limits.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21
Answers
3723 [B] 3724 [A] 3725 [B]

Use the following steps: 2. Determine the revised weight and moment. The
1. Calculate the original position of the CG using the auxiliary fuel burn is 19 gallons (the dotted line goes
formula: from 44 to 25). 19 x 6 = 114 lbs. The station for the
Total Moment fuel is 107 inches as shown on the Loading Chart
CG = of FAA Figure 43. Use the following formula:
Total Weight
or: Weight x Arm = Moment
195,365 Item Weight Arm Moment
2,050 Original total 1,660 lbs 159,898.5 lbs-in
2. Determine the revised weight and moment. The Fuel burn – 114 lbs 107 –12,198 lbs-in
station for the fuel is 96.9 inches as shown on the New Total 1,546 lbs 147,700.5 lbs-in
question which contradicts FAA Figure 43. Use the 3. Calculate the new CG:
following formula:
147,700.5 ÷ 1,546 = 95.54 inches aft of datum
Weight x Arm = Moment
4. Compute the change in CG:
Original total 2,050 lbs 195,365 lbs-in Original CG 96.32 inches aft of datum
Fuel burn – 120 lbs 96.9 11,628 lbs-in minus new CG – 95.54 inches aft of datum
New Total 1,930 lbs 183,737 lbs-in Movement .78 inches (forward)
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21
3. Calculate the new CG:
183,737
1,930 RTC
3728. (Refer to Figure 44.) Determine if the helicopter
4. Compute the change in CG: weight and balance is within limits.
Original CG 95.3 inches aft of datum WEIGHT ARM MOMENT
minus new CG – 95.2 inches aft of datum (LB) (IN) (100)
Movement .1 inch (forward) Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 1,515.93
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21 Oil, 8 qt — 100.5 —
Fuel, 40 gal — 96.0 —
Pilot and copilot 300.0 64.0 —
RTC
A— CG 95.2 inches, within limits.
3726. (Refer to Figure 43.) How is the CG of the helicop-
B— CG 95.3 inches, weight and CG out of limits.
ter affected when all of the auxiliary fuel is burned off?
C— CG 95.4 inches, within limits.
Gross weight prior to fuel burn........................ 1,660 lb
Moment................................................. 159,898.5 lb-in Use the following steps:
A— CG moves aft 0.12 inch. 1. Calculate the weights and moment indexes using
B— CG moves forward 0.78 inch. the information from the problem and the formula:
C— CG moves forward 1.07 inches. Weight x Arm ÷ Reduction Factor =
Moment/Index
Note: The standard weight for gasoline is 6 lbs/U.S.
1. Calculate the original position of the CG using the
gallon and for oil, 7.5 lbs/U.S. gallon.
formula:
Total Moment Item Weight Arm Moment/100
CG = Empty weight 1,495 lbs 101.4 1,515.93 lbs-in
Total Weight
or: Oil, 8 qts (2 x 7.5) 15 lbs 100.5 15.08 lbs-in
159,898.5 Fuel (40 x 6) 240 lbs 96.0 230.40 lbs-in
CG = = 96.32 inches aft of datum Pilots 300 lbs 64.0 192 lbs-in
1,660
Continued
Answers
3726 [B] 3728 [B]

2. Determine the position of the CG using the formula: 2. Determine the position of the CG using the formula:
Total Mom/Ind Total Mom/Ind
CG = x Reduction Factor CG = x Reduction Factor
Total Weight Total Weight
or: or:
1,953.41 1,863.81
x 100 = 95.29 inches aft of datum x 100 = 97.58 inches aft of datum
2,050 1,910
3. Plot the point determined by a weight of 2,050 pounds 3. Plot the point determined by a weight of 1,910 pounds
and a CG of 95.29 inches on the longitudinal CG and a CG of 97.58 inches on the longitudinal CG
envelope of FAA Figure 44. The point is outside the envelope of FAA Figure 44. The point is within the
allowable limits. allowable limits.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21
RTC RTC
3727. (Refer to Figure 44.) Calculate the weight and 3729. (Refer to Figures 45 and 46.) What is the new
balance of the helicopter, and determine if the CG is CG of the gyroplane after a 10-gallon fuel burn if the
within limits. original weight was 1,450 pounds and the MOM/1000
WEIGHT ARM MOMENT was 108 pound-inches?
(LB) (IN) (100)
A— Out of limits forward.
Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 1,515.93
B— Out of limits aft.
Oil, 8 qt — 100.5 —
C— Within limits near the forward limit.
Fuel, 40 gal — 96.0 —
Pilot 160.0 64.0 — Use the following steps:
A— CG 90.48 inches, out of limits forward. 1. Determine the change in load moment resulting from
B— CG 95.32 inches, within limits. 10 gallons of fuel burned by entering the Loading
C— CG 97.58 inches, within limits. Chart at the 10 gallon point on the fuel line, draw-
ing a line downward and reading the moment for 10
This problem uses a reduction factor so we arrive at
gallons of fuel (5.3 x 1,000 lbs-in).
moment index instead of moment.
2. Calculate the new weight and moment:
Item Weight Moment/1,000
1. Calculate the weights and moment indexes using
Original total 1,450.0 lbs 108.0 lbs-in
the information from the problem and the formula:
Fuel (10 x 6) – 60.0 lbs – 5.3 lbs-in
Weight x Arm ÷ Reduction Factor = New Total 1,390.0 lbs 102.7 lbs-in
Moment Index
3. Plot the point determined by 1,390 and 102.7 lbs-
Note: The standard weight for gasoline is 6 lbs/U.S. in/1,000 on the center of gravity moment envelope
gallon and for oil, 7.5 lbs/U.S. gallon. graph. The point is outside (to the left or forward) of
Item Weight Arm Moment/100 the center of gravity moment envelope.
Empty weight 1,495 lbs 101.4 1,515.93 lbs-in (PLT003) — FAA-H-8083-21
Oil, 8 qts (2 x 7.5) 15 lbs 100.5 15.08 lbs-in
Fuel (40 x 6) 240 lbs 96.0 230.40 lbs-in
Pilot 160 lbs 64.0 102.40 lbs-in
Answers
3727 [C] 3729 [A]

RTC RTC
3730. (Refer to Figures 45 and 46.) What is the condition 3731. (Refer to Figures 45 and 46.) Approximately how
of the weight and balance of the gyroplane as loaded? much baggage, if any, may be carried in the gyroplane,
WEIGHT MOMENT without exceeding weight and balance limits?
(LB) (1000) WEIGHT MOMENT
Empty weight 1,074 85.6 (LB) (1000)
Oil, 6 qt — 1.0 Empty weight 1,074 85.6
Pilot and passenger 247 — Oil, 6 qt — 1.0
Fuel, 12 gal — — Fuel, Full — —
Baggage 95 — Pilot (FWD) 224 —
A— Within limits. A— None, overweight.
B— Overweight. B— 70 pounds.
C— Out of limits aft. C— 100 pounds.

1. Calculate the total weight and moments using the 1. Calculate the total weight and moment using the
information in the problem and FAA Figure 46. The information in the problem and the Loading Chart.
standard weight for oil is 7.5 lbs/U.S. gallon, and for The standard weight for oil is 7.5 pounds per gallon
gasoline it is 6 lbs/U.S. gallon. and for gasoline is 6.0 pounds per gallon.
Item Weight Moment/1,000 Item Weight Moment/1,000
Empty weight 1,074 lbs 85.6 lbs-in Empty weight 1,074 lbs 85.6 lbs-in
Oil, 6 qts (1.5 X 7.5) 11.25 lbs 1.0 lbs-in Oil, 6 qts. (1.5 x 7.5) 11.25 lbs 1.0 lbs-in
Pilot and Pax (seat aft) 247 lbs 14.1 lbs-in Pilot (a) 224 lbs 12.1 lbs-in
Fuel (12 x 6) 72 lbs 6.3 lbs-in Fuel (full) (b) 119 lbs 10.2 lbs-in
Baggage 95 lbs 5.7 lbs-in Totals 1,428 lbs 108.9 lbs-in
Total 1,499 lbs 112.7 lbs-in 2. Consider adding enough baggage to approach the
2. Plot the point determined by 1,499 pounds and 112.7 maximum takeoff weight 1,500 pounds.
x 1,000 lbs-in on FAA Figure 45. The point is within 1,500 – 1,428 = 72 or about 70 pounds
the envelope (Answer A). (Answer B)
3. Now, consider the effect of pilot and passenger in (This remains within the weight limit.)
the forward position. The moment would now be 13.3 3. Determine the moment of the 70 pounds of added
x 1,000 lbs-in and the resulting total moment would baggage (4.2 x 1,000 lbs-in).
be reduced to 111.9 x 1,000 lbs-in. When plotted
on the Center of Gravity Moment Envelope Graph 4. Compute the new weight and moment.
SEAT FWD, the weight-moment is slightly outside Item Weight Moment
the envelope. Note that the manufacturer uses an Original Total 1,428 108.9
aft position in presenting sample weight and balance Baggage + 70 + 4.2
calculations for this aircraft. New Total 1,498 113.1
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21 5. Plot the point determined by 1,498 lbs and 113.1 x
1,000 lbs-in on the Center of Gravity Moment Enve-
lope Graph of FAA Figure 45. The point is within the
envelope.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-21
Answers
3730 [A] 3731 [B]

GLI GLI
3861. (Refer to Figure 54.) Calculate the weight and 3862. (Refer to Figure 54.) How is the CG affected if
balance of the glider, and determine if the CG is within radio and oxygen equipment weighing 35 pounds is
limits. added at station 43.8? The glider weighs 945 pounds
Pilot (fwd seat).................................................... 160 lb with a moment of 78,000.2 pound-inches prior to add-
Passenger (aft seat)........................................... 185 lb ing the equipment.
A— CG 71.65 inches aft of datum–out of limits forward. A— CG shifts forward 0.79 inch – out of limits forward.
B— CG 79.67 inches aft of datum – within limits. B— CG shifts forward 1.38 inches – within limits.
C— CG 83.43 inches aft of datum – within limits. C— CG shifts aft 1.38 inches – out of limits aft.

1. Calculate the total weight and moment using the 1. Calculate the weight and moment of the equipment
information in the question and in FAA Figure 54, to be added using the formula:
and the formula: Weight x Arm = Moment
Weight x Arm = Moment Item Weight Arm Moment
Item Weight Arm Moment Added equip. 35 lbs 43.8 1,533.0 lbs-in
Empty weight 610 96.47 58,846.7 lbs-in 2. Calculate the new total weight and moment.
Pilot (fwd seat) 160 43.80 7,008.0 lbs-in Item Weight Moment
Passenger (aft seat) 185 74.70 13,819.5 lbs-in Old 945 78,000.2 lbs-in
Totals 955 79,674.2 lbs-in Added 35 1,533.0 lbs-in
2. Calculate the position of the CG using the formula: New Total 980 79,533.2 lbs-in
Total Moment 3. Calculate the old and new positions of the center of
CG =
Total Weight gravity using the formula:
or: Total Moment
CG =
79,674.2 Total Weight
955 Original CG =
3. Compare the calculated value to the allowed range 78,000.2
= 82.54 inches aft of datum
for the position of the CG, 78.20 to 86.10. The cal- 945
culated position is within the allowed range of both 79,533.2
maximum weight and CG. New CG = = 81.16 inches aft of datum
980
(PLT021) — Soaring Flight Manual
4. Compute change and direction of change of the CG.
Original CG 82.54
New CG – 81.16
1.38 inches closer to datum
(forward)
5. Compare the calculated values of weight and CG
position to the allowed range shown in FAA Figure
54. The allowed CG range is 78.20 to 86.10 and the
calculated value is within these limits.
Answers
3861 [C] 3862 [B]

GLI LTA
3863. (Refer to Figure 54.) What is the CG of the glider 3888. (Refer to Figure 57.) The gross weight of the bal-
if the pilot and passenger each weigh 215 pounds? loon is 1,350 pounds and the outside air temperature
A— 74.69 inches aft of datum – out of limits forward. (OAT) is +51°F. The maximum height would be
B— 81.08 inches aft of datum – within limits. A— 5,000 feet.
C— 81.08 inches aft of datum – over maximum gross B— 8,000 feet.
weight. C— 10,000 feet.

1. Calculate the total weight and moment using the 1. Locate the gross weight, 1,350 pounds, on the bot-
information in the question and in FAA Figure 54, tom of the graph in FAA Figure 57.
and the formula: 2. From that point, draw a line upward through the graph.
Weight x Arm = Moment 3. Locate the OAT +51°F on the left side of the graph.
4. From that point, draw a line to the right through the
Empty weight 610 96.47 58,846.7 lbs-in graph.
Pilot (fwd seat) 215 43.80 9,417.0 lbs-in
Passenger (aft seat) 215 74.70 16,060.5 lbs-in 5. Note the point of intersection of the two lines, which
Totals 1,040 84,324.2 lbs-in in this case falls on the 10,000-foot curve.
2. Calculate the position of the CG using the formula: (PLT057) — FAA-H-8083-11
Total Moment
CG =
Total Weight LTA
or: 3889. (Refer to Figure 57.) The gross weight of the bal-
84,324.2 loon is 1,200 pounds and the maximum height the pilot
CG = = 81.08 inches aft of datum needs to attain is 5,000 feet. The maximum temperature
1,040
to achieve this performance is
3. Compare the calculated value to the allowed range
for the position of the CG, 78.20 to 86.10. The cal- A— +37°F.
culated position is within the allowed range of both B— +70°F.
maximum weight and CG. C— +97°F.
(PLT021) — Soaring Flight Manual Use the following steps:
1. Locate the gross weight, 1,200 pounds, on the bot-
LTA, LSL tom of the graph in FAA Figure 57.
3887. What constitutes the payload of a balloon? 2. From that point, draw a line upward to the 5,000-foot
A— Total gross weight. pressure altitude line.
B— Total weight of passengers, cargo, and fuel. 3. From there, draw a line to the left to the air tempera-
C— Weight of the aircraft and equipment. ture scale and read the maximum temperature, 100°F.
Payload is the total weight of passengers, cargo, and fuel (PLT057) — FAA-H-8083-11
an aircraft can legally carry on a given flight, excluding
weight of the aircraft and equipment. (PLT177) — Bal-
loon Ground School
Answers
3863 [B] 3887 [B] 3888 [C] 3889 [C]

LTA 3. Calculate the weight of 20 gallons of propane:

3890. (Refer to Figure 58.) Determine the maximum
20 x 4.23 = 85 pounds
payload for a balloon flying at 2,500 feet at an ambient
temperature of 91°F. 4. Compute the available lift:
A— 420 pounds. Item Weight
B— 465 pounds. Gross weight 1,040 lbs
C— 505 pounds. Empty weight -335 lbs
Fuel weight -85 lbs
Payload is the total weight of passengers, cargo and fuel
Pilot and passengers 620 lbs
an aircraft can legally carry on a given flight, excluding
weight of the aircraft and equipment. Using FAA Figure (PLT057) — Balloon Ground School
58, perform the following steps:
1. Enter the chart at an ambient temperature of 91°F. LTA
From that point, proceed upward to the 2,500-foot 3894. (Refer to Figure 58.) What is the maximum weight
pressure altitude point (halfway between sea level allowed for pilot and passengers for a flight at 5,000 feet
and 5,000 feet). with a standard temperature? Launch with 20 gallons
2. From the point of intersection, proceed to the left of propane.
to determine the gross weight for 2,500 feet (840 A— 670 pounds.
pounds). B— 760 pounds.
3. Note that the empty weight is 335 pounds. Compute C— 1,095 pounds.
the payload using the formula:
Use FAA Figure 58, and the following steps:
Payload = Gross Weight – Empty Weight
Payload = 840 lbs – 335 lbs (The standard weight of propane is 4.23 pounds per
Payload = 505 lbs gallon.)
(PLT057) — Balloon Ground School 1. Enter the chart where 5,000 feet and the standard
temperature line intersect.
2. From that point, draw a line to the left and read the
LTA
gross weight as 1,090 pounds.
3893. (Refer to Figure 58.) Determine the maximum
weight allowable for pilot and passenger for a flight at 3. Calculate the weight of 20 gallons of propane:
approximately 1,000 feet with a temperature of 68°F. 20 x 4.23 = 85 pounds
Launch with 20 gallons of propane. 4. Compute the available lift:
A— 580 pounds. Item Weight
B— 620 pounds.
C— 720 pounds. Gross weight 1,090 lbs
Empty weight -335 lbs
Use FAA Figure 58, and the following steps: Fuel weight -85 lbs
(The standard weight of propane is 4.23 pounds per Pilot and passengers 670 lbs
gallon.) (PLT057) — Balloon Ground School
1. Enter the chart at the 68°F ambient temperature
value. Move upward to a point about 1/5 of the dis-
tance between the sea level and 5,000-foot pressure
altitude curves.
2. From that point, draw a line to the left and read the
gross weight as 1,040 pounds.
Answers
3890 [C] 3893 [B] 3894 [A]

SPO SPO
2174. Problems caused by overloading an aircraft include 2183. When operating an aircraft, the pilot-in-command
A— reduced climb rate, excessive structural loads, is responsible for using
and shortened cruising range. A— the most current weight and balance data.
B— increased service ceiling, increased angle of B— weight and balance data from the factory.
climb, and increased cruising speed. C— recent weight and balance data.
C— slower takeoff speed, increased maneuverability,
and shorter takeoff roll. It is the responsibility of the pilot in command to use the
most current weight and balance data when planning
Some of the problems caused by overloading an aircraft a flight and operating the aircraft. (PLT328) — FAA-H-
are: 8083‑1
• The aircraft will need a higher takeoff speed, which
results in a longer takeoff run.
LSA, LSR
• Both the rate and angle of climb will be reduced. 2350. (Refer to Center-of Gravity Envelope and Loading
• The service ceiling will be lowered. Graph figure on the next page.) GIVEN:
• The cruising speed will be reduced. Weight Moment
Gyroplane basic weight 1,315 150.1
• The cruising range will be shortened. (oil included)
• Maneuverability will be decreased. Pilot weight 140 ?
• A longer landing roll will be required because the Passenger weight 150 ?
landing speed will be higher. 27 gal fuel 162 ?
• Excessive loads will be imposed on the structure, The CG is located
especially the landing gear. A— outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross
(PLT313) — FAA-H-8083-1 weight is exceeded.
B— outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross
weight and the gross-weight moment are
SPO exceeded.
2182. Most aircraft are so designed that if all seats are C— within the CG envelope; neither maximum gross
occupied, all baggage allowed by the baggage compart- weight nor gross-weight moment is exceeded.
ment structure is carried, and all the fuel tanks are full,
the aircraft will be Total the weights and moments to determine if the CG
is within limits.
A— grossly overloaded.
B— under maximum gross weight. Item Weight Moment
C— at maximum gross weight. Gyroplane 1,315 150.1
Pilot 140 7.2
The maximum allowable gross weight for an aircraft Passenger 150 12.6
is determined by design considerations. However, the 27 gallons gas + 162 + 17.8
maximum operational weight may be less than the Total 1,767 187.7
maximum allowable due to such considerations as high These figures fall within permitted weight and CG.
density altitude or high-drag field conditions caused by (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
wet grass or water on the runway. The maximum gross
weight may also be limited by the departure or arrival
airport’s runway length. One important preflight con-
sideration is the distribution of the load in the aircraft.
Loading an aircraft so the gross weight is less than the
maximum allowable is not enough. This weight must be
distributed to keep the CG within the limits specified in
the POH or AFM. (PLT313) — FAA-H-8083-1
Answers
2174 [A] 2182 [A] 2183 [A] 2350 [C]

LSA, LSR Total the weights and moments to determine if the CG

2351. (Refer to Center-of Gravity Envelope and Loading is within limits.
Graph figure on the next page.) GIVEN:
Item Weight Moment
Weight Moment Gyroplane 1,315 154.0
Gyroplane basic weight 1,315 154.0 Pilot 145 7.4
(oil included) Passenger 153 12.8
Pilot weight 145 ? 27 gallons gas + 162 + 17.6
Passenger weight 153 ? Total 1,775 191.8
27 gal fuel 162 ?
These figures fall outside the permitted weight and CG.
The CG is located (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
A— outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross
weight is exceeded.
B— outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross
weight and the gross-weight moment are
exceeded.
C— within the CG envelope; neither maximum gross
weight nor gross-weight moment is exceeded.
Density Altitude and Aircraft Performance

Aircraft performance charts show a pilot what can be expected of an airplane (rate of climb, takeoff roll,
etc.) under stipulated conditions. Prediction of performance is based upon a sea level temperature of
+15°C (+59°F) and atmospheric pressure of 29.92" Hg (1013.2 mb). This combination of temperature
and pressure is called a “standard day.” When the air is at a “standard density,” temperature and/or pres-
sure deviations from standard will change the air density, or the density altitude, which affects aircraft
performance. Performance charts allow the pilot to predict how an aircraft will perform.
Relative humidity also affects density altitude, but is not considered when the performance charts
are formulated. A combination of high temperature, high humidity, and high altitude result in a density
altitude higher than the pressure altitude which, in turn, results in reduced aircraft performance.
Problem:
Using the Density Altitude Chart shown in FAA Figure 8, and the following conditions, determine the
density altitude.
Conditions:
Altimeter Setting ......................................... 30.35
Airport Temperature.....................................+25°F
Airport Elevation .................................. 3,894 feet
Solution:
1. Determine the applicable altitude correction for the altimeter setting of 30.35" Hg. See FAA Figure
8. That setting is not shown on the chart, so it is necessary to interpolate between the correction
factors shown for 30.30" Hg and 30.40" Hg. To interpolate, add the two factors and divide by 2:
-348 + (-440) = -788
-788 ÷ 2 = -394
Answers
2351 [B]

Since the result is a negative number, subtract that value from the given airport elevation:
3,894 feet
– 394 feet
3,500 feet
2. Along the bottom of the chart, locate the given OAT (+25°F). From that point, proceed upward until
intersecting the pressure altitude line that is equal to the corrected airport elevation (3,500 feet).
From that point, proceed to the left and read the density altitude (2,000 feet).
Note that high-density altitude reduces propeller efficiency as well as overall aircraft performance.
ALL, SPO 5. Add the correction factor to the airport elevation to

3289. If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given find pressure altitude:
altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is
5,250
A— equal to pressure altitude. + 626
B— lower than pressure altitude. 5,876 feet MSL (pressure altitude)
C— higher than pressure altitude.
6. Determine the density altitude by entering the chart
If the temperature is above standard, the density altitude at +81°F; move upward to the 5,876 pressure altitude
will be higher than pressure altitude. (PLT124) — FAA- line; from the point of intersection, move to the left
H-8083-25 and read a density altitude of 8,500 feet.
(PLT005) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL
3294. (Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the density altitude ALL
for these conditions: 3295. (Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the pressure alti-
Altimeter setting................................................... 29.25 tude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter
Runway temperature.......................................... +81°F setting of 29.96.
Airport elevation.......................................5,250 ft MSL A— 3,527 feet MSL.
A— 4,600 feet MSL. B— 3,556 feet MSL.
B— 5,877 feet MSL. C— 3,639 feet MSL.
C— 8,500 feet MSL.
Referencing FAA Figure 8, use the following steps:
Referencing FAA Figure 8, use the following steps: 1. Since the altimeter setting that is given is not shown
1. Since the altimeter setting that is given is not shown in FAA Figure 8, interpolation is necessary. Locate
in FAA Figure 8, interpolation is necessary. Locate the settings immediately above and below the given
the settings immediately above and below the given value of 29.96" Hg:
value of 29.25" Hg: Altimeter Setting Conversion Factor
Altimeter Setting Conversion Factor 29.92 0 feet
29.20 673 feet 30.00 -73 feet
29.30 579 feet
2. Determine the difference between the two conversion
2. Determine the difference between the two conversion factors:
factors: 0 – 73 = -73 feet
673 – 579 = 94 feet The setting 29.96 is halfway between the two
3. Determine the amount of difference to be added to values, so:
the 29.30" Hg conversion factor: -73 ÷ 2 = -36.5 feet
94 x .5 = 47 feet 3. Determine the amount of difference to be subtracted
4. Add the amount of difference to the amount shown from the 30.00" Hg conversion factor.
for the 29.30" Hg conversion factor: Continued
579 + 47 = 626 feet
Answers
3289 [C] 3294 [C] 3295 [A]

4. Subtract the correction factor from the airport eleva- ALL

tion to find pressure altitude: 3299. (Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a tem-
perature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on
3,563.0
the density altitude from 90°F and 1,250 feet pressure
– 36.5
altitude to 55°F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?
3,526.5 feet MSL (pressure altitude)
A— 1,700-foot increase.
(PLT019) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— 1,300-foot decrease.
C— 1,700-foot decrease.
ALL
3298. (Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the density altitude
for these conditions: 1. Determine the density altitude when the temperature
is +90°F and the pressure altitude is 1,250 feet. Enter
Altimeter setting................................................... 30.35
the density altitude chart at +90°F and proceed
Runway temperature.......................................... +25°F
upward to the 1,250-foot pressure altitude line. From
Airport elevation.......................................3,894 ft MSL
the point of intersection move to the left edge of the
A— 2,000 feet MSL. chart and read a density altitude of 3,600 feet.
B— 2,900 feet MSL.
2. Determine the density altitude when the temperature
is +55°F and the pressure altitude is 1,750 feet. Enter
the density altitude chart at +55°F and proceed
1. Since the altimeter setting that is given is not shown the point of intersection move to the left edge of the
in FAA Figure 8, interpolation is necessary. Locate chart. Read a density altitude of 1,900 feet.
the settings immediately above and below the given
3. Determine the change in density altitude:
value of 30.35" Hg:
3,600 – 1,900 = 1,700 foot (decrease)
Altimeter Setting Conversion Factor
30.30 -348 feet (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-25
30.40 -440 feet
2. Determine the difference between the two factors: ALL, SPO
3386. What are the standard temperature and pressure
-440 + 348 = -92 feet
values for sea level?
3. Determine amount of difference to be added to the
A— 15°C and 29.92" Hg.
30.30" Hg conversion factor:
B— 59°C and 1013.2 millibars.
-92.0 x .5 = -46.0 feet C— 59°F and 29.92 millibars.
4. Add the amount of difference to the amount shown
for the 30.30" Hg conversion factor: Standard sea level pressure is 29.92 inches of mercury.
Standard sea level temperature is 15°C. (PLT345) —
-348 + (-46) = -394 feet FAA-H-8083-25
5. Subtract the correction factor from the airport eleva-
tion to find pressure altitude:
3,894 ALL, SPO
– 394 3394. Which factor would tend to increase the density
3,500 feet MSL (pressure altitude) altitude at a given airport?
A— An increase in barometric pressure.
6. Determine the density altitude by entering the chart B— An increase in ambient temperature.
at +25°F; proceed upward to the 3,500-foot pressure C— A decrease in relative humidity.
altitude line; from the point of intersection move to
the left edge of the chart and read a density altitude On a hot day, the air becomes “thinner” or lighter, and
of 2,000 feet. its density is equivalent to a higher altitude in the stan-
(PLT019) — FAA-H-8083-25 dard atmosphere, thus the term “high density altitude.”
(PLT206) — AC 00-6A
Answer (A) is incorrect because an increase in barometric pressure
would decrease density altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because a
decrease in relative humidity would decrease density altitude.
Answers
3298 [A] 3299 [C] 3386 [A] 3394 [B]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC, SPO AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC

3290. Which combination of atmospheric conditions will 3293. (Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the pressure alti-
reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance? tude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with
A— Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature.
density altitude. A— 2,991 feet MSL.
B— High temperature, low relative humidity, and low B— 2,913 feet MSL.
density altitude. C— 3,010 feet MSL.
C— High temperature, high relative humidity, and high
density altitude. Referencing FAA Figure 8, use the following steps:
1. Since the altimeter setting that is given is not shown
An increase in air temperature or humidity, or a decrease in FAA Figure 8, interpolation is necessary. Locate
in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude), the settings immediately above and below the given
will significantly decrease both power output and propel- value of 28.22" Hg:
ler efficiency. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
Altimeter Setting Conversion Factor
Answer (A) is incorrect because all of these conditions improve
performance. Answer (B) is incorrect because low humidity and low 28.2 1,630 feet
density altitude improve performance. 28.3 1,533 feet
2. Determine the difference in the two conversion
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC, SPO factors:
3291. What effect does high density altitude have on
1,630 – 1,533 = 97 feet
aircraft performance?
3. Determine the amount of the difference to be sub-
A— It increases engine performance. tracted from the 28.20" Hg conversion factor (2/10
B— It reduces climb performance. of 97).
C— It increases takeoff performance.
97.0 x .2 = 19.4
An increase in air temperature or humidity, or a decrease 4. Subtract the amount of difference from the amount
in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude), shown for the 28.20" Hg conversion factor:
will significantly decrease both power output and propel-
ler efficiency. (PLT127) — FAA-H-8083-25 1,630.0 – 19.4 = 1,610.6
5. Add the correction factor to the indicated altitude to
find the pressure altitude:
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
1,610.6
3292. (Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a tem-
+ 1,380.0
perature increase from 25 to 50°F on the density altitude
if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet? 2,990.6 feet MSL (pressure altitude)
A— 1,200-foot increase. (PLT019) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— 1,400-foot increase.
C— 1,650-foot increase.

1. Enter the density altitude chart at 25°F. Proceed
upward to intersect the 5,000-foot pressure altitude
line. From the point of intersection, move left to the
edge of the chart and read a density altitude of 3,850
feet.
the point of intersection, move left to the edge of the
chart and read a density altitude of 5,500 feet.
3. Determine the change in density altitude:
5,500 – 3,850 = 1,650 feet (increase)
(PLT005) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3290 [C] 3291 [B] 3292 [C] 3293 [A]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC, SPO

3296. (Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a tem- 3297. (Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the pressure alti-
perature increase from 35 to 50°F on the density altitude tude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter
if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL? setting of 29.97.
A— 1,000-foot increase. A— 1,341 feet MSL.
B— 1,100-foot decrease. B— 1,451 feet MSL.
C— 1,300-foot increase. C— 1,562 feet MSL.
Referencing FAA Figure 8, use the following steps: Referencing FAA Figure 8, use the following steps:
1. Enter the density altitude chart at 35°F. Proceed 1. Since the altimeter setting that is given is not shown
upward to the 3,000-foot pressure altitude line. From in FAA Figure 8, interpolation is necessary. Locate
the point of intersection, move left to the edge of the the settings immediately above and below the given
chart and read a density altitude of 2,000 feet. value of 29.97" Hg:
2. Enter the density altitude chart at 50°F. Proceed Altimeter Setting Conversion Factor
upward to the 3,000-foot pressure altitude line. From 29.92 0 feet
the point of intersection, move left to the edge of the 30.00 -73 feet
2. Determine the difference between the two conversion
3. Find the difference between the two values: 2,950 −
factors:
2,000 = 950 foot (increase).
0 – 73 = -73 feet
(PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. Determine the amount of the difference to be sub-
tracted from the 29.92" Hg conversion factor:
SPO
(-73 ÷ 8) x 5 = -45.6 or 46 feet
2356. (Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a tem-
perature increase from 30 to 50°F on the density altitude 4. Subtract the conversion factor from the airport eleva-
if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL? tion to determine the pressure altitude:
A— 900-foot increase. 1,386
B— 1,100-foot decrease. – 46
C— 1,300-foot increase. 1,340 feet MSL (pressure altitude)
(PLT019) — FAA-H-8083-25
upward to the 3,000-foot pressure altitude line. From AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC, SPO
the point of intersection, move left to the edge of the 3300. What effect, if any, does high humidity have on
chart and read a density altitude of 1,650 feet. aircraft performance?
2. Enter the density altitude chart at 50°F. Proceed A— It increases performance.
upward to the 3,000-foot pressure altitude line. From B— It decreases performance.
the point of intersection, move left to the edge of the C— It has no effect on performance.
An increase in air temperature or humidity, or a decrease
3. Find the difference between the two values: 2,950 – in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude)
1,650 = 1,300 foot (increase) will significantly decrease both power output and propel-
(PLT005) — FAA-H-8083-25 ler efficiency. If an air mass is humid, there is more water
in it, therefore, less oxygen. (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3296 [A] 2356 [C] 3297 [A] 3300 [B]

AIR, LTA, WSC, PPC, SPO LTA

3246. What effect does high density altitude, as com- 3891. (Refer to Figure 58.) What is the maximum altitude
pared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency for the balloon if the gross weight is 1,100 pounds and
and why? standard temperature exists at all altitudes?
A— Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the A— 1,000 feet.
propeller blades. B— 4,000 feet.
B— Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts C— 5,500 feet.
less force at high density altitudes than at low
density altitudes. Use FAA Figure 58, and the following steps:
C— Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force 1. Enter the graph at the 1,100-pound gross weight point
of the propeller in the thinner air. and proceed to the right to intercept the standard
temperature curve.
The propeller produces thrust in proportion to the mass
of air being accelerated through the rotating blades. If 2. Note that the intercept is between sea level and
the air is less dense, propeller efficiency is decreased. the 5,000-foot limit lines, and is much closer to the
(PLT351) — FAA-H-8083-25 5,000-foot line (4,000 feet).
(PLT057) — FAA-H-8083-11
RTC, LSR
3702. (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total takeoff LTA
distance required for a gyroplane to clear a 50-foot 3892. (Refer to Figure 58.) What is the maximum altitude
obstacle if the temperature is 95°F and the pressure for the balloon if the gross weight is 1,000 pounds and
altitude is 1,700 feet. standard temperature exists at all altitudes?
A— 1,825 feet. A— 4,000 feet.
B— 1,910 feet. B— 5,500 feet.
C— 2,030 feet. C— 11,000 feet.
Use the following steps: Use FAA Figure 58, and the following steps:
1. Locate the 1,700-foot pressure altitude on the Take- 1. Enter the graph at the 1,000-pound gross weight point
Off Distance Graph (right). and proceed to the right to intercept the standard
2. Draw a horizontal line from the 1,700-foot position temperature curve.
to the 95°F OAT point. 2. Note that the intercept is just over 10,000 feet (11,000
3. Draw a vertical line downward from the point of inter- feet).
section to the total Take-Off Distance Scale. Note the (PLT057) — FAA-H-8083-11
distance 2,030 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
SPO
2067. Density altitude, and its effect on landing perfor-
mance, is defined by
A— pressure altitude and ambient temperature.
B— headwind and landing weight.
C— humidity and braking friction forces.
The effect of pressure altitude and ambient temperature

is to define density altitude and its effect on landing
performance. (PLT127) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3246 [B] 3702 [C] 2067 [A] 3891 [B] 3892 [C]

Takeoff Distance
The Takeoff Distance Graph, FAA Figure 41, allows the pilot to determine the ground roll required for
takeoff under various conditions. It also shows the total distance required for a takeoff and climb to clear
a 50-foot obstacle.
Problem:
Using the Takeoff Distance Graph shown in FAA Figure 41, determine the approximate ground roll
distance for takeoff and the total distance for a takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle under the following
conditions:
Outside air temperature (OAT)......................90°F
Pressure altitude................................... 2,000 feet
Takeoff weight.........................................2,500 lbs
Headwind component..............................20 knots
Solution:
1. Locate the OAT, 90°F, on the graph.
2. From that point, draw a line upward to the line representing the pressure altitude of 2,000 feet.
3. From the point of intersection, draw a line to the right to the reference line.
4. From that point, proceed downward and to the right (remaining proportionally between the existing
guide lines) to the vertical line representing 2,500 pounds.
5. From there, draw a line to the right to the second reference line.
6. Then proceed down and to the right (remaining proportionally between the existing guide lines) to
the line representing the 20-knot headwind component line.
7. From there, draw a line to the right to the third reference line.
8. From here, move to the right and read approximate ground roll for takeoff of 650 feet.
9. Proceed upward and to the right (remaining proportionately between the existing guide lines) to the
vertical line representing a 50-foot obstacle and read the approximate total distance to clear a 50-foot
obstacle (1,100 feet).

