Examiners

(NBAA)
THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS

TANZANIA
EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT
93RD EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2021
NBAA, Telephones: +255 26 2660170-4

4 UKAGUZI ROAD, AUDIT HOUSE, + 255 22 2211890-9
8TH FLOOR, Mobile: 0713 320423
P. O. BOX 1271, Email: info@nbaa.go.tz
41104 TAMBUKARELI, Website: www.nbaa.go.tz
DODOMA. TANZANIA
TABLE OF CONTENTS
PAGE
(ii)
Foreword & Acknowledgement …………………………………….
Executive Summary of 92nd Examination session ………………….. (vii)
CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 93rd Examination Session 1
CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………................. 4

• Accounting Technician Examination Level I ……….................. 5
• Accounting Technician Examination Level II …………………. 18
• Foundation Level ………………………………………………. 31
• Intermediate Level ……………………....................................... 51
• Final Level …………………………………………………….. 80
CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………. 101
CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………. 111
CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to November 2020 132
CHAPTER VI The NBAA Special Awards Programme for Candidates with 134
Meritorious Examination Achievements …………………………….
FOREWORD AND ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
The current examination scheme has been tested for the first time in this November 2020 examination
session. It has basically be designed to test competencies rather than understanding of knowledge.
In order to realize this goal, there is a need to streamline the whole process from teaching of the
students, setting of examination questions as well as marking of the examinations. Here it means
that the trainers, learners, examiners as well as examination markers need to speak the same
language. If there is any mismatch between these key stakeholders the aim of competence based
examination scheme cannot be realized. Trainers are required to change their teaching orientation
to match with competence approach. They are required to guide learners to acquire competencies
rather than knowledge. Learners are supposed to change their learning styles from rote learning to
active learning that will enable them to learn the required competencies. Those who are setting
examination questions should also consider the fact that they are testing understanding of skills and
competencies rather than understanding of information. How to orient all these stakeholders to have
the same orientation has remained a challenge in implementing the competence based examination
scheme. But as we move forward the situation is changing into better through trainings and
acquisition of experiences.
The current examination scheme has eight subjects in the Accounting Technician Levels I and II
as shown below:
Code Name
Accounting Technician Level I
T01 Book keeping and Accounts
T02 Elements of Business Mathematics and Statistics
T03 Introduction to Information and Communication Technology
T.04 Business Communication Skills
Accounting Technician Level II

T.05 Principles of Accounting and Auditing
T.06 Elements of Cost Accounting and Procurement
T.07 Elements of Commercial Knowledge and Taxation
T.08 Accounting for Public Sector and Cooperatives
ii
The Professional Examination Scheme has three level structures as
follows:
(i) Foundation (Knowledge and Skills) level, having six subjects,
(ii) Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context) level, having six subjects, and
(iii) Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation) level, having four subjects.
In total, the Professional Examination Scheme has 16 subjects as shown hereunder:
Foundation (Knowledge and Skills Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
A1 Quantitative Techniques
A2 Business and Management
A3 Financial Accounting
A4 Cost Accounting
A5 Business Law
A6 Business Economics
Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
B1 Financial Management
B2 Financial Reporting
B3 Auditing Principles and Practice
B4 Public Finance and Taxation
B5 Performance Management
B6 Management, Governance and Ethics
Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
C1 Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
C3 Business and Corporate Finance
C4 Advanced Taxation
iii
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER
Since the inception of the Accounting Technician examinations, the Board has been able to produce
14,318 Accounting T e c h n i c i a n s . This category of Accounting Technicians covers 4,065
Accounting Technicians Certificate (ATEC) graduates, 2,971 Basic Book-keeping Certificate
(BBC) graduates, 5,746 National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE) graduates and 1,537
National Accountancy Diploma (NAD) graduates.
The Board has also been able to produce 10,777 CPA (T) graduates since it started conducting these
examinations in May, 1975, 223 CPA (T) Equivalent since it started conducting these examinations
in November 2014. In total, the Board has been able to produce 25,133 accounting personnel
(manpower) of different levels and categories serving both in public and private sectors inside and
outside Tanzania.
EXAMINATION CENTRES
During the 93rd examination session, examinations were held in 16 examination centres, where Dar
es Salaam had 06 centers and the other 10 centers located in Tanzania Mainland and Zanzibar. These
centres accommodated 6,179 candidates sitting at different levels of the Board’s examinations. The
examination centres were as follows:
Dar es Salaam Centres were all located at APC Hotel and Conference Centre (Bunju).
Other centres
1. Arusha – Institute of Accountancy Arusha (IAA)
2. Dodoma – Institute of Rural Development Planning (IRDP)
3. Iringa – Iringa RVTSC
4. Kilimanjaro – Moshi Cooperative University (MoCU)
5. Mbeya – Mzumbe University – Mbeya campus
6. Morogoro – Muslim University of Morogoro (MUM)
7. Mwanza –St. Dominic Pastoral Centre
8. Tabora – Tabora RVTSC
9. Tanga – St. Joseph’s Commercial School (SJCS)
10. Zanzibar - State University of Zanzibar (SUZA)
iv
OBJECTIVES OF THE REPORT
The Report is intended to avail to trainers and candidates, the examinations’ overall general
performance, specific areas of weaknesses and suggestions for improvement. It is an important
guide to candidates as well as trainers, setters, markers and moderators of the Board’s future
examinations.
Analysis of the examination performance is presented in Table 3 of this report while a detailed
analysis indicating the performance of candidates registered by the recognized Tuition Providers is
shown in Tables 10 to 11 of the report. Analysis of performance in each subject is presented in
Tables 5.1 to 9.1.8. Comments and observations in the Examiners' and Performance Report are
supported by relevant statistical analysis of the candidates' performance in each examination level.
The last chapter of the Report comprises a list of prizes offered by NBAA and other prize donors.
These prizes will be awarded to candidates who have excelled in their examinations during the
graduation ceremony expected to be held on October 2021.
v
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
On behalf of the Board and on my own behalf, I wish to convey my very sincere appreciation to all
persons who willingly supported the Board in this demanding professional task. I am indeed
particularly thankful to all Tuition Providers who devoted their energy and time to guide the
candidates and preparing them for the examinations. I am also delighted to acknowledge the
contribution of Board’s Examiners, Markers, Invigilators, and the Board’s Secretariat, the Education
and Publications Committee and the Governing Board for their much appreciated co- operation
during the whole process of the NBAA’s 93rd examination session. Last but not least, I congratulate
all examination candidates who studied hard and sat for the 93rd examinations of the Board.
Once again, I would like to reiterate that the Examiners' Report is prepared to help trainers and the
Board’s candidates to improve on their future performance by learning from previous experiences.
I, therefore, call upon readers of this Report to come up with constructive suggestions on how to
improve further the examination process and reports arising therein.
Yours sincerely,
CPA Pius A. Maneno

EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR
vi
EXECUTIVE SUMMARY TO THE 93RD EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2021
1.0 PREAMBLE:
The Board conducts its normal session examinations twice in a year during the months of
May and November. This session is the 93rd examination session in which the
examinations were conducted from Tuesday 4th to Friday 7th May 2021.
6,401 candidates applied for the examinations, out of whom633 (9.9%) were absent, 5,768
(90.1%) sat for the examinations at different levels. The candidature distribution this
session is as shown in the Table below:
EXAMINATION CANDIDAT CANDIDATES % CANDIDATES %

LEVELS ES ABSENT SAT
APPLIED
TECHNICIAN LEVELS
ATEC I: 76 02 2.0 74 97.4

ATEC II: 182 11 6.0 171 94.0
PROFESSIONAL LEVELS
Foundation 709 60 8.5 649 91.5

Intermediate 3,275 379 11.6 2,896 88.4
Final 2,159 181 8.4 1,978 91.6
TOTALS 6,401 633 9.9 5,768 90.1
vii
2.0 TREND OF THE EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE
2.1 Candidature Exam Sitting

Candidature enrolment this session has decreased from 6,614 to 6,401
Candidates, which is a decrease of 3.2% candidates.
Table 1 and Graph 1 shows candidature trend (candidates who sat for the
examinations) for the eight examination sessions: May 2017 to May 2021.
Table 1
EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE TREND FOR THE PRECEDING NINE
EXAMINATION SESSIONS MAY 2020 TO MAY 2021
EXAMINATION ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

I II
85th Session May 2017 103 185 557 3,477 2,292 6,614
86th Session November 2017 100 172 572 3,235 1,977 6,056
87th Session May 2018 61 98 370 1824 1238 3,591
88th November 2018 113 212 621 3197 2,040 6,183
89th May 2019 102 190 696 3,276 1,971 6,235
90th November 2019 85 173 688 3,310 1,923 6,179
91st May (August) 2020 84 162 722 3,721 2,245 6,934
92nd November 2020 46 92 396 2,132 1,477 4,143
93rd May 2021 76 182 709 3,275 2,159 6,401
viii
Graph 1
GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION

CANDIDATURE FOR THE PRECEDING NINE (9) EXAMINATION SESSIONS
(MAY 2017 TO MAY 2021)
8,000
Column1 6,934
7,000 6,614
6,235 6,401
6,056 6,183 6,179
6,000
5,000
No. of Candidates
4,492
4,000 3,591
3,000
2,000
1,000
0
May-17 Nov-17 May-18 Nov-18 May-19 Nov-19 May-20 Nov-20 May-21
Examination Sessions
ix
2.2 Candidature Distribution – May 2021
Candidature distribution for the May 2021 examination session shows that majority of the
candidates who sat for these examinations were in the Intermediate level examinations.
The Chart below shows the candidature distribution
Chart 1
Candidate Distribution - May 2021

76
182
709
2159
3275
ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL STAGE
Candidature in Intermediate level is highest as most of the candidates who enroll at this
level are those who have completed a three years’ bachelor degree programme or its
equivalent in accounting and enjoy exemptions to sit for the Intermediate Level
examinations. A tertiary institution which offers bachelor degree courses related to
accountancy courses has to apply to NBAA for its graduands to be given exemption in the
Board’s examinations.
x
3.0 EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE
3.1 Pass rates for examination levels tested in May 2021
Table 2 (i) shows pass rates in May 2021 examination session

EXAMINATION LEVEL NUMBER OF PASSES PERCENTAGE
ATEC I
Passed 17 23.0
Part passed 27 36.5
ATEC II
Passed 29 16.9
Part passed 81 47.4
FOUNDATION
Passed 209 32.2
Part passed 312 48.1
INTERMEDIATE
Passed 349 12.1
Part passed 1,372 47.4
FINAL
Passed 290 14.7
Part passed 832 42.1
TOTAL PASSES
Passed 894 19.7
Part passed 2,624 44.3
Table 2 (ii) shows number of candidates with foreign CPA – equivalent

qualification who sat and cleared the subjects with local contents
Subject Number of entries Number of Passes

A5 Business Law 09 08
B1 Financial Management 03 00
B2 Financial Reporting 03 03
B3 Auditing Principles and Practices 04 03
B4 Public Finance and Taxation 16 13
B5 Performance Management 05 04
C3 Business & Corporate Finance 04 03
C4 Advanced Taxation 14 10
These candidates are eligible for the award of letters of success and certificates to enable
them register as members.
xi
3.2 Examination Performance by Gender:
Table 3: Examination performance by gender in the five examination levels
EXAMINATION ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL STAGE TOTAL

Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total
No % No % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. %
PASSED 10 14% 7 9% 17 23% 17 10% 12 7% 29 17% 106 16% 103 16% 209 32% 166 6% 183 6% 349 12% 153 8% 137 7% 290 15% 894 15%
PARTLY PASS 14 19% 13 18% 27 36% 35 20% 46 27% 81 47% 163 25% 149 23% 312 48% 702 24% 670 23% 1372 47% 430 22% 402 20% 832 42% 2624 45%
FAILED 8 11% 22 30% 30 41% 27 16% 34 20% 61 36% 60 9% 68 10% 128 20% 630 22% 545 19% 1175 41% 484 24% 372 19% 856 43% 2250 39%
TOTAL 32 43% 42 57% 74 100% 79 46% 92 54% 171 100% 329 51% 320 49% 649 100% 1498 52% 1398 48% 2896 100% 1067 54% 911 46% 1978 100% 5768 100%
xii
CHAPTER I
ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

93RD EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2021
OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE

During the 93rd examination session, 6,401 candidates were registered for the Board’s examinations
held in May 2021, out of whom 633 (7.4%) candidates were absent from the examinations, 5,768
candidates sat for the examinations. Of the 5,768 candidates who sat for the examinations, 894
(19.7%) candidates passed while 2,624 (44.3%) candidates part passed and 2,250 (36.0%) candidates
failed the examinations. (See Table 4 on page 3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I

The November 2020 examination session was the first session since the review of the
examinations structure and syllabi of ATEC. 76 candidates registered themselves for the
examination. 02 (2.6%) candidates were absent. 74 candidates sat for the examination, out of
whom 17 (23.0%) passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this
level. 27 (36.5%) candidates are part passed while a total of 30 (40.5%) candidates failed the
examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II

This examination was conducted for the first time since the review of the examination structure and
Syllabi of ATEC II. Out of 182 candidates who registered for the examination, 11 (6.0%) candidates
were absent leaving a total of 171 candidates who wrote the examination. 29 (16.9%) candidates
passed and hence are eligible to be issued with CERTIFICATES OF COMPLETION of the
Accounting Technician Certificate Examination. 81 (47.4%) candidates have part passed while a
total of 61 (35.7%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
FOUNDATION LEVEL
The Foundation Level examinations consist of six subjects. These subjects were tested for the
first time this session following the review of the examination structure and syllabi.
In this examination, 709 candidates registered themselves for the examination out of whom
60 (8.5%) candidates were absent. Of the 649 candidates who wrote the examination, 209 (32.2.0%)
candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level.
312(48.1%) candidates have part passed while 128 (19.7%) candidates failed the examination. (See
Table 4 on page 3).
1
INTERMEDIATELEVEL
The Intermediate Level examinations consist of six subjects. As with the Foundation
Level
examinations, these subjects were tested for the first time this session following the review
of the examination structure.
In this examination, 3,275 candidates registered themselves out of whom 379 (11.6%)
candidates were absent. Of the 2,896 candidates who wrote the examination, 349 (12.1%)
candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this
level. 1,372 (47.4 %) candidates have part passed while 1,175 (40.6%) candidates failed the
examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
FINAL LEVEL
The Final Level examinations consist of four subjects. These examinations were tested
for the
first time following review of the examination
structure.
In this examination, 2,159 candidates registered themselves for Final Level

examinations, out of whom 181 (8.4%) candidates were absent. Of the 1,978
candidates who wrote the examination,
290 (14.7%) candidates passed, hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF
SUCCESS at this Level. 832 (42.1%) candidates have part passed while 856 (43.3%)
candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page 3).
CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION
In this examination session, 29 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the
ATEC
programme, comprising 12 (41.4%) female candidates and 17 (58.6%) male
candidates.
All 29 candidates who qualified for the Accounting Technician Certificate passed
ATEC II subjects
On the other hand, 278 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the CPA
programme, comprising 135 (48.6) female candidates and 143 (51.4%) male candidates.
2
TABLE 4
GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSISOFEXAMINATIONRESULTS

93RD EXAMINATIONSESSION– MAY 2021
EXAMINATION ATECI ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL
NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %
ENTRIES 76 100 182 100 709 100 3,275 100 2,159 100 4,492 100
ABSENTEES 02 2.6 11 6.0 60 8.5 379 11.6 181 8.4 633 7.4
CANDIDATES 74 97.4 171 94.0 649 91.5 2,896 88.4 1,978 91.6 5,768 92.6
WHOSAT
PART 27 36.5 81 47.4 312 48.1 1,372 47.4 832 42.1 2,624 44.3
PASSED
PASSED 17 23.0 29 16.9 209 32.2 349 12.1 290 14.7 894 19.7
FAILED 30 40.5 61 35.7 128 19.7 1,175 40.6 856 43.3 2,250 36.0
TOTAL 74 100 171 100 649 100 2,896 100 1,978 100 5,768 100
3
CHAPTER II
PERFORMANCE EVALUATION SUBJECT-WISE
INTRODUCTION
This chapter provides a detailed analysis of performance of candidates in each subject at
each level of the Board’s examinations. General evaluation and assessment of candidates’
performance at each level and specific assessment of candidates in each topic examined is
analyzed. The Board hopes that this report will provide necessary guidance to trainers and
students for the better results in the Board’s future examinations.
The May 2021 examination session is the 14th examination session under the revised
examination scheme and syllabi. The scheme has a two-tier system of five different levels:
two at the Accounting Technician level and three at the Professional level.
A total of 24 examination papers were attempted this session as detailed hereunder:
(a) Accounting Technician Level I with four papers;
(b) Accounting Technician Level II with four papers;
(c) The Foundation Level with six papers;
(d) The Intermediate Level with six papers;
(e) The Final Level with four papers.
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
74 candidates sat for the ATEC I examinations. The performance indicates that 17
(23%) candidates passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF
SUCCESS for ATEC. 27 (36.5%) candidates have passed some of the subjects in this level
while 30 (40.5%) candidates failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown in Table 5.1
TABLE 5.1
ATEC I SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2020 AND MAY
2021
Performance
Paper Subject May 2020 May 2021
Code
Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
47 25 53.2 43 22 51.2
T.01 Bookkeeping and Accounts
Elements of Business Maths 59 27 45.8 62 23 37.1
T.02
and Statistics
Introduction to Information and 51 24 47.1 51 24 47.1
T.03 Communication Technology
Business Communication Skills 41 29 70.7 38 26 68.4
T.04
4
GENERAL COMMENTS
T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS
I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to apply knowledge of
Book keeping and Accounts for recording, posting business transactions in the book of
accounts and preparation of accounting statement in private and public sector accounts.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER
The paper comprised of four questions whereby candidates were required to answer all
questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40% of the total marks.
III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

Candidates were required to:
(a) Choose the best answer among the given alternatives
(b) State whether the given statements were true or false.
(c) Match each statement from List A with the phrase from List B
appropriately.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 43
candidates who answered the question, 26 (60.5%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 17 (39.5 %) candidates failed. Neither candidates
scored credit nor distinction marks in this question.
There were no major weaknesses noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: BANK RECONCILIATION
(a) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as at 1st December

(b) Update the cashbook for December
(c) Prepare bank reconciliation as at 31st December
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 43

candidates who answered the question only 01 (2.3%) candidate passed while
the remaining 42 (97.7%) candidates failed. Only 01 (2.3) candidate who
passed scored pass mark. Neither candidates scored credit nor distinction marks
in this question
Candidates failed to prepare a bank reconciliation statement, furthermore they

failed to explain how to adjust the beginning balance on the bank statement and
cashbook.
5
QUESTION 3: RECORD AND POST ACCOUNTING TRANSACTIONS; PREPARATION
OF TRIAL BALANCE

(a) Pass the journal entries to record the transactions
(b) Prepare the unadjusted trial balance as at 31st January 2018.

candidates who answered the question, only 06 (14%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 37 (86%) candidates failed. Neither candidates
Majority of candidates could not identify the nature of transaction on whether is
credit or debit. In additional to that, candidates exhibited an improper way of
passing the journal entries.
QUESTION 4: PREPARATIONS OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

(a) Outline and briefly explain elements of financial statements.
(b) (i) Establish whether a given company operated under profit or loss.
(ii) Compute the value of Total assets and Total Equity & Liabilities of a
given company.
candidates who answered the question, only 12 (27.9%) candidates passed while
the remaining 31(72.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 09
(20.9%) and 03 (6.9%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks.
Most candidates failed to find closing stock by using margin percentage.
IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

(a) Assessment of the paper
The panel of examiners observed that the questions were clear and fair. Also
they commented that the questions were set within the prescribed syllabus
and could be answered within the allocated time.
(b) Candidates’ overall performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 43
candidates who answered the examination 22 (51.1%) candidates passed while the
remaining 21 (48.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 21 (48.8%) and
01 (2.3%) candidates scored pass and credit respectively. No candidates scored
distinction marks in this question.
6
The over-all candidates’ performance in the subject is as shown in table
5.1.1
TABLE 5.1.1
T01 – CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
No. of Candidates (Frequency) 21 21 01 00 43
Percentage 48.8 48.8 2.3 0.0 100
TABLE 5.1.2
T.01.COMPARISON OF PASS RATES WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed %
25 53.2 22 51.1
7
T.02 - ELEMENTS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS
The principal learning outcome of this paper is to build basic skills in the collection,
processing, presentation and interpretation of simple numerical and statistical
knowledge and skills as a tool of learning and understanding related subjects at higher
levels.
The paper comprised of four questions whereby candidates were required to answer
all questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40% of the total
marks.
Candidates were tested on the following topics:

(a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives.
(b) Pair each item from List A with the statement from List B
appropriately
(c) State whether the given statements were true or false.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 62 candidates
who answered the question, 28 (45.2%) candidates scored pass marks while the
remaining 34 (54.8%) candidates failed. Neither candidate scored credit nor
Majority of the candidates demonstrated weakness in computing exchange rate,

probability, average speed, sequence and series. In addition to that, majority of
the candidates did not exhibit knowledge on simple index number, normal
distribution terms and annuity due.
QUESTION 2: ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS; MATHEMATICS OF FINANCE;
INTRODUCTION TO STATISTICS AND DATA COLLECTION;
PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION
(a) Determine arrangements for the letters of the word “TANZANIA

(b) Determine the selling price.
(c) Find the future value of investments
(d) Determine percentage reduction
(e) Comment on too big a sample or too little a sample in sampling process
is unethical.
8
candidates who answered the question only 12 (19.4%) candidates passed while
the remaining 50 (80.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 10
(16.2%), 01 (1.6%) and 01 (1.6%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
Most of candidates failed to calculate the arrangement, future value of

investments; ratio and percentage
QUESTION 3: RATIOS AND PROPORTIONS; LOGARITHMs; CURRENCY

CONVERSION; ARTHMETIC AND GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION
(a) i). Find the sum of the first fifty terms of the sequence 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.
ii). Determine terms that are in the geometric progression 2, 4, 8…….128.
(b) Solve the given log
(c) Determine how long would it take to paint the house if they work together.
(d) Explain where she should buy from

candidates who answered the question, 14 (22.6%) candidates passed while the
remaining 48 (77.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 10 (16.1%),
01 (1.6%) and 03 (4.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
Majority of candidates who answered this question were not be able to: write
the arithmetic progression formula for summation and write geometric series
expression formula correctly.
QUESTION 4: MEASUREMENT OF AREAS SQUARE, RECTANGLES AND

CIRCLES; ANNUITY, SINKING FUND, PRESENT VALUE OF
ANNUITY AND AMORTIZATION; MEASURES OF CENTRAL
TENDENCY; BASIC PROBABILITY THEORY
(a) Show office book value at the end of five years

(b) Differentiate between annuity certain and annuity contingent.
(c) Determine the area of a dam which is represented on the map by an area
of 3.5 cm2.
(d) (i) Calculate the mean of distribution
(ii) Calculate the median
(iii) Calculate the mode
(iv) Determine the probability of students who passed
9
candidates who answered the question,24 (38.7%) candidates passed while the
remaining 38 (61.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 18 (29.0%), 04
(6.5%) and 02 (3.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
In this question, most of the candidates could not apply the appropriate
methodologies to tackle computation, further to that, they could not differentiate
between the annuity certain and annuity contingent instead differentiated between
the annuity due and ordinary annuity.

