Legaledge Test Series: Instructions To Candidates

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
Part of the Most Awesome and Consistently Successful Study Material and Test Series Module, spanning across
both Physical and Online Programs in the entire Country. While most of the world fumbled and faltered, 2020
has been another inspiring Success story both for us and those who chose to trust us. As a result LE was able to
engineer Clean-Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 35 Selections under 100 ranks, and a whopping 180
selections under 500 ranks in CLAT 2020. With AILET being no different, a total of 30 LEtians found their way
into NLUD in 2020. Read on!
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #41
Candidate Name : _________________

Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a
BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and in
the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.29): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): It has long been recognised that strident criticism of government will not amount to
an attempt to excite disaffection and disloyalty towards government. Yet, the archaic and colonial view
that an intemperate attack on an incumbent ruler should be met with fierce prosecution for sedition
prevails among many in power even today. In a significant judgment, the Supreme Court has quashed a
criminal case registered in Himachal Pradesh against journalist Vinod Dua by invoking the narrowed-
down meaning of what constitutes an offence under Section 124A of the IPC, the provision for sedition,
set out in Kedar Nath Singh (1962). Every journalist, the Court has ruled, is entitled to the protection of
that judgment, which said “comments, however strongly worded, expressing disapprobation of actions of
the Government, without exciting those feelings which generate the inclination to cause public disorder
by acts of violence, would not be penal”. The law on sedition has come a long way from the formulation
of British-era judges Comer Petheram and Arthur Strachey that “feelings of disaffection” towards the
government connote “absence of affection... hatred, enmity, dislike, hostility... and every form of ill-will
towards the government” to the more rational reading that only a pernicious tendency to create public
disorder would be an offence. Yet, it appears that every generation needs a judicial iteration of this
principle, and that is because of two reasons: that Section 124A remains on the statute book and that
powerful political figures and their minions are unable to take criticism in their stride.
Enacted to put down journalistic criticism of the colonial administration from an increasingly vocal press,
Section 124A is essentially a provision which seeks to protect the government’s institutional vanity from
disapprobation using the interests of public order and security of the state as a fig leaf. It has often been
criticised for being vague and “overbroad”. Its use of terms such as “bringing (government) into hatred or
contempt” and “disloyalty and all feelings of enmity” continues to help the police to invoke it whenever
there is either strong criticism or critical depiction of unresponsive or insensitive rulers. The explanation
that disapproval of government actions or measures with a view to altering them by lawful means will not
amount to an offence is not enough to restrain the authorities from prosecution. The mischief lies in the
latitude given to the police by an insecure political leadership to come down on the government’s
adversaries. It is unfortunate that the Bench did not go into the aspect of political motivation behind the
police registering FIRs without checking if the required ingredient of incitement to violence is present. The
Court’s verdict brightens the hope that the section’s validity will be re-examined. For now, it is a blow for
free speech and media freedom
1. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the law of sedition?
(a) Veteran journalist Vinod Dua was booked under the law of sedition.
(b) Kedar Nath Singh Judgment of 1952 set out the offence of sedition.
(c) British-era judges Comer Petheram and Arthur Strachey held that “feelings of disaffection” towards
the government connote “absence of affection... hatred, enmity, dislike, hostility... and every form of
ill-will towards the government” constituted sedition.
(d) Section 124A states the offence of sedition in the IPC.
2. According to the author what purpose is Section 124A used by the government?
(a) Protect the security and unity of the State by penalising terroristic elements.
(b) Protecting the government institutional vanity from public criticism.
(c) Both a) and b)
(d) None of the above.
3. According to the author why does Section 124A need to be judicially examined for every generation?
(a) It is still in the statutes as a powerful tool.
(b) Government cannot take criticism in its stride.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 40
4. Which of the following means the same as ‘intemperate’ as it is used in the passage?
(a) decrepitude (b) immoderate (c) fatal (d) incursion
5. Which of the following does mean the same as ‘vanity’ as it is used in the passage?
(a) narcissism (b) haughtiness (c) conceit (d) modesty
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): A significant step to advance the restoration of the political process in the Union
territory of Jammu & Kashmir got underway yesterday during the course of the meeting PM Modi had
with leaders of political parties from the region. Optics took priority as it was the first formal meeting
leaders from Kashmir Valley had with Modi after the key elements of Article 370 were neutralised in
August 2019. That legislative step was accompanied by long detentions of leaders from Kashmir. That
they were now meeting GoI’s top leadership accounts for the importance of the meeting’s symbolism.
Significantly, Article 370 didn’t prove to be a negotiation-killer. A Constitution bench of the Supreme Court
is seized of the legal issues pertaining to Article 370. Political leaders from Kashmir indicated that they
will abide by the outcome. This is most welcome.
Restoration of the political process began last year through direct elections of sarpanches and members
of the District Development Councils. The outcome suggested that old political parties such as NC and
PDP retain enough support to make them essential to the deepening of the political process. DDC
elections were followed by the restoration of 4G services in February.
Peace in Kashmir has been hostage to cross-border terrorism. With a thaw in India’s relationship with
Pakistan, this is an opportune moment to take the next few steps in the political process. The most
important one is to complete the ongoing delimitation exercise.
The current exercise for J&K has run into a problem as the associate members from Kashmir have not
participated in the delimitation committee meetings. The presence of all political stakeholders is essential
to cover all aspects and ensure the credibility of the process. Hopefully, this meeting will persuade some
political parties to shed their reluctance and join the process. The long-term goal is restoration of
statehood. GoI recently approved a financial package of Rs 28,400 crore spread over 16 years for J&K’s
industrial development. This is a large commitment. In a democracy, such spending needs to be
overseen by elected governments.
6. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

(a) Peace in Kashmir has been hostage to cross-border terrorism
(b) Article was neutralised in 2019.
(c) GoI recently approved a financial package of Rs 28,400 crore spread over 16 years for J&K’s
industrial development
(d) None of the above
7. Why was the meeting between PM Modi and leader form Kashmir an important one?
(a) State of Jammu and Kashmir was in turmoil.
(b) It was the first meeting after neutralisation of Article 370 of the Constitution.
(c) Thus, meeting was needed to increase the influence of BJP in the region.
8. According to the passage what is the long-term goal regarding the Kashmir?
(a) Peace and stability (b) Wealth in the region
(c) Restoration of Statehood (d) Reduction in crime
9. Which of the following can be used as a synonym for ‘neutralised’ as it is used in the passage?
(a) Recapitulated (b) Simulated (c) abrogated (d) None of the above.
10. What is the opposite of ‘opportune’ as it is used in the passage?

(a) indigent (b) oblique (c) ill timed (d) None of the above
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): The history of music is like that of other arts in being divided into schools or
epochs. These are of course to a certain extent arbitrary and artificial—marked off by critics for
convenience of classification—and a composer may belong to two or more schools, as Beethoven, for
example, is both ‘classical’ and ‘romantic,’ without being any more aware of it than we are when our train
crosses the line, say, from New York State into Massachusetts. But they are also in part natural and real,
because any fruitful idea in art—such as the ‘impressionistic’ idea of light in painting, for instance—is so
much greater than any one man’s capacity to grasp it that a whole generation or more of artists is needed
to develop its possibilities. Such a group of artists forms what we call a ‘school’ or ‘period,’ beginning
usually with pioneers whose work is crude but novel, continuing with countless workers, most of whom
are after a short time completely forgotten, and culminating with one or two greatly endowed masters who
gather up all the best achievements of the school in their own work and stands for posterity as its figure-
heads, or in some cases engulf it entirely in their colossal shadows. Pioneers, journeymen, geniuses—
that is the list of characters in the drama we call an artistic school.
If we try to outline in the roughest way the half dozen or so most important schools we can find in the
entire history of music we shall get something like the following. After the long groping among the
rudiments that went on through Greek and early Christian times there emerged during the middle ages a
type of ecclesiastical music which, after a development of several centuries, culminated in the work of
Orlando de Lasso (1520-1594), Giovanni Pierluigi da Palestrina (1524-1594), and others. This music is
as primitive, archaic, and severe to our ears as the early Flemish religious pictures are to our eyes. It can
be described chiefly in negatives. It did not employ instruments, but only voices on the chorus. It had no
regular time-measure, but wandered on with as little definiteness of rhythm as the Latin prose to which it
was set. It employed no grating harsh combinations of tones (‘dissonances’) such as make our music so
stirring to the emotions, partly because they are difficult for voices, partly because the science of
harmony was in its infancy, partly because the kind of expression it aimed at was that of religious peace.
Each group of voices had its own melody to carry, and as there were sometimes as many as sixteen
groups an extraordinarily complex web of voices or ‘parts’ was developed, to which is due the name of
polyphonic (many-voiced) applied to this school.
[ Excerpts from The Art of Music Vol. 1 by Leland Hall]
11. The main tone of the passage is:

(a) Speculative (b) Technical (c) Pedestrian (d) Populist
12. Which of the following statement is/are true according to the passage?
Statement 1: Early Greek and Christian period was the prime time for ecclesiastical music.
Statement 2: Orlando de Lasso and Giovanni Pierluigi da Palestrina had no influence of ecclesiastical
music.
(a) Statement 1 (b) statement 2
(c) neither statement 1 nor 2 (d) both
13. It did not employ instruments, but only voices on the chorus.
Spot the error in the underlined sentence above.
(a) error in verb (b) error in preposition
(c) error in adverb (d) error in punctuation
14. ‘Such group of artists forms what we call ‘school’ or ‘period,’ beginning usually with pioneers whose work
is crude but novel, continuing with countless workers, most of whom are after short time completely
forgotten, and culminating with one or two greatly endowed masters who gather up all the best
achievements of the school in their own work and stands for posterity as its figure-heads, or in some
cases engulf it entirely in their colossal shadows.’
Choose the correct option that has the right order and combination of missing articles from the italicized
sentence above.
(a) a, a, a (b) the, the, the
(c) a, an, a, the, a, the (d) the, the, a, an.
15. The author believes that:
(a) The early Flemish religious pictures are primitive, archaic and severe to our eyes.
(b) The ‘impressionistic’ idea of light in painting has been a moderately easy concept to grasp.
(c) Polyphonic and dissonance are the same thing in music.
(d) All of the above.
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): About the time the Kalyani Chalukya regime began floundering, another one was
taking baby steps near Halebidu in today’s Hassan district of Karnataka: the Yadavas, also known as the
Hoysalas. Inscriptions dated 1078 and 1090 indicate that the Hoysalas were descendants of the Yadavas
from Mathura in north India.
The folklore is that after Lord Krishna left Mathura for Dwarka in Gujarat, many Yadavas too followed him.
Later, they dispersed to various regions in Maharashtra and present-day Karnataka. This is why Yadavas
are found in Nashik and also in southern India. All of them describe themselves as Yadukultilak, denoting
their connection with the dynasty.
The first official Hoysala family record is dated 950 and mentions that the king Arekalla was succeeded
by Maruga and then Nripa Kama I (976). The next ruler, Munda (1006–26), was followed by Nripa Kama
II. Initially the Hoysala dynasty was a feudatory by the Kalyani Chalukyas.
The Hoysalas started asserting themselves after the Chalukyas weakened. They first defeated the
Cholas in 1116 and moved their capital from Belur to Halebidu. Though they always nursed an ambition
to set up their own empire, it was Veera Ballala II who freed the Hoysalas from subordination. The
Hoysalas, who began as subordinates of the Chalukyas, later went on to set up their own empire in
Karnataka.
One of the offshoots of the Hoysalas flourished in Devgiri, in present-day Daulatabad, Maharashtra. It played a
major role in shaping what came to be known as Maharashtra and Marathi culture.
A stone inscription dated AD 860 found at Anjaneri (near Nashik) suggests that a minor branch of the
Yadava family ruled a small district, with Anjaneri as its chief city. They set up a city-state named
Chandrapur, which is known as Chandor (in Goa) today. The name came from Sevunchandra, who had
first served the Rashtrakutas and, after their decline, worked for the Kalyani Chalukyas.
After the Chalukya dynasty faded, this branch of Yadavas set up its own kingdom based around Devgiri.
Bhillam V was the first well-known Yadava king. He shifted the Yadava capital from Sindigram (Sinnar) to
Devgiri. From then until the end of this empire, Devgiri was its capital city.
[ An excerpt from ‘Renaissance State: The Unwritten Story of the Making of Maharashtra’, by Girish
Kuber.]
16. Which of the following writing style has been used by the author here?
(a) narrative (b) Expository (c) Persuasive (d) Descriptive
17. Which of the following state was the empire of the Hoysalas?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka (c) Odissa (d) Goa
18. Which of the following is untrue according to the passage?