AIR Use the following steps:

3705. (Refer to Figure 41.) Determine the total distance
1. Locate the OAT, 59°F, on FAA Figure 41.
required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
2. From that point, draw a line upward to the line rep-
OAT..........................................................................Std
resenting the pressure altitude, 0 feet (SL).
Pressure altitude............................................... 4,000 ft
Takeoff weight.................................................. 2,800 lb 3. From that point, draw a line to the right to the first
Headwind component...........................................Calm reference line.
A— 1,500 feet. 4. From there, proceed downward and to the right
B— 1,750 feet. (remaining proportionally between the existing lines)
C— 2,000 feet. to the vertical line representing 2,700 pounds.
5. Then draw a line to the right to the second reference
Use the following steps: line.
1. Locate the ISA curve on FAA Figure 41. 6. In this case, the reference line is also the vertical
2. Note the intersection of the ISA curve with the pres- line representing the 0-knot wind component.
sure altitude, 4,000 feet. 7. From that point, continue a horizontal line to the third
3. From that point, draw a line to the right to the first vertical reference line.
reference line. 8. Finally, proceed upward and to the right (remaining
4. From there, proceed downward and to the right proportionally between the existing lines) to the verti-
(remaining proportionally between the existing lines) cal line representing the obstacle height, 50 feet and
to the vertical line representing 2,800 pounds. read the distance (approximately 1,400 feet).
5. Then proceed to the right to the second reference (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
line.
6. In this case the reference line is also the vertical line AIR
representing the 0 MPH wind component. 3707. (Refer to Figure 41.) Determine the approximate
7. From that point, continue to the right to the third ground roll distance required for takeoff.
vertical reference line. OAT......................................................................100°F
8. From there, proceed upward and to the right (remain- Pressure altitude............................................... 2,000 ft
ing proportionally between the existing lines) to the Takeoff weight.................................................. 2,750 lb
vertical line representing the obstacle height, 50 feet. Headwind component...........................................Calm
9. Read the distance (approximately 1,750 feet). A— 1,150 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— 1,300 feet.
C— 1,800 feet.

3706. (Refer to Figure 41.) Determine the total distance 1. Locate the OAT, 100°F, on FAA Figure 41.
required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT..........................................................................Std resenting the pressure altitude, 2,000 feet.
Pressure altitude.............................................Sea level
3. From that point, draw a line to the right to the first
Takeoff weight.................................................. 2,700 lb
reference line.
Headwind component...........................................Calm
4. From there, proceed downward and to the right
A— 1,000 feet.
(remaining proportionally between the existing lines)
B— 1,400 feet.
to the vertical line representing 2,750 pounds.
C— 1,700 feet.
Continued
Answers
3705 [B] 3706 [B] 3707 [A]

5. Then draw a line to the right to the second reference RTC

line. 3703. (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total takeoff
distance required for a gyroplane to clear a 50-foot
6. In this case, the reference line is also the vertical
obstacle if the temperature is standard at sea level
line representing the 0-knot wind component.
pressure altitude.
7. Then draw a horizontal line to the third vertical refer-
A— 950 feet.
ence line.
B— 1,090 feet.
8. In this case, the reference line is also the vertical C— 1,200 feet.
line representing the obstacle height, 0 feet.
9. From that point, draw a horizontal line to the right 1. On the sea level line of FAA Figure 40 locate the
and read the distance (approximately 1,150 feet). intersection of the +59°F point.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 2. Read takeoff distance of 1,200 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
AIR
3708. (Refer to Figure 41.) Determine the approximate RTC
ground roll distance required for takeoff. 3704. (Refer to Figure 40.) Approximately how much
OAT........................................................................95°F additional takeoff distance will be required for a gyro-
Pressure altitude............................................... 2,000 ft plane to clear a 50-foot obstacle if the temperature
Takeoff weight.................................................. 2,500 lb increases from 75 to 90°F at a pressure altitude of
Headwind component..........................................20 kts 2,300 feet?
A— 650 feet. A— 160 feet.
B— 850 feet. B— 200 feet.
C— 1,000 feet. C— 2,020 feet.

1. Locate the OAT, 95°F, on FAA Figure 41. 1. Locate the 2,300-foot pressure altitude on FAA Figure
40.
resenting the pressure altitude of 2,000 feet. 2. Draw a horizontal line from the 2,300-foot position
to the 75°F and the 90°F OAT points.
3. Form the point of intersection, draw a line to the right
to the reference line and stop. 3. From these points, draw vertical lines downward to
the takeoff distance scale and note the distances
4. From that point, proceed downward and to the right (2,025 and 2,185, respectively).
(remaining proportionally between the existing guide
lines) to the vertical line representing 2,500 pounds. 4. The difference is the increase in takeoff distance.
5. From there, draw a line to the right to the second 2,185 – 2,025 = 160 feet
reference line. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
6. Then proceed down and to the right (remaining pro-
portionally between the existing guide lines) to the
line representing the 20-knot headwind component
line.
7. From that point, draw a line to the right to the third
reference line.
8. From there, move to the right and read an approxi-
mate ground roll for takeoff (650 feet).
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3708 [A] 3703 [C] 3704 [A]

SPO SPO
2199. What effect does an uphill runway slope have on 2234. The most critical conditions of takeoff performance
takeoff performance? are the result of some combination of high gross weight,
A— Increases takeoff speed. altitude, temperature, and
B— Increases takeoff distance. A— unfavorable wind.
C— Decreases takeoff distance. B— obstacles surrounding the runway.
C— powerplant systems.
The effect of runway slope on takeoff distance is due
to the component of weight along the inclined path of The most critical conditions for takeoff performance are
the aircraft. An upslope would contribute a retarding the result of some combination of high gross weight,
force component, while a downslope would contribute altitude, temperature, and unfavorable wind. In all cases,
an accelerating force component. In the case of an the pilot must make an accurate prediction of takeoff
upslope, the retarding force component adds to drag distance from the performance data of the AFM or
and rolling friction to reduce the net accelerating force. POH, regardless of the runway available, and strive for
(PLT129) — FAA-H-8083-25 a polished, professional takeoff procedure. (PLT134)
Answer (A) is incorrect because runway slope has no effect on — FAA-H-8083-25
the takeoff speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because an upslope will
increase the takeoff distance required.
RTC
3732. (Refer to Figure 47.) What is the best rate-of-climb
LSA, LSG, LSR, LSW, LSP speed for the helicopter?
2283. The most critical conditions of takeoff performance
are the result of some combination of high gross weight, A— 24 MPH.
altitude, temperature, and B— 40 MPH.
C— 57 MPH.
A— unfavorable wind.
B— obstacles surrounding the runway. Use the following steps:
C— powerplant systems.
1. Locate the recommended takeoff profile on FAA
The most critical conditions of takeoff performance are Figure 47.
the result of some combination of high gross weight, 2. Note that the best rate-of-climb speed at sea level is
altitude, temperature, and unfavorable wind. In all cases, designated by the arrow pointing to the vertical line.
the pilot must make an accurate prediction of takeoff 3. Interpret the diagram. The vertical line is most closely
distance from the performance data of the AFM/POH, aligned with an IAS of about 57 MPH.
regardless of the runway available, and strive for a
polished, professional takeoff procedure. (PLT134) — (PLT285) — FAA-H-8083-21
FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
2199 [B] 2283 [A] 2234 [A] 3732 [C]

Cruise Power Setting Table

The Cruise Power Setting Table (FAA Figure 36) may be used to forecast fuel flow and true airspeed
and, therefore allow a pilot to determine the amount of fuel required and the estimated time en route.
Problem:
Using the Cruise Power Setting Table shown in FAA Figure 36, determine the expected fuel consumption
for a 1,000-statute-mile flight under the following conditions:
Temperature................................................ -19°C
Manifold pressure................................... 19.5" Hg
Wind............................................................. Calm
Solution:
1. Find the fuel flow and TAS. Enter the chart at the 8,000-foot pressure altitude line and proceed to the
right and identify the chart which represents an indicated outside air temperature (IOAT) of -19°C at
8,000 feet (the chart for ISA -20°C). Continue reading to the right, noting the manifold pressure of
19.5" Hg, the fuel flow per engine will be 6.6 pounds per square inch or 11.5 gallons per hour (GPH),
and the TAS will be 157 knots or 181 miles per hour (MPH).
2. Calculate the time flown. Using a flight computer, calculate the time en route:
1,000 SM at 181 MPH = 5.52 hours
3. Calculate the fuel consumption. Using a flight computer, calculate the fuel burned in this time:
5.52 hours × 11.5 GPH = 63.48 gallons consumed
AIR 4. Interpolate between the values for 8,000 feet and

3678. (Refer to Figure 36.) Approximately what true 10,000 feet to determine a TAS for 9,500 feet.
airspeed should a pilot expect with 65 percent maximum
a. 184 MPH (10,000 feet)
continuous power at 9,500 feet with a temperature of
– 181 MPH (8,000 feet)
36°F below standard?
3 MPH difference in speed
A— 178 MPH.
B— 181 MPH. b. 10,000 feet 10,000 feet
C— 183 MPH. – 8,000 feet – 9,500 feet
2,000 feet difference 500 feet difference
Use the following steps: c. .25 x 3 MPH = .75 MPH
1. Locate -36°F (ISA -20°C) on FAA Figure 36. Notice d. 184.00 MPH
that the stated altitude of 9,500 feet does not appear – .75 MPH
on the chart so it is necessary to interpolate.
183.25 MPH or 183 MPH
2. Read across the 8,000-foot pressure altitude line
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
and determine the TAS (181 MPH).
and determine the TAS (184 MPH).
Answers
3678 [C]


3679. (Refer to Figure 36.) What is the expected fuel
1. Locate the pressure altitude of 4,000 feet on FAA
consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the
Figure 36. Read to the right and identify the chart
following conditions?
which presents an indicated outside temperature of
Pressure altitude............................................... 8,000 ft +29°C at 4,000 feet (in this case, the chart for ISA
Temperature......................................................... 22°C +20°C).
Manifold pressure........................................... 20.8" Hg
2. On this chart, read across the 4,000-foot line, +29°C,
Wind.....................................................................Calm
21.3" Hg manifold pressure line. The fuel flow is 11.5
A— 60.2 gallons. GPH and the TAS is 159 knots.
B— 70.1 gallons.
3. Using a flight computer, calculate the time en route:
C— 73.2 gallons.
Distance is 500 NM
Use the following steps: TAS is 159 knots, with no wind
1. Locate the pressure altitude of 8,000 feet on FAA Therefore, the time en route is 3 hours, 9 minutes.
Figure 36. Read to the right and identify the chart 4. Using a flight computer, calculate the fuel consump-
which presents an indicated outside temperature of tion:
22°C at 8,000 feet (the chart for ISA +20°C).
Time en route is 3 hours, 9 minutes
2. On this chart, read across the 8,000-foot line, 22°C, Fuel burn is 11.5 GPH
20.8" Hg manifold pressure line. The fuel flow is 11.5
GPH and the TAS is 164 knots. Therefore, the fuel consumption is 36.2 gallons.
3. Using a flight computer, calculate the time en route: (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Distance is 1,000 NM
TAS is 164 knots, with no wind AIR
Therefore, the time en route is 6 hours, 6 minutes. 3681. (Refer to Figure 36.) What fuel flow should a pilot
expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent
4. Using a flight computer, calculate the fuel consump- maximum continuous power?
tion:
Time en route is 6 hours, 6 minutes A— 10.6 gallons per hour.
Fuel burn is 11.5 GPH B— 11.2 gallons per hour.
C— 11.8 gallons per hour.
Therefore, the fuel consumption is 70.1 gallons.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 Use the following steps:
1. Locate the Standard Day (ISA) Chart on FAA Fig-
ure 36. Notice that the stated altitude, 11,000 feet,
AIR
does not appear on the chart, so it is necessary to
3680. (Refer to Figure 36.) What is the expected fuel
interpolate.
consumption for a 500-nautical mile flight under the
following conditions? 2. Read across the 10,000-foot pressure altitude line
and determine the fuel flow at that altitude (11.5
GPH).
Temperature....................................................... +29°C
Manifold pressure........................................... 21.3" Hg 3. Read across the 12,000-foot pressure altitude line
Wind.....................................................................Calm and determine the fuel flow at that altitude (10.9
GPH).
A— 31.4 gallons.
B— 36.1 gallons. 4. To determine the flow at 11,000 feet, add the two
C— 40.1 gallons. flows and divide by two.
(11.5 + 10.9) 22.4
Fuel Flow = = = 11.2 gallons per hr
2 2
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3679 [B] 3680 [B] 3681 [B]

AIR 2. Read across the 6,000-foot pressure altitude line

3682. (Refer to Figure 36.) Determine the approximate and determine the manifold pressure at that altitude
manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 (21.0" Hg).
percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with
a temperature of 36°F higher than standard.
and determine the manifold pressure at that altitude
A— 19.8" Hg. (20.8" Hg).
B— 20.8" Hg.
4. The altitude, 6,500 feet, is closer to the 6,000-foot
C— 21.0" Hg.
value of 21.0" Hg.
Use the following steps: (PLT278) — FAA-H-8083-25
1. Locate the +36°F (ISA + 20°C) Chart on FAA Fig-
ure 36. Notice that the stated altitude of 6,500 feet
does not appear on the chart, so it is necessary to
interpolate.
Landing Distance Graphs and Tables

Some landing distance graphs such as the one shown in FAA Figure 38, are used in the same manner
as the takeoff distance graph.
Another type of landing distance table is shown in FAA Figure 39.
Problem:
Using the Landing Distance Table shown in FAA Figure 39, determine the total distance required to land
over a 50-foot obstacle.
Headwind...................................................8 knots
Temperature..................................................41°F
Runway.............................................Hard surface
Solution:
Enter FAA Figure 39 at 5,000 feet and 41°F to find 1,195 feet is required to clear a 50-foot obstacle. Note
#1 states an additional correction is necessary for the headwind, 10% for each 4 knots. This would mean
20% for 8 knots. 20% of 1,195 feet is 239 feet, resulting in 956 feet — total distance required to land:
1,195 x .20 = 239 feet
1,195 – 239 = 956 feet
Answers
3682 [C]

AIR, WSC 5. Then, proceed down and to the right (remaining

3698. (Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the approximate proportionally between the existing headwind lines)
landing ground roll distance. to the vertical line representing 20 knots.
Pressure altitude............................................... 1,250 ft 6. From that point, proceed to the right to the third
Headwind...............................................................8 kts reference line.
Temperature............................................................Std
7. Finally, proceed up and to the right (remaining pro-
A— 275 feet. portionally between the existing lines) to the 50-foot
B— 366 feet. obstacle line at the end of the graph and read the
C— 470 feet. landing distance (approximately 1,400 feet).
1. Locate the tables for sea level and 2,500 feet. Note
that 1,250 feet is midway between sea level and AIR, WSC
2,500 feet. 3690. (Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance
2. Interpolate between charts for 2,500 feet pressure required to land.
altitude and sea level to find ground roll: OAT..........................................................................Std
(445 + 470) ÷ 2 = 457.5 ground roll Pressure altitude............................................. 10,000 ft
Weight............................................................. 2,400 lb
3. Apply Note 1 to account for the 8-knot headwind (a Wind component...................................................Calm
20% decrease in distance): Obstacle................................................................ 50 ft
457.5 x .20 = 91.5 feet A— 750 feet.
457.5 – 91.5 = 366 feet B— 1,925 feet.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 C— 1,450 feet.

AIR, WSC
1. Enter the graph at the point where the ISA line inter-
3689. (Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance
cepts the 10,000-foot pressure altitude line.
required to land.
2. From that point, proceed to the right to the first verti-
OAT........................................................................32°F
cal reference line.
Weight............................................................. 2,600 lb 3. From there, proceed down to the right (remaining
Headwind component..........................................20 kts proportionally between the existing lines), to the
Obstacle................................................................ 50 ft vertical line representing 2,400 pounds.
A— 850 feet. 4. Then proceed to the right to the second vertical
B— 1,400 feet. reference line.
C— 1,750 feet. 5. Since the wind is calm, continue to the right to the
third vertical reference line.
6. From there, proceed upward and to the right (remain-
1. Enter FAA Figure 38 at the point where the vertical ing proportionally between the existing lines) to the
32°F temperature line intersects the 8,000-foot pres- vertical line representing the required 50-foot obstacle
sure altitude line. height. Read the landing distance from the vertical
2. From there, proceed to the right to the first vertical scale (approximately 1,900 feet).
reference line. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. From that point, proceed down and to the right
(remaining proportionally between the existing lines)
4. Then, proceed to the right to the second vertical
reference line.
Answers
3698 [B] 3689 [B] 3690 [B]

AIR, WSC AIR, WSC

3691. (Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance 3692. (Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the approximate
required to land. total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT........................................................................90°F OAT........................................................................90°F
Pressure altitude............................................... 3,000 ft Pressure altitude............................................... 4,000 ft
Weight............................................................. 2,900 lb Weight............................................................. 2,800 lb
Headwind component..........................................10 kts Headwind component..........................................10 kts
Obstacle................................................................ 50 ft A— 1,525 feet.
A— 1,450 feet. B— 1,775 feet.
B— 1,550 feet. C— 1,950 feet.
C— 1,725 feet.
Use the following steps: 1. Enter FAA Figure 38 at the point where the vertical
1. Enter FAA Figure 38 at the point where the verti- 90°F temperature line intersects the 4,000-foot pres-
cal 90°F temperature line intersects the 3,000-foot sure altitude line.
pressure altitude line. (The point must be visualized 2. From that point, proceed to the right to the first verti-
midway between the 2,000- and 4,000-foot pressure cal reference line.
altitude lines.)
3. From there, proceed downward and to the right
2. From that point, proceed to the right to the first verti- (remaining proportionally between the existing lines),
cal reference line. to the vertical line representing 2,800 pounds.
3. From there, proceed downward and to the right 4. Then proceed to the right to the intersection with the
(remaining proportionally between the existing lines), second vertical reference line.
5. Since there is a 10-knot headwind component,
4. Then proceed to the right to the second vertical proceed downward and to the right (remaining pro-
reference line. portionally between the existing lines) to the vertical
5. Since there is a 10-knot headwind, proceed downward line representing 10 knots.
and to the right (remaining proportionally between 6. From that point, proceed to the right to the third verti-
the existing lines) to the vertical line representing 10 cal reference line.
knots.
7. Proceed upward to the right following the diagonal
6. From that point, proceed to the right to the third verti- line for the 50-foot obstacle and then continue to read
cal reference line. the landing distance (approximately 1,775 feet).
7. From there, proceed upward and to the right (remain- (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
ing proportionally between the existing lines) to the
vertical line representing the required 50-foot obstacle
height. Read the landing distance from the vertical
scale (approximately 1,725 feet).
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3691 [C] 3692 [B]

AIR, WSC AIR, WSC

3693. (Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the approximate 3695. (Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the total distance
landing ground roll distance. required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude.............................................Sea level Pressure altitude............................................... 5,000 ft
Headwind...............................................................4 kts Headwind...............................................................8 kts
Temperature............................................................Std Temperature..........................................................41°F
A— 356 feet. Runway.....................................................Hard surface
B— 401 feet. A— 837 feet.
C— 490 feet. B— 956 feet.
C— 1,076 feet.
1. Locate the sea level portion of FAA Figure 39. Use the following steps:
2. Read the landing ground roll distance (445 feet). 1. Locate the table applicable to a pressure altitude of
5,000 feet and ambient temperature of 41°F on FAA
3. Note 1 requires that the distances shown be Figure 39.
decreased by 10% for each 4 knots of headwind.
2. Read the total distance required to clear a 50-foot
445 x .10 = 44.5 feet obstacle (1,195 feet).
445.0 – 44.5 = 400.5 or 401 feet
3. Apply Note 1 to account for an 8-knot headwind (a
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 20% decrease in distance):
1,195 x .20 = 239 feet
AIR, WSC 1,195 – 239 = 956 feet
3694. (Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the total distance (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
AIR, WSC
Headwind...............................................................8 kts
Temperature..........................................................32°F 3696. (Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the approximate
Runway.....................................................Hard surface landing ground roll distance.
A— 1,004 feet. Pressure altitude............................................... 5,000 ft
B— 1,205 feet. Headwind..............................................................Calm
C— 1,506 feet. Temperature........................................................101°F
A— 495 feet.
Use the following steps: B— 545 feet.
1. Locate the portion of FAA Figure 39 that is applicable C— 445 feet.
to a pressure altitude of 7,500 feet. The standard
temperature at 7,500 feet is approximately 32°F, Use the following steps:
based on a temperature lapse rate of 3.5°F/1,000 1. Locate the table which applies to a pressure altitude
feet. of 5,000 feet on FAA Figure 39.
2. Determine from the table that the basic distance to 2. Read the ground roll of 495 feet.
clear a 50-foot obstacle is 1,255 feet. 3. Apply Note 2 to account for the temperature differ-
3. Apply Note 1 to account for an 8-knot headwind (a ence between 101°F ambient and the 41°F value on
20% decrease in distance): which the table is based.
1,255 x .20 = 251 feet 495 x .10 = 49.5 feet
1,255 – 251 = 1,004 feet 495 + 49.5 = 544.5 feet
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3693 [B] 3694 [A] 3695 [B] 3696 [B]

AIR, WSC RTC

3697. (Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the total distance 3700. (Refer to Figure 40.) Approximately how much
required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. additional landing distance will be required for a gyro-
Pressure altitude............................................... 3,750 ft plane to clear a 50-foot obstacle with an increase in
Headwind.............................................................12 kts temperature from 40 to 60°F at 3,200 feet pressure
Temperature............................................................Std altitude?
C— 816 feet. C— 12 feet.

1. Locate the 2,500-foot and 5,000-foot tables. 1. Locate the 3,200-foot pressure altitude point on FAA
Figure 40.
2. Interpolate (3,750 is midway between 2,500 feet and
5,000 feet) to obtain a landing distance: 2. Select any two adjacent temperature lines (which are
separated by 20°F increments). Note the points of
(1,135 + 1,195) ÷ 2 = 1,165 feet ground roll intersection of each line with the 3,200-foot pressure
3. Apply Note 1 to account for the 12-knot headwind. altitude.
12 ÷ 4 = 3 3. Read downward from each of the two intersections
3.00 x .10 = .30 to the distance scale.
1,165 x .30 = 349.5 4. Note the difference between the two distances
1,165 – 349.5 = 815.5 feet (4 feet).
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
RTC, LSR RTC

3699. (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total landing 3701. (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total landing
distance to clear a 50-foot obstacle in a gyroplane. The distance to clear a 50-foot obstacle in a gyroplane. The
outside air temperature (OAT) is 75°F and the pressure outside air temperature (OAT) is 80°F and the pressure
altitude at the airport is 2,500 feet. altitude is 3,500 feet.
C— 529 feet. C— 531 feet.
1. Locate the horizontal line corresponding to 2,500 1. Locate the horizontal line corresponding to 3,500
feet pressure altitude on FAA Figure 40. feet pressure altitude on FAA Figure 40.
2. Draw vertical lines through the points of intersection 2. Draw vertical lines through the points of intersection
of the 2,500-foot pressure altitude line with the 75°F of the 3,500-foot pressure altitude line with the 80°F
point. Note the landing distance of 525 feet. point. Note the landing distance of 531 feet.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3697 [C] 3699 [B] 3700 [A] 3701 [C]

GLI 2. Determine the L/D (glide ratio) at 44 MPH by read-

3864. (Refer to Figure 55.) How many feet will the glider ing up from 44 MPH (on the VS coordinate) to the
sink in 1 statute mile at 53 MPH in still air? intersection with the L/D curve. Read from that
A— 144 feet. intersection to the left (L/D) coordinate. At 44 MPH
B— 171 feet. the L/D ratio is 29.3:1.
C— 211 feet. 3. Using the glide ratio of 29.3 feet forward for each
foot of vertical sink, calculate the sink encountered
Use the following steps: in 5,280 feet (one statue mile):
1. Read the L/D ratio (which is numerically the same Distance
as the glide ratio) for a speed of 53 MPH from the = Vertical Sink
L/D Ratio
graph (30.9:1).
5,280
2. Using the glide ratio of 30.9 feet forward for each = 180 feet vertical sink
foot of vertical sink, calculate the sink encountered 29.3
in one statute mile (5,280 feet): (PLT054) — Soaring Flight Manual
Distance
= Vertical Sink
L/D Ratio GLI
5,280 3867. (Refer to Figure 55.) At what speed will the glider
= 171 feet vertical sink gain the most distance while descending 1,000 feet in
30.9
still air?
A— 44 MPH.
B— 53 MPH.
GLI C— 83 MPH.
3865. (Refer to Figure 55.) At what speed will the glider
attain a sink rate of 5 feet per second in still air? The L/D ratio is numerically the same as the glide ratio.
Hence, the best forward distance attained per foot of
A— 75 MPH.
descent will be at the velocity which gives the maximum
B— 79 MPH.
L/D. (PLT054) — Soaring Flight Manual
C— 84 MPH.
Use the following steps: GLI, LSG

1. Locate the sinking speed (VS ) curve and its associ- 3868. (Refer to Figure 55.) What approximate lift/drag
ated scale (on the right side) of FAA Figure 55. ratio will the glider attain at 68 MPH in still air?
2. Read to the left from the 5 FPS position to the sinking A— 10.5:1.
speed curved scale. B— 21.7:1.
3. Read downward from the point of intersection to C— 28.5:1.
the horizontal velocity (V) scale. Interpreting the
horizontal scale gives a speed of 79 MPH forward.
1. Locate 68 MPH on the V coordinate (at the bottom)
on FAA Figure 55.
2. Read upward from the 68 MPH point to the intersec-
GLI tion with the L/D curve.
3866. (Refer to Figure 55.) How many feet will the
3. Read to the left, from the point of intersection, to the
glider descend at minimum sink speed for 1 statute
L/D scale and read L/D, 28.5:1.
mile in still air?
A— 132 feet.
B— 170 feet.
C— 180 feet.

1. Locate the minimum sink speed (2.2 FPS at 44 MPH)
on FAA Figure 55.
Answers
3864 [B] 3865 [B] 3866 [C] 3867 [B] 3868 [C]

Headwind and Crosswind Component Graph

In general, taking off into a wind improves aircraft performance, and reduces the length of runway required
to become airborne. The stronger the wind, the better the aircraft performs. Crosswinds, however, may
make the aircraft difficult or impossible to control. The aircraft manufacturer determines the safe limit for
taking off or landing with a crosswind and establishes the maximum allowable crosswind component.
The graph shown in FAA Figure 37 is used to determine what extent a wind of a given direction and
speed is felt as a headwind and/or crosswind.
Problem:
The wind is reported to be from 085° at 30 knots, and you plan to land on Runway 11. What will the
headwind and crosswind components be?
Solution:
1. Determine the angular difference between the wind direction and the runway:
110° runway
– 085° wind
25° difference
2. Find the intersection of the 25°-angle radial line and the 30-knot wind speed arc on the graph shown
in FAA Figure 37. From the intersection move straight down to the bottom of the chart and read that
the crosswind component equals 13 knots. From the point of intersection move horizontally left and
read that the headwind component equals 27 knots.

3688. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the crosswind com- 3683. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the headwind com-
ponent for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports ponent for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports
the wind as 220° at 30 knots? the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
A— 19 knots. A— 19 knots.
B— 23 knots. B— 23 knots.
C— 30 knots. C— 26 knots.

1. Determine the relative wind angle (WA) from the 1. Determine the relative wind angle (WA) from the
difference between the runway heading (RH) and difference between the runway heading (RH) and
the wind direction (WD). the wind direction (WD):
WA = WD – RH WA = WD – RH
WA = 220° – 180° WA = 220° – 180°
WA = 40° WA = 40°
2. Locate the arc corresponding to a 30-knot wind 2. Locate the arc corresponding to a 30-knot wind on
velocity. FAA Figure 37.
3. Find the point of intersection of the 40° line with the 3. Find the point of intersection of the 40° line with the
30-knot wind speed arc. 30-knot wind speed arc.
4. Draw a line downward from the intersection to the 4. Draw a line to the left from the intersection to the
crosswind component scale and read the resulting headwind component scale and read the resulting
velocity of 19 knots. velocity of 23 knots.
(PLT013) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT013) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the headwind component.
Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the wind speed.
Answers
3688 [A] 3683 [B]


3684. (Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the maximum wind 3686. (Refer to Figure 37.) With a reported wind of north
velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for
component for the airplane is 25 knots. use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind
A— 25 knots. component?
B— 29 knots. A— Runway 6.
C— 35 knots. B— Runway 29.
C— Runway 32.
1. Locate the 45° wind angle in FAA Figure 37. Use the following steps:
2. Locate the vertical line representing a 25-knot cross- 1. Locate the 20-knot wind velocity arc on FAA Figure
wind component and its point of intersection with the 37.
45° wind angle line. 2. Draw a line upward from the 13-knot crosswind
3. Interpret the intersection point as lying on an arc component (maximum crosswind).
midway between the 30- and 40-knot wind velocity 3. Note that in this case, acceptable crosswind com-
arcs, or 35 knots. ponents will result anytime the relative wind angle is
(PLT013) — FAA-H-8083-25 equal to or less than about 40° (the intersection of
the 13-knot vertical line and the 20-knot wind arc).
4. Calculate the relative wind angle between the north
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC wind (0°) and the runway headings:
3685. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum wind
RWY Relative Angle Landing
velocity for a 30° crosswind if the maximum crosswind
component for the airplane is 12 knots? 6 60° Upwind
29 70° Upwind
A— 16 knots. 32 40° Upwind
B— 20 knots.
C— 24 knots. Only runway 32 provides a crosswind component that
would be in acceptable limits for the airplane specified.
1. Locate the 30° wind angle line on FAA Figure 37.
2. Locate the vertical line representing the maximum
crosswind component of 12 knots and its point of
intersection with the 30° wind angle line.
3. Interpret the point of intersection as lying on an arc
slightly less than midway between the 20- and 30-knot
wind velocity arcs or about 24 knots.
(PLT013) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3684 [C] 3685 [C] 3686 [C]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC 3. Note that in this case, acceptable crosswind com-
3687. (Refer to Figure 37.) With a reported wind of south ponents will result anytime the relative wind angle
at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropri- is equal to or less than 40° (the intersection of the
ate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind 13-knot vertical line and the 20-knot wind arc).
component?
4. Calculate the relative wind angle between the south
A— Runway 10. wind (180°) and the runway headings:
B— Runway 14.
RWY Relative Angle Landing
C— Runway 24.
10 80° Downwind
Use the following steps: 14 40° Upwind
24 60° Upwind
1. Locate the 20-knot wind velocity arc on FAA Figure
37. (PLT013) — FAA-H-8083-25
2. Draw a line upward from the 13-knot crosswind
component (maximum crosswind).
Maximum Range Performance

LSA, LSW, LSR LSA, LSW, LSR
2230. Maximum endurance is obtained at the point of 2236. When range and economy of operation are the
minimum power to maintain the aircraft principal goals, the pilot must ensure that the airplane
A— in steady, level flight. will be operated at the recommended
B— in a long range descent. A— specific endurance.
C— at its slowest possible indicated airspeed. B— long-range cruise performance.
C— equivalent airspeed.
The maximum endurance condition is obtained at the
point of minimum power required since this would require Total range is dependent on both fuel available and
the lowest fuel flow to keep the airplane in steady, level specific range. When range and economy of operation
flight. Maximum range condition occurs where the pro- are the principal goals, the pilot must ensure that the
portion between speed and power required is greatest. airplane is operated at the recommended long-range
(PLT015) — FAA-H-8083-25 cruise condition. By this procedure, the airplane will be
capable of its maximum design-operating radius, or can
achieve lesser flight distances with a maximum of fuel
reserve at the destination. (PLT501) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3687 [B] 2230 [A] 2236 [B]

Chapter 9
Enroute Flight
Pilotage 9 – 3
Time 9 – 5
Topography 9 – 8
Dead Reckoning 9 – 11
Plotting Courses 9 – 11
Magnetic Variation 9 – 12
Magnetic Deviation 9 – 14
Wind and Its Effects 9 – 14
The Flight Computer (E6-B) 9 – 17
Finding Wind Correction Angle (WCA) and Ground Speed 9 – 17
Flight Computer Calculator Face 9 – 19
Finding Time, Rate, and Distance 9 – 20
Calculating Fuel Consumption 9 – 22
Finding True Airspeed and Density Altitude 9 – 23
Airspace 9 – 32

Chapter 9 Enroute Flight

Pilotage
Air navigation is the art of directing an aircraft along a desired course and being able to determine its
geographical position at any time. Such navigation may be accomplished by pilotage, dead reckoning,
or using radio navigational aids.
Pilotage is the use of visible landmarks to maintain a desired course, and is the basic form of navi-
gation for the beginning pilot operating under Visual Flight Rules (VFR). Visible landmarks which can
be identified on aeronautical charts allow the pilot to proceed from one check point to the next.
The aeronautical charts most commonly used by VFR pilots are the VFR Sectional Aeronautical
Chart, the VFR Terminal Area Chart, and the World Aeronautical Chart. All three charts include
aeronautical information such as airports, airways, special use airspace, and other pertinent data.
The scale of the VFR Sectional Aeronautical Chart is 1:500,000 (1 inch = 6.86 NM). Designed for
visual navigation of slow speed aircraft in VFR conditions, this chart portrays terrain relief and check-
points such as populated places, roads, railroads, and other distinctive landmarks. These charts have
the best detail and are revised every 6 months.
Information found on the VFR Terminal Area Chart is similar to that found on the VFR Sectional
Chart, but the scale on this chart is 1:250,000 (1 inch = 3.43 NM). These charts are for a specific city
with Class B airspace. They show much detail, but have small coverage.
The World Aeronautical Chart has a scale of 1:1,000,000, which is more convenient for use in naviga-
tion by moderate speed aircraft. It depicts cities, railroads, and distinctive landmarks, etc. These charts
have less detail and are revised no more than once a year.
To identify a point on the surface of the earth, a geographic coordinate, or “grid” system was devised.
By reference to meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude, any position may be accurately located
when using the grid system.
Equidistant from the poles is an imaginary circle called the equator. The lines running east and
west, parallel to the equator are called parallels of latitude, and are used to measure angular distance
north or south of the equator. From the equator to either pole is 90°, with 0° being at the equator; while
90° north latitude describes the location of the North Pole. See Figure 9-1.
Lines called meridians of longitude are drawn from pole to pole at right angles to the equator. The
prime meridian, used as the zero degree line, passes through Greenwich, England. From this line,
measurements are made in degrees both easterly and westerly up to 180°.
Any specific geographical point can be located
by reference to its longitude and latitude. For exam-
ple, Washington, DC is approximately 39° north of
the equator and 77° west of the prime meridian and
would be stated as 39°N 77°W. Note that latitude
is stated first.
In order to describe a location more precisely,
each degree (°) is subdivided into 60 minutes (')
and each minute further divided into 60 seconds
("), although seconds are not shown. Thus, the
location of the airport at Elk City, Oklahoma is
described as being at 35°25'55"N 99°23'15"W (35
degrees, 25 minutes, 55 seconds north latitude; 99
degrees, 23 minutes, 15 seconds west longitude).
Degrees of west longitude increase from east to
west. Degrees of north latitude increase from south Figure 9-1. Meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude
to north.

