Copy1 TOPANAT EXAM MCQ Nee Revised

The Head
Specify the Sequence
1. The layers of the fronto-parieto-occipital region are the:
1. Skin
2.Subcutaneous fat
4.Epicranial aponeurosis (Galea aponeurotica)
5.Subaponeurotic fat
3.Periosteum
6.Subperiosteal fat tissue
Choose one or more correct answer(s)
2. The structure of subcutaneous fatty tissue in the fronto-parieto-occipital region is:
2. Cellular
3. Patient with extensive scalped wound in the parietal region, due to detachment of soft tissues, was
delivered to the hospital. What layer has the detachment occurred in?
2. Subaponeurotic fatty tissue
4. A hematoma of calvaria soft tissue covers a region corresponding to the left parietal bone. What layer is
it located in?
3. Loose subperiosteal fatty tissue
5. What layer is a hematoma of soft tissue of fronto-parieto-occipital region extending over the entire
surface of the calvaria located in?
6. It is known that soft tissue injuries of the head and face are characterized by rapid healing and rare
suppurations compared to other areas of the body. What is the reason of this fact?
2. Good blood supply of the tissues
7. During the primary surgical treatment of the head injury the incision is highly recommended to be made:
3. Radially
8. Injuries of the cranial soft tissue arc accompanied by strong and prolonged bleeding across the wound
line, which appears due to two features:
3. The formation of a network of blood vessels in the subcutaneous fat tissue
4. Fusion of blood vessels wall with connective tissue septa in subcutaneous fat
9. How can the presence of strongly bleeding wounds of soft tissues in the fronto-parieto-occipital region
be explained?
3. Fusion of vascular adventitia with connective tissue septa
10. The main sources of arterial blood supply of fronto-parieto-occipital region are four arteries from the
listed below:
2. Occipital artery
4. Supratrochlear artery
5. Supraorbital artery
6. Superficial temporal artery
11. The blood vessels of fronto-parietal-occipital region are mostly located in:
5. Subcutaneous fatty tissue
12. What direction should the base of the skin-aponeurotic flap while performing osteoplastic trepanation
in the frontal region be turned to (to maintain its blood supply and innervation)?
2. Downwards
13. What direction should the base of the skin-aponeurotic flap while performing osteoplastic trepanation
in the parieto-temporal region be turned to (to maintain its blood supply and innervation)?
2. Downwards
14. What direction should the base of the skin-aponeurotic
flap while performing osteoplastic trepanation in the
occipital region be turned to (to maintain its blood supply
and innervation)?
2. Downwards
15. There are two methods to stop the bleeding from the wounds of the soft tissues of the head:
2. Ligation
5. Electrocoagulation
16. There are two methods to arrest the bleeding from the diploic veins:
1. Rubbing of sterile wax
3. The wound irrigation by hydrogen peroxide
17. To stop the bleeding from the venous sinuses of the dura mater three methods of the given are used:
3. Suturing
4. Ligation
5. Tamponade
18. To stop the bleeding from damaged Dural sinus it is possible to use:
5. All variants are correct
19. Abscess, situated in the subcutaneous tissue of the scalp, can spread onto the dura mater through:
1. Emissary veins
20. The doctor has detected the following symptoms: exophthalmos, raccoon eyes and nasal liquorrhea.
Make the primary diagnosis:
2. Fracture of skull base at the anterior cranial fossa
21. Middle meningeal artery is a branch of:
1. Maxillary artery
22. The middle meningeal artery penetrates into the cranial cavity through:
3. Foramen spinosum
23. The middle meningeal artery and its branches in the temporal region are located between:
3. Squamous part of the temporal bone and the dura mater
24. A patient with blunt trauma of the temporal region was taken to traumatology department. In 2 hours
the symptoms of cerebral compression have appeared and started to increase. During the operation the
comminuted fracture of the squamous part of the temporal bone and large epidural hematoma were found.
Determine its origin:
4. Middle meningeal artery

25. Four of listed nerves pass through the superior orbital fissure. They are:
1. Trochlear nerve
3. Ophthalmic nerve
4. Oculomotor nerve
7. Abducens nerve
26. The optic nerve passes through:
2. Optic canal
27. The facial nerve leaves the skull base through:
5. Stylomastoid foramen
28. Following nerves and blood vessels are located in the
optic canal:
3. Optic nerve
5. Ophthalmic artery
29. Superior ophthalmic vein passes through:
1. Superior orbital fissure
30. Superior ophthalmic vein flows into:
5. Cavernous sinus
31. Determine the sequence of venous outflow from the superolateral surface of the cerebral hemispheres:
1. Superficial cerebral veins
2. Superior sagittal sinus
3. Confluence of sinuses
4. Transverse sinus
5. Sigmoid sinus
6. Internal jugular vein
32. Three of the listed sinuses drain into confluence of sinuses:

1. Superior sagittal sinus
2. Occipital sinus
5. Straight (tentorial) sinus
33. There are two sinuses originating from the confluence of sinuses:
3. Left transverse sinus
4. Right transverse sinus
34. The vertebral artery enters the cranial cavity through:
1. Foramen magnum
35. Which of the emissary veins are permanent?
I. Parietal
3. Mastoid
36. Emissary veins provide the venous connection between:
3. Superficial veins and sinuses of the dura mater
37. In what fat layer of the temporal region is the temporal process of the buccal (Bichat's) fat pad located?
38. Epidural hematoma is located:
2. Between dura mater and bone
Match the Pairs
39. Location of intracranial hematomas:
1. Epidural hematoma is located- C. Between bone and dura mater
2. Subdural hematoma is located- A. Between dura mater and arachnoid mater
3. Subarachnoid hematoma is located - B. Between arachnoid mater and pia mater
Choose One or More Correct Answer(s)
40. In what case can one make the diagnosis of "penetrating wound of skull"?
3. Damaged dura mater
41. We name "penetrating head injuries" the wounds which are:
3. Associated with damage to the dura mater
42. Can only the inner bone plate be damaged by blunt trauma of the head (without the injury of the
external plate)?
1. Yes
43. What tissues arc used to cover the trepanation hole after osteoplastic trepanation?
1. Soft tissue flap
2. Воne flар
44. The frequently observed "scalped wounds" of the head are explained by:
1. Skin connection with epicranial aponeurosis by
fibrous septa
3. Presence of loose subaponeurotic fatty tissue
45. Mastoid antrum is projected at:
4. Superior medial quadrant
Match the Pairs
46. At the four quadrants of mastoid process the following structures are projected:
1. The anterior superior quadrant- A. Mastoid antrum
2. The anterior inferior quadrant- B. Bone canal of the facial nerve
3. The posterior superior quadrant- C. Posterior cranial fossa
4. The posterior inferior quadrant- D. Sigmoid sinus
47. The damage of the facial nerve is possible during mastoidotomy, if the following border of the
Chipault's triangle is not observed:
2. Anterior
48. The damage of the sigmoid sinus is possible during mastoidotomy. if the following border of the
Chipault's triangle is not observed:
3. Posterior
49. The inflammatory processes of superficial and deep facial regions can spread into the cavernous sinus
through:
1. Superior orbital vein
3. Emissary vein from pterygoid venous plexus
4. Inferior orbital vein
50. During examination of the patient, neurologist presses his finger onto certain regions of the patient's
face (corresponding to the supraorbital notch, infraorbital and mental foramens). What nerve function is
examined by this procedure?
4. Trigeminal nerve
51. Furuncle of the face, especially the one of the upper lip and the nasolabial fold , can be complicated
with thrombophlebitis of the cavernous sinus. Determine the sequence of the vessels, by which the
infection can spread:
2. Facial vein
6. Angular vein
4. Intervenous anastomoses
3. Medial vein of the eyelid
1. Superior ophthalmic vein
5. Cavernous sinus
52. Pterygoid venous plexus is located:
1. In the temporo-pterygoid fat space
53. After hypothermia the muscular paralysis of a half of the face has developed. This indicates the
inflammation of:
2. Facial nerve
54. The buccal fatty ball has three extensions:
1. Temporal
3. Pterygoid
5. Orbital
55. The weak places of parotid gland's capsule are located:
1. Along the parotid duct
3. Near the external acoustic meatus
6. At the pharyngeal process of the gland
56. Facial nerve divides into following branches:
1. Temporal
2. Zygomatic
3. Buccal
5. Marginal branch of mandible
6. Cervical
57. What arteries or veins pass inside the parotid gland behind the ramus of mandible?
2. External carotid artery
58. Very important topographical feature of the parotid gland is the location of one listed nerves in the
gland:
2. Facial nerve
59. The doctor has found a loose closure of the palpebral fissure and depression of the oral angle in a child
with mumps. These symptoms indicate the inflammatory process of:
2. Facial nerve
60. What does the temporo-pterygoid space (of the deep region of the face) contain?
2. Maxillary artery
3. Pterygoid venous plexus
61. Origin of the middle meningeal artery is:
2. Maxillary artery
62. Parotid duct opens into the oral cavity at:
3. Between the first and second upper molars

63. What nerve passes through the parotid salivary gland?
3. Frontal nerve
64. The sensory branches of which nerve are projected on the vertical line drawn through the point on the
border between the medial and middle third parts of the supraorbital margin?
2. Trigeminal nerve
65. What structures can be damaged during opening of a purulent parotitis?
1. External carotid artery
3. Branches of the facial nerve
4. Parotid duct
66. What are the possible ways of spreading of the infected exudate from the parotideo-masseteric region?
1. Temporomandibular space
2. Interpterygoid space
3. Parapharyngeal space
5. External acoustic meatus
67. Deep facial region contains the following structures:
I. Fatty tissue
2. Pterygoid venous plexus
3. Maxillary artery
4. Mandibular nerve
68. The motor branches of the facial nerve come to the muscles of facial expression:
2. From the inner surface of the muscles
69. Capsule of the parotid gland has the following
relationship with the gland:
3. Connective septa from the capsule come into the gland
70. In a case of purulent parotitis the incisions are performed in two directions:
2. Radially from the tragus of the ear

5. Along the arcuate direction from the tragus of the car, going around the angle of the mandible
71. Point of the digital occlusion of the facial artery is located:
4. On the middle of the body of the mandible at the anterior margin of the masseter muscle
72. Pterygoid venous plexus forms the anastomosis with cavernous sinus of dura mater by:
1. Emissary vein (foramen lacerum)
2. Anastomosis with the inferior ophthalmic vein
73. What arteries originate from the maxillary artery?
1. Inferior alveolar artery
2. Middle meningeal artery
3. Deep temporal artery
4. Inferior ophthalmic artery
74. The fissure directly massetero-mandibular communicates superiorly with:
2. Fatty tissue of subaponeurotic space of the temporal region
The Neck
75. The external landmarks of the anterior cervical region are:
1. Edge of the mandible
2. Thyroid cartilage
3. Cricoid cartilage
4. Jugular notch of the sternum
6. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
76. Three of the listed triangles arc located in the anterior cervical region:
2. Omotracheal triangle
4. Submandibular triangle
5. Carotid triangle
77. Two of the listed triangles arc located in the lateral cervical region:
1. Omoclavicular triangle
3. Omotrapezoid triangle
78. Sternocleidomastoid region is located between:
3. Anterior and lateral cervical regions
Match the Pairs
79. The borders of the submandibular triangle are:
1. Superior- C. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle
2. Anterior- A. Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
3. Posterior-inferior- B. Margin of the mandible
80. The borders of Pirogov's (lingual) triangle (in the submandibular triangle) are:
1. Anterior- C. Mylohyoid muscle
2. Posterior- A. Tendon of posterior belly of the digastric muscle
3. Superior- B. Hypoglossal nerve
81. The floor of the Pirogov's (lingual) triangle in the submandibular triangle is formed by:
3. M. hyoglossus
82. Pirogov's (lingual) triangle is used to expose:
2. A. lingualis
Match the Pairs
83. The borders of the carotid triangle are:
1. Superior- B. Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
2. Inferior- C. Superior belly of the omohyoid muscle
3. Posterior- A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
84. The borders of the omotracheal triangle are:

1. Medial- C. Median line of the neck
2. Superolateral- B. Superior belly of the omohyoid muscle
3. Inferolateral- A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
85. How many fascias according to the classification of V. N. Shevkunenko are distinguished on the neck?
4. Five fascias
86. Define the sequence of fascias (by V. N. Shevkunenko) in the omotracheal triangle:
3. Superficial fascia
5. Superficial layer of the proper fascia
2. Deep layer of the proper fascia
I. Endocervical fascia
4. Prevertebral fascia
87. Two of the listed fascias arc situated in the submandibular triangle:
88. Four of the listed fascias are situated in the carotid triangle:
4. Endocervical fascia
89. Three of the listed fascias are situated in the omotrapezoid triangle:
90. Four of the listed fascias are situated in the omoclavicular triangle:
3. Deep layer of the proper fascia
91. What fascia forms the capsule of the submandibular salivary gland?
92. During removal of the submandibular salivary gland severe bleeding may occur due to the injury of
adjacent artery:
2. Facial artery
93. Previsceral fat space is situated between:
3. Parietal and visceral layers of endocervical fascia
94. Retrovisceral fat space is situated between:
2. Endocervical fascia and prevertebral fascia
95. Parapharyngeal space is divided into anterior and posterior departments by the following muscles:
2. Stylopharyngeus muscle
3. Styloglossus muscle
4. Stylohyoid muscle
96. A patient was admitted To the hospital with retropharyngeal abscess, which was complicated with
purulent mediastinitis. Identify the anatomical pathway of spreading of the purulent infection into the
mediastinum:
4. Retrovisceral space
97. Pretracheal space is situated between:
3. Parietal and visceral layers of the endocervical fascia
98. Two of the listed structures are located in the pretracheal space:
3. Unpaired thyroid venous plexus
4. Inferior thyroid artery

99. Two of the listed anatomical formations are located on the lateral sides of the larynx:
3. Lobes of the thyroid gland
4. Parathyroid glands
100. Three of the listed anatomical formations are located in front of the larynx:
2. Sternohyoid muscle
3. Sternothyroid muscle
6. Thyrohyoid muscle
101. What is the reciprocal position of the common carotid artery and internal jugular vein?
1. The artery is located medially. the vein - laterally
102. The vagus nerve is located in the fascial sheath together with common carotid artery and internal
jugular vein. What is the position of the nerve in relation to the blood vessels?
4. Behind and between the artery and vein
103. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve originates from the vagus nerve:
2. At the level of subclavian artery
104. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve originates from the vagus nerve:
3. At the lower margin of the aortic arch
105. Two of the listed paired muscles are located in front of the trachea:
2. Sternohyoid muscle
3. Sternothyroid muscle
106. On the neck esophagus is adjacent to the posterior wall of trachea:
2. A little to the left
107. The upper pole of the thyroid gland is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve, which arises from:
3. N. vagus
108. The parathyroid glands arc located:
2. Between the fascial and the fibrous capsules of the thyroid gland
109. During thyroidectomy performed under the local anesthesia the hoarseness appeared after clamping
the blood vessels of the thyroid gland. What is the reason of this complication?
3. Compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
110. What part of the thyroid gland contains the parathyroid glands and should be retained during subtotal
resection of the thyroid gland?
2. Posterior internal side of the lobes
111. The patient has severe bleeding from the deep parts of the neck. To perform the ligation of the
external carotid artery the surgeon has exposed the bifurcation point of the common carotid artery in the
carotid triangle. What is the main sign, which allows us to distinguish the external carotid artery from the
internal one?
3. The external carotid artery gives branches
112. Cervical and brachial plexuses arc formed under:
3. 5th fascia of the neck
113. Antescalene space is located between:
1. Sternocleidomastoid and anterior scalene muscles
114. What structures pass through the antescalene space?
2. Subclavian vein
5. Phrenic nerve
6. Thoracic duct
115. What structure separates subclavian vein and subclavian artery in the lateral triangle of the neck?
1. Anterior scalene muscle
116. What is located just behind the clavicle?
2. Subclavian vein
117. Interscalene space is located between:
1. Anterior and middle scalene muscles
118. What is inferior border of interscalene space?