The panel of examiners in assessing the questions was of the opinion that the
question paper was of good quality and standard for the intended level of
candidates as it combines both application and knowledge type of questions.
The question paper was fair in terms of marks awarded, time allocated, and
length of questions.
Marks distribution was done evenly to each question.
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out
of 62 candidates who answered the examination, 23 (37.1%) candidates
passed while the remaining 39 (62.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 18 (29.0%) and 05 (8.1%) candidates scored pass and credit
respectively. No candidates scored distinction marks in this question
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 5.1.3

TABLE 5.1.3
T.02 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

No of Candidates 39 18 05 00 62
(Frequency)
Percentage 62.9 29.0 8.1 0.0 100
TABLE 5.1.4
T.02. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
27 45.8 23 37.1
10
T.03 – INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
The principal learning outcome of the paper is to enable candidates apply
knowledge and skills in information technology to solve problems in the business
environment.
The paper comprised of four questions whereby candidates were required to answer
all questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40% of the
total marks.

(b) State whether the given statement is true or false.
(c) Match each phrase from List A with the phrase from List B
appropriately.

candidates who answered the question,41(80.4%) candidates passed while
(66.7%), 04 (7.8%) and 03 (5.9) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
No major weakness noted in this question.
11
QUESTION 2: COMPUTER SYSTEMS; DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS;
BUSINESS USE OF INTERNET, INTRANET AND EXTRANET;
COMMONLY USED APPLICATION SOFTWARE
(a) Explain roles of a Network Interface Card in computer network.
(b) Explain the difference between computer virus and computer worm.
(c) Ddistinguish factors between Local Storages and Online Storage.
(d) Use the given case to identify which column(s) cannot be specified as
primary key and why.
(e) Explain the features of the Graphical User Interface. How do these features
make it easier for a user to interact with the computer?

candidates who answered the question, only 04 (7.8%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 47 (92.2%) candidates failed. Neither candidates
Major weakness noted in this question include; candidates’ failure to explain

factors distinguish local storage and online storage and features of graphical
user interface.
QUESTION 3: HARDWARE COMPUTER; DATA COMMUNICATION HARDWARE;

DATA MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS
(a) Show how physical network topology differs from logical network topology.
(b) (i) Explain in what units are CPU speeds measured, and what does
this measurement unit refers to.
(ii) Use the given information to clarify
(c) Explain the risks associated with the purchasing of Enterprise Resource
Planning software in the organization.
(d) Identify tasks that could be performed by the data communication systems.

candidates who answered the question, only 04 (7.8%) candidates passed pass
Major weaknesses noted in this question was the failure for majority of
candidates to comprehend the requirements of this question properly.
12
QUESTION 4: E-BUSINESS AND E-COMMERCE; DATA COMMUNICATION
TERMINAL
(a) List spectrum for radio waves providing their frequency range and
applicable uses.
(b) Explain main types of e-commerce.
who answered the question, 37 (72.5%) candidates passed while the remaining
14 (27.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 21 (41.1%), 11 (21.6%)
and 05 (9.8%) candidates scored pass, credit marks and distinction marks
respectively.
Some of the candidates failed to list four spectrum of radio waves.

The panel of examiners in assessing the paper were of the opinion that the
paper was fair and the questions tested covered a wide range of the syllabus.
The mixture of the questions was adequate and the distribution of marks was
fair in relation to the time allocated.
of 51 candidates who answered the examination, 24 (47.1%) candidates passed
while the remaining 27 (52.9%) candidates failed. Out of those passed 22(43.1)
and 02(3.9) candidates scored a pass and credit marks. No candidate scored
distinction marks in this examination paper.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table
5.1.5.
TABLE 5.1.5
Classification of
Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
No. of Candidates 27 22 02 00 51
(Frequency)
Percentage 52.9 43.1 3.9 0.0 100
13
TABLE 5.1.6
T.03 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020

EXAMINATIONS
MAY 2020 May 2021

24 47.1 24 47.1
14
T.04 – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION SKILLS
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to master Basic
English language skills and be able to use them for communicating effectively in
business environment.
This paper consisted of six compulsory questions.
Candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: DEMONSTRATE READING SKILLS; DEMONSTRATE A

MASTERY USE OF THE ENGLISH LANGUAGE
(b) Choose the sentence which is correctly punctuated and write their letter
in answer booklet.
12 (31.6%) candidates failed. The 26 (68.4%) candidates scored pass only.
Neither candidates scored credit nor distinction marks in this question.
No common weakness was noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE
(a) Identify the structural types of the given sentences.

(b) Re-write the given sentences as instructed.
(c) Identify the error(s) in the given sentences and then write the correct
sentence.
(d) Choose the correct pronoun provided and write the answer in the booklet

who answered the question 26 (68.4%) candidates scored pass marks while the
remaining 12 (31.6%) candidates failed. Neither candidates scored credit nor
No major weakness was noted in this question.
15
QUESTION 3: GENERAL INTRODUCTION TO COMMUNICATION SKILLS

(a) Write True for the correct statement and False for the incorrect statement.
(b) Pair each item from List A with the statement from List B appropriately.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of
38 candidates who answered the question, 26 (68.4%) candidates scored pass
QUESTION 4: DEMONSTRATE VISUAL AND ORAL COMMUNICATION SKILLS;

WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES
(a) Using visual presentation mention advantages of visual presentation.

(b) Write a confirmation letter to the Commissioner General of Tanzania
Revenue Authority (TRA) the conducted auditing to the Uhuru
Hatimaye Company.

remaining 12 (31.6%) candidates failed. The 26(68.4%) candidates who passed
scored pass marks. Neither candidates scored credit nor distinction marks.
No major weakness was noted in this question

QUESTION 5: WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES
The candidates were required to:
(a) Briefly explain any features of a complaint letter.
(b) Write a complaint letter to the Director of Human Resource asking for
financial support needed for your health, together with compensation
for loss of your two legs.
remaining 12 (31.4%) candidates failed. The 26(68.4%) candidates who passed
16
QUESTION 6: DEMONSTRATE READING SKILLS
The candidates were required to read the passage and answer the questions
given after it.
remaining 12 (31.4%) candidates failed. The 26 (68.4%) candidates who passed
No major weakness was noted in this question

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, clear and well
spread within the syllabus. They found the questions to be within reach of
well-prepared candidates. The questions were also fair in relation to the time
allocated.

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out
passed while the remaining 12 (31.6%) candidates failed. Neither candidate
scored credit nor distinction marks.

5.1.7
TABLE 5.1.7
T.04 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE
ANALYSIS
(Frequency)
Percentage 31.6 68.4 0 0 100
TABLE 5.1.8
T.04 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS

May 2020 May 2021
29 70.7 26 68.4
17
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN EXAMINATION LEVEL II
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this level, 171 candidates sat for the examinations, out of whom 29 (17%) passed, 81
(47.4%) candidates passed various subjects in this level while 61 (35.7%) failed the
examination. The 29 candidates who passed are eligible for the Board's award of the
STATEMENT OF SUCCESS FOR ATEC II. The general performance subject-wise is
as shown on table 6.1
TABLE 6.1
ATEC II SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2020 AND

MAY 2021
Paper Subject Performance
Code No. May 2020 May 2021
T.05 Principles of Accounting and 105 40 38.1 120 49 40.8
Auditing
T.06 Principles of Cost 102 25 24.5 143 36 25.2
Accounting and Procurement
T.07 Elements of Commercial 74 35 47.3 86 70 81.5
Knowledge and Taxation
T.08 Accounting for Public Sector 62 33 53.2 89 37 41.5

and Cooperatives
T.05 - PRINCIPLES OF ACCOUNTING AND AUDITING

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates on application of basic
concepts and principles of accounting in preparing and interpreting statements and reports
on a practical context as per IAS 1. Also to apply audit knowledge in appraising data and
assisting audit staff during audit undertakings.
The paper consisted of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
question which carried 40% of the total marks.
In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics:
18
(b) Write whether it is true or false for each of the given statements.
(c) Match the phrases given in list B with that which best explain the
meaning of items in list A.
candidates who answered the question, 66 (55%) candidates scored pass marks
while the remaining 54 (45%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor
distinction marks in this questions.
Most of the candidates lacks knowledge of the principles of accounting and
auditing.
QUESTION 2: ADJUSTMENTS TO PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL REPORTS AND
PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS WITH
ADJUSTMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given information to: -
(a) Pass the journal entries to record the adjustments in the books of account.
(b) Prepare Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended.
(c) Prepare the Statement of Financial Position as at the year ended.

marks respectively
Candidates proved to have inadequate knowledge in passing journal entries based on the
given adjustments.
QUESTION 3: INCOMPLETE RECORDS
Candidates were required to use the given information to calculate the

following missing figures: -
(a) Discount allowed for the year ended

(b) Amount of cash paid to supplier of goods for the year ended
(c) Value of the stolen goods
(d) Drawings for year ended
19
the remaining 73 (60.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 05 (4.2%),
respectively
Those who failed in this question were the ones who were not able to relate the
item required to calculate and the relevant ledger account that leads to the correct
amount.
QUESTION 4: INTERNAL CONTROL SYSTEM AND INTRODUCTION TO
AUDITING: DEFINITIONS ND CONCEPTS IN AUDITING
Candidates were required to: -
(a) Explain the meaning and relevance to the auditors giving an
opinion on financial statements of each of the management
objectives above.
(b) Explain the limitations of internal control systems.
(c) Explain why audit is necessary.

marks respectively
Not only candidates failed to state the meaning and relevance of components of
the internal control system and its related limitations but also failed to explain
the necessity of audit.
20
(a) Assessment of the Examination
The panel of examiners was of the opinion that the examination was fair,
clearly worded and appropriately spread within the syllabus.
respectively

6.1.2.
TABLE 6.1.2
T.05 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 71 33 12 04 120
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 59.2 27.5 10.0 3.3 100
TABLE 6.1.3
May 2020 May 2021

40 38.1 49 40.8
21
T.06 - PRINCIPLES OF COST ACCOUNTING AND PROCUREMENT
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates on application of
terminologies, methods, techniques and principles of Cost Accounting and Procurement
for providing management with information for decision making, planning and
controlling business operations.
The paper comprised of four questions. Question one was an objective type which
carried 40% of the total marks.
(b) Indicate answer by writing True if the given statement is correct or
false if the statement is incorrect.
(c) Match items by writing the letter from list A against the corresponding
roman number in list B.

48 (33.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 88 (61.5%), 6 (4.2%) and
01 (0.7%) candidate scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
No major weakness was observed in this question.
QUESTION 2: COST STATEMENT AND SIMPLE BUDGET
From the given information, candidates were required to:
(a) Tabulate the information to present comparative profit and loss statements
for each zone and for each product.
(b) Prepare cash budget for three-month period showing the balance of cash at
the end of each month.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory as all 143

candidates who answered the question failed.
Candidates failed to properly arrange the entries in comparative statement as

expected.
22
QUESTION 3: ACCOUNTING FOR MATERIALS, LABOUR AND OVERHEADS,
AND COST BOOKKEEPING
( a ) Explain the limitations on which an organization would
likely face when applying Just in Time philosophy.
(b) Use the given information to: -
(i) Apportion the service department overheads to production
departments.
(ii) Calculate the overhead absorption rates for the production
departments.
(iii) Determine the overhead costs of the jobs using the rates determined
in part (ii) above.
(iv) Determine a suitable selling price at a certain level of material cost
and profit margin.
marks respectively
Mostly, candidates have shown weakness in computing absorption rates as well
as determining the suitable selling price for the job.
QUESTION 4: ACCOUNTING FOR MATERIALS, LABOUR AND OVERHEADS, AND

COST BOOKKEEPING AND INTRODUCTION TO PROCUREMENT

(a) Calculate; -
(i) Inventory Re-order level
(ii) Minimum inventory level
(iii) Economic Order Quantity
(iv) Maximum inventory level
(b) Outline the key advantages and disadvantages of using inventory
management ratios to manage inventory levels.
(c) Explain the major obstacles associated with international procurement.

marks respectively
23
Many candidates failed on determining the inventory re-order level as well as on
determining minimum and maximum inventory level.

The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, clearly worded
and within the prescribed syllabus. The examination questions were well
mixed, containing computational as well theoretical questions and could
have easily been answered by an average prepared candidate within the
allocated time of three hours.
(b) Candidates Overall Performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 143
candidates who answered the examination only 36 (25.2%) candidates passed while
the remaining 107 (74.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 30 (21.0%)
and 06 (4.2%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
scored distinction marks in this question.
TABLE 6.1.4
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 107 30 06 00 143
PERCENTAGE 74.8 21.0 4.2 0.0 100
TABLE 6.1.5
May 2020 May 2021

25 24.5 36 25.2
24
T.07 - ELEMENTS OF COMMERCIAL KNOWLEDGE AND TAXATION
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge of commerce, commercial law, management and taxation in managing
business functions.
The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective type
which carried 40% of the total marks.
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS:

(a) Choose the most correct answer from the four given alternatives.
(b) Write whether is True or False for each of the given statements.
(c) Match the items in list A with those in list B to produce complete and
meaningful sentences
24 (27.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 57 (66.3%) and 05
(5.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
No specific weakness was observed in this question.
QUESTION 2: INTRODUCTION TO COMMERCIAL KNOWLEDGE,

INTRODUCTION TO OFFICE MANAGEMENT AND PRACTICES
AND INTRODUCTION TO TAXATION
Candidates were required to explain:
(a) Five main types of office machines.
(b) Five main characteristics of a good filing system.
(c) Five roles and functions of TRA.
(d) Five different types of warehouses.

04 (4.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 11 (12.8%), 7 (8.1%) and
64 (74.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
No major weakness was found in this question.
25
QUESTION 3: INTRODUCTION TO COMMERCIAL KNOWLEDGE AND
INTRODUCTION TO COMMERCIAL LAW
(a) Name and explain any five (5) characteristics of land as the main factor of
production.
(b) Identify and explain the main characteristics of internal trade.
(c) Name and explain five (5) types of negotiable instruments.
and 12 (14.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively
No major weakness was found in this question.
QUESTION 4: INTRODUCTION TO COMMERCIAL LAW, INTRODUCTION TO

COMMERCIAL LAW AND INTRODUCTION TO TAXATION
(b) Explain five sources where tax returns are calculated
(c) Identify and explain four steps to be followed when developing a contract
of sale.
(d) Explain five factors to consider when selecting a mode of transport.
(e) Mention five characteristics of property insurance.

and 03 (3.5%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
It seems that most of the candidates were not well prepared for this question.

The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair in relation to the
level of candidate examined, with mixture of easy and difficult questions and
could be answered within the allocated time of three hours by an average
prepared candidate.
(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of
86 candidates who answered the examination, 70 (81.4%) candidates passed
while the remaining 16 (18.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
52 (60.4%), 12 (14.0%) and 06 (7.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and
distinction marks respectively.
26
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown in Table 6.1.6.
TABLE 6.1.6

0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 18.6 60.4 14.0 7.0 100
TABLE 6.1.7
May 2020 May 2021
35 47.3 70 81.4
27
T.08 ACCOUNTING FOR PUBLIC SECTOR AND COOPERATIVES

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply public sector
and cooperative accounting knowledge and skills to manage government and cooperative
funds economically, efficiently and effectively in accordance with the constitution, laws,
rules and regulations in one or more specialized fields.

The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective type
which carried 40% of the total marks.
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives and write
its appropriate letter.
(b) Pair each item from list A with the items from list B appropriately.
(c) State whether the statement is true or false and write True for the
correct statement and False for the incorrect statement.
31 (34.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 52 (58.4%) and 06
(6.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
QUESTION 2: ACCOUNTING FOR PUBLIC SECTOR: PENSIONS
(a) Determine pensionable service period in months.
(b) Compute annual full pension.
(c) (i) Compute commuted pension gratuity
(ii) Calculate monthly reduced pension

01 (1.1%) and 01 (1.1%) candidate scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively
Candidates failed to first determine the age of majority of an employee and
exclude its months in computation of retirement benefits.
28
QUESTION 3: ACCOUNTING FOR PUBLIC SECTOR: IPSAS ACCRUAL AND
ACCOUNTING FOR GOVERNMENT REVENUE AND
EXPENDITURES
(a) Use the given information to present a statement of financial performance

using function of expense method in line with IPSAS 1.
(b) Explain three key sources of revenue available to the council from the
central government and two sources of council’s internally generated
revenue.
(c) Use the given information to prepare a statement of appropriation in aid
realized for the named RAS as at the year ended.
Candidates seem to be not very much aware of technicalities required in the
question.
QUESTION 4: ACCOUNTING FOR COOPERATIVES AND ACCOUNTING FOR
PUBLIC SECTOR: CASH MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL

(a) (i) Explain the meaning of the term “accounting officer”.
(ii) Explain the Accounting Officer’s functions regarding financial affairs.
(b) State five sources of fund for a registered society as stipulated in the
cooperative societies Act of 2013.
Some candidates failed to differentiate accounting officer of a public office
and a professional accountant.