(a) King Arekalla was the predecessor of Nripa Kama I.
(b) Rashtrakutas were served by the Yadavas.
(c) The Hoysalas were capable of building new cities.
(d) The Yadavas were descendants of the Hoysalas from Mathura in north India.
19. Why were the Yadavas found in southern India and Nashik even though they’re from northern India?
(a) because they realized that southern and western Indian parts are suitable for expanding their
territory.
(b) because they were thrown out from their homeland for being followers of lord Krishna.
(c) because many of them followed lord Krishna when he left Mathura and later they dispersed into parts
of southern and western India.
(d) none of the above.
20. Initially the Hoysala dynasty was a feudatory by the Kalyani Chalukyas.
(a) error in verb (b) error in articles
(c) error in preposition (d) error in conjunction
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): Elvis Presley took the music world by storm in 1956 with such hits as "Heartbreak
Hotel," "Don't Be Cruel," "Hound Dog," and over a hundred more that sold over 350 million records in his
career worldwide, that earned him the title "King" of Rock-and-Roll. Tracing the origin of rock and roll
however, we find its roots imbedded in jazz.
Jazz grew out of the pain, suffering and degradation of African slaves. In 1619, a Dutch sailing ship with
a consignment of fifty slaves left Africa for the colonies. After months of tossing and pitching on the rolling
seas, twenty surviving black men finally arrived in Virginia in greatly deteriorated condition. They had
spent months behind the ship's oars rowing until they thought their backs would break. They had shared
filthy, cramped quarters with rats, flies and fleas. They were dehydrated, starved and exhausted. Some
showed the scars of whips or other instruments of torture on their backs.
Yet, through the entire long voyage, they sang. They sang of homes and families they would never see
again. They sang, like the ancient Israelites, of their captivity. With sweat pouring from greasy heads, with
chains of captivity cutting into black ankles, and with moans of pain and fatigue escaping from their lips,
they sang. The words, in their native language, were made up as they sang them. The melodies were
familiar tunes handed down from many generations, and these tunes were their only link now to the land
of their birth.
In the colonies they were sold at auction by slave traders, like so many heads of cattle. In town squares
all over America, farmers, businessmen and plantation owners bid as little as fifteen dollars "per unit" for
individual slaves. Families, if still intact after the long sea voyage, were seldom auctioned together.
So if it hadn't been for their music, most slaves would never have had the will to survive. It elevated their
mood and it gave them something to cling to.
And when it came to their music, the slaves could be very enterprising. Blacks had the natural ability to
conjure up any object capable of producing sound and beat on it with their own primitive form of rhythm.
When they got together to play their makeshift drums, they created many different rhythms. Those who
didn't play anything would sing, clap their hands and stomp their feet. The result was a beat so primitive,
so emotional; it penetrated the hearts of white and black audiences alike.
[Excerpts from ‘Jazz- Then and Now by Frank Leanza]
21. The main theme of the passage revolves around:

(a) A brief account of how Jazz played an important part in the Black history and their survival.
(b) A brief account of renowned singers and their contribution to Jazz.
(c) An account of how white people hijacked the genre of Jazz and made it their own.
(d) The similarities between the captive conditions of Israelites and African slaves.
22. The author believes that:

(a) Jazz is the greatest form of music of all time.
(b) Jazz is only meant for black people.
(c) Rock and roll is a form of music inspired by Jazz.
(d) Jazz music had no ancestral roots.
23. The writing style of the author is:

(a) Narrative (b) Expository (c) Descriptive (d) Persuasive
24. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(a) ‘Heartbreak Hotel’ is a song based on Blues.
(b) Individual slaves were sold at fifty dollars in the auctions.
(c) Thirty slaves died in the Dutch sailing ship in 1619.
(d) none of the above.
25. With sweat pouring from greasy heads, with chains of captivity cutting into black ankles, and with moans
of pain and fatigue escaping from their lips, they sang.
Which of the following literary device has been used in the italicized sentence above?
(a) Allusion (b) Verisimilitude (c) Motif (d) Imagery
Passage (Q.26-Q.29): It was the sixth day leading to Herath. Tikaram had still not returned from his
annual leave. Rishi Vihar was looking all cleaned up and beautiful – ready for the big festival ahead. The
new matting, the embroidered rugs and curtains in the sitting room and the other rooms that were used
by the ladies looked dazzling and everything looked spick and span.
From this day onwards a thick, large and beautiful Kashmiri carpet was spread in the main sitting room,
transforming the room into an opulent one, which gave the new furnishing a royal feel. Carpets were
occasionally used on festivals, but were otherwise rolled and packed safely. It felt good to bring out the
best for Maha Shivratri.
In the evening the house would come alive with the excited sounds, laughter, and chattering of young
and old family members playing cowries or poker together. All the new and relative younger daughters-in-
law too were encouraged to play all the games and participate in the enjoyable pastime.
In the kitchen, some dishes were being cooked under the guidance and firm control of Benigashi and
Dulabhabi. The other, older daughters-in-law, Benji and Sati, were also trying to be helpful. Benigashi
was assessing the taste the dishes that had been prepared Kantha Ram in order to ascertain which spice
may still be needed give the dish its perfect taste. When she took a spoonful of the big pot of fish, which
was boiling on the fireplace, she found that the salt in the preparation was less.
Benigashi looked at Kantha Ram and asked – “Haven’t you added salt to the fish yet? There’s no salt in this.
Have you forgotten to put it in?”
This was enough to provoke Kantha Ram. By the time Benigashi was looking for the salt container,
Kantha Ram – in a huff – took the boiling pot of fish off the fireplace and put it outside of the clean and
“purified” kitchen space. In utter disregard for the ritual norms of hygiene, he deliberately placed the pot
on the floor, in the space that was meant for keeping one’s shoes.
All the ladies, the few children around, and the helpers who were witnessing this scene were aghast and
shocked at Kantha Ram’s behaviour. One of the ladies shouted, “What has happened to you, Kantha
Ram? Oh! Oh! The fish has now gotten çhyoṭ [impure]!”
[An excerpt from ‘A Kashmiri Century: Portrait of a Society in Flux,’ by Khem Lata Wakhlu.]
26. Which of the following best represent the meaning of the phrase ‘spick and span’ as has been used in the
passage?
(a) A thatching spar.
(b) The distance from the tip of the thumb to the tip of the little finger.
(c) A measure of butter
(d) Entirely clean- fresh or unused.
27. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
(a) Benigashi and Kantharam are servants at the author’s home.
(b) The author’s family was strictly vegetarian.
(c) Maha Shivaratri used to be a grand occasion for the author’s family.
(d) All of the above.
28. All the new and relative younger daughters-in-law too were encouraged to play all the games and
participate in the enjoyable pastime.
(a) Error of adjective (b) Error of preposition
(c) Error of articles (d) Error of adverb
29. Benigashi was assessing the taste the dishes that had been prepared Kantha Ram in order to ascertain
which spice may still be needed give the dish its perfect taste.
Find the correct order and combination of the missing prepositions in the italicized sentence above.
(a) by, from, to (b) of, by, to (c) of, to, by (d) for, of, by
SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q.30–Q.67): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): In all, 515 displaced Brus were moved out of their camps in the North Tripura
district and sent to two locations in Dhalai district in the state on Monday as a part of the permanent
resettlement of the refugees. A quadripartite agreement was signed among the Bru leaders and Central,
Tripura, and Mizoram governments in January last year for the resettlement of some 35,000 Brus from
Mizoram.
The refugees will be resettled at 16 places in four districts. Earlier, the Tripura government had
constituted four committees to oversee resettlement. The refugees have been lodged in six camps in
Kanchanpur of North Tripura district since 1997 after they had fled Mizoram in the wake of ethnic
tensions. Official sources said the first batch of refugees was being resettled under Ambassa and
Longtharai Valley sub-divisions in the Dhalai district.
30. How many resettlement spots across six districts with 300 families each the state has planned after the
agreement made in January 2020?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
31. Which of the following statements is not correct about Bru Resettlement?
(a) Bru or Reang is a community indigenous to Northeast India, living mostly in Tripura, Mizoram and
Assam. In Tripura, they are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group.
(b) In Nagaland, they have been targeted by groups that do not consider them indigenous to the state.
(c) In 1997, following ethnic clashes, nearly 37,000 Brus fled Mamit, Kolasib and Lunglei districts of
Mizoram and were accommodated in relief camps in Tripura.
(d) In January 2020, a quadrilateral agreement was signed by the Centre, the two state governments and
Bru representatives to allow the remaining 32,000 to permanently settle in Tripura.
32. Consider following statements about the reason for the Protest
I. The 2020 agreement led to protests from Bengali and Mizo groups in Tripura. They claim that settling
thousands of migrants permanently in Kanchanpur sub-division of North Tripura district would lead to
demographic imbalance, exert pressure on local resources and potentially lead to law and order
problems.
II. They alleged that 650 Bengali families from around Kanchanpur and 81 Mizo families from Jampui
Hill range, who fled due to “atrocities” on Brus, were yet to be resettled two decades on.
Which of these statements is/are true?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these
33. Ministry of Tribal Affairs has implemented the scheme of “Development of PVTGs” which covers how
many Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) for their comprehensive socio-economic
development?
(a) 40 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
(b) 55 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
(c) 60 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
(d) 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
34. Consider the statement, ‘Official sources said the first batch of refugees was being resettled under
Ambassa and Longtharai Valley’.
Above mentioned areas are the subdivision of ______ district.
(a) Khowai
(b) Dalai
(c) Gomati
(d) Sipahijala
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): President Biden invited 40 world leaders to the Leaders Summit on Climate he will
host on April 22 and 23. The virtual Leaders Summit will be live streamed for public viewing.
In recent years, scientists have underscored the need to limit planetary warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius in
order to stave off the worst impacts of climate change. A key goal of both the Leaders Summit and
COP26 will be to catalyze efforts that keep that 1.5-degree goal within reach. The Summit will also
highlight examples of how enhanced climate ambition will create good paying jobs, advance innovative
technologies, and help vulnerable countries adapt to climate impacts.
By the time of the Summit, the United States will announce an ambitious 2030 emissions target as its new
Nationally Determined Contribution under the Paris Agreement. In his invitation, the President urged
leaders to use the Summit as an opportunity to outline how their countries also will contribute to stronger
climate ambition.
35. This summit is seen as a key milestone on the road to the United Nations Climate Change Conference,
Conference of the Parties 26 (COP 26) in November 2021 in
(a) Glasgow
(b) New York
(c) Brussels
(d) Bruno Aires
36. Which of the following statements is not correct about India-US Clean Energy Agenda 2030 Partnership?
(a) It is a joint climate and clean energy initiative of India with the US.
(b) It will demonstrate how the world can align swift climate action with inclusive and resilient economic
development, taking into account national circumstances and sustainable development priorities.
(c) Mobilise investments, demonstrate clean technologies and enable green collaborations in India that
could also create templates of sustainable development for other developing countries.
(d) None of these
37. The UNFCCC, in its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) Synthesis Report, has called for more
ambitious climate action plans by the countries in order to achieve the
(a) Vienna Agreement target
(b) Paris Agreement target
(c) London Agreement target
(d) Hague Agreement target
38. India for stepping up its climate change commitment including the partnership with the US to deploy how
much gigawatts of renewable power to meet the ambitious 2030 target for climate action and clean
energy?
(a) 250 gigawatts
(b) 300 gigawatts
(c) 350 gigawatts
(d) 450 gigawatts
39. In which year US formally withdrew from the Paris Agreement?
(a) 2018
(b) 2019
(c) 2020
(d) 2021
Passage (Q.40-Q.43): Out of the EU, Britain will have to build new trade relationships with countries
outside the Union. While it was still in EU, Britain was not allowed to hold formal trade negotiations with
countries such as the US and Australia. Now that it will have that freedom, Brexit supporters see that as a
positive —Britain setting its own trade policy.
There will also likely be priority given to a trade deal between the EU and its ex-member. Britain will want
to lose as little as possible of the privileges it enjoyed as a member; it wouldn’t want to pay extra charges
on goods and would want to continue without trade barriers after the transition ends. As of now, these
trade rules have not changed.
40. The European Union is a group of how many countries that operate as a cohesive economic and political
block?
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28
41. In 1952, European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) was founded under which of the following
(a) Treaty of Paris (1951)
(b) Merger Treaty (1965)
(c) Schengen Agreement (1985)
(d) Treaty on European Union (1992)
42. In which year a referendum (called Brexit) was held by U.K. government, and the nation voted to leave
the EU?
(a) 2012
(b) 2014
(c) 2016
(d) 2018
43. In terms of EU’s economy, what was UK’s stand?
(a) second-biggest economy
(b) biggest economy
(c) third-biggest economy
(d) fourth-biggest economy
Passage (Q.44-Q.48): Foreign Ministers from the Group of Seven wealthy industrialised nations are
gathering Tuesday in London — their first face-to-face meeting in more than two years — to grapple with
threats to health, prosperity and democracy.
Host country Britain has warned that the increasingly aggressive activities of Russia, China and Iran pose
a challenge to democratic societies and the international rule of law.
U.K. Foreign Secretary Dominic Raab said Britain's presidency of the G-7 this year "is an opportunity to
bring together open, democratic societies and demonstrate unity at a time when it is much needed to
tackle shared challenges and rising threats." Top diplomats from the U.K., the United States, Canada,
France, Germany, Italy and Japan are holding two days of talks with an agenda that includes the coup in
Myanmar, the Tigray crisis in Ethiopia and the precarious situation in Afghanistan, where U.S. troops and
their NATO allies are winding down a two-decade deployment.
The UK Foreign Office said the group would also discuss “Russia's ongoing malign activity,” including
Moscow's troop buildup on the border with Ukraine and the imprisonment of opposition politician Alexei
Navalny.
44. Which edition of G7 Summit was held in June 2021?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 45th
(d) 47th
45. Which of the following statement is not correct about G7 Foreign Ministers’ Meet?
(a) The UK is the host country.
(b) Invited Guests are Australia, India, South Korea, South Africa and the Chair (Brunei Darussalam) of
the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).
(c) The bloc meets annually to discuss issues of common interest like global economic governance,
international security and energy policy.
(d) The G7 does have a formal constitution and headquartered in Paris. The decisions taken by leaders
during annual summits are non-binding.
46. Consider following statements on India and G7?