ALL ALL
3530-1. Which statement about longitude and latitude 3536. (Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) Which airport is
is true? located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W
A— Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. longitude?
B— Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right A— Underwood.
angles. B— Evenson.
C— The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, C— Washburn.
England.
Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the
Meridians of longitude encircle the earth from pole to lines dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each
pole, and all meridians cross the equator at right angles. 30 minutes of longitude. Each tick mark represents
(PLT101) — FAA-H-8083-25 one minute of latitude or longitude. Latitude increases
Answer (A) is incorrect because lines of latitude are parallel to the northward, west longitude increases going westward.
equator. Answer (C) is incorrect because the 0° line of longitude Washburn is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude
passes through Greenwich, England. and 101°01'W longitude. (PLT064) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL ALL
3530. (Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) Determine the 3543. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) Determine the
approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County
Airport. Airport.
A— 36°24'N – 76°01'W. A— 47°02'N – 116°11'W
B— 36°48'N – 76°01'W. B— 47°33'N – 116°11'W
C— 47°24'N – 75°58'W. C— 47°32'N – 116°41'W
Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the lines Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the lines
dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each 30 minutes dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each 30 minutes
of longitude. Each tick mark represents one minute of of longitude. Each tick mark represents one minute of
latitude or longitude. Latitude increases northward, west latitude or longitude. Latitude increases northward, west
longitude increases going westward. The approximate longitude increases going westward. The approximate
latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport is latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport is
36°24'N, 76°01'W. (PLT064) — FAA-H-8083-25 47°33'N, 116°11'W. (PLT064) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL, SPO ALL

3535. (Refer to Figure 22, area 2.) Which airport 3567. (Refer to Figure 27, area 2.) What is the approxi-
is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and mate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
100°43'00"W longitude?
A— 47°25'N – 98°06'W.
A— Linrud. B— 47°25'N – 99°54'W.
B— Makeeff. C— 47°55'N – 98°06'W.
C— Johnson.
Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the lines
Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the lines dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each 30 minutes
dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each 30 minutes of longitude. Each tick mark represents one minute of
of longitude. Each tick mark represents one minute of latitude or longitude. Latitude increases northward, west
latitude or longitude. Latitude increases northward, west longitude increases going westward. Cooperstown air-
longitude increases going westward. The Makeeff (Pvt) port is approximately at 47°25'N latitude, and 98°06'W
airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude longitude. (PLT064) — FAA-H-8083-25
and 100°43'00"W longitude. (PLT064) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3530-1 [B] 3530 [A] 3535 [B] 3536 [C] 3543 [B] 3567 [A]

SPO SPO
2106. During VFR navigation without radio instru- 2178. Using pilotage, a pilot can keep from drifting too
ments, heading and groundspeed, as calculated by far off course by
dead reckoning, should be constantly monitored and A— flying the flight plan heading.
corrected by B— filing a flight plan.
A— pilotage as observed from checkpoints. C— referring to selected features or checkpoints.
B— the wind triangle.
C— wet compass and the groundspeed indicator. Pilotage is navigation by reference to landmarks or
checkpoints. The checkpoints selected should be promi-
Except for flights over water, dead reckoning is usually nent features common to the area of the flight and be
used with pilotage. The heading and ground speed as readily identified by other features such as roads, rivers,
calculated is constantly monitored and corrected by and power lines. Select features that will make useful
pilotage as observed from checkpoints. (PLT116) — boundaries or brackets on each side of the course, such
FAA-H-8083-25 as highways, rivers, railroads, and mountains. (PLT335)
— FAA-H-8083-25
SPO
2108. For cross-country flights over land, navigation
without radio instruments is usually accomplished using
dead reckoning and
A— pilotage.
B— the wind triangle.
C— compass heading.
Except for flights over water, dead reckoning is usually

used with pilotage. The heading and ground speed as
calculated is constantly monitored and corrected by
pilotage as observed from checkpoints. (PLT116) —
FAA-H-8083-25
Time
Time is measured in relation to the rotation of the earth. A day is defined as the time required for the
earth to make one complete revolution of 360°. Since the day is divided into 24 hours, it follows that the
earth revolves at the rate of 15° each hour. Thus, longitude may be expressed as either 90° or 6 hours
west of Greenwich.
Twenty-four time zones have been established. Each time zone is 15° of longitude in width, with the
first zone centered on the meridian of Greenwich. Each zone uses the local time of its central meridian
as shown in FAA Figure 28.
For example, when the sun is above the 90th meridian, it is noon central standard time (CST). At the
same time it is 6 p.m. Greenwich, 11 a.m. mountain standard time (MST), and 1 p.m. eastern standard
time (EST). When daylight saving time (DST) is in effect, the sun is over the 75th meridian at noon CST.
Most aviation operations time is expressed in terms of the 24-hour clock, (for example, 8 a.m. is
expressed as 0800; 2 p.m. is 1400; 11 p.m. is 2300) and may be either local or Coordinated Universal
Time (UTC). UTC is the time at the prime meridian and is represented in aviation operations by the
letter “Z,” referred to as “Zulu time.” For example, 1500Z would be read as “one five zero zero Zulu.”
In the United States, conversion from local time to UTC is made in accordance with the table in the
lower left corner of FAA Figure 28.
Continued
Answers
2106 [A] 2108 [A] 2178 [C]

Problem: An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour
flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated
universal time (UTC)?
Solution: Use the conversion table in FAA Figure 28 and the following steps:
1. Convert 1030 PST to UTC:
1030 PST (takeoff time)
+ 0800 (conversion)
1830 (UTC)
2. Add the flight time.
1830 (UTC)
+ 0400 (flight time)
2230 UTC (time the aircraft should land)
ALL ALL
3571. (Refer to Figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport 3572. (Refer to Figure 28.) An aircraft departs an
in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST
2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain
time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?
universal time? A— 0930 MST.
A— 1345Z. B— 1030 MST.
B— 1445Z. C— 1130 MST.
C— 1545Z.
Use the following steps: 1. Change the CST takeoff time to UTC:
1. Convert the EDT takeoff time to UTC: 0930 CST takeoff time
0945 EDT takeoff time + 0600 conversion
+ 0400 conversion 1530 Z UTC (also called “ZULU” time)
1345 Z UTC (also called “ZULU” time) 2. Add the flight time to the time of takeoff:
2. Add the flight time to the ZULU time of takeoff: 1530 Z takeoff time
1345 Z takeoff time + 0200 flight time
+ 0200 1730 Z time of landing
1545 Z time of landing 3. Convert UTC to MST:
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 1730 Z UTC
– 0700 conversion
1030 MST time of landing
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3571 [C] 3572 [B]

ALL ALL
3573. (Refer to Figure 28.) An aircraft departs an 3575. (Refer to Figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport
airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a
for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard
standard time zone. The landing should be at what time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated
coordinated universal time? universal time?
A— 1345Z. A— 2030Z.
B— 1445Z. B— 2130Z.
C— 1645Z. C— 2230Z.

1. Convert the CST takeoff time to UTC: 1. Convert the PST takeoff time to UTC:
0845 CST takeoff time 1030 PST takeoff time
+ 0600 conversion + 0800 conversion
1445 Z UTC (also called “ZULU” time) 1830 Z UTC (also called “ZULU” time)
2. Add the flight time to the ZULU time of takeoff: 2. Add the flight time to the ZULU takeoff time:
1445 Z takeoff time 1830 Z takeoff time
+ 0200 flight time + 0400 flight time
1645 Z the time of landing 2230 Z time of landing
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL ALL
3574. (Refer to Figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport 3576. (Refer to Figure 28.) An aircraft departs an air-
in the mountain standard time zone at 1615 MST for a port in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST
2-hour 15-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the
standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time
destination airport should be of arrival at the destination airport?
A— 1630 PST. A— 1645 PST.
B— 1730 PST. B— 1745 PST.
C— 1830 PST. C— 1845 PST.

1. Convert the MST takeoff time to UTC: 1. Convert the MST takeoff time to UTC:
1615 MST takeoff time 1515 MST takeoff time
+ 0700 conversion + 0700 conversion
2315 Z UTC (also called “ZULU” time) 2215 Z UTC (also called “ZULU” time)
2. Add the flight time to the ZULU time of takeoff: 2. Add the flight time to the ZULU takeoff time:
2315 Z takeoff time 2215 Z takeoff time
+ 0215 flight time + 0230 flight time
0130 Z time of landing 2445 Z (0045) Z time of landing
3. Convert UTC to PST: 3. Convert UTC to PST:
0130 Z UTC 2445 Z (0045) Z
– 0800 conversion – 0800 conversion
1730 PST time of landing 1645 PST time of landing
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3573 [C] 3574 [B] 3575 [C] 3576 [A]

Topography
A VFR Sectional Aeronautical Chart is a pictorial representation of a portion of the Earth’s surface upon
which lines and symbols in a variety of colors represent features and/or details that can be seen on the
Earth’s surface. Contour lines, shaded relief, color tints, obstruction symbols, and maximum elevation
figures are all used to show topographical information. Explanations and examples may be found in the
chart legend. Pilots should become familiar with all of the information provided in each Sectional Chart
Legend, found in FAA Legend 1.
ALL, SPO ALL

3637-1. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta 3638. (Refer to Figure 24, area 3.) The top of the group
colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the
Charts? Savannah VORTAC on the 009° radial is
A— Airports with control towers underlying Class A, A— 400 feet AGL.
B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and B— 455 feet MSL.
E airspace are magenta. C— 432 feet MSL.
B— Airports with control towers underlying Class C,
D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. Reference FAA Legend 1. On Figure 24, area 3, the
C— Airports with control towers underlying Class B, group obstruction near the 009° radial has the word
C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue. “stacks” below 455. The bold number (455) indicates
the height of the obstruction above mean sea level.
Reference FAA Legend 1. Airports having control towers (PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
are shown in blue, all others in magenta. (PLT101) —
Sectional Chart Legend
Answer (A) is incorrect because Class A airspace is not depicted on ALL
a Sectional; Class C airspace is magenta; and Class E airspace is 3639. (Refer to Figure 25, area 1.) What minimum
both blue and magenta depending on where the floor of the airspace altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on
starts. Answer (B) is incorrect because airports with control towers the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?
are shown in blue.
A— 1,010 feet MSL.
ALL C— 1,283 feet MSL.
3637. (Refer to Figure 24, area 3.) What is the height
of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles The elevation of the top of the obstacle is shown as 773
southwest of Savannah International? feet above mean sea level (MSL). Add the 500-foot ver-
A— 1,500 feet MSL. tical clearance specified by the question to the height
B— 1,531 feet AGL. (MSL) of the obstacle:
C— 1,546 feet MSL. 773 feet MSL
+ 500
Reference FAA Legend 1. The top number, printed in 1,273 feet MSL minimum altitude
bold, is the height of the obstruction above mean sea
level. The second number, printed in parentheses, is (PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
the height of the obstruction above ground level. The
obstruction is shown as 1,546 feet MSL and 1,532 feet
AGL. (PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
Answers
3637-1 [C] 3637 [C] 3638 [B] 3639 [B]

ALL, SPO ALL

3640. (Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) What minimum 3633. (Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) The elevation of the
altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on Chesapeake Regional Airport is
the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet? A— 19 feet.
A— 823 feet MSL. B— 55 feet.
B— 1,013 feet MSL. C— 230 feet.
Reference FAA Legend 1. The airport elevation is noted
The elevation of the top of the obstacle is shown as 903 in the airport information, beneath the airport symbol.
feet above mean sea level (MSL). Add the 500-foot ver- The elevation of Chesapeake Regional Airport is 19
tical clearance specified by the question to the height feet. (PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
(MSL) of the obstacle:
903 feet MSL
ALL
+ 500
3634. (Refer to Figure 22.) The terrain elevation of the
1,403 feet MSL light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake
(PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend (area 2) varies from
A— sea level to 2,000 feet MSL.
B— 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.
ALL
C— 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.
3631. (Refer to Figure 21, area 5.) The CAUTION box
denotes what hazard to aircraft? Reference FAA Legend 1. The contour line which borders
A— Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL. the tan area is labeled 2,000 feet. There are no higher
B— Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL. contour levels depicted inside the tan area. (PLT012)
C— Unmarked blimp hangers at 308 feet MSL. — Sectional Chart Legend
Answer (A) is incorrect because the light tan area indicates terrain
Reference FAA Legend 1. The boxed caution reads, between 2,000–3,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect because
“CAUTION: UNMARKED BALLOON ON CABLE TO contour intervals are 500 feet, not 700.
3,008 MSL.” (PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
ALL
ALL, SPO 3635. (Refer to Figure 22.) Which public use airports
3632. (Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) The flag symbol at depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Lake Drummond represents a A— Minot Intl. (area 1) and Garrison (area 2).
A— compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C B— Minot Intl. (area 1).
airspace. C— Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) and
B— compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Garrison (area 2).
Airport.
C— visual checkpoint used to identify position for Reference FAA Legend 1. Minot International is depicted
initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control. as having fuel, as indicated by the ticks around the basic
airport symbol. (PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
Reference FAA Legend 1. The flag symbol represents a
visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial call-
up to Norfolk Approach Control. (PLT064) — Sectional
Chart Legend
Answers
3640 [C] 3631 [A] 3632 [C] 3633 [A] 3634 [B] 3635 [B]

ALL LTA, LSL

3636. (Refer to Figure 24.) The flag symbols at States- 3645. (Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) A balloon launched
boro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County at Flying S Airport drifts southward towards the lighted
Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are obstacle. If the altimeter was set to the current altimeter
A— outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace. setting upon launch, what should it indicate if the bal-
B— airports with special traffic patterns. loon is to clear the obstacle at 500 feet above the top?
C— visual checkpoints to identify position for initial A— 1,531 feet MSL.
callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace. B— 1,809 feet MSL.
Reference FAA Legend 1. “Visual check point” is the
name for the flag symbol. (PLT064) — Sectional Chart The height of the lit obstacle is 3,149 feet MSL. The
Legend altimeter will indicate 3,649 (3,149 + 500) if set to the
current altimeter setting upon launch. (PLT064) —
Sectional Chart Legend
ALL, SPO
3642. (Refer to Figure 26, area 8.) What minimum alti-
tude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in LTA
the congested area south of Dallas Executive (RBD)? 3646. (Refer to Figure 23, area 1.) A balloon, launched
A— 2,655 feet MSL. at CX Airport located near the east end of Lake Pend
B— 3,549 feet MSL. Oreille, drifts south-southwest. What is the approximate
C— 3,449 feet MSL. elevation of the highest terrain for 20 miles along its
path?
The height of the tower is 2,549 MSL. A 1,000-foot clear- A— 2,000 – 4,000 feet MSL.
ance is required between obstructions and aircraft over B— 4,000 – 6,000 feet MSL.
a congested area. C— 6,000 – 7,000 feet MSL.
2,549 MSL
+ 1,000 On Sectional Aeronautical Charts, color tints are used to
depict bands of elevation. These colors range from light
3,549 MSL
green for the lowest elevations to brown for the higher
(PLT101) — 14 CFR §91.119 elevations. Note the terrain height of 6,405 feet MSL
within the tan shading south-southwest of CX airport.
(PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
LTA, LSL
3644. (Refer to Figure 21, area 4.) A balloon launched
at the town of Edenton drifts northeasterly along the
railroad. What minimum altitude must it maintain to
clear all of the obstacles in the vicinity of Hertford by at
least 500 feet?
A— 805 feet MSL.

1. Locate the towns of Edenton and Hertford.
2. Note the highest obstruction in the vicinity of Hertford
(515 feet MSL).
3. Calculate the minimum altitude (MSL) by adding the
required 500-foot clearance to the obstacle height.
515 feet
+ 500 feet
1,015 feet MSL
(PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
Answers
3636 [C] 3642 [B] 3644 [C] 3645 [C] 3646 [C]

Dead Reckoning
Dead reckoning is the method used for determining position with a heading indicator and calculations
based on speed, elapsed time, and wind effect from a known position. The instruments used for dead
reckoning navigation include the outside air temperature gauge, the airspeed indicator, the altimeter, the
clock, and the magnetic compass system or slaved gyro system. These instruments provide informa-
tion concerning direction, airspeed, altitude, and time, and must be correctly interpreted for successful
navigation.
Plotting Courses
A course is the direction of flight measured in degrees clockwise from north. Meridians of longitude run
from the south pole to the north pole. This alignment is called true north. When a course is plotted on
a chart in relation to the lines of longitude and/or latitude it is called a true course (TC), and will be
expressed in three digits. North may be either 360° or 000°; east is 090°; south is 180°; and west is
270°. Any attempt to project lines of latitude and longitude onto a flat surface such as a chart results in
a certain amount of distortion. When plotting a course on a sectional aeronautical chart, this distortion
may be minimized by measuring true course in reference to the meridian nearest to the halfway point
between the departure point and the destination.
A common type of plotter that is used to plot a course is shown in Figure 9-2 on the next page. This
plotter is a semi-circular protractor with a straight edge attached to it. The straight edge has distance
scales that match various charts and these scales may depict both statute and nautical miles. A small
hole at the base of the protractor portion indicates the center of the arc of the angular scale. Two com-
plete scales cover the outer edge of the protractor, and they are graduated in degrees. An inner scale
measures the angle from the vertical.
To determine true course (TC), use the plotter in the following manner:
1. Using the straight edge of the plotter as a guide, draw a line from the point of departure to the
destination.
2. Place the top straight edge of the plotter parallel to the plotted course and move the plotter along
the course line as necessary to place the small center hole over a meridian as near to the halfway
point of the course as possible. See Figure 9-2a.
3. The true course is the angle measured between the meridian and the course line. See Figure 9-2b.
The outer scale is used to read all angles between north through east to south, and the inner scale
is used to read all angles between south through west to north. In Figure 9-2 the true course from
point (a) to point (b) is 115° as read at point (c).
4. Course lines which fall within 30° of true north or south can be more easily measured by sliding the
plotter along the course line until the hole falls over a horizontal latitude line; use the partial protrac-
tor scale for these measurements.
Continued

N
c
A
115°
S
B
Figure 9-2. Placing the plotter on the course line
Magnetic Variation
The north pole where all meridians converge is true north. The north pole which attracts the needle of
a compass is magnetic north. These two poles are not in the same place. At any point where magnetic
north and true north are in line with each other, the compass needle points both to magnetic north, and
coincidentally, true north. The line along which this occurs is known as the agonic line. When posi-
tioned west of the agonic line, a compass will point right (east) of true north. When positioned east of
the agonic line, a compass will point left (west) of true north. This angular difference between true north
and magnetic north is called magnetic variation (VAR). West of the agonic line, variation is “easterly.”
East of the agonic line, variation is “westerly.”
The amount and direction of variation is depicted on sectional charts as dashed magenta colored
lines connecting points of equal variation, called isogonic lines.
A course measured on a sectional chart is a true course: it is measured from a meridian, which runs
from the south pole to the north pole. Since a magnetic compass is used to maintain a course while
flying, this true course must now be converted to a magnetic course (MC). This conversion is made
by either adding or subtracting the variation. To convert a true course to a magnetic course, subtract
easterly variation, and add westerly variation: “East is least, west is best.”
TC ± VAR = MC

ALL ALL
3531. (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine the magnetic 3568. (Refer to Figure 27.) Determine the magnetic
course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton course from Tomlinson Airport (area 1) to Jamestown
Roads Airport (area 2). Airport (area 4).
A— 141°. A— 149°.
B— 321°. B— 154°.
C— 332°. C— 159°.

1. Plot the course from First Flight Airport to Hampton 1. Plot the course from Tomlinson Airport to Jamestown
Roads Airport. Airport.
2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate
midpoint of the route. The true course is 321°. midpoint of the route (154°).
3. Note that the variation is 11°W as shown on the 3. Note that the variation is 5° E as shown on the dashed
isogonic line. isogonic line.
4. Using the formula: 4. Using the formula:
MC = TC ± VAR MC = TC ± VAR
MC = 321° + 11°W MC = 154 – 5° East
MC = 332° MC = 149°
(PLT064) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL SPO
3556. (Refer to Figure 25.) Determine the magnetic 2201. Heading and groundspeed are calculated using
course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro dead reckoning procedures. In flight, they are constantly
Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E. monitored and corrected by
A— 075°. A— pilotage as observed from checkpoints.
B— 082°. B— the wind triangle.
C— 091°. C— the wet compass and the groundspeed indicator.
Use the following steps: Dead reckoning is navigation solely by means of

1. Plot the course from Airpark East Airport to Winns- computations based on time, airspeed, distance, and
boro Airport. direction. The products derived from these variables,
when adjusted by windspeed and velocity, are heading
2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate and ground speed. Except for flights over water, dead
midpoint of the route (082°). reckoning is usually used with pilotage for cross-country
3. Calculate the magnetic course by subtracting the flying. The heading and ground speed as calculated
magnetic variation (6°30') from the true course (082°). is constantly monitored and corrected by pilotage as
MC = TC ± VAR observed from checkpoints. (PLT335) — FAA-H-8083‑25
MC = 082° – 6°30'E
MC = 75°30' (075° is the closest answer) SPO
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 2102. The course measured on a sectional chart by
reference to a meridian is known as the
A— true course.
B— magnetic course.
C— true heading.
The course measured on the chart is known as the true

course. (PLT320) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because magnetic course adds variation to
the course measured on the chart. Answer (C) is incorrect because
true heading accounts for wind.
Answers
3531 [C] 3556 [A] 3568 [A] 2201 [A] 2102 [A]

Magnetic Deviation
The magnetic compass is affected by influences within the aircraft such as electrical circuits, radios,
engines, magnetized metal parts, etc., which cause the compass needle to be deflected from its nor-
mal reading. This deflection is known as deviation (DEV), and it must be applied to convert a magnetic
course to a compass course (CC) to make it usable in flight.
Deviation, which is different for each aircraft, may also vary for different courses in the same airplane.
To let the pilot know the appropriate correction, a correction card is mounted near the compass.
To determine the actual compass reading to be followed during flight, it is necessary to apply the
corrections for both variation and deviation:
True Course ± Variation = Magnetic Course ± Deviation = Compass Course
or,
TC ± VAR = MC ± DEV = CC.
Wind and Its Effects

An additional computation, common to both pilotage and dead reckoning, is necessary to compensate
for the effect of wind.
Wind direction is reported as the direction from which the wind blows, i.e., wind blowing from the
west to the east is a west wind. Wind speed is the rate of motion without regard to direction. In the United
States, wind speed is usually expressed in knots. Wind velocity includes both direction and speed of the
wind; for example, a west wind of 25 knots.
Downwind movement is with the wind; upwind movement is against the wind. Moving air exerts a
force in the direction of its motion on any object within it. Objects that are free to move in air will move
in a downwind direction at the speed of the wind.
If a powered aircraft is flying in a 20-knot wind, it will move 20 nautical miles downwind in 1 hour in
addition to its forward movement through the air. The path of an aircraft over the earth is determined
both by the motion of the aircraft through the air and by the motion of the air over the earth’s surface.
Direction and movement through the air is governed both by the direction that the aircraft nose is point-
ing and by aircraft speed.
The sideward displacement of an aircraft caused by wind is called drift. Drift can be determined by
measuring the angle between the heading (the direction in which the nose is pointing) and the track (the
actual path of the aircraft over the earth). See Figure 9-3.
For example, Figure 9-3 shows an aircraft which departs point A on a heading of 360° and flies for
1 hour in a wind of 270° at 20 knots. Under a no-wind condition the aircraft would arrive at point B at
the end of 1 hour. However, this example has a wind of 20 knots, and the aircraft moves with the wind;
so at the end of 1 hour, the aircraft is at point C, 20 nautical miles downwind from B. From A to B is the
intended path of the aircraft, from B to C is the motion of the body of air, and from A to C is the actual
path of the aircraft over the earth (the track).
A given wind will cause a different drift on each aircraft heading and it will also affect the distance
traveled over the ground in a given time. With a given wind, the ground speed varies with each different
aircraft heading. Figure 9-4 illustrates how a wind of 270° at 20 knots would affect the ground speed and
track of an aircraft on various headings. In this particular illustration, on a heading of 360°, drift would
be to the right; on a heading of 180°, drift would be to the left. With a 90° crosswind and no heading
correction applied, there would be little effect on ground speed. On a heading of 090°, no left or right

Figure 9-4. Different effects of wind on track and

ground speed
Figure 9-3. Drift
Figure 9-5. Compensating for wind drift

drift would be experienced; instead, the ground speed would be increased by the tailwind. On a 270°
heading, the ground speed would be reduced by the headwind.
By determining the amount of drift, a pilot can counteract the effect of wind and make the track of the
aircraft coincide with the desired course. For example, if the wind is from the left, the correction would
be made by pointing the aircraft to the left a certain number of degrees, thereby compensating for wind
drift. This is the Wind Correction Angle (WCA), and it is expressed as degrees left or right of the course.
See Figure 9-5.
Any course, true, magnetic, or compass, becomes a heading when it is corrected for wind. See Figure
9-6.
SPO
2177. If proper correction has been made for the wind,
ground track will be identical with
A— drift angle.
B— course.
C— heading.
If proper correction has been made for the wind, track

and course will be identical. (PLT198) — FAA-H-8083‑25
Figure 9-6 SPO

2103. Motion of the air affects the speed with which
aircraft move
A— over the Earth’s surface.
B— through the air.
C— in a turn.
Motion of the air affects the speed with which airplanes

move over the Earth’s surface. (PLT198) — FAA-H-
8083-25
SPO
2104. If a flight is to be made on a course to the east,
with a wind blowing from northeast, the aircraft must
be headed
A— somewhat to the north of east to counteract drift.
B— south of east to counteract drift.
C— north to counteract torque.
If the mass of air is moving across the course from the

left, the airplane will drift to the right, and a correction
must be made by heading the airplane sufficiently to
the left to offset this drift. (PLT198) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
2177 [B] 2103 [A] 2104 [A]

The Flight Computer (E6-B)

Note: ASA’s CX-2 Pathfinder is an electronic flight computer and can be used in place of the E6-B. This
aviation computer can solve all flight planning problems, as well as perform standard mathematical
calculations.
Finding Wind Correction Angle (WCA) and Ground Speed

The Wind Correction Angle (WCA) required to change a course to a heading can be found by using the
wind face of the E6-B. Ground speed can also be determined as a part of this procedure.
The wind face of the E6-B consists of a transparent, rotatable plotting disk mounted in a frame as
shown in Figure 9-7 on the next page. A compass rose is located around the plotting disk (Figure 9-7a).
A correction scale on the top of the frame is graduated in degrees left and right of the true index (Figure
9-7b), and it is used for calculating drift correction. A small reference circle, called a grommet, is located
at the center of the plotting disk (Figure 9-7c).
A sliding grid (Figure 9-7d) inserted behind the plotting disk is used for wind computations. The slide
has converging lines (track or drift lines) which indicate degrees left or right of center (Figure 9-7e).
Concentric arcs (speed circles) on the slide are used for calculations of speed (Figure 9-7f). The wind
correction angle and ground speed may be found when true course, true airspeed, wind speed and wind
direction (relative to true north) are known.
Problem: Using a flight computer and the following conditions, find the wind correction angle (WCA),
the true heading (TH), and the ground speed (GS).
Conditions:
True course (TC)................................................. 090°
True airspeed (TAS).....................................120 knots
True wind direction.............................................. 160°
Wind speed....................................................30 knots

Solution:
1. Using the wind face side of the E6-B, set the true wind direction (160°) under the true index (Figure
9-8a).
2. Plot the wind speed above the grommet 30 units (wind speed). Note: The sliding grid can be at any
value for this step. Place a wind dot within a circle at this point (Figure 9-8b).
3. Rotate the plotting disk and set the true course (090°) under the true index (Figure 9-9a).
4. Adjust the sliding grid so that the TAS arc (120 knots) is at the wind dot (Figure 9-9b). Note the wind
dot is 14° right of centerline (Figure 9-9c), so the WCA = 14°R.
5. Under the grommet, read the ground speed (GS) of 106 knots (Figure 9-9d).
Figure 9-8. Plotting wind speed and wind direction

Figure 9-7. Wind face of E6-B computer

6. Determine the true heading by applying the formula:

TC + WCA = TH
In this case the wind correction is to the right, so it will be added to the true course:
090° (TC)
+ 14° (WCA)
104° (TH)
Flight Computer Calculator Face

Opposite the windface of the flight computer is a circular slide rule or calculator face. The outer scale,
called the miles scale, is stationary (Figure 9-10a). The inner circle rotates and is called the minutes
scale (Figure 9-10b).
The numbers on the computer scale represent multiples of 10, of the values shown. For example,
the number 24 on either scale may be 0.24, 2.4, 24, 240, etc. On the inner scale, minutes may be con-
verted to hours by reference to the adjacent hours scale. In Figure 9-10c, for example, 4 hours is found
adjacent to 24, meaning 240 minutes.
Relative values must be kept in mind. For example, the numbers 21 and 22 are separated by divi-
sions, each space representing 2 units. Thus, the second division past 21 will be read as 21.4, 214, or
2,140. Between 80 and 90 are 10 divisions, each space representing 1 unit. Thus, the second division
past 80 will be read as 8.2, 82 or 820.
There are three index marks on the miles (outer) scale which are used for converting statute miles
(SM), nautical miles (NM) and kilometers (KM). The E6-B computer has a scale for converting statute
Figure 9-9. Determining the wind correction angle Figure 9-10. Slide rule (calculator) face
and ground speed

miles, nautical miles, and kilometers. Place the known figure on the inner scale under “naut,” “stat,” or
“KM,” as appropriate, and read the equivalent value under the other indexes. For example, to convert 85
statute miles to kilometers and nautical miles, place 85 on the inner scale under the “stat” index. Under
the “KM” index, read 137; under the “naut” index read 74.
Each scale has a 10-index used as a reference mark for multiplication and division. The 10-index
on the inner scale can also be used as a rate index representing 1 hour. Also on the inner scale is a
60-index, representing 60 minutes and usually used for computation instead of the 10 or 1 hour index
(Figure 9-10d) and a 36 or “seconds” index (3,600 seconds = 1 hour) (Figure 9-10e).
Finding Time, Rate, and Distance

The flight computer will commonly be used to solve problems of time, rate, and distance. When two
factors are known, the third can be found using the proportion:
DISTANCE
RATE (speed) =
TIME
Problem: How far does an aircraft travel in 2 hours and 15 minutes at a ground speed of 138 knots?
Solution: Use the formula:
Distance = Ground Speed x Time, or use the flight computer in the following manner:
1. Place the 60 (speed) index (inner scale) under 138 (outer scale).
2. Over the time of 135 minutes or 2 hours +15 minutes (inner scale), read 310 NM (on the outer scale).
See Figure 9-11.
Figure 9-11. Computing distance on the E6-B Figure 9-12. Determining time required on the E6-B

Problem: How much time is required to fly 320 nautical miles at a ground speed of 174 knots?
Solution: Use the formula:
Time = Distance ÷ Ground Speed, or use the flight computer in the following manner:
1. Set the 60 (speed) index under 174 (outer scale).
2. Under 320 (outer scale), read 110 minutes or 1 hour 50 minutes (inner scale). See Figure 9-12.
Problem: What is the ground speed if it takes 40 minutes to fly 96 nautical miles?
Solution: Use the formula: Ground Speed = Distance ÷ Time, or use the flight computer in the follow-
ing manner:
1. Place 40 minutes (inner scale) under 96 (outer scale).
2. Over the 60 (speed) index, read 144 knots (outer scale). See Figure 9-13.
Problem: If 50 minutes are required to fly 120 nautical miles, how many minutes are required to fly 86
nautical miles at the same rate?
Solution:
1. Set 50 (inner scale) under 120 (outer scale).
2. Under 86 (outer scale), read 36 minutes required (inner scale). See Figure 9-14.
Figure 9-13. Determining groundspeed on the E6-B Figure 9-14. Determining time-rate-distance on the E6-B

Calculating Fuel Consumption

Fuel consumption problems are solved in the same manner as Time-Rate-Distance problems.
Problem: If 18 gallons of fuel are consumed in 1 hour, how much fuel will be used in 2 hours 20 minutes?
Solution:
1. Set the 60-index (inner scale) under 18 (outer scale).
2. Over 2 hour 20 minute (inner scale), read 42 gallons (outer scale). See Figure 9-15.
Problem: What is the rate of fuel consumption if 30 gallons of fuel are consumed in 111 minutes?
Solution:
2. Over the 60-index (inner scale), read 16.2 gallons per hour (outer scale). See Figure 9-16.
Problem: Forty gallons of fuel have been consumed in 135 minutes (2 hours and 15 minutes) flying
time. How much longer can the aircraft continue to fly if 25 gallons of available fuel remain and the rate
of consumption remains the same?
Solution:
2. Under 25 (outer scale), read 84.5 minutes of fuel remaining. See Figure 9-17.
Figure 9-15. Determining total fuel consumed on the E6-B Figure 9-16. Determining rate of consumption on the E6-B

Finding True Airspeed and Density Altitude

The calculator (slide rule) side of the computer may also be used to determine true airspeed by correcting
calibrated airspeed for temperature and pressure altitude. Density altitude is computed simultaneously.
Problem: Using a flight computer and the following conditions, find the true airspeed (TAS) and the
density altitude (DA).
Conditions:
True Air Temperature........................................ +10°C
Pressure Altitude (PA)...............................10,000 feet
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)..........................140 knots
Solution:
1. Using the window marked “for airspeed and density altitude computations,” place the true air tem-
perature over the pressure altitude (Figure 9-18a).
2. In the density altitude window read the density altitude of 11,800 feet. (Figure 9-18b).
3. Over 140 knots CAS (inner scale) read the TAS of 167 knots (outer scale). See Figure 9-18c.
Figure 9-17. Determining flight time remaining on the E6-B Figure 9-18. Determining true airspeed and density
altitude on the E6-B

AIR, RTC, GLI, WSC, PPC ALL

3529-1. If a true heading of 135° results in a ground 3529-4. How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with
track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results a ground speed of 114 knots?
in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from A— 14.25 NM.
A— 019° and 12 knots. B— 15.00 NM.
B— 200° and 13 knots. C— 14.50 NM.
C— 246° and 13 knots.
To find the distance flown in a given time, multiply ground
You are heading to the southeast (135°) at 135 knots. The speed by time. The distance flown in 7.5 minutes (convert
wind is blowing you left of course (130°) and giving you to hours by dividing by 60) at a ground speed of 114 knots
a faster ground speed which means the wind is blowing is .125 × 114 = 14.25 NM. (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
from the southwest. Use your manual or electronic flight
computer to determine the wind direction and speed at
246° and 13 knots. (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
Answer (A) is incorrect because a wind from 019° would blow you 3565. (Refer to Figure 26.) Determine the magnetic
right of course (resulting in a ground track of 140°). Answer (B) is heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4)
incorrect because a wind from 200° would be a right quartering to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25
headwind which wouldn’t increase your ground speed. knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic
variation is 7° east.
AIR, RTC, GLI, WSC, PPC, SPO A— 003°.
3529-2. When converting from true course to magnetic B— 017°.
heading, a pilot should C— 023°.
A— subtract easterly variation and right wind Use the following steps:
correction angle.
B— add westerly variation and subtract left wind 1. Plot a course from Meacham to Denton, and measure
correction angle. the course (021°).
C— subtract westerly variation and add right wind 2. Using the wind obtained, calculate a correction angle.
correction angle. This angle will be the difference between the course
bearing and the heading required to maintain that
When converting a true course to a true heading, subtract course. Wind correction angle is 10° to the left.
a left wind correction angle or add a right wind correc-
3. Add course bearing and wind correction angle to
tion angle. When converting from a true heading to a
obtain true heading.
magnetic heading, add westerly variation or subtract
easterly variation. (PLT198) — FAA-H-8083-25 021 + -010 = 011° (true heading)
Answer (A) is incorrect because right wind correction is added. 4. Find the magnetic heading by adding the variation
Answer (C) is incorrect because westerly variation is added. to the true heading.
011 + -7 = 004° (magnetic heading)
AIR, RTC, GLI, WSC, PPC (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
3529-3. How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes
with a groundspeed of 98 knots?
A— 2.45 NM.
B— 3.35 NM.
C— 4.08 NM.
To find the distance flown in a given time, multiply ground

speed by time. The distance flown in 2-1/2 minutes (con-
vert to hours by dividing by 60) at a ground speed of 98
knots is .04 x 98 = 4.08 NM. (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3529-1 [C] 3529-2 [B] 3529-3 [C] 3529-4 [A] 3565 [A]


3551. (Refer to Figures 24 and 59.) Determine the 3538. (Refer to Figure 22.) Determine the magnetic
compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport
Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from
The wind is from 280° at 08 knots, the true airspeed is 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and
85 knots, and the magnetic variation is 5° west. the magnetic variation is 10° east.
A— 033°. A— 002°
B— 042°. B— 012°.
C— 038°. C— 352°.

1. Plot the course from Claxton-Evans County Airport 1. Plot the course from Mercer County Regional Airport
to Hampton Varnville Airport. to Minot Airport.
midpoint of the route (044°). midpoint of the route. The true course (TC) is 011°.
3. Use a flight computer to find the true heading: 3. Find the true heading using a flight computer:
Wind direction is 280° (given in question) Wind direction is 330° (given in question)
Wind speed is 8 knots (given in question) Wind speed is 25 knots (given in question)
True course is 044° (found in Step 2) True course is 011° (found in Step 2)
True airspeed is 85 knots (given in question) True airspeed is 100 knots (given in question)
Therefore, the true heading is 40°. Therefore, the true heading is 002°.
4. Calculate the magnetic heading by adding the west- 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the
erly variation (5°W) to the true heading (40°). easterly variation (10°) from the true heading (002°).
MH = TH ± VAR MH = TH ± VAR
MH = 40° + 5°W MH = 002° – 10°E
MH = 045° MH = 352°
5. Note the compass deviation card in Figure 59 indi- (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
cates that in order to fly a magnetic course of 030°,
the pilot must steer a compass heading of 027° or
a 3° compass deviation. To fly a magnetic course
of 060°, the pilot must steer a compass heading of
056° or a 4° compass deviation. Interpolate between
these to find the compass correction for 045° (3.5°).
Calculate the compass heading (CH) by subtract-
ing the compass deviation (3.5°) from the magnetic
heading (045°).
CH = MH ± DEV
CH = 045° – 3.5°
CH = 41.5°
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3551 [B] 3538 [C]


3545. (Refer to Figure 23.) Determine the magnetic 3546. (Refer to Figure 23.) What is the magnetic heading
heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone
St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12
knots and the true airspeed is 125 knots. knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots.
A— 172°. A— 121°.
B— 349°. B— 143°.
C— 187°. C— 136°.

1. Plot the course from Sandpoint Airport to St. Maries 1. Plot the course from Priest River to Shoshone County
Airport. Airport.
midpoint of the route (181°). midpoint of the route (143°).
3. Find true heading, using a flight computer: 3. Find the true heading using a flight computer:
Wind direction is 215° (given in question) Wind direction is 030° (given in question)
Wind speed is 25 knots (given in question) Wind speed is 12 knots (given in question)
True course is 181° (found in Step 2) True course is 143° (found in Step 2)
True airspeed is 125 knots (given in question) True airspeed is 95 knots (given in question)
Therefore, the true heading is 187°. Therefore, the true heading is 136°.
4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the
easterly variation (15°) from the true heading (187°). easterly variation (15°E, as shown on the dashed
MH = TH ± VAR isogonic line) from the true heading (136°).
MH = 187° – 15°E MH = TH ± VAR
MH = 172° MH = 136° – 15°E
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 MH = 121°
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3545 [A] 3546 [A]


3547. (Refer to Figure 23.) Determine the magnetic 3550. (Refer to Figure 24.) Determine the magnetic
heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area
Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind
10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots. is from 090° at 16 knots, the true airspeed is 90 knots,
A— 345°. and the magnetic variation is 5° west.
B— 329°. A— 208°.
C— 327°. B— 230°.
C— 212°.
1. Plot the course from St. Maries Airport to Priest River Use the following steps:
Airport. 1. Plot the course from Allendale County Airport to
2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate Claxton-Evans County Airport.
midpoint of the route (345°). 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate
3. Use a flight computer to find true heading: midpoint of the route (212°).
Wind direction is 340° (given in question) 3. Find true heading, using a flight computer:
Wind speed is 10 knots (given in question) Wind direction is 090° (given in question)
True course is 345° (found in Step 2) Wind speed is 16 knots (given in question)
True airspeed is 90 knots (given in question) True course is 212° (found in Step 2)
Therefore, the true heading is 344°. True airspeed is 90 knots (given in question)
4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the Therefore, the true heading is 203°.
easterly variation (15°E, as shown on the dashed 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by adding the west-
isogonic line) from the true heading (344°). erly variation (5°W, as shown on the dashed isogonic
MH = TH ± VAR line) from the true heading (203°).
MH = 344° – 15°E MH = TH ± VAR
MH = 329° MH = 203° + 5°W
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 MH = 208°
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3547 [B] 3550 [A]

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC AIR, RTC, GLI, WSC, PPC

3550-1. On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed 3564. (Refer to Figure 26.) Determine the magnetic
at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 heading for a flight from Dallas Executive (area 3) to Fort
hours. Use the following information to determine the Worth Meacham (area 4). The wind is from 030° at 10
indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule. knots, the true airspeed is 135 knots, and the magnetic
Distance between A and B.................................70 NM variation is 7° east.
Forecast wind......................................... 310° at 15 kts A— 266°.
Pressure altitude............................................... 8,000 ft B— 298°.
Ambient temperature........................................... -10°C C— 312°.
True course............................................................270°
The required indicated airspeed would be approximately
1. Plot a course from Dallas Executive to Meacham,
A— 126 knots.
and measure the course (289°).
B— 137 knots.
C— 152 knots. 2. Using the wind obtained, calculate a correction angle.
This angle will be the difference between the course
Use your CX-2 electronic flight computer to find the bearing and the heading required to maintain that
answer: course. Wind correction angle is 16° to the right.
1. Find the ground speed that must be made between 3. Add course bearing and wind correction angle to
points A and B (GS on CX-2 menu). obtain true heading.
Distance........................................................70 NM 289° course bearing
Time to travel................................................30 min. + 16° wind correction angle
Ground speed...............................................140 kts 305° true heading
2. Find the true airspeed (Hdg/TAS). 4. Find the magnetic heading by adding the variation
Wind direction...................................................310° to the true heading.
Wind speed....................................................15 kts 305° true heading
Course..............................................................270° – 007° variation (E)
Ground speed...............................................140 kts 298° magnetic heading
True airspeed.............................................151.8 kts
True heading.....................................................274° (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. Find the required indicated (or calibrated) airspeed
(ReqCAS).
Pressure altitude......................................... 8,000 ft
Temperature................................................... -10°C
True airspeed.............................................151.8 kts
Indicated airspeed.....................................137.1 kts
(same as calibrated)
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3550-1 [B] 3564 [B]

GLI LTA, LSL

3650. (Refer to Figure 27, areas 5 and 6.) What minimum 3537. (Refer to Figure 22.) An airship crosses over
altitude should be used for a go-ahead point at Eckelson Minot VORTAC (area 1) at 1056 and over the creek 8
in order to arrive at Barnes County Airport at 1,000 feet nautical miles south-southeast on Victor 15 at 1108.
AGL if the glide ratio is 22:1 in no wind conditions? Use What should be the approximate position on Victor 15
the recommended safety factor. at 1211?
A— 5,959 feet MSL. A— Over Lake Nettie National Wildlife Refuge.
B— 7,960 feet MSL. B— Crossing the road east of Underwood.
C— 9,359 feet MSL. C— Over the powerlines east of Washburn Airport.
Use the following steps: This is a time/speed/distance problem.

1. A safety margin is provided to allow for any perfor- 1. The distance is 8 NM (given in the question).
mance degradation. Use one-half the published L/D 2. The time is:
ratio for planning purposes. In this case use 11 to 1
(no wind). 11:08 – 10:56 = 12 minutes
2. Determine the distance from Eckelson to Barnes 3. Use: Distance
x 60 = Ground speed
County Airport (14.5 SM). Time
3. If 1 SM = 5,280 feet, calculate the total sink in 14.5 8 NM
x 60 = 40 knots
SM at a glide ratio of 11:1. 12 min.
5,280 ÷11= 480 feet sink per SM 4. Calculate the distance traveled on the next leg at
480.0 x 14.5 = 6,960.0 feet total sink this speed by 12:11.
4. Calculate the arrival altitude (MSL) by adding 1,000 12:11 – 11:08 = :63 minutes
feet AGL to the Barnes County elevation of 1,400
feet. 5. Use: Speed
x Time = Distance
1,400 Barnes County elevation 60
+ 1,000 arrival (AGL) 40 kts
2,400 arrival (MSL) x 63 min. = 42 NM
60 min.
5. Determine the go-ahead minimum by adding total 6. Locate the 8 NM creek and measure an additional
sink to the required arrival altitude. 42 NM along V15. You are east of Underwood; it is
6,960 feet total sink west of your position. The legs were 8 NM and 42
+ 2,400 feet MSL arrival altitude NM, total 50 NM.
9,360 feet MSL go-ahead minimum altitude (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3650 [C] 3537 [B]

LTA 1. Calculate the distance traveled at 10 MPH during

3558. (Refer to Figure 25.) Determine the magnetic 2-1/2 hours.
heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to
Distance = Speed x Time
Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12
Distance = 10 MPH x 2.5 H = 25 SM
knots, the true airspeed is 36 knots, and the magnetic
variation is 6°30'E. 2. Locate Eckelson in FAA Figure 27.
A— 078°. 3. Note that the magnetic variation near Eckelson, as
B— 091°. shown on the dashed isogonic line, is 5°E.
C— 101°. 4. Calculate the true course from the magnetic course:
Use the following steps: TC ± VAR = MC
TC – 5° = 14°
1. Plot the course from Majors Airport to Winnsboro TC = 019°
Airport.
5. Plot a true course of 019° from Eckelson extending
2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate 25 statute miles. The balloon would be over the town
midpoint of the route (100°). of Hannaford.
3. Find true heading, using a flight computer: (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Wind direction is 340° (given in question)
Wind speed is 12 knots (given in question)
True course is 100° (found in Step 2) SPO
True airspeed is 36 knots (given in question) 2099. If an aircraft is consuming 3 gallons of fuel per hour
at a cruising altitude of 500 feet and the groundspeed is
Therefore, the true heading is 083°. 45 mph, how much fuel is required to travel 75 SM?
4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the A— 6 gallons.
easterly variation (6°30'E) from the true heading B— 5 gallons.
(084°). C— 3 gallons.
MH = TH ± VAR
MH = 084° – 6°30'E To determine the fuel required for a given flight, the
MH = 78° time required for the flight must be known. Time in flight
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 multiplied by rate of consumption gives the quantity of
fuel required. For example, a flight of 75 SM at a ground
speed of 45 mph requires 1.67 hours (distance divided
LTA by ground speed = time). If the plane consumes 3 gal-
3569. (Refer to Figure 27, area 5.) A balloon drifts over lons an hour, the total consumption will be 1.67 x 3, or
the town of Eckelson on a magnetic course of 014° at 5 gallons. (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
10 MPH. If wind conditions remain constant, where will
the balloon be after 2 hours 30 minutes?
SPO
A— Cooperstown airport. 2105. To find the distance flown in a given time, mul-
B— West of Dazey. tiply time by
C— Hannaford.
A— groundspeed.
Use the following steps: B— indicated airspeed.
C— equivalent airspeed.
Distance D = GS x T: To find the distance flown in a
given time, multiply ground speed by time. (PLT012) —
FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3558 [A] 3569 [C] 2099 [B] 2105 [A]

SPO 6. Your true airspeed and ground speed are exactly 10

2101. Given: knots apart; since you are crabbed, the wind must
True course............................................................. 050 be stronger than 10 knots overall.
True Heading.......................................................... 040 7. You pick answer B because the wind is from the
True airspeed.......................................................75 kts estimated direction, and the speed is above 10 knots.
Groundspeed.......................................................65 kts 8. Looking at the answer and determining direction
Determine the wind direction and speed. and speed, this confirms your assumptions and the
correct answer.
A— 105°; and 16 knots
B— 355°; and 16 knots (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 355°; and 10 knots
LSL
Using an E6-B computer:
2222. (Refer to Figure 72, point 1.)
1. Turn compass azimuth so 050° is at the true index. Given:
2. Slide board so grommet is on the ground speed arc, Departure point....................Georgetown Airport (Q61)
65 knots.
Departure time...................................................... 0637
3. Determine the wind correction angle (WCA) by
Winds aloft forecast (FD) at your altitude............. 1008
comparing course to heading.
Airspeed................................................................8 kts
050° – 040° = 10° left
4. Plot WCA at TAS arc with a pencil dot, 75 knots. At 0755, the aircraft should be
5. Rotate compass azimuth so pencil dot is on the A— over Auburn Airport (AUN).
centerline. B— over the town of Auburn.
C— slightly west of the town of Garden Valley.
6. Read wind direction under true index and wind speed
as number of units between grommet and pencil dot, 1. Calculate time en route:
354° and 16 knots.
0755 – 0637 = 1:18 = 1.3 hours
Alternate method, using CX-2 computer: 2. Compute distance traveled:
1. Go to FLIGHT menu, select 5. Act Leg. Distance = Speed x Time
2. Select 3. Unknown Wind, and enter 40 for THdg input, 8 x 1.3 = 10.4 NM
press ENT. 3. Plot course of 100° + 180° = 280° out to a distance
3. GS input 65 knots, press ENT. of 10.4 NM from Georgetown Airport (Q61), point 1.
The aircraft should be just south of there.
4. TCrs input 50 for true course, press ENT.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
5. TAS input 75 for true airspeed, press ENT.
6. Read unknown wind direction of 354° at 15.8 kts.
SPO
Alternate method: using logic to find answer. 2175. Why should you file a VFR flight plan with FSS?
1. Picture your true course flying northeast. A— You are required to do so when flying beyond
2. Picture your heading 10 degrees to the north. 25 NM from an airport.
B— To provide traffic reports with Flight Service.
3. This indicates a crosswind from your left. C— To provide search and rescue in the event of an
4. Note your ground speed is lower than your airspeed. emergency.
This indicates a headwind rather than a tailwind.
5. From items 3 and 4 above, the wind can be deter- Filing a flight plan is not required by regulations; however,
mined from the northwest. it is a good operating practice, since the information
contained in the flight plan can be used in search and
rescue in the event of an emergency. (PLT225) — FAA-
H-8083-25
Answers
2101 [B] 2222 [A] 2175 [C]

Airspace
Controlled airspace, that is, airspace within which some or all aircraft may be subject to air traffic control,
consists of those areas designated as Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace.
Much of the controlled airspace begins at either 700 feet or 1,200 feet above the ground. The lateral
limits and floors of Class E airspace of 700 feet are defined by a magenta vignette; while the lateral limits
and floors of 1,200 feet are defined by a blue vignette if it abuts uncontrolled airspace. Floors other than
700 feet or 1,200 feet are indicated by a number indicating the floor.
Class A —Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 and is not
depicted on VFR sectional charts. No flight under visual flight rules (VFR), including VFR-On-Top, is
authorized in Class A airspace.
Class B—Class B airspace consists of controlled airspace extending upward from the surface or
higher to specified altitudes. Each Class B airspace sector, outlined in blue on the sectional aeronautical
chart, is labeled with its delimiting altitudes. On the Terminal Area Chart, each Class B airspace sector is,
again, outlined in blue and is labeled with its delimiting arcs, radials, and altitudes. Each Class B airspace
location will contain at least one primary airport. An ATC clearance is required prior to operating within
Class B airspace. A pilot landing or taking off from one of a group of 12 specific, busy airports must hold
at least a Private Pilot Certificate. At other airports, a student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo
flight within Class B airspace or to, from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace unless both
ground and flight instruction has been received from an authorized instructor to operate within that Class
B airspace or at that airport, and the flight and ground instruction has been received within that Class B
airspace or at the specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized. The student’s logbook must be
endorsed within the preceding 90 days by the instructor who gave the flight training and the endorsement
must specify that the student has been found competent to conduct solo flight operations in that Class B
airspace or at that specific airport. Each airplane operating within Class B airspace must be equipped with
a two-way radio with appropriate ATC frequencies, and a 4096 code transponder with Mode C automatic
altitude-reporting capability.
Class C—All Class C airspace has the same dimensions with minor site variations. They are com-
posed of two circles both centered on the primary airport. The inner circle (now called surface area)
has a radius of 5 nautical miles and extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport. The
outer circle (now called shelf area) has a radius of 10 nautical miles and extends vertically from 1,200
feet AGL up to 4,000 feet above the primary airport. In addition to the Class C airspace proper, there is
an outer area with a radius of 20 nautical miles and vertical coverage from the lower limits of the radio/
radar coverage up to the top of the approach control facility’s delegated airspace. Within the outer area,
pilots are encouraged to participate but it is not a VFR requirement. Class C airspace service to aircraft
proceeding to a satellite airport will be terminated at a sufficient distance to allow time to change to the
appropriate tower or advisory frequency. Aircraft departing satellite airports within Class C airspace shall
establish two-way communication with ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. On aeronautical charts,
Class C airspace is depicted by solid magenta lines.
Class D —Class D airspace extends upward from the surface to approximately 2,500 feet AGL (the
actual height is as needed). Class D airspace may include one or more airports and is normally 4 nauti-
cal miles in radius. The actual size and shape is depicted by a blue dashed line and numbers showing
the top. When the ceiling of Class D airspace is less than 1,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than 3
statute miles, pilots wishing to take off or land must hold an instrument rating, must have filed an instru-
ment flight plan, and must have received an appropriate clearance from ATC. In addition, the aircraft
must be equipped for instrument flight. At some locations, a pilot who does not hold an instrument rating
may be authorized to take off or land when the weather is less than that required for visual flight rules.
When special VFR flight is prohibited, it will be depicted by “No SVFR” above the airport information on
the chart.

FL 600
18,000 MSL
Figure 9-19
Class E —Magenta shading identifies Class E airspace starting at 700 feet AGL, and no shading
(or blue if next to Class G airspace) identifies Class E airspace starting at 1,200 feet AGL. It may also
start at other altitudes. All airspace from 14,500 feet to 17,999 feet is Class E airspace. It also includes
the surface area of some airports with an instrument approach but no control tower.
An airway is a corridor of controlled airspace extending from 1,200 feet above the surface (or as
designated) up to and including 17,999 feet MSL, and 4 nautical miles either side of the centerline. The
airway is indicated by a centerline, shown in blue.
Class G—Class G airspace is airspace within which Air Traffic Control (ATC) has neither the author-
ity nor responsibility to exercise any control over air traffic. Class G airspace typically extends from the
surface to the base of the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace which is normally 700 or 1,200 feet
AGL. In some areas of the western U.S. and Alaska, Class G airspace may extend from the surface to
14,500 feet MSL. An exception to this rule occurs when 14,500 feet MSL is lower than 1,500 feet AGL.
Prohibited Areas are blocks of airspace within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
Restricted Areas denote the presence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artil-
lery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of Restricted Areas without authorization of
the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.
Warning Areas contain the same hazardous activities as those found in Restricted Areas, but are
located in international airspace. Prohibited, restricted, or warning areas are depicted as shown in FAA
Legend 1.
Military Operations Areas (MOAs) consist of airspace established for the purpose of separating
certain military training activities from instrument flight rules (IFR) traffic. Pilots operating under VFR
should exercise extreme caution while flying within an active MOA. Any Flight Service Station (FSS)
within 100 miles of the area will provide information concerning MOA hours of operation. Prior to enter-
ing an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.
Continued

Alert Areas may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activ-
ity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. Pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the
area are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
An Airport Advisory Area is the area within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is
not in operation but where a Flight Service Station (FSS) is located. The FSS provides advisory service
to aircraft arriving and departing. It is not mandatory for pilots to use the advisory service, but it is strongly
recommended that they do so.
Aircraft are requested to remain at least 2,000 feet above the surface of National Parks, National
Monuments, Wilderness and Primitive Areas, and National Wildlife Refuges.
Military Training Routes (MTRs) have been developed for use by the military for the purpose of
conducting low-altitude, high-speed training. Generally, MTRs are established below 10,000 feet MSL
for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
IFR Military Training Routes (IR) operations are conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules
(IFRs), regardless of weather conditions. VFR Military Training Routes (VR) operations are conducted
in accordance with visual flight rules (VFRs). IR and VR at and below 1,500 feet AGL (with no segment
above 1,500) will be identified by four digit numbers, e.g., VR1351, IR1007. IR and VR above and below
1,500 feet AGL (segments of these routes may be below 1,500) will be identified by three digit numbers,
e.g., IR341, VR426.
ALL, SPO ALL

3599. (Refer to Figure 26, area 4.) The floor of Class B 3126. What minimum pilot certification is required for
airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest operation within Class B airspace?
of Fort Worth Meacham Field is A— Commercial Pilot Certificate.
A— at the surface. B— Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate
B— 3,200 feet MSL. with appropriate logbook endorsements.
C— 4,000 feet MSL. C— Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
The thick blue lines on the sectional chart indicate the It is generally true that no person may operate a civil air-
boundaries of the overlying Class B airspace. Within craft within Class B airspace unless the pilot-in-command
each segment, the floor and ceiling are denoted by holds at least a Private Pilot Certificate or is a student
one number over a second number or the letters SFC. pilot that has the proper logbook endorsements. However,
The floor of the Class B airspace is 4,000 feet MSL. there are certain Class B airports which never permit
(PLT040) — AIM ¶3-2-3 students, even if they have the proper endorsements.
(PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.131
Answer (A) is incorrect because Private pilots may operate in Class
ALL, SPO B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because only some airports
3600. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class restrict student pilots, and none require an instrument rating.
B airspace at Addison Airport is
A— at the surface.
The thick blue lines on the sectional chart indicate the

boundaries of the overlying Class B airspace. Within
each segment, the floor and ceiling are denoted by
one number over a second number or the letters SFC.
The floor of the Class B airspace is 3,000 feet MSL.
(PLT040) — AIM ¶3-2-3
Answers
3599 [C] 3600 [B] 3126 [B]

ALL ALL, SPO

3127. What minimum pilot certification is required for 3117. A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart
operation within Class B airspace? depicts which class airspace?
A— Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate A— Class B.
with appropriate logbook endorsements. B— Class C.
B— Recreational Pilot Certificate. C— Class D.
C— Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts
It is generally true that no person may operate a civil Class D airspace which means a control tower is in
aircraft within Class B airspace unless the pilot-in- operation. (PLT101) — 14 CFR §1.1
command holds at least a Private Pilot Certificate or Answer (A) is incorrect because Class B airspace is depicted by a
a student pilot has the proper logbook endorsements. solid blue line. Answer (B) is incorrect because Class C airspace is
However, there are some Class B airports which never depicted by a solid magenta line.
permit students, even if they have the proper endorse-
ments. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §61.95, §91.131
ALL, SPO
Answer (B) is incorrect because the PIC must hold at least a private
3118. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control
pilot certificate. Answer (C) is incorrect because an instrument rating
is not required to operate within Class B airspace. tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A— when the weather minimums are below basic
VFR.
ALL
B— when the associated control tower is in operation.
3128. What minimum radio equipment is required for C— when the associated Flight Service Station is in
VFR operation within Class B airspace? operation.
A— Two-way radio communications equipment and a
4096-code transponder. Class D airspace means a control tower is in opera-
B— Two-way radio communications equipment, tion. If the tower closes, it reverts to Class E airspace.
a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding (PLT161) — 14 CFR §1.1
altimeter. Answer (A) is incorrect because weather minimums have nothing to
C— Two-way radio communications equipment, a do with airspace classifications. Answer (C) is incorrect because an
FSS has nothing to do with the class of airspace.
4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter,
and a VOR or TACAN receiver.
ALL
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may
3787. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are
operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless that
based on
aircraft is equipped with an operable two-way radio
capable of communications with ATC, a transponder A— the number of airports that lie within the Class D
with applicable altitude reporting equipment, and an airspace.
encoding altimeter. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.131 B— 5 statute miles from the geographical center of
the primary airport.
C— the instrument procedures for which the
ALL controlled airspace is established.
3628. (Refer to Figure 26.) At which airports is fixed-
wing Special VFR not authorized? The dimensions of Class D airspace are as needed for
A— Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks. each individual circumstance. The airspace may include
B— Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love extensions necessary for IFR arrival and departure paths.
Field. (PLT161) — AIM ¶3-2-5
C— Addison and Dallas Executive.
Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft are pro-

hibited in some Class B, C, and D airspaces due to the
volume of IFR traffic. These airspaces are depicted by
the notation “No SVFR” over the airport information.
(PLT064) — AIM ¶4-4-6
Answers
3127 [A] 3128 [B] 3628 [B] 3117 [C] 3118 [B] 3787 [C]

ALL ALL
3787-1. When a control tower, located on an airport 3124. Two-way radio communication must be estab-
within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, lished with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction
what happens to the airspace designation? over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
A— The airspace designation normally will not A— Class C.
change. B— Class E.
B— The airspace remains Class D airspace as long C— Class G.
as a weather observer or automated weather
system is available. Two-way radio communication must be established
C— The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class
of Class E and G airspace during the hours the C airspace prior to entry and thereafter as instructed
tower is not in operation. by ATC. (PLT434) — 14 CFR §91.130
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because airports within Class E
By definition, Class D airspace surrounds airports that and G airspace only require two-way radio communication when a
have an operational control tower. Class D airspace control tower is present.
reverts to Class E airspace (if the weather observer is
present or the weather system is automated) or Class
ALL, SPO
G airspace (at the airports where the tower controllers
3799. Which initial action should a pilot take prior to
are also the weather observers). (PLT162) — AIM ¶3-2-5
entering Class C airspace?
Answer (A) is incorrect because the tower must be operational
for the airspace to be designated Class D. Answer (B) is incorrect A— Contact approach control on the appropriate
because the airspace will revert to Class E if the tower is closed but frequency.
the weather observer is present or an automated weather system
is available.
B— Contact the tower and request permission to enter.
C— Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
ALL Radio contact is required to operate in Class C airspace,

3788. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same but permission is not required. (PLT161) — AIM ¶3-2-4
Class D airspace as that designated for the primary
airport, requires radio communications be established
ALL, SPO
and maintained with the
3779. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the
A— satellite airport’s UNICOM. primary airport is normally
B— associated Flight Service Station.
A— 1,200 feet AGL.
C— primary airport’s control tower.
B— 3,000 feet AGL.
Radio communications must be established and C— 4,000 feet AGL.
maintained with the primary control tower even when
Class C airspace consists of two circles, both centered
operating to and from a non-tower airport located within
on the primary/Class C airspace airport. The surface
the lateral limits of Class D airspace. On takeoff from a
area has a radius of 5 NM. The shelf area usually has a
satellite airport, communication must be established as
radius of 10 NM. The airspace of the surface area usu-
soon as practicable after takeoff. (PLT162) — AIM ¶3-2-5
ally extends from the surface of the Class C airspace
airport up to 4,000 feet above that airport. The airspace
area between the 5 and 10 NM rings usually begins at a
height of 1,200 feet AGL and extends to the same altitude
cap as the inner circle. These dimensions may be varied
to meet individual situations. (PLT161) — AIM ¶3-2-4
Answers
3787-1 [C] 3788 [C] 3124 [A] 3799 [A] 3779 [C]

ALL, SPO ALL, SPO

3780. The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class 3626. (Refer to Figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor
C airspace is normally of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area
A— 10 NM. (outer circle)?
B— 20 NM. A— 1,300 feet AGL.
C— 30 NM. B— 1,300 feet MSL.
The normal radius of the outer area will be 20 NM.
(PLT161) — AIM ¶3-2-4 Within the outer magenta circle of Savannah Class C
airspace, there is a number 41 directly above the num-
ber 13. These depict the floor and ceiling of the Class C
ALL airspace; the floor being 1,300 feet MSL and the ceiling
3781. All operations within Class C airspace must be in being 4,100 feet MSL. (PLT161) — AIM ¶3-2-4
A— accordance with instrument flight rules.
B— compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
ALL
C— an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code
transponder with Mode C encoding capability. 3627. (Refer to Figure 21, area 1.) What minimum radio
equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk
Aircraft operating in Class C airspace must have a Mode International?
C transponder. (PLT161) — AIM ¶3-2-4 A— Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.
Answer (A) is incorrect because visual flight rules are also used B— Mode C transponder and two-way radio.
within Class C airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect because an ATC C— Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.
clearance is not required to operate within Class C airspace.
Norfolk International is in Class C airspace. To oper-
ate within Class C airspace, an aircraft must have (1)
ALL
two-way communications capability and (2) a Mode C
3782. Under what condition may an aircraft operate
transponder. (PLT064) — AIM ¶3-2-4
from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
A— The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
B— The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the ALL
Class C airspace. 3125. What minimum radio equipment is required for
C— The pilot must contact ATC as soon as operation within Class C airspace?
practicable after takeoff. A— Two-way radio communications equipment and a
4096-code transponder.
For aircraft departing a satellite airport, two-way radio B— Two-way radio communications equipment, a
communication must be established as soon as practi- 4096-code transponder, and DME.
cable and thereafter maintained with ATC while within C— Two-way radio communications equipment,
the area. (PLT161) — AIM ¶3-2-4 a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because Class C airspace does altimeter.
not require flight plans, and a pilot must maintain contact with ATC
in Class C airspace.
Class C requires two-way radio communications
equipment, a transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
(PLT393) — 14 CFR §91.130 and §91.215
Answers
3780 [B] 3781 [C] 3782 [C] 3626 [B] 3627 [B] 3125 [C]

ALL ALL, SPO

3069. Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with 3625. (Refer to Figure 26, area 4.) The airspace directly
an operating control tower require the ceiling and vis- overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
ibility to be at least A— Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL.
A— 1,000 feet and 1 mile. B— Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL.
B— 1,000 feet and 3 miles. C— Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.
C— 2,500 feet and 3 miles.
A blue segmented circle depicts Class D airspace which
Except as provided in 14 CFR §91.157, no person extends from the surface to 3,200 feet MSL, in this case
may operate an aircraft, under VFR, within the lateral as shown by the blue number 32 surrounded by the blue
boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, segmented box. (PLT101) — AIM ¶3-2-5
Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport Answer (A) is incorrect because although Class B airspace does
when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. The flight vis- overlie Fort Worth Meacham to 10,000 feet MSL, its base is 4,000
ibility and cloud clearance for VFR operations in Class D feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect because Class C airspace does
not exist around Fort Worth Meacham.
airspace is 3 statute miles visibility, and 500 feet below,
1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal from all clouds.
(PLT163) — 14 CFR §91.155 ALL, SPO
3068. Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways
include that Class E airspace extending upward from
ALL
3119. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio A— 700 feet above the surface up to and including
communications with Air Traffic Control are required for 17,999 feet MSL.
landings or takeoffs B— 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including
17,999 feet MSL.
A— at all tower controlled airports regardless of
C— the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
weather conditions.
B— at all tower controlled airports only when weather Federal airways are part of Class B, C, D, or E airspace.
conditions are less than VFR. They are eight miles wide, four miles either side of cen-
C— at all tower controlled airports within Class D terline. They usually begin at 1,200 AGL and continue
airspace only when weather conditions are less up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, or FL180.
than VFR. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §71.71
No person may operate an aircraft to, from, or on an air-
port having a control tower operated by the United States ALL
unless two-way radio communications are maintained 3068-1. With certain exceptions, Class E airspace
between that aircraft and the control tower. (PLT044) extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL
— 14 CFR §91.126, §91.127, and §91.129 to, but does not include,
Class E airspace extends upward to (but not including)

18,000 feet MSL. (PLT161) — 14 CFR §71.71
Answers
3069 [B] 3119 [A] 3625 [C] 3068 [B] 3068-1 [C]

ALL, SPO ALL, SPO

3068-2. (Refer to figure 21, area 1.) The NALF Fentress 3623. (Refer to Figure 27, area 5.) The airspace overly-
(NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? ing and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
A— Class C. A— Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of
B— Class E. the overlying Class E airspace.
C— Class G. B— Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet
MSL.
The Nalf Fentress (NFE) airport is halfway between C— Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet
areas 1 and 2 in Figure 56. It is inside a magenta dashed AGL.
line indicating Class E airspace starts at the surface.
(PLT064) — AIM ¶3-2-6 The Barnes County Airport is depicted inside the
Answer (A) is incorrect because Class C airspace is indicated with magenta shading, which is controlled airspace from 700
a solid magenta line. Answer (C) is incorrect because Class G air- feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet. Therefore,
space would be indicated with solid (shaded) magenta or blue lines. the airspace below 700 feet AGL is Class G. (PLT040)
— AIM ¶3-2-1
ALL, SPO
3629. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of ALL, SPO
that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal 3624. (Refer to Figure 26, area 7.) The airspace over-
Airway over Magee Airport are lying Collin Co RGL McKinney (TKI) is controlled from
A— 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL. the surface to
B— 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL. A— 2,500 feet MSL.
C— 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL. B— 2,900 feet MSL.
C— 700 feet AGL.
The VOR and L/MF Airway System consists of airways
designated from 1,200 feet above the surface (in some The [29] indicates the Class D airspace around McKinney
instances higher) up to, but not including, 18,000 feet (TKI) goes from the surface to 2,900 feet MSL. (PLT101)
MSL. (PLT064) — AIM ¶3-2-6 — AIM ¶3-2-1
ALL, SPO ALL, SPO

3622. (Refer to Figure 27, area 1.) Identify the airspace 3601. (Refer to Figure 21, area 4.) What hazards to
over Tomlinson Airport. aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
A— Class G airspace – surface up to but not including A— Military training activities that necessitate
18,000 feet MSL. acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
B— Class G airspace – surface up to but not including B— Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial
1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace – 1,200 feet gunnery or guided missiles.
AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C— High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of
C— Class G airspace – surface up to but not including aerial activity.
700 feet MSL, Class E airspace – 700 feet to
14,500 feet MSL. Restricted areas denote the presence of unusual, often
invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial
The blue shading in the bottom left corner of Figure 27 gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted
indicates Tomlinson Airport lies in Class G airspace from areas without authorization of the using or controlling
the surface to 1,200 feet AGL, and Class E airspace from agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and
1,200 feet AGL to 18,000 feet MSL. The blue shading its occupants. (PLT064) — AIM ¶3-4-3
of the Victor airways indicates Class E airspace from Answer (A) is incorrect because this defines a military operations
1,200 feet AGL. (PLT161) — AIM ¶3‑2-1 area. Answer (C) is incorrect because this defines an alert area.
Answers
3068-2 [B] 3629 [C] 3622 [B] 3623 [C] 3624 [B] 3601 [B]

ALL, SPO ALL

3602. (Refer to Figure 27, area 2.) What hazards to air- 3785. What action should a pilot take when operating
craft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A— Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft A— Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency
such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided prior to entering the MOA.
missiles. B— Operate only on the airways that transverse the
B— High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of MOA.
aerial activity. C— Exercise extreme caution when military activity is
C— Military training activities that necessitate being conducted.
acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme
A Military Operations Area (MOA) contains military train- caution while flying within a MOA when military activity
ing activities such as aerobatics, and calls for extreme is being conducted. No clearance is necessary to enter
caution. (PLT393) — AIM ¶3-4-5 a MOA. (PLT393) — AIM ¶3-4-5
ALL ALL
3783. Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through 3786. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert
a restricted area? area rests with
A— When flying on airways with an ATC clearance. A— the controlling agency.
B— With the controlling agency’s authorization. B— all pilots.
C— Regulations do not allow this. C— Air Traffic Control.
Restricted areas can be penetrated but only with the All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in
permission of the controlling agency. No person may accordance with FAA regulations, without waiver, and
operate an aircraft within a restricted area contrary to pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transit-
the restrictions imposed unless he/she has the permis- ing the area, shall be equally responsible for collision
sion of the using or controlling agency as appropriate. avoidance. (PLT444) — AIM ¶3-4-6
Penetration of restricted areas without authorization
from the using or controlling agency may be fatal to
the aircraft and its occupants. (PLT393) — AIM ¶3-4-3 ALL
3603. (Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) What type military
flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?
ALL
A— IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at
3783-1. Flight through a restricted area should not be speeds in excess of 250 knots.
accomplished unless the pilot has B— VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at
A— filed an IFR flight plan. speeds less than 250 knots.
B— received prior authorization from the controlling C— Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL
agency. at speeds in excess of 150 knots.
C— received prior permission from the commanding
officer of the nearest military base. IR644 begins at the lower left (eastbound) and turns
northeast as a thin gray line. IR644 has three digits,
Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, which mean: generally above 1,500 feet AGL (but some
often invisible hazards to aircraft such as artillery fir- segments below), operations under IFR, and (as with all
ing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Authorization MTRs) may be over 250 knots. (PLT064) — AIM ¶3-5-2
must be received prior to entering any restricted areas.
(PLT393) — AIM ¶3-4-3
Answers
3602 [C] 3783 [B] 3783-1 [B] 3785 [C] 3786 [B] 3603 [A]

ALL, SPO LTA, LSL

3618. (Refer to Figure 27, area 3.) When flying over 3784. A balloon flight through a restricted area is
Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly A— permitted at certain times, but only with prior
no lower than permission by the appropriate authority.
A— 2,000 feet AGL. B— permitted anytime, but caution should be
B— 2,500 feet AGL. exercised because of high-speed military aircraft.
C— 3,000 feet AGL. C— never permitted.
All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum alti- Restricted areas can be penetrated but only with the
tude of 2,000 feet above the surface of national parks, permission of the controlling agency. No person may
monuments, seashores, lakeshores, recreation areas, operate an aircraft within a restricted area contrary to
and scenic riverways administered by the National Park the restrictions imposed unless he/she has the permis-
Service, National Wildlife Refuges, Big Game Refuges, sion of the using or controlling agency as appropriate.
Game Ranges and Wildlife Ranges administered by Penetration of restricted areas without authorization
the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and Wilderness and from the using or controlling agency may be fatal to
Primitive areas administered by the U.S. Forest Service. the aircraft and its occupants. (PLT393) — AIM ¶3-4-3
(PLT376) — AIM ¶7-4-6
SPO
ALL 2192. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class
3831. Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are B airspace?
requested to fly no lower than A— The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before
A— 1,000 feet AGL. operating an aircraft in that area.
B— 2,000 feet AGL. B— Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the
C— 3,000 feet AGL. pilot in command is instrument rated.
C— Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude
of 2,000 feet above the surface of the following: national No person may operate an aircraft within Class B air-
parks, monuments, seashores, lakeshores, recreation space unless the operator first receives an ATC clear-
areas and scenic riverways administered by the National ance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that
Park Service, National Wildlife Refuges, Big Game Ref- area. (PLT162) — 14 CFR §91.131
uges, Game Ranges and Wildlife Ranges administered Answer (B) is incorrect because a Private pilot certificate without an
by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and Wilderness instrument rating is sufficient to operate in Class B airspace. Answer
and Primitive areas administered by the U.S. Forest (C) is incorrect because with the proper training and endorsements,
a student pilot may operate in Class B airspace.
Service. (PLT064) — AIM ¶7-4-6
AIR, GLI, WSC, PPC

3130. In which type of airspace are VFR flights pro-
hibited?
A— Class A.
B— Class B.
C— Class C.
No person may operate an aircraft within Class A air-

space unless that aircraft is operated under IFR at a
specific flight level assigned by ATC. (PLT161) — 14
CFR §91.135
Answers
3618 [A] 3831 [B] 3130 [A] 3784 [A] 2192 [A]

SPO SPO
2193. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class 2049. What designated airspace associated with an
B airspace? airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that
A— The pilot in command must hold at least a private airport is not in operation?
pilot certificate with an instrument rating. A— Class D, which then becomes Class C.
B— The pilot in command must hold at least a student B— Class D, which then becomes Class E.
pilot certificate. C— Class B.
C— The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment. Class D airspace means a control tower is in opera-
tion. If the tower closes, it reverts to Class E airspace.
You may not operate an aircraft in Class B airspace (PLT161) — 14 CFR §1.1
unless the aircraft is equipped with an operating tran-
sponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment or
you have requested a waiver at least one hour before SPO
the proposed operation. Both 14 CFR §§91.130 and 2050. (Refer to Figure 71, point 1) What minimum alti-
91.131 have provisions to allow any aircraft to operate tude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK)
in the airspace without transponders. (PLT162) — 14 Class D airspace?
CFR §91.131 A— 2,503 feet MSL.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a private pilot certificate without an B— 2,901 feet MSL.
instrument rating is sufficient to operate in Class B airspace. Answer C— 3,297 feet MSL.
(B) is incorrect because Class B airspace requires the pilot-in-com-
mand hold a private pilot certificate or have a logbook endorsement
confirming that the necessary training was received. The Class D airspace at Livermore has a top of 2,900
feet MSL, indicated by the [29] within the blue segmented
circle. Therefore, the minimum altitude to fly over and
SPO avoid the Class D airspace is 2,901 feet MSL. (PLT040)
2043. Which is true regarding flight operations to a sat- — AIM ¶3-2-5
ellite airport, without an operating control tower, within Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,503 feet MSL would place you
Class C airspace? within the Class D airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because
although 3,297 feet MSL would keep you outside the Class D air-
A— Prior to entering that airspace, a Sport Pilot must space, it is not the minimum altitude required to avoid it.
contact the FSS.
B— Prior to entering that airspace, a Sport Pilot must
contact the primary airport tower. SPO
C— Prior to entering that airspace, a Sport Pilot must 2052. The purpose of Military Training Routes, charted
receive the appropriate logbook endorsement. as VFR Military Training Routes (VR) and IFR Military
Training Routes (IR) on sectional charts, is to ensure the
A Sport Pilot must receive ground training and a logbook greatest practical level of safety for all flight operations
endorsement to operate in Class B, C, and D airspace. and to allow the military to conduct
(PLT162) — 14 CFR §61.94 A— low altitude, high-speed training.
Answer (A) is incorrect because airports in Class C airspace have B— radar instrument training.
a control tower; all communications must be established with this
facility, not FSS. Answer (B) is incorrect because the Sport Pilot must C— air-to-air refueling training.
first have specific ground training and a logbook endorsement before
attempting to enter Class C airspace. The military services must train in a wide range of air-
borne tactics. One phase of this training involves “low
level” combat tactics. The required maneuvers and high
speeds are such that they may occasionally make the
see-and-avoid aspect of VFR flight more difficult without
increased vigilance in areas containing such operations.
In an effort to ensure the greatest practical level of safety
for all flight operations, the Military Training Route (MTR)
program was conceived. (PLT116) — AIM ¶3‑5‑2
Answers
2193 [C] 2043 [C] 2049 [B] 2050 [B] 2052 [A]

SPO SPO
2056. Who is responsible for collision avoidance in a 2204. (Refer to Figure 72, point 1.) The floor of the
Military Operations Area (MOA)? Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at
A— Each pilot. A— the surface.
B— ATC controllers. B— 700 feet AGL.
C— Military controllers. C— 3,823 feet MSL.
Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme Georgetown Airport is outside the magenta shaded
caution while flying within a MOA when military activity area, which indicates the floor of Class E airspace is
is being conducted. No clearance is necessary to enter at 1,200 feet AGL. The airport elevation is given in the
a MOA. (PLT162) — AIM ¶3-4-5 airport data as 2,623 feet MSL. Therefore, the Class E
airspace above Georgetown Airport is 3,823 feet MSL
(2,623 + 1,200). (PLT064) — Sectional Chart
SPO Answer (A) is incorrect because Class E airspace begins at the sur-
2059. (Refer to Figure 25, point 6) The floor of the Class face only when surrounded by a magenta segmented circle. Answer
E airspace over the town of Commerce is (B) is incorrect because Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL
inside the magenta shaded areas.
B— 700 feet AGL.
C— 1,200 feet AGL. SPO
2138. (Refer to Figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and
The magenta shading around Commerce indicates the cloud clearance requirements for a Sport Pilot to operate
floor of the Class E airspace starts 700 feet above the over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
surface. (PLT064) — Sectional Chart
A— 3 miles and clear of clouds.
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because 1,200 feet AGL (not
MSL) is indicated with blue shading. B— 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and
2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
C— 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below,
SPO and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
2198. Which is true concerning the colors used to depict
airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? The Sandpoint Airport Class E airspace starts at 700
feet AGL (indicated by the magenta shading). Class G
A— Airports with control towers underlying Class D airspace exists below this. The Sport Pilot clearance
and E airspace are magenta. requirements are 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
B— Airports with control towers are shown in magenta. (PLT163) — 14 CFR §61.315
C— Airports with control towers are shown in blue.
Reference FAA Legend 1 in the Computer Testing SPO

Supplement. Airports having control towers are shown in 2179. Airports with control towers are shown in
blue, all others in magenta. (PLT064) — Sectional Chart
A— magenta.
B— blue.
SPO C— brown.
2115. (Refer to Figure 72, point 6) Mosier Airport is
Reference FAA Legend 1. Airports having control tow-
A— an airport restricted to use by private and ers are shown in blue, all others in magenta. (PLT064)
recreational pilots. — Sectional Chart
B— a restricted military stage field within restricted
airspace.
C— a nonpublic use airport.
The “Pvt” after the airport names indicates Mosier air-

port is a restricted or non-public use airport. (PLT064)
— Sectional Chart
Answer (A) is incorrect because the R in the circle indicates the air-
port is a nonpublic-use airport. Answer (B) is incorrect because the
blue box near Mosier airport indicates an alert area.
Answers
2056 [A] 2059 [B] 2198 [C] 2115 [C] 2204 [C] 2138 [A]
2179 [B]

SPO SPO
2055-1. (Refer to Figure 27.) The Devils Lake East 2138-1. (Refer to Figure 76.) The airspace surrounding
MOA (area 1) is a the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GBN) (area 6) is clas-
A— meteorological observation area. sified as Class
B— mililtary observation area. A— B.
C— military operations area. B— C.
C— D.
A military operations area (MOA) contains military train-
ing activities such as aerobatics, and calls for extreme The GBN airport is surrounded by a dashed blue line
caution. (PLT064) — AIM ¶3-4-5 which indicates it is within Class D airspace. (PLT040)
— Sectional Chart
SPO
2367. (Refer to Figure 27.) The floor of the Class E SPO
airspace over the Jamestown airport is 2138-2. (Refer to Figure 23.) Weather information is
A— surface. available at the Coeur d’Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)
B— 700 feet AGL. A— at the automated flight service station on the field.
C— 1,200 feet AGL. B— from AWOS 3 135.075.
C— from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8.
The magenta shading around Jamestown indicates
the floor of the Class E airspace starts 700 feet above Automated Surface Weather Observing System (AWOS)
the surface. The dashed area means the Class E goes is available on 135.075. (PLT116) — Sectional Chart
all the way to the surface (PLT064) — Sectional Chart Legend
Answer (B) is incorrect because 700 feet AGL is indicated with
magenta shading; however, there is a dashed line as well near
the airport bringing Class E to the surface. Answer (C) is incorrect
because 1,200 feet AGL would require blue shading around the
airport.
SPO
2113-1. (Refer to Figure 26.) What is the base of Class
B airspace at Frisco (DDJ) Airport?
A— 3000.
B— 4000.
C— 1700.
The thick blue lines on the sectional chart indicate the

boundaries of the overlying Class B airspace. Within
each segment, the floor and ceiling are denoted by one
number over a second number or the letters SFC. The
floor of the Class B airspace at DDJ airport is 3,000 feet
MSL. (PLT011) — AIM ¶3-2-3
Answers
2055-1 [C] 2367 [A] 2113-1 [A] 2138-1 [C] 2138-2 [B]

Chapter 10
Navigation
VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) 10 – 3
VOR Orientation 10 – 3
Course Determination 10 – 6
VOR Airways 10 – 8
VOR Receiver Check Points 10 – 9
Global Positioning System (GPS) 10 – 10


VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)

The VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) is the backbone of the National Airway System, and this radio
aid to navigation (NAVAID) provides guidance to pilots operating under visual flight rules as well as
those flying instruments.
On sectional aeronautical charts, VOR locations are shown by blue symbols centered in a blue
compass rose which is oriented to Magnetic North. A blue identification box adjacent to the VOR symbol
lists the name and frequency of the facility, its three-letter identifier and Morse Code equivalent, and
other information as appropriate. For example: a small solid blue square in the bottom right hand corner
indicates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) are available. See the “Radio Aids to
Navigation and Communications Box” information in FAA Legend 1.
Some VORs have a voice identification alternating with the Morse Code identifier. Absence of the
identifier indicates the facility is unreliable or undergoing routine maintenance; in either case, it should
not be used for navigation. Some VORs also transmit a T-E-S-T code when undergoing maintenance.
The VOR station continuously transmits navigation signals, providing 360 magnetic courses to or
radials from the station. Courses are TO the station and radials are FROM the station.
TACAN, a military system which provides directional guidance, also informs the pilot of the aircraft’s
distance from the TACAN Station. When a VOR and a TACAN are co-located, the facility is called a
VORTAC. Civil pilots may receive both azimuth and distance information from a VORTAC.
At some VOR sites, additional equipment has been installed to provide pilots with distance informa-
tion. Such an installation is termed a VOR/DME (for “distance measuring equipment”).
AIR, RTC Reference FAA Legend 1. There is a VOR/DME at DFW.

3643. (Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) The navigation facility (PLT101) — Sectional Chart Legend
at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
A— VOR.
B— VORTAC.
C— VOR/DME.
VOR Orientation
Cockpit display of VOR information is by means of
an indicator as shown in Figure 10-1.
The Omni Bearing Selector (OBS) is an azi-
muth dial which can be rotated to select a course
or to determine which radial the aircraft is on. The
TO/FROM indicator shows whether flying the
selected course would take the aircraft to or from
the VOR station. A TO indication shows the radial
selected is on the far side of the VOR station,
while a FROM indication means the aircraft and
the selected course are on the same side.
The Course Deviation Indicator (CDI), when
centered, indicates the aircraft is on the selected
course, or, when not centered, whether that course Figure 10-1. The VOR indicator
is to the left or right of the aircraft. For example,
Answers
3643 [C]

Figure 10-2 is indicating that a course of 030° would take the aircraft to the selected station, and to get
on that course, the aircraft would have to fly to the left of 030°.
To determine position in relation to one or more
VOR stations, first tune and identify the selected
station. Next, rotate the OBS until the CDI cen-
ters with a FROM indication. The OBS reading is
the magnetic course from the VOR station to the
aircraft. With reference to Figure 10-3, the line of
position is established on the 265° radial of the
XYZ VOR.
Repeat the procedure using a second VOR.
The aircraft is located at the point where the two
Figure 10-2. Interpreting the OBS and CDI indications lines of position cross. See Figure 10-4.
Figure 10-3. Aircraft on the 265° radial of a VOR
AIR, RTC AIR, RTC

3552. (Refer to Figure 24.) What is the approximate 3559. (Refer to Figure 25.) What is the approximate
position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the
320° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° 245° radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and
radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)? the 140° radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?
A— Southeast of Guyton. A— Weese Intl. Airport.
B— Town of Springfield. B— Glenmar Airport.
C— 3 miles east of Marlow. C— Majors Airport.

1. Plot the 320° radial (magnetic course FROM) of the 1. Plot the 245° radial (magnetic course FROM) of the
Savannah VORTAC. Sulphur Springs VOR-DME.
2. Plot the 184° radial of the Allendale VOR. 2. Plot the 140° radial (magnetic course FROM) of the
3. Note the intersection of the two plotted radials south- Bonham VORTAC.
east of the town of Guyton. 3. Note the intersection of the two plotted radials over
(PLT335) — FAA-H-8083-25 the Glenmar Airport (Pvt).
(PLT101) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3552 [A] 3559 [B]

Figure 10-4. VOR orientation using two VORs
AIR, RTC The course selected is 030° and the TO/FROM indicator
3566. (Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) The VOR is tuned to is showing TO, which means the aircraft is south of the
the Dallas/Fort Worth VORTAC. The omnibearing selector course. The CDI needle is deflected to the left, which
(OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right means the aircraft is right of the course. (PLT090) —
course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the FAA-H-8083-25
aircraft’s position from the VORTAC?
A— East–northeast.
AIR, RTC
B— North–northeast.
3578. (Refer to Figure 29, illustration 3.) The VOR
C— West–southwest.
receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s
The course selected is 253° and the TO/FROM indicator position relative to the station?
has a TO flag, which means the aircraft is south of the A— East.
course but north of the VOR. The CDI needle is deflected B— Southeast.
to the right, which means the aircraft is left (or east) of C— West.
the course. Therefore, the aircraft must be to the east
northeast of the station to satisfy the VOR indications. Observe from illustration #3 of FAA Figure 29, that there
(PLT101) — FAA-H-8083-25 is no TO/FROM indication and the CDI is deflected left
with an OBS set on 030°. The aircraft is somewhere
along the perpendicular line (120/300°). The CDI left
AIR, RTC means the 030° radial is to the left, or west, of the
3577. (Refer to Figure 29, illustration 1.) The VOR aircraft position. Answer B is the only one placing the
receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s aircraft on the 120° radial, or southeast of the station.
position relative to the station? (PLT090) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— North.
B— East.
C— South.
Answers
3566 [A] 3577 [C] 3578 [B]

AIR, RTC The CDI is centered with the OBS set to 210° with a TO
3579. (Refer to Figure 29, illustration 8.) The VOR indication. Therefore, the aircraft is located on the 030°
receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the radial. (PLT090) — FAA-H-8083-25
aircraft crossing?
A— 030°.
B— 210°.
C— 300°.
Course Determination
To determine the course to be flown to a VOR station on the sectional aeronautical chart, first draw a
line from the starting point to the VOR symbol in the center of the compass rose. At the point where the
course line crosses the compass rose, read the radial. The course to the station is the reciprocal of that
radial. See Figure 10-5.
Figure 10-5. Determining course to a VOR station
AIR, RTC AIR, RTC

3553. (Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should 3560. (Refer to Figure 25.) On what course should the
the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct
Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area
(area 3)? 2)?
A— 003°. A— 101°.
B— 195°. B— 108°.
C— 200°. C— 281°.

1. Plot the course direct from Hampton Varnville Airport 1. Plot the course direct from Majors Airport to Quitman
to the Savannah VORTAC. VORTAC.
2. Note the radial (magnetic course from Savannah) 2. Note the radial (magnetic course FROM) of Quitman
on which the plotted course lies (015°). VORTAC on which the plotted course lies (281°).
3. Determine the course TO the VORTAC by finding the 3. Determine the course TO the VORTAC by finding the
reciprocal: reciprocal:
TO = FROM + 180° TO = FROM + 180°
TO = 015° + 180° TO = 281° + 180°
TO = 195° TO = 461° – 360° = 101°
(PLT064) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT090) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3579 [A] 3553 [B] 3560 [A]

AIR, RTC AIR, RTC

3533. (Refer to Figure 21, area 3; and Figure 29.) The 3570. (Refer to Figure 27, areas 4 and 2; and Figure
VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME, and the air- 29.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the
craft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport. Which
west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR VOR indication is correct?
indication is correct? A— 1.
A— 2. B— 6.
B— 5. C— 4.
C— 9.
1. Locate the Cooperstown Airport and the Jamestown
1. Locate the Shawboro Airport and the Elizabeth City VOR in FAA Figure 27. Draw the radial (magnetic
VOR in FAA Figure 21. Draw the radial (magnetic course FROM) of the Jamestown VOR on which
course FROM) of the Elizabeth City VOR on which Cooperstown Airport lies (030°).
Shawboro lies (030°). 2. When over Cooperstown Airport on the 030 radial,
2. When over Shawboro on the 030 radial, the CDI the CDI should have a 030 FROM indication or a 210
should be centered with a 030 FROM indication or TO indication (the reciprocal). Dial 6 satisfies these
a 210 TO indication (the reciprocal). Dials 2 and 8 conditions.
satisfy these conditions. Only dial 2 is listed as an (PLT090) — FAA-H-8083-25
answer choice.
(PLT090) — FAA-H-8083-25
AIR, RTC
3539. (Refer to Figure 22.) What course should be
AIR, RTC selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a
3561. (Refer to Figure 25, and Figure 29.) The VOR is direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area
tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?
positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). A— 001°.
Which VOR indication is correct? B— 359°.
A— 1. C— 179°.
B— 7.
C— 8. Use the following steps:
1. Plot a direct course from Mercer Airport to the Minot
Use the following steps: Airport VORTAC.
1. Locate and draw the magnetic course from Bonham 2. Note the radial (magnetic course FROM Minot
VORTAC to Sulphur Springs (120°). VORTAC) on which the plotted course lies (179°).
2. Notice that the OBS selections of all the dials in FAA 3. Determine the course TO Minot VORTAC by finding
Figure 29 are 030° or 210°, both of which are at 90° the reciprocal:
with respect to the 120° radial. Therefore, when over
Sulphur Springs, the flag should indicate neither TO TO = FROM + 180°
nor FROM and the course needle should have a full TO = 179° + 180°
deflection either side. TO = 359°
3. Both dials 3 and 7 of FAA Figure 29 are at 90° from (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
the correct radial of 120°. However, only dial 7 is a
valid answer option.
(PLT090) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
3533 [A] 3561 [B] 3570 [B] 3539 [B]

SPO Sectional Aeronautical Charts are made on grid in which

2100. True course measurements on a Sectional Aero- the meridians of longitude are nonparallel straight lines
nautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the that all meet at the earth’s poles. When planning a flight,
midpoint of the course because the measure the true course from the mid-meridian to get
A— values of isogonic lines change from point to an average true course. (PLT200) — FAA-H-8083-25
point.
B— angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of
latitude vary from point to point.
C— angles formed by lines of longitude and the
course line vary from point to point.
VOR Airways
The routes established between VORs are depicted by blue-tinted bands showing the airway number
following the letter “V,” and are called “Victor airways.” See Figure 10-6.
When approaching a VOR where airways converge, a pilot must exercise extreme vigilance for other
aircraft. In addition, when climbing or descending VFR on an airway, it is considered good operating
practice to execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
ALL
3814. What procedure is recommended when climbing
or descending VFR on an airway?
A— Execute gentle banks, left and right for
continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
B— Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes. Figure 10-6
C— Fly away from the centerline of the airway before
changing altitude.
During climbs and descents in flight conditions which

permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should
execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which
permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about
them. (PLT125) — AIM ¶4-4-15
Answers
2100 [C] 3814 [A]

VOR Receiver Check Points

VOR receiver accuracy may be checked by means of a VOR Test Facility (VOT), ground check points,
or airborne check points.
VOTs transmit only the 360° radial signal. Thus, when the OBS is set to 360°, the CDI will center
with a FROM indication; while the reciprocal, 180°, will cause the CDI to center with a TO indication. An
accuracy factor of plus or minus 4° is allowed when using a VOT facility.
AIR, RTC To use the VOT service, tune in the VOT frequency on
3598-1. When the course deviation indicator (CDI) the VOR receiver. With the CDI centered, the OBS should
needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a read 0° with the TO/FROM indication showing “FROM” or
VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) the OBS should read 180° with the TO/FROM indication
and the TO/FROM indicator should read showing “TO.” (PLT300) — AIM ¶1-1-4
A— 180° FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the
VOT.
B— 0° TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the pilot’s
position from the VOT.
C— 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot’s
position from the VOT.
Answers
3598-1 [C]

Global Positioning System (GPS)

GPS is a United States satellite-based radio navigational, positioning, and time transfer system oper-
ated by the Department of Defense (DOD). The system provides highly accurate position and velocity
information and precise time on a continuous global basis to an unlimited number of properly-equipped
users. The GPS constellation of satellites is designed so that a minimum of five are always observable
by a user anywhere on earth. The GPS receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites to yield a
three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution.
The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS satellites
through receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted
information. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. If
RAIM is not available, another type of navigation and approach system must be used, another destina-
tion selected, or the trip delayed until RAIM is predicted to be available on arrival.
ALL ALL
3598-3. If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring 3598-4. How many Global Positioning System (GPS)
(RAIM) capability is lost in flight, satellites are required to yield a three dimensional posi-
A— the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for tion (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?
vertical information. A— 5.
B— the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the B— 6.
GPS position. C— 4.
C— GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS
satellites are available. The GPS receiver uses data from a minimum of four
satellites to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude,
The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the longitude, and altitude) and time solution. (PLT354) —
signals received from the GPS constellation through FAA-H-8083-25
receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to
determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information.
At least one satellite, in addition to those required for
navigation, must be in view for the receiver to perform
the RAIM function; thus, RAIM needs a minimum of 5
satellites in view, or 4 satellites and a barometric altimeter
(baro-aiding) to detect an integrity anomaly. For receivers
capable of doing so, RAIM needs 6 satellites in view (or 5
satellites with baro-aiding) to isolate the corrupt satellite
signal and remove it from the navigation solution. GPS
derived altitude should not be relied upon to determine
aircraft altitude since the vertical error can be quite large
and no integrity is provided. (PLT354) — AIM ¶1-1-19
Answers
3598-3 [B] 3598-4 [C]

Chapter 11
Communication Procedures
Phraseology, Techniques, and Procedures 11 – 3
Airport Traffic Area Communications and Light Signals 11 – 10
Radar Assistance to VFR Aircraft 11 – 12
Transponder 11 – 14
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) 11 – 17

Chapter 11 Communication Procedures

Phraseology, Techniques, and Procedures

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is a continuous broadcast of non-control information
in selected high-activity terminal areas. To relieve frequency congestion, pilots are urged to listen to
ATIS, and on initial contact, to advise controllers that the information has been received by repeating
the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast. For example: “information Sierra received.” The
phrase “have numbers” does not indicate receipt of the ATIS broadcast.
When transmitting an altitude to ATC (up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL), state the separate
digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds. For example, 13,500 is “one three thousand five hundred”
and 4,500 is “four thousand five hundred.”
At airports with operating air traffic control towers (ATCT), approval must be obtained prior to mov-
ing an aircraft onto the movement area. Ground control frequencies are provided to reduce congestion
on the tower frequency. They are used for issuance of taxi information, clearances and other necessary
contacts. If instructed by ground control to “taxi to” a particular runway, the pilot must stop prior to cross-
ing any runway. A clearance must be obtained prior to crossing any runway.
Aircraft arriving at an airport where a control tower is in operation should not change to ground control
frequency until directed to do so by ATC.
The key to operating at an airport without an operating control tower is selection of the correct Com-
mon Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF). The CTAF is identified in appropriate aeronautical publica-
tions and on the sectional chart. If the airport has a part-time air traffic control tower (ATCT), the CTAF
is usually a tower frequency. If a flight service station (FSS) is located on the airport, they will usually
monitor that frequency and provide advisories when the tower is closed. Where there is no tower or FSS,
UNICOM, (if available) is usually the CTAF. UNICOM is limited to the necessities of safe and expeditious
operation of private aircraft pertaining to runways and wind conditions, types of fuel available, weather,
and dispatching. Secondarily, communications may be transmitted concerning ground transportation,
food, lodging and services available during transit. When no tower, FSS, or UNICOM is available, use
MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures. See Figure 11-1.

Figure 11-1. Summary of recommended communications procedures
ALL When the aircraft manufacturer’s name or model is

3613. When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseol- stated, the prefix “N” is dropped. The first two characters
ogy for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is of the call sign may be dropped only after ATC calls you
A— “MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX by your last three letters/numbers. (PLT204) — AIM
CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE ¶4-2-3
VORTAC, OVER.”
B— “MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX
ALL
CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC,
3614. The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL
OVER.”
C— “MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, to ATC is
HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, A— “FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.”
RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.” B— “FOUR POINT FIVE.”
C— “FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL.”
The term “initial radio contact,” or “initial callup,” means
the first radio call you make to a given facility, or the first Up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, state the
call to a different controller or FSS specialist within a separate digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds,
facility. Use the following format: if appropriate. Example: “4,500 — four thousand, five
1. Name of facility being called; hundred.” (PLT204) — AIM ¶4-2-9
2. Your full aircraft identification as filed in the flight plan;

3. Type of message to follow or your request if it is short,
and
4. The word “over,” if required.
Example: “New York Radio, Mooney Three One One
Echo.”
Answers
3613 [A] 3614 [A]

ALL ALL
3615. The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL 3998. When should pilots state their position on the
to ATC is airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
A— “TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET.” A— When visibility is less than 1 mile.
B— “TEN POINT FIVE.” B— When parallel runways are in use.
C— “ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.” C— When departing from a runway intersection.
Up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, state the Pilots should state their position on the airport when
separate digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds, if calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection.
appropriate. Example: “10,500 — one zero thousand, (PLT222) — AIM ¶4-3-10
five hundred.” (PLT204) — AIM ¶4-2-9
ALL
ALL, SPO 3605-1. As standard operating practice, all inbound traf-
3604. (Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) What is the recom- fic to an airport without a control tower should continu-
mended communications procedure for a landing at ously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
Currituck County Airport? A— 25 miles.
A— Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles B— 20 miles.
out and give position reports in the traffic pattern. C— 10 miles.
B— Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory
service. Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and commu-
C— Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information. nicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from
10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should
Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from
the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self- start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport
announce procedures. Such airports will be identified unless the CFRs or local procedures require otherwise.
in the appropriate aeronautical information publications. (PLT435) — AIM ¶4-1-9
(PLT435) — AIM ¶4-1-9
ALL
ALL 3605-2. Absence of the sky condition and visibility on
3630. (Refer to Figure 22.) On what frequency can a an ATIS broadcast indicates that
pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Ser- A— weather conditions are at or above VFR
vice (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1? minimums.
A— 117.1 MHz. B— the sky condition is clear and visibility is
B— 118.0 MHz. unrestricted.
C— 122.0 MHz. C— the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5
miles or more.
The reversed-out H in the upper-right corner indicates
HIWAS on the VOR frequency. (PLT064) — AIM ¶7‑1‑10 The absence of a sky condition or ceiling and/or visibility
on ATIS indicates a ceiling of 5,000 feet or above and
visibility of 5 miles or more. (PLT196) — AIM ¶4-1-13
ALL
3605. (Refer to Figure 22, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTI-
COM frequency for Garrison Airport is
A— 122.8 MHz.
B— 122.9 MHz.
C— 123.0 MHz.
Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on

the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-
announce procedures. Such airports will be identified
in the appropriate aeronautical information publications.
(PLT435) — AIM ¶4-1-9
Answers
3615 [C] 3604 [A] 3630 [A] 3605 [B] 3998 [C] 3605-1 [C]
3605-2 [C]

ALL SPO
3606. (Refer to Figure 23, area 2; and Figure 32.) At 2014. (Refer to Figure 23, area 2; and Figure 32.) What
Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self- D’Alene?
announce position and intentions? A— 135.075 MHz.
A— 122.05 MHz. B— 122.05 MHz.
B— 122.1/108.8 MHz. C— 122.8 MHz.
C— 122.8 MHz.
The sectional chart and Airport Facility Directory both
CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency) is a fre- list the UNICOM frequency as 122.8. The UNICOM
quency designed for the purpose of carrying out air- frequency is depicted in the airport information in the
port advisory practices and/or position reporting at an lower right-hand corner. (PLT064) — AIM ¶4-1-11
uncontrolled airport (which may also occur during hours Answer (A) is incorrect because 135.075 is used to listen to AWOS.
when a tower is closed). The CTAF may be a UNICOM, Answer (B) is incorrect because 122.05 is the remote communica-
MULTICOM, FSS, or tower frequency and is identified tion outlet (RCO) frequency to contact Boise FSS in the Coeur
D’Alene vicinity.
in the appropriate aeronautical publications. A solid dot
with the letter “C” inside indicates the Common Traffic
Advisory Frequency. When the control tower operates ALL
part time and a UNICOM frequency is provided, use the 3608. (Refer to Figure 23, area 2; and Figure 32.) What
UNICOM frequency. (PLT064) — AIM ¶4-1-9 is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur
D’Alene to request fuel?
ALL, SPO A— 135.075 MHz.
3607. (Refer to Figure 23, area 2; and Figure 32.) At B— 122.1/108.8 MHz.
Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a C— 122.8 MHz.
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor
airport traffic? The sectional chart and Airport Facility Directory both list
the UNICOM frequency as 122.8. This is the appropri-
A— 122.05 MHz. ate frequency to use to contact UNICOM. The UNICOM
B— 135.075 MHz. frequency is depicted in the airport information in the
C— 122.8 MHz. lower right-hand corner. (PLT064) — AIM ¶4-1-11
CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency) is a fre-
quency designed for the purpose of carrying out air- ALL
port advisory practices and/or position reporting at an 3609. (Refer to Figure 26, area 3.) If Dallas Executive
uncontrolled airport (which may also occur during hours (RBD) Tower is not in operation, which frequency should
when a tower is closed). The CTAF may be a UNICOM, be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF)
MULTICOM, FSS, or tower frequency and is identified to monitor airport traffic?
in the appropriate aeronautical publications. A solid
dot with the letter “C” inside indicates Common Traffic A— 127.25 MHz.
Advisory Frequency. When the control tower operates B— 122.95 MHz.
part time and a UNICOM frequency is provided, use the C— 126.35 MHz.
UNICOM frequency. (PLT064) — AIM ¶4-1-9
A solid dot with the letter “C” inside indicates the Com-
mon Traffic Advisory Frequency. (PLT064) — AIM ¶4-1-9
Answers
3606 [C] 3607 [C] 2014 [C] 3608 [C] 3609 [A]

ALL ALL
3641. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The control tower 3612. (Refer to Figure 27, area 5.) What is the CTAF/
frequency for Addison Airport is UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
A— 122.95 MHz. A— 122.0 MHz.
B— 126.0 MHz. B— 122.8 MHz.
C— 133.4 MHz. C— 123.6 MHz.
The correct answer is found in the explanatory box for CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency) is a fre-
Addison airport in area 2: 126.0 MHz. (PLT101) — Sec- quency designed for the purpose of carrying out air-
tional Chart Legend port advisory practices and/or position reporting at an
uncontrolled airport (which may also occur during hours
when a tower is closed). The CTAF may be a UNICOM,
ALL MULTICOM, FSS, or tower frequency and is identified
3610. (Refer to Figure 27, area 2.) What is the recom- in the appropriate aeronautical publications. A solid
mended communication procedure when inbound to dot with the letter “C” inside indicates Common Traffic
land at Cooperstown Airport? Advisory Frequency. (PLT064) — AIM ¶4-1-9
A— Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the
CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
ALL
B— Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8
MHz. 3791. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)
C— Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering is the continuous broadcast of recorded information
traffic. concerning
A— pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft
MULTICOM frequency is always 122.9 MHz, and the is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an
correct procedure is to broadcast intentions when 10 obstruction.
miles from the airport. (PLT064) — AIM ¶4-1-9 B— nonessential information to reduce frequency
congestion.
C— noncontrol information in selected high-activity
ALL terminal areas.
3611. (Refer to Figure 27, area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM
frequency at Jamestown Airport is ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded non-control
A— 122.0 MHz. information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
B— 123.0 MHz. (PLT196) — AIM ¶4-1-13
C— 123.6 MHz.
CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency) is a fre- ALL

quency designed for the purpose of carrying out air- 3790. Select the UNICOM frequencies normally
port advisory practices and/or position reporting at an assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively
uncontrolled airport (which may also occur during hours as heliports.
when a tower is closed). The CTAF may be a UNICOM, A— 122.75 and 123.65 MHz.
MULTICOM, FSS, or tower frequency and is identified in B— 123.0 and 122.95 MHz.
the appropriate aeronautical publications. A solid dot with C— 123.05 and 123.075 MHz.
the letter “C” inside indicates Common Traffic Advisory
Frequency; it may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS, or Frequencies used solely for heliports are 123.050 and
tower frequency. (PLT064) — AIM ¶4-1-9 123.075. (PLT204) — AIM ¶4-1-11
Answers
3641 [B] 3610 [A] 3611 [B] 3612 [B] 3791 [C] 3790 [C]


3811. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when 2205. What services will a FSS provide?
should the pilot contact ground control? A— Fuel pricing.
A— When advised by the tower to do so. B— Assistance during an emergency.
B— Prior to turning off the runway. C— Clearance to taxi for takeoff.
C— After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the
parking area. Flight Service Stations (FSS’s) are air traffic facilities
that provide pilot briefings, enroute communications and
A pilot who has just landed should not change from VFR search-and-rescue services, assist lost aircraft and
tower to ground frequency until advised to do so by the aircraft in emergency situations, relay ATC clearances,
controller. (PLT044) — AIM ¶4-3-14 originate Notices to Airmen, broadcast aviation weather
and National Airspace System (NAS) information, receive
and process IFR flight plans, and monitor navigational
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC aids (NAVAIDs). In addition, at selected locations FSS’s
3812. If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway provide En Route Flight Advisory Service (Flight Watch),
9, the pilot may proceed take weather observations, issue airport advisories, and
A— via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, advise Customs and Immigration of transborder flights.
Runway 9.  (PLT172) — AIM ¶4-1-3
B— to the next intersecting runway where further Answer (A) is incorrect because this is done by UNICOM. Answer
clearance is required. (C) is incorrect because this is done by Ground Control or Tower
Control.
C— via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9,
where an immediate takeoff may be made.
SPO
When ATC clears an aircraft to “taxi to” an assigned
2006. When outbound from an airport with a UNICOM
takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions does
station on the published common traffic advisory fre-
not authorize the aircraft to “cross” all runway which
quency (CTAF) and there is no tower or Flight Service
the taxi route intersects except the assigned takeoff
Station (FSS), the pilot should contact UNICOM or use
runway. A clearance must be obtained prior to crossing
self-announce procedures on CTAF before
any runway. It does not include authorization to “taxi on
to” or “cross” the assigned takeoff runway at any point. A— engine start.
(PLT502) — AIM ¶4-3-18 B— taxiing and before taxiing on the runway.
C— the preflight inspection.
SPO Pilots should contact UNICOM before taxiing, crossing

2001. Inbound to an airport with no tower in operation any runway, and again before taxiing on the runway for
but with a Flight Service Station (FSS) open, a pilot departure. (PLT435) — AIM ¶4-1-9
should communicate with the FSS on the common traffic
advisory frequency (CTAF)
SPO
A— 20 miles out. 2007. When outbound from an airport without a UNICOM
B— 10 miles out. station, tower or Flight Service Station (FSS), the pilot
C— 5 miles out. should self-announce on frequency
Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and commu- A— 122.7
nicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from B— 122.9
10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should C— 122.8
monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency
from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on
airport unless the local procedures require otherwise. the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-
(PLT170) — AIM ¶4-1-9 announce procedures. (PLT435) — AIM ¶4-1-9
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because these are both CTAF
frequencies used to communicate with a UNICOM station.
Answers
3811 [A] 3812 [B] 2001 [B] 2205 [B] 2006 [B] 2007 [B]

SPO SPO
2015. You have just landed at a towered airport and the 2017. After landing at a tower controlled airport a pilot
tower tells you to contact ground control when clear of should contact ground control
the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when A— when advised by the tower.
A— all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line. B— prior to turning off the runway.
B— the aircraft cockpit is clear of the hold line. C— after reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the
C— the tail of the aircraft is clear of the runway edge. parking area.
An aircraft exiting a runway is not clear of the runway A pilot who has just landed should not change from the
until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the applicable tower frequency to the ground control frequency until
holding position marking. (PLT112) — AIM ¶2-3-5 directed to do so by the controller. (PLT170) — AIM
¶4-3-14
SPO
2016. Pilots should state their position on the airport
when calling the tower for takeoff
A— from a runway intersection, during instrument
conditions.
B— from a runway intersection or the end of the
runway.
C— from a runway intersection, only at night.
Pilots should state their position on the airport when

calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection.
Example: Cleveland Tower, Apache Three Seven Two
Two Papa, at the intersection of taxiway Oscar and
runway two three right, ready for departure. (PLT486)
— AIM ¶4-3-10
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because this rule applies to all
operations.
Answers
2015 [A] 2016 [B] 2017 [A]

Airport Traffic Area Communications and Light Signals

Unless otherwise authorized, aircraft are required to maintain two-way radio communication with the
airport traffic control towers (ATCT) when operating to, from, or on the controlled airport, regardless of
the weather. If radio contact cannot be maintained, ATC will direct traffic by means of light gun signals
as shown in Figure 11-2.
If the aircraft radios fail while inbound to a tower-controlled airport, the pilot should remain outside
or above the airport traffic area until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined and then join
the airport traffic pattern and watch the tower for light signals.
The general warning signal (alternating red and green) may be followed by any other signal. For
example, while on final approach for landing, an alternating red and green light followed by a flashing
red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should abandon the
approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
Figure 11-2
ALL, SPO ALL

3111. A steady green light signal directed from the con- 3115. An alternating red and green light signal directed
trol tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
A— is cleared to land. A— hold position.
B— should give way to other aircraft and continue B— exercise extreme caution.
circling. C— not land; the airport is unsafe.
C— should return for landing.
An alternating red and green light signal means to
A steady green light signal directed to an aircraft in flight exercise extreme caution. (PLT141) — 14 CFR §91.125
means that the pilot is cleared to land. (PLT141) — 14 Answer (A) is incorrect because you can’t hold position in flight.
CFR §91.125 Answer (C) is incorrect because this would be a flashing red signal.
Answer (B) is incorrect because this would be a steady red signal.
Answer (C) is incorrect because this would be a flashing green
signal.
Answers
3111 [A] 3115 [B]


3112. Which light signal from the control tower clears 3116. While on final approach for landing, an alternat-
a pilot to taxi? ing green and red light followed by a flashing red light
A— Flashing green. is received from the control tower. Under these circum-
B— Steady green. stances, the pilot should
C— Flashing white. A— discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic
pattern and approach again, and land.
A flashing green light signal clears a pilot to taxi. (PLT141) B— exercise extreme caution and abandon the
— 14 CFR §91.125 approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
Answer (B) is incorrect because this means cleared to takeoff/land. C— abandon the approach, circle the airport to the
Answer (C) is incorrect because this means return to starting point right, and expect a flashing white light when the
on airport.
airport is safe for landing.
An alternating red and green light means to exercise

AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
extreme caution. A flashing red light means the airport
3113. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a
is unsafe, do not land. (PLT141) — 14 CFR §91.125
pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling,
Answer (A) is incorrect because the flashing red light indicates the
the light will be airport is unsafe for landing. Answer (C) is incorrect because a flash-
A— flashing red. ing white is not applicable in flight.
B— steady red.
C— alternating red and green.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
A steady red signal directed to an aircraft in flight indi- 3804. If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recom-
cates the pilot should give way to other aircraft and mended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
continue circling. (PLT141) — 14 CFR §91.125 A— Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and
Answer (A) is incorrect because this means the airport is unsafe. look for a light signal from the tower.
Answer (C) is incorrect because this means the pilot should exercise B— Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
extreme caution.
C— Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing
gear while circling the airport.
AIR, RTC, WSC, PPC
When a transmitter, receiver, or both have become
3114. A flashing white light signal from the control tower
inoperative, an aircraft should observe the traffic flow,
to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the
A— taxi at a faster speed. tower, when landing at a controlled airport. (PLT150)
B— taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. — AIM ¶4-2-13
C— return to the starting point on the airport. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because entering on the cross-
wind is not required and rocking the wings is used to acknowledge
A flashing white light signal to a taxiing aircraft is an light signals during the day. Flashing the lights is used to acknowl-
indication to return to the starting point on the airport. edge light signals during night, and a fixed gear airplane would not
be able to cycle the gear.
(PLT141) — 14 CFR §91.125
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because there are no light signals
for these instructions.
SPO
2012. A steady red light from the tower, for an aircraft
on the ground indicates
A— Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
B— Stop.
C— Taxi clear of the runway in use.
A steady red light from the tower, for an aircraft on the

ground indicates the aircraft should stop. (PLT044) —
14 CFR §91.125
Answer (A) is incorrect because this would be issued to an aircraft
in flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because this would be a flashing
red light.
Answers
3112 [A] 3113 [B] 3114 [C] 3116 [B] 3804 [A] 2012 [B]

Radar Assistance to VFR Aircraft

Radar-equipped ATC facilities provide traffic advisories and limited vectoring (called “basic radar ser-
vice”) to VFR aircraft, provided the aircraft can communicate with the facility, is within radar coverage,
and can be radar-identified.
Stage II service provides radar advisories and sequencing for VFR aircraft. Arriving aircraft should
initiate contact with approach control. Approach control will assume Stage II service is requested, unless
the pilot states that the service is not wanted. Pilots of departing VFR aircraft should request Stage II
terminal radar advisory service from ground control on initial contact.
At some locations Stage III service has been established to provide separation between all partici-
pating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft in the terminal radar service area (TRSA). Unless the pilot states
“negative Stage III” on initial contact with approach control, the service will be provided.
Traffic advisories given by a radar service will refer to the other aircraft by azimuth in terms of the
12‑hour clock, with 12 o’clock being the direction of flight (track), not aircraft heading. Each hour is equal
to 30°. For example, an aircraft heading 090° is advised of traffic at the 3 o’clock position. The pilot should
look 90° to the right of the direction of flight, or to the south. In Figure 11-3, traffic information would
be issued to the pilot of aircraft A as 12 o’clock. The actual position of the traffic as seen by the pilot of
aircraft A would be 2 o’clock. Traffic information issued to aircraft B would also be given as 12 o’clock,
but in this case, the pilot of B would see traffic at 10 o’clock.
These radar programs are not to be interpreted as relieving pilots of their responsibilities to see and
avoid other traffic operating in basic VFR weather
conditions, to maintain appropriate terrain and
obstruction clearance, or to remain in weather
conditions equal to or better than the minimum
required by FAA regulations. Whenever compliance
with an assigned route, heading, and/or altitude is
likely to compromise pilot responsibilities respect-
ing terrain, obstruction clearance, and weather
minimums, the controller should be so advised and
a revised clearance or instruction obtained. Figure 11-3. Traffic advisory
ALL ALL
3792-1. When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic 3792. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory
information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
the controller uses is the aircraft’s “TRAFFIC 3 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND…”
A— true course. Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
B— ground track.
C— magnetic heading. A— East.
B— South.
Azimuth information given by ATC is based on the C— West.
ground track of an aircraft as it is observed. The pilot
must apply a correction to the reported azimuth using Traffic information will be given in azimuth from the
a drift-correction angle in order to maintain the track. aircraft in terms of the 12-hour clock. Thus, each hour
(PLT044) — AIM ¶4-1-15 would constitute an angle of 30°. Picture a clock in your
lap; 3 o’clock is to your right, 9 o’clock is to your left,
12 o’clock is straight ahead, and 6 o’clock is behind you.
If an aircraft is proceeding on a heading of 090° (east),
traffic located at the 3 o’clock position would be 90° right
of the nose, south of the aircraft. (PLT194) — AIM ¶4‑1‑15
Answers
3792-1 [B] 3792 [B]

ALL SPO
3793. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory 2054. An ATC radar facility issues the following advi-
to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: sory to a pilot flying on a heading of 270°: ‘TRAFFIC
“TRAFFIC 10 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND…” 3 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, EASTBOUND...’ Where should
the pilot look for this traffic?
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A— North.
A— Northwest. B— South.
B— Northeast. C— West.
C— Southwest.
Traffic information will be given in azimuth from the
If an aircraft is proceeding on a heading of 360° (north), aircraft in terms of the 12-hour clock. Thus, each hour
traffic located at the 10 o’clock position would be 60° would constitute an angle of 30°. Picture a clock in your
(left) of the nose, or to the northwest. (PLT194) — AIM lap; 3 o’clock is to your right, 9 o’clock is to your left, 12
¶4‑1‑15 o’clock is straight ahead, and 6 o’clock is behind you. If
an aircraft is proceeding on a heading of 270° (west),
traffic located at the 3 o’clock position would be 90° right
ALL
of the nose, north of the aircraft. (PLT194) — AIM ¶4‑1‑15
3798. TRSA Service in the terminal radar program
provides
A— IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles ALL
lateral) between all aircraft. 3795. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory
B— warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:
proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. “TRAFFIC 9 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND…”
C— sequencing and separation for participating VFR
aircraft. Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A— South.
TRSA Service provides separation of participating VFR B— North.
aircraft and all IFR aircraft operating within the airspace. C— West.
(PLT370) — AIM ¶4-1-18
An aircraft flying north in calm wind would be heading
360°. When advised of traffic at the 9 o’clock position,
ALL the pilot should look 90° left of the nose, to the west.
3794. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory (PLT194) — AIM ¶4-1-15
to a pilot during a local flight:
“TRAFFIC 2 O’CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND…”
ALL
Where should the pilot look for this traffic? 3796. Basic radar service in the terminal radar program
A— Between directly ahead and 90° to the left. is best described as
B— Between directly behind and 90° to the right. A— safety alerts, traffic advisories and limited
C— Between directly ahead and 90° to the right. vectoring to VFR aircraft.
B— mandatory radar service provided by the
Traffic information issued to the pilot as “2 o’clock” would Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS)
mean approximately 60° right. (PLT194) — AIM ¶4‑1‑15 program.
C— wind-shear warning at participating airports.
In addition to the use of radar for the control of IFR

aircraft, all commissioned radar facilities provide safety
alerts, traffic advisories and limited vectoring (on a
workload-permitting basis) to VFR aircraft. Radar facili-
ties are not responsible for weather information and the
service is not mandatory. (PLT172) — AIM ¶4-1-18
Answers
3793 [A] 3798 [C] 3794 [C] 2054 [A] 3795 [C] 3796 [A]

ALL SPO
3797. From whom should a departing VFR aircraft 2226. During departure, when visual separation is
request radar traffic information during ground opera- employed by Air Traffic Control (ATC), traffic is no longer
tions? a factor when
A— Clearance delivery. A— the other aircraft turns away or is on a diverging
B— Tower, just before takeoff. course.
C— Ground control, on initial contact. B— visual contact with the other aircraft is lost.
C— the other aircraft is passed.
Pilots of departing VFR aircraft are encouraged to
request radar traffic information by notifying ground Traffic is no longer a factor when during approach
control on initial contact with their request and proposed phase the other aircraft is in the landing phase of flight
direction of flight. (PLT204) — AIM ¶4-1-18 or executes a missed approach; and during departure
or en route, when the other aircraft turns away or is on
a diverging course. (PLT116) — AIM ¶4-4-14
Transponder
A transponder is an airborne radar beacon transmitter-receiver that automatically receives signals from a
ground-based radar beacon transmitter-receiver (interrogator). The transponder selectively replies (with
a specific code) only to those interrogations being received on the mode to which it is set. Civil Mode A
transponders have 4,096 discrete four-digit codes. This return signal is displayed on a radarscope on
the ground, and a controller can then identify and pinpoint the position of each aircraft (target) under
his/her control.
Some transponders are also equipped with a Mode C automatic altitude-reporting capability. This
system converts aircraft altitude (in 100-foot increments) to coded digital information which is transmit-
ted back to the interrogating radar system. With Mode C, the controller has information on the aircraft’s
altitude as well as its position. The IDENT feature should not be activated unless requested by ATC.
Mode C, which should be operated at all times unless ATC requests otherwise, is also required for all
flights above 10,000 feet MSL.
The transponder code for VFR flight is 1200. When changing transponder codes, avoid inadvertent
selection of codes 7500 (hijack), 7600 (lost communications), 7700 (emergency), and 7777 (military
interceptor operations).
Operation in Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace requires a transponder with Mode A/C capability
and 4,096 codes available.
If air traffic control advises that radar service is being terminated, the transponder should be set to
code 1200.
Answers
3797 [C] 2226 [A]

ALL ALL
3165. An operable 4096-code transponder with an 3996. When operating the transponder on the VFR code
encoding altimeter is required in which airspace? (1200), what is the minimum mode the transponder
A— Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the must be in?
Class B primary airport), and Class C. A— Mode A.
B— Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL). B— Mode C.
C— Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL). C— Mode F.
Class A, B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary When operating on the VFR code 1200, adjust the tran-
airport), and C airspace require a Mode C transponder. sponder to reply on Mode A unless otherwise instructed
(PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.215 by an ATC facility. (PLT497) — AIM ¶4-1-20
Answer (B) is incorrect because while altitude-reporting Mode C
should be used if it is installed, it is not required to squawk 1200.
ALL Answer (C) is incorrect because F is not a transponder mode.
3129. An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode
C encoding altimeter are required in
ALL
A— Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class 3803. If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is
B primary airport. terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace,
B— Class D airspace. the transponder should be set to code
C— Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
A— 0000.
Encoding transponders are required within all Class B B— 1200.
airspace and within 30 miles of the primary airport even C— 4096.
if you are below a Class B airspace layer. (PLT497) — 14
CFR §91.131, §91.215 When VFR, unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facil-
ity, adjust transponder to reply code 1200 regardless of
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because transponders are not
required in Class D airspace, or below 10,000 feet unless in Class altitude. (PLT161) — AIM ¶4-1-20
B or C airspace.
ALL
ALL 3166. With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles
3801. When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to
MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
code should be selected? A— an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF
A— 1200. receiver.
B— 7600. B— instruments and equipment required for IFR
C— 7700. operations.
C— an operable transponder having either Mode S
Unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility, adjust the or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic
transponder to reply on Mode 3/A, code 1200, regard- altitude reporting capability.
less of altitude. (PLT497) — AIM ¶4-1-20
With certain exceptions, all aircraft need encoding tran-
sponders under the 30-mile veil of Class B airspace.
(PLT161) — 14 CFR §91.215
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because they apply to IFR flight.
Answers
3165 [A] 3129 [A] 3801 [A] 3996 [A] 3803 [B] 3166 [C]

ALL GLI
3800. When making routine transponder code changes, 3802-1. If your glider is equipped with 4096 code
pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes? radar beacon transponder, the code uitlized for normal
A— 0700, 1700, 7000. operations is
B— 1200, 1500, 7000. A— 1202.
C— 7500, 7600, 7700. B— 1200.
C— 7700.
When making routine code changes, pilots should avoid
selecting codes 7500, 7600 or 7700, thereby preventing Gliders not in contact with an ATC facility should squawk
false alarms at automated ground facilities. (PLT497) 1202 in lieu of 1200. (PLT161) — AIM ¶4-1-20
— AIM ¶4-1-20
SPO
ALL 2005. When a distress or urgency condition is encoun-
3800-1. When making routine transponder code tered, the pilot of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon
changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of transponder, who desires to alert a ground radar facility,
which code? should squawk code
A— 7200. A— 7700
B— 7000. B— 7600
C— 7500. C— 7500
When making routine code changes, pilots should avoid When a distress or urgency condition is encountered, the
selecting codes 7500, 7600 or 7700, thereby preventing pilot of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transpon-
false alarms at automated ground facilities. (PLT497) der, who desires to alert a ground radar facility, should
— AIM ¶4-1-20 squawk Code 7700 and then immediately establish com-
munications with the ATC facility. (PLT497) — AIM ¶6-2-2
Answer (B) is incorrect because 7600 is used for lost communica-
ALL tions. Answer (C) is incorrect because 7500 is used to indicate a
3802. Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transpon- hijack situation.
der equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR
code?
A— 1200.
B— 7600.
C— 7700.
It is important for pilots to operate the transponder and

encoder so radar controllers will know the aircraft’s
position and altitude—even if not in communication with
ATC. (PLT497) — AIM ¶4‑1-20
Answers
3800 [C] 3800-1 [C] 3802 [A] 3802-1 [A] 2005 [A]

Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)

Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) have been developed as a means of locating downed aircraft.
Transmitting on 121.5 and 406 MHz, the ELT will operate continuously for at least 48 hours.
To prevent false alarms, the ELT should be tested only during the first 5 minutes after any hour and
only for one to three sweeps. False alarms can also be minimized by monitoring 121.5 or 406 MHz prior
to engine shutdown at the end of each flight.
Non-rechargeable batteries used in ELTs must be replaced when 50% of their useful life has expired,
or when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
ALL ALL
3819. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter 3161. When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emer-
(ELT) transmits on gency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
A— 118.0 and 118.8 MHz. A— Every 24 months.
B— 121.5 and 406 MHz. B— When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
C— 123.0 and 119.0 MHz. C— At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.
ELTs transmit an audio tone on 121.5, 243.0, and ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumula-
406 MHz. (PLT402) — AIM ¶6-2-4 tive use or when 50% of their useful life has expired,
whichever comes first. (PLT402) — 14 CFR §91.207
ALL
3819-1. When activated, an emergency locator trans- ALL
mitter (ELT) transmits on 3820. When must the battery in an emergency locator
A— 118.0 and 118.8 MHz. transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the bat-
B— 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. tery is rechargeable)?
C— 123.0 and 119.0 MHz. A— After one-half the battery’s useful life.
B— During each annual and 100-hour inspection.
ELTs transmit an audio tone on 121.5, 243.0, and 406 C— Every 24 calendar months.
MHz. ELTs operating on 121.5 and 243.0 MHz are analog
devices. The newer 406 MHz ELT is a digital transmitter ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumula-
that can be encoded with the owner’s contact information tive use or when 50% of their useful life has expired,
or aircraft data. (PLT402) — AIM ¶6-2-4 whichever comes first. (PLT402) — AIM ¶6-2-4
ALL
3160. When must batteries in an emergency locator
transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if recharge-
able?
A— After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.
B— When the ELT has been in use for more than 1
cumulative hour.
C— When the ELT can no longer be heard over the
airplane’s communication radio receiver.
ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumula-

tive use or when 50% of their useful life has expired,
whichever comes first. (PLT402) — 14 CFR §91.207
Answers
3819 [B] 3819-1 [B] 3160 [B] 3161 [B] 3820 [A]

ALL ALL
3821. When may an emergency locator transmitter 3822. Which procedure is recommended to ensure
(ELT) be tested? that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not
A— Anytime. been activated?
B— At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour. A— Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.
C— During the first 5 minutes after the hour. B— Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT
signal.
An ELT test should be conducted only during the first 5 C— Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
minutes after any hour and then only for three audible
sweeps. (PLT402) — AIM ¶6-2-4 Immediately after hard landings and before parking,
check radio frequency 121.5 MHz. (PLT402) — AIM
¶6‑2‑4
Answers
3821 [C] 3822 [C]

Cross-Reference A
Question Number and Page Number
The following list of the numbered questions included in this ASA Test Prep is given in sequential order;
however, as a result of our ongoing review of FAA test question databases, some question numbers may
have been removed due to changes in the database. All currently existing questions are accounted for
in this list. For more information about the questions included in ASA Test Preps, please read Pages vii–xix
in the front matter for this book.
Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number
2001.......................... 11 – 8 2063.......................... 5 – 34 2121.......................... 4 – 51 2206.......................... 5 – 12
2002............................ 5 – 5 2064.......................... 5 – 36 2122.......................... 4 – 52 2211.......................... 4 – 54
2003.......................... 4 – 29 2066.......................... 5 – 36 2123............................ 4 – 7 2212.......................... 4 – 55
2004.......................... 4 – 29 2067.......................... 8 – 29 2126.......................... 4 – 23 2213.......................... 4 – 55
2005........................ 11 – 16 2068.......................... 5 – 35 2127.......................... 4 – 23 2214.......................... 4 – 55
2006.......................... 11 – 8 2069.......................... 5 – 34 2128.......................... 4 – 24 2215............................ 1 – 9
2007.......................... 11 – 8 2073.......................... 5 – 33 2129.......................... 4 – 13 2216............................ 1 – 9
2007-1......................... 5 – 6 2074.......................... 5 – 33 2130............................ 4 – 6 2218.......................... 5 – 13
2007-2......................... 5 – 6 2078.......................... 5 – 32 2133-1....................... 4 – 38 2222.......................... 9 – 31
2012........................ 11 – 11 2079.......................... 5 – 34 2137.......................... 4 – 34 2223-2....................... 1 – 22
2014.......................... 11 – 6 2082.......................... 5 – 35 2138.......................... 9 – 43 2225............................ 1 – 5
2015.......................... 11 – 9 2083.......................... 5 – 34 2138-1....................... 9 – 44 2225-1......................... 1 – 5
2016.......................... 11 – 9 2085.......................... 5 – 33 2138-2....................... 9 – 44 2226........................ 11 – 14
2017.......................... 11 – 9 2087.......................... 4 – 23 2159.......................... 6 – 14 2229............................ 1 – 9
2020.......................... 5 – 40 2089.......................... 5 – 27 2163.......................... 6 – 19 2230.......................... 8 – 44
2024............................ 5 – 8 2090.......................... 5 – 27 2170.......................... 6 – 23 2232.......................... 4 – 22
2025.......................... 5 – 12 2091.......................... 5 – 27 2174.......................... 8 – 23 2233.......................... 1 – 19
2026.......................... 5 – 11 2092.......................... 5 – 27 2175.......................... 9 – 31 2234.......................... 8 – 33
2028.......................... 5 – 11 2093.......................... 5 – 27 2176.......................... 5 – 33 2234-1....................... 1 – 25
2029.......................... 5 – 13 2096.......................... 5 – 38 2177.......................... 9 – 16 2236.......................... 8 – 44
2030.......................... 5 – 11 2097.......................... 5 – 27 2178............................ 9 – 5 2238............................ 2 – 5
2031.......................... 5 – 11 2099.......................... 9 – 30 2179.......................... 9 – 43 2239............................ 1 – 9
2033.......................... 4 – 20 2100.......................... 10 – 8 2182.......................... 8 – 23 2240.......................... 5 – 36
2034-1......................... 5 – 6 2101.......................... 9 – 31 2183.......................... 8 – 23 2242............................ 2 – 5
2039.......................... 1 – 25 2102.......................... 9 – 13 2186-1....................... 4 – 35 2283.......................... 8 – 33
2040.......................... 4 – 34 2103.......................... 9 – 16 2189.......................... 4 – 54 2308.......................... 4 – 18
2043.......................... 9 – 42 2104.......................... 9 – 16 2192.......................... 9 – 41 2312.......................... 6 – 23
2049.......................... 9 – 42 2105.......................... 9 – 30 2193.......................... 9 – 42 2326.......................... 2 – 48
2050.......................... 9 – 42 2106............................ 9 – 5 2194............................ 5 – 5 2327.......................... 2 – 48
2052.......................... 9 – 42 2107.......................... 5 – 23 2195.......................... 5 – 33 2328.......................... 5 – 21
2053.......................... 4 – 52 2108............................ 9 – 5 2196.......................... 5 – 34 2329.......................... 2 – 22
2054........................ 11 – 13 2109.......................... 4 – 51 2197.......................... 5 – 34 2331.......................... 5 – 21
2055-1....................... 9 – 44 2110.......................... 4 – 51 2198.......................... 9 – 43 2332.......................... 5 – 21
2056.......................... 9 – 43 2113-1....................... 9 – 44 2199.......................... 8 – 33 2341............................ 2 – 9
2059.......................... 9 – 43 2115.......................... 9 – 43 2201.......................... 9 – 13 2347.......................... 2 – 48
2060............................ 5 – 5 2117.......................... 4 – 55 2202.......................... 5 – 26 2348.......................... 2 – 48
2061............................ 4 – 8 2118.......................... 5 – 23 2203.......................... 4 – 35 2350.......................... 8 – 23
2061-1......................... 4 – 8 2119.......................... 5 – 23 2204.......................... 9 – 43 2351.......................... 8 – 24
2062.......................... 5 – 36 2120.......................... 4 – 51 2205.......................... 11 – 8 2353.......................... 2 – 12
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA A – 1

Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

2354.......................... 2 – 13 3039.......................... 4 – 10 3084.......................... 4 – 21 3130.......................... 9 – 41

2356.......................... 8 – 28 3040.......................... 4 – 15 3085.......................... 4 – 21 3131.......................... 4 – 20
2364............................ 2 – 5 3041.......................... 4 – 15 3086.......................... 4 – 21 3132.......................... 4 – 20
2365.......................... 7 – 13 3043............................ 4 – 7 3087.......................... 4 – 22 3133.......................... 4 – 20
2367.......................... 9 – 44 3044............................ 4 – 4 3088.......................... 4 – 38 3134............................ 4 – 8
2369............................ 6 – 7 3045............................ 4 – 5 3089.......................... 4 – 25 3135............................ 4 – 8
2371............................ 8 – 6 3046............................ 4 – 5 3090.......................... 4 – 25 3136.......................... 4 – 31
3001............................ 4 – 9 3047............................ 4 – 5 3091.......................... 4 – 25 3137.......................... 4 – 33
3002............................ 4 – 9 3048............................ 4 – 5 3092.......................... 4 – 25 3138.......................... 4 – 31
3003.......................... 4 – 37 3049............................ 4 – 5 3093.......................... 4 – 25 3139.......................... 4 – 31
3004.......................... 4 – 37 3050............................ 4 – 5 3094.......................... 4 – 26 3140.......................... 4 – 32
3005............................ 4 – 3 3051............................ 4 – 6 3095.......................... 4 – 25 3141.......................... 4 – 32
3006............................ 3 – 5 3052............................ 4 – 6 3096.......................... 4 – 26 3142.......................... 4 – 33
3007............................ 3 – 7 3052-1......................... 4 – 6 3097.......................... 4 – 41 3143.......................... 4 – 34
3008............................ 3 – 7 3053............................ 4 – 6 3098.......................... 4 – 41 3144.......................... 4 – 34
3009............................ 3 – 7 3054............................ 4 – 6 3099.......................... 4 – 41 3145.......................... 4 – 32
3010............................ 3 – 7 3055............................ 4 – 7 3100.......................... 4 – 41 3146.......................... 4 – 32
3011............................ 3 – 5 3056............................ 4 – 7 3101.......................... 4 – 30 3147.......................... 4 – 32
3012-1......................... 3 – 6 3057............................ 4 – 7 3102.......................... 4 – 30 3148.......................... 4 – 34
3012-2....................... 4 – 50 3058............................ 4 – 7 3103.......................... 4 – 30 3149.......................... 4 – 34
3012-3....................... 4 – 50 3059............................ 4 – 7 3104.......................... 4 – 30 3150.......................... 4 – 35
3013-1....................... 4 – 47 3060............................ 4 – 8 3105............................ 3 – 9 3151.......................... 4 – 35
3013-2....................... 4 – 47 3061............................ 4 – 8 3106............................ 3 – 9 3152.......................... 4 – 35
3013-3....................... 4 – 47 3062.......................... 4 – 11 3107............................ 3 – 9 3153.......................... 4 – 36
3014.......................... 4 – 47 3063.......................... 4 – 11 3108.......................... 4 – 28 3154.......................... 4 – 36
3016.......................... 4 – 12 3064............................ 4 – 4 3108-1....................... 4 – 28 3155.......................... 4 – 36
3017.......................... 4 – 12 3065............................ 4 – 4 3109.......................... 4 – 28 3156.......................... 4 – 37
3018.......................... 4 – 12 3066............................ 4 – 4 3110.......................... 4 – 28 3157.......................... 4 – 37
3019.......................... 4 – 13 3068.......................... 9 – 38 3111........................ 11 – 10 3158.......................... 4 – 37
3020.......................... 4 – 10 3068-1....................... 9 – 38 3112........................ 11 – 11 3159.......................... 4 – 43
3021.......................... 4 – 11 3068-2....................... 9 – 39 3113........................ 11 – 11 3160........................ 11 – 17
3022.......................... 4 – 11 3069.......................... 9 – 38 3114........................ 11 – 11 3161........................ 11 – 17
3023.......................... 4 – 11 3070.......................... 4 – 18 3115........................ 11 – 10 3162.......................... 5 – 39
3024.......................... 4 – 10 3071.......................... 4 – 18 3116........................ 11 – 11 3163.......................... 5 – 24
3025.......................... 4 – 16 3072.......................... 4 – 18 3117.......................... 9 – 35 3164.......................... 5 – 25
3026.......................... 4 – 16 3073.......................... 4 – 18 3118.......................... 9 – 35 3165........................ 11 – 15
3027.......................... 4 – 16 3074.......................... 4 – 18 3119.......................... 9 – 38 3166........................ 11 – 15
3028.......................... 4 – 14 3075.......................... 4 – 43 3120.......................... 5 – 17 3167.......................... 4 – 26
3029.......................... 4 – 14 3075-1....................... 4 – 43 3121.......................... 5 – 17 3168.......................... 4 – 26
3030.......................... 4 – 14 3076.......................... 4 – 38 3122............................ 5 – 5 3169.......................... 4 – 27
3031.......................... 4 – 14 3077.......................... 4 – 22 3123............................ 5 – 4 3170.......................... 4 – 27
3032.......................... 4 – 15 3078.......................... 4 – 22 3123-1......................... 5 – 4 3172.......................... 4 – 27
3033.......................... 4 – 15 3079.......................... 4 – 23 3124.......................... 9 – 36 3173.......................... 4 – 27
3034.......................... 4 – 15 3079-1....................... 4 – 23 3125.......................... 9 – 37 3174.......................... 2 – 25
3035.......................... 4 – 17 3080.......................... 4 – 19 3126.......................... 9 – 34 3175.......................... 2 – 25
3036.......................... 4 – 17 3081.......................... 4 – 19 3127.......................... 9 – 35 3176.......................... 2 – 26
3037.......................... 4 – 17 3082.......................... 4 – 20 3128.......................... 9 – 35 3177.......................... 2 – 26
3038.......................... 4 – 13 3083.......................... 4 – 21 3129........................ 11 – 15
A – 2 ASA Private Pilot Test Prep


3178.......................... 4 – 38 3215.......................... 1 – 14 3257.......................... 3 – 10 3302.......................... 5 – 19

3179.......................... 4 – 38 3216.......................... 1 – 14 3258.......................... 3 – 10 3303.......................... 5 – 19
3180-1....................... 4 – 45 3217.......................... 1 – 14 3259.......................... 3 – 10 3304.......................... 5 – 19
3180-2....................... 4 – 45 3218.......................... 1 – 15 3260.......................... 3 – 11 3305.......................... 5 – 20
3181-1....................... 4 – 45 3219.......................... 1 – 20 3261.......................... 3 – 11 3306.......................... 5 – 20
3181-2....................... 4 – 46 3220.......................... 1 – 20 3262............................ 3 – 4 3307.......................... 5 – 20
3181-3....................... 4 – 50 3221.......................... 2 – 12 3263.......................... 1 – 19 3308.......................... 5 – 20
3182.......................... 4 – 46 3221-1....................... 2 – 13 3264............................ 3 – 5 3308-1....................... 5 – 20
3183.......................... 4 – 48 3222.......................... 2 – 13 3265............................ 3 – 6 3309.......................... 1 – 19
3184.......................... 4 – 48 3223............................ 2 – 4 3266............................ 3 – 7 3310.......................... 1 – 20
3185.......................... 4 – 46 3223-1......................... 2 – 5 3267............................ 3 – 6 3311.......................... 1 – 20
3186.......................... 4 – 46 3223-2......................... 2 – 5 3268............................ 3 – 5 3312.......................... 1 – 21
3187.......................... 4 – 43 3224.......................... 2 – 10 3269............................ 3 – 5 3313.......................... 1 – 21
3188.......................... 4 – 46 3225............................ 2 – 6 3270............................ 3 – 6 3314.......................... 1 – 22
3189.......................... 4 – 48 3226............................ 2 – 6 3271............................ 3 – 6 3315.......................... 1 – 21
3190.......................... 4 – 48 3227............................ 2 – 7 3272............................ 3 – 6 3316.......................... 1 – 15
3191.......................... 4 – 46 3228............................ 2 – 6 3273............................ 3 – 7 3317............................ 1 – 5
3192.......................... 4 – 47 3229............................ 2 – 8 3274............................ 3 – 7 3318.......................... 2 – 19
3193.......................... 4 – 50 3230............................ 2 – 8 3275.......................... 3 – 13 3319.......................... 2 – 19
3194.......................... 4 – 53 3230-1......................... 2 – 8 3276.......................... 3 – 14 3320.......................... 2 – 19
3195.......................... 4 – 53 3231............................ 2 – 7 3277.......................... 3 – 14 3321.......................... 2 – 19
3196.......................... 4 – 53 3232............................ 2 – 8 3278.......................... 3 – 13 3322.......................... 2 – 19
3197.......................... 4 – 53 3233............................ 2 – 9 3279.......................... 3 – 15 3323.......................... 2 – 19
3198.......................... 4 – 54 3234............................ 2 – 9 3279-1....................... 3 – 15 3324.......................... 1 – 22
3199.......................... 4 – 54 3235............................ 2 – 8 3279-2....................... 3 – 15 3325.......................... 2 – 20
3200.......................... 4 – 54 3236............................ 2 – 9 3280.......................... 3 – 16 3326.......................... 2 – 20
3201............................ 1 – 8 3237.......................... 2 – 10 3281.......................... 3 – 16 3327.......................... 2 – 20
3201-1......................... 1 – 8 3238.......................... 2 – 11 3282.......................... 3 – 15 3328.......................... 2 – 20
3202............................ 1 – 9 3238-1....................... 2 – 11 3283.......................... 3 – 15 3329.......................... 2 – 20
3202-1....................... 1 – 18 3239.......................... 2 – 12 3283-1....................... 3 – 15 3330.......................... 2 – 20
3202-2....................... 1 – 18 3240.......................... 2 – 11 3284.......................... 3 – 16 3331.......................... 2 – 20
3202-3....................... 1 – 18 3241.......................... 2 – 13 3285.......................... 3 – 16 3332.......................... 2 – 21
3202-4....................... 1 – 18 3242.......................... 2 – 11 3286.......................... 3 – 16 3333.......................... 2 – 21
3202-5....................... 1 – 18 3243.......................... 2 – 11 3287.......................... 1 – 11 3334.......................... 2 – 21
3203............................ 1 – 4 3243-1....................... 2 – 11 3288.......................... 1 – 12 3335.......................... 2 – 21
3204............................ 1 – 4 3244.......................... 2 – 13 3289.......................... 8 – 25 3336.......................... 2 – 21
3204-1......................... 1 – 5 3245.......................... 2 – 13 3290.......................... 8 – 27 3337.......................... 2 – 21
3205............................ 1 – 9 3246.......................... 8 – 29 3291.......................... 8 – 27 3338.......................... 2 – 21
3206.......................... 6 – 23 3247............................ 3 – 4 3292.......................... 8 – 27 3339.......................... 5 – 21
3207.......................... 2 – 17 3248............................ 3 – 3 3293.......................... 8 – 27 3340.......................... 2 – 26
3208.......................... 2 – 17 3249............................ 3 – 3 3294.......................... 8 – 25 3341.......................... 2 – 26
3209.......................... 2 – 17 3250.......................... 3 – 12 3295.......................... 8 – 25 3342.......................... 2 – 26
3210.......................... 1 – 11 3251.......................... 3 – 12 3296.......................... 8 – 28 3343.......................... 2 – 26
3211.......................... 1 – 11 3252.......................... 3 – 12 3297.......................... 8 – 28 3344.......................... 2 – 26
3211-1....................... 1 – 12 3253.......................... 3 – 12 3298.......................... 8 – 26 3345.......................... 2 – 27
3212.......................... 1 – 11 3254............................ 3 – 9 3299.......................... 8 – 26 3346.......................... 2 – 27
3213............................ 1 – 8 3255.......................... 3 – 10 3300.......................... 8 – 28 3347.......................... 2 – 27
3214.......................... 1 – 14 3256.......................... 3 – 10 3301.......................... 1 – 15 3348.......................... 2 – 27


3349.......................... 2 – 28 3397............................ 6 – 7 3445.......................... 6 – 21 3493.......................... 7 – 10

3350............................ 6 – 5 3398............................ 6 – 7 3446.......................... 6 – 22 3495.......................... 7 – 17
3351.......................... 2 – 33 3399............................ 6 – 7 3447.......................... 6 – 22 3496.......................... 7 – 17
3352.......................... 2 – 33 3400............................ 6 – 7 3448............................ 6 – 3 3497.......................... 7 – 17
3353.......................... 2 – 33 3401.......................... 6 – 22 3449.......................... 6 – 17 3498.......................... 7 – 17
3354.......................... 2 – 33 3402.......................... 6 – 20 3450............................ 6 – 5 3499.......................... 7 – 17
3355.......................... 2 – 33 3403............................ 6 – 9 3451............................ 6 – 9 3500.......................... 7 – 11
3356.......................... 2 – 33 3404............................ 6 – 9 3452.......................... 6 – 17 3501.......................... 7 – 11
3357.......................... 2 – 33 3405.......................... 6 – 10 3452-1....................... 6 – 17 3502.......................... 7 – 11
3358.......................... 2 – 34 3406.......................... 6 – 12 3455.......................... 7 – 18 3503.......................... 7 – 11
3359.......................... 2 – 34 3407.......................... 6 – 12 3456.......................... 7 – 18 3505.......................... 7 – 12
3360.......................... 2 – 34 3408.......................... 6 – 10 3457.......................... 7 – 18 3506.......................... 7 – 12
3361.......................... 2 – 34 3409.......................... 6 – 13 3458.......................... 7 – 18 3507.......................... 7 – 12
3362.......................... 2 – 34 3410.......................... 6 – 13 3459.......................... 7 – 18 3508.......................... 7 – 13
3363.......................... 2 – 34 3411.......................... 7 – 21 3460.......................... 7 – 19 3509.......................... 7 – 13
3364.......................... 2 – 34 3412.......................... 6 – 10 3461.......................... 7 – 19 3510.......................... 7 – 13
3365.......................... 2 – 35 3413.......................... 6 – 10 3462............................ 7 – 4 3511.......................... 7 – 14
3366.......................... 2 – 35 3414.......................... 6 – 10 3463............................ 7 – 4 3512.......................... 7 – 14
3367.......................... 2 – 35 3415.......................... 6 – 13 3464............................ 7 – 4 3513.......................... 7 – 14
3368.......................... 2 – 35 3416.......................... 6 – 13 3465............................ 7 – 4 3520.......................... 7 – 15
3369.......................... 2 – 35 3417.......................... 6 – 14 3466............................ 7 – 4 3521.......................... 7 – 15
3370.......................... 2 – 35 3418.......................... 6 – 14 3467............................ 7 – 5 3522.......................... 7 – 16
3371.......................... 2 – 36 3419.......................... 6 – 14 3468.......................... 7 – 21 3523.......................... 7 – 16
3372.......................... 2 – 36 3420.......................... 6 – 14 3469.......................... 7 – 21 3524.......................... 7 – 16
3373.......................... 2 – 36 3421............................ 6 – 8 3470.......................... 7 – 20 3525.......................... 7 – 20
3374.......................... 2 – 36 3422............................ 6 – 8 3471.......................... 7 – 20 3526.......................... 7 – 19
3375.......................... 2 – 36 3423............................ 6 – 8 3471-1....................... 7 – 21 3527.......................... 7 – 19
3376.......................... 2 – 36 3424.......................... 6 – 12 3472............................ 7 – 6 3528.......................... 7 – 19
3377.......................... 2 – 36 3425.......................... 6 – 14 3473............................ 7 – 6 3528-1....................... 7 – 20
3378.......................... 2 – 36 3426.......................... 6 – 19 3474............................ 7 – 6 3529-1....................... 9 – 24
3379.......................... 2 – 37 3427.......................... 6 – 19 3475............................ 7 – 7 3529-2....................... 9 – 24
3380.......................... 2 – 37 3428.......................... 6 – 19 3476............................ 7 – 7 3529-3....................... 9 – 24
3381............................ 6 – 3 3429.......................... 6 – 20 3477.......................... 7 – 21 3529-4....................... 9 – 24
3382............................ 6 – 3 3430.......................... 6 – 20 3478............................ 7 – 9 3530............................ 9 – 4
3383............................ 6 – 5 3431.......................... 6 – 23 3479............................ 7 – 7 3530-1......................... 9 – 4
3384............................ 6 – 6 3432.......................... 6 – 22 3480............................ 7 – 7 3531.......................... 9 – 13
3385............................ 6 – 9 3433.......................... 6 – 12 3481............................ 7 – 8 3533.......................... 10 – 7
3386.......................... 8 – 26 3434.......................... 6 – 16 3482............................ 7 – 8 3535............................ 9 – 4
3387.......................... 3 – 12 3435.......................... 6 – 16 3483............................ 7 – 8 3536............................ 9 – 4
3388.......................... 3 – 11 3436.......................... 6 – 16 3484............................ 7 – 8 3537.......................... 9 – 29
3389.......................... 3 – 11 3437.......................... 6 – 16 3485............................ 7 – 8 3538.......................... 9 – 25
3390.......................... 3 – 11 3438.......................... 6 – 16 3486............................ 7 – 8 3539.......................... 10 – 7
3391.......................... 3 – 12 3439.......................... 6 – 16 3487............................ 7 – 9 3543............................ 9 – 4
3392.......................... 3 – 10 3440.......................... 6 – 17 3488............................ 7 – 9 3545.......................... 9 – 26
3393.......................... 3 – 12 3441.......................... 6 – 17 3489............................ 7 – 9 3546.......................... 9 – 26
3394.......................... 8 – 26 3442.......................... 6 – 15 3490.......................... 7 – 10 3547.......................... 9 – 27
3395............................ 6 – 5 3443.......................... 6 – 21 3491.......................... 7 – 10 3550.......................... 9 – 27
3396.......................... 2 – 37 3444............................ 6 – 7 3492.......................... 7 – 10 3550-1....................... 9 – 28


3551.......................... 9 – 25 3619-1....................... 5 – 22 3663-1......................... 8 – 5 3710.......................... 5 – 35

3552.......................... 10 – 4 3620-1....................... 4 – 32 3663-2......................... 8 – 5 3710-1....................... 5 – 35
3553.......................... 10 – 6 3620-2....................... 4 – 33 3664............................ 8 – 7 3711.......................... 2 – 14
3556.......................... 9 – 13 3621-1....................... 4 – 33 3665............................ 8 – 7 3712.......................... 5 – 37
3558.......................... 9 – 30 3621-2....................... 4 – 33 3666............................ 8 – 8 3713.......................... 5 – 37
3559.......................... 10 – 4 3621-3....................... 4 – 33 3667............................ 8 – 8 3714.......................... 5 – 37
3560.......................... 10 – 6 3622.......................... 9 – 39 3668............................ 8 – 9 3715.......................... 5 – 39
3561.......................... 10 – 7 3623.......................... 9 – 39 3669.......................... 8 – 13 3716.......................... 5 – 39
3564.......................... 9 – 28 3624.......................... 9 – 39 3670.......................... 8 – 13 3717.......................... 5 – 39
3565.......................... 9 – 24 3625.......................... 9 – 38 3671.......................... 8 – 14 3718.......................... 5 – 14
3566.......................... 10 – 5 3626.......................... 9 – 37 3672.......................... 8 – 14 3719............................ 5 – 5
3567............................ 9 – 4 3627.......................... 9 – 37 3673.......................... 8 – 14 3720.......................... 8 – 15
3568.......................... 9 – 13 3628.......................... 9 – 35 3674............................ 8 – 9 3721.......................... 8 – 15
3569.......................... 9 – 30 3629.......................... 9 – 39 3675.......................... 8 – 10 3722.......................... 8 – 15
3570.......................... 10 – 7 3630.......................... 11 – 5 3676.......................... 8 – 10 3723.......................... 8 – 16
3571............................ 9 – 6 3631............................ 9 – 9 3677.......................... 8 – 11 3724.......................... 8 – 16
3572............................ 9 – 6 3632............................ 9 – 9 3678.......................... 8 – 34 3725.......................... 8 – 16
3573............................ 9 – 7 3633............................ 9 – 9 3679.......................... 8 – 35 3726.......................... 8 – 17
3574............................ 9 – 7 3634............................ 9 – 9 3680.......................... 8 – 35 3727.......................... 8 – 18
3575............................ 9 – 7 3635............................ 9 – 9 3681.......................... 8 – 35 3728.......................... 8 – 17
3576............................ 9 – 7 3636.......................... 9 – 10 3682.......................... 8 – 36 3729.......................... 8 – 18
3577.......................... 10 – 5 3637............................ 9 – 8 3683.......................... 8 – 42 3730.......................... 8 – 19
3578.......................... 10 – 5 3637-1......................... 9 – 8 3684.......................... 8 – 43 3731.......................... 8 – 19
3579.......................... 10 – 6 3638............................ 9 – 8 3685.......................... 8 – 43 3732.......................... 8 – 33
3598-1....................... 10 – 9 3639............................ 9 – 8 3686.......................... 8 – 43 3733.......................... 2 – 22
3598-3..................... 10 – 10 3640............................ 9 – 9 3687.......................... 8 – 44 3734.......................... 2 – 22
3598-4..................... 10 – 10 3641.......................... 11 – 7 3688.......................... 8 – 42 3735.......................... 1 – 22
3599.......................... 9 – 34 3642.......................... 9 – 10 3689.......................... 8 – 37 3736.......................... 2 – 22
3600.......................... 9 – 34 3643.......................... 10 – 3 3690.......................... 8 – 37 3737.......................... 2 – 22
3601.......................... 9 – 39 3644.......................... 9 – 10 3691.......................... 8 – 38 3738.......................... 2 – 23
3602.......................... 9 – 40 3645.......................... 9 – 10 3692.......................... 8 – 38 3739.......................... 2 – 23
3603.......................... 9 – 40 3646.......................... 9 – 10 3693.......................... 8 – 39 3740.......................... 2 – 23
3604.......................... 11 – 5 3647............................ 6 – 4 3694.......................... 8 – 39 3741.......................... 2 – 23
3605.......................... 11 – 5 3650.......................... 9 – 29 3695.......................... 8 – 39 3742.......................... 2 – 24
3605-1....................... 11 – 5 3651.......................... 2 – 14 3696.......................... 8 – 39 3743.......................... 2 – 24
3605-2....................... 11 – 5 3652.......................... 2 – 14 3697.......................... 8 – 40 3744.......................... 2 – 24
3606.......................... 11 – 6 3653.......................... 2 – 15 3698.......................... 8 – 37 3745.......................... 2 – 24
3607.......................... 11 – 6 3654.......................... 2 – 15 3699.......................... 8 – 40 3746.......................... 2 – 24
3608.......................... 11 – 6 3655.......................... 2 – 15 3700.......................... 8 – 40 3747.......................... 2 – 25
3609.......................... 11 – 6 3656............................ 2 – 4 3701.......................... 8 – 40 3748.......................... 2 – 25
3610.......................... 11 – 7 3656-1......................... 2 – 4 3702.......................... 8 – 29 3749.......................... 2 – 25
3611.......................... 11 – 7 3657............................ 2 – 4 3703.......................... 8 – 32 3750.......................... 2 – 28
3612.......................... 11 – 7 3658.......................... 2 – 18 3704.......................... 8 – 32 3751.......................... 2 – 28
3613.......................... 11 – 4 3659.......................... 2 – 18 3705.......................... 8 – 31 3752.......................... 2 – 28
3614.......................... 11 – 4 3660.......................... 2 – 18 3706.......................... 8 – 31 3753.......................... 2 – 28
3615.......................... 11 – 5 3661............................ 8 – 5 3707.......................... 8 – 31 3754.......................... 2 – 28
3618.......................... 9 – 41 3662............................ 8 – 5 3708.......................... 8 – 32 3755.......................... 2 – 28
3619.......................... 5 – 22 3663............................ 8 – 6 3709.......................... 4 – 50 3756.......................... 2 – 29


3757.......................... 2 – 29 3799.......................... 9 – 36 3844.......................... 5 – 25 3892.......................... 8 – 29

3758.......................... 2 – 29 3800........................ 11 – 16 3845.......................... 5 – 25 3893.......................... 8 – 22
3760.......................... 5 – 18 3800-1..................... 11 – 16 3846.......................... 5 – 25 3894.......................... 8 – 22
3761.......................... 5 – 18 3801........................ 11 – 15 3847.......................... 5 – 25 3895.......................... 2 – 37
3762.......................... 5 – 17 3802........................ 11 – 16 3848.......................... 5 – 26 3896.......................... 2 – 38
3762-1....................... 5 – 17 3802-1..................... 11 – 16 3849.......................... 5 – 37 3897.......................... 2 – 38
3763.......................... 5 – 17 3803........................ 11 – 15 3850.......................... 5 – 26 3898.......................... 2 – 38
3764.......................... 5 – 17 3804........................ 11 – 11 3851.......................... 5 – 26 3899.......................... 2 – 38
3765.......................... 5 – 18 3805.......................... 5 – 13 3852.......................... 5 – 26 3900.......................... 2 – 38
3766.......................... 5 – 18 3806.......................... 5 – 13 3853.......................... 5 – 26 3901.......................... 2 – 38
3767.......................... 5 – 18 3807............................ 5 – 4 3854.......................... 4 – 50 3902.......................... 2 – 39
3768.......................... 5 – 15 3808............................ 5 – 4 3855.......................... 4 – 51 3903.......................... 2 – 39
3769.......................... 5 – 14 3809............................ 5 – 5 3856.......................... 4 – 51 3904.......................... 2 – 39
3770.......................... 5 – 15 3810............................ 5 – 5 3857.......................... 2 – 29 3905.......................... 2 – 39
3771.......................... 5 – 15 3811.......................... 11 – 8 3858.......................... 2 – 29 3906.......................... 2 – 39
3772.......................... 5 – 15 3812.......................... 11 – 8 3859.......................... 2 – 29 3907.......................... 2 – 39
3773.......................... 5 – 12 3813.......................... 4 – 36 3860.......................... 2 – 30 3908.......................... 2 – 39
3774.......................... 5 – 12 3814.......................... 10 – 8 3861.......................... 8 – 20 3909.......................... 2 – 40
3776.......................... 5 – 12 3815.......................... 4 – 39 3862.......................... 8 – 20 3910.......................... 2 – 40
3777.......................... 5 – 12 3816.......................... 4 – 39 3863.......................... 8 – 21 3911.......................... 2 – 40
3778............................ 5 – 8 3817.......................... 4 – 39 3864.......................... 8 – 41 3912.......................... 2 – 40
3778-1......................... 5 – 8 3818.......................... 4 – 39 3865.......................... 8 – 41 3913.......................... 2 – 40
3778-2......................... 5 – 8 3819........................ 11 – 17 3866.......................... 8 – 41 3914.......................... 2 – 40
3778-3......................... 5 – 9 3819-1..................... 11 – 17 3867.......................... 8 – 41 3915.......................... 2 – 40
3778-4......................... 5 – 9 3820........................ 11 – 17 3868.......................... 8 – 41 3916.......................... 5 – 39
3778-5......................... 5 – 9 3821........................ 11 – 18 3869.......................... 2 – 30 3916-1....................... 5 – 39
3779.......................... 9 – 36 3822........................ 11 – 18 3870.......................... 2 – 30 3931.......................... 5 – 31
3780.......................... 9 – 37 3824.......................... 1 – 24 3871.......................... 2 – 30 3931-1....................... 5 – 31
3781.......................... 9 – 37 3825.......................... 1 – 24 3872.......................... 2 – 30 3931-2....................... 5 – 31
3782.......................... 9 – 37 3826.......................... 1 – 24 3873.......................... 2 – 30 3931-3....................... 5 – 31
3783.......................... 9 – 40 3827.......................... 1 – 24 3874.......................... 2 – 30 3932.......................... 5 – 31
3783-1....................... 9 – 40 3828.......................... 1 – 25 3875.......................... 2 – 31 3933.......................... 5 – 31
3784.......................... 9 – 41 3829.......................... 1 – 25 3876.......................... 2 – 31 3934.......................... 5 – 31
3785.......................... 9 – 40 3829-2....................... 1 – 24 3877.......................... 2 – 31 3935.......................... 5 – 32
3786.......................... 9 – 40 3829-3....................... 1 – 24 3878.......................... 2 – 31 3936.......................... 5 – 32
3787.......................... 9 – 35 3830.......................... 1 – 25 3879.......................... 2 – 31 3937.......................... 5 – 32
3787-1....................... 9 – 36 3831.......................... 9 – 41 3880.......................... 2 – 31 3938.......................... 5 – 32
3788.......................... 9 – 36 3832.......................... 5 – 25 3881.......................... 2 – 32 3939.......................... 5 – 32
3790.......................... 11 – 7 3833.......................... 5 – 36 3882.......................... 2 – 32 3940.......................... 5 – 32
3791.......................... 11 – 7 3834.......................... 5 – 36 3883.......................... 2 – 32 3940-1....................... 5 – 33
3792........................ 11 – 12 3835.......................... 5 – 37 3884.......................... 2 – 32 3951.......................... 5 – 10
3792-1..................... 11 – 12 3836.......................... 5 – 37 3885.......................... 2 – 37 3952.......................... 5 – 10
3793........................ 11 – 13 3837.......................... 4 – 29 3886.......................... 2 – 37 3953.......................... 5 – 10
3794........................ 11 – 13 3838.......................... 5 – 22 3887.......................... 8 – 21 3954.......................... 5 – 10
3795........................ 11 – 13 3839.......................... 5 – 23 3888.......................... 8 – 21 3955.......................... 5 – 10
3796........................ 11 – 13 3840.......................... 5 – 23 3889.......................... 8 – 21 3955-1....................... 5 – 10
3797........................ 11 – 14 3841.......................... 5 – 22 3890.......................... 8 – 22 3955-2....................... 5 – 10
3798........................ 11 – 13 3842.......................... 5 – 22 3891.......................... 8 – 29 3955-3....................... 5 – 11


3955-4....................... 5 – 11 3966.......................... 2 – 42 3978.......................... 2 – 44 3990.......................... 2 – 47

3955-5....................... 5 – 11 3967.......................... 2 – 42 3979.......................... 2 – 45 3991.......................... 2 – 47
3956.......................... 6 – 20 3968.......................... 2 – 43 3980.......................... 2 – 45 3992.......................... 2 – 47
3957............................ 5 – 9 3969.......................... 2 – 43 3981.......................... 2 – 45 3993.......................... 2 – 47
3958.......................... 2 – 41 3970.......................... 2 – 43 3982.......................... 2 – 45 3994.......................... 2 – 47
3959.......................... 2 – 41 3971.......................... 2 – 43 3983.......................... 2 – 46 3995.......................... 2 – 48
3960.......................... 2 – 41 3972.......................... 2 – 43 3984.......................... 2 – 46 3996........................ 11 – 15
3961.......................... 2 – 41 3973.......................... 2 – 43 3985.......................... 2 – 46 3998.......................... 11 – 5
3962.......................... 2 – 41 3974.......................... 2 – 44 3986.......................... 2 – 46 3999.......................... 4 – 50
3963.......................... 2 – 42 3975.......................... 2 – 44 3987.......................... 2 – 46
3964.......................... 2 – 42 3976.......................... 2 – 44 3988.......................... 2 – 46
3965.......................... 2 – 42 3977.......................... 2 – 44 3989.......................... 2 – 47


Cross-Reference B
Learning Statement Code and Question Number
The expression “learning statement,” as used in FAA airman testing, refers to measurable statements
about the knowledge a student should be able to demonstrate following a certain segment of training.
When you take the applicable airman knowledge test required for an airman pilot certificate or rating, you
will receive an Airman Knowledge Test Report. The test report will list the learning statement codes for
questions you have answered incorrectly. Match the codes given on your test report to the ones in the
official FAA Learning Statement Codes (listed below in this cross-reference). Use Cross-Reference A in
this book to find the page number for the question numbers listed below.
Your instructor is required to provide instruction on each of the areas of deficiency listed on your
Airman Knowledge Test Report (as LSCs), and give you an endorsement for this instruction. The Airman
Knowledge Test Report must be presented to the examiner conducting your practical test. During the
oral portion of the practical test, the examiner is required to evaluate the noted areas of deficiency.
The FAA’s learning statement codes are a hierarchical sequence of classification codes that places
a knowledge item in a unique category, which can then be used for reference to source textbooks and
study material. The LSCs are assigned to all FAA test questions in order to categorize them for place-
ment on a given Knowledge Exam. This classification code system uses the following hierarchy (which
is further detailed in the cross-reference table starting on the next page):
• Topic—this is the overall subject matter topic code, the highest classification of overall subject matter
a knowledge test item was developed to assess (for example, “Aerodynamics”).
• Content—the secondary level subject matter code (for example, “Airspeed”).
• Specific—the basic hierarchical classification code the subject matter for a knowledge test item (for
example, “Thrust”).
The FAA sample questions for the Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) and the Instrument Rating Airplane
Airman Knowledge Tests now show two types of codes associated with each question:
• The Learning Statement Code(s) (LSCs) associated with the question topic area. The LSC codes
currently appear on the Airman Knowledge Test Report for any missed knowledge test questions.
• The “Airman Certification Standards” (ACS) code for the question topic area. The FAA expects the
ACS codes to replace the LSC codes on the PAR Airman Knowledge Test within the next 12–18
months.
ASA provides a cross-reference to these new ACS codes on the Private Pilot Test Prep product web
page: www.asa2fly.com/reader/TPP—visit this “Reader Resource” web page to learn more about the
Airman Certification Standard.
If you received a code on your Airman Test Report that is not listed in this cross-reference, email ASA
at cfi@asa2fly.com. We will provide the definition so you can review that subject area.
The FAA appreciates testing experience feedback. You can contact the branch responsible for the FAA
Knowledge Exams directly at:
Federal Aviation Administration
AFS-630, Airman Testing Standards Branch
PO Box 25082
Oklahoma City, OK 73125
Email: AFS630comments@faa.gov
Private Pilot Test Prep ASA B – 1
Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Code and Question Number
Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers
PLT003 FAA-H-8083-25 Weight and Balance 〉 Center of Gravity 〉 Stability

3287, 3672, 3729
PLT004 FAA-H-8083-25 Calculate aircraft performance—climb/descent
3290
PLT005 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Density Altitude
2356, 3292, 3294
PLT006 FAA-H-8083-13 Flight Operations 〉 Soaring Techniques 〉 Performance
3345, 3346, 3347
PLT008 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Landing Distance
3689, 3690, 3691, 3692, 3693, 3694, 3695, 3696, 3697, 3698, 3699, 3700,
3701
PLT011 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Takeoff Distance
2113-1, 3702, 3703, 3704, 3705, 3706, 3707, 3708, 3940-1
PLT012 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Cruise
SAC Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Aeronautical Charts; Calculations
Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 VOR
2099, 2101, 2105, 2222, 3348, 3349, 3529‑1, 3529‑3, 3529-4, 3537, 3538,
3539, 3545, 3546, 3547, 3550, 3550‑1, 3551, 3556, 3558, 3564, 3565, 3568,
3569, 3571, 3572, 3573, 3574, 3575, 3576, 3634, 3678, 3679, 3680, 3681
PLT013 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Crosswind
3683, 3684, 3685, 3686, 3687, 3688
PLT015 FAA-H-0883-25 Calculate flight performance/planning–range
2230
PLT019 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Density Altitude; Pressure Altitude
3293, 3295, 3297, 3298
PLT021 FAA-H-8083-1 Weight and Balance 〉 Center of Gravity 〉 Computations
FAA-H-8083-21 2350, 2351, 3662, 3663, 3663‑1, 3664, 3666, 3667, 3674, 3675, 3676, 3677,
FAA-H-8083-25 3720, 3721, 3722, 3723, 3724, 3725, 3726, 3727, 3728, 3730, 3731, 3861,
3863
PLT022 AC 60-22 Define Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)
2079, 2085
PLT023 AC 00-6 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Altimeter; Altitude
FAA-H-8083-25 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Pressure
3256, 3257, 3258, 3259, 3260, 3388, 3392, 3393
PLT025 FAA-H-8083-25 Define Bernoulli’s Principle
3201-1
PLT026 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Aviation Routine Weather Reports
(METAR)
3463
B – 2 ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

PLT027 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Coning

3321
PLT039 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Marking/Signs 〉 Segmented Circle
3805, 3807, 3808, 3809, 3810
PLT040 AIM Airspace 〉 Controlled 〉 Class B
SAC Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Airspace
2050, 2138-1, 3599, 3600, 3623
PLT041 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Altimeter
3250, 3251, 3252, 3253, 3254
PLT044 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Tower Controlled 〉 Ground Operations
2003, 2012, 3119, 3792-1, 3811
PLT054 FAA-H-8083-13 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Performance
Flight Operations 〉 X-C 〉 Performance
3864, 3865, 3866, 3867, 3868
PLT057 FAA-H-8083-11 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Altitude
3888, 3889, 3890, 3891, 3892, 3893, 3894
PLT059 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Aviation Routine Weather Reports
(METAR)
3462, 3464, 3465, 3466, 3467
PLT061 AIM Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Pilot Weather Reports
AC 00-45 3472, 3473, 3474, 3475, 3476
PLT064 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Uncontrolled 〉 Radio Communications
A / FD Airspace 〉 Controlled 〉 Class E
FAA-H-8083-25 Airspace 〉 Other 〉 Military Training Routes
SAC Airspace 〉 Special Use 〉 MOA
Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Aeronautical Charts; Airspace; Calculations
Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 VOR
Publications 〉 Airport Facility Directory 〉 Parachute Jumping
2014, 2055-1, 2059, 2115, 2179, 2198, 2204, 2367, 3068-2, 3530, 3531, 3535,
3536, 3543, 3553, 3567, 3601, 3603, 3606, 3607, 3608, 3609, 3610, 3611,
3612, 3619, 3620‑1, 3620‑2, 3621‑2, 3621-3, 3627, 3628, 3629, 3630, 3631,
3632, 3633, 3635, 3636, 3637, 3638, 3639, 3640, 3644, 3645, 3646, 3647,
3831
PLT068 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Charts/Maps 〉 Significant Weather Prognostic Charts
3520, 3521, 3522, 3523, 3524
PLT071 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Charts/Maps 〉 Weather Depiction Charts
2365, 3508
PLT072 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
3479, 3480, 3481, 3482, 3483, 3484, 3485, 3486

PLT074 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Steep Turns

2215, 2216, 2371
3510, 3512
PLT076 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Winds/Temperatures Aloft Forecast
3500, 3501, 3502, 3503
PLT077 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Marking/Signs 〉 Airport Markings; Displaced Threshold;
Tetrahedron, Traffic Pattern
3773, 3774, 3776, 3806
PLT078 A/FD Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Aircraft/Facility Directory
2107, 2119, 3838, 3839, 3840, 3841, 3842
PLT081 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Aviation Area Forecasts (FA)
3488, 3491, 3492, 3493
PLT088 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Airspeed Indicator
3265, 3266, 3267, 3268, 3269, 3270, 3271, 3272, 3273
PLT090 FAA-H-8083-25 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 ADF/NDB; VOR
3533, 3560, 3561, 3570, 3577, 3578, 3579
3663-2, 3669, 3670, 3671, 3673
PLT097 FAA-H-8083-25 Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
3832, 3848
PLT098 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Fitness for Flight
2089, 2090, 2202
PLT099 FAA-H-8083-25 Flight Operations 〉 Night 〉 Scan
2096, 3712, 3713, 3714
PLT101 AIM Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Aeronautical Charts; Airspace; Calculations; Flight Plans
FAA-H-8083-25 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 VOR
SAC Publications 〉 Aeronautical Charts 〉 Sectionals
3117, 3530-1, 3559, 3566, 3621‑1, 3624, 3625, 3637‑1, 3641, 3642, 3643
PLT103 FAA-H-8083-25 Human Factors 〉 ADM 〉 Hazardous Attitudes
2074, 2176, 2195, 2196, 3931‑1, 3931‑2, 3932, 3933, 3934, 3935, 3936
PLT104 FAA-H-8083-25 Human Factors 〉 ADM, CRM 〉 Operational Pitfalls
2082, 2083, 2197, 3931, 3938, 3940
PLT112 FAA-H-8083-3 Airport Operations 〉 Taxiing 〉 Flight Controls
2015, 3305, 3306, 3307, 3308, 3327, 3336, 3337
PLT114 FAA-H-8083-11 Aircraft Systems 〉 Structures 〉 Balloon
2347, 2348

PLT115 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Fueling; Ignition

3238, 3238‑1, 3239
PLT116 FAA-H-8083-25 Publications 〉 Advisory Circulars 〉 Acquisition; Subject Numbering
2004, 2052, 2062, 2066, 2106, 2108, 2109, 2110, 2117, 2138-2, 2226, 3709,
3854, 3855, 3856
PLT118 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Directional Gyro
3276
PLT119 FAA-H-8083-3 Flight Operations 〉 Collision Avoidance 〉 Aircraft Position Lights
2020, 3162, 3715, 3716, 3717, 3916, 3916-1
PLT120 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Thunderstorms
3449
3665, 3668
PLT122 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall aircraft operations—checklist usage
2063, 2068
PLT123 FAA-H-8083-3 Flight Operations 〉 Climb 〉 Speed
2326, 3011, 3012‑1, 3364
PLT124 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Density Altitude; Landing Distance
3289, 3296, 3299, 3300, 3372
PLT125 AIM Flight Operations 〉 Normal Procedures 〉 Scan
2229, 3814, 3909
PLT126 AC 91-13 Recall airport performance—cold weather operations
2353, 2354
PLT127 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Density Altitude
2067, 3291
PLT128 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Icing
3431, 3432, 3956
PLT129 FAA-H-8083-21 Flight Operations 〉 Takeoff 〉 Helicopter
2199
PLT130 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall aircraft performance—fuel
3907
PLT131 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Atmospheric Effects 〉 Ground Effect
2223-2, 3312, 3313, 3314, 3315, 3324
PLT132 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Attitude Indicator
2225-1, 3264, 3278, 3341, 3342
PLT133 FAA-H-8083-3 Flight Operations 〉 Climb 〉 Speed
3914

PLT134 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Frost

2234, 2283, 3206
PLT136 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Carburetor
3236
PLT140 AIM Airport Operations 〉 LAHSO 〉 Procedures & Responsibility
3951, 3953, 3954
PLT141 14 CFR 91 Airport Operations 〉 Lighting 〉 Rotating Beacon; Taxiway
AIM Airport Operations 〉 Marking/Signs 〉 Direction Signs; Runway; Taxiway
FAA-H-8083-3 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Light Gun Signals
2024, 2025, 2026, 2028, 2029, 2030, 2031, 2206, 2218, 3111, 3112, 3113,
3114, 3115, 3116, 3656-1, 3718, 3769, 3770, 3771, 3772, 3777, 3778, 3778‑1,
3778-2, 3778-3, 3778-4, 3778-5, 3955, 3955‑1, 3955‑2, 3955‑3, 3955-4,
3955-5, 3957
PLT147 14 CFR 91 Airport Operations 〉 Lighting 〉 PAPI; VASI
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airport Operations
3121, 3760, 3761, 3762, 3762-1, 3763, 3764, 3765, 3766, 3767
PLT149 FAA-H-8083-21 Recall airport preflight/taxi operations—procedures
2328, 2331
PLT150 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Tower Controlled 〉 Radio Communications
3123‑1, 3789, 3804
PLT153 FAA-H-8083-11 Aircraft Performance 〉 Limitations 〉 Airship
Flight Operations 〉 Landing 〉 Descents
Flight Operations 〉 Maneuvers 〉 Advanced; Basic
Flight Operations 〉 Normal Procedures 〉 Buoyancy
Weight and Balance 〉 Aircraft Loading 〉 Ballast
3368, 3369, 3370, 3371, 3373, 3374, 3375, 3376, 3377, 3378
PLT158 FAA-H-8083-11 Recall airship—pressure height/manometers
3380
PLT161 14 CFR 71 Aircraft Systems 〉 Avionics 〉 Transponder
14 CFR 91 Airspace 〉 Controlled 〉 Class C; Class D
AIM Airspace 〉 Uncontrolled 〉 Class G
A / FD Publications 〉 Airport Facility Directory 〉 Airport Remarks
SAC Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 71 〉 Airspace
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Aircraft Speed; Airspace; Special VFR;
Transponder Operations
2049, 3053, 3054, 3068, 3068‑1, 3099, 3100, 3118, 3126, 3127, 3128, 3130,
3152, 3153, 3154, 3165, 3166, 3622, 3626, 3779, 3780, 3781, 3782, 3787,
3799, 3802-1, 3803, 3813
PLT162 AIM Airspace 〉 Controlled 〉 Class D
2043, 2056, 2192, 2193, 3787‑1, 3788

PLT163 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airspace; Class D Operations

2040, 2061-1, 2137, 2138, 2186-1, 2203, 3056, 3057, 3069, 3134, 3135, 3136,
3137, 3142, 3143, 3144, 3145, 3146, 3147, 3148, 3149
PLT165 AC 00-6 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Altimeter
FAA-H-8083-25 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Temperature
3255, 3382
PLT166 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Altimeter; Attitude Indicator
3261, 3277
PLT167 AC 00-6 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Altimeter
FAA-H-8083-25 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Pressure
3387, 3390, 3391
PLT168 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Angle of Attack
Aerodynamics 〉 Stall/Spins 〉 Stalls
3203, 3204, 3204‑1, 3311, 3317
PLT169 FAA-H-8083-21 Flight Operations 〉 Emergency Procedures 〉 Approach/Landing
3738
PLT170 FAA-H-8083-11 Flight Operations 〉 Approach 〉 High-Wind Landing
2001, 2002, 2017, 2234-1, 3120, 3122, 3308-1, 3339, 3744, 3745
PLT172 AIM Recall ATC—system/services
2205, 3796
PLT173 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Stability
3403, 3404, 3405, 3411, 3758
PLT175 FAA-H-8083-21 Flight Operations 〉 Emergency Procedures 〉 Autorotations
3742
PLT177 FAA-8083-1 Flight Operations 〉 Cruise 〉 Altitude
FAA-H-8083-11 Flight Operations 〉 Emergency Procedures 〉 Balloon
Flight Operations 〉 Landing 〉 Touchdown
Weight and Balance 〉 Aircraft Loading 〉 Definitions
3351, 3360, 3363, 3887, 3895, 3899
PLT183 FAA-H-8083-11 Recall balloon flight operations—ascent/descent
3367
PLT184 FAA-H-8083-11 Flight Operations 〉 Normal Procedures 〉 Preflight
3900, 3901
PLT185 FAA-H-8083-13 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Turns
3343, 3344
PLT187 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Turn Coordinator
3275
PLT189 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Carburetor Heat
3232, 3234

PLT190 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Carburetor; Carburetor Heat

2341, 3229, 3231, 3235, 3958, 3964, 3975
PLT191 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Carburetor
3225
PLT192 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Clouds; Stability; Thunderstorms
3406, 3407, 3415, 3416, 3417, 3418, 3419, 3420, 3433
PLT194 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 Radar
FAA-H-8083-25 Airspace 〉 Procedures 〉 Scan
Human Factors 〉 Aero-medical Factors 〉 Fitness for Flight; Spatial Disorientation
2054, 2064, 3710, 3710‑1, 3792, 3793, 3794, 3795, 3834, 3835, 3836
PLT196 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Tower Controlled 〉 ATIS
3605‑2, 3791
PLT197 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Coriolis Effect
3322
PLT198 FAA-H-8083-3 Flight Operations 〉 Cruise 〉 Ground Track
2103, 2104, 2177, 3529-2
PLT199 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Flight Controls
3318
PLT200 FAA-H-8083-25 Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Calculations
2100
PLT201 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airport Operations
3123
PLT204 AIM Instrument Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Reports
2007-1, 2007-2, 3613, 3614, 3615, 3790, 3797
PLT205 AIM Recall effects of alcohol on the body
2087
PLT206 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Pressure
3394
PLT207 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Electrical 〉 Charging Systems
2238, 2364, 3969
PLT208 FAA-H-8083-3 Flight Operations 〉 Emergency Procedures 〉 Engine Failure
3202‑4, 3202-5, 3223-1, 3711, 3741, 3902, 3904, 3911, 3915
PLT213 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Stability/Control 〉 Longitudinal Stability; Stability
3210, 3211
PLT214 FAA-H-8083-5 Aircraft Systems 〉 Structures 〉 Washout
3211-1, 3976, 3977, 3979, 3981, 3982

PLT215 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Compass

3279, 3279-2, 3280, 3281, 3282, 3283, 3283‑1, 3284, 3285, 3286
PLT217 FAA-H-8083-21 Recall flight maneuvers—quick stop
3743
PLT219 FAA-H-8083-3 Flight Operations 〉 Maneuvers 〉 Basic
3202‑1, 3202‑2, 3202‑3, 3880, 3897, 3898, 3910
PLT221 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Landings
3379, 3719, 3748, 3749, 3877, 3878, 3879, 3883, 3884, 3912, 3913, 3994,
3995
PLT222 FAA-H-8083-21 Flight Operations 〉 Takeoff 〉 Helicopter
3739, 3740, 3747, 3998
PLT225 AIM Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Flight Plan
2175, 3818
PLT226 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Fog; Icing
3443, 3445, 3446, 3447
PLT234 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall forces acting on aircraft—3 axis intersect
3213
PLT235 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Aircraft
3205
PLT237 FAA-H-8083-11 Flight Operations 〉 Launch Procedures 〉 False Lift
3359, 3365, 3366
PLT241 FAA-H-8083-13 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Horizontal Lift
3340
PLT242 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Aircraft; Horizontal Lift
3201, 3202, 3301, 3319
PLT243 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Torque; Turning Tendency
3207, 3208, 3209
PLT245 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Stall/Spins 〉 Spins
3309, 3310, 3382
PLT249 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Carburetor; Carburetor Heat; Mixture Control
3226, 3228
PLT250 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Fuel Grade
3237, 3241, 3242, 3243, 3355, 3886
PLT251 FAA-H-8083-11 Flight Operations 〉 Emergency Procedures 〉 Balloon
3356, 3362, 3906

PLT253 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Electric Fuel Pump; Mixture Control
3221‑1, 3224, 3227, 3230, 3230-1, 3233, 3243‑1, 3352, 3353, 3959, 3960,
3961, 3962, 3963, 3974
PLT254 FAA-H-8083-11 Aircraft Systems 〉 Fuel/Oil 〉 Fueling; Tanks
3354, 3357, 3358, 3361, 3885
PLT256 FAA-H-8083-13 Recall glider information—effect of loading
3862
PLT257 FAA-H-8083-3 Recall glide performance—speed/distance/ballast/lift/drag
2239
PLT259 FAA-H-8083-21 Recall ground resonance—conditions to occur
2329, 3332
PLT260 FAA-H-8083-21 Recall gyroplane—aerodynamics/rotor systems
2327, 2332
PLT263 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Thunderstorms; Turbulence
3425, 3442
PLT264 FAA-H-8083-21 Recall helicopter approach/settling with power
3734
PLT265 FAA-H-8083-21 Flight Operations 〉 Emergency Procedures 〉 Ground Resonance
3338
PLT268 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Helicopter Hovering Flight
3733
PLT271 FAA-H-8083-25 Human Factors 〉 ADM 〉 Judgement; Risk Management
2073, 3452-1, 3931‑3
PLT274 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Icing
3429, 3430, 3489
PLT278 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Instruments 〉 Airspeed Indicator
3274, 3682
PLT280 AIM Recall inflight illusions—causes/sources
2240
PLT281 FAA-H-8083-25 Publications 〉 AFD 〉 Revisions
2118, 3619‑1
PLT284 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Winds/Temperatures Aloft Forecast
3505, 3506
PLT285 FAA-H-8083-21 Flight Operations 〉 Maneuvers 〉 Basic
3335, 3732, 3735, 3736, 3737
3507, 3509, 3511

PLT290 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 AIRMETS/SIGMETS; SIGMETS

AIM Weather 〉 Hazardous 〉 Thunderstorms
3495, 3496, 3497, 3498, 3499
PLT291 AC 00-45 Recall information on an Aviation Area Forecast (FA)
3478, 3490
PLT300 AIM Recall instrument / navigation system checks / inspections–limits / tuning /
identifying / logging
3598-1
PLT301 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Moisture; Temperature
3383, 3384, 3385, 3402
PLT303 AC 00-6 Recall L/D ratio
3350, 3650
PLT304 FAA-H-8083-13 Flight Operations 〉 Launch Procedures 〉 Aerotow Takeoffs; Climbing Turns
3857, 3858, 3876, 3896
PLT309 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Flight Maneuvers; Steep Turns
3214, 3215, 3216, 3218
PLT311 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Airspeed
3217
PLT312 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Stalling Speed
3316
PLT313 FAA-H-8083-1 Recall loading—limitations/terminology
2174, 2182
PLT316 FAA-H-8083-25 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Weather Briefings
3468, 3469, 3470
PLT320 FAA-H-8083-25 Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Aeronautical Charts
2102, 3279-1
PLT323 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Flight Service Stations
Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 NOTAMs
Publications 〉 NOTAMs 〉 FDC NOTAMs
2120, 2121, 2122, 3999
PLT324 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Oil System
3245
PLT328 FAA-H-8083-1 Weight and Balance 〉 Aircraft Loading 〉 Limitations
FAA-H-8083-25 Weight and Balance 〉 Center of Gravity 〉 Computations
2183, 3288, 3661, 3859, 3860
PLT330 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aero-medical Factors 〉 Fitness for Flight
3844


2091, 2092, 2093, 3845, 3846, 3847
3833, 3849
PLT334 FAA-H-8083-25 Human Factors 〉 Aero-medical Factors 〉 Spatial Disorientation
2097, 3850, 3851, 3852, 3853, 3939
PLT335 FAA-H-8083-25 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 VOR
2178, 2201, 3552
PLT337 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Pitot/Static 〉 Airspeed Indicator; Blockage
3247, 3248, 3249, 3262
PLT340 FAA-H-8083-3 Recall positive exchange of flight controls
2069
PLT342 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Mixture Control
3221, 3244, 3651, 3652, 3965, 3966
PLT343 FAA-H-8083-3 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Lubrication; Mixture Control
FAA-H-8083-25 3222, 3653, 3656, 3967, 3968, 3971, 3972, 3973
PLT345 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Pressure
FAA-H-8083-25 3386, 3389
PLT346 FAA-H-8083-5 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Controls/Primary 〉 Keel Pocket
3978, 3980, 3983, 3984, 3985, 3986, 3987, 3988, 3989, 3990, 3991, 3992,
3993
PLT349 FAA-H-8083-21 Recall procedures for confined areas
3746
PLT351 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Stability/Control 〉 Downwash
Aircraft Systems 〉 Propeller 〉 Adjustable-Pitch; Efficiency
3212, 3246, 3654, 3655
PLT353 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Charts/Maps 〉 Radar Summary
3513
PLT354 AIM Recall radio—GPS/RNAV/RAIM
3598‑2, 3598‑3, 3598‑4
PLT366 49 CFR 830 Regulations 〉 NTSB Part 830 〉 Immediate Notification to NTSB; Incident
Reports; Preservation of Aircraft Wreckage
2189, 2211, 2212, 3194, 3195, 3196, 3197, 3198, 3199, 3200
PLT369 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Aerobatic Flight
3167, 3168, 3169, 3170, 3173
PLT370 AIM Airspace 〉 Controlled 〉 Clearance; Services Provided
3798, 3837

PLT371 14 CFR 1 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 1 〉 Certification of Aircraft; Certification of Airmen

3001, 3002, 3003, 3004
PLT372 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Annual Inspection; Maintenance Inspections
3182, 3185, 3186, 3189, 3190
PLT373 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Aircraft Operating Limitations
3075, 3178
PLT374 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Aircraft Return to Service; Airworthiness;
Airworthiness Certificate
3180‑1, 3181‑1, 3181‑2, 3181‑3, 3660
PLT375 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Aircraft Return to Service
3013‑2, 3013‑3, 3183, 3184
PLT376 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Special VFR
AIM Airspace 〉 Other 〉 Wild Life Refuges
2053, 3150, 3151, 3618
PLT377 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airworthiness Certificate
3180‑2, 3187
PLT378 14 CFR 39 Recall regulations—Airworthiness Directives
3012‑3
PLT381 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Altimeter Settings
3105, 3106, 3107
PLT383 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airworthiness Certificate; Minimum Safe
Altitudes
3097, 3098, 3179
PLT387 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Change of Address
3035
PLT389 FAA-H-8083-11 Flight Operations 〉 Launch Procedures 〉 Location and Obstacles
3908
PLT393 14 CFR 91 Airspace 〉 Special Use 〉 MOA
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airspace
3125, 3602, 3783, 3783‑1, 3784, 3785
PLT395 14 CFR 1 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 1 〉 Night
2213, 3005, 3025
PLT399 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Inspection of Certificate; Medical Certificates;
Pilot Certificate
2129, 3016, 3017, 3018, 3019
PLT400 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Aircraft Operating Limitations
3075-1, 3159

PLT401 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 PIC Responsibility/Authority

3059, 3076
PLT402 14 CFR 91 Aircraft Systems 〉 Avionics 〉 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)
AIM 3160, 3161, 3819, 3819-1, 3820, 3821, 3822
PLT403 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 ATC Clearances
3109
PLT405 14 CFR 91 Recall regulations—equipment/instrument/certificate requirements
3172
PLT407 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 PIC Recent Flight Experience; Privileges and
Limitations
3036, 3037
PLT413 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Fuel Requirements
3131, 3132, 3133
PLT414 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Right-of-Way
3089, 3090, 3091, 3092, 3093, 3094, 3095, 3096
PLT416 49 CFR 830 Recall regulations—immediate notification
2214
PLT425 14 CFR 91 Recall regulations—maintenance reports/records/entries
3193
PLT426 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Aircraft Return to Service
3012‑2, 3188, 3191
PLT427 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Medical Certificates
3063
PLT430 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Minimum Safe Altitudes
3101, 3102, 3103, 3104
PLT431 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Formation Flight
2133-1, 3088
PLT434 14 CFR 91 Recall regulations / operational procedures for a controlled airport
3124
PLT435 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Communications 〉 Inbound
2006, 2007, 2034-1, 2060, 2194, 3604, 3605, 3605‑1
PLT438 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Oxygen Requirements
3163, 3164
3073, 3083
PLT441 14 CFR 91 Recall regulations—pilot briefing
2232

PLT442 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 PIC Recent Flight Experience

3029, 3030, 3031, 3032, 3033, 3034, 3040, 3041
PLT443 FAA-H-8083-25 Human Factors 〉 ADM 〉 Pilot Self-Assessment
2078, 3937
PLT444 14 CFR 91 Airspace 〉 Special Use 〉 Alert Areas
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 PIC Responsibility/Authority; Preflight Actions
2033, 2308, 3070, 3071, 3072, 3074, 3082, 3108, 3108‑1, 3110, 3658, 3786,
3952
PLT445 14 CFR 91 Airport Operations 〉 Preflight 〉 Pilot Responsibility
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Preflight Actions
FAA-H-8083-25 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Weather Briefings
3080, 3081, 3526, 3527, 3659
PLT446 14 CFR 43 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 43 〉 Preventive Maintenance
3013‑1, 3014
PLT447 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Medical Certificates
3020, 3021, 3022, 3023, 3039, 3062
PLT448 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Privileges and Limitations
2123, 2130, 3026, 3027, 3038, 3043, 3044, 3045, 3046, 3047, 3048, 3049,
3050, 3052, 3052‑1, 3055, 3058, 3060, 3061, 3064, 3065, 3066
PLT449 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Flight Review
3028
PLT451 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Privileges and Limitations; Type Rating
3024
PLT455 AIM Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Flight Plans
3815, 3816, 3817
PLT462 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Lighting 〉 Runway Lighting
3768
PLT463 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Drugs/Alcohol
14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Alcohol or Drugs
2126, 2127, 2128, 3077, 3078, 3079, 3079‑1
3084
PLT465 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Seat Belts
3085, 3086, 3087
PLT467 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airspace; Flight Rules General; VFR Cruising
Altitude/Flight Level
2061, 3051, 3138, 3155, 3156, 3157, 3158
PLT468 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airspace
3139, 3140, 3141

PLT470 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Coriolis Effect; Retreating Blade Stall
Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Controls/Primary 〉 Tail Rotor
3320, 3323, 3325, 3326, 3328, 3329, 3330, 3331, 3334
PLT472 FAA-H-8083-21 Flight Operations 〉 Emergency Operations 〉 Main Rotor
3333
PLT473 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Flight Controls/Secondary 〉 Flaps
3219, 3220, 3905
PLT477 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Stall/Spins 〉 Stalls
2225, 2233, 3263
PLT478 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Ignition; Magnetos
2242, 3223, 3223-2, 3240, 3970
PLT479 FAA-H-8083-3 Aircraft Systems 〉 Powerplant 〉 Engine Starting
3657
PLT486 FAA-H-8083-3 Airport Operations 〉 Taxiing 〉 Flight Controls
2016, 3302, 3303, 3304, 3903
PLT492 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Stability
3408
PLT493 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Moisture
3401
PLT494 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Thermals
3448, 3471, 3471-1, 3751, 3752, 3753, 3754, 3755, 3756, 3757, 3881
PLT495 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Thunderstorms
3434, 3435, 3436, 3437, 3438, 3439, 3440, 3441, 3452
PLT496 FAA-H-8083-13 Recall towrope—strength/safety links/positioning
3174, 3175, 3176, 3177
PLT497 AIM Aircraft Systems 〉 Avionics 〉 Transponder
2005, 3129, 3800, 3800-1, 3801, 3802, 3996
PLT501 AC 00-6 Recall turbulence—types/characteristics/reporting/corrective actions
2159, 2236
PLT502 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Light Gun Signals
3812, 3869, 3870, 3871, 3872, 3873, 3874, 3875
PLT506 14 CFR 1 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 1 〉 V-speeds
3006, 3007, 3008, 3009, 3010
PLT508 14 CFR 91 Recall VOR/altimeter/transponder checks—identification/tuning/identifying/
logging
3192

PLT509 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Wake Turbulence 〉 Strength; Vortex Avoidance

Flight Operations 〉 Wake Turbulence 〉 Vortex Avoidance; Vortex Behavior
2039, 3824, 3825, 3826, 3827, 3828, 3829, 3829‑2, 3829‑3, 3830
PLT511 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Fronts; Stability
FAA-H-8083-25 2312, 3412, 3413, 3414, 3421, 3422, 3423, 3424
PLT512 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Fog; Moisture; Stability; Temperature
2369, 3381, 3397, 3398, 3399, 3400, 3409, 3410, 3444
PLT514 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Aviation Area Forecasts (FA)
FAA-H-8083-25 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Aviation Routine Weather Reports
(METAR); Weather Briefings
3455, 3456, 3457, 3458, 3459, 3460, 3461, 3487, 3525, 3528, 3528-1
PLT515 AIM Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Radio Communications
Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 En Route Flight Advisory Service
(EFAS)
3477
PLT516 AC 00-6 Airport Operations 〉 Taxiing 〉 Flight Controls
FAA-H-8083-3 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Wind
3395, 3396, 3450, 3451, 3750
PLT517 AC 00-6 Recall winds associated with high/low-pressure systems
2170
PLT518 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Windshear
FAA-H-8083-25 2163, 3426, 3427, 3428


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Stay informed of aviation

ii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Instructions Chapter 2 Aircraft Systems

Chapter 1 Basic Aerodynamics

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA iii

iv ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA v

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA vii

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA ix

Test Test Name Test Prep Number of Min. Allotted Time

x ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Knowledge Test Eligibility Requirements

Process for Taking a Knowledge Test

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xi

Acceptable Forms of Authorization

Private and Recreational Endorsement

Sport Pilot Endorsement

xii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xiii

Validity of Airman Test Reports

Test Reports and Learning Statement Codes

Airman Knowledge Testing Sites

Computer Assisted Testing Service (CATS) PSI / LaserGrade Computer Testing

xiv ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Guidelines for Use of Test Aids and Materials

Testing Procedures For Applicants Requesting

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xv

Cheating or Other Unauthorized Conduct

xvi ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Eligibility for the Private Pilot Certificate

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xvii

xviii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Eligibility for the Sport Pilot Certificate

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xix

xx ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

FAA-G-8082-17 Recreational and Private Pilot Test Guide

FAA-H-8083-25 Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

Sectional Aeronautical Chart (SAC)

FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook;

FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook

FAA-H-8083-11 Balloon Flying Handbook

FAA-S-8081-14 Private Pilot Airplane Practical Test Standards;

AC 00-6 Aviation Weather

AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services

14 CFR Parts 1, 61, 43, 71, 91

49 CFR Part 830 (NTSB)

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xxi

EXAMPLE: Chapter text

xxii ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

“Wanted — enthusiastic, knowledgeable pilots for part-time, full-time, or freelance professional

© 2000 Gregory N. Brown, used by permission

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xxiii

How Soon Can I Become an Instructor?

xxiv ASA Private Pilot Test Prep

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA xxv

Private Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 1

1 – 2 ASA Private Pilot Test Prep