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced
containing a mixture of computational as well as theoretical questions. It was
further found to be within the syllabus and that it could have been done within the
time allocated of three hours.
(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance
remaining 52 (58.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 36 (40.4%) and 1
29
(1.1%) candidate scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
TABLE 6.1.8
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 52 36 1 00 89
PERCENTAGE 58.4 40.4 1.2 0.0 100
TABLE 6.1.9
May 2020 May 2021
33 53.2 52 58.4
30
PROFESSIONAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
FOUNDATION LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
This is the first level of the Board’s three tier professional examination scheme which leads
to the Certified Public Accountant [CPA (T)] award.
The Foundation level examinations comprise of six subjects as indicated hereunder:
A1 Quantitative Techniques
A2 Business and Management
A3 Accounting
A4 Business Information
A5 Business Law
A6 Business Economics
The examinations draw candidates from two main sources, namely: -
(a) Those candidates who have successfully completed the Board’s Accounting
Technician Level examinations.
(b) Those candidates who have acquired non-accounting first degree (or its equivalent)
qualifications awarded by institutions of higher learning in the country recognized by
the Board.
During the May 2021 examination session, 649 candidates sat for Foundation Level
examinations.
GENERAL OBSERVATIONS
In this examination session, 649 candidates sat for the examination out of whom 209
(32.2%) passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS for the
Foundation Level. 312 (48.1%) have passed some of the subjects while 128 (19.7%)
candidates failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 7.1
TABLE 7.1
SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2020 AND MAY 2021
Paper Performance
Code Subject May 2020 May 2021
No. Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
A1 Quantitative Techniques 275 132 48.0 257 132 51.4
A2 Business and Management 220 178 81.0 184 178 91.8
A3 Financial Accounting 380 164 43.2 423 320 75.7
A4 Cost Accounting 407 268 65.8 416 196 47.1
A5 Business Law 283 129 45.6 226 112 49.5
A6 Business Economics 167 120 71.9 150 125 83.3
31
QUESTION –WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
A1 – QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge and skills of mathematical and quantitative techniques, concepts and
tools in the day to day accounting, business functions and decision making.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER
The paper consisted of three compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:
(a) Use the given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer.
(b) Match the given items in list A with those in list B to produce complete
and meaningful sentences.
(c) For each of the given statements, state whether the statement is true or
false.
candidates who answered the question, 207 (80.5%) candidates passed
while the remaining 50 (19.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 148 (57.6%), 56 (21.7%) and 03 (1.2%) candidates scored pass,
credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most of candidates who failed were unable to choose the most correct
answers, and to state whether the given statements were true or false.
QUESTION 2: INVENTORY PLANNING AND CONTROL; PROBABILY

AND RANDOM VARIABLE
i. Determine the economic batch quantity and reorder point
ii. Calculate probability
iii. Distinguish between discrete or random variable
iv. Compute the expected monetary value and make recommendation

candidates who answered the question 153 (55.6%) candidates passed
passed 80 (29.1%), 49 (17.8%) and 24 (8.7%) candidates scored pass, credit
and distinction marks respectively.
32
Candidates failed to determine conditional probabilities, economic
batch quantity, reorder point and discrete probability distribution
QUESTION 3: LINEAR REGRESSION AND CORRECTION ANALYSIS,

TIME SERIES AND FORECASTING
Candidates were required to use the given information to:

(i) Differentiate between "simple linear regression” and “multiple linear
regression”
(ii) Find correlation coefficient of a given two sets of scores using a
spearman Rank correlation coefficient
(iii) Find a moving average of order 3 from the given values
(iv) Explain the concept “TIME SERIES”

Most of candidates failed to:

(i) Explain how simple linear regression and multiple regression
differ
(ii) Find correlation coefficient by using spearman Rank correlation
coefficient and moving average
QUESTION 4: TRANSPORTATION AND ASSIGNMENT MODELS
The candidates were required to use the given information to:

(a) Formulate a transportation model.
(b) Determine the most efficient shipping schedule for

kerosene from suppliers to the retail shops.
(c) Find the total minimum cost.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of

257candidates who answered the question only 84 (32.7%) candidates
passed while the remaining 173 (67.3%) candidates failed. Out of those
who passed 17 (6.6%), 09 (3.5%) and 58 (22.6%) candidates scored pass,
Most of candidates failed to formulate transport model and

determine the total minimum cost
33
(a) Assessment of the Paper

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced with
a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions. Time allocated
to the questions was adequate to enable an average candidate to complete
the examination.
(b) Candidates’ performance

257 candidates who answered the examination, 132 (51.4%) candidates
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on Table

7.1.1
TABLE 7.1.1
A1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 48.6 40.9 9.7 0.8 100
TABLE 7.1.2
A1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
132 48.0 132 51.4
34
A2 – BUSINESS AND MANAGEMENT
Principal learning outcome of this subject is to test candidates’ ability to apply concepts
and principles of business and management in business environment.
The paper consisted of four questions which were compulsory. Question one was
an objective question which comprised of 40% of the total marks.
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:

(b) Pair each item from list A with the statement from list B appropriately.
(c) State whether the statement is true or false.

77(41.8%),84(45.7%) and 15 (8.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and
distinction respectively.
No major weakness was noted.
QUESTION 2: CODE OF ETHICS
(i) State the purpose of code of ethics
(ii) State three (3) examples of unethical business
behavior and explain how they impact business
growth in Tanzania.
(iii) Discuss the setbacks of “crowdfunding”
(iv) Explain how an entrepreneur can recognize
opportunities
passed 48 (26.1%), 87(47.3%) and 28 (15.2%) candidates scored pass,
credit and distinction marks respectively
No major weakness was noted
35
QUESTION 3: OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT AND MARKETING

i. Elaborate three (3) major elements which shape and defines the way
in which management operates.
ii. Mention reasons would motivate the values of organizational structure
iii. Elaborate the major blend elements for effective promotion mix of an
organization.
iv. Explain the key demands of the “specific “components of an objective.

passed 69 (37.5%), 55 (29.9%) and 9(4.9%) candidates scored pass, credit
No major weakness was noted
QUESTION 4: BUSINESS ORGANIZATION AND ENVIROMENT;

HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
(i) State the activities involved in the tertiary sector of the economy
(ii) Evaluate the reason why managers are fearful of delegating
(iii) Describe the main characteristics for an effective general partnership
formation

candidates who answered the question, 90(48.9%) candidates passed while
(31%),25 (13.6%) and 8(4.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and
distinction respectively.
Candidate failed to give reasons why managers fail to delegate authorities

to subordinates.
36

The panel of examiners found the paper to be well spread within the syllabus
which resulted to the candidates’ good performance.

184 candidates who answered the examination, 178 (91.8%) candidates
passed 98 (53.3%), 69 (37.5) and 02 (01%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.1.3
TABLE 7.1.3

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 8.2 53.3 37.5 01 100
TABLE 7.1.4
A2 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021

178 80.9 178 91.8
37
A3 – FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
knowledge and skills in recording financial transactions and preparing financial
statements for an entity including not for profit entities in accordance with the
IFRSs and IPSASs.
The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
The A3- Financial Accounting subject this session tested candidates on the
following topics:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE
For each of the questions, candidates were required to;
(b) Matching each item from list A with the statement from list B
appropriately.
(c) State whether the statement is true or false.

passed 239(56.5%), 130 (30.7%) and 01 (0.3%) candidates scored pass,
No major weakness was noted in this question; most candidates who
failed this question were not able to choose the most correct answer
among the given alternatives.
QUESTION 2: BANK RECONCILIATION

From the given information, candidates were required to: -
(a) Explain the importance of carrying out reconciliations.

(b) Identify and explain three (3) common causes for the differences
between the cash
(c) Prepare a revised cash book.
(d) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement.
candidates who answered the question only 406 (96.0%) candidates passed
80 (18.9%), 204 (48.2%) and 122 (28.9%) candidates scored pass, credit
38
Most of the candidates failed to understand whether after adjusted cashbook
balance, they add or subtract unpresented cheques
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION OF MANUFACTURING ACCOUNTS

Candidates were required to use the given information to
prepare: -
(a) Manufacturing Account
(b) The statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income.
(c) The statements of financial position

candidates who answered the question only 173 (40.9%) candidates
who passed 167 (39.5%), and 06 (1.4%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks
Most candidates failed to prepare Manufacturing accounts
QUESTION 4: INTRODUCTION TO BASIC FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

AND INTERPRETATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS.
From the given information candidates were required to:

(i) Prepare the Statement of Changes in owner’s Equity
(ii) Prepare income statement and statement of financial position using

the given ratios

candidates who answered the question only, 70 (16.5%) candidates passed
and distinction marks respectively
Most of candidates failed to prepare statement of change in owners’ equity

and the interpretation of ratios how they are related to one another.
39
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fair with adequate coverage
of the syllabus. The panel also observed that candidates could manage to
complete the examination within the allocated time.
(b) Candidates’ Performance

who passed 278 (65.8%) and 42 (9.9%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
examination paper.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in Table

7.1.5
TABLE 7.1.5

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 24.3 65.8 9.9 00 100
TABLE 7.1.6
A3 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020
EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
164 43.2 320 75.7
40
A4 – COST ACCOUNTING

knowledge of cost analysis and awareness of information technology to produce
accurate and useful information to support management in decision-making and its
application in performance management.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:
The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective

In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:
For each of the questions given, candidates were required to choose the most correct
answer among the given alternatives, true and false questions and matching the items.

who answered the question, 375 (90.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 41
(9.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 225 (54.1%), 134 (32.2%) and
16 (3.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
The major weakness in this question was fail to compute and remember the concept.
QUESTION 2: INTRODUCTION TO STANDARD COSTING AND VARIANCE

(a) Calculate:
(i) The standard contribution per unit
(ii) The standard profit per unit
(iii) The actual total fixed overhead cost
(iv) To explain why different variances are calculated depending upon the
choice of marginal or absorption costing by using the information
presented above
41
(b) To discuss possible effective approaches to the investigation variances

candidates who answered the question only 21 (5.1%) candidates passed while the
(1.9%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. There were no
Most candidates failed to understand some terminologies like ‘standard

contribution margin’ and ‘standard profit per unit’ used in the question.
QUESTION 3: CUP ANALYISI FOR A SINGLE PRODUCTS

(i) Provide explanation of various terms in CUP
(ii) Determine total costs, variable costs, contribution margin, break-even
sales and contribution margin from graph provided.
From the given data and break-even chart of ABC Company Limited at year ended 30th
December, 2019.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 416 candidates who
answered the question 203 (48.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 213 (51.2%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 127 (30.5%), 34 (8.2%) and 42 (10.1%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
.
Failed to write correct the meaning of ‘Relevant Range’ and graphical presentation of CUP
was not clear to some students.
QUESTION 4: COSTING FOR PRODUCTS, SERVICE AND PROJECTS
(a) Define inventory reconciliation

(b) Differentiate “stock taking” and “stock valuation”.
(c) Explain the cause of difference between physical stock and the
recorded stock.
(d) Prepare cost of production report
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 416 candidates who
answered the question only, 08 (1.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 408 (98.1%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 04 (1%), 02 (0.5%) and 02 (0.5%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
The major weakness in this question is Failure in computerization.
42
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced
containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was examiners’
view that the paper could have been well attempted within the allocated time of
three hours by an average candidate.
(b) Overall Candidates performance

candidates who answered the examination 196 (47.1%) candidates passed while
marks respectively.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on table 7.1.7
TABLE 7.1.7
CLASSIFICATION OF 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL

MARKS
NO. OF 220 177 18 1 416
CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 52.9 42.6 4.3 0.2 100
TABLE 7.1.8
A4 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020
EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
259 63.6 196 47
43
A5 – BUSINESS LAW
theories, practices and laws governing business in providing accounting services
and protecting business against unnecessary litigations.

The paper comprised seven questions. Candidates were required to answer five
questions.

QUESTION 1: THE LEGAL SYSTEM OF TANZANIA AND INTRODUCTION

TO PUBLIC PROCUREMENT LAW
(a) Mention and explain any four (4) types of the jurisdiction of court of
law in the court hierarchy of Mainland Tanzania.
(b) Write short notes on Civil law, Criminal law, Case law, Administrative
law, Customary law and Principal legislation
(c) Identify the role and powers of an accounting officer in a procuring
entity

candidates who answered the question, 133 (63%) candidates passed while
the remaining 79 (37%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 92
(43%), 36 (17%) and 05 (2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
Candidates failed to understand the meaning of accounting officer.
QUESTION 2: THEFT, FRAUD, FORGERY, BRIBERY, CORRUPTION AND

ALLIED OFFENCES, MISUSE OF PUBLIC OFFICE,
IMPERSONATION AND ALLIED OFFENCES
Candidates were required to use the given case to:
(a) Identify legislations that criminalize corruption in Tanzania

(b) Explain root causes of corruption in the private sector
(c) Propose measures to reduce and combat corruption in the private
sector.
44
Candidates’ performance in this question was n o t satisfactory. Out of 170
candidates who answered the question, only 33 (19.4%) candidates passed
Candidates failed to offer proper citation of the legislations.
QUESTION 3: LAW OF CONTRACT
(a) Define misrepresentation and its effects in the formation of a contract

(b) Use the given case to write legal opinion on contract matters
(c) Use the given case to:
(i) Explain if the given person was legally obliged to pay the reward
to the other person
(ii) Explain whether the answer in (i) would be different if the given
person knew of the reward before he found the lost given lost
item.

passed 40 (26.7%), 17 (11.3) and 08 (5.3%) candidates scored pass, credit
Most candidates failed to apply the acquired knowledge in solving the

practical challenges.
QUESTION 4: EMPLOYMENT LAW

(a) Identify labour rights violated by the given company
(b) Explain the proper procedures to be followed in retrenchment
(c) Prepare legal advice on the remedies and reliefs available in case of
unfair retrenchment
22 (19%) and 02 (1.7%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. There were no distinction marks in this question
Most of the candidates could not offer a good discussion on proper

procedure for retrenchment. Also, some were not in a position to explain
the available remedies on unfair termination.
45
QUESTION 5: THE LAW GOVERNING BUSINESS ORGANIZATIONS IN
TANZANIA
(a) Define winding up of companies and explain the modes of winding up

of companies.
(b) Identify and state five (5) rights of shareholders and creditors in relation
to liquidation of companies
(c) Explain five (5) reasons for lifting of the corporate veil of the companies

candidates who answered the question, 115 (62.2%) candidates passed while
(24.9%), 39 (21.1%) and 30 (16.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Most candidates who attempt this question were not well prepared thus
provide short and unclear answer.
QUESTION 6: THE LAW GOVERNING BUSINESS ORGANIZATIONS IN

TANZANIA
(a) Provide advice basing on:

(i) Advantages of trading as a sole proprietor and advantages of trading
as a company.
(ii) Disadvantages of trading as a sole proprietor and disadvantages of
trading as a company
(iii) Advantages of trading as partnership
(b) From the given scenario assess the validity of the given partner’s
argument in relation to the other partner as follows:
(i) Engaging a lawyer to defend the given partner
(ii) Receiving money from the given company to settle the financial
obligation to the given lawyer
(iii) Engage the given supplier to deliver goods to the firm’s customer
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory . Out of 220

(46.8%), 37 (16.8%) and 22 (10.0%) candidates scored pass and credit and
Some candidates who did not perform to the required standard could be due to
lack of seriousness and thorough review of themselves.
46
QUESTION 7: COMPANIES

(a) Advise the given shareholder on whether the conducts of the two
owners of the company were proper
(b) Explain the remedies available to the given company
(c) Explain if the given shareholder can sue the business owners for what
they did.

(12.7%), 5 (9.1%) and 02 (3.6%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Most candidates failed to explain clearly the concept of legal personality and
its consequences.
IV: GENERAL OBSERVATION

candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that the paper could have been well attempted within the
allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.

226 candidates who answered the examination 112 (50%) candidates passed
while the remaining 114 (50%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
97 (43%) and 15 (7%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively.
No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in table 7.1.9
TABLE 7.1.9

MARKS
NO. OF 114 97 15 00 226
CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 50 43 7 00 100
47
TABLE 7.1.10
A5. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020
EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates %
passed
129 45.6 112 50
A6 – BUSINESS ECONOMICS
economics theories and methodologies as alternatives in managerial decisions.

The paper comprised four questions. Question one was an objective question which
carried 40% of the total marks. Candidates were required to answer all
questions.

(b) Pair each item from list A with the statement from list B appropriately.
(c) State whether the statements given were true or false.

who answered the question, 146 (97%), candidates passed while the remaining 04
(3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 51 (34%), 75 (50%) and 20
(13%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
No major common weakness was noted in this question.
48
QUESTION 2: COST ANALYSIS, PRODUCTION CONCEPT AND THEORY OF
CONSUMER BEHAVIOUR
(a) Explain the major assumptions of ordinal utility theory in measuring the
utility
(b) Distinguish between ‘short-run’ and ‘long-run’ as used in production.
(c) Illustrate what time would total costs equal to fixed costs
(d) Specify the budget question

marks respectively.
Most candidates failed to state the major assumptions of ordinary utility theory
and illustrating the time where TC will be equal to TFC.
QUESTION 3: INFLATION, PUBLIC FINANCE AND OVERVIEW OF TANZANIAN

ECONOMY
(a) Define and explain four types of “public debt”
(b) Provide three main polices that can be used to reduce rate of inflation.
(c) Provide causes of stable economic growth in Tanzania over the last decade

who answered the question 55 (36.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 95
(63.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 48 (32%), 06 (4%) and 01
(0.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Candidate fail to explore four types of public debt and describing policies that can
be used to control inflation rate.
QUESTION 4: THEORY OF MONEY, FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND NATIONAL

INCOME ACCOUNTING
(a) Calculate the Marginal Propensity to Consume and its interpretation.
(b) Discuss the major functions of the central banks in an economy.
(c) Explain the characteristics of good money.
who answered the question 104 (69.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 46
(30.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 44 (29.3%), 42 (28%) and 18
(12%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
There is no comment.
49
IV: GENERAL OBSERVATION
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that the paper could have been well attempted within the
allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.

candidates who answered the examination, 125 (83.3%), candidates passed while
the remaining 25 (16.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 84 (56%),
40 (26.7%) and 01 (0.6) candidates scored pass, credit and distiction marks
respectively.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in table 7.1.9
TABLE 7.1.9

MARKS
NO. OF 25 84 40 1 150
CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 16.7 56 26.7 0.6 100
TABLE 7.1.10
COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021

passed
120 71.9 125 83.3
50
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Intermediate level examinations are the second level of the Board’s professional
examinations under the current examination scheme and syllabus. This examination level
consists of six subjects as shown hereunder: -
B1 Financial Management
B2 Financial Reporting
B3 Auditing Principles and Practices
B4 Public Finance and Taxation
B5 Performance Management
B6 Management, Governance and Ethics
Under this examination scheme and syllabus, a candidate is required to complete Foundation
Level before moving to Intermediate Level. However, candidates who were caught in the
transition from the phased out syllabus to the current syllabus were allowed to cross the
levels.
During the May 2021 examination session, a total of 2,896 candidates sat for Intermediate
Level examinations.
The examination draws candidates from the following

sources:
(a) Candidates who have been referred previously in the respective corresponding
subjects.
(b) Candidates who have majored in accounting in their bachelor degree programmes
from recognized institutions.
51
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this session 2,896 candidates sat for the Intermediate Level Examinations out of whom 349
(21.1%) have passed this level and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS,
1,372 (47.4%) have passed some of the subjects while 1,175 (40.6%) candidates have failed the
examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 8.1 below:
TABLE 8.1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2020

AND MAY 2021
Paper Performance
Code No. Subject May 2020 May 2021

B1 Financial Management 1,474 566 38.4 1,424 371 26.1
B2 Financial Reporting 1,048 312 29.8 1,169 411 35.2
B3 Auditing Principles and

Practices 1,329 703 52.9 1,236 542 43.9
B4 Public Finance & Taxation 1,191 604 50.7 1,039 532 51.2
B5 Performance Management 1,833 811 44.2 1,552 412 26.5
B6 Management, Governance 832 741 89.1 729 704 96.6

& Ethics
52
B1 FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to

apply financial management knowledge and skills in evaluating investment
opportunities, forecasting and planning financial needs of a firm. The subject enables
candidates to apply debt and equity capital financing techniques in capital structure decision
making. Determine the optimal working capital for a business and apply dividend policy
knowledge for dividend decisions.
The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each.
Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four
out of five questions in Section B.
The following topics were tested in this

paper: -
QUESTION 1: FINANCING DECISIONS

(a) Discuss briefly the reasons why interest rates may differ across loans
of different maturities.
(b) Discuss the attractions of leasing as a source of both short-term and

long-term finance.
(c) Evaluate whether a given company should use leasing or borrowing

as a source of finance, explaining the evaluation method used.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,424

candidates who answered the question only 91 (6.4%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 1,333 (93.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 78 (5.5%), 12 (0.8%) and 01 (0.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Majority of the candidates demonstrated poor communication skills and

computational skills and failed to use appropriate formulae. They also
misinterpreted question 1(b) as they discussed on the difference between short
term and long term finance instead of describing attraction of leasing.
53
QUESTION 2: DIVIDEND POLICY; INVESTMENT DECISIONS
(a) (i) Evaluate the arguments for and against the relevance of a given
company’s dividend policy.
(ii) Briefly explain any three factors that determine a given
company dividend policy.
(b) (i) Using the Capital Assets Pricing Model (CAPM) and/or dividend
discount model, calculate the share price which might be expected
by the market if the company;
(ii) Does not announce a change in dividend policy
(iii) Announces a change in dividend policy
(iv) Comment on the limitations of the models you have used in part
(i) above.

remaining 781 (58.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 510 (38.3%)
and 42 (3.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Majority of candidates failed to evaluate arguments for and against relevance of

dividend policy, instead they focused on the irrelevance theories. Most of them
used earnings per share figure instead of dividend per shares to calculate share
prices.
QUESTION 3: INVESTMENT DECISIONS; PRINCIPLES OF VALUATION
(a) (i) Differentiate “yield to maturity” from “yield to call”.

(ii) Bond management strategies depend on the objectives and the risk
profile of the investor”. Briefly discuss.
(b) Use the given information to,

(i) Calculate the conversion premium as a percentage of the current share
price.
(ii) Briefly explain the company’s expectations about share price in three
years’ time.
(c) Use the given information to find the yield to maturity of the bond.
(d) Explain why different sources of capital have different levels of risk and
return.
54
candidates who answered the question, 04 (0.7%) candidates scored pass marks
while the remaining 599 (99.3%) candidates failed. There was neither credit nor
distinction marks in this questions.
Most of the candidates showed weaknesses on the calculation aspects of the question. In
part (d) they failed to give reasons as per the requirement of the question instead they
gave ‘impacts’ of risk and return.
QUESTION 4: PRINCIPLES OF VALUATION; FINANCING DECISIONS
(a) Explain and compare the public sector objective of ‘value for money’ and
the private sector objective of ‘maximization of shareholders’ wealth’.
(b) Use the given information to calculate the firm’s Weighted Average Cost
of Capital (WACC).
(c) Discuss the value and limitations of WACC as a discount rate for use
in the appraisal of capital investment projects, and the relative merits
of using book values and market values to calculate WACC.

candidates who answered the question only, 04 (0.3%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 1406 (99.7%) candidates failed. There was neither
credit nor distinction marks in this question.
Majority of the candidates were relatively weak on calculations of Weighted

Average Cost (WACC) and to explain its logical implication and its values.
They were unable to explain practical value for money in public and private
sectors.
QUESTION 5: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT

(a) (i) Discuss the key elements of a trade receivable policy.
(ii) Using examples, explain any four ways in which a company can
improve the management of its trade receivables.
(b) Use the given information to evaluate whether a given company should
introduce the early settlement discount.