3. First rib
119. What statement is correct concerning the phrenic nerve?
4. It is located on the anterior scalene muscle under the prevertebral fascia
120. What structures pass through the interscalene space?
2. Subclavian artery and the brachial plexus
121. Where is situated the brachial plexus in the omoclavicular triangle?
3. Under the prevertebral fascia
122. What branches originate from the external carotid artery in the carotid triangle?
1. A. lingualis
3. A. facialis
4. A. thyroidea superior
123. Indicate the matches between the divisions of the subclavian artery and their branches:
1. Before the interscalene space (I" division)- A. Internal thoracic artery, B. Vertebral artery, E.
Thyrocervical trunk
2. In the interscalene space (2d division)- D. Costocervical trunk
3. After the interscalene space (3d division)- C. Transverse cervical artery
124. What landmarks used to perform the are vagosympathetic blockade?
2. Posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid
muscle
4. External jugular vein
125. Where is the point of needle insertion for vagosympathetic blockade located?
2. At the intersection point of posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle with the external
jugular vein (or its projection)
126. Indicate three correct statements which characterize the operative approach to the cervical part of
esophagus:
1. It is performed in the lower left part of the neck
3. The incision is carried out along the medial margin of sternocleidomastoid muscle
5. The esophageal exposure is carried out through the fascial sheath of sternocleidomastoid muscle
127. The source of the superficial cervical nerves formation is:
1. Cervical plexus
128. Where is the exit point of the sensitive branches of the cervical plexus projected?
3. At the middle third part of the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
129. Two of listed signs are proper to external carotid artery:
1. Presence of branches
3. Medial location
130. What fascial compartment are the submandibular lymph nodes located in?
2. In the fascial compartment of submandibular gland
131. The bifurcation of the common carotid artery is usually located at the level of:
2. The upper margin of the thyroid cartilage
3. The hyoid bone
132. What incision is used to cut lig. Crycothyroideum during conicotomy (cricothyrotomy)?
2. Transverse incision conicotomy
133. What Structure is cut during (cricothyrotomy)?
2. Cricothyroid ligament
134. What is the position of the patient during performing tracheotomy?
1. On the back: the head is thrown back, with a roll under the shoulders
135. What artery can be damaged during inferior tracheotomy after penetrating to the pretracheal space?
4. Thyroid ima artery
136. Where is the reflexogenic zone of the neck which regulates the level of oxygen in the blood located?
2. In the carotid triangle
The Thorax
137. The capsule of the mammary gland is formed by:

138. Which group of axillary lymph nodes accepts the metastasises in a case of breast cancer first of all?
3. Pectoral axillary lymph nodes
139. What is the main pathway of lymphatic drainage from the mammary gland?
2. To the axillary lymph nodes
140. Metastasises of breast cancer can spread to different groups of regional lymph nodes depending on
specific conditions, including the location of the tumor. Which group of lymph nodes can metastasises of
breast cancer spread to, if the tumor is located in the upper section of the breast?
2. Subclavian lymph nodes
141. During examination of the patient with cancer of the let mammary gland the metastasises to the left
axillary lymph nodes and small metastasis in the medial department of the right gland we pathway of
spreading of the metastasises?
3. Through the lymphatic anastomoses between the left and right glands found
142. During examination of the patient with cancer of the right mammary gland the metastasises in
supraclavicular lymph nodes of the neck were found. What is most probable pathway of spreading of the
metastasises?
3. Directly to the supraclavicular lymph nodes, or via intermediate group of lymph nodes
143. The lymph node of Sorgius is located:
4. At the 3 rib under the inferior margin of the pectoralis major muscle
144. What kinds of incisions arc used for surgical operation on the purulent mastitis?
1. Radial incision
4. Semicircular incision
145. Retromammary fat space is located between
4. Pectoral fascia
146. Along what muscle should the approach for drainage of subpectoral phlegmon be made?
4. Pectoralis major muscle

147. Intercostal neurovascular bundle is located:
2. Between the intercostal muscles
148. What is the position of blood vessels and nerves in the intercostal neurovascular bundle from up to
down?
2. The vein, the artery, the nerve
149. Intercostal neurovascular bundle is not protected by the rib at:
1. The anterior wall of the chest
150. Intercostal neurovascular bundle is not covered by the lower margin of the overlying rib anterior to
the:
3. Middle axillary line
151. What principle is used for primary surgical treatment of penetrating wounds of the chest?
3. Suturing of all layers of the wound
152. The surgeon has made incision of the intercostal muscles too close to the inferior margin of the
overlying rib during performing anterolateral thoracotomy. What clement of the intercostal neurovascular
bundle can be damaged?
3. The nerve
153. Why does the injury of intercostal artery lead to severe bleeding from both ends?
1. The intercostal arteries are closely connected to the periosteum of the ribs and to the fascial
compartment of intercostal muscles
5. Because the intercostal arteries represent a single arterial ring
154. The patient has the injury of the pleural cupula after comminuted clavicle fracture. At what level is the
pleural cupula projected on the anterior side?
2. 2-3 cm above the clavicle
155. What sinuses are located in the pleural cavity?
5. All of the listed
156. Puncture of what sinus is performed in a case of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity?
1. Costodiaphragmatic sinus
157. What is the purpose of vagosympathetic blockade in a case of chest injuries?

3. To prevent pleuro-pulmonary shock
158. What kind of pneumothorax leads to the most serious disorders?
3. Pressure (tense) pneumothorax
159. What structures should be stitched by the first row of sutures in a case of open pneumothorax?
3. Parietal pleura, endothoracic fascia and intercostal muscles
160. What layers should be involved into the first row of sutures for closure of the wound during
pneumothorax?
5. Parietal pleura, endothoracic fascia and intercostal muscles
161. Where should the pleural puncture be performed if the air is present in the pleural cavity?
2. In the 2nd intercostal space
3. In the 3rd intercostal space
162. What pleural sinus accumulates the pleural exudate first of all?
163. What sinus is punctured during a diagnostic pleural puncture?
164. While performing the pleural puncture, the needle should be introduced through the intercostal space:
3. At the superior margin of the underlying rib
165. Pneumothorax as a complication of pleural puncture may occur...
3. Through the puncture needle
166. Intraperitoneal bleeding as a complication of pleural puncture may occur as a result of damage of:
2. Liver
167. What is the projection of the hilum of lung onto the anterior thoracic wall?
2. Il-IV ribs
168. Describe the sequence of the elements of the Ieft lung's root from up to down.
I. Artery, bronchus, veins
169. Describe the sequence of the elements of the right lung's root from up to down.
2. Bronchus, arteries, veins
170. What structure passes just above the root of the right lung?
4. Azygos vein
171. The child has accidentally swallowed a cherrystone. It has obturated one of the lobar bronchi, and
then the atelectasis of lung's lobe has developed. What is the most probable position of the cherrystone?
4. Inferior lobar bronchus of the right lung
172. Two formations from the listed arc adjacent through the mediastinal pleura to the medial surface of
the right lung (behind the root of the lung):
2. Thoracic part of esophagus
4. Azygos vein
173. What formation is adjacent through the mediastinal pleura to the medial surface of the left lung
behind the lung's root?
1. Thoracic aorta
174. What kind of thoracotomy is used for approach to the main bronchus?
3. Posterolateral thoracotomy
175. What structure passes just above the root of the right
lung?
5. Azygos vein
176. Bronchial arteries numbering 2-4 to each lung are the
branches of:
2. Thoracic aorta
177. Venous blood from the lung tissue flows mainly into
the bronchial veins which join to:
3. Azygos and hemiazygos veins
178. How many segments are present in the right lung?
3. 10
179. How many segments are present in the left lung?
3. 10
180. The internal thoracic artery originates from:
2. Subclavian artery
181. The internal thoracic artery is situated:
3. Between the internal intercostal muscles and transverse muscle of thorax
182. Position of patient for a pleural puncture in a case of
diffuse process:
3. Sitting with the bent trunk
4. Semi-sitting position
183. Determine the sequence of arrangement for anatomical
structures in the superior mediastinum from front to back:
3. Thymus
4. Brachiocephalic veins
1. Aortic arch
2. Trachea
184. What is the level of bifurcation of the trachea?
2. Th4-Th5
185. What is the position of the heart in humans with
dolichomorphic thorax?
I. Vertical
Match the Pairs
186. What are the nomenclatural names of the heart wall
layers?
I. The inner layer of the heart wall C. Endocardium

2. The middle layer of the heart wall A. Муосаrdium
3. The outer layer of the heart wall D. Epicardium
4. The coat which surrounds the heart B. Pericardium
187. Indicate the correct pairs of names for surfaces of the
heart:
1. Bilateral C. Pulmonary
2. Posterior D. Vertebral
3. Inferior B. Diaphragmatic
4. Anterior A. Sternocostal
188. What heart chamber forms the anterior surface of the
heart?
4. Right ventricle
189. What heart chamber forms the inferior surface of the
heart?
2. Left ventricle
190. Two of the listed formations arc adjacent to the
posterior surface of the heart:
1. Thoracic aorta
4. Esophagus
191. The right border of the heart in adults is projected into
the I1-IV intercostal space:
2. 1-1.5 cm laterally from the right margin of the
sternum
192. The apex of the heart is projected in the adult person:

4. In the 5th intercostal space medially from
midclavicular line
193. It was found, that the right border of patient's heart is
located in the 3rd and 4th intercostal spaces 1 cm laterally
from the parasternal line. This indicates:
4. Enlargement of the right atrium
194. Percussion has revealed the following left border of
the relative cardiac dullness: at 2nd intercostal space - 2 cm
laterally from the left margin of the sternum, in the 3rd
intercostal space - 1 cm laterally from the parasternal line,
at the 5th intercostal space - 1 cm medially from
midclavicular line. This indicates:
4. Enlargement of left atrium
195. Anatomical projection of the tricuspid valve is located
behind the right half of the sternum at the line connecting
the attachment points of:
2. 5th right and 1" left costal cartilages
196. Anatomical projection of the mitral valve is located
behind the left half of the sternum at the level of:
2. 3d intercostal space
197. The aortic valve is projected:
2. Behind of the left half of the sternum at the level
of the third intercostal space
198. The valve of the pulmonary trunk is projected:
3. Behind the left margin of the sternum at the level

of attachment of the third costal cartilages
199. The best auscultation point of the mitral valve of the
heart is located:
4. Left and below the anatomical projection in the 5th
intercostal space on the apex of the heart
200. The best auscultation point of the tricuspid valve is
located:
4. Below the anatomical projection on the xiphoid
process
201. The best auscultation point for the valve of the
pulmonary trunk is located:
3. In the 2nd intercostal space near the left margin of
the sternum
202. The best auscultation point for the aortic valve is
located:
2. In the 2d intercostal space near the right margin
of the sternum
203. The anterior interventricular artery originates from:
2. Left coronary artery of the heart
204. The posterior interventricular artery originates from:
3. Right coronary artery of the heart
205. The circumflex artery originates from:
2. Left coronary artery of the heart
206. The great cardiac vein is situated:
2. In the anterior interventricular and left department

of coronary sulcus
207. The coronary sinus is located:
5. In the posterior part of coronary sulcus
208. Coronary sinus opens into:
3. Right atrium
209. how many sinuses are there in the pericardial cavity?
3. 3
210. Transverse and oblique sinuses of the pericardium
communicate with each other:
I. No
211. The pericardial puncture is most frequently performed:
1. At the Larrey's point
212. Pericardiocentesis is usually performed at Larrey's
point. Describe its location:
1. Between the xiphoid process and the left costal
arch
213. What sinus of pericardium docs the needle penetrate
during the puncture of pericardial cavity?
2. Anterior inferior sinus
214. Thymus (in children) or the tissue, which replace it
(in adults) is located at:
4. The superior mediastinum
215. What anatomical formations are situated behind the
thymus?
3. The brachiocephalic vein, aortic arch and

pericardium
216. What is the main collateral venous blood flow in a
case of disorder of outflow through the inferior vena cava?
2. The azygos vein
3. The hemiazygos vein
217. What formation is adjacent to superior vena cava
posteriorly and to the left?
1. Trachea
218. Along the right wall of the superior vena cava is
situated:
3. The right phrenic nerve
219. What wall of superior vena cava is the azygos vein
more frequently joined to?
2. To the posterior
220. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve usually originates
from the left vagus nerve:
3. At the inferior margin of the aortic arch
221. On the left anterior surface of the aortic arch are
situated:
2. The Ieft vagus nerve
3. The left phrenic nerve
222. What anatomical structures are located in the anterior
mediastinum?
2. Lymph nodes
4. Internal thoracic vessels

223. Thoracic part of esophagus is located:
I. In the superior mediastinum
2. In the posterior mediastinum
224. What surface of esophagus are the branches of the left
vagus nerve mainly located on?
1. On the anterior surface
225. What anatomical formation is the esophagus adjacent
to in the posterior mediastinum (with the exception of the
vertebral column)?
3. To the aorta
226. Thoracic duct is located in the posterior mediastinum
in prevertebral fatty tissue between:
2. The thoracic aorta and the azygos vein
227. The cupula of the diaphragm at the right midclavicular
line is located at the level of:
2. 4th rib
228. The cupula of the diaphragm at the left midclavicular
line is located at the level of:
3. 5th rib
229. Aortic and esophageal hiatuses arc formed by:
2. The medial crura
230. Thoracic duct passes through the diaphragm together
with the:
4. Aorta
231. The azygos and hemiazygos vein pass from the

retroperitoneal space into the mediastinum:
1. Through the fissures in the diaphragm
232. The "weak places" of the diaphragm are:
2. The esophageal hiatus
4. The right sternocostal triangle (Morgagni's)
5. The left sternocostal triangle (Larrey's)
6. The lumbocostal triangles (Bochdalck's)
233. Through three of the following so-called "weak
places" of the diaphragm the diaphragmatic hernia may
pass:
2. The sternocostal triangle
4. The esophageal hiatus
5. The lumbocostal triangle
234. Superior epigastric artery passes through the
diaphragm in the:
4. Right sternocostal triangle (Morgagni's)
5. Left sternocostal triangle (Larrey's)
235. Name the anatomical structure passing through the
tendinous center of the diaphragm:
3. Inferior vena cava
236. At the right hypochondriac region usually are
projected:
I. Part of the right lobe of the liver
3. Part of the right kidney
5. Right colic flexure