I. The participation of India at the 45th summit in Biarritz, France, in August 2019 is a reflection of
deepening strategic partnership and recognition of India as a major economic power.
II. India was also invited for the 2020 summit hosted by the USA which could not take place due to the
pandemic.
III. Previously India had attended the G8 summit (it became G7 from G8 with the expulsion of Iran in
2014) five times between 2005 and 2009.
Which one of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) None of these
47. Which of the following statements does not depict significance of India’s Engagement with G7?
(a) It provides an opportunity for India to develop cordial relations with developed countries.
(b) It will boost security cooperation with member countries in Indo-Pacific, particularly the Indian ocean.
(c) As current president of Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa (BRICS) and G20 president in 2023,
India will play a key role driving in multilateral cooperation helping to build back better around the
world.
(d) India is both a military and economic giant but isn’t part of the G7.
48. Group of Seven (G7) is an intergovernmental organisation that was formed in

(a) 1965
(b) 1975
(c) 1980
(d) 1995
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): US-led troops will remain in Afghanistan beyond the deadline laid down in a peace
deal with the Taliban because the militants have failed to comply with the agreement, NATO officials said
on Sunday.
The move casts doubt on the future of the agreement signed last year, under which international troops
would withdraw before May in return for the insurgents fulfilling security guarantees. The Afghan
government and others say the Taliban has failed to meet the deal’s conditions, with an escalation in
violence and a failure to cut ties with militant groups such as Al-Qaeda.
There will be no full withdrawal by allies by the end of April,” a senior NATO official said. Conditions have
not been met. And with the new US administration there will be tweaks in the policy, the sense of hasty
withdrawal that was prevalent will be addressed, and we could see a much more calculated exit strategy.
49. Which of these is not the part of Biden’s proposal?
(a) UN-led conference of representatives of Russia, China, Pakistan, Iran, India and the US to discuss a
unified approach to support peace in Afghanistan.
(b) The people of Afghanistan do not have any good options. If Afghanistan Government rejects the
American offer, the war will continue forever.
(c) It urges both sides including the Taliban to reach a consensus on Afghanistan’s future constitutional
and governing arrangements.
(d) It asks to find a road map to a new “inclusive government”; and agree on the terms of a “permanent
and comprehensive ceasefire”.
50. At a recent United Nations Security Council (UNSC) meeting, convened under which Formula, India
called for an “immediate comprehensive ceasefire” in Afghanistan, while welcoming all opportunities to
bring peace to the country?
(a) 7-7-7 Formula
(b) Sisyphus Formula
(c) Arria Formula
(d) None of these
51. Who is the current President of Afghanistan?

(a) Amrullah Saleh
(b) Zalmay Khalilzad
(c) Abdul Rashid Dostum
(d) Ashraf Ghani
52. According to NATO, what is the estimated number of troops in Afghanistan in addition to US Soldiers?
(a) 1000
(b) 10000
(c) 15000
(d) 5000
53. Which of these is not the objective of the US-Taliban Peace deal?
(a) An end to violence by declaring a ceasefire.
(b) An intra-Afghan dialogue for a lasting peace.
(c) The Taliban will provide US with information of financial sources of terrorist organisations such as al
Qaeda.
(d) U.S. troop withdrawal by April 2021.
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): The BJP MLAs and the lone MP of Assam’s Karbi Anglong, West Karbi Anglong
and Dima Hasao districts have sent a memorandum to the Centre demanding the implementation of
Article [1] of the Constitution of India to create an autonomous state within Assam.
BJP MP Horen Sing Bey who represents the autonomous district parliamentary constituency and is one of
the signatories of the memorandum said that creation of an autonomous state by comprising three hill
districts Karbi Anglong, West Karbi Anglong and Dima Hasao is a decade-long demand of the people of
the hill districts.
“As a public representative of the people of hill districts, it is my responsibility to apprise the voice of the
hill districts people to the central government and state government. We are six, including five MLAs of
three hill districts appealing to the Centre to implement Article [1] of the Constitution. Karbi Anglong-North
Cachar Hills Autonomous State Demand Committee (KANCHASDCOM) led by Ajit Timung had started
the movement of demanding autonomous state under the Article [1] of the Constitution of India in 1986.
54. Which of these following states does not have Fifth Schedule Area?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Kerala (d) Gujarat
55. Which of the following statements is not correct about Sixth Schedule of the Constitution?
(a) The acts of Parliament or the state legislature apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions
or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
(b) The Councils have also been endowed with wide civil and criminal judicial powers, for example
establishing village courts etc.
(c) The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
(d) The Governor is empowered to increase or decrease the areas or change the names of the
autonomous districts.
56. Which of the following is not the reason which gave the rise for the new demand as mentioned in the
passage?
(a) In the 1950s, a demand for a separate hill state arose around certain sections of the tribal population
of undivided Assam.
(b) The leaders of the Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills were also part of this movement. They were
given the option to stay in Assam or join Meghalaya.
(c) In 1960, various political parties of the hill areas merged to form the All Party Hill Leaders
Conference, demanding a separate state.
(d) In January, a group of BJP legislators from Assam submitted a memorandum to the Centre seeking
the implementation of [1].
57. Which of these has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) Article 224A (b) Article 242B (c) Article 234B (d) Article 244A
58. was inserted into the Constitution by the which Constitution Amendment Act?
(a) Forty-second Constitution Amendment Act, 1979.
(b) Thirty-third Constitution Amendment Act, 1969.
(c) Sixty-second Constitution Amendment Act, 1959.
(d) Twenty-second Constitution Amendment Act, 1969.
Passage (Q.59-Q.63): The 200,000 doses of Covid-19 vaccines, announced as a gift by India, will be sent
to the UN peacekeepers on March 27 and then will be distributed to the peacekeeping missions. The
announcement that India will gift 200,000 Covid-19 doses for UN peacekeepers was made by External
Affairs Minister S Jaishankar in February.
During his address in the UN Security Council open debate on the implementation of resolution 2532
(2020) on the cessation of hostilities in the context of the Covid-19 pandemic, Jaishankar had said that
keeping in mind the UN Peacekeepers who operate in such difficult circumstances, India would like to
announce a gift of 200,000 doses for them.
Quoting the Bhagvad Gita, Jaishankar had said “Do your work with the welfare of others always in mind.”
The 200,000 doses essentially mean that it will be possible to administer the required double doses of
Covid-19 vaccines to all UN peacekeepers across missions. According to UN Peacekeeping, as of
January 31, 2021 a total of 85,782 personnel are serving in 12 peacekeeping operations across the world
led by the Department of Peace Operations.
A total of 121 nations are contributing uniformed personnel to the UN peacekeeping missions. India is
traditionally among the largest troop contributing countries to peacekeeping missions.
(Source: https://www.outlookindia.com/website/story/india-news-indias-gift-of-200000-vaccine-doses-for-
un-peacekeepers-to-dispatch-on-march-27/378320)
59. India will send 200,000 doses of which COVID-19 vaccines to the UN peacekeepers?
(a) Covishield
(b) Covaxin
(c) Covavax
(d) All of these
60. External Affairs Minister had announced this while addressing “UN Security Council open debate on
implementation of resolution 2532 (2020) on cessation of hostilities” in the line of COVID-19 pandemic.
Who is the current External Affairs Minister?
(a) Dharmendra Pradhan
(b) S Jaishankar
(c) Pralhad Joshi
(d) Prahlad Singh Patel
61. How many nations are contributing uniformed personnel for UN peacekeeping missions?
(a) 110
(b) 121
(c) 140
(d) 84
62. The peacekeepers assist ex-combatants to implement peace agreements UN peacekeepers are also
called as -
(a) Blue Berets
(b) White bonnet
(c) Green helmets
(d) None of these
63. Which country is the only exception to India’s regional vaccine diplomacy, which has cleared the
AstraZeneca vaccine for use, but has neither requested nor discussed any doses from India yet?
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Pakistan
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): China announced sanctions on [1] individuals and entities following the [1]'s
joining the EU and others in sanctioning Chinese officials accused of human rights abuses.
A statement from the Chinese Foreign Ministry said the move by the Western bloc was based on “nothing
but lies and disinformation, flagrantly breaches international law and basic norms governing international
relations, grossly interferes in China's internal affairs, and severely undermines China-[1] relations".
Several individuals and four institutions were placed on the sanctions list, including member of Parliament
Iain Duncan Smith and the Conservative Party's Human Rights Commission. Smith is a former leader of
the Conservatives. China's sanctions are the latest move in an increasingly bitter row over the region
where Beijing is accused of detaining more than 1 million members Muslim minority groups engaging in
forced labour and imposing coercive birth control measures.
(Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/china-announces-sanctions-on-britons-as-uk-joins-
eu-move-in-xinjiang-101616736524965.html)
64. Which of these has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) UK
(d) Russia
65. As per the statement of Chinese Foreign Ministry spokesperson, United Kingdom had imposed unilateral
sanctions on relevant Chinese individuals and entity citing human rights issues in
(a) Guizhou
(b) Zhejiang
(c) Xinjiang
(d) Hubei
66. Following the Chinese sanctions, how many individuals and their immediate family members have been
prohibited from entering Chinese mainland, Hong Kong and Macao of China.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Seven
(d) Nine
67. United Kingdom had sanctioned Chinese Individuals citing the human rights violation with respect to
Beijing’s treatment of
(a) Kharijite Muslims
(b) Uyghur Muslims
(c) Kyrgyz Muslims
(d) Hui Muslims
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.68 – Q.104): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.68-Q.72): A citizen has a right to criticize or comment upon the measures undertaken by the
Government and its functionaries, so long as he does not incite people to violence against the
Government or with the intention of creating public disorder, the Supreme Court said while quashing
sedition case registered against journalist Vinod Dua. The bench of Justice Uday Umesh Lalit and Vineet
Saran observed that it is only when the words or expressions have pernicious tendency or intention of
creating public disorder or disturbance of law and order that Sections 124A is attracted.
The court noted that the statements made by Dua can at best be termed as expression of disapprobation
of actions of the Government and its functionaries so that prevailing situation could be addressed quickly
and efficiently.
In the case Kedar Nath Singh vs State of Bihar(1962), the Supreme Court had read down Section 124A
IPC and held that the application of the provision should be limited to "acts involving intention or tendency
to create disorder, or disturbance of law and order; or incitement to violence". They were certainly not
made with the intent to incite people or showed tendency to create disorder or disturbance of public
peace by resort to violence. The petitioner was within the permissible limits laid down in the decision of
this Court in Kedar Nath Singh .
The court held that every Journalist will be entitled to protection in terms of Kedar Nath Singh, as every
prosecution under Sections 124A of the IPC, sedition and 505 of the IPC, statements conducing public
mischief must be in strict conformity with the scope and ambit of said Sections as explained in, and
completely in tune with the law laid down in Kedar Nath Singh.
[‘Citizen Has Right To Criticize Government As Long As He Does Not Incite People To Violence:
Supreme Court In Vinod Dua Case’ (Live Law, 03 June 2021) <https://www.livelaw.in/top-
stories/supreme-court-vinod-dua-citizen-right-criticize-government-sedition-incite-violence-violence-
175154> as accessed on 06 June 2021.]
68. Indian Government accepted continuation of all the British laws in India after its independence. One such
law was Indian Penal Code under which one case before the Supreme Court of India is criminal
proceedings against Tara Singh. When partition was agreed to by India and Pakistan, India opened its
doors for anyone who wishes to stay within its bounds. Tara Singh was against the idea of Muslims living
in the county and called for protests against this policy. His speeches in the demonstrations led to
nationwide riots, of which he was an integral part. Due to the protests a girl, a Sakeena lost her life. The
state has charged him with law of sedition and the court has reserved the order for pronouncement for
today. Choose the most appropriate decision by the court.
(a) Tara Singh is guilty of sedition as he gave the speech against the government with an intention to
cause public disorder and violence, which it eventually concluded into.
(b) Tara Singh is not guilty of sedition as mere criticism of the policies of the government can be
characterised as sedition to render the citizens bereft of their right to freedom of speech and
expression, and freedom to demonstrate.
(c) Tara Singh is guilty of sedition because regardless that he did not have any intention to do so, his
speech resulted into mass violence causing even the demise of a girl.
(d) Tara Singh is not guilty of sedition as there is no evidence to suggest that he had any intention or his
actions had any tendency to either disrupt public order or cause violence as result of his speech.
69. After the assassination of Indian Prime Minister Seema Bose by her two bodyguards, riots broke out in
the nation. Her assassination was a vengeance for not allowing partition of Indian state of Sindh to form a
separate nation altogether. Balwant Singh and two others were nabbed by the Police for shouting
slogans ‘hail khalistan, khalsa will rule, we will liberate Sindh from India’ in front of a government office.
The court upon analysing the evidence produced by the prosecution found out that the slogans did not
attract any attention and the accused left the place after almost half an hour of demonstration. Decide
whether the court would find them guilty of the offence of sedition.
(a) The accused shall be found guilty of sedition as they had the intention of causing violence because at
a time when the entire nation was struggling against the riots even small demonstration and slogans
criticizing state policies could turn violent.
(b) The accused shall not be found guilty of sedition as there was no intention to cause violence because
there was no overt act of violence and their slogans did not attract any attention or caused any
disruption of public order.
(c) The accused shall be found guilty of sedition because demanding a separate nation from India is
against the integrity of our nation and thus sedition in itself.
(d) The accused shall not be found guilty of sedition as even if there was an intention to create any
disorder they failed to convert it into any form of action.
70. Assertion (A): The intention to cause violence and the overt acts of violence are the mandatory
requisites of convicting someone of sedition.
Reasoning (R): Any such intentionally done act when leads to disruption of public order is seditious in
nature.
(a) Both A and R are correct, R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is incorrect and R is correct
(d) Both are incorrect
71. Laxman Sharma was a renowned artist who drew a sketch showing politicians getting treated in AIIMS
hospitals while the rest of the citizenry is waiting in queues before hospitals. It was aimed at pointing out
the failure of institutional machinery in arranging medical facilities for the people infected in a nationwide
pandemic. He was arrested soon after and charged with sedition for intending to cause disorder by
inciting people against the country. In the court, Laxman contested that the sketch was only for the
purpose of satire and he did not intend to disrupt the public order. Choose the correct ruling for the
present matter.
(a) Laxman shall be convicted for sedition as during a pandemic such an act even if done for the purpose
criticizing the government is most likely to cause unrest and cause public disorder.
(b) Laxman shall not be convicted for sedition as it is the intention of the accused and not what their
actions lead to which is relevant. Thus, if intention was only to present a satire on the governmental
failure.
(c) Laxman shall be convicted for sedition as during these difficult times when there is already disorder,
even mere criticism of government shall be punished as sedition.
(d) Laxman shall not be convicted for sedition as the sketch was intended to criticize the failure of the
government in providing medical facilities and it did not result into any violence or disruption of public
order.
72. Bilal Ahmed, an alleged militant, was nabbed by the police from a hotel very close to a serial bomb blast
site. He was also found in possession of a gun along with two cartridges. State imposed on him charges
under various acts including Indian Penal Code, Arms Act and Prevention of Terrorist Activities Act.
Under IPC he was charged under section 124A for overt acts of blast and causing public disorder to
incite feelings of contempt and disapprobation against the Government of India. Decide whether he shall
be convicted of sedition or not?
(a) Bilal shall be convicted of sedition as bomb blast is an overt act of intentionally causing public
disorder or disrupting law and order.
(b) Bilal shall not be convicted of sedition as there is absence of any overt act for which intention can be
deduced and he can be charged with sedition.
(c) Bilal shall be convicted of sedition as even carrying a revolver, if he is not involved in blasts, would be
an act with an intention of disrupting the public order.
(d) Bilal shall not be convicted of sedition as the entire criminal charges against him are based on
assumption that he is a militant.
Passage (Q.73-Q.77): The Allahabad high court said that irrational, indiscriminate arrests are a gross
violation of human rights, accepting an anticipatory bail plea in a corruption case. The courts have
repeatedly held that arrest should be the last option for the police and it should be restricted to
exceptional cases where arresting the accused is either imperative or their custodial interrogation is
required. There was an allegation against the applicant that he was taking money from the passing
trucks, an FIR was lodged against him under section 7/13 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
After the lodging of an FIR, the arrest can be made by the police at will. There is no definite period fixed
for the police to arrest an accused against whom an FIR has been lodged. Irrational and indiscriminate
arrests are gross violations of human rights,” the court observed, allowing anticipatory bail plea of the
applicant. “In the event of arrest, the applicant shall be released on bail till cognizance is taken by the
court on the police report, if any, under section 173 (2) Criminal Procedure Code before the competent
court on furnishing a personal bond of Rs 50,000/- with two sureties each in the like amount to the
satisfaction of the Station House Officer of the police station/court concerned,” it said. The high court has
put some conditions on the applicant, that he shall make himself available for interrogation by the police
officer as and when required. He shall not, directly or indirectly, make any inducement, threat or promise
to any person acquainted with the facts of the case to dissuade from disclosing such facts to the court or
to any police officer, it said.
[‘Irrational, Indiscriminate Arrests are Gross Violation of Human Rights: Allahabad HC’ (The Wire, 02
June 2021) <https://thewire.in/law/irrational-indiscriminate-arrests-are-gross-violation-of-human-rights-
allahabad-hc> as accessed on 06 June 2021.]
73. Saqib owned a transportation agency in Bhopal that rents out car for journeys. In a criminal investigation
Police finds that his car has been used in a bank robbery. Thus the police came to his house for arrest.
He claims that he is in the business of renting out cars, and thus one of his cars was found with the
offenders. He further argued that he has copies of the identities of the people to whom he rented out the
car and promises to appear for interrogation when the police demands. Upon inquiry by the police it was
also found that Saqib has no past criminal record and has been a permanent resident of Bhopal for over
12 years. Decide whether he shall be arrested or not.
(a) Saqib shall not be arrested as he was just carrying out his business in renting out the car and there is
no need for a custodial interrogation by the Police.
(b) Saqib shall be arrested as he is an accessory to the crime and thus accused of robbery himself,
therefore he shall be arrested so that he discloses names of other accused who committed the
robbery.
(c) Saqib shall not be arrested as there is no evidence with the police that he rented out the car with a
malicious intention or had any knowledge that the car would be used to commit an offence.
(d) Saqib shall be arrested as he would be able to tamper with the evidence or threaten the witnesses to
influence the conclusion of the investigation.
74. Zahid is an IAS officer who was nabbed red-handed receiving bribe by the anti-corruption bureau. The
police has made an application before the magistrate to arrest. The Bureau has contended that there
have been previous complaints against the accused but allegedly he was protected by his influence
every time. Thus the department seeks to ensure that he does not get away this time until the
investigation is concluded. Decide whether the warrant shall be granted or not.
(a) The warrant shall be granted as Zahid has been arrested red handed and there is no need for further
evidence to prove that he is guilty of the offence.
(b) The warrant shall not be granted because there are no exceptional circumstances or need of
custodial interrogation that warrant arrest of Zahid.
(c) The warrant shall be allowed as Zahid is most likely to influence the outcome of the investigation by
tampering with the evidences and manipulating the witnesses.
(d) The warrant shall not be allowed as Zahid is an officer at a decorated rank, and every incident of
arrest of such an officer would set a wrong precedent for the nation.
75. Baba Ramprasad is an Indian Yoga Guru who while leading a protest against the corruption pervasive in
the government made hateful speeches that led to violence. When police arrived to nab him, he escaped.
Almost a week later he made an application before the Delhi High Court for anticipatory bail. The
application has been challenged by the State on the ground that Baba will abscond and might also try to
influence the outcome of the investigation. The court has reserved the judgment for today. Decide
whether the bail be granted or the arrest shall be allowed.
(a) Bail shall be granted because there is no evidence that Baba will influence the investigation by
tampering with evidence if let out on bail by the court.
(b) Bail shall not be granted because Baba has absconded before when the police tried to arrest him and
if released on bail might abscond again instead of cooperating with police.
(c) Bail shall be granted because Baba cannot be put in jail unless he is actually found guilty of the
offence after a trial and sentenced by the court itself.
(d) Bail shall not be granted because Baba was leading a protest against the state itself which is treason
and therefore he shall be locked up and later sentenced for the unforgivable offence.
76. In which of the following circumstances shall the Police avoid arresting the person.
I. Police went to interrogate a person who tried to escape after seeing the police.
II. After collision of two vehicles the one at negligence was trying to help the victims and called the
police to report the incident.
III. A police constable charged with receiving bribes
IV. A husband booked for inflicting domestic abuse on her wife
Choose the correct answer:
(a) IV only (b) I and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) I only
77. Imran has been arrested for being part of a violent protest that took after an MP tweeted a communally
hateful post. The Police has identified 11 perpetrators so far and Imran is one of them. After his arrest, he
made an application for the bail that was rejected by the Sessions Court without stating any reasonable
ground. The court ruled that bail is an exceptional rule where the arrest would be against the interest of
the accused and defying the cause of justice. Thus, in absence of any such circumstances Imran shall be
in police custody for forthcoming period. Imran has made an appeal before the high court against the
order. Choose the correct option.
(a) Appeal shall be allowed as bail remains to be the general norm except in circumstances where arrest
is imperative, and since there is no particular reason to keep Imran in custody he shall be released on
bail.
(b) Appeal shall not be allowed as there is no reason to believe that arrest will cause any prejudice to the
interest or defy the cause of justice.
(c) Appeal shall be allowed as Imran’s act was only a reaction to the tweet by the MP, thus he is not a
criminal by nature and be released rather than him being incarcerated without any substantial reason.
(d) Appeal shall not be allowed as Imran is likely to abscond and then influence the investigation if
released on bail.
Passage (Q.78-Q.82): The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2021 was
introduced in Lok Sabha to amend the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991. The Act
provides a framework for the functioning of the Legislative Assembly and the government of the National
Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi. Restriction on laws passed by the Assembly: The Bill provides that the term
“government” referred to in any law made by the Legislative Assembly will imply Lieutenant Governor (LG).
Rules of Procedure of the Assembly: The Act allows the Legislative Assembly to make Rules to regulate the
procedure and conduct of business in the Assembly. The Bill provides that such Rules must be consistent
with the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
Inquiry by the Assembly into administrative decisions: The Bill prohibits the Legislative Assembly from
making any rule to enable itself or its Committees to (i) consider the matters of day-to-day administration of
the NCT of Delhi and (ii) conduct any inquiry in relation to administrative decisions. Further, the Bill
provides that all such rules made before its enactment will be void.
Assent to Bills: The Act requires the LG to reserve certain bills passed by the Legislative Assembly for the
consideration of the President. These Bills are those: (i) which may diminish the powers of the High Court of
Delhi, (ii) which the President may direct to be reserved, (iii) dealing with the salaries and allowances of the
Speaker, Deputy Speaker, and members of the Assembly and the Ministers, or (iv) Relating to official
languages of the Assembly or the NCT of Delhi. The Bill requires the LG to also reserve those Bills for the
President which incidentally cover any of the matters outside the purview of the powers of the Legislative
Assembly.
SOURCE: Press India.
https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-government-of-national-capital-territory-of-delhi-amendment-bill-2021
78. Legislative assembly of Delhi passed a bill to provide free water and electricity facilities to residents of
Delhi barring persons with more than 15 lakh of income. The bill passed after the National Capital
Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2021 is enforced in Delhi. Decide validity of decision taken by the
legislative assembly of Delhi.
(a) National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991 provides a framework for the functioning of the Legislative
Assembly.
(b) The Bill prohibits the Legislative Assembly from making any rule.
(c) The Bill prohibits the Legislative Assembly from making any rule consider the matters of day-to-day
administration of the NCT of Delhi.
(d) The Bill prohibits the Legislative Assembly from making any rule consider the matters of day-to-day
administration of the NCT of Delhi without permission of LG.
79. A Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly of Delhi without the consideration of the President but with
consideration of LG. The bill diminishes the powers of the District Court of Delhi. Decide the legal validity
of the above-mentioned bill in the context of a passage.
(a) It violates the GNTCD bill because the Act requires the LG to reserve certain bills passed by the
Legislative Assembly for the consideration of the President.
(b) It is not legal because consideration of the President is mandatory.
(c) It is legal to diminish the power of the District Court of Delhi by LG without consideration of the president.
80. Lieutenant Governor of Delhi Shri Anil Baijal promulgated Ordinance to cut the salary of legislators by 30
percent and this reduction is a temporary measure applicable for a year only. Can LG do so?
(a) Yes, with the advice of the president.
(b) No, the Bill requires the LG to reserve such Bills for the President.
(c) Both A and B
81. Is the central government taking away power from Delhi Government bypassing the National Capital
Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2021? Answer with the context of the passage.
(a) Yes, the LG will only enjoy all-dominating powers.
(b) Federal structure is violated because indirectly union will control NCT Delhi.
(c) Delhi assembly will not able to form any committees to scrutinize actions.
82. Legislative Assembly of Delhi appointed a commission of inquiry to enquire into irregularities and fraud
committed by certain persons managing the affairs of industrial companies by changing governance
tactics (Administrative decision) governed by the Delhi government. Government of the Delhi commission
is allowed or not to do above mention inquiry? Decide.
(a) Yes they are allowed because they have powers to do so.
(b) No, they are not allowed.
(c) No, they are not allowed because The Bill prohibits the Legislative Assembly from making any rule to
enable itself or its Committees to consider the matters of day-to-day administration of the NCT of Delhi.
(d) No, they are not allowed because The Bill prohibits the Legislative Assembly from making any rule to
enable itself or its Committees to consider the matters to conduct any inquiry in relation to administrative
decisions.
Passage (Q.83-Q.88): Delegation of powers means the powers passed on by the higher authority to the
lower authority to make laws. Delegated legislation means the powers given by the legislature to the
executive or administration to enact certain laws. The simple meaning of the expression “delegated
expression” may be: When the function of the legislation is entrusted to organs other than the legislature
by the legislature itself, the legislation made by such organs is known as delegated legislation. Delegated
legislation, also referred to as secondary legislation, is legislation made by a person or body other than
Parliament. Parliament, through an Act of Parliament, can permit another person or body to make
legislation. An Act of Parliament creates the framework of a particular law and tends only to contain an
outline of the purpose of the Act. By Parliament giving authority for legislation to be delegated it enables
other persons or bodies to provide more detail to an Act of Parliament. Parliament thereby, through
primary legislation (i.e. an Act of Parliament), permit others to make law and rules through delegated
legislation. The legislation created by delegated legislation must be made in accordance with the purpose
laid down in the Act. The Legislature cannot delegate Essential Legislative Functions which consist in the
determination or choosing of the Legislative Policy and of formally enacting that policy into a binding rule
of conduct. Essential Legislative Functions include the power to repeal or modify a law and cannot be
delegated. The underlying object of parliamentary control is to keep watch over the rule-making
authorities and also to provide an opportunity to criticize them if there is abuse of power on their part.
Parliament has control in that the enabling or parent Act passed by Parliament sets out the framework or
parameters within which delegated legislation is made. In India, the question of control on rule-making
power engaged the attention of the Parliament. The Parliamentary control over delegated legislation in
USA and India is not as effective as in UK.
[Source: Amit Kumar, ‘Delegated Legislation Development and Parliamentary Controls’, Legal Services
India, <http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/2421/Delegated-Legislation-Development-and-
Parliamentary-Control.html>, as accessed on 20th June 2021]
83. In March 2020, Parliament enacted an act titled Taxes on Exports Act 2020 which gives discretionary
power to State governments to decide upon the tax slabs and other rules for items exported from their
respective states. One of the provisions of the Act states that “Every State shall have the power to decide
upon the respective tax slabs on the list of items, given under Schedule I of the Act, to be exported from
the state after 1st May 2020”. The State of Uttar Pradesh passed Taxes on Export Rules 2020 where the
tax slab for all items is fixed at 20% of their MRPs. Many manufacturers and businessmen contest the
Rules set out by the government to be arbitrary and misuse of power. Also it was contended that the
Rules must be struck down as they are ultra vires and beyond the power of the State Legislature. Decide
–
(a) The Contention was incorrect as the power to decide the tax slabs is being given to the State
governments and the act is not ultra vires the delegated legislation.
(b) The Contention was correct as the power to decide the tax slabs is being given to the State
governments but the act is ultra vires the delegated legislation.
(c) The Contention was incorrect as the power to decide the tax slabs is not an essential legislative
function and it can be delegated to the state governments.
(d) The Contention was correct as the power to decide the tax slabs is not an ancillary legislative function
and it cannot be delegated to the state governments.
84. In the year 2016, the Parliament of India enacted Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code where only certain
parts of the code were made effective for the time being. Section 4 of IBC reads as “This Part shall apply
to matters relating to the insolvency and liquidation of corporate debtors where the minimum amount of
the default is one lakh rupees; Provided that the Central Government may, by notification, specify the
minimum amount of default of higher value which shall not be more than one crore rupees”. With regards
to this, the Central Government passed a notification dated March 2020, where the minimum default
amount was reduced to Rs. 50,000 due to the COVID Pandemic situation. Many corporate bodies
criticized this move and claimed the power delegated to be excessive in nature. Decide –
(a) The power given to the Central Government to notify the default amount timely is not an essential
legislative function and it can be delegated validly. There is no excessive delegation.
(b) The power given to the Central Government to notify the default amount timely is an essential
legislative function and it cannot be delegated validly. There is excessive delegation.
(c) The power given to the Central Government to notify the default amount timely is not an ancillary
legislative function and it can be delegated validly. There is no excessive delegation.
(d) The power given to the Central Government to notify the default amount timely is an ancillary
legislative function but it cannot be delegated validly. There is excessive delegation.
85. The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet on 8th May, 2020 approved the Uttar Pradesh Temporary Exemption from
Certain Labour Laws Ordinance, 2020. The Ordinance exempted all factories and establishments
engaged in the manufacturing process from compliance under 35 out of 38 Central Labour Laws for a
period of 3 years in lieu of Covid 19 pandemic. People of Uttar Pradesh contested the suspension on the
grounds of excessive delegation and misuse of power. Also the State government was not having such
power of suspension to which the authorities replied that The Factories Act and the Payment of Bonus
Act allow suspension under the Act for a maximum period of 3 months and for a public emergency.
Decide –
(a) The Ordinance passed by the Uttar Pradesh Government is ultra vires and should be struck down as
it was in excessive delegation of power.
(b) The Ordinance passed by the Uttar Pradesh Government is not ultra vires and should not be struck
down as it was delegation of ancillary legislative functions and not excessive delegation of power.
(c) The Ordinance passed by the Uttar Pradesh Government is not ultra vires as power to suspend the
Central Laws is given explicitly and is not excessive delegation of power.
(d) The Ordinance passed by the Uttar Pradesh Government is ultra vires as there is delegation of
essential legislative function and it should be struck down with immediate effect.
86. Section 5 of Essential Commodities Act, 1955 states that “The Central Government may, by notified
order, direct that the power to make orders or issue notifications under section 3 shall, in relation to such
matters and subject to such conditions, if any, as may be specified in the direction, be exercisable also by
such officer or authority subordinate to the Central Government, or such State Government or such
officer or such authority subordinate to a State Government, as may be specified in the direction”. In lieu
of the same, the State of Andhra Pradesh directed Municipal Authorities of Telangana to frame certain
rules and procedures to regulate the pricing, selling and exporting of essential commodities in the state.
Telangana Municipal Corporation enacted Rules 2021 which was contended to be ultra vires. Decide –
(a) The Rules framed by the Telangana Municipal Corporation was ultra vires the Essential Commodities
Act as the power delegated was excessive delegation to the authorities.
(b) The Rules framed by the Telangana Municipal Corporation were not ultra vires as the Essential
Commodities Act explicitly states about such power to be delegated to local or subordinate authorities
to State Governments. There was no excessive delegation to the authorities.
(c) The Rules framed by the Telangana Municipal Corporation were ultra vires as the State government
does not have the power to delegate. It is only with the Central Government to delegate this and
hence was excessive delegation to the authorities.
87. Which among the following is a suitable example(s) of only delegated legislation?
I. Central Government under Sec.7 of Companies Act notified the requisite list of documents for
memorandum at time of Incorporation of the Company.
II. Section 44A of Civil Procedure Code gives power to the Central Government to notify in the official
gazette as to inclusion or exclusion of reciprocating territory.
III. Section 65 of the Competition Act gives power to the Central Government to pass and publish an
order in the official gazette to remove any difficulty arising giving effect to the provisions of the Act.
IV. Section 469 of the Companies Act gives power to the Central Government to make rules for carrying
out the provisions of the Companies Act 2013. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs framed Companies
(Incorporation and Dissolution) Rules.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Only III
(c) All of the Above
(d) I, III and IV
88. Delegated Legislation in India has not been observed and explored much as compared to the UK.
Delegated Legislation needs more growth and concrete legislation to regulate the administrative affairs in
India. What can be the valid reason behind the concept of Delegated Legislation?
(a) Subject matter of legislation is technical in nature. So, assistance from experts is required. The
legislative power may be conferred on experts to deal with the technical problems.
(b) Parliament can foresee all the contingencies while passing on enactment. To satisfy these demands
some provisions are required to be made. A legislative amendment is a swift process.
(c) In times of emergency, quick action is required to be taken. The legislative process is equipped to
provide for urgent solutions to meet the situation.
(d) The complexity of modern administration and the expansion of the functions of the state to the
economic and social sphere have rendered it unnecessary to resort to new forms of legislation and to
give wide powers to various authorities on suitable occasions.
Passage (Q.89-Q.94): Read the following passage and in the light of the same answer the questions that
follow.
Section 161 Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 headed as “Examination of witnesses by police” provides
for oral examination of a person by any investigating officer when such person is supposed to be
acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case. The purpose for and the manner in which the
police statement recorded under Section 161 can be used at any trial are indicated in Section 162. This
section empowers the police to examine witnesses during the course of an investigation. Any person who
is supposed to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case may be examined orally. The
words “any person” used in Section 161 (1) also include a person who may be accused of the crime and
suspects. This section as well as Article 20(3) of the constitution gives protection to such person against
questions exposing him to a criminal charge. Article 20(3) lays down a fundamental right that no person
accused of any offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself. In Nandini Satpathy v. P.L
Dani, the Supreme Court held that the accused person cannot be forced to answer questions merely
because the answers thereto are not implicative when viewed in isolation and confined to that particular
case. No oath, sign or affirmation is required in an examination of witnesses under this section. It is not
mandatory for the investigating officer to reduce in writing the statement of the person examined as sub-
section (3) prohibits making of précis of a statement recorded under Section 161 of the Code. It is also
provided that statement made under this sub-section may also be recorded by audio-video electronic
means. According to the law of evidence this is not evidence of fact, so it cannot be treated as
substantive evidence. Section 162 bans the use of the statements collected by the police in the course of
investigation for corroboration.
[Source: Ayushi Tripathi, ‘Examination of Witness and Recording of their Statement’, Law Times Journal,
<https://lawtimesjournal.in/examination-of-witness-and-recording-of-their-statement/>, as accessed on
21st June 2021]
89. Vijay Malia, a renowned businessman, has been alleged to commit fraud with the major two banks of
India. ICICI Bank pressed charges for forgery and criminal conspiracy as he intentionally deposited all his
money in the Swizz Bank Account and went to Ireland as India does not have the MOU signed with the
country to hand over their criminal offenders back. Also, the State Bank of India alleged him for the same
charges. The amount to be recovered from Malia is in thousand crore. An intelligence report informed the
Custom and Excise officers that Vijay Malia will be visiting India in the name of Arvind Sahoo to take back
his authentic documents. He will be taking his flight back from Bombay Airport. Custom Officers caught a
person named Arvind Sahoo and enquired him. They have investigated his visa and passport too. They
have taken him into custody. In the trial, the authorities used this information against Mr. Arvind. Decide –
(a) The statements made by Mr. Arvind to the Custom Officers cannot be under section 161 of the code
as they have enquired him with no evidence and out of custody.
(b) The statements made by Mr. Arvind to the Custom Officers can be under section 161 of the code as
they have investigated him and such statements can be used to contradict the accused.
(c) The statements made by Mr. Arvind to the Custom Officers cannot be under section 161 of the code
as they have not been taken as per the said requirements of the section.
(d) The statements made by Mr. Arvind to the Custom Officers can be under section 162 of the code as
they have been used to contradict the accused and not for corroboration.
90. Manoj and Arti were classmates. Manoj used to like her. He also proposed to her on Valentine’s Day but
Arti refused him. She doesn’t want to be in such a relationship as of now. Manoj was very upset by this
and he planned to murder Arti as she has done wrong with him. He invited her anonymously to his farm
house and blackmailed her to share her vulgar pictures. Arti went to the farm house and was murdered
there. On investigation, the local Police Officers enquired the nearby Tea Seller about the crime scene.
The seller stated that he saw a boy with black shirt and a mask on his face having a knife in his hand and
washing it on the roadside. It seems like there was a lot of blood on the knife. The Officers checked the
CCTV footage and saw no such boy with the knife. After a week, Police arrested Manoj and was taken
into custody. In the trial, the police presented the Tea Seller as a witness and stated that he saw Manoj
cleaning the knife after murder. Decide –
(a) The statement of the tea seller cannot be taken into consideration by the Court as it discloses facts
related to the case and hence is not a piece of substantive evidence.
(b) The statement of the tea seller cannot be taken into consideration by the Court as there was no such
footage covered in the CCTV camera when checked by the Officials and hence it is not substantive
evidence.
(c) The statement of the tea seller can be taken into consideration by the Court as the statement is
covered under the scope of section 161 of the code and can be used to determine the facts of the
case.
(d) The statement of the tea seller can be taken into consideration by the Court as there is a probability
that the Court can inquire Manoj on these lines and need not completely rely on these statements.
91. Sheetal and Suraj were married to each other. They were happy in their relationship. Sheetal was also in
good relations with her friend Anup. Suraj doubted their relation and planned to kill her and take his
revenge. He poisoned her food and she died. On investigation, Police Officers get to know about this
arrangement and arrest Suraj as suspect. Suraj stated that he was in the city but was out for a business
meeting at his friend’s house the night Sheetal was murdered. In the trial of the case, Suraj was called as
a witness and was enquired. He stated that he was not in the city. The Police Officer contested that Suraj
is lying as the statement he made during investigation was different. Decide –
(a) Statement made by Suraj to the Police Officer is covered under section 161 of the code but cannot be
used at time of trial for contradiction.
(b) Statement made by Suraj to the Police Officer is not covered under section 161 of the code and
cannot be used at time of trial for contradiction.
(c) Statement made by Suraj to the Police Officer is covered under section 161 of the code and can be
used at time of trial for contradiction.
(d) Statement made by Suraj to the Police Officer is not covered under section 161 of the code but can
be used at time of trial for contradiction.
92. Meenal and Sunita were good friends from their college times. Sunita helped Meenal a lot in her financial
problems and also got her a job. Meenal had taken a loan of Rs.1,00,000 from Sunita and never thought
of returning it back. On being asked by Sunita, Meenal stated that she won’t be able to pay the same but
can pay only 20,000 out of this amount. Sunita was in urgent need of the money and was aware that
Meenal is creating the drama. Sunita went to her home and found her to be alone. She killed Meenal with
a sharp long knife and ran away with some jewellery. On investigation, the Police Officer found the CCTV
recording where Sunita was seen and she was the last person to meet Meenal. Sunita was taken into
custody and after a week she stated the truth to the Police Officers. In the trial, the prosecution lawyer
cross-examined her and asked her about the truth. She moulded the facts and refused to confess her
guilt. The Police personnel submitted the statement made by Sunita in custody. Decide –
(a) Statement made by Sunita to the Police Officer is covered under section 161 of the code and can be
used at time of trial for corroboration.
(b) Statement made by Sunita to the Police Officer is not covered under section 161 of the code and
cannot be used at time of trial for contradiction.
(c) Statement made by Sunita to the Police Officer is covered under section 161 of the code but cannot
be used at time of trial for contradiction.
(d) Statement made by Sunita to the Police Officer is not covered under section 161 of the code but can
be used at time of trial for corroboration.
93. Choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution provides right against self incrimination i.e no
accused can be compelled to be a witness against himself/herself.
Reasoning (R): Article 20 also provides for the right to remain silent as the protection extends to the
person accused not to speak or answer questions which are inculpatory.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are incorrect.
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) Only A is correct and R is incorrect.
94. Which among the following statement(s) is/are not true with regards to section 161 of the code?
I. If a statement is recorded by police, under the provisions of Section 162 the accused must not be
asked to sign the same. Though it is not barred by the section, but violation of this provision may
sometimes diminish the value of the testimony of the witnesses when they come to court.
II. If some statement has been recorded of a person Y, such statement can be used to contradict or to
support such witness in the later stage of trial.
III. If a person X is supposed to be acquainted with the circumstances of a case, a police officer
investigating the case is allowed to examine such a person orally and may reduce the statement
made by such person into writing.
IV. If a person C was asked questions self-incriminatory in nature during investigation by police, such a
person is not bound to answer those questions by the virtue of Section 161 and 162 of the code.
(a) Both I and II (b) Only III (c) Both II and IV (d) I, III and IV
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines & Digital Media Ethics
Code) Rules, 2021 ["2021 Rules"] make a distinct departure from the erstwhile 2011 Rules while dealing
with obligations and duties of intermediaries by classifying them into two groups namely, social media
intermediary and a significant social media intermediary. Rule 2(w) defines social media intermediary as
an intermediary which primarily or solely enables online interaction between users and allows users to
create, upload, share information using its services. A significant social media intermediary means a
social media intermediary having registered users above the threshold as notified by the Government,
which is 50 lakh registered users.
Under Rule 3(1)(d) of the 2021 Rules, an intermediary after receiving 'actual knowledge' through a court
order or by being notified by a government agency, is bound to remove information that is prohibited by
law within a duration of thirty-six hours. Therefore, Rule 3(1)(d) essentially prescribes a procedure for
take down/blocking of content in the public domain. Rule 3(2)(b) of the 2021 Rules require an
intermediary upon receipt of a complaint made by an individual to remove any content which prima facie
shows explicit content relating to that individual within a period of 24 hours.
Rule 4(2) entails at some stage the decryption of information by the intermediaries such as WhatsApp or
Telegram on whose platform the objectionable content has been shared or transmitted as those
platforms use End-to-End encryption technology. Rule 4(2) of 2021 Rules casts the obligation on the
intermediary to provide the decrypted information sought for, irrespective of whether it is in possession of
the decryption key or not.
[Extracted with revisions from 'Intermediary Rules 2021 – Not Liberal' by Amith Krishnan, published 12
June 2921 on Livelaw https://www.livelaw.in/columns/intermediary-rules-2021-not-liberal-175610 ]
95. Quitter is a popular social media platform with nearly 49 lakh registered active users per month. X posted
the contact details of the National Security Advisor on Quitter, even though the said details were
confidential, sensitive and not meant for the public eye. X obtained the details while he was trying to
schedule an interview with the National Security Advisor. As soon as X posted the details, Quitter
received a notice from the Department of Defence to remove the post. Is Quitter liable to remove the
post?
(a) No, because Quitter is not a significant social media intermediary as it has less than 50 lakh
registered users
(b) No, because although Quitter has received a notice from the Department of Defence, it does not have
'actual knowledge' of the offence under the 2021 Rules
(c) Yes, because Quitter is a significant social media intermediary and is subject to Rule 3(1)(d) of the
2021 Rules
(d) Yes, because Quitter has received actual knowledge to remove the contact details which were
prohibited to be shared in the first place
96. In the previous question, assume that the Department of Defence did not send any notice to Quitter, and
it is not inclined to do so in the future either. X's post containing the personal contact details of the
National Security Advisor is still up on his profile. Is there any other provision which is prescribed under
the 2021 Rules, that can be invoked to remove the post?
(a) Yes, Rule 4(2) of the 2021 Rules can be invoked by the National Security Advisor
(b) Yes, Rule 3(2)(a) of the 2021 Rules can be invoked by the National Security Advisor
(c) Yes, Rule 3(2)(b) of the 2021 Rules can be invoked by the National Security Advisor
97. A and B were suspected to be a part of Lashkar-e-taiba, a notorious terrorist group. The police had
received special intel regarding a bomb blast. They were suspicious that A and B may be a part of the
conspiracy. Since A and B were free men, the police could not directly track their phones. In the hope of
finding something to quash the alleged terrorist conspiracy, the police ordered WhatsApp to decrypt all
the conversations, if any, between A and B. Are the police empowered to do so under the 2021 Rules?
(a) No, because WhatsApp uses end-to-end encryption technology which makes it impossible to share
private conversations
(b) No, because a private conversation between A and B cannot be deemed as “objectionable content”
(c) Yes, because decryption of the WhatsApp conversation between A and B is made possible by Rule
4(2)
(d) Yes, because A and B are terrorists and decryption of their conversation is essential for national
security
98. Disha Ravi was a student activist. She was extremely concerned about the procedural safeguards in
place to protect the people protesting against a contentious law. In an attempt to raise awareness and
provide strategies on how others could help the cause, she edited a freely available toolkit and circulated
it among her contacts and posted it on social media. Among other things, the toolkit encouraged people
in other countries to protest in front of the nearest Indian Embassy in their country and also provided links
to the websites of various stakeholders participating in the protest. Next day, the police arrested her for
sharing "objectionable content that threatened India’s international position and national security”. Now,
the Government seeks access to her conversations and has asked Whatsapp to provide that information
by any means necessary. Is Whatsapp liable to comply with this directive under the 2021 Rules?
(a) Yes, because intermediaries on whose platform the objectionable content has been shared are not
obligated to provide decrypted information
(b) Yes, because intermediaries on whose platform the objectionable content has been shared are
obligated to provide decrypted information
(c) No, because WhatsApp is not in possession of the decryption key in light of the technological
safeguards in place
(d) No, because no decryption is required as Disha posted the toolkit on her public social media account
99. Shyama and Sundar were good friends. However, the two of them got in a fight when Shyama refused to
help Sunder cheat in their college examinations. To get back at Shyama, Sunder posted some morphed
explicit pictures of Shyama on his Instagram page. Shyama immediately filed a complaint with Instagram
however, even after 36 hours, Instagram failed to take those pictures down. Is Instagram in violation of
the 2021 Rules?
(a) Yes, Instagram is in violation of Rule 3(1)(d) of the 2021 Rules as it failed to take the pictures down
even after 36 hours
(b) Yes, Instagram is in violation of Rule 3(2)(b) of the 2021 Rules as it failed to take the pictures down
even after 36 hours
(c) Yes, Instagram is in violation of Rule 3(2)(b) of the 2021 Rules as it failed to take the pictures down
even after 24 hours
(d) Yes, Instagram is in violation of Rule 3(1)(d) of the 2021 Rules as it failed to take the pictures down
even after 24 hours
Passage (Q.100-Q.104): The Supreme Court in the late 70s and early 80s developed a strong definitive
jurisprudence around the restricted use of handcuffs, which culminated into directives that require
agencies of law enforcement to ask the court’s permission before handcuffing a person.
In Sunil Batra vs Delhi Administration, the Supreme Court held that Article 21 forbids deprivation of
personal liberty except in accordance with the procedure established by law and curtailment of personal
liberty to such an extent as to be a negation of it would constitute deprivation. The court held that the
minimum freedom of movement which even an under-trial prisoner is entitled to under Article 19 of the
Constitution cannot be cut down cruelly by application of handcuffs or other hoops.
In Prem Shankar Shukla vs Delhi Administration, the court examined the rationale behind fetters and held
that prima facie handcuffing is inhuman and hence unreasonable as well as arbitrary in absence of fair
procedure and objective monitoring.
“To prevent the escape of an under-trial is in public interest, reasonable, just and cannot, by itself be
castigated. But to bind a man hand and foot, fetter his limbs with hoops of steel, shuffle him along in the
streets and stand him for hours in the courts is to torture him, defile his dignity, vulgarise society and foul
the soul of our constitutional culture.”
The court observed that when there is no compulsive need to fetter a person’s limbs it is sadistic,
capricious, despotic and demoralising to humble a man by manacling him. Thus, the court concluded that
handcuffs must be the last refuge and not a routine regimen.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘How and Why Iron Fetters and Handcuffs on Detainees Violate Human
Rights' by Sanchita Kadam, published 15 June 2021 on the Wire
https://thewire.in/rights/iron-fetters-handcuffs-detainees-violate-human-rights-supreme-court]
100. Khalid was detained by the police under the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA) in
Guwahati at a hospital. He had been admitted to the hospital as he was suffering from an acute gastric
disorder. There, Khalid had been handcuffed to his bed to prevent any possibility of escape as the
charges levelled against him were related to terrorism and hence, very serious in nature. This measure
was in addition to the room being bolted and several policemen were also guarding the room. Is the
handcuffing of Khalid legal in this situation?
(a) Yes, because Khalid had severe charges against him and handcuffing him to his bed was necessary
for public safety
(b) No, because other extreme security measures like police guards and bolting the room have already
been taken
(c) No, because the bare minimum right to freedom of movement that Khalid is entitled to is being
violated
(d) Both (b) and (c)
101. In the previous situation, Khalid continues to be chained to his hospital bed. One of his legs is cuffed
through iron fetters on the railing of the bed. However, his remaining limbs are free. Whenever he needs
to use the washroom, an armed guard unlocks his fetters and escorts him to the washroom. The
washroom has no window and hence, there is no possibility of escape. Is it legal to escort Khalid to the
washroom without any iron fetters?
(a) Yes, because handcuffs must be the last refuge and there is no need to use handcuffs while
escorting Khalid to the washroom
(b) Yes, because handcuffing Khalid to his bed is in violation of Articles 19 and 21
(c) No, because prima facie handcuffing is inhuman and unreasonable as well as arbitrary in absence of
fair procedure
(d) No, because preventing the escape of an under-trial is in public interest, reasonable, just and cannot,
by itself be castigated
102. Parminder and Joginder were detained in relation to their involvement with the Delhi riots of 2020. Prior to
being produced before the Court, the government sought permission to produce them in handcuffs. The
government justified this request by saying that the detainees were to enter a public place with a lot of
innocent civilians and were hardcore activists of a banned organisation and were accused of terrorist and
disruptive activities. Is this a sufficient ground for handcuffing them?
(a) Yes, because it is in accordance with the procedure established by law
(b) Yes, because there is a compulsive need to fetter Parminder and Joginder
(c) Yes, because preventing the escape of detainees is in public interest, reasonable, just and cannot, by
itself be castigated
103. Pikachu Dubey was a notorious criminal operating in Uttar Pradesh. After years of being hidden outside
police radar, the police received a tip that he was hidden in a temple in Madhya Pradesh. After reaching
the venue, a brief scuffle ensued between the police and Pikachu Dubey. He was finally captured and
stripped of all his weapons. He was arrested for his involvement in over a 100 murder, rape and drug
trafficking cases. Can the police handcuff him while transporting him to a jail in Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Yes, because he has been charged with grave offences such as murder, rape and drug trafficking
(b) Yes, because he is violent and there has already been a scuffle between Pikachu and the police
(c) No, because he has already been stripped of all his weapons and there is no compulsive need to
handcuff him
(d) No, because Pikachu Dubey is not a threat to society
104. A few days after the police arrested Pikachu Dubey, they received information about the whereabouts of
his equally notorious criminal brother Vikas Dubey. The police had arrested Vikas in several instances
but he always managed to escape before reaching the venue. They managed to arrest Vikas and cleared
the entire route to the police station to avoid any mishap. This time, they also handcuffed Vikas to
prevent escape in transit. Is this legal?
(a) Yes, because Vikas’s right to personal liberty and freedom of movement is not being violated
(b) Yes, because Vikas had a prior record of escaping and which creates a compulsive need to handcuff
him
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) No, because handcuffing must be a last resort and the police can adopt less stringent measures
SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
105. Among B, F, J, K and W, each one of them is of different heights, F is taller than only J. B is taller than F
and W (both) but not as tall as K. Who among them is the third tallest?
(a) (B) (b) (F) (c) (K) (d) (W)
106. Pointing to a man in a party, Shashi said, "He is the son of my husband's mother's only son". How is
Shashi related to the man?
(a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Grandmother (d) Aunt
107. A square field ABCD of side 90 meters is so located that its diagonal AC is from north to south and the
corner B is to the west of D. Rohan and Rahul start walking along the sides from B and C respectively in
the clockwise and anti-clockwise Directions with speeds of 8 kmph and 10 kmph. Where shall they cross
each other the second time?
(a) On AD at a distance of 30 meter from A. (b) On BC at a distance of 10 meter from B.
(c) On AD at a distance of 30 meter from D. (d) On BC at a distance of 10 meter from C.
108. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on
the following Monday. When was it correct?
(a) 2 p.m. on Tuesday (b) 2 p.m. on Wednesday
(c) 2 p.m. on Wednesday (d) 1 p.m. on Friday
Directions (Q.109 and Q.110): In each of the question below is given three or four statements followed
by three or four conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
109. Statements: Some Blue are Red.