(3.7%) and 05 (0.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
In this question, the correct recommendation was obtained from the wrong
calculated figure, so automatically they were wrong.
55
QUESTION 6: FINANCING DECISIONS
Candidates were required to use the information given to:
(a) Apply the Modigliani and Miller theory to determine the value of the two
companies assuming a tax rate of 30%. Explain the difference.
(b) (i) Determine the current, and potential expected Return on Equity under
the buyback programme.
(ii) Explain the cause of any change and any assumptions that you have
made.
(c) (i) Prepare projected Statement of Financial Position and income statement
under each alternative current asset policy and calculate the Return on
equity.
(ii) Advise a given company on the best current asset policy to adopt.

Most of the candidates were not conversant with the calculations of Return on
Equity and application of the current assets policy in adjusting the financial
statements.

The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the
questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers
also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eighty percent of the
topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and
computational questions.
147 Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 1424
scored distinction marks in this question paper.
4 candidates who answered the examination only 566 (38.4%) candidates
passed 545 (37.0%) and 21 (1.4%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
56
TABLE 8.1.1
B1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF
MARKS 00-39 40-59 60- 80- TOTAL
79 100
NO. OF CANDIDATES 1053 369 02 00 1424
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 73.9 25.9 0.1 0.0 100
TABLE 8.1.2
B1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
566 38.4 371 26.1
57
B2 FINANCIAL REPORTING
Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge and skills in preparation of financial statements for a separate entity and a group
in accordance with the IFRSs and IPSASs and analyze financial statements to examine the
sustainability of the business entity.

The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each. Candidates
were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of five questions
in section B.

The following topics were tested in this paper: -
QUESTION 1: PREPARING FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given information to;

(a) Prepare a Statement of Profit or Loss and Other Comprehensive Income,
for a company at a given year ended.
(b) Prepare a Statement of Financial Position, for a company as at a given year.
Candidates performance in this question was not satisfactory as all 1169 (100%)
candidates who answered the question failed.
The major weakness was on understanding contents of the question and unable
to prepare important workings to correct figures to be used in preparing financial
statements.
QUESTION 2: PREPARING CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

(a) Prepare the Consolidated Statement of Profit or Loss and Other

Comprehensive Income of a company for the given year ended.
(b) Calculate the carrying amount of the investment in one company in the
Consolidated Statement of Financial Position for a given company as at a
certain year.
58
Large number of candidates failed to calculate amount of cost of sales and

carrying amount of the investment.
QUESTION 3: PREPARING CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Prepare a Statement of Cash Flow of a given company using the indirect method
for the given year ended in accordance with IAS 7: ‘Statement of cash flows’.
482 (42.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 443 (39.0%), 184
respectively.
Some candidates were unable to relate the financial statements given to compute
movement of cash flows.
QUESTION 4: FINANCIAL STATEMENTS ANALYSIS AND EVALUATION
Candidates were required to use the given scenario to:
(a) Compute the following financial ratios for both given companies for the
given ended year.
(i) Gross profit margin

(ii) Operating profit margin
(iii) Creditor’s deferral period/days
(iv) Return on capital employed
(iv) Gearing
(b) Write a brief report commenting on the performance and position of both
given companies for the given ended year.
(c) Briefly explain any five challenges of using the reports of ratio analysis as the
basis for decision making.
59
and 06 (0.5%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
The weakness noted was on the use of ratios to discuss the overall performance of
the business.
QUESTION 5: ELEMENTS OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

(a) Briefly explain the five steps involved in revenue recognition as per the IFRS
15.
(b) Prepare journal entries to show how the disposal of the high-tech machine
should have been treated in the financial statements for the given year ended.
(c) Describe the criteria for the recognition of property, plant and equipment in the
financial statements in accordance with IAS 16: Property, Plant and
Equipment’s.

(48.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 172 (15.5%), 191 (17.3%) and
212 (19.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Over 50% candidates passed the question, no major weakness noted.
QUESTION 6: ELEMENTS OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required use the given scenarios to:

(a) Calculate the deferred tax liability on a given year in accordance with IAS
12: Income Taxes. Show where the increase or decrease in the liability in the
year would be charged or credited.
(b) Explain the correct accounting treatment (with calculations if appropriate) in

accordance with IAS 37: Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent
Assets.
(c) Explain the correct accounting treatment (with calculations if appropriate) in
accordance to IAS 38: Intangible Assets.

marks respectively.
It seems that most candidates did not understand the requirements of the question.
60
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions
examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the
paper to be well balanced, covering over eighty-five percent of the topics in the
syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions.
scored distinction marks in this question paper.

8.1.3
TABLE 8.1.3
CLASSIFICATION OF
MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 758 404 07 00 1169

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 64.8 34.6 0.6 0.0 100
TABLE 8.1.4
May 2020 May 2021
312 29.8 411 35,2
61
B3 AUDITING PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE
auditing principles and standards in executing external audit assignments (carrying out
audit procedures) and coming up with appropriate reports, as well as implementing entity’s
internal control policies in carrying out internal audits.

in Section B.
QUESTION 1: THE NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION

OF SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE; PROFESSIONAL
ETHICS, PUBLIC INTEREST, FUNDAMENTAL OBJECTIVES,
THREAT AND SAFEGUARD TO INDEPEDENCE; ASSURANCE
REPORTS, TYPES AND THE CONTENT
Candidates were required to;
(a) (i) Use the given scenario to explain the circumstances which may lead to
changes in the terms of engagement.
(ii) Discuss the important points which should be considered before
accepting changes in the terms of engagement.
(b) Identify the threats involved in each of the situations given and explain how
it would affect the objectivity and independence of the auditor. Also explain
the responsibility (if any) of the firm and the concerned member of the audit
firm.
(c) Use the given scenario to describe the auditor’s responsibility in respect of
misstatements.
(d) As per ISA 570: Going Concern, explain the actions that an auditor should
carry out to ascertain whether an entity continue as a going concern.

Candidates demonstrated lack of knowledge on the subject contents in the case

of stating change of terms of engagement, they explained change of an auditor.
They failed to link requirement of the question with the given case study.
62
QUESTION 2: THE NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION OF
SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE
(a) (i) Identify and describe four application controls, in addition to format
(character) checks that should exist within a certain company application
programme for purchases and trade payables, to ensure accuracy over
the input of data.
(ii) Identify and explain three matters that your audit manager would need to
consider when deciding on the extent to which your firm should rely on
CAATs as compared to manual procedures, when carrying out audit
work.
(b) Explain the purpose of carrying out each of the following procedures:
(i) Forwarding a bank confirmation request letter to company bankers

(ii) Examination of supplier statement balances as at a given year.
(iii) Cut-off tests on inventory, purchases and sales.
(iv) Analytical procedures at the final review stage of the audit.
Candidates failed to connect the theoretical aspects with practical perspectives.
The main weakness was to answer the aspects raised in the case study by using
audit knowledge.
QUESTION 3: THE NATURE AND USE OF INTERNAL CONTROLS

(a) (i) Explain the meaning of documents and records and their functions as
used in the context of auditing.
(ii) Describe any three principles that dictate the proper design and use of
documents and records.
(b) Describe five main components of internal control.
Some of the candidates didn’t read conceptual issues required by the question.
63
QUESTION 4: THE NATURE AND USE OF INTERNAL CONTROL; INTERNAL AUDIT
OF ENTITIES

(a) Explain the purpose of a management letter prepared by an auditor to a client.
(b) Distinguish between a fraud and an error; and outline the external auditor’s
responsibility in respect to each.
(c) Explain the functions that are expected to be performed by the internal
auditor in respect of fraud and error.
(d) Explain the key factors to consider when auditing a client company involved
in e-commerce.

respectively.
Some of the candidates failed to answer part (d) related to e-commerce, explain the
functions of internal auditor related to fraud and errors and also stating
responsibilities of external auditor related to frauds and errors. They failed to explain
purpose of management letter rather they stated importance of engagement letter.
QUESTION 5: PUBLIC SECTOR AUDITING; ASSURANCE REPORTS, TYPES

AND THE CONTENT
(a) (i) Describe specific responsibilities of those charged with governance as

per ISA 260: Communication with those charged with governance.
(ii) Explain four examples of matters that might be communicated to those

charged with governance by the auditor.
(b) Discuss the factors which may cause the auditor to issue the qualified opinion
and the implications of qualifications.
(c) (i) Discuss the specific considerations of CAG in the public sector audit.
(ii) Explain to whom the Controller and Auditor General is reports.
64
(0.3%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
Most of the candidates failed to state specific responsibilities of those charged with
governance as per ISA 260. They also failed to state factors for auditor to issue qualified
opinion.
QUESTION 6: PROFESSIONAL ETHICS, PUBLIC INTEREST, FUNDAMENTAL

OBJECTIVES, THREATS AND SAFEGUARDS TO INDEPENDENCE
(a) State two advantages and two disadvantages of principles-based approach
to ethical conflict resolution.
(b) Discuss the professional objectivity, threats and safeguards issues
involved in the scenarios of two given different clients of someone.
(c) Advise someone on how he should tackle a matter of occurrences of fraud
caused by certain heads of departments in his company.

marks respectively.
Most of the candidates provided answers which were not relevant to the
requirements of the questions.

questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the
paper to be well balanced, covering almost seventy-five percent of the
topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of questions.
candidates who answered the examination only 542 (43.9%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 694 (56.1%) candidates failed. There was neither credit
nor distinction marks in this questions paper.
65
TABLE 8.1.5
00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 694 542 00 00 1236
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 56.1 43.9 0.0 0.0 100
TABLE 8.1.6
B3 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2019
EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021

703 52.9 542 43.9
66
B4 PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION

knowledge of public finance, tax laws and principles in the computation of tax liabilities,
preparation and filing of tax returns; and in administering compliance with the tax laws;
both in the public sector and in the private sector.
in Section B.
QUESTION 1: GOVERNMENT BUDGET, AND IMPOSITION AND LIABILITY TO

VAT
(a) Outline the challenges of budget deficit.

(b) Compute the amount of VAT payable by or refundable.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 1,039 candidates

Most candidates who failed were not able to outline the challenges of budget deficit
and to compute input VAT.
QUESTION 2: PUBLIC FINANCE AND NATIONAL INCOME

(a) Identify and explain methods of measurement of national income.
(b) Explain the reasons as to why National Income Accounting is important.
(c) Calculate GDP at market prices, GNPMP, GDPFC and Net National Product at
market price.
(d) Briefly describe any considerations which should be taken into account in
finding the right mix of public and private provision of goods.
67
who answered the question 398 (47.2%) candidates passed while the remaining
Most candidates were not able to calculate GDP at market prices, GNPMP,
GDPFC and Net National Product at market price.
QUESTION 3: PAYMENT PROCEDURES OF TAX AND EMPLOYMENT INCOME

(a) Identify ways for each given case under which the self-assessment system is
useful in Reducing compliance cost and administration cost.
(b) Explain the tests that are used by Tanzania Revenue Authority (TRA) to
distinguish between “an employee” and “self-employed” for tax purposes.
(c) Compute the appropriate total taxable income and net Tax payable by or Tax
refundable.

who answered the question only 458 (48.2%) candidates passed while the
respectively
Most candidates who failed were not prepared themselves well with the topics
examined in this question.
QUESTION 4: INDIVIDUAL’S INVESTMWNT INCOME AND CUSTOMS

(a) Calculate the taxable rental income.
(b) Compute the custom value, total duties and taxes payable

126 (13.9%) and 116 (12.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
Most candidate who failed were not able to compute the custom value, total
duties and taxes payable.
68
QUESTION 5: INTRODUCTION TO PUBLIC FINANCE AND THE ECONOMIC
ROLES OF THE GOVERNMENT
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to:
(i) Explain solutions to the free rider problem.
(ii) Explain the meaning of a “public good”.
(iii) Explain main properties of public good.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to:
(i) Give a brief explanation on the effect of residential status on

income tax from consultancy income.
(ii) With at least two (2) reasons, state whether the person is right in
worrying about having a higher tax liability in the United Republic
of Tanzania as a result of being a non-resident person.

Most candidates were not prepared themselves well with the topic the
question was fair and clear.
QUESTION 6: INCOME TAX AND CUSTOMS
(a) Calculate capital allowance.

(b)
(i) Explain the meaning of “Single Custom Territory” (SCT).
(ii) Explain the features of Single Custom Territory (SCT).

while the remaining 517 (82.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 90
(14.3%) and 20 (03.2%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively.
No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Most candidates failed to determine the depreciable assets and depreciation

base, also failed to explain the meaning of “Single Custom Territory and its
features.
69

questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced with excellent spread of
the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and

1,039 candidates who answered the examination, 532 (51.2%) candidates
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table

8.1.7
TABLE 8.1.7
B4 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE
ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF
MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 507 498 33 01 1,039
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 48.8 47.9 3.2 0.1 100
TABLE 8.1.8
May 2020 May 2021

passed
604 50.7 532 51.2
70
B5 PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT
Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability
to apply knowledge and skills of financial and non-financial data analysis in
providing information and decision support to management for decision-making,
performance evaluation, and control.
out of five questions in Section B
QUESTION 1: DECISION MAKING TECHNIQUES
From the given information candidates were required to calculate levels

at which it will be beneficial to undertake the venture for each sales
price and advise accordingly.
candidates who answered the question only, 162 (10.4%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 1390 (89.6%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 155 (09.9%), 06 (0.4%) and 01 (0.1%) candidates scored
pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Most candidates were not able to relate the question with the relevant
decision-making technique.
QUESTION 2: COSTING ACCOUNTING TECHNIQUES

(a) Briefly explain limitations of implementing target costing in service
industries as opposed to manufacturing industries.
(b)
(i) Estimate the cost of serving the order.
(ii) Explain the limitations of learning curve theory.
(c) With reasons, comment on whether it is worth to get rid of traditional

costing system and implement Activity Based Costing (ABC) as
suggested.
71
Most candidates failed to explain the limitation of target costing in service

industries as opposed to manufacturing industries instead they explained
the differences between product and service. Also, most candidates failed
to provide reasons for sustainability of ABC instead they explained the
differences between ABC and Traditional costing.
QUESTION 3: STANDARD COSTING AND VARIANCE ANALYSIS

(a) Identify and explain the perspectives of a balanced scorecard.
(b) Calculate the following variances:

(i) Sales volume contribution and sales price variances.
(ii) Price, mix and yield variances for each material.
(iii) Labour rate, labour efficiency and idle time variance.

Most candidates failed the part B of the question to calculate:
Sales volume contribution and sales price variances,
Price, mix and yield variances for each material, and
Labour rate, labour efficiency and idle time variance.
72
QUESTION 4: DECISION MAKING TECHNIQUES
(a) Compute the total budgeted profit.

(b) Briefly describe factors would be considered while implementing the
consultants’ recommendations.

respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Most candidates failed to calculate the budgeted profit on the given
situations in part A of the question.
QUESTION 5: PERFORMANCE MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL
(a) Explain the implications and set transfer prices per consulting day at
which the Accounts and Tax division can provide consultancy services
to another division such that the profit of the firm as a whole is
maximized in each of the given scenarios.
(b) Discuss the potential for maximization of income by a multinational
company through the use of transfer pricing mechanism.
Most candidates who failed was not prepared themselves well with the
topic examined in this question. The question was clear and fair.
73
QUESTION 6: BUDGETARY PLANNING AND CONTROL
(a) Enumerate reasons for conflicts between the objectives of the organization
and of the individual departments, and state how these can be overcome.
(b) Briefly explain techniques for dealing with uncertainty in the budget
environment.
(c)
(i) A statement to show the profit for the season just ended.
(ii) A statement to show the profit for the production plan that would
recommend for the coming season, and justify the recommendation
accordingly.

Most candidates were not able to prepare the statements to show profit
as required.
74
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions
examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the
paper to be well balanced. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 1,552
respectively.
TABLE 8.1.9

MARKS
NO. OF CANDIDATES 1140 399 11 02 1,552
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 73.5 25.7 0.7 0.1 100
TABLE 8.1.10
May 2020 May 2021
811 44.2 passed 412 26.5
75
B6 MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS
Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability
to apply principles of strategic management, good governance and business ethics
management and administrative functions of an organization.
out of five questions in Section B
QUESTION 1: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
Candidates where required to use given information to: -
(a) Describe important steps in strategic evaluation.

(b) Discuss different types of diversification in business.
No major weakness, candidates who failed were not prepared themselves
well for the examination.
QUESTION 2: GOVERNANCE, RISK MANAGEMENT AND ETHICS

Candidates where required to use the given information to: -
(a) Discuss the key principles that are essential to a good legal
environment for business.
(b) Explain what should be done if the law dictates that a person should
act in a way that is contrary to common sense or professional
judgement.
(c) Analyze types of stakeholders in a business industry.

76
QUESTION 3: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE, RISK
MANAGEMENT AND ETHICS.
(a) Apply the given scenario to answer “Management” related questions

provided.
(b) Use the given scenario to elaborate principles of good governance
which have been violated.
(c) Elaborate the terms “Human rights”.
QUESTION 4: GOVERNANCE, RISK MANAGEMENT AND ETHICS
(a) Classify the risks into “strategic risks” and “operational risks”.
(b) Identify and explain common corporate governance components.
(c) Explain how the role that the chairman and NEDs should play in the
decision-making process would affect the CEO.

Those who failed were unable to understand the requirements of the
question.
QUESTION 5: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT AND GOVERNANCE, RISK

MANAGEMENT AND ETHICS
(a) Analyze important methods which an entrepreneur can use to gain
competitive advantage in a business.
(b) Analyze the common rights of company shareholders.
(c) Discuss various principles of the ethical practice of public health.
77
QUESTION 6: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT

(a) Identify the environments and examine how each environment

influence the smartness of the successful implementation of strategies.
(b) Identify the key issues that would explain to board members during the
orientation.
(c) Explain what evidences would provide to justify the validity of the
given statement about whistle blowing.

78

The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of
the questions examined and time allocated for each question, with a wider
spread of topics within the syllabus.
passed 291 (39.9%), 282 (38.7%) and 131 (18.0) candidates scored pass,
8.1.11
TABLE 8.1.11
NO. OF CANDIDATES 25 291 282 131 729
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 03.4 39.9 38.7 18.0 100
TABLE 8.1.12
May 2020 May 2021
741 89.1 704 96.6
79
FINAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Final Level examinations are the last level of the three-tier professional examination
system of the Board.
The final level examinations consist of four subjects as mentioned hereunder: -
C1 Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and Assurance
C3 Business and Corporate Finance
C4 Advanced Taxation
These examination papers have been tested for the tenth time in this examination session.
The examination draws candidates from: -
(a) Candidates who were referring P15 Financial Reporting II and P20 Contemporary
Issues in Accounting in the phased-out syllabus where these candidates sat for C1
Corporate Reporting in the current syllabus
(b) Candidates who were referring P18 Auditing and Assurance Services in the phased-
out syllabus where these candidates sat for C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
(c) Candidates who were referring P16 International Finance in the phased-out syllabus
where these candidates sat for C3 Business and Corporate Finance in the current
syllabus and
(d) Candidates who were referring P17 Public Finance and Taxation in the phased-out
syllabus where these candidates sat for C4 Advanced Taxation in the current syllabus
The performance of the candidates who attempted both modules is shown at the end of the
level’s report.
80
During the May 2021 examination session, 1,978 candidates sat for Final Level
examinations out of whom 290 (14.7%) have passed this level and therefore eligible for the
award of STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 832 (41.1%) have passed some of the subjects
while 856 (43.3%) have failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise for the final level examination in this session is as
shown on Table 9.1
TABLE 9.1
MODULE E SUBJECT -WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS:
MAY 2020 and MAY 2021
Code Subject Performance
May 2020 May 2021

C1 Corporate Reporting 1,027 337 32.8 1,255 483 38.5
C2 Auditing and Assurance 987 398 40.3 1,021 310 30.4
C3 Business and Corporate Finance 1,037 460 44.4 995 225 22.6
C4 Advanced Taxation 735 323 43.9 743 603 81.2
81
C1 CORPORATE REPORTING
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to financial
reporting standards and corporate law in preparing, analyzing and evaluating corporate
reports by entities, both in the private and public sectors.
This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates
were required to answer four questions. Question one which carried 40 % of the total
marks was compulsory
In this paper, topics examined and candidates’ performances were as follows:
QUESTION 1: FINANCIAL STATEMENTS OF GROUP ENTITIES
PROFESSIONAL ETHICS ACCOUNT FOR FOREIGN ENTITIES
Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare: -
(a) Prepare a Consolidated Statement of Cash Flow of the given company using
the indirect method, for the given year end in accordance with the
requirements of IAS 7: ‘Statement of Cash Flows’.
(b) Discuss the ethical and accounting implications of the above situations, with
reference to the applicable International Financial Reporting Standards
(IFRS).
(c) Discuss and apply the principles set out in IAS 21: The Effects of Changes
in Foreign exchange rates in order to determine the functional currency of
Ndebele Ltd.
Candidates showed weakness in identifying ethical issues. They focused on IFRS

compliance more than on ethical issues behind non-compliance. They also showed
weaknesses in consolidation techniques.
82
QUESTION 2: FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS; REPORTING REQUIREMENTS OF SMS
AND PROVISION; CONTINGENT LIABILITIES AND CONTINGENT
ASSETS
Candidates were required to use given information to: -
(a) Discuss the accounting treatment of the above transaction (i
& ii) in the financial statements of the given company for the
given year end.
(b) Prepare extracts of Statement of Profit or Loss for the given
three years in accordance with IFRS for SME statement.
(c) Explain how the loan note would be accounted in the
financial statements of the given company for the given year
if it were classified as:
(i) Financial asset at amortized cost.
(ii) Financial asset at fair value through profit or loss.
and 01 (0.2%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
Candidates were unable to discuss the accounting treatment as well as preparing
extracts of statement of profit or loss.
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL PERFORMANCE AND POSITION OF

ENTITIES
(a)(i) Prepare a Statement of Profit or Loss and Other comprehensive Income

for the given company for the given year end
(ii) Calculate the earnings per share for the given company for
the given year end.
(b) Discuss how integrated reporting may help the given
company to communicate its strategy to investors and other
stakeholders, and improve the company’s strategic
performance. Your answer should briefly discuss the
principles of integrated reporting and make reference to the
concerns raised by the finance director.