6. Gallbladder
237. What regions of anterolateral abdominal wall is the
stomach projected to?
2. The left hypochondriac and proper epigastric regions
238. What region is the gallbladder projected to?
4. The proper epigastric region
239. What regions of anterolateral abdominal wall is
duodenum projected to?
2. The umbilical and epigastric regions
240. What regions of anterolateral abdominal wall is
pancreas projected to?
3. The epigastric region and left hypochondriac
region
241. During examination of the small intestine (according
to its projection) the doctor should palpate the following
regions of the abdominal wall:
4. The umbilical, the pubic, the right and left
inguinal regions and the lateral abdominal regions
242. Muscles of anterolateral abdominal wall are innervated
by:
2. The lateral and the anterior branches of the
intercostal nerves from 7 to 12
3. The branches of the lumbar plexus
243. During examination of the patient with acute
appendicitis (according to the projection of appendix) the

surgeon should palpate the:
3. Right inguinal region
244. Ascending colon is projected to the:
5. Right lateral abdominal region
245. During examination of the transverse colon (according
to its topographical projection) the doctor should palpate
the following regions of the abdominal wall:
1. The right and left hypochondriac, epigastric and
umbilical regions
246. One of the requirements for operative approaches is
their correspondence to the anatomical projection of the
organ. What region should the operations on the descending
colon be performed in?
2. The left lateral abdominal region
247. Sigmoidostomy is performed (according to the
anatomical projection of the sigmoid colon) in:
5. The left inguinal region
248. Three of the listed structures are projected to the right
hypochondriac region:
1. The greater part of the right lobe of the liver
5. The right colic flexure
6. A part of the right kidney
249. Three of the listed structures are projected to the left
lateral abdominal region:
1. The Ieft ureter

2. The descending colon
4. The jejunum
250. Two of the listed structures are projected to the right
inguinal region:
2. The terminal part of the ileum
5. The cecum with the vermiform appendix
251. The rectus abdominis muscles start from:
2. The anterior surfaces of V-VII ribs
252. The superior, middle and inferior parts of the
transverse muscle of abdomen start from:
3. The inner surface of the cartilage of the lower six ribs
I. The deep layer of thoracolumbar fascia
2. The iliac crest
253. Describe the direction of the fibers of the external
oblique abdominis muscle:
3. Downwards and inwards
254. Describe the direction of the fibers of the internal
oblique abdominis muscle in the lateral regions of the
anterolateral abdominal wall:
2. It is opposite to the direction of the external
oblique abdominal muscles
255. The anterior wall of the sheath of rectus abdominis
muscles above the line situated 2-5 cm below the navel is
formed by:
1. Aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominal

muscle
4. Superficial layer of the aponeurosis of the internal
oblique abdominal muscles
256. The anterior wall of the sheath of rectus abdominis
muscles 5 cm below the navel is formed by:
1. Aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominal
muscle
2. Aponeurosis of the internal oblique abdominal
muscles
3. Aponeurosis of transverse abdominis muscle
257. Linea alba is formed by:
4. Tendinous bundles of 3 pairs of broad abdominal
muscles
258. Linea alba is formed by interlacing of the fibers of
muscular aponeuroses of:
2. Transverse abdominis muscles
3. External oblique abdominal muscles
4. Internal oblique abdominal muscles
259. While performing the midline laparotomy:
2. The navel is passed round on the left side
260. The longitudinal incisions for approach to the
abdominal organs are:
2. Pirogov's approach
261. Who are the authors of surgical approaches to the
арpendix?
1. Volkovich-Dyakonov
262. Alternating approaches to the abdominal organs arc:
2. Pfannenstiel's approach
3. Volkovich-Dyakonov's approach
263. What is the alternating operative approach to the
organs of the abdominal cavity?
3. Dissection of the tissues of the abdominal wall
layer-by-layer in different directions
264. Define the sequence of the layers which arc cut during
midline laparotomy in the epigastric region:
2,4,7,1,5,6,3
I. Linea alba
2. Skin with subcutaneous fatty tissue
3. Parietal peritoneum
5. Transverse fascia
6. Preperitoneal fatty tissue
7. Proper fascia
265. Define the sequence of layers, which are cut during
midline laparotomy in hypogastrium:
2,4,8,1,7,5,6,3
1. linea alba
2. Skin with subcutaneous fatty tissue
6. Preperitoneal fatty tissue
7. Rectus abdominis muscles
8. Proper fascia
266. Define the sequence of layers, which arc cut during
paramedian laparotomy:
1,3,2,4,6,5
1. Skin
2. Anterior wall of the sheath of rectus abdominis muscle
3. Subcutaneous fatty tissue with superficial fascia
4. Posterior wall of the sheath of rectus abdominis muscle
267. The surgeon is dissecting the anterior wall of the
rectus sheath performing transrectal laparotomy in the
epigastric region. At this level the anterior wall of the rectus
sheath is formed by:
3. Aponeurosis of the external oblique and 1/2 of
aponeurosis of the internal oblique muscle
268. During transrectal laparotomy is not recommended to
cut the tendinous intersections of rectus abdominis muscles,
due to presence of the:
3. Supplying blood vessels
269. The surgeon is dissecting the anterior wall of the

rectus sheath performing transrectal laparotomy in
hypogastrium below the arcuate line. At this level the
anterior wall of the rectus sheath is formed by:
2. Aponeurosis of the external oblique, internal
oblique and transverse muscles
270. Superficial fascia in the lower regions of the
anterolateral abdominal wall:
4. Consists of two layers
271. The abdominal wall within the umbilicus includes:
I. Skin
2. Cicatricial (scar) tissue
5. Peritoneum
272. What method is used for treatment of umbilical hernia
in children?
3. Lexer's method
273. During plasty of umbilical hernia by Mayo's method
the following tissues are joined together:
2. The upper and lower margins of the aponeurosis
of the broad abdominal muscles
274. During plasty of umbilical hernia by Sapezhko's
method the following tissues are joined together:
3. The inner margins of the aponeurosis of three
broad abdominal muscles
275. Enlargement of subcutaneous veins in the umbilical

region is a symptom of venous congestion in the portal
vein. It can be explained by the presence of:
4. Porto-caval anastomoses
276. The superior and inferior epigastric artery with the
accompanying veins are located:
3. In the rectus sheath behind the muscle
277. Portohepatography is carried out through:
1. The umbilical vein
278. What arteries are located in the subcutaneous tissue of
the anterior abdominal wall?
1. The superficial epigastric artery
3. The superficial circumflex iliac artery
5. The branches of external pudendal arteries
279. Anterior abdominal wall is supplied by following deep
arteries:
3. The superior epigastric artery
4. The inferior epigastric artery
5. The deep circumflex iliac artery
6. The five lower intercostal arteries
7. The lumbar arteries
280. Veins of anterior abdominal wall are connected to the
portal venous system by:
I. The umbilical vein
281. Venous communication between the systems of
superior and inferior vena cava on the anterior abdominal

wall is provided by:
1. Thoraco-epigastric veins
282. What arteries form anastomosis within the rectus
sheath?
2. The superior epigastric artery
4. The inferior epigastric artery
283. Superficial lymphatic vessels from the upper part of
anterior abdominal wall bring the lymph to:
1. Axillary lymph nodes
3. Epigastric lymph nodes
4. Pectoral lymph nodes
284. Deep lymphatic vessels from the upper part of
anterior abdominal wall bring the lymph to:
2. Epigastric lymph nodes
3. Lymph nodes of anterior mediastinum
285. Deep lymphatic vessels from the middle and lower
parts of anterior abdominal wall bring the lymph to:
I. Lumbar lymph nodes
3. Iliac lymph nodes
4. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
286. During longitudinal laparotomy in the lateral region of
the abdomen it is possible to damage the deep vessels and
nerves. These anatomical structures are located:
3. Between the internal oblique and transverse
muscles
287. Catheterization of inferior epigastric artery is used for
arterial perfusion of the lower extremities. This vessel is
located:
4. Behind the rectus abdominis muscle
288. Innervation of the umbilical region is performed by:
3. IX-XI intercostal nerves
289. Endoabdominal fascia on the anterior abdominal wall
is called:
2. Transverse
290. The supravesical fossa is bordered by:
1. Median umbilical fold
2. Medial umbilical fold
291. The medial inguinal fossa is bordered by:
2. Medial umbilical fold
3. Lateral umbilical fold
292. The median umbilical fold is the:
3. Obliterated urachus
293. The lateral umbilical fold of peritoneum contains:
1. Inferior epigastric artery and vein
294. The medial umbilical fold of peritoneum contains:
2. Obliterated umbilical artery
295. What is located just in front of the aponeurosis of the
external oblique abdominis muscles in the inguinal region?
3. The fascia of Scarpa
296. During surgical approach to the inguinal canal the

following structures are successively dissected:
1. Skin
3. Subcutaneous fatty tissue with superficial fascia
4. Aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis
muscle
297. The borders of the inguinal triangle are:
2. Inguinal ligament
3.horizontal line drawn from the point located
between the lateral and middle third parts of the
inguinal ligament
4. Lateral margin of the rectus abdominis muscle
298. The inguinal space is the:
2. Distance between the superior and inferior walls
of the inguinal canal
299. Inguinal space is bordered by the:
2. Free margins of the internal oblique and
transverse abdominis muscles
4. Lateral margin of the rectus abdominis muscle
300. In the inguinal canal one can distinguish:
3. 4 walls and 2 openings
301. Three of the listed structures form the superficial
opening of the inguinal canal:
1. Splitting of aponeurosis of the external oblique
abdominis muscle
4. Pubic bone
S. Interpeduncular fibers
302. The walls of the inguinal canal are:
muscle
3. Lower free edges of the internal oblique and
transverse muscles
303. What structure forms the anterior wall of the inguinal
canal?
3. The aponeurosis of the external oblique
abdominis muscle
304. What structure forms the posterior wall of the inguinal
canal?
305. What structure forms the inferior wall of the inguinal
canal?
306. What structure forms the superior wall of the inguinal
canal?
3. Lower edges of the internal oblique and
transverse muscles
307. What wall of the inguinal canal is formed by
transverse fascia?
3. The posterior wall
308. What wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the
inguinal ligament?
2. The inferior wall
309. What wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the
aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis muscle?
4. The anterior wall
310. What wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the lower
edge of the internal oblique and transverse muscles?
I. The superior wall
311. What is located in the inguinal canal in male?
1. The spermatic cord
2. The ilioinguinal nerve
4. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
312. What is located in the inguinal canal in female?
1. The round ligament of the uterus
2. The ilioinguinal nerve
4. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
313. Three of the listed anatomical elements compose the
spermatic cord:
1. Ductus deferens
3. Vessels and nerves of ductus deferens and
testicle
4. Remnants of the vaginal process of the
peritoneum
314. The spermatic cord consists of the:
I. Ductus deferens
2. Arteries, veins and nerves of the ductus deferens
3. Testicular artery
4. Pampiniform venous plexus
5. Testicular lymphatic vessels
6. Cremaster muscle
7. All of the listed structures
315. Superficial inguinal ring is formed by the:
2. Diverging crura of the aponeurosis of the
external oblique abdominis muscles
3. Interpeduncular fibers
316. What are the normal dimensions of the superficial
inguinal ring in male?
1. 1-3 cm
317. What is the deep inguinal ring?
2. The protrusion of the transverse fascia
318. Inguinal hernias most frequently occur in:
1. Male
319. Inguinal hernia is called "direct" if the hernial sac
penetrates through the:
2. Medial inguinal fossa
320. Inguinal hernia is called "oblique (indirect)" if the
hernial sac penetrates through the:
2. Lateral inguinal fossa

321. What vice of the antenatal development leads to
formation of congenital inguinal-scrotal hernia?
1. Disturbance in obliteration of the vaginal process
of the peritoneum
322. hernial sac of congenital inguinal hernia is formed by
the:
1. Vaginal process of the peritoneum
323. What hernias of the anterolateral abdominal wall are
indications to the emergency operation?
2. The strangulated hernias
324. Hernial sac in congenital inguinal hernia is formed by
the:
2. Non-obliterated vaginal process of the peritoneum
325. What is the anatomical prerequisite for formation of
inguinal hernias?
2. Presence of wide inguinal space
326. What wall of the inguinal canal is weakened in a case
of direct inguinal hernia?
3. The posterior wall
327. hernia consists of the:
2. Hernial gate
3. Hernial sac
4. Hernial contents
328. What is the anatomical exit place of a direct inguinal
hernia?
3. The medial inguinal fossa
329. What is the anatomical exit place of an oblique
(indirect) inguinal hernia?
1. The lateral inguinal fossa
330. Hernial sac of oblique (indirect) inguinal hernia
protrudes through the:
1. Deep inguinal ring
331. In a case of direct inguinal hernia the spermatic cord
is located:
1. Laterally to the hernial sac
332. In a case of direct inguinal hernia the hernial sac is
located:
2. Medially to the spermatic cord
333. In a case of oblique inguinal hernia the hernial sac is
located:
1. Between the elements of the spermatic cord
334. The stages of herniotomy are:
{1,4,3,2,6,5}
I. Successive dissection of the tissues over the
herniation
2. Dissection of the hernial sac
3. Separation of the hernial sac
4. Dissection of the hernial gate
5. Plasty of the hernial gate
6. Ligation and excision of hernial sac at his neck

335. After herniotomy on the oblique inguinal hernia in the
early postoperative period a small scrotal swelling.
thickening of the spermatic cord und hardening of the testis
were diagnosed in a patient. What technical error could lead
to these complications?
4. Incarceration of the spermatic cord
336. The wall of the hernial sac in sliding hernia can be
formed by:
I. The ascending colon
3. The cecum
4. The urinary bladder
337. After herniotomy on the oblique inguinal hernia,
persistent pain in the inguinal region, radiating to the
testicle, has developed in a patient. What is the reason of
this complication?
3. Taking of the ilioinguinal nerve into the suture
338. What structures should be stitched in plasty of the
inguinal canal by Kimbarovsky by the second row of the
sutures?
5. Lateral and medial flaps of aponeurosis of the
external oblique abdominis muscle (duplication)
339. What can be found in the hernial sac in a case of
retrograde strangulated hernia?

4. Several loops of small intestine
340. After opening of the hernial sac in a patient with
strangulated inguinal hernia, the surgeon has not found the
altered intestinal loops. After careful pulling of the
intestinal loops the altered parts of the intestinal wall have
appeared from the peritoneal cavity. What kind of
strangulation was found?
3. Retrograde strangulation
341. What is sliding hernia?
2. The hernial sac is partially formed by wall of the
hollow organ
342. During herniotomy on oblique inguinal-scrotal hernia
the surgeon has noticed a significant amount of fatty tissue
on the posterolateral wall of the hernial sac. The hernial sac
contains loops of the small intestine, cecum and a part of
3. Sliding hernia
343. The hernial sac in congenital inguinal hernia is formed
by the:
1. Vaginal process of the peritoneum
344. What docs the term "inguinal space" mean?
3. The distance between the superior and inferior
wall of the inguinal canal
345. Where is the incision at inguinal hernia performed?
2. 2 cm above and parallel to the projection of the
inguinal ligament
346. What hernias of anterolateral abdominal wall are
indications for emergency operation?
2. The strangulated hernias
347. What structures are sutured to the inguinal ligament by
Bassini's method during inguinal herniotomy?
3. Lower edges of the internal oblique and transverse
muscles under the spermatic cord, while the flaps of
aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis
muscle arc sutured over the spermatic cord
348. Indicate the sequence of the stages of Bassini's plasty
of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal:
{3,2,4,5,1}
I. Stitching of the edges of the dissected aponeurosis
of the external oblique abdominis muscle
2. Liberation of the lower edges of the internal
oblique and transverse abdominis muscles
3. Separation and retraction of the spermatic cord
4. Suturing of the edges of the internal oblique and
transverse abdominis muscles to the inguinal
ligament
5. Laying of the spermatic cord
The Abdominal Cavity
349. The upper and lower storeys of abdominal cavity are
separated by:
3. The root of the mesentery of the transverse colon

350. The boundary between the upper and lower storeys of
abdominal cavity is determined by:
5. The root of the mesentery of the transverse colon
351. Four of the listed organs are located in the upper
storey:
2. Stomach
4. Liver with gallbladder
5. Pancreas
6. Spleen
352. What structures adjoin the posterior wall of the
stomach?
2. The pancreas
353. What organs adjoin the greater curvature of the
stomach?
1. The transverse colon
2. The spleen
4. The diaphragm
354. The arteries supplying the stomach arise from:
1. Only from the celiac trunk
355. What arteries supply the duodenum?
1. The right gastric artery
2. The right gastroepiploic artery
3. The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
4. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
356. Left gastroepiploic artery originates from:

4. The splenic artery
357. Right gastroepiploic artery originates from:
5. None of the answers
358. Venous outflow from the stomach is carried out into
the:
1. Superior vena cava
2. Portal vein
359. What veins providing the venous outflow from the
stomach drain into the system of the portal vein?
1. The splenic vein
2. The right gastroepiploic vein
3. The left gastroepiploic vein
4. The left gastric vein
360. While performing subtotal gastrectomy during
mobilization of the greater curvature the gastrocolic and
gastrolienal ligaments were cul. After the operation the
necrosis of the gastric stump has developed. That was the
result of ligation and dissection of:
1. The short gastric arteries
361. What ligament of stomach contains the initial part of
the left gastric artery?
4. Gastropancreatic
362. Right gastric artery originates from the:
4. Proper hepatic artery
363. The left gastric artery originates from the:

2. Celiac trunk
364. What ligament of stomach contains the right
gastroepiploic artery?
4. Gastrocolic
365. Duodenum is located in the:
3. In both storeys
366. Which of these organs are located intraperitoneally?
1. Stomach
3. Jejunum and ileum
4. Cecum
5. Appendix
7. Transverse colon
9. Sigmoid colon
367. Which layer of the wall of the digestive tract has the
greatest plastic properties?
4. The serous
368. While examination of the patient with perforated
gastric ulcer during percussion the disappearance of the
hepatic dullness was detected, which is caused by the
accumulation of air in the:
4. Right subdiaphragmatic space
369. After perforation of the gastric ulcer the air first of all
accumulates in the highest place of the abdominal cavity,
which is the:
2. Right subdiaphragmatic space
370. The medial wall of the hepatic bursa is formed by the:
4. Falciform ligament
371. The anterior wall of the hepatic bursa is formed by
the:
5. Diaphragm and the anterior abdominal wall
372. The anterior wall of the omental bursa is formed by
the:
4. Lesser omentum, posterior wall of the stomach,
gastrocolic ligament
373. The inferior wall of the omental bursa is formed by
the:
3. Transverse colon and its mesentery
374. The posterior wall of the omental bursa is formed by
the:
4. Pancreas
375. The posterior wall of the epiploic foramen is formed
by the:
4. Parietal peritoneum covering the inferior vena
cava
376. Operative approach into the omental bursa is
performed by the:
2. Dissection of gastrocolic ligament
377. What does the falciform ligament of the liver separate?
2. Right and left subdiaphragmatic space

378. What structures adjoin the inferior surface of the liver?
1. Stomach
2. Horizontal part of the duodenum
3. hepatic flexure of the transverse colon
5. Superior pole of the right kidney
379. The peritoneum covers the liver from all sides except
for:
4. The posterior surface
380. Three of the listed ligaments form the lesser omentum:
1. Phrenicogastric ligament
4. Hepatoduodenal ligament
5. hepatogastric ligament
381. What structures adjoin the gallbladder?
4. The head of the pancreas
5. The ascending part of duodenum
Match the Pairs
382. Describe the borders of the epiploic foramen:
1. Superior D. Caudate lobe of the liver
2. Inferior C. Duodenum
3. Anterior A. Hepatoduodenal ligament
4. Posterior B. Hepatorenal ligament and inferior vena
cava

383. After perforation of the ulcer of posterior wall of the
stomach the gastric contents appeared in the right iliac fossa
around cecum, causing the symptoms that simulate the
attack of appendicitis. Identify 4 formations, which have
formed the path of gastric contents to this arca.
{5,6,1,2}
1. The subhepatic space
2. The right paracolic gutter
3. The right mesenteric sinus
4. The pregastric bursa
S. The omental bursa
6. The epiploic foramen
7. The space in front of the transverse colon
384. The inferior margin of the liver at the midline is
situated:
3. At the midpoint between base of the xiphoid
process and umbilicus
385. What structures adjoin the anterior surface of the
liver?
1. The diaphragm
2. The anterior abdominal wall
3. The anterior thoracic wall
386. What structures adjoin the posterior surface of the
liver?
4. The aorta
5. The right adrenal gland
387. Four of the listed organs adjoin the inferior surface of
the liver:
2. The duodenum
3. The stomach
6. The right kidney with the adrenal gland
7. The right colic flexure
388. What structures adjoin the inferior surface of the liver:
1. The duodenal bulb
2. The stomach
3. The hepatic flexure of the transverse colon
4. The greater omentum
389. The metastases of primary cancer of the liver first of
all spread to the regional lymph nodes, which are located:
2. In the hepatoduodenal ligament
390. What structures are located in the hepatoduodenal
ligament?
1. Portal vein
3. Common hepatic duct
391. What are the elements of the hepatoduodenal
ligament?
2. Portal vein
4. Common bile duct
5. Fatty tissue
392. What structures adjoin the gallbladder?
1. The pyloric part of the stomach
2. The liver
3. The hepatic flexure of the transverse colon
393. The common bile duct is formed by the junction of
the:
3. The common hepatic and cystic ducts
394. What is the position of the common bile duct in
relation to the proper hepatic artery?
2. Laterally
395. What statement is correct in relation to the hepatic
veins?
3. Hepatic veins are located on the posterior surface
of the liver and drain into the inferior vena cava
396. The fundus of the gallbladder is projected onto the
anterior abdominal wall:
1. At the point of intersection of the lateral edge of
the right rectus abdominis muscle with the costal
arch
397. Describe two extreme positions of the gallbladder in
relation to the liver and peritoneum:
I. Total intrahepatic position without a contact with

the peritoneum
5. Position outside the liver with intraperitoneal
covering
398. During cholecystectomy the cystic duct is usually
found at the base of Calot's triangle. The two lateral sides
of the triangle are the following two anatomical formations:
4. Right hepatic artery
399. The borders of Calot's triangle are the:
2. Cystic duct
4. Right hepatic artery
400. Most frequently the common bile duct is formed by
junction of the common hepatic and cystic ducts:
2. In the hepatoduodenal ligament
401. Determine the sequence of parts of the common bile
duct:
2. Supraduodenal part
4. Retroduodenal part
3. Pancreatic part
1. Interstitial part
402. The reciprocal position of the common bile duct,
proper hepatic artery and portal vein in the hepatoduodenal
ligament is the following one:

2. The bile duct is located at the free edge of the
ligament, the artery is located on the left, between
them and posteriorly the vein is located
403. What structure adjoins the descending part of the
duodenum?
3. The head of pancreas
404. What vessels adjoin the anterior wall of the horizontal
part of the duodenum?
2. The superior mesenteric artery and vein
405. Pancreatic duct and the common bile duct join to:
3. The descending part of the duodenum
406. The duodenum is located:
3. In the superior and inferior abdominal storeys
407. What structure adjoins the spleen anteriorly and
medially?
3. The bottom and the greater curvature of the
stomach
408. What ligament contains the splenic artery?
2. Pancreaticosplenic
spleen?
1. The lumbar portion of the diaphragm
4. The left kidney
5. The left adrenal gland
410. The celiac trunk usually divides into:

1. The left gastric artery
5. The common hepatic artery
411. One of the earliest clinical symptoms of pancreatic
cancer may be jaundice, which is caused by:
3. The compression of the common bile duct by the
tumor
412. Destructive pancreatitis can be complicated by
peritonitis, which most frequently develops:
3. In the omental bursa
413. Where is the portal vein formed?
3. Behind the head of the pancreas
pancreas?
2. The left kidney
3. The inferior vena cava and the aorta
415. What structures adjoin the pancreas inferiorly?
1. The duodenum
2. The duodenojejunal flexure
3. The superior mesenteric artery and vein
416. What structures adjoin the head of the pancreas
laterally?
2. The descending part of duodenum
417. What structures adjoin the tail of the pancreas

laterally?
3. The hilum of the spleen
418. Two of the listed structures are located behind the
body of the pancreas:
1. The abdominal aorta
6. The superior mesenteric artery
419. Where is the portal vein formed?
3. Behind the head of the pancreas
420. Venous blood from these 5 organs is drained to the
portal vein:
1. The stomach
3. The colon
5. The pancreas
7. The spleen
8. The small intestine
421. Venous blood from these 3 organs is drained to the
inſerior vena cava:
2. The adrenal glands
4. The liver
6. The kidneys
422. How is the spleen related to the peritoneum?
1. It is covered by peritoneum from all sides except
for the hilum
423. Blood supply of pancreas are provided by three
arteries:
2. The gastroduodenal artery
424. In the inferior storey of the abdominal cavity are
located:
1. Two mesenteric sinus, two paracolic gutters, five
recesses
425. Five of the listed organs are located in the inferior
storey of the abdominal cavity:
1. The ascending colon
7. The cecum with vermiform appendix
8. The sigmoid colon
9. The jejunum and ileum
426. How docs the root of the mesentery of the small
intestine pass?
3. Obliquely from up to down, from left to right
427. Where can the largest height of the mesentery of the
small intestine (20-25 cm) be found?
4. At the middle departments of the small intestine
428. The mesenteric sinuses arc separated by the:
2. Root of the mesentery of the small intestine
429. Right mesenteric sinus is bordered:
2. Superiorly - by the mesentery of the transverse
colon, on the right - by the ascending colon, on the

left and inferiorly by the mesentery of the small
intestine
430. What is the right border of the right mesenteric sinus?
2. The ascending colon
431. What is the superior border of the right mesenteric
sinus?
1. The mesentery of the transverse colon
432. How is the right mesenteric sinus separated from the
pelvis?
4. By the small intestine and its mesentery
433. The right mesenteric sinus has a connection:
3. With a left sinus
434. The left mesenteric sinus has a connection:
1. With a small pelvis
2. With a right sinus
435. How is the left mesenteric sinus separated from the
pelvis?
1. It is not separated
436. What peritoneal formations of the inferior storey of the
abdominal cavity freely communicate with the peritoneal
bursa of the superior storey?
4. Right paracolic gutter
437. How is the communication between the right and left
mesenteric sinuses provided?
1. Between the loops of the small intestine and the

anterior abdominal wall
4. Between the beginning of the root of the
mesentery of the small intestine and mesentery of
the transverse colon
438. What peritoneal formations of the inferior storey of the
abdominal cavity do not communicate with the peritoneal
storey of pelvis?
439. What is the most probable pathway of spreading of the
purulent peritonitis from the right mesenteric sinus?
2. The left mesenteric sinus
440. What are the most probable pathways of spreading of
the purulent peritonitis from the left mesenteric sinuses?
5. The peritoneal storey of pelvic cavity
441. The lateral border of the right mesenteric sinus is
formed by:
3. The medial border of the ascending colon
442. How is the right paracolic gutter separated from the
right subdiaphragmatic space?
1. It is not separated
443. How is the left paracolic gutter separated from the left
subdiaphragmatic space?
3. By phrenicocolic ligament
444. The right paracolic gutter of the abdominal cavity

communicates with the following formations:
purulent peritonitis from the right paracolic gutter?
1. The hepatic bursa
purulent peritonitis from the left paracolic gutter?
5. The peritoneal storey of pelvis
447. The left paracolic gutter communicates with:
3. The pelvic cavity
448. Purulent appendicitis is complicated by the formation
of intraperitoneal subdiaphragmatic abscess. Determine the
pathway of spreading the infection:
3. Along the right paracolic gutter
449. How many recesses are present near the ileocecal
junction?
3.3 recesses
450. The hernia of Treitz is the internal hernia formed in
the:
2. Recess of the duodenojejunal flexure
451. The small intestine has no mesentery:
1. At the beginning
452. What can be found with Gubarev's method?
3. The duodenojejunal flexure
453. The Meckel's diverticulum is:

2. Protrusion of the wall of the small intestine
454. Arteriomesenteric occlusion is the:
3. Compression of the duodenum by the superior
mesenteric artery
455. How can one distinguish the colon from the small
intestine?
1. By presence of epiploic appendages
3. By presence of haustra
4. By presence of the muscular bands (taenia coli)
S. By color
456. What artery supplies the jejunum?
457. What artery supplies the ileum?
458. What vein receives the blood from the jejunum?
3. The portal vein
459. What vein receives the blood from the ileum?
3. The portal vein
460. The venous blood from the transverse colon is drained
into:
4. The superior mesenteric vein
461. The blood supply of descending colon is provided by
the:
1. Left colic artery
462. The blood supply of the transverse colon is provided

by the:
1. Superior mesenteric artery
2. Inferior mesenteric artery
463. What arteries supply of the transverse colon?
3. The left colic artery
5. The middle colic artery
464. What venous system receives the blood from the
transverse colon?
2. The system of the portal vein
465. The blood supply of the sigmoid colon is provided by
the:
4. Inferior mesenteric artery
466. What vein receives the blood from sigmoid colon?
1. The portal vein
467. The blood supply of the cecum is provided by the:
1. Superior mesenteric artery
468. What vein receives the blood from cecum?
4. The portal vein
469. What are the anastomoses between the systems of the
portal vein and superior vena cava?
3. Between the veins of the umbilical region and
paraumbilical veins
4. Between veins of the stomach and esophageal
veins
470. The major arterial and venous plexuses of the hollow

organs of the abdominal cavity are located in the:
3. Submucous layer
471. Who have proposed to connect the scrous membranes
while making the intestinal sutures?
2. Lambert
472. Two-row suture is used during operations on the:
1. Stomach
2. Duodenum
3. Small intestine
473. Three-row suture is used during operations on the:
4. Colon
474. What are the indications for gastrostomy?
3. The inoperable cancer of the esophagus and
cardiac part of the stomach
4. The esophageal stenosis
S. The esophageal rupture
475. Where is the free end of the tube placed after
gastrostomy?
2. Into a small hole at the lateral edge of the Ieft
rectus abdominis muscle
476. What is gastropexy?
4. It is fixation of the stomach to the parietal
peritoneum by several sutures for isolation of the
peritoneal cavity from the gastric contents
477. What should be performed to prevent food flowing

into the peritoneal cavity during gastrostomy?
1. Gastropexy
478. Resection of stomach by Billroth I presupposes the
following reconstruction:
4. Gastroduodenal end-to-end anastomosis after the
formation of the gastric stump
479. Resection of stomach by Billroth II presupposes the
following reconstruction:
3. Anterior side-to-side gastrojejunal anastomosis
after formation of the stumps of duodenum and
stomach
480. Performing the resection of stomach, the surgcon has
made a gastro-intestinal end-to-end anastomosis between
the gastric stump and the duodenum. This is resection by:
I. Billroth I
481. During resection of stomach, after removal of its distal
portion the gastric and duodenal stumps were sutured
tightly. Then the side-lo-side gastrointestinal anastomosis
between the anterior wall of the stomach and the loop of
jejunum was performed. What type of resection is it?
2. Billroth II
482. During resection of stomach the surgeon has closed
2/3 of gastric stump starting from the lesser curvature and
placing the sutures into the lumen of the stomach. The
remaining open part of the stump was connected to short

loop of jejunum by end-to-side anastomosis. What type of
resection is it?
3. Hofmcister-Finstcrer
483. To prevent the reflux of gastric contents into the
afferent part of duodenum during resection of the stomach
by Hofmeister-Finsterer is necessary:
3. To apply sero-muscular sutures between the
afferent part of duodenum and gastric stump above
the anastomosis
5. To form the anastomotic spur using the afferent
part of duodenum
484. What structure can be found with Gubarev's method
while making the gastrointestinal anastomosis?
4. The initial part of jejunum
485. Formation of "vicious circle" after performing the
gastrointestinal anastomosis is explained by:
1. Constriction of the efferent loop of intestine
3. Antiperistaltic suturing of the intestinal loop to
the stomach
486. During stitching the perforated gastric ulcer, in the
first row of stitches should be taken:
5. All the layers transversly to the axis of the stomach
487. What is the truncal vagotomy?
2. Transection of the left and right vagus trunks
below the diaphragm

488. What is the selective vagotomy?
1. Transection of the left vagus trunk below the
origin of its hepatic branches
489. What is the proximal selective vagotomy?
3. Transection of the vagus branches running to the
fundus and body of the stomach
490. What should the surgeon do in a case of multiple
closely located wounds of jejunum?
3. To perform the economical resection of the
injured part of the intestine
491. What should the surgeon do in a case of point
(punctured) penetrating wound of the small intestine?
2. To apply the sero-muscular purse-string suture
with invagination of the wound's edges into the lumen
intestinal suture
492. What is the name of two-row intestinal suture
consisting of the through suture and sero-serous suture?
1. Suture of Albert
493. What is the name of invaginating through intestinal
suture?
5. Suture of Schmieden
494. What kind of suture should be used in a case of point
(punctured) wound of the small intestine?
3. The purse-string sero-muscular suture

495. Why should the wounds of the hollow tubular organs
be sutured in transverse direction?
3. To prevent the narrowing of the lumen
496. What anastomosis on the small intestine is most physiological?
4. End-to-end
497. Why should the defect in the mesentery be sutured
during resection of the small intestine?
3. To prevent the incarceration of the intestinal loops
498. What layers should be stitched by the first row of Albert's Suture while performing the intestinal
anastomosis?
5. All the layers
499. What layers should be stitched by the second row of While performing the intestinal Albert's
anastomosis?
3. The serous and muscular layers
500. What layer of the intestinal wall provides the
mechanical strength while performing the intestinal suture?
2. The submucous layer
501. What layers should be stitched by Lambert's suture?
3. The sero-muscular layers
502. How is it necessary to inspect the abdominal organs to find the source of bleeding?
5. The parenchymatous organs are inspected first
503. What are the most typical positions of the appendix in relation to the cecum?
3. The medial
5. The descending
504. What position of the appendix can simulate the right side renal colic?
3. The retrocecal and retroperitoneal
505. What can be the cause of the clinical presentation of appendicitis similar to the symptoms of
cholecystitis?
3. Subhepatic position of the cecum and appendix
506. Which the most reliable and convenient signs are used to find the appendix during appendectomy?
3. The location of the appendix's base at the place of confluence of three longitudinal taeniae coli
4. The continuation of the anterior (free) tacnia onto the base appendix
507. Who are the authors of surgical approaches to the appendix?
1. Volkovich-Dyakonov
508. Who proposed the pararectal approach to the appendix?
5. Lennander
509. What part of the colon is the most frequently used to form the preternatural anus?
2. Sigmoid colon
510. Why is it necessary to stitch the parietal peritoneum with the skin while making the preternatural anus?
2. To insulate the layers of the abdominal wall and to prevent their contamination
511. The upper border of the lumbar region is formed by:
3. XII ribs
512. The lower border of the lumbar region is formed by:
2. The iliac crests and sacrum
513. The lateral border of the lumbar region is form by the continuation of:
3. Posterior axillary line
514. How many muscular layers are present in the lumbar region?
3. 3
515. The muscles related to the second layer of the lumbar region are:
2. Internal oblique abdominis muscle
3. Erector spine muscle
4. Serratus posterior inferior muscle
516. The following muscles are located in the lateral department of the lumbar region;
I. Latissimus dorsi muscle
2. External oblique abdominis muscle
5. Transverse abdominis muscle
517. The subcutaneous fatty tissue of the lumbar region is distributed in the following way:
4. Unevenly - its thickness is larger in the lower part
518. The lumbar triangle (Petit's triangle) is bounded by:
1. External oblique abdominis muscle
6. Latissimus dorsi muscle
7. Iliac crest
519. The floor of the Petit's triangle is formed by:
520. What is the practical importance of the Petit's triangle?
1. It is the place of hernia's formation
2. It is the place of passage of phlegmons from the retroperitoneal space
521. The floor of Lesgaft-Grünfeld's rhombus are formed by:
2. Aponeurosis of the transverse abdominis muscle
522. The borders of Lesgaft-Grünfeld's rhombus are formed by:

4. Erector spine muscle
5. 12th rib
7. Serratus posterior inferior muscle
523. The border between the lumbar region and the retroperitoneal space is:
3. Endoabdominal fascia
524. The fascias of the retroperitoneal space (listed from behind) are:
4. Endoabdominal fascia(match)
2. Retrorenal fascia
1. Prerenal fascia
3. Retrocolic fascia (Toldt's fascia)
525. Anterior and posterior walls of the retroperitoneal space are:
526. In the retroperitoneal space between the endoabdominal and retroperitoneal fascias is located:
1. The proper retroperitoneal fat layer
527. The paracolic fat layer is located between:
2. The retrocolic and prerenal fascia
528. The pararenal fat layer is located around the kidney:
2. Between the fibrous and fascial capsules
529. Determine the order of location of three capsules of the kidney starting from its parenchyma:
3. Fibrous capsule
(match)
l. Fat (adipose) capsule
2. Fascial capsule
530. In front of the right kidney the following three organs are situated:
1. Liver
4. Duodenum
6. Right colic flexure
531. The following anatomical structures are adjacent to the anterior surface of the left kidney:
1. Posterior parietal peritoneum of the omental bursa
2. Stomach
3. The tail of pancreas
4. Splenic flexure of the colon
532. The following anatomical structures are adjacent to the anterior surface of the right kidney:
1. The right lobe of the liver
3. Descending part of the duodenum
4. Ascending colon
5. The paracolic fat layer
533. How are the elements of the renal pedicle located in the front-to-back direction?
2. Renal vein, renal artery, renal pelvis
534. Kidney's division into the segments is based on:
I. Branching of the renal artery
535. How many narrowings does the ureter have?
3. Three narrowings
536. Where is the third physiological narrowing of the ureter located?

3. Near the entrance of ureter to the wall of the urinary bladder
537. The narrowings of the ureter are located at the level of:
1. Transition of the renal pelvis to the ureter
5. The terminal line of the small pelvis
6. Above the place of ureter's passage through the wall of the urinary bladder
538. Ureters with their posterior surfaces in the lower part of the retroperitoneal space are adjacent to:
3. Genitofemoral nerve
539. At the level of the terminal line the left ureter crosses:
1. Common iliac artery
540. At the level of terminal line the right ureter crosses:
3. External iliac artery
541. The place of needle's insertion in a case of paranephral blockade is located at:
3. The vertex of the angle between the 12th rib and the lateral margin of erector spine muscle
542. During the paranephral novocaine blockade by Vishnevsky the surgeon feels the "give" (sudden
reduce of the tissues' resistance) twice. At the first "give" the needle penetrates:
4. into the proper retroperitoneal fat layer
543. During the paranephral novocaine blockade by Vishnevsky the solution of novocaine is introduced:
2. into the adipose capsule of the kidney
544. Indicate the sequence of layers dissected by the surgeon for exposure of the kidney, performing the
incision by Bergmann-Israel:
3. Skin with subcutaneous tissue and superficial fascia(match)
5. The superficial lamina of the thoracolumbar fascia
6. Latissimus dorsi muscle and external oblique abdominis muscle

4. The serratus posterior inferior muscle and the internal oblique abdominis muscle
2. The deep lamina of the thoracolumbar fascia and the transverse abdominis muscle
545. The approach to the kidney by Bergmann-Israel is characterized by the following statement:
1. It is the extraperitoneal approach
546. During nephrectomy the ligation and dissection of the elements of the renal pedicle are produced in
the following order:
1. Renal artery, renal vein, ureter
547. The boundary between the large and small pelvis includes:
I. Promontorium
2. Terminal line
3. The upper edge of the pubic bone
548. The walls of the bony pelvis consist of the following formation:
1. Sacrum
3. Ilium
4. Ischium
5. Pubic bone
6. Соссух
549. The bony base of the pelvis is complemented by the following ligaments:
1. Sacrotuberal
2. Sacrospinal
550. The small pelvis has the following foramens:
1. Greater sciatic
2. Lesser sciatic
4. Obturator
551. The following fascial layers are distinguished in the pelvis:
1. Parietal
2. Visceral
552. Name the parietal muscles of the pelvis:
1. Piriformis muscle
2. Internal obturator muscle
553. What anatomical structures pass through the suprapiriform foramen?
1. Superior gluteal nerve
4. Superior gluteal artery and vein
554. What anatomical structures pass through the infrapiriform foramen?
1. Sciatic nerve
2. Inferior gluteal neurovascular bundle
4. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
5. Genital neurovascular bundle
555. The superficial group of muscles of the small pelvis (ischiocavernous, bulbospongious, superficial
transverse muscle of perineum) is located in the following pelvic storey:
4. Subcutaneous
556. What anatomical structures pass through the lesser sciatic foramen?
2. Pudendal neurovascular bundle
5. Internal obturator muscle
557. What anatomical structures pass through the Alkock's canal?
1. Internal pudendal artery

2. Internal pudendal vein
5. Pudendal nerve
558. The sciatic nerve passes from the small pelvis into the gluteal region through:
3. Suprapiriform foramen
559. The posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh passes from the small pelvis into the gluteal region through:
3. Suprapiriform foramen
560. The pudendal nerve, internal pudendal artery and veins pass into the ischiorectal fossa through:
4. Lesser sciatic foramen
561. Most of the fat spaces of pelvis are located within:
2. The subperitoneal storey
562. Name the parietal fat spaces of the subperitoneal
storey of pelvis:
1. Retropubic
3. Presacral
4. Lateral fat space
563. Name the venous plexuses located in the rectopubic fat
space of pelvis:
2. Vesico-prostatic (in men)
3. Vesical (in women)
564. The walls of the retropubic fat space of the pelvis are
formed by:
2. Prevesical fascia
4. Fascial folds located on both sides of the urinary
bladder
5. Pelvic diaphragm
6. Urogenital diaphragm
565. Where can the pus spread to from the retropubic space
of the pelvis?
4. Into the obturator canal
6. Into the femoral canal
566. Where can the pus spread to from the lateral fat space
of the pelvis?
1. Into the retroperitoneal tissue of pelvis
5. Into the inguinal canal
567. During drainage of the presacral fat space the
following layers must be cut:
1. Skin
2. Subcutaneous fat
3. Anococcygeal body
5. Ischiococcygeal muscle
568. Where can the pus spread to from the presacral fat
space?
1. Retroperitoneal fatty tissue
569. What are the contents of the lateral fat spaces of
pelvis?
1. Ureters
2. Nerve trunks of the sacral plexus

3. Internal iliac vessels and their branches
4. Internal iliac lymph nodes
8. Obturator nerve
570. During the operation on parametitis the accumulation
of pus was found in the preperitoneal fatty tissue of the
anterior abdominal wall near the deep ring of the inguinal
canal. Along what anatomical structure has the pus spread?
1. Along the round ligament of the uterus
571. What storeys of pelvis are the ischiorectal fossae
located in?
4. Subcutaneous storey
572. The ischiorectal fossa has the following walls:
1. Internal obturator muscle and its fascia
4. Levator ani muscle and its fascia
6. Ischial tuberosity
573. The perineal body consists of:
1. Bulbospongious muscle
3. Superficial transverse muscle of perineum
4. Deep transverse muscle of perineum
5. Levator ani muscle and its fasciae
6. Rectoprostatic fascia (aponeurosis of
Denonvilliers-Salishchev)
8. External anal sphincter
574. The voluntary sphincter of the urethra is formed by:
2. Deep transverse muscle of perineum

575. Name the ligaments, between which the dorsal vein of
the penis or clitoris passes into the retropubic fat space:
1. Arcuate ligaments
2. Transverse ligament of the perineum
576. The urogenital diaphragm consists of:
1. Deep transverse perineal muscle
5. External sphincter of urethra
577. Through the female urogenital diaphragm pass:
2. urethra
3. Vagina
578. The diaphragm of pelvis is formed by the following
two muscles:
2. Coccygeal muscle
3. Levator ani muscle
579. On the anterior surface of the uterus the peritoneum
covers:
1. Only the body of the uterus
580. On the posterior surface of the uterus the peritoneum
covers:
4. The body of the uterus, the supravaginal part of
the cervix and the posterior vaginal fornix
581. What ligament of uterus is formed by duplication of
peritoneum?
5. Broad ligament of uterus
582. The fixative apparatus of the uterus is formed by:

1. Vesicouterine ligaments
2. Sacrouterine ligaments
4. Cardinal ligaments
583. The suspensory apparatus of the uterus is formed by:
1. Broad ligament of the uterus
2. Round ligament of the uterus
584. Supportive apparatus of the uterus is formed by:
1. Pelvic floor
4. Urogenital diaphragm
585. What arteries supply the uterus?
I. Uterine artery
3. Arteries of the round ligament of uterus
4. Ovarian arteries
586. The ovaries are located behind the broad ligaments of
the uterus and arc fixed to it by:
1. Suspensory ligaments of the ovaries
2. Proper ovarian ligament
4. Mesovarium
587. The free surface of the ovary is adjacent to the ovarian
fossa (fossa ovarica), located on the lateral wall of pelvis.
What is this fossa bordered by?
1. External iliac vessels
2. The internal iliac vessels
3. Ureter
5. Broad ligament of uterus (the line of its

attachment to the pelvic wall)
588. Name the ligaments of the ovaries:
1. Suspensory ligament of ovary
3. Proper ovarian ligament
589. What arteries supply the ovaries?
I. Uterine artery
4. Ovarian arteries
590. Testicular artery is a branch of:
1. Abdominal aorta
591. The Fallopian tube is located:
1. Along the upper edge of the broad ligament of
uterus
592. The ovary is attached to the broad ligament of uterus:
4. On the posterior surface of the ligament at the
lateral wall of the pelvis
593. Uterine artery is a branch of:
1. Internal iliac artery
594. The ovarian artery is a branch of:
1. Abdominal aorta
595. In tubal pregnancy the rupture of the tube is
accompanied by bleeding with formation of hematoma in
the:
3. Rectouterine pouch
596. What is the anatomical premise for the possibility of
extraperitoneal puncture of the urinary bladder through the

abdominal wall?
4. high location of the transverse fold of peritoneum
when the bladder is full of urine
597. The prostate relative to the urinary bladder is located:
2. Inferiorly
598. What narrowing of urethra forms the greatest obstacle
during catheterization of male urethra?
2. The intermediate (membranous) part of urethra
599. What arteries supply the rectum?
1. Superior rectal artery
2. Middle rectal artery
4. Inferior rectal arteries
600. What layers of the abdominal wall should the
instrument pass through during drainage of the lateral fat
space of pelvis by Pirogov?
1. Skin
2. Subcutaneous fat
muscle
5. Transverse abdominis muscle and its fascia
601. What fat spaces of pelvis can be drained though the
perineum?
I. Ischiorectal fossa
2. Retropubic fat space

4. Presacral fat space
5. Lateral fat space
602. Name the layers of scrotum and tunics of testis:
{3.4.6.5.2.1}{change)
I. Vaginal tunic of testis
2. Internal spermatic fascia
3. Skin
4. Tunica dartos
5. Cremaster muscle
6. External spermatic fascia
603. Digital investigation of rectum in men is performed to
determine the condition of:
3. Prostate
Match the Pairs
604. Indicate the origin of the arteries supplying the rectum:
1. Superior rectal artery - Inferior mesenteric artery match
2. Middle rectal artery - Internal iliac artery
3. Inferior rectal artery - Internal pudendal artery
605. Rectal narcosis with usage of chloral hydrate can
worsen the condition of the liver in its diseases. Indicate the
three veins, which are responsible for transportation of
chloral hydrate into the liver:

2. Superior rectal vein
4. Inferior mesenteric vein
3. Portal vein
606. The supraampullar part of rectum is covered by
peritoneum:
1. From all the sides
607. The ampulla of rectum is mostly covered by
peritoneum:
2. From three sides
608. The lower part of rectum is covered by peritoneum:
3. Is not covered by peritoneum al all
609. The lymph flows from the rectum into:
1. The internal iliac lymph nodes
2. The sacral lymph nodes
3. The superior rectal and the inferior mesenteric
lymph nodes
610. During the extirpation of rectum (in a case of cancer)
complete removal of presacral fatty tissue is necessary due
to:
3. The possibility of presence of tumor's
metastasises in the sacral lymph nodes
611. Indicate the operative approaches to the organs of
small pelvis:
1. Inferior midline laparotomy

2. Transverse suprapubic approach by Pfannenstiel
3. Interiliac transverse by Czerny
5. Perineal approach
612. The following anatomical structures are dissected
while making the counteropening by Krayzelburd
(ascending way) for drainage of the lateral fat spaces of
pelvis:
{1,6,2,5}
1. The skin
2. The fatty tissue of the ischiorectal fossa
3. The urogenital diaphragm
4. The internal obturator muscle
S. The tendinous arch of levator ani muscle
6. The superficial fascia
613. The drainage of the retropubic fat space by
McWhorter-Buyalskiy is performed through the following
anatomical formations:
1. The skin
2. The subcutaneous fatty tissue
4. The short adductor muscle
5. The external obturator muscle
6. The obturator membrane
7. The internal obturator muscle
614. Cardinal ligaments:

2. fixed apparatus
615. The round ligaments of the uterus relate to:

I. The suspensory apparatus
616. The broad ligaments of the uterus relate to:
1. The suspensory apparatus
617. The sacrouterine ligaments relate to:
2. The fixative apparatus
The Upper Extremity
618. The anterior wall of the axillary cavity is formed by:
I. The major and minor pectoral muscles
619. The posterior wall of the axillary cavity is formed by:
5. Subscapularis, teres major and latissimus dorsi
muscles
620. The medial wall of the axillary cavity is formed by:
2. The thoracic wall with the serratus anterior
muscle
621. The lateral wall of the axillary cavity is formed by:
4. The humerus with coracobrachial muscle and
biccps brachii muscle
622. Indicate two diseases listed below, which are most
characteristic for the skin of the axillary region:
2. Hydradenitis
3. Furuncles
623. The surgeon exposes the axillary neurovascular bundle
by incision along the anterior border of the axillary region.
The first anatomical structure he will see is:
2. The axillary vein

624. During the operation in the axillary cavity the surgeon
needs to find the median nerve. What is the distinctive sign
of the median nerve in the axillary cavity?
3. It is formed by connection of two rootlets
625. The upper and lower borders of the clavipectoral
triangle are the following two structures:
1. The lower margin of the clavicle
3. The upper margin of the minor pectoral muscle
626. The upper and lower borders of the pectoral triangle
are the following two structures:
3. The upper margin of the minor pectoral muscle
4. The lower margin of the minor pectoral muscle
627. The upper and lower borders of the subpectoral
triangle are the following two structures:
4. The lower margin of the minor pectoral muscle
5. The lower margin of the major pectoral muscle
628. The trunks of the brachial plexus in the axillary cavity
at the level of the clavipectoral triangle in relation to the
axillary artery are located:
4. Superiorly and posteriorly
at the level of the pectoral triangle in relation to the axillary
artery are located:
2. Medially, laterally and posteriorly

at the level of the subpectoral triangle in relation to the
axillary artery are located:
5. From all sides
631. how is the axillary vein located in relation to the
axillary artery in the axillary region?
I. The vein is located in front of the artery and
medially
632. How is the brachial plexus located in relation to the
axillary artery in the clavipectoral triangle?
1. Laterally and posteriorly
633. The suprascapular artery is one of the main arteries
participating in formation of the collateral circle of blood
circulation of the upper limb. It is the branch of:
5. Thyrocervical trunk
634. In the patient with fracture of the clavicle the lateral
fragment of the clavicle is dislocated down. What muscle
tension has caused this dislocation?
1. Major pectoral muscle
635. The axillary artery can be ligated:
2. Slightly above a. subscapularis
636. During examination of the patient the incised wound
of the axillary region with slight injury of coracobrachialis
muscle at the level of the superior margin of latissimus
dorsi muscle's tendon was found. The wound has been
healed with primary intention, but the patient loss of

sensation on the lateral side of the forearm. What element
of the neurovascular bundle could be injured to produce this
symptom?
4. Musculocutaneous nerve
637. What nerve adjoins the axillary artery in the
subpectoral triangle from the lateral side?
2. The musculocutaneous nerve
638. What nerve adjoins the axillary artery in the
subpectoral triangle from the medial side?
3. The ulnar nerve
639. What structure adjoins the axillary artery in the
pectoral triangle from the medial side?
4. The medial cord of the brachial plexus
640. What structure adjoins the axillary artery in the
subpectoral triangle from the posterior side?
2. The radial nerve
641. The axillary fat space communicates with the fat space
of subclavian region along:
4. The axillary artery
642. The axillary fat space communicates with the
subdeltoid fat space along:
4. The axillary nerve
643. The axillary fat space communicates with the
subscapular fat space along:

1. The subscapular artery and vein
644. In a patient, after drainage of the subdeltoid phlegmon
by the incision along the posterior margin of the deltoid
muscle, the abduction of the arm in the shoulder joint has
become disturbed. This complication was a result of the
injury of the:
4. Axillary nerve
645. What two structures pass through the quadrilateral
foramen, located on the posterior wall of the axillary
cavity?
3. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
5. Axillary nerve
646. What anatomical elements pass through the
quadrilateral foramen?
4. N. axillaris et a. circumflexa humeri posterior
647. What anatomical element pass through the trilateral
foramen?
1. Circumflex artery of scapula
648. The anterior purulent leakage in a phlegmon of the
axillary cavity is situated between the:
1. Thoracic wall and the major pectoral muscle
649. During the operation on phlegmon of the axillary
cavity the purulent leakage in the subdeltoid fat space was
found. How has it developed?
2. Through the quadrilateral foramen along the

axillary nerve
650. In phlegmon of axillary cavity the purulent process
can spread into the posterior fascial compartment of the arm
along the:
3. Radial nerve
651. Four of the listed nerves originate from the medial
cord of the brachial plexus:
1. The ulnar nerve
4. The medial radix of the median nerve
5. The medial cutaneous nerve of the arm
6. The medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm
652. Two of the listed nerves originate from the lateral cord
of the brachial plexus:
3. The lateral radix of the median nerve
7. The musculocutaneous nerve
653. Two of the listed nerves originate from the posterior
cord of the brachial plexus:
2. The radial nerve
654. The capsule of the shoulder joint is attached:
1. To the anatomical neck of humerus
655. The dislocations in the shoulder joint most frequently
occur in the direction, which is not strengthen by muscles
and bony structures. What is this direction?
1. Anterior
656. In a patient after reposition of dislocation of the
shoulder joint the following symptoms were discovered:
disturbance of abduction of the upper limb to the horizontal
level, disorders of skin sensitivity on the lateral surface of
the arm. The other movements in the shoulder joint are free,
including passive abduction of the arm.These
complications are result in injury of the
4. Axillary nerve
657. The subscapular synovial bursa of the shoulder joint is
located between the
2. Neck of scapula and subscapular muscle
658. During the puncture of the shoulder joint from the
anterior side the needle is introduced:
1. Under the coracoid process of the scapula
659. During the puncture of the shoulder joint from the
posterior side the needle is introduced:
3. Under the posterior margin of acromion, between
the posterior edge of deltoid muscle and inferior
edge of supraspinatus muscle
660. What structure adjoins the shoulder joint from the
lateral side?
1. The deltoid muscle
661. What muscles adjoin the shoulder joint from the
posterior side?
2. The teres minor muscle

3. The supraspinatus muscle
4. The infraspinatus muscle
662. What muscles adjoin the shoulder joint medially and
anteriorly?
I. The subscapularis muscle
2. The coracobrachialis muscle
3. The short head of the biceps brachii muscle
4. The pectoralis major muscle
663. The skin of the anteromedial surface of the arm is
innervated by the medial cutaneous nerve of the arm, which
arises from the:
2. Medial cord of the brachial plexus
664. The skin of the lateral surface of the arm is innervated
by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm, which arises from
the:
4. Axillary nerve
665. The skin of the posterior surface of the arm is
innervated by the posterior cutaneous nerve of the arm,
which arises from the:
2. Radial nerve
666. What two fascial compartments are located on the
arm?
1. Posterior
4. Anterior
667. The knowledge of the number and boundaries of the

fascial compartments on the arm is important:
1. To perform the regional anesthesia
2. To understand the ways of spreading of the
purulent processes
3. To understand how will hematomas spread
668. Three muscles from the listed are situated in the
anterior fascial compartment of the arm:
1. Biceps brachii muscle
3. Coracobrachialis muscle
5. Brachialis muscle
669. What muscle from the listed is located in the posterior
fascial compartment of the arm?
2. Triceps brachii muscle
670. The brachialis muscle is located in the following
fascial compartment:
4. Anterior
671. The biceps brachii muscle is located in the following
4. Anterior
672. The triceps brachii muscle is located in the following
1. Posterior
673. The pulsation of the brachial artery can be found:
4. At middle of the medial surface of arm
674. To expose the brachial artery the roundabout approach

is used. This is caused by:
I. Location of the median nerve on the medial
surface of the brachial artery
675. The projection line of the brachial artery is the line
drawn:
3. From the deepest point of the axillary fossa to the
midpoint between the medial epicondyle of humerus
and the tendon of biceps brachii muscle
676, While making the roundabout approach to the brachial
artery the skin incision is performed:
2. 1-1,5 cm anteriorly from the sulcus bicipitalis
medialis
677. For the roundabout approach to the humeral artery
only two statements from the listed are correct:
1. It is performed through the anterior fascial
compartment
3. The biceps brachii muscle and brachialis muscle
arc retracted laterally
678. What nerve may be damaged with the fracture of the
surgical neck of humerus?
679. What nerve may be damaged with the fracture of
humerus in its middle third part?
2. The radial nerve
680. The surgeon has exposed the brachial artery in the

superior third part of the arm to provide its ligation. Now he
is thinking about the proper level of the ligation: before or

after the origin of the deep brachial artery. What is the preferable level to preserve the blood supply in the
distal part of the extremity?
2. The better level is the level below the origin of the
deep brachial artery
681. In a patient with fracture of the humerus at the level of
the surgical neck the large hematoma was formed in the
area of the fracture. Most probably this is the result damage
of the:
3. A. circumflexa humeri posterior
Match the Pairs
682. While performing the primary surgical treatment of the
wound of the arm the surgeon was forced to perform the
ligation of the brachial artery between the origin of the deep
brachial artery and origin of the superior ulnar collateral
artery. Indicate the two main anastomoses between the
collateral and recurrent arteries. which provide the
collateral blood circulation"
3. Middle collateral artery A. Middle recurrent artery
4. Radial collateral artery B. Radial recurrent artery
683. Two statements from the listed arc correct in relation
to humeromuscular canal:
1. It is located between triceps brachii muscle and

spiral groove of humerus
4. It connects the axillary cavity with the anterior
cubital region
684. The following two structures are located in the
humeromuscular canal:
2. Deep brachial artery
4. Radial nerve
685. What anatomical landmark corresponds to the
projection line of the brachial artery?
1. Sulcus bicipitalis medialis
686. The median nerve in relation to the brachial artery in
the upper third of the arm is located:
3. Laterally
687. The projection of the median nerve (used to perform
the block anesthesia) in the elbow region is located:
2. In the midpoint between the medial epicondyle of
humerus and the medial margin of the tendon of
biceps brachii muscle
688. While measuring blood pressure the capsule of the
stethoscope in the cubital fossa should be placed:
3. At the medial margin of the tendon of biceps
brachii muscle
689. While exposing the brachial artery in the cubital fossa
the surgeon should remember, that the median nerve in
relation to this artery is situated:

4. Medially
690. Several arteries participate in the formation of the
collateral network of the elbow joint. What artery forms the
anastomosis with the anterior branch of the ulnar recurrent
artery?
4. Inferior ulnar collateral artery
691. At the level of the elbow joint the ulnar nerve is
located:
4. Posteriorly. between the medial epicondyle of
humerus and olecranon
692. At the level of the elbow joint the radial nerve is
located:
1. Anteriorly, in the lateral ulnar sulcus
693. What branches does the radial nerve divide into in the
anterior lateral sulcus of the cubital fossa?
1. The superficial and deep
694. The median nerve in the upper third part of the
forearm is located:
2. Between the heads of the pronator teres
695. The puncture of the elbow joint posteriorly at the
medial epicondyle of humerus is not performed because of
the risk of damage of the:
2. Ulnar nerve
696. The skin of the anteromedial surface of the forearm is
innervated by the medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm,

3. Medial cord of a brachial plexus
697. The skin of the lateral surface of the forearm is
innervated by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm,
4. Musculocutaneous nerve
698. The skin of the posterior surface of the forearm is
innervated by the posterior cutaneous nerve of the forearm,
3. Radial nerve
699. There are three fascial compartments of the forearm:
1. Anterior, posterior, lateral
700. How many muscular layers are distinguished in the
middle third part of the anterior region of the forearm?
4. Four
701. In relation to the radial artery the superficial branch of
the radial nerve in the upper and middle thirds parts of the
forearm is located:
3. Laterally
Match the Pairs
702. The deep fat space of the forearm (the Pirogov's
space). which is located in the lower third part of the
anterior region of the forearm, is bordered:
1. Anteriorly A. Long flexor of the thumb C. Deep flexor of the fingers

2. Posteriorly B. Quadrate pronator D. Interosseous membrane
703. The median nerve is located in the groove of the same
name in the:
3. Inferior third part of the forearm
704. What nerve is located on the anterior surface of the
lower third part of the forearm and can be mistaken for a
tendon?
I. Median nerve
705. In the ulnar sulcus of the anterior region of the forearm
the ulnar nerve is not accompanied by the ulnar artery:
1. In the upper third part
706. In the radial sulcus of the anterior region of the
forearm the radial artery is not accompanied by the
superficial branch of the radial nerve:
3. In the lower third part
707. Describe the projection line of the radial artery:
2. From the medial edge of the tendon of biceps
brachii muscle to the point located on 0,5 cm
medially from the styloid process of radius
708. Two statements from the listed are true concerning the
operative approach to the ulnar artery:
1. The projection line of the artery runs from the
middle of the cubital fossa to the pisiform bone

3. The ulnar artery is located laterally from the ulnar
nerve
709. For drainage of the phlegmon of the Pirogov's fat
space the incisions are made:
5. On the lateral and medial surfaces of the forearm
710. How many tendons are present in the carpal canal?
4. Nine
711. The border between the zones of cutaneous
innervation of the ulnar and median nerves on the palmar
surface of the hand and fingers corresponds to the middle
line of the:
4. 4th finger
712. The border between the zones of cutaneous
innervation of the radial and ulnar nerves on the dorsal
surface of the hand and fingers corresponds to the middle
line of the:
3. 3d finger
713. How many fascial compartments are present in the
palmar department of the hand?
3. Three
714. As a result of the incised wound, located in the region
of thenar, the disturbance of the thumb's opposition has appeared. What is the most probable reason for
such complication?
1. The injury of the branches of the median nerve
supplying the corresponding muscle

715. What structure's injury is the most dangerous in a case
of injuries of the proximal part of thenar (the so-called
"forbidden area")?
3. The motor branch of the median nerve with
further disturbance of the opposition of the thumb
716. What finger's motor function will be affected in a case
of the injury of the superficial branch of the radial nerve?
5. No one finger
717. The superficial palmar arch is formed by connection of
the:
2. Ulnar artery with the superficial branch of the
radial artery
718. The deep palmar arch is formed by connection of the:
3. Radial artery with the deep branch of the ulnar
artery
Match the Pairs
719. The palmar arterial arches are located in the following
layers:
I. The superficial palmar arch B. Between the palmar aponeurosis and
tendons of the superficial flexor muscle of
fingers
2. The deep palmar arch D. Between the tendons of the deep flexor
muscle of fingers and the bones of wrist

720. The subaponeurotic fat space of the palm is located
between the:
2. Palmar aponeurosis and the tendons of the
superficial flexor muscle of fingers
721. The distal border of the synovial sheaths of the fingers
is located at the level of the:
3. Base of the distal phalange
722. Where are the distal borders of the synovial sheaths of
the flexor tendons of the II-IV fingers located?
1. At the level of the base of the distal phalange
723. The proximal border of the synovial sheaths of the II-
IV fingers is located at the level of the:
2. Heads of the metacarpal bones
724. The proximal border of the lateral and medial synovial
sheaths of the hand, which are the continuation of the
synovial sheaths of. respectively, 1" and 5th fingers, is most
frequently located:
3. 2 cm proximally from the apex of the styloid
process of the radius
725. The classification of panaritiums includes the
following types:
1. Subungual
2. Cutaneous
4. Воny
5. Articular
726. The acute pain in a case of subcutaneous panaritium of
the palmar surface of the finger is caused by:
4. Stretching of the fibrous septa, present in the
subcutaneous fatty tissue
727. The subcutaneous tissue of the palm communicates
through the commissural openings of the palmar
aponeurosis with:
1. Subaponeurotic palmar fat space
728. The subcutaneous panaritium of the distal phalange
can be complicated with:
2. Osteal panaritium
729. The skin incisions in a case of panaritium should not
cross the line of the interphalangeal joints. Why?
2. To prevent the damage of the articular ligaments
730. The inflammatory processes on the palmar surface of
the fingers are frequently accompanied by pronounced
edema of the dorsal side of the hand. What is the reason of
this fact?
3. The passage of most of the lymphatic vessels onto
the dorsal surface of the hand
731. One of the complications of acute purulent
tendovaginitis is necrosis of the flexor tendons of the
finger. What is the reason of this fact?
3. The compression of the mesotendineum by the

pus accumulating in the synovial sheath
732. In a patient the acute purulent tendovaginitis of the 1"
finger has complicated with U-shaped (cross) phlegmon of
the hand. Why?
3. Due to the presence of inconstant communication
between the medial and lateral synovial sheaths of
the palm
733. In a case of purulent tendovaginitis the incisions in the
region of the distal phalanges:
1. Are not performed due to the absence of the
synovial sheaths on the distal phalanges
734. For drainage of the purulent tendovaginitis the
following statement is correct:
2. The dissection of mesotendineum is forbidden: it
will disturb the blood supply of the tendon and will
cause its necrosis
735. The need for urgent surgical intervention in a case of
purulent tendovaginitis of the flexor tendons of the fingers
can be explained by:
3. The possibility of necrosis of the tendons due to
compression of their mesotendineum
736. The incisions on the fingers of the hand in purulent
tendovaginitis should be performed:
5. On the anterolateral surfaces without involvement
of the regions of the interphalangeal joints

737. The important feature of the subcutaneous purulent
process on the distal phalange of the finger is, that the pus
will spread:
1. Towards the bone
738. What nerve's injury is accompanied by flaccid
paralysis of the muscles, which extend the fingers and the
wrist?
4. Deep branch of the radial nerve
739. The space below the inguinal ligament is divided into:
4. Muscular, vascular lacunae
740, The muscular and vascular lacunae are divided by:
4. Iliopectineal arch
741. The two following anatomical structures pass through
the muscular lacuna:
3. Femoral nerve
5. Iliopsoas muscle
742. The femoral nerve goes onto the thigh through:
4. Lacuna musculorum
743. The patient has tuberculous spondylitis of the 3d
lumbar vertebra. During examination the "cold" migrating
abscess in the anterior region of the thigh was found. How
did the abscess reached the thigh?
3. Along the iliopsoas muscle
744. The space below the inguinal ligament is divided into
the following parts:

4. Muscular, vascular lacunae
Match the Pairs
745. The vascular lacuna is limited by:
1. Anteriorly C. Inguinal ligament
2. Posteriorly A. Pectineal ligament
3. Laterally D. Iliopectineal arch
4. Medially B. Lacunar ligament
746. The muscular lacuna is limited by:
1. Anteriorly C. Inguinal ligament
2. Posterolateral A. Ilium
3. Medially B. Iliopectineal arch
747. What does the femoral canal contain?
3. Femoral hernia
748. Choose four anatomical structures, which arc located
in the vascular lacuna:
1. Femoral artery
2. Femoral vein
5. Lymph node
7. Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve
749. The walls of the femoral canal are formed by:
I. Femoral vein, superficial and deep layers of fascia
lata
Match the Pairs
750. The femoral ring (the deep ring of the femoral canal) is bordered by:
I. Anteriorly- D. Inguinal ligament
2. Posteriorly- B. Pectineal ligament
3. Laterally- A. Femoral vein
4. Medially- C. Lacunar ligament
751. The femoral ring is medially bordered by the:
4. Lacunar ligament
752. The femoral ring is laterally bordered by the:
5. Fascial compartment of femoral vein
753. The hernial sac of the femoral hernia is usually located:
4. Medially from the femoral vein
754. Choose two correct statements about the saphenous opening (superficial ring of the femoral canal):
1. It is normally closed by cribriform fascia
5. It is located in the frontal plane
755. In the case of strangulated femoral hernia it is necessary to cut the:
3. Lacunar ligament
756. What anatomical structures pass through the anterior opening of adductor canal?
2. Saphenous nerve
3. Descending artery of knee
757. The lateral border of the femoral triangle is the:
2. Sartorius muscle
758. The skin of the anterior surface of thigh is innervated by cutaneous branch of the:
3. Femoral nerve
759. The femoral artery in the femoral triangle is located:
4. Medially to the femoral nerve
760. The deep femoral artery gives rise to the:
1. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
2. Perforate arteries
4. Medial circumflex femoral artery
761. The surgeon is going to ligate the femoral artery in the superior third part of the thigh. Should the
artery be ligated above or below the origin of the deep femoral artery?
2. It is better to ligate it below the origin of the deep femoral artery
762. There are two anatomical structures in the adductor canal:
1. Femoral artery
2. Femoral vein
763. How many fascial compartments are present on the thigh?
3. Three
764. What muscles are located in the anterior compartment of the thigh?
3. sartorius muscle
5. quadriceps muscle of thigh
765. The perforating arteries (the branches of the deep femoral artery) perforate the:
2. great adductor muscle
766. What five muscles of the listed are located in the medial compartment of the thigh?
1.Great adductor muscle

2. pectineal muscle
4. long adductor muscle
5. short adductor muscle
7. gracilis muscle
767. How can the blood supply of the lower extremity be restored after thrombosis, injury or ligation of the
femoral artery in the middle third part of the thigh?
3. by the deep femoral artery

768. The femoral vein in relation to the femoral artery in the superior third part of the thigh is located:
3. medially
769. The skin of the lateral surface of thigh is innervated by lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh, which
originates from the:
1.lumbar plexus
770.The fatty tissue of the medial fascial compartment of thigh communicates through the obturator
foramen with:
2. prevesical fat space of pelvis
771. What does the adductor canal connect to the popliteal fossa?
1.The anterior fascial compartment of thigh
772. The lower opening of the adductor canal is formed by:
4. it is an opening in the tendon of great adductor muscle
773. The wall of the adductor canal are formed by:
1.anterolateral- lamina vastoadductoria

2.posteromedial – great adductor muscle
3.posterior- vastus medialis muscle
774. The femoral vein in relation to femoral artery in the adductor canal is located:
3. posteriorly
775. the blood flow in the lower extremity after thrombosis or ligation of the femoral artery in the middle
third part of the thigh can be restored by the:
3.deep femoral artery
776. In the gluteal region the first muscular layer is formed by the:
1.gluteus maximus muscle
777. In the gluteal region the second muscular layer is formed by the:
1.gemellus
3.internal obturator muscle
4.piriform muscle
5.quadrate muscle of thigh
8.gluteus medius muscle
778. In the gluteal region the third muscular layer is formed by the:
3.gluteus minimus muscle

4 .external obturator muscle
779.Through the suprapiriform foramen from small pelvis to the gluteal region the following artery and
nerve run:
1.superior gluteal artery

4.superior gluteal nerve
780.Through the infrapiriform foramen from small pelvis to the gluteal region the following 2 arteries and
4 nerves run:
2.internal pudendal artery

3.inferior gluteal artery
5.posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
6.inferior gluteal nerve
7.pudendal nerve
8.sciatic nerve
781.What structure doesn’t pass through the infrapiriform foramen from the small pelvis to the gluteal
region?
3. femoral nerve
782.Through the lesser sciatic foramen into the ischiorectal fossa the following artery and nerve pass:
2.internal pudendal artery

7.pudendal nerve
783.The deep phlegmon of the gluteal region is most frequently localized:
3.between gluteus maximus and medius muscle
784. Why is it dangerous to injure the superior gluteal artery?
2. it may lead to dislocation of the central end of the vessel into the pelvic cavity and profuse internal
bleeding
785.What muscle divides the greater sciatic foramen into two parts?
2. piriform muscle
786. What structure is located most medially in the infrapiriform foramen?
2.pudendal nerve
787. What structure is located most laterally in the infrapiriform foramen?
1.sciatic nerve
788.Where does the pudendal neurovascular bundle run after passage through the infrapiriform foramen?
3. into the ischiorectal fossa through the lesser sciatic foramen
789. In a patient with diabetes mellitus the postinjection phlegmon of the subgluteal space has spread into
the posterior compartment of the thigh. Such spreading could occur along the:
4.sciatic nerve
790.The purulent paraprocitis has formed the phlegmon in the ischiorectal fossa, which has spread into the
subgluteal fat space. Such spreading has occurred through the :
2.lesser sciatic foramen
791. Describe the communication of the subgluteal fat space:

MATCH
1.with lateral fat space pelvis- B. through the infrapiriform foramen
2.with fatty tissue of the posterior fascial compartment of thigh- C. along the sciatic nerve
3.with ischiorectal fossa- A. through the lesser sciatic nerve
792.The skin of the posterior surface of thigh is innervated by posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh, which
originates from the:
2.sacral plexus
793.There are 3 muscles in the posterior fascial compartment of thigh:
1.biceps muscle of thigh

3.semimembranous muscle
4.semitendinous muscle
794. How is it possible to recognize the biceps muscle of thigh in the wound?
3.it is located laterally and runs vertically
795. The capsule of the hip joint is attached to the femur:
3. at the femoral neck: anteriorly- along the intertrochanteric line, posteriorly- between the external
and middle third parts of the neck
796. Where should the needle be introduced in a case of puncture of the hip joint by lateral approach?
2.above the tip of the greater trochanter in the frontal plane (with the thigh being medially rotated
and slightly abducted)
797. The hip joint is covered from the anterior side by all the structures, except for:
1.gluteus medius muscle
798. The floor of popliteal fossa is formed by the:
3.planum popliteum femoris

4.lig. popliteum obliquum
5.popliteal muscle
799. What is the practical importance of jobert’s fossa?
3. it is used to perform the approach to the popliteal artery from the medial side
800. What is the order of the elements of the popliteal neurovascular bundle from the posterior to the
anterior side?
1.nerve,vein,artery
801. During the operation on the phlegmon of the popliteal fossa the surgeon has found the spreading of
the pus into the lateral compartment of the leg. What was the way of spreading of the infection?
1.superior musculoperoneal canal
802. During the operation on the phlegmon of the popliteal fossa the surgeon has found the spreading if the
pus into the posterior region of the thigh. What was the way of spreading of the infection?
4. along the sciatic nerve
803. The purulent gonitis was complicated by accumulation of pus in the popliteal fossa and spreading of
the infection into the posterior compartment of leg. What is the possible way of such spreading of the
infection?
2. through the crurupopliteal canal
804. Acute thrombosis of the popliteal artery at the level of the articular fissure of the knee joint has
stopped the blood flow in the main artery. The blood flow can be restored due to the presence of the
articular network, formed by the four arteries from the listed below:
1.femoral artery
2. deep artery of thigh
5. anterior tibial artery
6. popliteal artery
805. The phlegmon of the popliteal fossa can spread into the anterior region of the thigh:
3. Through adductor canal
806. What nerve can be injured while drainage of the posterolateral recesses of the knee joint?
2. The common peroneal nerve
807. The two statements about the knee joint are correct:
3. The anterior superior recess of the joint can have the communication with the suprapatellar bursa
4. The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments are the internal ligaments of the joint
808. How many synovial recesses does the knee joint have?
5. 13
809. All arteries, except one, participate in formation of the frontal arterial network of the knee joint:
3. Middle genicular artery
810. The projection line of the anterior tibial artery is drawn:

4. From the midpoint between the head of fibula and tibial tuberosity to the midpoint between
medial and lateral ankles
811. The paralytic pendulous foot (“pes equinus”) occurs when the following nerve is damaged:
1. Deep peroneal nerve
812. There are 3 muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg:

1. Extensor hallucis longus
2. Extensor digitorum longus
6. Anterior tibial muscle
813. There are 2 muscles in the lateral compartment of the leg:

1. Long peroneal muscle
4. Short peroneal muscle
814. There are 4 muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg:

4. Flexor hallucis longus
5. Flexor digitorum longus
6. Posterior tibial muscle
7. Triceps muscle of calf
815. The anterior wall of the crurupopliteal canal is formed by:

3. Tibialis posterior muscle
816. How many openings does the crurupopliteal canal have?

2. 1 inlet opening and 2 outlet openings
817. The superficial peroneal nerve in the superior third part of the leg is located:
2. In the superior musculoperoneal canal
818. What structure participates in formation of one of the walls of the superior musculoperoneal canal?
2. Fibular bone
819. What is located in the superior musculoperoneal canal?

2. Common peroneal nerve
3. Superficial peroneal nerve
820. In the crurupopliteal canal the following structures are located:

2. Posterior tibial artery and vein
4. Tibial nerve
821. The neurovascular bundle of the anterior compartment of the leg includes:
1. Anterior tibial artery
4. Anterior tibial veins
822. To expose the anterior neurovascular bundle of the leg in the inferior half of the leg the surgeon after
dissection of the proper fascia should penetrate between:
2. The anterior tibial muscle and extensor hallucis longus
823. What vein is most greatly changed in a case of varicose dilation of the veins of the lower extremity?
2. Vena saphena magna
824. The Babcock’s operation on the varicose dilation of the veins consist of:
4. Removal of the vena saphena magna with venous extractor
825. The foot will be in a state of maximal dorsal flexion (“the heel foot”, pes calcaneus) after the damage
of the:
4. Tibial nerve
826. What structure passes through the inferior musculoperoneal canal?

3. Peroneal artery
827. The effect of the musculovenous pump of the lower extremity is explained by:
2. Presence of valves in the veins of the lower extremity
828. The medial malleolar canal transmits all the structures except:
4. Tendon of long peroneal muscle
829. The medial malleolar canal proximally is connected to the:

1. Posterior compartment of the leg
830. To estimate the condition of the arteries of the lower extremity the doctor will examine the pulsation
on the dorsal artery of the foot first. The projection line of this artery runs from the midpoint between the
ankles towards:
2. The first interdigital space
831. The dorsal artery of the foot is located between the tendons of the:
2. Extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus
832. The tibial nerve can be exposed by making the incision:

4. Behind the medial ankle
833. The pulsation on the posterior tibial artery can be found:

4. Behind the medial ankle
834. The plantar canal proximally communicates with the:

2. Calcaneal canal
835. Subcutaneous fatty tissue of the sole communicates with subaponeurotic fatty tissue through:
4. Commissural openings
836. The fatty tissue of the middle compartment of the foot communicates with fatty tissue of the calcaneal
and malleolar canals along the:
2. Lateral neurovascular bundle of the foot
837. What muscle tendon is located in the medial malleolar canal most posteriorly?
2. Flexor hallucis longus
838. The lateral plantar nerve innervates the following muscles:

1. Muscles of the lateral fascial compartment
4. Interosseus muscles
6. Two lateral lumbrical muscles
839. What wall of the femoral ring should be dissected in a case of strangulated femoral hernia?
4. Medial
840. What walls of the femoral canal are sutured using the plastic method of Bassini?
4. Anterosuperior and inferoposterior
841. Operating the femoral hernia using the femoral approach the surgeon sutures together:
2. Inguinal and pectineal ligaments
842. What is the main problem of the femoral approach for operation on femoral hernia?
2. Possibility of increase of the inguinal space after dislocation of the inguinal ligament down
843. What structures are sutured in the medial angle of the wound using the method of Ruggi-Parlavecchio?
5. Pectineal ligament
844. What structures are sutured in the lateral angle of the wound using the method Ruggi-Parlavecchio?
845. Corona mortis (“crown of death”) is a variant of origin of the artery:

4. Obturator artery
846. What walls of the deep femoral ring are sutured using the method of ruggi?
1. Anterosuperior and posteroinferior
847. What structures are sutured using the method of ruggi on femoral hernias?
2. Inguinal ligament and iliopectineal fascia
848. Amputation of extremity is the removal of the:

4. Limb at the level of the bone
849. Disarticulation of extremity is the removal of the:

2. Limb at the level of joint
850. The “ level of the amputation” is:

3. The place, where the bone is cut
851. In “ disaster surgery” the more widely used amputation are:

3. Circular amputations
852. The length of the flap in a flap- method amputation is calculated:

4. According to the formula of the length of circumference taking into account the
Elastic shortening of the skin.
853. The postoperative scar at the end of the amputation should be better located:
2. On the non-working surface
854. The circular amputation can be:

1. One moment
2. Two moment
3. Three moment
5. Guillotine
855. The primary indications for amputation are:

3. Complete separation of the distal part of the limb
4. necrosis of the distal part of the limb
5.open damage of the limb, which combines complete rupture of the neurovascular
Bundles, bone fragmentation and destruction of more than 2/3 of the volume of soft tissues.
856. To prevent the during amputation the surgeon can use:

3. Usage of the tourniquet
857. Why are the end of the nerves during amputation truncated?
2. To prevent the development of phantom pains
858. What is used for retraction of the muscles in the proximal direction (after their disection)
during the amputations?
1. Gauze retractor
3. Metal retractor
859. The aperiostal method of treating the bone during amputation consists of the dissection of
periosteum, its retraction distally and sawing the bone:
3. 2-3 mm away from the periosteum
860. During the cone-circular amputation of the thigh by pirogov the first moment incision
involves:
4. The skin, subcutaneous tissue and superficial fascia
861. What tissues are cut during the second moment of the three-moment cone-circular
amputation of the thigh by pirogov?
2. Superficial muscles
862. Before making the third moment of the three-moment cone-circular amputation of the thigh
by pirogov it is necessary:
3. To retract the skin and the superficial muscles as much as possible
863. Define the three moments of the three-moment cone-circular amputation of the thigh by
pirogov:
1. Dissection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue and superficial fascia
2. Dissection of the superficial muscles along the edge of the retracted skin
4. Dissection of deep muscles
864. In bone plastic amputation of the leg by pirogov the surface of the sawn tibia is covered by:
3. The tuber of the calcaneus
865. Excision of the articular capsule is called:
3. Synovectomy
866. The excision of the articular ends of the bones affected by any pathological process is called:
1. Resection of joint
867. The operation of fixing the joint in the predetermined position is known as:
1. Arthrodesis
868. The operation performed to restore the mobility in the joint by dissection of the fibrous
adhesions between the articular surfaces is known as:
2. Arthrolysis
869. The operation of recovery of the joint’s function by replacing the damaged or dysfunctional
elements is called:
3. Arthroplasty
870. The vascular suture has the following requirements:

5. All variants are correct
871. What is neurolysis?
2. Making of the nerve free from the cicatricial (skar) adhesions
872. The tendon suture has the following requirements:
5. All statements are correct
873. It is necessary to provide the revision of the wound during the drainage of abscess?
2. The revision of the wound is necessary for drainage of the purulent leakages and recesses
874. Who were the heads of the department of operative surgery and topographical anatomy in the
first moscow medical university named after M.I sechenov in different years?
2. A.A. bobrov
3. N.N. burdenko
5. V.V. kovanov
7. A.V. nikolaev
875. While describing the relationship between the anatomical elements in the three-dimensional
space, the human body is considered in the following standard position:
4. Standing with the arms at sides and palms facing anteriorly
876. Holotopy is:
3. The position of the organs in relation to the body, its parts and their regions
877. Syntopy is:
2. The relationship of the organ with neighbouring organs
878. The most important propositions about the structure and position of the vascular fascial
sheaths were first formulated by:
3. N.I. pirogov
879. The founder of the theory of the individual variability of the structure and position of the
organs and systems of the human body was:
3. V.N. Shevkunenko
880. The radical operation is:
2. The operation which completely eliminates the pathological focus
881. The palliative operation is”
1. The operation which eliminates the main symptom threatening the life of the patient.
882. The operation of choice is:
2. The best operation for the treatment of the disease, corresponding to modern scientific
achievements
883. The stages of the operation are:
1. Operative approach
4. Operative method (maneuver)
5. Closing of the operative wound
884. The direct approach to the artery is:
3. The approach performed strictly along the projection line of the artery
885. The roundabout approach to the artery is:
2. The approach performed outside of the projection line of the artery
886. The collateral blood circulation is:
2. The blood flow through the lateral branches after termination of the blood flow through
the main vessel
887. The acute pain syndrome in development of purulent inflammation in closed fascial spaces
can by explained by:
3. The rapid increase of pressure in the closed space, which leads to increasing muscular
ischemia
888. Why are the projection lines of the arteries usually drawn through the bony landmarks?
3. Due to the invariability of their position
889. The fat space is:

3. The fatty tissue located between the fascias, which cover covering the muscles or other
organs
890. The fatty fissure is:

4. The fatty tissue located between the organ and its fascial sheath

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The Head

Specify the Sequence

1. The layers of the fronto-parieto-occipital region are the:

4.Epicranial aponeurosis (Galea aponeurotica)

6.Subperiosteal fat tissue

Choose one or more correct answer(s)

2. The structure of subcutaneous fatty tissue in the fronto-parieto-occipital region is:

2. Subaponeurotic fatty tissue

3. Loose subperiosteal fatty tissue

2. Subaponeurotic fatty tissue

2. Good blood supply of the tissues

3. The formation of a network of blood vessels in the subcutaneous fat tissue

3. Fusion of vascular adventitia with connective tissue septa

6. Superficial temporal artery

5. Subcutaneous fatty tissue

14. What direction should the base of the skin-aponeurotic

flap while performing osteoplastic trepanation in the

occipital region be turned to (to maintain its blood supply

1. Rubbing of sterile wax

3. The wound irrigation by hydrogen peroxide

5. All variants are correct

2. Fracture of skull base at the anterior cranial fossa

21. Middle meningeal artery is a branch of:

3. Squamous part of the temporal bone and the dura mater

4. Middle meningeal artery

26. The optic nerve passes through:

27. The facial nerve leaves the skull base through:

28. Following nerves and blood vessels are located in the

29. Superior ophthalmic vein passes through:

1. Superior orbital fissure

30. Superior ophthalmic vein flows into:

1. Superficial cerebral veins

2. Superior sagittal sinus

6. Internal jugular vein

32. Three of the listed sinuses drain into confluence of sinuses:

5. Straight (tentorial) sinus

3. Left transverse sinus

4. Right transverse sinus

34. The vertebral artery enters the cranial cavity through:

35. Which of the emissary veins are permanent?

36. Emissary veins provide the venous connection between:

3. Superficial veins and sinuses of the dura mater

2. Subaponeurotic fatty tissue

38. Epidural hematoma is located:

2. Between dura mater and bone

Match the Pairs

39. Location of intracranial hematomas:

1. Epidural hematoma is located- C. Between bone and dura mater

2. Subdural hematoma is located- A. Between dura mater and arachnoid mater

3. Subarachnoid hematoma is located - B. Between arachnoid mater and pia mater

Choose One or More Correct Answer(s)

41. We name "penetrating head injuries" the wounds which are:

3. Associated with damage to the dura mater

1. Soft tissue flap

1. Skin connection with epicranial aponeurosis by

3. Presence of loose subaponeurotic fatty tissue

45. Mastoid antrum is projected at:

4. Superior medial quadrant

Match the Pairs