Some Red are Black.
No Black are grey.
Conclusions
I. Some Blue are not Grey.
II. All Red being grey is a possibility.
III. All Grey can be Red.
(a) Only III (b) Only II
(c) All follows except I (d) None follows
110. Statements: ALL Book is copy.

No Copy is Pen.
Some Pen are Refill.
Conclusions
I. Some Book are not Refill.
II. At least some copy are pen.
III. All Refill being book is a possibility.
(a) Only III (b) Only I (c) Only II (d) None follows
Directions (Q.111): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below
Anil walks 15m from point A towards the east to reach point B. Then he takes right turn and walks for
20m to reach point C. Now he takes a left turn and walks for 15m to reach point D. Then he takes a left
turn and walks for 10m to reach point E. Then he takes a left turn and walks for 20m to reach point F.
Now he takes a right turn and walks for 5m to reach point G. Then he takes a left turn and walks for 10m
to reach point H.
111. If M is 5m to the north of G. then Point B is at what distance and in which direction with respect to point
M?
(a) 5m South (b) 10m West (c) 15m North (d) 5m, East
Passage (Q.112-Q.118): Intimate partner violence (IPV) is a serious public health problem that leads to
grave biological and psychological consequences for victims and families in diverse ways. This form of
violence in society is underreported by victims for various reasons that could range from not wanting to
be publicly shamed to not wanting to report someone they love. A troubling but consistent finding in the
existing research is that IPV tends to “run in the family.” Families are usually private, which makes it more
difficult for society to provide effective interventions for victims of IPV when the perpetrator is their
husband or their wife. To create beneficial interventions for these victims, the nature of the
intergenerational cycle of IPV must be understood.
The Social Learning Theory is usually used to explain “the cycle of intergenerational violence, suggesting
that children typically model the aggressive behaviors of same-gender role models.” The aggressive
behaviors could either be intimate partner violence committed by the parents, which the children witness,
or child abuse committed by the parent, which the children experience. In childhood conditions where a
parent is committing IPV, the individual is more likely to model that behavior, especially in their
disagreements with loved ones later in life.
The Social Learning Theory has received many criticisms about how it neglects to consider how genetic
factors could play a role in intergenerational IPV. This gap in the theory can be pointed out by the effect
of witnessing bidirectional IPV. Bidirectional IPV refers to the victim-offender overlap, which is the finding
that perpetrators of aggressive behavior are disproportionately likely to be also victims of aggressive
behavior for IPV. On the one hand, Social Learning Theory can argue that children who witness
bidirectional IPV will have increased risk for combined perpetration and victimization of IPV in the future.
On the other hand, the genetic similarity of family members could also contribute to the increased risk.
112. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

(a) IPV is an underrated and underreported crime
(b) Most families have one member as the perpetrator or victim of IPV
(c) The reasons for IPV are still unclear
(d) Genetics have a direct impact on causation of IPV
113. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Most women are only victims and not perpetrators of IPV
(b) IPV is directly caused by social factors and conditions of individuals
(c) The familial backdrop of the activity makes it difficult to approach and solve
(d) Both (A) & (B)
114. Which of the following, if true, would seriously undermine the author’s argument?
(a) Majority of people live in nuclear families today
(b) Boys are influenced by their mothers and girls by their fathers
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
115. The author’s statement that “children who witness bidirectional IPV will have increased risk for combined
perpetration and victimization of IPV in the future”-
(a) Forms premise of the above passage
(b) Forms conclusion of the above passage
(c) Forms assumption of the author to the above passage
116. The statement “Once family members are affected by IPV, they get stuck in a cycle” is:
(a) Probably True
(b) Definitely True
(c) Probably False
(d) Definitely False
117. Consider the following instances:

1. A boy who has seen his father beat his mother in his childhood is moved by the pains of the latter and
decides to never hit a woman ever in his life.
2. A girl sees her mother slapping her father repeatedly on the smallest of mistakes on the latter’s part.
The girl assumes this to be normal and carries out similar behaviour when she grows up.
3. A person has been beaten by his father and mother a lot in his childhood. When he grows up, he
does the same to his wife and daughter.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 2 is an example of SLT (Social Learning Theory) and 3 is an example of bidirectional IPV
(b) 1 and 2 are examples of SLT and 3 is an example of bidirectional IPV
(c) 1 is an example of SLT and 2 and 3 are examples of bidirectional IPV
(d) 2 and 3 both are examples of SLT and 1 is an example of bidirectional IPV
118. Which of the following can be said to be true?

(a) The SLT explains the aspect of IPV’s “run in the family” in a holistic manner.
(b) SLT and bidirectional IPV can explain the IPV in a combined way
(c) The genetic factor is explained well in the bidirectional IPV
Passage (Q.119-Q.123): Latin America has seen a dramatic increase in the number of incarcerated
women over the last twenty-five years. While women are still a minority in prisons, accounting for only
about six percent of Latin America's incarcerated population, the number of women behind bars is
growing disproportionately compared to men. Furthermore, the majority of these women are incarcerated
for drug-related crimes. Most of these women are incarcerated not for large-scale trafficking or violent
charges, but rather non-violent crimes related to micro-trafficking and small-scale possession of illicit
substances. While there are some exceptions, women often enter the drug trade as low-level mules, with
little upward mobility in terms of economic earning and decision-making power. This limited mobility
exacerbates social and economic marginalization, trapping women in a cycle of poverty and crime.
Regardless of a woman's reason for entering the drug-trade, she is often subject to dangerous and
victimizing roles. Transportation of drugs often involves women strapping drugs to their body or
swallowing plastic capsules filled with drugs. This can become lethal if the drug-filled capsules burst while
inside the body. Women may also be subject to rape, violence, drug addiction, and forced prostitution
while participating in drug-related activities within the organized-crime structure.
The compensation for doing this type of work is often extremely low for each trip. Frequently, the women
who work as mules are misled about the quantities they will be carrying or about the legal and criminal
repercussions they may face if they get caught. Due to harsh drug laws in Latin America, women who
work as low-level drug mules may be subject to maximum criminal sentences. However, there has been
a lack of research on female criminality, since most studies focus on male criminality, or simply do not
distinguish between genders. Although the emerging field of female criminology has begun to address
this issue, there is still much to be studied in relation to women and crime.
119. Which of the following assumptions have been made by the author?
(a) Women occupy leadership position in drug related transactions
(b) Latin America holds the biggest drug cartel
(c) The criminal justice system punishes women more severely than men
120. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above?
(a) Women are generally victims of deceit when it comes to being a drug mule
(b) The number of women increasing in the drug trade is exaggerated
(c) A holistic viewpoint is required to assess the feasibility of using women for such operations

(a) Women who enter the drug trade often get trapped in a never-ending cycle of exploitation
(b) Women who make it into the drug trade usually get faster promotions
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(a) Less number of men are getting arrested in Latin America
(b) More number of women are getting arrested in Latin America
(c) The police is making more number of arrests than before in Latin America
123. What evidence does the author gives to substantiate his claim that women’s involvement in drug
transactions in Latin America has increased?
1. Number of women behind bars has grown disproportionately compared to men in recent times
2. Majority of women in prisons have been incarcerated for drug-related crimes.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage (Q.124-Q.130): First, the distinction between a “public figure” and “private figure” is becoming
increasingly difficult to decipher, due to the Internet and social media platforms. In the age of “micro-
celebrity,” fame — along with its associated benefits and burdens — is distributed along a spectrum, not
according to a dichotomy”. The Internet has turned what many would previously deem “private figures”
into what could now be argued as public figures. Similarly, some argue that publishing information online
automatically waives a right to privacy. Commentators frequently argue that people who expose their
deep secrets online do not value their privacy. Courts find they have no expectation of privacy. The
unprecedented sharing of private information on the Internet is leading some to herald the demise of
privacy. However, this should not be the case. Rather, laws need to “catch up” to our technological
advancements to protect digital privacy, even among self-disclosure scenarios.
Second, the traditional remedy for harms resulting from the publication of private information is the tort of
public disclosure of embarrassing private facts, also known as “the disclosure tort”. The disclosure tort is
flawed, leaving it difficult to determine when expectations of privacy are reasonable, rendering it largely
toothless to privacy harms occurring via social media. This tort expects judges to make subjective
determinations regarding reasonable privacy expectations, and allows for a subjective interpretation of
private versus public information.
Personal privacy across the Internet may be subject to terms of use, which are likely to be different
across different platforms. In United States v. Hart, the government sought and obtained personal
information from an email the defendant allegedly used to commit a crime. As part of the email
registration process, the defendant consented to terms of service that required the user to acknowledge
that his personal information might be disclosed to comply with legal process. It is difficult to determine
whether or not the user knowingly complied, or failed to read the terms of the user agreement for this
particular email server.

(a) Posting information online implies giving up the right to privacy
(b) The courts need to introduce objective criteria to categorize information online
(c) People need to post less information online to stay protected
(d) Only some social media sites are protected under privacy laws
125. All of the following can be inferred except?

(a) The concept of micro-celebrity blurs the lines between private and pubic figures
(b) The present system has failed to address recent technological changes
(c) People who post information to a private group of people are safe under privacy laws
(d) The courts read signing terms and conditions as accepting them
126. Which of the following statements is in line with the author’s line of thoughts?
(a) The government should not be under the burden to protect people’s privacy
(b) The social media sites should have the burden to protect people’s privacy
(c) The virtual world has different privacy laws than the real world
(a) Social media sites cannot protect the information of so many users
(b) The government cannot protect privacy without the consumers consent
(c) International law has no treaty that governs privacy of individuals
(d) Micro-celebrities sign terms and conditions that deem their information as public
128. The author’s statement that “The disclosure tort is flawed, leaving it difficult to determine when
expectations of privacy are reasonable…” forms the:
(a) Premise that the present legal system has loopholes which need correction
(b) Conclusion that present legal system has loopholes which need correction
(c) Premise that the meaning of privacy has changed in its essence
(d) Conclusion that the meaning of privacy has changed in its essence
129. In the above passage, the author uses __________ to strengthen his argument of diminishing difference
between public and private information in the online world.
(a) Metaphor
(b) Analogy
(c) Sarcasm
(d) Example
130. Which of the following is the author mentioning in the word “dichotomy” (Para 1, sentence 2)?
(a) Privacy being bifurcated into private and public fields
(b) Stardom being bifurcated into private and public fields
(c) Fame being bifurcated into micro and macro levels
(d) All of the above
Passage (Q.131-Q.135): According to the 2013 United States Census Bureau data, full-time female
workers earned seventy-eight cents for every dollar earned by male workers. This notoriously cited
statistic can negatively spur the highly politicized issue of gender wage inequality, if misinterpreted. The
number represents the median earnings of full-time, year-round workers aged fifteen years and older.
However, when the median weekly wages of men and women are examined, women earn eighty-two
cents to every dollar men earn. The gap is further reduced to thirteen cents when analyzing hourly wages
of men and women, but this excludes salaried workers, and is thus often not used.
Regardless of the method of measurement, the gender wage gap has endured, notwithstanding
legislation that has sought to prohibit employers from utilizing such discriminatory practices. Employment
experience and firm seniority are influential types of human capital that explain a fraction of the gender
wage gap. Researchers state that gender differences in years of experience explained about a quarter of
the gap in pay. Other scholars have argued gender differences in job experience can explain up to forty-
four percent of the gender gap in earnings among whites, with a part of earnings explained by racial
segregation. Research suggests that a comparison of men and women with similar characteristics results
in a reduction of the raw gap.
Irrespective of the influence of such factors, a large portion of the gender pay gap remains unexplained.
Thus, given the level of contribution of women in the workforce and the large unexplained portion of the
gender pay gap, it remains pivotal to examine the roots and potential remedies of the pay gap. Of all the
issues that have arisen in the area of sex discrimination in employment, the compensation differential
between men and women is the most controversial.
131. Which of the following statements is in line with the author’s line of thoughts?
(a) There are plethora of factors influencing the wage gap between men and women
(b) Men make more contributions to work than women
(c) The division of wage gap is now clear and needs targeted legislations
(d) Racial discrimination is not a reason behind the wage gap

(a) Women need to be paid higher than men to make up for the prolonged discrimination
(b) The law allows for women to be paid less than men
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(a) Women cannot work as long as men as they are burdened with housework
(b) Pregnancy among women forces them to retire from work early
(c) Most top positions in offices are occupied by women
134. The statement “targeted legislations have been able to close the wage gap” is:
(a) Probably True
(b) Definitely True
(c) Probably False
(d) Definitely False
135. What could be an apt heading for the passage?

(a) The real gender gap is quite narrow
(b) Addressing the Gender Wage Gap
(c) Why women should work more than men
(d) The fight for gender equality
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.136-Q.140): Study the following Radar graph carefully and answer the questions given
below. Number of students studying in different universities in a year (Numbers in Lac).
136. What is the average number of females in all the universities together?
(a) 3300000 (b) 350000 (c) 320000 (d) 3200000
137. What is the total number of students (males and females together) in University P and R together?
(a) 1300000 (b) 1350000 (c) 1400000 (d) 13500000
138. What is the respective ratio of the number of females from University P and Q together to the number of
males in the Universities R and T together?
(a) 27 : 32 (b) 27 : 28 (c) 25 : 28 (d) 28 : 27
139. The number of males in University Q are what per cent of the total number of students (males and
females together) in University S?
(a) 68 (b) 62 (c) 66 (d) 64
140. If the total number of males in University T increases by 50%, what would be the total number of students
(males and females together) in that university?
(a) 7526000 (b) 76250000 (c) 7625000 (d) 75260000
USE FOR ROUGH WORK
Directions (Q.141-Q.145): Line graph given below shows the upstream speed of five boats A, B, C, D
and E and table shows the time taken (in minutes) by those boats to cover a certain distance in
downstream.
Boats Time taken (in minutes) in

Downstream journey to cover a
certain distance
A 96
B 60
C 54
D 36
E 48
141. If boat A covers 40 km distance in downstream in the given time, then what is the total time taken by boat
A to cover the same distance if it is flowing with the speed of stream only?
(a) 4 hours (b) 5 hours (c) 6 hours (d) 8 hours
142. What is the time taken by boat C to travel in upstream if it travels the same distance in upstream as it
travels in downstream for the time mentioned in the table?(speed of the stream = 2.5 km/h)
(a) 64 minutes (b) 81 minutes (c) 49 minutes (d) 100 minutes
143. Boat E can travel 20 km in downstream for time mentioned in table. If boat D and E start at the same
point with the stream, then what is the total distance covered by boat D when boat E covers 20 km?
(a) 24 km (b) 28 km (c) 32 km (d) 36 km
144. What is the speed of stream, if time taken by boat B to cover the same distance in upstream (that it
covers in downstream in the time mentioned in table) in 84 minutes?
(a) 4 km/h (b) 3 km/h (c) 5 km/h (d) 6 km/h
145. If boats C and E start towards each other from points P and Q respectively which are 40 km apart, then
find the time after which both the boats met with each other.
(a) 1 hours (b) 2 hours (c) 0.8 hours (d) Can't be determined
Directions (Q.146 – Q.150): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The given bar graph shows the cost price of five different articles. If the cost price is less than Rs.
1500, then it is marked up by 20% and if the cost price is more than Rs. 1500 then it is marked up by
25%. If the marked price of the item is less than Rs. 3500, then the discount offered is 15% and if the
marked price is more than Rs. 3500 then the discount offered is 20%. The sum of the cost price of all
the articles is Rs. 12100.
Cost Price of the article

180x
128x
96x
46x
32x
A B C D E
Cost Price of the article
146. If the cost price of the article ‘D’ had been 80% less then find the difference between the original
selling price and the new selling price of the article.
(a) Rs. 2432.8 (b) Rs. 2642.4 (c) Rs. 2839.6 (d) Rs. 2547.2
147. If the selling price of the article ‘B’ had been Rs. 680 more and the discount percentage remained
the same, then find the amount by which article ‘B’ is marked up provided the article is sold at 75%
profit.
(a) Rs. 1324 (b) Rs. 1260 (c) Rs. 1152 (d) Rs. 1458
148. If the article ‘A’ has been marked up by 30% and same discount amount was offered on it as before,
then find the difference between the new selling price and the original selling price.
(a) Rs. 135 (b) Rs. 120 (c) Rs. 180 (d) Rs. 175
(e) Rs. 200
149. Due to some breakage, the shopkeeper had to spent Rs. 250 on article ‘C’ and then marked it up
above its effective cost price and provided discount, by same percentages. The new selling price is
how much percent more/less than the original selling price.
(a) 31.25% (b) 42.75% (c) 28.45% (d) 30.15%
150. If the article ‘E’ had been sold at a loss of 20%, then find the discount percentage offered on it, given
the article is marked up above its cost price by the same percentage.
(a) 52% (b) 24% (c) 42% (d) 36%
USE FOR ROUGH WORK
Notes:
Notes:-

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

Candidate Name : _________________

6. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

10. What is the opposite of ‘opportune’ as it is used in the passage?

11. The main tone of the passage is:

18. Which of the following is untrue according to the passage?

21. The main theme of the passage revolves around:

22. The author believes that:

23. The writing style of the author is:

24. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

46. Consider following statements on India and G7?

48. Group of Seven (G7) is an intergovernmental organisation that was formed in

51. Who is the current President of Afghanistan?

109. Statements: Some Blue are Red.

110. Statements: ALL Book is copy.

112. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

113. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

117. Consider the following instances:

118. Which of the following can be said to be true?

121. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

122. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

124. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

125. All of the following can be inferred except?

132. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

135. What could be an apt heading for the passage?

USE FOR ROUGH WORK

Boats Time taken (in minutes) in

Cost Price of the article

Cost Price of the article

USE FOR ROUGH WORK

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