83
Most candidates failed to identify other revenues, non operating expenses, investment
income and other comprehensive income. Others failed to calculate theoretical ex-right
price and weighted average number of shares. They also failed to relate integrated
reporting with the given case.
QUESTION 4: ENHANCING FINANCIAL REPORTING; EMPLOYEE BENEFITS

(a) Under IAS 19: Employee Benefits, determine the amounts that will be
recognized in the financial statements of the given company for the given year
end.
(b) Prepare a sustainability report for the given company to its Directors in
accordance with the GRI guidelines. (Do not include sustainability
performance indicators which are not included in the above scenario).
respectively
Those who failed were unable to calculate employee benefits and preparing
suitable report as per GRI guidelines.
QUESTION 5: REPORTING INCOME TAX; PRESENTATION AND DISCLOSURE;

OPERATING STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the give information to:
(a)(i) Discuss the views of the finance director and the shareholder that the tax
reconciliation is difficult to understand and comment on the finance
director’s suggestion that it should not be disclosed.
(ii) Calculate the deferred tax liability at the given year after any necessary
adjustments to the financial statements showing how the deferred tax
liability would be dealt with in the financial statements. (Assume that any
adjustments do not affect current tax. You should briefly discuss the
adjustments required to calculate deferred tax liability).
(b) Explain the nature of segment information that the given company must
include in the notes to the financial statements identifying the reportable
segments as part of its financial statements for the year to the given year in
accordance with applicable International Financial Reporting Standards
(IFRS
84
Most candidates did not stick to the specific requirements of the question, there
were plenty of vague answers. Most of them could not calculate deferred tax, failed
also in computing total profit and sales for each given segment. Also only few
candidates were able to cite applicable standards where it was required.
QUESTION 6: IAS 10: EVENTS AFTER REPORTING PERIODS; PROVISIONS;

CONTINGENT; LIABILITIES AND CONTINGENT ASSETS; RELATED
PARTY TRANSACTIONS; DISCLOSURES
(a)(i) Discuss the concepts of “adjusting” and “non-adjusting” events as defined

by IAS 10: Events after the Reporting Period, and explain the accounting
treatment and disclosures required in each case.
(ii) In each case (1) to (4) above, prepare a briefing note advising on the
accounting treatment and/or disclosures required as a result of the
event(s) after the reporting date.
(b) Explain and show how the events shown above would be reported in the
financial statements of the given company for the given year end
(c) Identify the related parties of the given company, the reporting enterprise, with
references to IAS 24: Related Party Disclosures.

candidates who answered the examination 496 (42.0%) candidates passed while
marks respectively
Those who failed were unable to answer the question as per the requirements
given.

The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture of
questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was adequate. The paper
had easy and difficult questions which were all within the prescribed syllabus.
(b) Candidates’ overall performance of the paper
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of
1,255 candidates who answered the examination only, 483 (38.5%) candidates
passed while the remaining 772 (61.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
480 (38.2%) and 03 (0.3%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.
85
9.1.1
TABLE 9.1.1
C1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total
No. of Candidates 772 480 03 00 1,255

(Frequency)
Percentage 61.5 38.2 0.3 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.2
C1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
337 32.8 483 38.5
86
C2 AUDITING AND ASSURANCE SERVICES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
auditing and assurance standards and relevant laws in undertaking and managing
auditing and assurance engagements in complex auditing and reporting situations.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total
marks was compulsory.
QUESTION 1: ACCEPTING ENGAGEMENT AND MANAGING ASSIGNMENTS;

LEGAL, REGULATORY AND ETHICAL ISSUES; DRAWING
CONCLUSIONS AND REPORTING
(a)(i) Discuss the meaning and “importance of a hot review”.
(ii) For each of the THREE given audit clients, comment on the
suitability or otherwise of the recommendations made by the Audit
Seniors and give reasons for your arguments.
(b)(i) Explain the term ‘money laundering’ giving examples of money
laundering offences that could be committed by the accountants.
(ii) Recommend four (4) suitable policies and procedures that your
firm should establish in order to meet the firm’s responsibilities in
relation to money laundering activities.
(c) Comment the matters that you should consider from each of the
given issues and state the audit evidence that you should expect to
find in undertaking your review of the audit working papers and
financial statements of the given company for the given year end
(d) Describe the significant types of judgements made by auditors in:
(i) Gathering evidence
(ii) Arriving at an opinion on the financial statements.
87
On part (c) most candidates concentrated on audit evidence part and
neglected to comment on matters to consider from each issue. Some
candidates did not give much attention to question number 1 which carried
more weight in the paper. Others ended up copying facts given and as a
result consumed much time which could be spent to answer the question.
QUESTION 2: ACCEPTING ENGAGEMENTS AND MANAGING
ASSIGNMENTS; PLANNING AND UNDERTAKING WORK

(a) Discuss any three of such factors.
(b) Critically evaluate three (3) factors that would suggest that there may
be a high inherent risk applying to plant and machinery income as
reported in the financial statements of the given company
(c) Explain any four (4) items that should be included in an audit
engagement letter
Candidates were unable to evaluate factors that may indicate existence of

inherent risk from the give scenario.
QUESTION 3: LEGAL, REGULATORY AND ETHICAL ISSUES; DRAWING
CONCLUSION AND REPORTING
Candidates were required to use given information to:-
(a)(i) Comment on the decision of the senior partner to provide a staff

member from the Management Consultancy Services Department
to temporarily assume some functions of the finance director in the
given company under the circumstances described.
(ii) Recommend and justify the most appropriate
course of action that should be followed by the
given manager at this point.
(b) Review each of the given events and advise with reasons if the
event is an adjusting or non-adjusting event and if it has any impact
on the given company’s financial statements.
88
Most candidates were unable to analyze the circumstance described to link

it with ethical threats. As a result most of the candidates failed to get the
right answers. Others were struggling to differentiate adjusting and non-
adjusting events.
QUESTION 4: ASSESSMENT OF RISKS; INTERNAL CONTROLS AND

INTERNAL FINANCIAL CONTROLS
(a)(i) Explain five (5) key factors which an auditor should consider
when auditing a client company which is involved in e-
commerce.
(ii) Describe three (3) factors that the auditor should consider when
auditing a client company which is involved in cloud computing.
(iii) Explain four (4) matters which an audit practitioner must consider
when deciding whether or not to use computer audit software.
(b) Discuss the elements of the fraud triangle and explain how these
may assist the external auditor in identifying a fraud arising from
fraudulent financial reporting and the misappropriation of assets.

of 209 candidates who answered the examination only 48 (23.0%) candidates
Most of the candidates failed to understand the requirements of the question
at large.
89
QUESTION 5: ASSESSMENT OF RISKS; INTERNAL CONTROLS; PLANNING
AND UNDERTAKING AUDIT WORK
Candidates were required to explain the term ‘audit risk’ and the three
elements of risk that contribute to total audit risk.
(b) Use the given information to: -

(i) Explain the implications of this situation on the entity’s audit.
(ii) Describe the audit substantive procedures which you may
undertake in relation to audit of the given company’s Statement
of Cash Flow.
(b) Discuss the meaning of significant components and state the extent
of the work, that the principal auditors will undertake on the financial
statements of a significant component.
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory.
Out of 738 candidates who answered the examination only 282 (38.2%)
candidates passed while the remaining 456 (61.8%) candidates failed. Out
of those who passed 247 (33.5%), 31 (4.2%) and 04 (0.5%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most candidates failed to explain the implications on the situation on the
entity’s audit in part (b) of the question. For part (c) most candidates lacked
underrating about significant components and also failed to state the extent
of the work of principal auditor on the financial statements.
QUESTION 6: NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND SELECTION OF

SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE
Candidates were required use the information to: -
(a) Explain the meaning of sufficiency and appropriateness of audit

evidence.
(b) In respect of each of the two (2) matters described in the case:
(i) Comment on the sufficiency and appropriateness of the audit
evidence obtained.
(ii) Explain the matters which should be included in a report in
accordance with ISA 265: Communicating Deficiencies in Internal
Controls to Those Charged with Governance and Management.
(c) State specific actions an auditor or an audit firm should take to
minimize liability deriving from audit risk.
90
candidates who answered the question only, 123 (19.1%) candidates passed
Candidates were unable to understand that an evidence can be sufficient but
not appropriate and vice-versa. They thought that, if it is insufficient then it
is also inappropriate. They also thought that when a test results into
weakness in the control system then the evidence is insufficient and
inappropriate and others thought that when a procedure reveals weaknesses
in control then it is sufficient and appropriate.

The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture of
questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was adequate. The
paper had easy and difficult questions which were all within the prescribed
syllabus.

of 1,021 candidates who answered the examination only, 310 (30.4%)
candidates passed scored pass marks. No candidate scored credit nor
distinction marks in this examination paper.
9.1.3
TABLE 9.1.3

No. of Candidates 711 310 00 00 1,021

(Frequency)
Percentage 69.6 30.4 0.0 0.0 100
91
TABLE 9.1.4
C2 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020
EXAMINATIONS
MAY 2020 May 2021
398 40.3 310 30.4
C3 BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE

business and financial theories, concepts and analytical frameworks in evaluating
and assessing business strategy, business and financing options as well as financial
engineering products and provide advice based on such assessments.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total marks
was compulsory
QUESTION 1: INTERNATIONAL PARITY RELATIONSHIP AND EXCHANGE
FORECASTING
Candidates were required to use given information to:-
(a)(i) Develop a decision tree from the information given in the scenario
and discuss its implications and shortcomings. Ignore the time
value of money in your analysis.
(ii) The divisional director suggests that the procurement decision
could have been taken on the evidence of the decision tree. Discuss
other factors which should also be taken into consideration when
deciding which option to select.
(iii) Discuss how each of the above risks (supplier business failure and
employee travel) might be avoided or mitigated.
(b) Briefly discuss the significance of covered interest rate parity theory
in the determination of forward currency rates.
92
(c) Calculate the following exchange rates:
(i) The current TZS. spot rate that could have been forecasted by PPP.
(ii) The expected TZS. spot rate one year from now based on the IFE.
(iii) The expected TZS. spot rate four years from now based on PPP.

candidates who answered the question only 673 (88.8%) candidates scored
credit marks while the remaining 19 (1.9%) candidates failed. There were
neither pass nor distinction marks in this question.
Most candidates who failed to address the requirements of the question.
They failed to arrive at the final correct answer.
QUESTION 2: GLOBAL BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT

(a)(i) Assuming the given company’s investment bankers are correct in

their valuation of the synergies how much of the merger gains would
be available to the other given company’s shareholders? How much
would the given company’s shareholders gain or lose?
(ii) If the given company offers one of its shares for every two of the
given shares, how much of the merger gains would be available to
the given company’s shareholders.
(iii) If the given company offers one of its shares for every two
company’s shares how much would its own shareholders gain or
lose.
(iv) Discuss the implications of the cash offer and one-for-two shares
exchange to the shareholders of the two given companies.
(v) Suppose the investment bankers are proved incorrect and there are
no synergies from the merger. How much would each group of
shareholders gain or lose under the cash offer?
(b) Discuss the usefulness of duration as a measure of the sensitivity of

a bond price to changes in interest rates.
(c) (i) Explain your understanding on the term interest rate risk.
(ii) Explain the situations under which an exposure to interest rate
risk can arise and how a firm can hedge interest rate risk with
Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs).
93
Most candidates showed poor understanding on all issues that were tested
in this question.
QUESTION 3: INTERNATIONAL INVESTMENTS ANALYSIS AND FINANCIAL

ENGINEERING & PLANNING
(a) Discuss the circumstances under which the capital expenditure of a
foreign subsidiary might have a positive Net Present Value (NPV) in
local currency terms but be unprofitable from the parent firm’s
perspective.
(b)(i) Should you buy (long) or sell (short) the futures to initiate your
position? Elaborate your decision.
(ii) What will your initial cash flow be for the hedging?
(iii) Assume the price of gasoline is currently US$3.50 a litre and August
futures is US$2.8974, September future is US$2.8798 and October
futures is US$2.7658. further, assume that the average gasoline due
prices for the next 3 months are US$3.25 (July) and US$3.00
(August) and US$2.80 (September). How much did the company
save compared to the futures?
(iv) Assume that the futures contracts closed at the following
prices: August US$2.6813, September US$2.4140 and
October US$2.0999. How much did you lose on your futures
contract?

credit marks while the remaining 420 (97.2%) candidates failed. There were
neither pass nor distinction marks in this question.
Candidates showed major weakness in the second part of the question on
financial engineering and planning.
94
QUESTION 4: BOND ANALYSIS, INTERNATIONAL INVESTMENT APPRAISAL
Candidates were required to use the given statement to:-
(a) Explain the meaning of “bond index” and “stock index”. With
supporting reasons explain which one do you consider easier to track.
(b) Describe the balance of payments identity and discuss its implications
under the fixed and flexible exchange rate regimes.
(c) Suppose foreign portfolio investors purchases a significant portion of

a Tanzania’s treasury bond issues. Discuss the short-term and long-
term effects of this action on the Tanzania balance of payments.
(d) Use the given information to estimate the maximum U.S dollar
price Finestra should offer in year 1 for the investment.

57 (16.3%) and 04 (1.2%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
Most candidates failed to give reasons on which is easier to track between

bond index and stock index. They also failed to estimate the maximum USD
price that was supposed to be offered by the given company in the given
year.
QUESTION 5: INTERNATIONAL INVESTMENT APPRAISAL
(a) With relevant examples, discuss any three (3) uses of credit derivatives
by a bank.
(b) Explain the meaning of outward covered interest arbitrage and inwards
covered interest arbitrage. Point out a key difference between the two.
(c) Use the given information to provide an appraisal for the two alternative
investment proposals and advise the given company which of the two
proposed investments to carry out.
Those who failed were unable to understand ‘credit derivatives and

‘inward outward covered arbitrage’
95
QUESTION 6: FINANCIAL ENGINEERING AND PLANNING
Candidates were required to use the given information to:-
(a)(i) Determine the notional principals in euros and pounds for a swap
with semiannual payments that will help achieve the objective.
(ii) Determine the semiannual cash flows from the swap in (i).
(b) Explain the effect on the given wine company if the management
decided to use internal hedging of leading the payment to the USA
supplier.
(c) (i) Estimate the Macaulay duration of each of the two bonds.
(ii) Explain why the durations are similar or different.

pass marks while the remaining 688 (98.3%) candidates failed. There were
neither credit nor distinction marks in this question.
Most candidates were weak on bond issues and the way on how
to use exchange rates.
96
The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture
of questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was adequate.
The paper had easy and difficult questions which were all within the
prescribed syllabus.
candidates who answered the examination only, 225 (22.6%) candidates passed
while the remaining 770 (77.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 223
candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.
9.1.5
TABLE 9.1.5

(Frequency)
Percentage 77.4 22.4 0.2 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.6
C3 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2020 EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
460 44.4 passed 225 22.6
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C4 ADVANCED TAXATION
knowledge of public finance, tax laws and Financial Reporting Standards and
Corporate Law in preparing, analyzing and evaluating corporate reports by entities,
both in the private and public sectors.
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total
marks was compulsory.

QUESTION 1: ADJUSTED PARTNESHIP INCOME; DOMESTIC PERMANENT
ESTABLISHMENT AND FOREIGN PERMANENT
ESTABLISHMENT
(a) (i) Compute the adjusted partnership income.
(ii) Compute the taxable business income for each partner for the
year of income 2020.
(b) Give explanation how partnership income taxation differs from that of
corporation and sole proprietorship.
(c) Differentiate between “domestic permanent establishment” and
“foreign permanent establishment”.
(53.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 282 (38.0%), 47 (6.3%) and 17
(2.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Those who failed were unable to compute the adjusted partnership income
98
QUESTION 2: TAX REFORMS AND VALUE ADDED TAX (VAT)
(a) Explain any five (5) changes made in Tanzania Income Tax Law as
addressed by Finance Act of 2020.
(b) Compute the tax (VAT) to be paid to TRA.
(c) Give explanation on the conditions for claiming input tax on VAT.
Those who failed were unable to come up with relevant changes made by
Finance Act of 2020 instead they provided general changes made in the
main Act i.e. VAT of 2014. Others failed to distinguish taxable supplies
from exempted supplies which is a base for VAT question.
QUESTION 3: TAX EVASION AND TAX AVOIDANCE; TAXATION ON

PETROLEUM

(a)(i) Enumerate at least five (5) ways through which tax evasion and tax
avoidance are committed.
(ii) Briefly discuss the effects of tax evasion and tax avoidance in
Tanzania.
(iii) Briefly discuss measures taken by the government of the United
Republic of Tanzania to deal with the problems of tax evasion and
tax avoidance.
(b) Compute tax payable and liability of the given company for the given
year of income.

Few candidates appeared not to have good understanding of treatments of

financial cost from derivatives and financial gain on computation of
income from petroleum operation.
99
QUESTION 4: TRANSFER PRICING
(a) Discuss those challenges facing each party on transfer pricing issues.
(b) Briefly explain the impact and limitation of Commissioner General’s

ruling to a charitable organization.

distinction marks respectively
Those who failed were unable to explain the impact of Commissioner’s

ruling on charitable organization tax status. Others ended up giving the
challenges facing general tax papers instead of those specifically on
transfer pricing.
QUESTION 5: SELF ASSESSMENT FOR ENTITIES; SETTLEMENT OF TAX

DISPUTES
(a)(i) Discuss the rights and obligations of such company for the year 2020
before 31st December 2020.
(ii) Discuss the impact of such submission after 31st December 2020.
(iii) Will such submission affect VAT obligations?
Advise the given company on the options available regarding the

Commissioner’s decision and any other decision likely to affect the taxpayer.
In your answer, show whether appealing for the matter is an appropriate
cause of action, clearly indicating matters dealt with by the Tax Revenue
Appeals Board (TRAB).

distinction marks respectively
Those who failed to explain the rights of tax payers after submitting the
provisional returns (statement of estimated tax payable). Other failed to
indicate matters dealt with by the Tax Revenue Appeals Board.
100
QUESTION 6: INTERNATIONAL TAX PLANNING AND AVOIDANCE; TRANFER
PRICING, CORPORATE INVESTMENT INCOME
(a) Explain at least six international tax planning methods.
(b) Explain the meaning of transfer pricing and the methods

allowed by transfer pricing regulations.
(c) Explain tax implication for each of above transaction then
calculate investment income if any for tax purposes.
Those who failed did not have clear understanding of transfer pricing and
the methods allowed by regulation. Other could not distinguish between
withholding payments and payments constituting investment income. Others
did not have clear understanding of tax planning methods.
101
The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture
of questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was adequate.
The paper had easy and difficult questions which were all within the
prescribed syllabus.
who passed 528 (71.1%), 71 (9.6%) and 04 (0.5) candidates scored pass, credit
9.1.7
TABLE 9.1.7
Classification of 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total
Marks
(Frequency)
Percentage 18.8 71.1 9.6 0.5 100
TABLE 9.1.8
C4 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2019

EXAMINATIONS
May 2020 May 2021
323 43.9 603 81.2
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CHAPTER III
EXAMINERS’ RECOMMENDATIONS TO THE TUTORS AND STUDENTS

In each examination session, the panel of examiners come up with suggestions to both
Tutors and Students which are aimed at improving future candidates’ performance.
These recommendations arise from shortcomings observed in the course of marking the
candidates’ scripts.
RECOMMENDATIONS TO TUTORS
Guidance to the candidates
1. Tutors should encourage their students to put more efforts in their studies while
preparing for the examinations. They should ensure that only those students who
have performed well in the class tests and mock examinations are allowed to sit for
the Board’s examinations.
2. Tutors should expose their students to examination techniques including how to
tackle a question in on examination room.
3. Tutors should encourage their students to read extensively and do a lot of exercises.
They should discourage students from cramming the questions and their solutions
as this will not assist them during the examinations.
4. Tutors should encourage their students to create a habit of reading current issues
and keeping themselves abreast with the issues taking place within and globally.
This will assist them in answering the questions that are of general nature and at the
same time improve their vocabulary.
5. Tutors should encourage students to devote more time in their studies and help them
to obtain relevant materials and reference books for the particular subjects.
Teaching and learning materials

6. Tutors should prepare and update their teaching notes (competence based) that can
be made available to their students.
7. Tutors should devote their time to prepare appropriate case study questions and
orient students especially those at higher levels on how to tackle case study
questions.
8. Tutors should introduce an ‘examination technique’ topic during the course of
training. The examination techniques in one of the crucial areas that play a vital
role to students when it comes to answering examination questions.
9. Tutors should make sure that they concentrate on teaching using NBAA Learning
Materials and other supplementary relevant learning materials to cover the syllabus
adequately. It is important that the tutors should prepare work-plans that guide
them in covering the entire syllabus of the subjects they teach.
103
10. Tutors should devote their time to attend NBAA seminars, workshops and Training
of Trainers workshops in order to be aware of current emerging professional issues.
Evaluating the candidates

11. Tutors should at a certain point of time, prepare mock examinations that would test
the students understanding and segregate weak from strong students whom should
be given more exercises and attention before they can be allowed to register for the
examinations. The mock examinations should cover typical examination questions
in an examination atmosphere thereby familiarizing the students to similar
conditions that they would encounter when taking their examinations.
Effective teaching
12. Tutors should prepare scheme of works/lesson plans that will guide them during
the teaching process. Teaching plans have to be provided to enable the students be
aware of what has to be covered and at what time.
13. Tutors should ensure that they are using relevant and up-to-date teaching materials
in order to avoid misleading the students.
14. Tutors should ensure that they attend short courses regarding teaching
methodologies in order to improve their teaching styles and acquire modern
teaching methodologies.
15. Tutors should take time to read comments prepared by markers which have been
summarized in the Examiners’ and Performance Report. By so doing they will
understand their shortfalls and improve in the respective areas mentioned by the
markers.
16. For the subjects which need practical orientation like auditing, it would be much
better for the trainers to invite practicing auditors to teach some of the topics.
17. Tutors should avoid spoon feeding the students, instead they have to apply various
participatory teaching methods in order to bring about effective learning among the
students.
18. Tutors should in as much as possible try to observe the weaknesses of their students
and address them by equipping them with different skills on the subject matter
especially on new statutes.
19. Tutors should at all times be up-to-date with emerging teaching techniques and
should apply them. Tutors should also apply the techniques that make the learner
think more rather than cramming.
20. Tutors should ensure that they equip themselves with knowledge and skills that are
required to teach effectively the students under competence based syllabi
21. Tutors should assist students on how to use the learning materials for effectively
learning
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RECOMMENDATIONS TO STUDENTS
Applying appropriate learning styles
22. Students should develop study schedules that will guide them during the
preparations for the examinations and ensure that they have covered each and every
topic in the syllabus.
23. Changes taking place in the accounting, auditing, tax, law regimes are vast and
hence students should keep up-to-date with those changes. For example, definitions
and terminologies in accounting and auditing have been modified since the adoption
of the International Accounting/Auditing Standards. Students need to know these
changes in order to be able to apply them in their course of study and in their work
places.
24. Students should develop a culture of reading NBAA Learning materials, various
textbooks and journals in order to get an in depth knowledge and understanding of
the subject matter.
25. Students should put more effort on Public Sector Accounting/Auditing as it seems
they do not give special attention on the area.
26. Students should work hard, think critically and do more practice to enhance their
competence and confidence in attempting examination papers.
27. Students should make sure that they respond to the requirements of the question
asked rather than answering what has not been asked. They should not formulate
their own questions and provide their own answers.
28. Students are required to do comprehensive preparations. They should not base their
preparations on occurrence of topics on past examinations.
Self-motivation towards learning

29. Students need to take personal initiative to improve their mastery of English
Language. This can be achieved in many ways – through reading daily newspapers,
magazines, books and through speaking the language. Language limitations has
affected majority of candidates as they fail to express themselves properly let alone
giving them flexibility in answering the questions.
30. Students should take an initiative of improving their case study analysis. Should
seek assistance from their trainers on how to analyze a case study questions.
31. Students should develop their own learning strategies; they should not depend
entirely on their trainers.
105
Assurance of knowledge mastery
32. Students should work hard and not rush to sit for the examinations before they have
assured themselves that they are ready for the examinations. They should not take
chances and play a game of chance (doing examination is not gambling), hoping
that they will find the examinations questions they are familiar with. They need to
ensure that they get value for the money they have used as tuition and examination
fees.
33. Students to take seriously initiative and effort to cover the whole syllabus
requirement material through reading various books, journals and published articles
not to concentrate mostly in teaching questions and answers of past examinations.
34. Students should avoid attempting the examination unless they have covered a major
part of the respective syllabus; also devote more time in private and group
discussions study rather than considering the examination as “going concern”.
35. Students should make a good use of the learning materials in order to improve their
learning
36. Students should ensure that they avoid learning through memorisation, instead they
have to study and understand subject matters in details
Appropriate preparation for examinations and examination techniques

37. When attempting the examinations, students/candidates are urged to first read the
instructions, and then read the questions properly before they start attempting the
question. Make a viable choice in case there are optional questions or even the
choice of questions they should start attempting.
38. Students should learn how to organize their answers during the examination
attempts. This can be achieved through practice.
39. Students should have extensive course contents coverage and attempt many
questions in the preparation of their examination in the form of self-exercise to build
their ability to tackle questions properly and to be able to understand different term
used in examinations.
40. Students should ensure that they attend review classes without giving any excuses
for not enrolling to these reviews.
41. Students should take time to read about examination techniques that are published
regularly in the NBAA Students’ Newsletters and other publications in order to
acquire rightful techniques in dealing and answering examination questions.
42. Students should make use of the syllabus outlines during their preparations in order
to countercheck that they have adequately covered the syllabus.
43. Students should m a k e u s e o f g r o u p d i s c u s s i o n s in order to enhance their
understanding through such discussion.
106
44. Students should orient themselves with different type of questions, theoretical and
computational type of questions and do thorough preparations during the study
sessions. They should also equip themselves with analytical skills, especially as at
the higher levels in order to be tackle questions that require such skills.
45. Students should change their reading behaviour of memorizing various questions
and answers by devoting their time in reading various books and get an insight of
the subject matters.
46. Students should make thorough preparation for the examination by
reading extensively the recommendations text books to supplement what they are
getting from the review classes.
47. Students are advised to apply the following techniques among others in order to
pass their examinations.
47.1 Ensuring well coverage of the syllabus
Candidates are required to use the syllabus as their base of determining whether
they are ready to sit for the examinations or not. The problem of most candidates
is total dependence on the trainers. It is not funny to find a candidate attending a
review class without having a syllabus. It is difficult for such a candidate to know
what has been covered by the trainer and what has been left out. Some candidates
instead of ensuring that they have covered the syllabus adequately they rely on
Question and Answers (Qs and Ans) booklets. Questions and Answers of previous
examinations are good but they are not supplements of the syllabus. By reading
Question and Answer booklets students cannot get sufficient knowledge about the
subject matter. The best way of making use of Qs and as is after the completion
of the syllabus to see how examination questions are set and the best ways to
approach them.
47.2 Active participation in the classroom sessions
The education system of most countries including Tanzania does not prepare
students/candidates to take active role in the classroom. The predominant teaching
method used i.e. lecturing is characterized by various shortcomings including:
subject experts are not always good teachers, students are passive, learning is
difficult to gauge and communication is one way i.e. students are just listening to
lectures and do not participate actively. If a student goes to the class waiting for a
trainer to come and dish information to be grasped, automatically learning
becomes impaired. An effective learning to take place requires the learners to take
effective role in the learning process. Experience shows that students who ask
questions and pose challenges during the learning process they do well in their
examinations. Asking a question or posing a challenge to a trainer does not come
from nowhere, it come only if a student is interested to what he is learning. An
interested student in the learning process is the one who takes trouble to read what
is going to be taught before entering the class. Therefore, trainers are required to
prepare course outlines derived from the prescribe syllabus so as to enable
students to follow. Students can make use of the course outline to prepare on their
own before they go to the classroom. The lesson becomes enjoyable when both
107
students and the trainers are prepared before entering the classroom. In short,
student’s active role in the class is fundamental factor in the effective learning
process.
47.3 Review class attendance
Review classes are quite different from formal schooling. In the formal schooling
context trainers exercise authority of controlling students’ attendance. They can
penalize students who miss classes without genuine reasons. This does not happen
in the review classes because those who are attending review classes are
heterogeneous. Some are employees, some are self-employed, and others are fresh
graduates from colleges while others are occupied with various social
responsibilities. It becomes difficult for the trainers to control attendance of such
categories of learners. But we should bear in mind that at higher level education,
classroom attendance is not a responsibility of the trainer. If there is any candidate
who misses classes just because there is no one to question about it, such a student
must have some problems. No one is expecting to see a student missing a class
without having genuine reasons at this level of education. But, generally there is
lack of seriousness among most candidates especially in the case of classroom
attendance. Candidates are therefore reminded that attending classroom sessions
appropriately should be self-motivated.
There is a good number of candidates who never attend review classes with
confidence that they know each and every thing. They register themselves for
examinations as private candidates. Experience shows that candidates who are
attending review classes have a far better chance to pass their examinations than
those who do not attend. Some of the candidates attend review classes only when
they sit for the examinations on the first time but when they are required to refer
or re-seat the examinations they neglect to register for review classes. They claim
to have adequate and sufficient materials and therefore they can study on their
own. This is not always a good decision. Human brain is characterized by the
nature of forgetting. A famous study on forgetting textbook materials compared
the percentage of material remembered after different intervals of time. The results
were as follows:
After 1 day 54% was remembered.
After 7 days 35% was remembered.
Remembering what you have heard in lectures is even more difficult to recall
because you are not able to slow down, pause, reflect, or to reread unless you take
excellent notes! In a study on recall after listening to a lecture, students forgot
more than 90% of the points from the lecture after 14 days! (Engle, Susan: Context
is everything: The nature of memory. W.H. Freeman & Co, 1999). If that is the
case, then there is no way a candidate may decide not to attend review classes.
108
47.4 Group discussions
By not sharing ones knowledge of understanding about a particular subject matter
a candidate may think that he knows much about the subject but when it comes into
examination, such a candidate fails! It is very easy for someone to cheat himself
that he knows much about a particular subject matter due to lack of sharing
knowledge with others. Going to the library daily or doing daily self-study is not a
direct ticket to pass examinations. There is a belief that when you are taught
something by your fellow student who understands the subject matter, the
knowledge sticks into your mind than being taught by a trainer. Group discussions
are said to be a good source of learning and sharing of knowledge and experiences
due to its nature of open interaction. Although most candidates who are preparing
for the professional examinations are facing limited time to organize group
discussions, they should not ignore it at all. They should be aware that sometimes
it is far better to discuss a subject/topic in a group than going to the library for self-
study. Group discussion is a potential source of learning but it is ignored by most
candidates. Candidates are therefore obliged to form group discussions to discuss
various topics especially those which are most difficult or complicated.
47.5 Practise deep learning
One of the major factors that lead to poor performance in the examinations is
learning things in shallow. Most candidates have ample time to study but they do
not do it until the ‘late hours’. They keep on saying ‘there is enough time to study’.
But since time does not on the favour of anyone in this universe they find
themselves running shortage of time. What follows after this is to make ‘ad hoc’
preparations. In this case therefore they practise what the psychologists call ‘rote
learning’. By definition rote learning is a learning technique which avoids
understanding the inner complexities and inferences of the subject that is being
learned and instead focuses on memorizing the materials so that it can be recalled
by the learner exactly the way it was read or heard. In other words, it is learning
"just for the test".
The major practice involved in rote learning techniques is learning by repetition,
based on the idea that one will be able to recall the meaning of the material the more
they repeat it. However, in many fields, especially mathematics and related
disciplines, this can often produce poor results.
Rote learning is not the best way of studying. Students are required to study a
subject matter in deep. This will make them to own what they have learnt and
express it in their own words. In rote learning a student tries to reproduce what he
has read as it was read. ‘If a student reads something with the aim of reproducing
it as it is, that is not understanding. This method limits a student to learn many
things because memory capacity for human beings is also limited. Students should
also be aware that rote learning does not develop interest to learn. As you memorize
new materials the old ones fade out.
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47.6 Conclusion
Candidates should take trouble to read various techniques for passing examinations
Rather than concentrating only on studying topics that will appear in the
examinations. Those who have been able to make use of various study techniques
have found themselves enjoying learning and finally pass their examinations.
Studying for the examinations should be enjoyable rather than becoming
cumbersome and boring exercise for the candidates. This is possible if the
candidates apply appropriate techniques in their studies.
110
CHAPTE IV
CANDIDATURE DISTRIBUTION
The Board’s examination candidature comes from various training institutions (Tuition
Providers) in the country. The May 2021 examination session drew candidates from the
following institutions as per Table 10:
TABLE 10
NO OF CANDIDATES
ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL

S/NO NAME ATEC II TOTAL
I LEVEL LEVEL LEVEL
KAS INSTITUTE OF
1 PROFESSIONAL (T) LTD 7 6 4 4 0 21
ATTITUDE FINANCIAL
2 CONSULTANTS 0 0 0 5 3 8
BETA BUSINESS
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE
4 OF ARUSHA 6 8 4 3 2 23
CONVENANT FINANCIAL
5 CONSULTANTS 30 60 255 1006 598 1949
CORNERSTONE
FINANCIAL
6 CONSULTANTS 7 16 28 61 39 151
WEXITO CONSULTING
7 GROUP 0 0 19 91 64 174
EMINENT FINANCIAL
8 CONSULTANTS 0 0 4 81 61 146
EXCEL FINANCIAL AND
9 TAX FOUNDATION 0 6 15 53 24 98
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
10 CONSULTANCY 0 1 7 26 15 49
IDIANA CONSULTANCY
AND CPA(T) REVIEW
11 CLASS 0 1 2 10 6 19
12 KMC ASSOCIATES 0 1 0 1 0 2
STAR FINANCIAL
13 CONSULTANTS 0 0 3 10 13 26
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY
DAR ES SALAAM
14 CAMPUS 0 0 3 33 17 53
15 PAC ARUSHA 1 8 27 108 77 221
ST.JOSEPH
16 COMMERCIAL SCHOOL 1 2 0 5 2 10
TABORA GENERAL
THE ACCOUNTANT
FINANCIAL
18 CONSULTANTS 0 0 6 91 64 161
UPTAKE BUSINESS
19 RESOURCES(T) LTD 0 0 3 92 47 142
111
EVIN SCHOOL OF
20 MANAGEMENT 0 0 41 345 382 768
WADE-THROUGH
FINANCIAL
STEP AHEAD FINANCIAL
22 CONSULTANTS 2 4 12 64 49 131
ADONIJAH BUSINESS
23 CONSULTANCY LTD 0 0 10 12 6 28
24 VUGA EAGLE CO.LTD 0 0 1 52 27 80
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY-
MBEYA CAMPUS
25 COLLEGE 0 0 3 10 3 16
CFC ONLINE TRAINING
26 CENTRE 0 2 10 72 81 165
27 WAME INVESTMENT 0 0 0 5 5 10
ZANZIBAR
INTERLLECTUAL
&BUSINESS
ZENJI REVIEW CLASS
29 AND CONSULTANCY 1 0 7 54 21 83
ACT FINANCIAL
30 CONSULTANTS 1 3 15 36 3 58
BCC FINANCIAL
31 CONSULTANTS 0 0 10 30 11 51
32 MZUMBE UNIVERSITY 0 0 0 0 0 0
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
33 EDUCATION 1 2 3 16 20 42
DSM CPA REVIEW
34 CENTER 1 1 13 36 15 66
35 FB TRAINING CENTER 0 0 0 1 0 1
GENTCONCEPT
36 CONSULTANCY 0 0 0 0 0 0
37 TIA SINGIDA CAMPUS 0 0 0 0 0 0
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
EDUCATION-MBEYA
38 CAMPUS 0 1 0 1 0 2
BRIGHT PROFESSIONALS
39 TANZANIA 0 1 3 15 6 25
INSTITUTE OF
ACCOUNTANCY
40 ARUSHA 0 0 8 9 0 17
INSTITUTE OF
ACCOUNTANCY
41 ARUSHA (DAR CAMPUS) 0 0 0 0 0 0
STUDY-POINT
FINANCIAL
43 TCCG DODOMA 0 0 2 40 16 58
SAPPAR WORLD
44 COMPANY LIMITED 0 0 0 26 0 26
112
SUCCESS CPA REVIEW
45 CENTER 0 0 2 35 23 60
46 PRIVATE 18 58 186 725 455 1442
TOTAL APPLIED
76 182 709 3275 2159 6401
ABSENTEESIM 2 11 60 379 181 633
TOTAL SAT 74 171 649 2896 1978 5768
113
KEY
NAME OF REVIEW CENTRE
S/N INSTITUTION
1 PRIVATE Candidate who did not get an opportunity to attend review classes/or have
attended review classes in the previous examination sessions
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Attitude Financial
2 PT ATTITUDE Consultants -
3 PT CCA - Mwanza
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Commercial College of
- Arusha Review Classes conducted by Cornerstone Financial
Part-Time
4 PT CORNERSTONE
Consultants - DSM
PT STEP AHEAD FIN. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Step Ahead Financial
5
Consultants
- -Part-Time
Dodoma Review Classes Conducted by Excel Financial & Tax
6 PT EXCEL- MOSHI Solutions of Moshi
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by KAS Institute of
7 PT KAS Professionals
8 PT PAC- ARUSHA - (T) Ltd. – Review
Part-Time DSM. Classes Conducted by PAC Consultants of Arusha
9 PT TABORA G.C. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Tabora General Consultancy
PT SJCS - Part Time Review Class conducted by St. Joseph’s Commercial
10
School –
PT MU-DSM - Part Time Review Class conducted by Mzumbe University – DSM
Tanga
11
Campus
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Accountants and Financial
12 PT AFC
Consultants Ltd - DSM
PT BRIGHT - - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Bright Professionals
13
MOROGORO Tanzania -
- Morogoro Review Classes conducted by Evin School of
Part-Time
14 PT EVIN
Management -
15 PT WAME MWANZA - DSM
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by WAME Investment -
PT EMINENT - Mwanza
Part Time Review Class conducted by Eminent Financial
16 Consultants -
PT VUGA ARUSHA - DSMTime Review Class conducted by Vuga Eagles Company Ltd -
Part
17
Arusha
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Covenant Financial
18 PT COVENANT- FC Consultants
PT UPTAKE - – DSM
Part Time review classes conducted by UPTAKE Business
19 Resources (T)
PT FILADEFIA F.C - Ltd – DSMReview Classes conducted by Filadefia Financial
Part-Time
20 Consultancy
DODOMA
PT ZENJI - - DODOMA
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Zenji Review and
21 Consultancy -
PT ADONIJAH - Zanzibar
Part Time Review Class conducted by Adonijar Business
22 Consultancy -
PT IDIANA CONSULT. - Njombe Review Classes conducted by Idiana Consultancy - Mbeya
Part-Time
23
24 PT STAR FIN. CONS. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Star Financial Consultants -
Mwanza
NAME OF REVIEW CENTRE
S/N INSTITUTION
PT BBC - Part Time Review Class conducted by BBC
25
114
26 PT BCC - Part Time Review Class conducted by BCC
27 PT CAG - Part Time Review Class conducted by Controller and Auditor
General
28 PT CBE DAR - Part Time Review Class conducted by College of Business Education
DSM
29 PT - CFC ONLINE - Part Time Review Class conducted by CFC ONLINE
30 PT – EIGHT SKYS - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by EIGHT SKYS Consulting
Ltd
31 PT – MU MBEYA - Part Time Review Class conducted by Mzumbe University – Mbeya
Campus
PT - NAO - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by National Audit Office –
32 DSM
33 PT – PTC MWANZA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Professional Training
Centre -
PT – PYTHAGORAS - Mwanza
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Pythagoras Financial
34
F.C. Consultancy
PT - TCCG - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Tanzania Centre for
35 Corporate
PT – WADE ARUSHA - Governance
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by WADE Through Financial
36
Consultants - ARUSHA
PT - WEXITO - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Wexito Consulting Group
37
38 PT - ZIBCO - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Zanzibar Intellectual and
Business Consultants
PT - ACG - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Accountant General’s
39 Office
40 PT- ACTS FIN. -
CONSULT.
41 PT- CBE DODOMA - Part Time Review Class conducted by College of Business Education
DODOMA
42 PT – DSM CPA REVIEW - Part Time Review Class conducted by DSM CPA review
115
INSTITUTIONAL PERFORMANCE
The assessment of institutional performance is done using two approaches:
1. Best Candidate Approach:

The best institution under this approach is the one which produces the “NBAA Best
Level Candidate”, a candidate who obtained the highest marks in aggregate, at a single
examination attempt. Using this approach, the best candidate for each of the Board’s
examination levels is as follows:
Examination Best Candidates came from

ATEC Level I No Candidate qualified for the Award
ATEC Level II PT -Covenant F.C
FOUNDATION LEVEL: PT– CCA ARUSHA
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL: PT – Covenant F.C
FINAL LEVEL: No Candidate qualified for the Award
2. Performance Approach:
Under this approach, the best institution is that which obtains the highest Grade Point
Average (GPA) in relation to the total number of A, B, C, F grades obtained by
candidates in comparison with total number of papers sat by candidates in that level.
The following formula is applied
(NaPa + NbPb + NcPc + NfPf)
Subject GPA =
(Na + Nb + Nc + Nf)
Where Na = Total Number of Candidates who have scored A in an institution at

that level
Nb = Total Number of Candidates who have scored B in an institution at that
level
Nc = Total Number of Candidates who have scored C in an institution at that
level
Nf = Total Number of Candidates who have scored F in an institution at that
level
Pa = The weight of Grade A = 3
Pb = The weight of Grade B = 2
Pc = The weight of Grade C = 1
Pf = The weight of Grade F = 0
116
Arising from the above, the best three institutions under this approach for each examination level are as
indicated hereunder: (See tables 15.1 to 15.5(b) on pages 145 to 154 of this report).
Examination Level Best Institution
ATEC I:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT DSM CPA REVIEW CENTRE
2nd - PT ZENJI REVIEW CLASS 7 CONSULTANCY
3rd - PT PAC ARUSHA
-PT CBE DSM
Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT CORNERSTONE F.C

2nd -PT KAS INSTITUTE OF PROFESSIOL
3rd - PT COVENANT F.C
ATEC II:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT IDIANA CONSULTANCY & CPA REVIEW CLASS
2nd - PT KMC ASSOCIATE
3rd - PT CBE DSM
-
Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT EXCEL FINANCIAL & TAX FOUNDATION

2nd - PT PAC ARUSHA
3rd - PT COVENANT F.C
FOUNDATION LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT FB TRAINING CENTRE
2nd -
PT COMMERCIL COLLEGE ARUSHA
3rd - PT ACT F.C.
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT CORNERSTONE
2nd - PT COVENANT F.C
3rd - PT PAC ARUSHA
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT FB TRAINING CENTRE
2nd - PT STAR FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS
3rd - PT TABORA GENERAL CONSULTANTS
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT DSM CPA REVIEW CENTRE
2nd - PT SAPPAR WORLD COMPANY LTD
3rd - PT SUCCESS CPA REVIEW CENTRE
FINAL LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT TABORA GENERAL CONSULTANTS
2nd - PT MUZUMBE UNIVERSITY MBEYA CAMPUS.
3rd - PT ADONIJAH BUSINESS CONSULTANCY
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT COVENANT F.C

2nd - PT CORNERSTONE F.C
3rd - PT EVIN SCHOOL OF MANAGEMENT
117
TABLE 11.1
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE
1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
No of No of % of No of % of No of % of No of % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers A A B B C C F F GPA Ranking
DSM CPA REVIEW CENTER 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 2 50.0% 1 25.0% 1 25.0% 1.25 1
ZENJI REVIEW CLASS AND CONSULTANCY 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 2 50.0% 1 25.0% 1.00 2
PAC ARUSHA 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 3
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS EDUCATION 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 3
STEP AHEAD FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 2 0 2 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 40.0% 3 60.0% 0.40 5
ST.JOSEPH COMMERCIAL SCHOOL 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 6
ACT FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 6
Subtotals 8 0 8 20 0 0.0% 3 15.0% 7 35.0% 10 50.0% 0.65
RANKING
1ST - PT DSM CPA REVIEW CENTRE
2ND - PT ZENJI REVIEW CLASS & CONSULTANCY.
3RD - PT PAC ARUSHA
- PT CBE DSM
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.
118
TABLE 11.1
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
CORNERSTONE FINANCIAL
7 0 7 21 0 0.0% 8 38.1% 5 23.8% 8 38.1% 1.00 1
CONSULTANTS
KAS INSTITUTE OF PROFESSIONAL (T)
7 0 7 24 0 0.0% 5 20.8% 12 50.0% 7 29.2% 0.92 2
LTD
CONVENANT FINANCIAL
30 2 28 75 0 0.0% 15 20.0% 25 33.3% 35 46.7% 0.73 3
CONSULTANTS
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE OF ARUSHA 6 0 6 16 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 18.8% 13 81.3% 0.19 4
Subtotals 50 2 48 136 0 0.0% 28 20.6% 45 33.1% 63 46.3%
RANKING
1ST - PT CORNERSTONE F.C
2ND - PT KAS INSTITUTE OF PROFESSIONAL
3RD - PT COVENANT F.C
Key:
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level?
119
TABLE 11.2

1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking
IDIANA CONSULTANCY AND
1 0 1 4 1 25.0% 2 50.0% 1 25.0% 0 0.0% 2.00 1
CPA(T) REVIEW CLASS
KMC ASSOCIATES 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 2 50.0% 1 25.0% 1.00 2
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
2 0 2 8 0 0.0% 1 12.5% 3 37.5% 4 50.0% 0.63 3
EDUCATION

4 0 4 14 0 0.0% 2 14.3% 4 28.6% 8 57.1% 0.57 4
CONSULTANTS
CFC ONLINE TRAINING

2 0 2 8 0 0.0% 1 12.5% 2 25.0% 5 62.5% 0.50 5
CENTRE
ST.JOSEPH COMMERCIAL
2 0 2 8 0 0.0% 1 12.5% 2 25.0% 5 62.5% 0.50 5
SCHOOL
ACT FINANCIAL
3 0 3 8 0 0.0% 1 12.5% 1 12.5% 6 75.0% 0.38 8
CONSULTANTS
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0.25 9
CONSULTANCY
1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 10
TANZANIA
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0.00 10
EDUCATION-MBEYA CAMPUS
ZANZIBAR INTERLLECTUAL
1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 10
&BUSINESS CONSULTANTS
Subtotals 20 0 20 70 1 1.4% 9 12.9% 18 25.7% 42 60.0%
RANKING
1ST - PT IDIANA CONSULTANCY & CPA REVIEW CLASS
2ND - PT KMC ASSOCIATES.
3RD - PT CBE DSM
Key:
120
TABLE 11.2 (b)
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
No of
EXCEL FINANCIAL AND TAX

6 0 6 16 0 0.0% 4 25.0% 8 50.0% 4 25.0% 1.00 1
FOUNDATION
PAC ARUSHA 8 0 8 22 0 0.0% 6 27.3% 6 27.3% 10 45.5% 0.82 2
CONVENANT FINANCIAL
60 3 57 148 5 3.4% 37 25.0% 27 18.2% 79 53.4% 0.78 3
CONSULTANTS
16 1 15 42 0 0.0% 7 16.7% 10 23.8% 25 59.5% 0.57 4
CONSULTANTS
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE OF
8 0 8 17 0 0.0% 1 5.9% 6 35.3% 10 58.8% 0.47 5
ARUSHA
KAS INSTITUTE OF
6 1 5 9 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 11.1% 8 88.9% 0.11 6
PROFESSIONAL (T) LTD
Subtotals 104 5 99 254 5 2.0% 55 21.7% 58 22.8% 136 53.5%
RANKING
1ST - PT EXCEL FINANCIAL & TAX FOUNDATION
2ND - PT PAC ARUSHA
3RD - PT COVENANT F.C
Key:
121
TABLE 11.3 (a)
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS

1- 2 0 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
No of No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat No of papers No of A % of A B % of B No of C % of C F % of F GPA Ranking
FB TRAINING CENTER 2 0 2 2 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0 0.0% 1.50 1
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE OF
4 0 4 14 0 0.0% 6 42.9% 5 35.7% 3 21.4% 1.21 2
ARUSHA
ACT FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 15 0 15 31 0 0.0% 7 22.6% 20 64.5% 4 12.9% 1.10 3
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
7 0 7 15 0 0.0% 3 20.0% 10 66.7% 2 13.3% 1.07 4
CONSULTANCY
CFC ONLINE TRAINING CENTRE 10 1 9 19 0 0.0% 3 15.8% 13 68.4% 3 15.8% 1.00 5
THE ACCOUNTANT FINANCIAL

6 1 5 12 0 0.0% 1 8.3% 9 75.0% 2 16.7% 0.92 6
CONSULTANTS
ADONIJAH BUSINESS
10 1 9 32 0 0.0% 4 12.5% 19 59.4% 9 28.1% 0.84 7
CONSULTANCY LTD

12 0 12 28 1 3.6% 4 14.3% 11 39.3% 12 42.9% 0.79 8
CONSULTANTS
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY-MBEYA
3 0 3 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 75.0% 1 25.0% 0.75 9
CAMPUS COLLEGE
KAS INSTITUTE OF
4 1 3 11 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 8 72.7% 3 27.3% 0.73 10
PROFESSIONAL (T) LTD
WEXITO CONSULTING GROUP 19 1 18 59 0 0.0% 7 11.9% 26 44.1% 26 44.1% 0.68 11
TABORA GENERAL
1 0 1 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 1 33.3% 0.67 12
CONSULTANTS
3 1 2 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 1 33.3% 0.67 12
TANZANIA
ZENJI REVIEW CLASS AND

7 0 7 18 1 5.6% 1 5.6% 7 38.9% 9 50.0% 0.67 12
CONSULTANCY
INSTITUTE OF ACCOUNTANCY
8 0 28 0 0.0% 2 7.1% 14 50.0% 12 42.9% 0.64 15
ARUSHA
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY DAR ES

3 0 3 10 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 60.0% 4 40.0% 0.60 16
SALAAM CAMPUS
122
No of No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat No of papers No of A % of A B % of B No of C % of C F % of F GPA Ranking
15 2 13 51 0 0.0% 5 9.8% 20 39.2% 26 51.0% 0.59 17
FOUNDATION
BCC FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 10 1 9 19 0 0.0% 3 15.8% 5 26.3% 11 57.9% 0.58 18
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
3 1 2 7 0 0.0% 1 14.3% 2 28.6% 4 57.1% 0.57 19
EDUCATION
VUGA EAGLE CO.LTD 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 21
SUCCESS CPA REVIEW CENTER 2 0 2 6 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 50.0% 3 50.0% 0.50 21
TCCG DODOMA 2 0 2 6 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 50.0% 3 50.0% 0.50 21
STAR FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 3 0 3 9 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 44.4% 5 55.6% 0.44 24
EMINENT FINANCIAL
4 0 4 7 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 42.9% 4 57.1% 0.43 25
CONSULTANTS
IDIANA CONSULTANCY AND

2 0 2 6 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 33.3% 4 66.7% 0.33 26
CPA(T) REVIEW CLASS
UPTAKE BUSINESS
3 0 3 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0.25 27
RESOURCES(T) LTD
2 0 2 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 100.0% 0.00 28
Subtotals 174 10 156 443 2 0.5% 50 11.3% 214 48.3% 177 40.0%
RANKING
1ST - PT FB TRAINING CENTRE

2nd - PT CCA COMMERCIAL COLLEGE ARUSHA
3RD - PT ACT F.C.
Key:
123
TABLE 11.3 (b)
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS ABOVE 20

CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
No of
29 1 28 71 0 0.0% 15 21.1% 36 50.7% 20 28.2% 0.93 1
CONSULTANTS
CONVENANT FINANCIAL
254 12 242 649 3 0.5% 81 12.5% 343 52.9% 222 34.2% 0.79 2
CONSULTANTS
PAC ARUSHA 27 1 17 72 1 1.4% 8 11.1% 38 52.8% 25 34.7% 0.79 3
EVIN SCHOOL OF
41 1 40 81 0 0.0% 8 9.9% 42 51.9% 31 38.3% 0.72 4
MANAGEMENT
Subtotals 351 15 327 873 4 0.5% 112 12.8% 459 52.6% 298 34.1%
RANKING
1ST - PT CORNERSTONE F.C

2ND - PT COVENANT F.C
3RD - PT PAC ARUSHA
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
124
TABLE 11.4 (a)
1-20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
No of
FB TRAINING CENTER 3 0 3 4
0 0.0% 2 50.0% 0 0.0% 2 50.0% 1.00 1
STAR FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 10 0 10 23

0 0.0% 3 13.0% 10 43.5% 10 43.5% 0.70 2
TABORA GENERAL CONSULTANTS 2 0 2 3

0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 1 33.3% 0.67 3
INSTITUTE OF ACCOUNTANCY
9 1 8 29
ARUSHA
0 0.0% 4 13.8% 8 27.6% 17 58.6% 0.55 4
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE OF ARUSHA 3 0 3 4

0 0.0% 1 25.0% 0 0.0% 3 75.0% 0.50 5
ADONIJAH BUSINESS CONSULTANCY

12 0 12 36
LTD
0 0.0% 2 5.6% 14 38.9% 20 55.6% 0.50 5
WAME INVESTMENT 5 1 4 13
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 46.2% 7 53.8% 0.46 7
ST.JOSEPH COMMERCIAL SCHOOL 5 0 5 7

0 0.0% 1 14.3% 1 14.3% 5 71.4% 0.43 8
KMC ASSOCIATES 1 0 1 5
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 40.0% 3 60.0% 0.40 9
BRIGHT PROFESSIONALS TANZANIA 15 1 14 32

0 0.0% 4 12.5% 4 12.5% 24 75.0% 0.38 10
125
No of
IDIANA CONSULTANCY AND CPA(T)

9 2 7 24 0 0.0% 2 8.3% 4 16.7% 18 75.0% 0.33 11
REVIEW CLASS
KAS INSTITUTE OF PROFESSIONAL (T)

4 0 4 7 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 28.6% 5 71.4% 0.29 12
LTD
ATTITUDE FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 5 0 5 8 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 25.0% 6 75.0% 0.25 13
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS EDUCATION 16 5 11 21 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 23.8% 16 76.2% 0.24 14
8 0 8 20 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 20.0% 16 80.0% 0.20 15
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY-MBEYA
10 0 10 21 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 14.3% 18 85.7% 0.14 16
CAMPUS COLLEGE
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS EDUCATION-

1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 17
MBEYA CAMPUS
WADE-THROUGH FINANCIAL
1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 17
CONSULTANTS
Subtotals 119 10 109 260 0 0.0% 19 7.3% 67 25.8% 174 66.9%
RANKING
1ST - PT FB TRAINING CENTRE

2ND - PT STAR FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS
3RD - PT TABORA GENERAL CONSULTANTS
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
126
TABLE 11.4 (b)
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
SAPPAR WORLD COMPANY

26 1 25 112 0 0.0% 11 9.8% 47 42.0% 54 48.2% 0.62 2
LIMITED
SUCCESS CPA REVIEW

35 2 33 111 0 0.0% 12 10.8% 42 37.8% 57 51.4% 0.59 3
CENTER
BCC FINANCIAL
30 2 28 67 0 0.0% 6 9.0% 27 40.3% 34 50.7% 0.58 4
CONSULTANTS

63 4 59 152 1 0.7% 16 10.5% 52 34.2% 83 54.6% 0.57 5
CONSULTANTS
CONVENANT FINANCIAL
1009 84 925 2528 8 0.3% 216 8.5% 956 37.8% 1348 53.3% 0.56 6
CONSULTANTS
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY DAR ES

33 6 27 97 0 0.0% 12 12.4% 30 30.9% 55 56.7% 0.56 7
SALAAM CAMPUS
EVIN SCHOOL OF
340 23 317 723 0 0.0% 35 4.8% 301 41.6% 387 53.5% 0.51 8
MANAGEMENT

53 1 52 130 0 0.0% 8 6.2% 48 36.9% 74 56.9% 0.49 9
FOUNDATION
PAC ARUSHA 108 8 100 251 1 0.4% 11 4.4% 94 37.5% 145 57.8% 0.47 10
CFC ONLINE TRAINING

71 9 62 136 0 0.0% 4 2.9% 53 39.0% 79 58.1% 0.45 12
CENTRE
VUGA EAGLE CO.LTD 52 5 47 111 0 0.0% 4 3.6% 41 36.9% 66 59.5% 0.44 13
EMINENT FINANCIAL
79 5 74 152 0 0.0% 4 2.6% 54 35.5% 94 61.8% 0.41 14
CONSULTANTS
UPTAKE BUSINESS
91 6 85 158 0 0.0% 4 2.5% 53 33.5% 101 63.9% 0.39 15
RESOURCES(T) LTD
127
ACT FINANCIAL
36 0 36 100 0 0.0% 2 2.0% 34 34.0% 64 64.0% 0.38 16
CONSULTANTS
61 7 54 146 0 0.0% 5 3.4% 44 30.1% 97 66.4% 0.37 17
CONSULTANTS
TCCG DODOMA 39 6 33 74 0 0.0% 4 5.4% 19 25.7% 51 68.9% 0.36 18
THE ACCOUNTANT
91 8 83 189 0 0.0% 3 1.6% 61 32.3% 125 66.1% 0.35 19
FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
26 3 23 46 0 0.0% 1 2.2% 6 13.0% 39 84.8% 0.17 20
CONSULTANCY

53 4 49 101 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 15 14.9% 86 85.1% 0.15 21
CONSULTANCY
Subtotals 2422 192 2230 5705 11 0.2% 381 6.7% 2099 36.8% 3214 56.3%
RANKING
1ST - PT DSM CPA REVIEW CENTRE

2ND - PT SAPPAR WORLD COMPANY LTD
3RD - PT SUCCESS CPA REVIEW CENTRE
Key:
128
TABLE 11.4 (a)
1-20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
No of
TABORA GENERAL
2 0 2 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 1
CONSULTANTS
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY-
3 0 3 8 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 62.5% 3 37.5% 0.63 2
MBEYA CAMPUS COLLEGE
ADONIJAH BUSINESS
6 0 6 18 0 0.0% 1 5.6% 9 50.0% 8 44.4% 0.61 3
CONSULTANCY LTD
BCC FINANCIAL
11 0 11 21 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 9 42.9% 12 57.1% 0.43 5
CONSULTANTS
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
20 2 18 40 0 0.0% 1 2.5% 13 32.5% 26 65.0% 0.38 6
EDUCATION
ST.JOSEPH COMMERCIAL
2 0 2 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 2 66.7% 0.33 7
SCHOOL
TCCG DODOMA 16 1 15 30 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 10 33.3% 20 66.7% 0.33 7
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY DAR

17 1 16 49 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 16 32.7% 33 67.3% 0.33 9
ES SALAAM CAMPUS
IDIANA CONSULTANCY
AND CPA(T) REVIEW 6 0 6 10 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 30.0% 7 70.0% 0.30 10
CLASS
WAME INVESTMENT 5 1 4 7 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 28.6% 5 71.4% 0.29 11
ATTITUDE FINANCIAL
3 0 3 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0.25 12
CONSULTANTS
6 0 6 12 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 25.0% 9 75.0% 0.25 12
TANZANIA
STAR FINANCIAL
13 1 12 24 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 25.0% 18 75.0% 0.25 12
CONSULTANTS
129
No of
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE
2 0 2 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 20.0% 4 80.0% 0.20 15
OF ARUSHA
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
15 4 11 17 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 11.8% 15 88.2% 0.12 16
CONSULTANCY
ZANZIBAR
INTERLLECTUAL 2 1 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 17
&BUSINESS
CONSULTANTS
ACT FINANCIAL
3 0 3 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0.00 17
CONSULTANTS
Subtotals 148 11 137 300 0 0 4 1.3% 106 35.3% 190 63.3%
RANKING
1ST - P T TABORA GENERAL CONSULTANT
2ND - PT MZUMBE UNIVERSITY- MBEYA CAMPUS
2RD - PT ADONIJAH BUSINESS CONSULTANCY LTD
Key:
130
TABLE 11.5 (b)
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
No of
CONVENANT FINANCIAL
599 38 561 1189 0 0.0% 34 2.9% 543 45.7% 612 51.5% 0.51 1
CONSULTANTS
39 2 37 71 0 0.0% 1 1.4% 30 42.3% 40 56.3% 0.45 2
CONSULTANTS
EVIN SCHOOL OF MANAGEMENT 376 8 368 770 0 0.0% 19 2.5% 306 39.7% 445 57.8% 0.45 3

49 1 48 95 0 0.0% 3 3.2% 36 37.9% 56 58.9% 0.44 4
CONSULTANTS

24 1 23 49 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 21 42.9% 28 57.1% 0.43 5
FOUNDATION
PAC ARUSHA 76 2 74 169 0 0.0% 1 0.6% 64 37.9% 104 61.5% 0.39 7
THE ACCOUNTANT FINANCIAL

63 2 61 109 0 0.0% 5 4.6% 32 29.4% 72 66.1% 0.39 8
CONSULTANTS

21 0 21 51 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 19 37.3% 32 62.7% 0.37 9
CONSULTANCY
CFC ONLINE TRAINING CENTRE 81 7 74 134 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 44 32.8% 90 67.2% 0.33 10
UPTAKE BUSINESS
47 5 42 68 0 0.0% 1 1.5% 19 27.9% 48 70.6% 0.31 11
RESOURCES(T) LTD
VUGA EAGLE CO.LTD 27 0 27 52 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 16 30.8% 36 69.2% 0.31 12
EMINENT FINANCIAL
60 4 56 91 0 0.0% 1 1.1% 25 27.5% 65 71.4% 0.30 13
CONSULTANTS
SUCCESS CPA REVIEW CENTER 22 1 21 46 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 12 26.1% 34 73.9% 0.26 14
Subtotals 1547 75 1472 3020 0 0.0% 68 2.3% 1215 40.2% 1737 57.5%
131
RANKING
1ST - PT COVENANT F.C

2ND - PT CORNERSTONE F.C
3RD - PT EVIN SCHOOL OF MANAGEMENT
Key:
132
CHAPTER V
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER CREATED BY THE BOARD UP TO

NOVEMBER 2020
In an effort to meet the demand of the highly needed accounting personnel

in the country, the Board has been able to create cumulatively 25,321
accounting manpower since its inception in May 1975.
These qualified accounting personnel created are categorized in
the following groups:
(1) Certified Public Accountants CPA (T) 10,780

(2) Certified Public Accountants CPA (T) Equivalent 223
(3 National Accountancy Diploma (NAD)
(Phased out in November 1991) 1,537
(4) National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE)
(phased out in May 1991) 5,746
(5) Basic Book-keeping Certificate (BBC)
(phased out in November 1990) 2,971
(6) Accounting Technician Certificate (ATEC) 4,064
133
Table 12 below shows the statistics of graduates per session and cumulatively since May
1975 to May 2021
TABLE 12
TABE 4: NBAA GRADUATES – CUMULATIVE STATISTICAL ANALYSIS
MAY 1975 TO MAY 2021
EXAMINATION BBC NABOCE ATEC NAD CPA CPA (T) TOTAL

SESSION EQUIVALE
NT
NO. CUM NO. CUM NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. - - NO. CUM.
. .
1ST SESSION - - 04 04 - - 01 01 NE NE - - 05 05
MAY 1975
NOV 1975 – MAY 18,438 18443
2013
78th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 36 3434 - 1537 377 5,168 - - 413 18,856
NOV. 2013
79th S E S S I O N - 2971 - 5746 46 3480 - 1537 478 5,646 - - 524 19,380
MAY 2014
80th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 43 3523 - 1537 369 6,015 01 01 413 19,793
NOV. 2014
81st SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 3565 - 1537 600 6,615 08 09 650 20,443
MAY 2015
1st Mid-SESSION - 2971 - 5746 - 3565 - 1537 03 6,618 04 13 07 20,450
AUGUST 2015
82nd SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 3607 - 1537 270 6,888 03 16 315 20,765
MAY 2016
2ND MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3607 - 1537 01 6,889 07 23 08 20,773
SESSION
FEBRUARY 2016
83rd SESSION - 2971 - 5746 40 3647 - 1537 282 7,171 11 34 333 21,106
MAY 2016
3RD MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3647 - 1537 06 7,177 05 39 11 21,117
SESSION
AUGUST 2016
84TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 49 3,696 - 1537 420 7,597 19 58 488 21,605
NOVEMBER 2016
4TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,696 - 1537 - 7,597 05 63 05 21,610
SESSION
FEBRUARY 2017
85TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 65 3,761 - 1537 410 8,007 17 80 492 22,102
MAY 2017
5TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,761 - 1537 02 8,009 04 84 06 22,108
SESSION
AUGUST 2017
86TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 39 3,800 - 1537 450 8,459 20 104 509 22,617
NOVEMBER 2017
6TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,800 - 1537 - 8,459 04 108 04 22,621
SESSION
FEBRUARY 2018
90TH SESSSION - 2971 - 5746 28 3,828 - 1537 63 8,522 15 123 106 22,727
MAY 2018
7TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,828 - 1537 03 8,525 04 127 07 22,734
SESSION
AUGUST 2018
134
88TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 63 3,891 - 1537 371 8,896 17 144 451 23,185
NOVEMBER 2018
8TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,891 - 1537 02 8,898 01 145 03 23,188
SESSION
FEBRUARY 2019
89TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 49 3,940 - 1537 433 9,525 20 165 502 23,690
MAY 2019
9TH MID-SESSION - 2971 - 5746 - 3,940 - 1537 10 9,535 09 165 19 23,709
AUGUST 2019
90TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 53 3,993 - 1537 325 9,860 17 182 395 24,104
NOVEMBER 2019
10TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 53 3,993 - 1537 41 9,901 03 185 44 24,148
SESSION
ST SESSION MAY
91
FEBRUARY 2020
(AUGUST)2020 - 2971 - 5746 28 4,021 - 1537 354 10,255 16 201 398 24,546
92ND SESSION
NOVEMBER 2020 - 2971 - 5746 14 4,035 - 1537 243 10,498 09 210 266 24,812
93RD MAY 2021 - 2971 - 5746 29 4,064 - 1537 278 10,776 13 223 320 25,132
Note: (An extract from May 1975 to May 2021
135
CHAPTER VI
CANDIDATES WINNING THE SPECIAL PRIZES – MAY 2021 EXAMINATION SESSION
1.0 PRIZES OFFERED BY NBAA

NBAA offers prizes in the following categories:
1.0.1 Best Level Performance Prize
1.0.2 Single Subject Prize
1.0.3 Best Female Prizes
1.1 Minimum Requirement to Win the Prize

In order to win any of the above prizes offered by NBAA, the minimum requirement
is for a candidate to obtain an overall pass in a level, having attempted whole set of
subjects in that level and passing at a single examination attempt.
1.2 Amount offered in each Examination level:

1.2.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize
This prize is awarded to the best candidate who completes an examination
level in the first attempt and scores highest marks in aggregate in that level.
Examination Level Exam Paper Codes Amounts

Tshs.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 100,000
Foundation Level A1 – A6 120,000
Intermediate Level B1 – B6 160,000
Final Level C1 – C4 200,000
1.2.2 Single Subject Prize (Subject to Subject) Performance Prize

The prize is awarded to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by
attaining at least a credit mark – 70% or above in the Accounting Technician
Examination Scheme, 60% or above in the Professional Examination Scheme.

Tshs.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 80,000
Final Level C1 – C4 140,000
136
1.2.3 Best Female Prizes
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and perform
better in the Board’s examination, two categories of prizes are offered to
female candidates as follows:
1.2.3.1 Best Level Female Performance Prize:

This prize is offered to a female candidate as long as the score in aggregate in
a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60% and above in
professional examinations.

Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I T01 – T04 100,000
Accounting Technician Level II T05 – T08 100,000
Final Stage Level C1 – C4 200,000
1.2.3.2 Best Female Graduate Prize:

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is
offered to the female candidate who scores highest marks in aggregate
among female candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).

Tshs.
Best ATEC Female Graduate Prize Award T05 – T08 500,000
Best CPA (T) Female Graduate Prize Award C1 – C4 1,000,000
1.3 Prizes won by Candidates:
1.3.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize:
Code and Subject Name Name CR No. Amount

Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I No candidate qualified for this - 100,000
award
Accounting Technician Level II RAJAB MCHOMVU 36847 100,000
Foundation Level GRAYSON CHEDIEL 35075 120,000
Intermediate Level GHANIMA KHAMISI 37273 160,000
Final Level No candidate qualified for this - 200,000

award
137
1.3.2 Subject to Subject Performance Prize
The prize is offered to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by
attaining at least a credit mark -70% or above in Technician Examination
Scheme or 60% or above in professional examination scheme.
The following candidates qualify for the prizes in each examination layer:
Accounting Technician Level I

Tshs.
T.01 – Bookkeeping and Accounts No candidate qualified for -
this award 80,000
T.02 – Elements of Business ANNINE BHAHARY 37499 80,000

Mathematics and Statistics
T.03 – Introduction to Information JUNIOR MAKUNDI 36861 80,000
and Communication Technology
T.04 – Business Communication Skills No candidate qualified for - 80,000
this award
Accounting Technician Level II

Tshs.
T.05 – Principles of Accounting and PINTO ABBAS 35606 80,000
Auditing
T.06 – Principles of Cost Accounting AZIZ HAMIS 37010 80,000
and Procurement
*T.07 – Elements of Commercial 40,000
Knowledge and Taxation MARINA SOMOKA 37298
*T.07 – Elements of Commercial 40,000
Knowledge and Taxation SHEILA NTISI 37299
T.08 – Accounting for Public 80,000
Sector and Cooperatives SHEILA NTISI 37299
*Score Equal marks
138
FOUNDATION LEVEL
Tshs.
A1 – Quantitative Techniques ISAYA KANIRE 36933 100,000
A2 – Business and Management *NDUWAYO MZONYA 31393 50,000

*GRAYSON CHEDIEL 35075 50,000
A3 – Financial Accounting DICKSON LAIZER 37146 100,000
A4 – Cost Accounting HARRIET RUHIMINGUNGE 36553
100,000
A5 – Business Law GRAYSON CHEDIEL 35075 100,000
A6 – Business Economics GRAYSON CHEDIEL 35075 100,000
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
Tshs.
B1 – Financial Management No candidate qualified for this - 120,000
award
B2 – Financial Reporting GHANIMA KHAMISI 37273 120,000
B3 – Auditing Principles and No candidate qualified for this - 120,000

Practice award
B4 – Public Finance and Taxation HELLEN TUMWESIGE 36955 120,000
B5 – Performance Management GHANIMA KHAMISI 37273 120,000
B6 – Management, Governance KELVIN SALUM 37168 120,000

and Ethics
FINAL LEVEL
Tshs.
C1 – Corporate Reporting No candidate qualified for - 140,000
this award
C2 – Auditing and Assurance Services No candidate qualified for - 140,000
this award
C3 –Business and Corporate SUZAN SEMBULI 34455 140,000
Finance
C4 – Advanced Taxation JULIETH KIIZA 36336 140,000
139
1.3.3 NBAA Best Female Prizes:
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and perform
better in the Board’s examinations, two categories of prizes shall be offered
to female candidates.
1.3.3.1 NBAA Female Prizes:

This prize shall be offered to a female candidate as long as the score in
aggregate in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60% and
above in professional examinations.

Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I No candidate qualified for - 100,000
this award
Accounting Technician Level II MARINA SOMOKA 37298 100,000
Foundation Level HARRIET 36553 120,000

RUHIMINGUNGE
Intermediate Level GHANIMA KHAMISI 37273 160,000
Final Level No candidate qualified for - 200,000

this award
1.3.3.2 NBAA Best Graduate Female Prizes

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is to be offered to
the female candidates who scores highest marks in aggregate among female
candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).
The following female candidates qualify for the award:
Level Name CR No. Amount

Tshs.
ATEC GRADUATE MARINA SOMOKA 37298 500,000
CPA (T) GRADUATE JULIETH KIIZA 36336 1,000,000
140
2.0 PRIZES FROM SPONSORING INSTITUTIONS
In support of the Board’s effort to improve candidates’ examination performance a
number of professional progressive institutions have willingly offered different prizes
for the best performers.
The names of organizations and amounts offered in each examination session are
indicated hereunder:
1 PricewaterhouseCoopers Prizes:
1.1 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.600,000
1.2 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.1,000,000
1.3 Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Tshs.500,000
2 Tanna Sreekumar Grant Thornton Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.400,000
3 STANBIC Tanzania Ltd Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100
4 TAC Associates Prize: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.200,000
5 A.I Khatri & Company Prize: Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.200,000
6 Ernst & Young Prize:
6.1 Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.300,000
6.2 Best CPA (T) Graduate Overall Prize Tshs.100,000
6.3 Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.100,000
7 IPP Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.200,000

8 Tax Plan Associates Prize: Best Advanced Taxation (C4) Prize Tshs.500,000
9 TIB Development Bank Ltd: International Finance Prizes
1st TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.500,000,
2nd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.350,000
3rd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize &
Tshs.200,000
10 Dar Es Salaam Stock Exchange Prize:
Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.150,000
11 Deloitte &Touche Prize: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000
12 Capital Markets and Securities Authority Prize: Best Financial Management (B1) Tshs.500,000
Prize
13 KPMG Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100
14 Accountant General’s Office Prizes:
14.1 Best CPA (T) Graduate Overall Prize Tshs.800,000
14.2 Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000
14.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize Tshs.500,000
14.4 Best Core Subject Prizes:
14.4.1 Financial Accounting (A3) Prize Tshs.30,000
14.4.2 Cost Accounting (A4) Prize Tshs.30,000
14.4.3 Financial Management (B1) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.4 Financial Reporting (B2) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.5 Auditing Principles and Practice (B3) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.6 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.100,000
14.4.7 Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.100,000
14.4.8 Advanced Taxation (C4) Prize Tshs.100,000
15 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser Prize:

15.1 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Performance Management Offer of
(B5) Prize Employment
15.2 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Advanced Taxation (C4) Offer of
Prize Employment
141
16 Innovex Prizes:
16.1 Innovex Best CPA(T) Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000
16.2 Innovex Best CPA(T) Female Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000
17 Controller and Auditor General’s Office Prizes
17.1 CAG: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.1,000,000
17.2 CAG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000
18 Peoples Bank of Zanzibar Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000
19 TAA Best Candidates’ Prizes
19.1 TAA Best Two ATEC Candidates Prizes Tshs.100,000
19.2 TAA Best Two CPA (T) Candidates Prizes Tshs.200,000
20 RSM EASTERN AFRICA Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000 &
Employment
21 Watumishi Housing Company Prize
21.1 Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize 100,000
21.2 Best Financial Management (B1) Prize 100,000
21.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize 200,000
21.4 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize 200,000
22 Tanzania Association of Women Certified Accountants Prize

22.1 TAWCA: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate 100,000
23 Green Mark International Prizes

23.1 GMI: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize 100,000
24 MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES PRIZE

24.1 MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Auditing And Assurance Services (C2) Prize 300,000 &
Employment
24.2 MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: BEST CPA (T) Graduate Prize 400,000 &
Employment
24.3 MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize 300,000 &
Employment
25 Bakhresa Group Prize
25.1 Bakhresa Group: Best Level Accounting Technician II Prize 200,000
26 The Hanif and Nooreen Habib Prize Award:

26.1 The Hanif and Nooreen Habib Prize Award: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize 555,000
27 BAKERTILLY TANZANIA PRIZE

27.1 BAKERTILLY TANZANIA 500,000 &
PRIZE: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize Employment
142
1. PRICEWATERHOUSECOOPERS PRIZES
Name of Prize Name of Winner CR No. Amount
PWC: Auditing and Assurance No candidate qualified for this award - 600,000
Services (C2) Prize
PWC: Best CPA (T) Graduate 1,000,000
Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366
PWC: Best Female CPA (T) 500,000
Graduate JULIETH KIIZA 36366
2. TANNA SREEKUMAR GRANT THORNTON: PRIZES

Tanna Sreekumar Grant 400,000
Thornton: Best CPA (T) JULIETH KIIZA 36366
Graduate Prize
3. STANBIC TANZANIA LIMITED PRIZES

STANBIC TANZANIA
LIMITED: Best CPA [T] JULIETH KIIZA 36366 US$ 100
Graduate Prize
4. TAC ASSOCIATES PRIZES

TAC ASSOCIATES: Auditing No candidate qualified for this award - 200,000
and Assurance Services (C2)
Prize
5. KHATRI AND COMPANY PRIZES

KHATRI AND COMPANY No candidate qualified for this award - 200,000
FINANCIAL: Corporate
Reporting (C1)
6. ERNST & YOUNG PRIZES

ERNST & YOUNG: Auditing No candidate qualified for this award -
and Assurance Services (C2) 300,000
PRIZE
ERNST & YOUNG: Best CPA
(T) Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 100,000
ERNST & YOUNG: Best CPA
(T) Female GRADUATE JULIETH KIIZA 36366 100,000
PRIZE
7. IPP BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZES

IPP: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 200,000
143
8. TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES PRIZES
TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES: JULIETH KIIZA 36336 500,000
Advanced Taxation (C4) Prize
9. TIB DEVELOPMENT BANK LTD PRIZES

TIB Development Bank Ltd: No candidate qualified for this award -
Business and Corporate Finance 500,000
(C3) Prize
No candidate qualified for this award - 350,000
No candidate qualified for this award - 200,000
10. DAR ES SALAAM STOCK EXCHANGE PRIZES

DSE: Business and Corporate No candidate qualified for this award - 150,000
Finance (C3) Prize
11. DELOITTE & TOUCHE PRIZES

DELOITTE & TOUCHE: No candidate qualified for this award -
Auditing and Assurance 500,000
Services (C2) Prize
12. CAPITAL MARKETS AND SECURITIES AUTHORITY PRIZES

CMSA: Best Financial No candidate qualified for this award -
Management (B1) Prize 500,000
13. KPMG PRIZES

KPMG: Best CPA (T)
Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 US$100
144
14. ACCOUNTANT GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES
The Office of the Accountant General offers special prize awards to candidates with
excellent performance in the Board’s examinations. The awards worth Tshs.2, 440,000
are offered in each examination session.
The conditions of winning the prizes are:

A candidate must obtain an overall pass at a single sitting in the first examination
attempt and must score a credit pass (60%) or above either overall, or in the subject be
awarded a prize in the professional examinations as the case may be.
Candidates winning the prizes for the May 2021 examinations are as shown below:

AG’S: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize 800,000
JULIETH KIIZA 36366
AG’S: Auditing and Assurance Services No candidate qualified for this - 500,000
(C2) Prize award
AG’S: Best Performance Management GHANIMA KHAMISI 37273 500,000
(B5) Prize
AG’S BEST CORE SUBJECT PERFORMANCE PRIZES

AG’S: Financial Accounting (A3) Prize HARRIET RUHIMINGUNGE 36553 30,000
AG’S: Cost Accounting (A4) Prize HARRIET RUHIMINGUNGE 36553 30,000

AG’S: Financial Management (B1) No candidate qualified for this -
Prize award 50,000
AG’S: Financial Reporting (B2) Prize
GHANIMA KHAMISI 37273 50,000
AG’S: Auditing Principles and Practice No candidate qualified for this -

(B3) Prize award 50,000
AG’S: Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize No candidate qualified for this -
award 100,000
AG’S: Business and Corporate Finance

(C3) Prize SUZAN SEMBULI 34455 100,000
AG’S: Advanced Taxation (C4) Prize
JULIETH KIIZA 36336 100,000
145
15. NEXIA SJ TANZANIA ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS ADVISERS PRIZES:
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA: Best
Performance Management (B5) Prize GHANIMA KHAMISI 37273 Employment
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA: Advanced
Taxation (C4) Prize SUZAN SEMBULI 34455 Employment
16. INNOVEX PRIZES

INNOVEX: Best CPA (T) Graduate
Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 150,000
INNOVEX: Best Female CPA (T)
Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 150,000
17. CONTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES

CAG: Auditing and Assurance Services No candidate qualified for -
(C2) Prize this award 1,000,000
CAG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
18. PEOPLE’S BANK OF ZANZIBAR PRIZE

PBZ: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
19. TANZANIA ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANTS PRIZES

Name of Winner CR No. Amount
TAA: Best Two ATEC Candidate Prize RAJABU MCHOMVU 36847 50,000
PINTO ABBAS 35606 50,000
TAA: Best Two CPA (T) Candidate

Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 100,000
SUZAN SEMBULI 34455 100,000
20. RSM EASTERN AFRICA PRIZES

RSM Eastern Africa: Best CPA (T) 500,000 &
Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 Employment
21. WATUMISHI HOUSING COMPANY PRIZE

WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: Overall RAJABU MCHOMVU 36847 100,000
Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize
146
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: Best No candidate qualified for this -
Financial Management (B1) Prize award 100,000
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO:
Best Performance Management (B5) Prize GHANIMA KHAMISI 37273 200,000
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: No candidate qualified for this -
Best corporate Reporting (C1) Prize award 200,000
22. TANZANIA ASSOCIATION OF WOMEN CERTIFIED ACCOUNTANTS PRIZE

TAWCA: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate 100,000
JULIETH KIIZA 36366
23. GREEN MARK INTERNATIONAL PRIZES

GMI: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize 100,000
JULIETH KIIZA 36366
24. MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES PRIZE

Tshs.
MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Auditing No candidate qualified for this - 300,000 &
And Assurance Services (C2) Prize award Employment
MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Best 200,000 &

CPA (T) Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 Employment
MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Best 300,000 &

Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 Employment
25. BAKHRESA GROUP PRIZE

Bakhresa Group: Best Level Accounting RAJABU MCHOMVU 36847 200,000
Technician II Prize
26. THE HANIF AND NOOREEN HABIB PRIZE AWARD

The Hanif and Nooreen Habib Prize 555,000
Award: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366
27. BAKERTILLY TANZANIA PRIZE

BAKERTILLY TANZANIA 500,000 &
PRIZE: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize JULIETH KIIZA 36366 Employment
________________ ▲ ________________
147

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(NBAA)

THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS

EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT

93RD EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2021

NBAA, Telephones: +255 26 2660170-4

Executive Summary of 92nd Examination session ………………….. (vii)

CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 93rd Examination Session 1

CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………................. 4

CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………. 101

CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………. 111

CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to November 2020 132

Accounting Technician Level II

In total, the Professional Examination Scheme has 16 subjects as shown hereunder:

Foundation (Knowledge and Skills Level)

Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)

Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)

CPA Pius A. Maneno

EXAMINATION CANDIDAT CANDIDATES % CANDIDATES %

ATEC I: 76 02 2.0 74 97.4

Foundation 709 60 8.5 649 91.5

2.1 Candidature Exam Sitting

EXAMINATION ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

87th Session May 2018 61 98 370 1824 1238 3,591

88th November 2018 113 212 621 3197 2,040 6,183

89th May 2019 102 190 696 3,276 1,971 6,235

90th November 2019 85 173 688 3,310 1,923 6,179

91st May (August) 2020 84 162 722 3,721 2,245 6,934

92nd November 2020 46 92 396 2,132 1,477 4,143

93rd May 2021 76 182 709 3,275 2,159 6,401

GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION

Candidate Distribution - May 2021

ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL STAGE

Table 2 (i) shows pass rates in May 2021 examination session

Table 2 (ii) shows number of candidates with foreign CPA – equivalent

Subject Number of entries Number of Passes

EXAMINATION ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL STAGE TOTAL

ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II

In this examination, 2,159 candidates registered themselves for Final Level

CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL

GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSISOFEXAMINATIONRESULTS

EXAMINATION ATECI ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %

T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

(a) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as at 1st December

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 43

Candidates failed to prepare a bank reconciliation statement, furthermore they

Candidates were required to:

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 43

QUESTION 4: PREPARATIONS OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

(b) Candidates’ overall performance

No. of Candidates (Frequency) 21 21 01 00 43

Percentage 48.8 48.8 2.3 0.0 100

QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS