Revesion Quide

MCQs in
Clinical Radiology
A revision guide for the FRCR
JRG Bell, NH Davies, N Jeyadevan, DM Koh

This book was conceived when we were Specialist Registrars
at the Chelsea and Westminster Hospital, London, UK.
Published by the Remedica Group
Remedica Publishing, 32-38 Osnaburgh Street, London, NW1 3ND, UK

Remedica Inc, Tri-State International Center, Building 25, Suite 150, Lincolnshire, IL 60069, USA
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ISBN 1 901346 2 69
British Library Cataloguing-in-Publication Data
A catalogue record for this book is available from the British Library
MCOs in
Clinical Radiology
A revision guide for the FRCR
JRG Bell, BSc, MRCP, FRCR

Consultant Radiologist
Royal Free Hospital, London, UK
NH Davies, FRCS, FRCR

Consultant Interventional Radiologist
Royal Free Hospital, London, UK
N Jeyadevan, MRCP, FRCR

Consultant Radiologist
Mayday Hospital, London, UK
DM Koh, MRCP, FRCR

Senior Lecturer and Honorary Consultant
Royal Marsden Hospital, Surrey, UK
Preface
The idea of writing a new multiple choice question (MCQ) book came soon after some of us
completed the Fellow of the Royal College of Radiologists (FRCR) examinations. It was apparent
that the FRCR MCQ papers tested knowledge and understanding beyond the scope of standard
radiology textbooks. Although there are already a number of existing radiology MCQ books
on the market, many of these place a lesser emphasis on computed tomography (CT) and
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which have become the cornerstones in many aspects
of modern radiology. In addition, the earlier books did not embrace the newer developments
. in ultrasonography, nuclear medicine and positron emission tomography (PET) imaging,
which have emerged in the last few years.
In setting the MCQs, we have tried to retain a mixture of the 'old' and the 'new', with emphasis
on the latter, especially with regards to CT and MRI. We have spent considerable time trawling
through specialist textbooks and recent journal review articles to tease out the state-of-the-art
imaging and current knowledge. These are translated into MCQs to test the initiated and inform
those who are unaware. The answers to each question are expanded to provide a summary
of the key facts of the diseases under review. We hope this will provide candidates with the
opportunity to consolidate their knowledge, by focusing on traditional examination 'favourites',
whilst also presenting the many new aspects of clinical imaging.
The chapters in this book are organised by subspeciality and organ systems instead of by
examination format for two reasons. Firstly, this allows candidates to utilise this book during
revision of a particular subspeciality, rather than at the end of their study. Areas of weakness
identified in attempting the MCQs can be promptly addressed by further reading into the
relevant areas. Secondly, with the introduction of the new modular format for the FRCR,
learning^nd revising by subspeciality and organ system is now more important than ever.
The field of radiology is expanding at a phenomenal rate. Our thoughts are with the candidates
who have the unenviable task of assimilating this large body of information. We can only wish
them every success in their examinations.
JRG Bell
NH Davies
N Jeyadevan
DM Koh
Foreword
It is generally believed by candidates for the multiple-choice component of the final FRCR exam
that the questions undergo rapid gestation from casual suggestions proposed by the examiners
over a fine dinner! After 5 years experience as one such examiner, I am able to assert that
nothing is further from the truth. Hundreds of questions begin their life in centres all around
the UK from whence they are submitted by chairmen of regional panels. Their submitted
questions are then subjected to detailed examination by a small group of examiners after which
many are determined still-born. Those few that progress suffer further detailed examination
from the full Examining Board over a 2-day sojourn in the basement of the Royal College
of Radiologists. Only then do a few reach maturity to be included in the Final Examination.
For a quartet of young radiologists to consider the creation of their own collection of multiple
choice questions is both ambitious and challenging. I am pleased to report that none had any
individual experience of the Part lla FRCR beyond a single sitting, and to produce such a high
quality monograph in so short a time is truly an outstanding achievement.
Diagnostic imaging is in constant evolution, and the rate of change has been truly phenomenal
over the past ten to fifteen years. It is a necessary requirement, therefore, that examinations
change in accordance with change in clinical practice, and this contemporary book responds
to that by including many questions pertinent to modern radiological practice as well as the
current radiology curriculum.
Fear of the unknown dominates the experience of most patients embarking on an episode in
the healthcare system today. A not dissimilar fear of the unknown is demonstrated by virtually
every candidate approaching the MCQ. I have no doubt that completion of the questions
in this text will prove both factually and emotionally educational by providing an accurate
and very relevant insight into the characteristics of the examination.
I am full of admiration for the energy of the authors, and am delighted to be able to commend
this collection of multiple choice questions to every training radiologist.
Dr. Michael King

Consultant Radiologist, Royal Marsden Hospital, London
Contents
1 Thoracic radiology 1
2 Cardiovascular imaging 19
3 Abdominal imaging 31
4 Uroradiology 57
5 Musculoskeletal imaging 81
6 Neuroradiology 103
7 Head and neck imaging 127
8 Paediatric radiology 147
9 Breast imaging 167
10 Interventional radiology 179
11 Obstetrics and gynaecological imaging 197
12 Nuclear medicine and positron emission tomography 209

Chapter 1
Thoracic radiology
Thoracic radiology
1 When a solitary pulmonary nodule is seen on computed tomography (CT),

which of the following radiological features suggest it is benign?
a) Air bronchograms within the nodule
b) Amorphous calcification within the nodule
c) CT attenuation of -10 Hounsfield units (HU)
d) Lobulated outline of the nodule
e) Enhancement of the nodule by less than 15 HU following intravenous contrast
2 In the staging of nonsmall cell carcinoma of the lung, which of the following are true?
a) Ipsilateral hilar lymph node involvement is a contraindication to surgery
b) Malignant effusion contraindicates curative resection
c) Involvement of the pericardium indicates unresectability
d) Rib invasion is a contraindication to surgery
e) Tumour involvement of the main pulmonary veins indicates T4 disease
3 In using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to stage nonsmall cell carcinoma

of the lung, which of the following are true?
a) Lymph node metastases in the aorto-pulmonary window are better evaluated
with CT than MRI
b) T2-weighted images are most useful in the assessment of chest wall invasion
c) MRI h. the best modality to assess superior sulcus tumours
d) CT is superior to MRI in the assessment of mediastinal invasion
e) MRI signal characteristics allow discrimination between normal and infiltrated lymph nodes
4 Which of the following are causes of superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO)?
a) Lymphoma
b) Central venous line
c) Aortic aneurysm
d) Constrictive pericarditis
e) Histoplasmosis
5 Which of the following are true regarding bronchoalveolar carcinoma?

a) There is an increased incidence in patients with systemic sclerosis
b) Spontaneous radiographic improvement may occur
c) Small cystic lucent areas are frequently seen on CT
d) Pleural effusions are rare
c) A negative positron emission tomography (PET) scan excludes the diagnosis
6 Which of the following are true regarding bronchial carcinoid tumours?

a) The chest radiograph is normal in most cases at presentation
b) A solitary nodule in the lung periphery is the most common radiographic finding
c) It is a cause of Cushing's syndrome
d) It results in carcinoid syndrome in 50% of cases
e) An atypical carcinoid frequently metastasises to the hilar lymph nodes
2
MCQs in Clinical Radiology
7 Which of the following are true regarding squamous cell carcinoma of the lung?
a) It presents with a peripheral mass in 30%-40% of cases
b) It is a recognised cause of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion
c) It cavitates in 20% of cases
d) It metastasises more frequently than small-cell lung carcinoma
e) It is the most common histological type in Pancoast tumour
8 Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary neoplasms are true?

a) Pulmonary' hamartomas show popcorn calcifications on radiography in 60% of cases
b) There is an association of pulmonary chondromas with adrenal paragangliomas
c) Primary pulmonary lymphoma is usually Hodgkin's type
d) A mass with an attenuation value of 200 HU on CT is usually benign
e) Multiple calcified nodules are a feature of pulmonary amyloidosis
‘) Which of the following are true regarding intrathoracic Hodgkin's lymphoma?

a) Lymphadenopathy is typically bilateral and symmetrical
b) Posterior mediastinal lymph nodes are commonly involved
c) Pulmonary involvement is usually perihilar
d) Pleural effusion is frequently accompanied by mediastinal lymphadenopathy
e) Gallium radionuclide scan is useful to monitor response to treatment
10 Which of the following are true regarding benign pleural fibroma?

a) It has an association with asbestosis
b) It is a cause of hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
c) It is a cause of hyperglycemia
d) Calcification is common
e) Calcification is common
11 Which of the following are true regarding malignant mesothelioma?

a) Selective involvement of the parietal pleura is typical
b) Circumferential pleural thickening is typical
c) It is a cause of hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
d) Pleural effusions are common
e) Chest wall invasion occurs in 12% of cases at presentation
12 Which of the following are causes of nodular pleural masses?

a) Splenosis
b) Malignant thymoma
c) Lymphoma
d) Metastatic ovarian carcinoma
e) Asbestosis
13 Which of the following are true regarding pulmonary metastases?

a) Thin-walled cysts are a feature of treated metastatic transitional cell carcinoma
b) Miliary metastases commonly result from breast carcinoma
c) Endobronchial metastases occur with renal cell carcinoma
d) Lymphangitis carcinomatosa may result from prostatic carcinoma
e) Calcified metastases are commonly seen with colonic carcinoma
3
Thoracic radiology
14 Which of the following are true regarding thymoma?

a) More than 60% of patients with thymoma have myasthenia gravis
b) It has an association with hypogammaglobulinaemia
c) Calcification is commonly seen on CT
d) Haematogenous metastases occur frequently with malignant thymoma
e) It is more common in females
15 Which of the following are true regarding Castleman's disease?

a) It typically occurs in the elderly
b) CT demonstrates nodal mass with uniform enhancement following intravenous contrast
c) Nodal calcification is a feature
d) Lymph nodes frequently cavitate
e) It may involve lymph nodes in the retroperitoneum
16 Which of the following are true regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?

a) Miliary tuberculosis heals with small focal calcifications
b) It results in broncholithiasis
c) Pleural effusions are more common in postprimary disease
d) CT is more useful than bronchoscopy in the assessment of post-tuberculous
bronchial strictures
e) Branching y or v densities ('tree-in-bud') on high resolution CT indicates active infection
1 7 Which of the following are true regarding round pneumonia?

a) It occurs most commonly in the second and third decades of life
b) It is more common in the upper lobes
c) lt is most commonly associated with Klebsiella infection
d) It frequently progresses to cavitation
e) It is a feature of Q-fever infection
18 Which of the following are true regarding pulmonary infections?

a) Consolidation due to viral pneumonia frequently cavitates
b) Pulmonary infarction may result from Klebsiella pneumonia
c) Pleural effusions are common with Chlamydia pneumoniae infection
d) Lymphadenopathy is rarely seen in pertussis
e) Obliterative bronchiolitis occurs in Mycoplasma infection
19 Which of the following are causes of hilar lymph node calcifications?

a) Amyloidosis
b) Pneumocystis carinii infection
c) Berylliosis
d) Asbestosis
e) Coal miners’ pneumoconiosis
20 Which of the following are true regarding silicosis?

a) It predominantly affects the lower lobes in acute silicoproteinosis
b) It mimics sarcoidosis on high resolution computed tomography (HRCT)
c) Emphysema is associated with the development of progressive massive fibrosis
d) It is a more frequent cause of nodal egg-shell calcification on radiograph than
coal miner's pneumoconiosis
e) Impairment of the lung function test correlates best with the profusion of nodules
4
MCQs in Clinical Radiolog)
21 Which of the following are true regarding asbestos-related diseases?

a) Asbestos-related pleural plaques frequently spare the mediastinal surface
b) Asbestos-related pleural plaques do not extend into interlobular fissures
c) Isolated pleural effusion is a feature
d) Subpleural lower lobe fibrosis is typical of asbestosis
e) Asbestosis is associated with calcified pleural plaques in 20% of cases
22 When a mass-like lesion is seen on CT, which of the following findings support
the diagnosis of rounded atelectasis?
a) An anteromedial location of the mass
b) An acute angle with the pleural margins
c) Adjacent pleural thickening
d) Localised crowding ol the pulmonary vasculature
e) Absence of enhancement following intravenous contrast
23 Which of the following are true regarding the effects of radiation on the lungs?
a) The severity of the lung changes is related to the fractionation of the radiation dose
b) Acute radiation change usually occurs within 1 month of treatment
c) Pleural effusion usually occurs as a late sequela to radiotherapy
d) Radiation fibrosis is established within 6 months of radiotherapy
e) Pulmonary oligaemia is a feature of the post-irradiated lung
24 Which of the following are true regarding usual interstitial pneumonitis (UIP)?
a) It is more common in females than males
b) It is the most common cause of cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
c) It occurs most frequently in the sixth decade of life
d) Areas of ground glass attenuation on HRCT in the absence of parenchymal
distortion indicate reversibility
e) A confident diagnosis cannot be made on HRCT without lung biopsy
25 Which of the following are true regarding rheumatoid arthritis with lung involvement?
a) Isolated pleural effusions are more common in men
b) Rheumatoid nodules usually predate the onset of arthritis
c) Rheumatoid nodules have a predilection for the lower lobes
d) There is an increased incidence of bronchiectasis
e) Mosaic lung attenuation is a feature
20 Which of the following are true regarding systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
a) Pleural effusions are common
b) There is an increased incidence of venous thrombosis
c) There is an increased incidence of diaphragmatic dysfunction
d) Respiratory failure from interstitial fibrosis is the most common cause of death
e) Bilateral air-space shadowing is most commonly due to pulmonary haemorrhage
5
Thoracic radiology
27 Which of the following statements are true?

a) Aspiration pneumonia is common in patients with polymyositis
b) Pleural effusions are commonly seen in systemic sclerosis
c) There is a higher incidence of lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia in patients
with Sjogren's syndrome
d) Relapsing polychondritis results in thickening of the tracheal wall on CT
e) Pulmonary' involvement does not occur in CREST syndrome
28 In which of the following conditions may diffuse ground glass attenuation

be seen on HRCT?
a) Pulmonary haemorrhage
b) Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
c) Langerhans’ cell histiocytosis
d) Acute respiratory distress syndrome
e) Asian panbronchiolitis
29 Which of the following are true regarding chronic eosinophilic pneumonia?

a) It has an association with bronchial asthma
b) It is usually associated with markedly raised immunoglobulin levels
c) Migratory peripheral consolidations affecting predominantly the lower lobes are typical
d) Pleural effusions are seen in more than 50% of cases
e) Unlike acute eosinophilic pneumonia, it is usually not responsive to steroid treatment
30 Which of the following are true regarding extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

a) Ground glass attenuation with areas of lobular sparing is typical on HRCT
b) The precipitin test is usually negative
c) Pleural effusions arc common
d) Bronchiectasis occurs in chronic disease
e) Interstitial fibrosis usually affects the lower lobes
31 Which of the following are true regarding the appearance of sarcoidosis on HRCT?
a) Isolated involvement of posterior mediastinal lymph nodes is common
b) Nodules have a typical bronchovascular distribution
c) Subpleural nodules are unusual
d) Thickening of interlobular septae occurs
e) Mosaic lung attenuation is a well recognised feature
32 Which of the following are true regarding pulmonary Langerhans' cell histiocytosis
in adults?
a) Isolated pulmonary involvement is usual
b) It is strongly associated with cigarette smoking
c) Thin-walled cysts and bronchocentric nodules are characteristic HRCT features
d( It has a predilection for the lower lobes
e) Mediastinal lymphadenopathy is frequently seen
6
33 Which of the following are true regarding pulmonary alveolar proteinosis?

a) It occurs most frequently in children
b) It has an association with lymphoma
c) It has a characteristic HRCT appearance
d) It has an increased incidence of Nocardia infection
e) It has a universally poor prognosis
34 Which of the following are true regarding cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP)?
a) The disease is rarely symptomatic
b) An obstructive pattern of lung function impairment is typical
c) Pleural effusions are common
d) Bilateral basal peripheral consolidation is a common radiographic finding
e) Radiographic clearing occurs following steroid treatment
35 Expiratory HRCT of the thorax may be useful when which of the following conditions
are suspected?
a) COP
b) Bronchiolitis obliterans
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Sarcoidosis
e) Langerhans’ cell histiocytosis
36 The 'halo sign' on HRCT may be observed in which of the following conditions?
a) Invasive aspergillosis
b) Metastatic choriocarcinoma
c) Wegener’s granulomatosis
c)) Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma
c) Sarcoidosis
37 Which of the following are smoking-related disorders?

a) Bronchogenic carcinoma
b) Respiratory bronchiolitis-interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)
c) Desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP)
d) Pulmonary histiocytosis
e) Centrilobular emphysema
38 Which of the following are true regarding bronchial artery embolisation

for uncontrolled haemoptysis?
a) The spinal artery of Adamkiewicz should always be identified before embolisation
b) Embolisation coils should be deployed at the origin of the hypertrophied bronchial artery
c) Abdominal pain is a known complication
d) Control of massive haemoptysis is achieved in only 20% of cases
e) If a rebleed occurs, a repeat embolisation is unlikely to be successful
7
Thoracic radiology
39 Which of the following are true regarding blunt pulmonary trauma?

a) Pulmonary contusions show radiographic resolution in 48 hours
b) bronchial rupture is always accompanied by pneumothorax
c) A normal chest radiograph has a good negative predictive value for aortic: rupture
d) Traumatic diaphragmatic rupture is more common on the left side
e) Aortic rupture most commonly occurs at the aortic root
40 Which of the following are true regarding pulmonary changes after bone
marrow transplantation?
a) Fungal infection is common in the neutropenic phase following transplantation
b) Patients are most susceptible to bacterial infection in the post-neutropenic
phase of transplantation
c) Lung involvement is common in an acute graft versus host reaction
c)) Cytomegalovirus is the most common cause of pneumonia
e) Development of obliterative bronchiolitis following allogenic transplant
is associated with a high mortality
8
Answers
1 a) False Air bronchograms may be seen within a tumour, most frequently

in broncho alveolar carcinoma.
b) False A 'popcorn' type of calcification is typical of hamartoma and Indicates
the nodule is benign. However, amorphous calcification, although unusual,
can be seen on CT in up to 7% of lung carcinomas, especially in those
greater than 5 cm in size.
c) True f at is only seen in benign lung lesions such as a hamartoma.
d) False A lobulated outline and corona radiata on CT are typical of carcinoma.
e) True A nodule that is enhanced by less than 15 HU following contrast has
a high probability of being benign.
2 a) False Patients with stages l-IIIA bronchogenic carcinoma are suitable surgical
candidates. Ipsilateral lymphadenopathy represents N1 (hilar) or N2 (mediastinal)
nodal disease, which can be present in stage II or III disease.
b) True Malignant pleural effusion indicates T4 disease.
c) False Pericardial resection may be undertaken, although in practical terms the
cardiothoracic surgeon may not want to undertake such a risky procedure.
d) False Localised chest wall resection may be undertaken.
e) True Tumour infiltration of the great vessels indicates T4 disease.
3 a) True Imaging in the coronal plane allows better assessment of the

aorto-pulmonary window.
b) False T1-weighted images allow clear visualisation of the extrapleural fat line.
Disruption of the line by the tumour suggests chest wall infiltration.
c) True Superior sulcus tumours are clearly’ delineated on coronal MRI. MRI can be
used to assess invasion of the chest wall, an adjacent rib or the brachial plexus.
d) False MRI is as good as CT in the detection of mediastinal invasion. However,
involvement of major mediastinal vessels is better demonstrated on MRI,
especially with cardiac gating.
e) False Currently, both CT and MRI use size criteria to predict nodal involvement
However, an MRI lymphography agent (Sinerem), comprised of ultra-small
superparamagnetic iron oxide particles, is currently under evaluation.
Preliminary results have shown a higher sensitivity in detecting abnormal
nodes based on signal characteristics following administration of the contrast.
4 All true Malignant causes of SVCO are more common than benign causes. The malignant
diseases associated with SVCO are bronchogenic carcinoma (especially small-cell
carcinoma) and lymphoma. Benign causes include fibrosing mediastinitis,
retrosternal goitre, ascending aortic aneurysm, central venous catheter
and constrictive pericarditis.
9
Thoracic radiology
5 a) True There is an increased incidence with systemic sclerosis, parenchymal scarring

and interstitial inflammation.
b) True The localised form is more common than the diffuse form. Spontaneous
radiographic improvement is known to occur after episodes of bronchorrhoea.
c True Consolidation, associated with small cystic lucent areas giving a bubbly
appearance, is typical on CT. CT may also demonstrate air bronchograms
and pleural tags.
d) False Pleural effusions are reportedly seen in 8%-30% of cases.
e) True Bronchoalveolar carcinoma is a known cause of a negative PET scan.
6 a) False The chest radiograph is abnormal at presentation in 90% of cases because

of the endobronchial growth of the tumour. Carcinoid most frequently arises
within the central airways, but carcinoid arising in the lung periphery is more
likely to be malignant.
b) False Segmental collapse is the most usual radiographic abnormality’, but the
central tumour can be seen in up to 25% of cases. It has been described
as a 'collar-button' tumour because of its extraluminal extension. Calcifications
are seen in 33% of cases.
c) True Bronchial carcinoids may secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) resulting
in Cushing's syndrome.
d) False Carcinoid syndrome is rare with bronchial carcinoid tumour and usually' occurs
with associated liver metastases.
e) True Atypical carcinoid metastasises in 50% of cases, most frequently to the hilar
lymph nodes. Haematogenous metastasis occurs less frequently.
7 a) True Squamous cell carcinoma presents as a central perihilar mass in 65% of cases.
b) True Squamous cell carcinoma may result in ectopic ADH, ACTH, growth hormone
(GM) or parathyroid hormone (PTH) production.
c) True Cavitation may be seen in approximately 20% of cases.
d) False Small-cell lung carcinoma metastasises more frequently than squamous
cell carcinoma.
e) False Although any cell type may occur, adenocarcinoma is the most common
histological type in Pancoast tumour.
B a) False Benign calcification is seen In 10% of hamartomas, and popcorn calcification

is typical.
b) False Pulmonary chondroma, gastric leiomyoma and extra-adrenal paraganglioma
constitute Carney's triad. The triad has a female preponderance.
c) False Primary pulmonary lymphoma is frequently non-Hodgkin's type, although
Hodgkin’s disease is still more common in the thorax.
d) True An attenuation value of 200 HU indicates calcification and calcific masses
in the thorax are frequently benign.
e) True Pulmonary involvement is more common in primary amyloidosis.
Tracheobronchial masses are more common than parenchymal involvement.
Parenchymal lesions present as multiple nodules. with calcification in about
20% of cases.
10
9 a) False Lymphadenopathy in thoracic lymphoma is commonly bilateral but asymmetrical.

b) False The anterior and middle mediastinal lymph nodes are most frequently involved.
Posterior mediastinal lymph nodes are rarely enlarged, but when these are
involved there is often contiguous nodal enlargement in the retroperitoneum.
c) True Pulmonary involvement is frequently perihilar or juxta-mediastinal.
d) True Pleural effusion is usually the result of lymphatic obstruction secondary
to hilar/mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
e) True Even with successful chemotherapy, lymph node masses may not resolve
completely. Reduction in the activity of a lymph node group on 'gallium
scan indicates a response to treatment.
10 a) False Unlike malignant mesothelioma, this is not related to asbestos exposure.

b) True Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy occurs in 4%-12% of cases.
c) False Symptomatic hypoglycaemia occurs in 6% of patients.
d) False Calcification is rare.
e) True Pedunculation occurs in 50% of benign pleural fibromas.
11 a) False Nodular thickening of both the parietal and visceral pleura is usual,
although asbestos plaques are typically found along the parietal pleura,
b) True Circumferential thickening of the pleura encasing the lung is common.
C) True Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy occurs less commonly compared with
benign pleural fibroma.
d) True Pleural effusions are common and may be haemorrhagic
e) True Invasion of the chest wall, ribs, pericardium, mediastinum and diaphragm
is soon in 11%-18% of cases at presentation. Distant metastases are
relatively uncommon.
12 All true Common causes of multiple pleural masses include metastases (frequently
adenocarcinoma from lung, breast, stomach and ovary primaries and pleural
spread of malignant thymoma and lymphoma. Other more unusual causes
include splenosis, amyloidosis, multiple pleural fibromas and other neoplasms.
13 a) True Metastatic transitional cell carcinoma may appear as a thin-wall

cyst/pneumatocoele following chemotherapy. This can also be seen
with treated testicular germ-cell tumours.
b) False Miliary metastases are most commonly seen with thyroid and renal
cell carcinoma, but may also occur with melanoma, bone sarcoma
and choriocarcinoma.
c) True Endobronchial metastases may result from renal cell, breast, thyroid.
and rectal carcinoma.
d) True Lymphangitis carcinomatosa may result from lung, breast, pancreas,
gastric, colonic and prostatic carcinoma.
e) False Osteosarcoma is the most common cause of calcifying lung metastases.
Metastases from colon, thyroid, breast and ovary may rarely calcify.
11
Thoracic radiology
14 a) False The overall Incidence of thymoma in patients with myasthenia gravis is 10%-20%.
However, about 40% of patients with thymoma have myasthenia gravis.
b) True Hypogammaglobulinaemia is seen in 10% of patients. There is also an association
with red cell aplasia (5%l.
c) True Calcification is seen commonly on both radiographs and CT.
(I) False Invasive thymoma may spread into the mediastinum or pleural space,
but haematogenous metastases are rare.
e) False The tumour occurs rarely in patients aged less than 20 years, but is equally
common in males and females.
15 a) False The disease typically affects young adults and may he of two types: hyaline
vascular type, or plasma cell typo.
b) True Uniform intensely enhancing lymphadenopathy is typical, especially
in the more common hyaline vascular form of Castleman's disease.
c) True Nodal calcification is common on CT.
d) False Nodal cavitation is not a feature.
e) True Lymphadenopathy may involve the neck or retroperitoneum.
16 a) False Unlike chicken-pox pneumonia, miliary tuberculosis does not heal

with calcifications.
b) True Although uncommon, calcified broncholiths can form within airways,
resulting in distal atelectasis.
c) False pleural effusions and lymphadenopathy are more common in primary
tuberculosis. Cavitation is the cardinal feature of post-primary tuberculosis.
d) True CT with multiplanar re-format and 3D-volume rendering techniques is superior
to bronchoscopy, as it allows accurate estimation of the length of the stricture,
and also provides assessment of the lung distal to the stricture,
e) True Branching y or v densities ('tree-in-bud') are a sign of endobronchial spread
of infection and indicate active disease. Endobronchial dissemination of disease
is frequently' encountered in post-primary tuberculosis.
17 a) False Round pneumonia occurs most frequently in children in the first decade of life.
b) False It is usually observed in the lower lobes, often abutting the pleural surface.
Air-bronchograms may be visible within the mass.
c) False Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common pathogen. Other reported
associations include Legionella infection, Q fever, Haemophilus influenzae
and fungal infection.
d) False Round pneumonia often evolves rapidly over a few days into segmental
consolidation. Cavitation is unusual.
e) True Round pneumonia is a recognised feature of Q-fever infection.
12
18 a) False Viral pneumonia rarely cavitates. Cavitating pneumonia most frequently results
from staphylococcal. Streptococcal and Klebsiella infections,
b) True Pulmonary gangrene is a rare complication of Klebsiella pneumonia, secondary
to severe necrosis.
c) False Chlamydia pneumonitis frequently nonsegmental and is rarely associated
with effusions.
d) False Perihilar consolidation associated with hilar lymphadenopathy is frequently
seen in pertussis pneumonia.
e: True Obliterative bronchiolitis, resulting in air trapping and mosaic attenuation on CT.
is a known complication of Mycoplasma infection.
19 a) True
b) True
0 False
d) False
c) True
Calcification of lymph nodes is a feature of sarcoidosis and silicosis and is seen
on radiographs in 5% of patients. The incidence of calcification is higher on CT.
Other causes of nodal calcifications include coal miner's pneumoconiosis,
lymphoma following treatment, amyloidosis and P. carinii infection. Asbestosis
and berylliosis do not result in nodal calcification.
20 a) False Acute silicoproteinosis occurs from intense exposure to silica dust, resulting
in an alveolar exudate, which has mid-zone and upper-zone predominance,
bj True On HRCT, silicosis appears as multiple small, 2-5 mm centrilobular or subpleural
nodules, often with posterior-zone and upper-zone predominance. Nodal
enlargement may be present. The appearance on HRCT can mimic sarcoidosis,
c) True Progressive massive fibrosis develops on a background of diffuse lung nodules
and usually has an irregular border with adjacent parenchymal distortion
and cicatricial emphysema.
d) True Nodal calcification is seen on the radiograph in 5% of patients with silicosis
compared with 1% of patients with coal minor’s pneumoconiosis.
(e) False Impairment of the lung function test correlates best with the degree of
emphysematous change. Nodular profusion is a weaker independent correlate.
21 a) True Asbestos-related pleural plaques occur along the parietal pleura, with
a predilection for the diaphragmatic surface and along the posterolateral
chest wall in the mid-zone and lower zones. Sparing of the costophrenic
recess and mediastinal surface is characteristic,
b) False Pleural plaques may extend into interlobular fissures.
c) True Benign isolated pleural effusion is common in the asbestos-exposed population
and is a diagnosis made by exclusion.
d) True On HRCT, subpleural fibrosis is typical, with thickened interlobular septae,
honeycomb change, pleural thickening, subpleural line and parenchymal bands,
e: False Asbestosis is associated with pleural plaques in 80% of cases.
13
Thoracic radiology
22 a) False Rounded atelectasis appears as a well defined oval or rounded mass, which has
a subpleural location, usually in the posterior or basal region of the lower lobes.
b) True An acute angle with the pleural margin is typical, Indicating its
intrapulmonary location.
c) True Pleural thickening near the rounded atelectasis is typical.
d) True Crowding of the vasculature results in the comet tail appearance, which refers
to the curvilinear bronchi and vessels seen entering the mass. Usually there
is also volume loss within the affected lobe, with inferior migration of the
interlobar fissure.
e) False On CT, the mass enhances uniformly with intravenous contrast.
23 a) True The severity of lung changes following radiotherapy is related to the volume
of lung irradiated, the total and fractionated radiation dose, previous or
concomitant treatment (e g- chemotherapy) and individual susceptibility.
b) False Acute radiation pneumonitis is characteristically restricted to the invoked field.
The earliest change appears at 6-8 weeks after the beginning of treatment,
reaching a peak at 3-4 months.
c) False Pleural effusion is rare, occurring in the acute phase.
d) False Radiation fibrosis develops over 12-18 months following radiotherapy';
often associated with parenchymal distortion and traction bronchiectasis,
o) True Pulmonary oligaemia is a late feature resulting from vascular sclerosis leading
to diminished perfusion.
24 a) False UIP has no gender predilection.

b) True The majority of the cases of cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis result from UIP
c) True The peak incidence is in the fifth and sixth decades of life.
d) True Areas of ground glass attenuation on HRCT without parenchymal distortion
indicate active alveolitis, which may he reversible with steroid treatment.
Ground glass attenuation associated with parenchymal distortion usually
signifies established fibrosis.
e) False The characteristic temporal heterogeneity on HRCT allows a confident diagnosis
to be made in the large proportion of cases. Temporal heterogeneity refers
to different areas of lung, demonstrating different stage’s of inflammation
and fibrosis at the same time.
25 a) True Pleural effusion usually occurs in long-standing disease, with a male

preponderance (M:F = 9:1). Effusions are bilateral in 20% of cases
and are commonly associated with the presence of cutaneous nodules.
b) False Rheumatoid lung nodules are usually associated with established arthritis,
although they may occur with or before the onset of arthritis. They are also
more common in men and up to 80% are associated with cutaneous nodules.
c) False Rheumatoid nodules may be single (25%) or multiple (75%), usually in
the upper zones or mid zones of the lungs, and 50% cavitate.
d) True Other findings of increased frequency in rheumatoid lungs include
bronchiectasis, cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP), pulmonary
fibrosis, obliterative bronchiolitis and follicular bronchiolitis.
e) True Mosaic lung attenuation results from small airway disease (obliterative
bronchiolitis). This may be related to the disease itself or be a consequence
of treatment with gold/penicillamine.
14
26 a) True Primary pleural effusion in SLE is frequently painful and associated with pleuritis.
Effusions commonly occur in 20%-30% of patients.
b) True SLE is associated with the presence of lupus anticoagulant, which increases
the incidence of thromboembolic disease.
c) True Diaphragmatic dysfunction manifests as a raised hemidiaphragm on the
chest radiograph.
d) False Death usually results from renal failure or cerebral lupus.
c) False Infection is the most common cause of air space shadowing within the lungs.
Pulmonary haemorrhage is associated with active disease and is associated
with a very high mortality rate (70%)
27 a) True Aspiration pneumonia is the most common radiographic abnormality in patients

with polymyositis or dermatomyositis. This results from pharyngeal weakness and
defective swallowing mechanism. Other lung changes include interstitial fibrosis,
pulmonary arterial hypertension and diaphragmatic weakness.
b) False Pleural effusions and pleuritis are common. However, fine interstitial fibrosis
is frequently seen on HRCT.
c) True There is a higher incidence of lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia and lymphoma
in patients with Sjogren's syndrome.
d) True On CT. relapsing polychondritis results in thickening, expansion and calcification
of the tracheal cartilage, with narrowing of the lumen. This later results
in stricture formation.
e) False Pulmonary fibrosis occurs but the incidence is lower in CREST syndrome
compared with systemic sclerosis.
28 a) True
b) True
c) False
d) True
e) False
Ground glass opacification refers to increased attenuation of the lung on HRCT,
without obscuring the visibility of the pulmonary vasculature and bronchioles.
This appearance can result from the presence of fluid, blood, pus, or cells within
the acini. The causes Include pulmonary oedema, fluid overload, pulmonary
haemorrhage, acute respiratory distress syndrome, sarcoidosis, extrinsic allergic
alveolitis, alveolar proteinosis and alveolar cell carcinoma. Langerhans’ cell
histiocytosis is characterised by cysts and nodules. Asian panbronchiolitis results
in a proliferative bronchiolitis, giving rise to widespread 'tree-in-bud' opacities.
29 a) True 40% of patients have a history of asthma and 50% are atopic
b) False The serum IgE levels are usually normal, allowing differentiation from conditions
associated with raised serum IgE levels, such as allergic bronchopulmonary
aspergillosis and parasite-associated eosinophilic lung syndromes.
c) False Peripheral, nonsegmental consolidation in the upper or mid zones is typical,
occurring in two-thirds of cases.
d) False Pleural effusion is uncommon (2%).
e) False The condition is steroid responsive, clearing rapidly over days.
However, relapse is common.
15
Thoracic radiology
30 a True Ground glass attenuation with lobular sparing is typical, giving rise to a mosaic
pattern on HRCT. Bronchiolitis is also associated, resulting in lobular air trapping,
which contributes to the mosaic attenuation pattern.
b) False The precipitin test is frequently positive. However, a positive precipitin merely
indicates exposure to the antigen, and not necessarily the cause of the disease.
c) False Pleural changes are not a feature of the disease.
d) True Parenchymal distortion and traction bronchiectasis result from interstitial fibrosis,
which occurs in chronic disease,
e) False Fibrotic changes usually Involve the upper lobes.
31 a) False Posterior mediastinal lymph nodes arc least frequently involved in sarcoidosis.
Hilar, right paratracheal and subcarinal lymph nodes are most frequently
involved. Anterior mediastinal lymph nodes may be enlarged, but not usually
in isolation.
b) True Pulmonary nodules have a bronchovascular distribution, resulting in beading
of the bronchovascular interstitium on HRCT.
c) False Nodules have a predilection for the subpleural location, appearing as beading
of the pleura and interlobular septae.
d) True Sarcoidosis is a cause of thickening of the interlobular septae.
e) True Mosaic lung attenuation reflecting small airway involvement is one of the earliest
signs of lung involvement by sarcoidosis and can precede the appearance
of intrapulmonary nodules.
32 a) True Unlike childhood Langerhans cell histiocytosis, adult pulmonary Langerhans’

cell histiocytosis is usually confined to the chest,
b) True There is a definite association with smoking. Cessation of smoking frequently
leads to radiological improvement of the disease,
c) True Thin-walled irregular cysts and bronchocentric nodules are typical features
on HRCT. Frequently, the costophrenic angle and lung apices are spared,
d) False It has a predilection for the upper zones of the lungs,
e! False Mediastinal lymphadenopathy is infrequently encountered.
33 at False Although the peak incidence occurs in the fourth and fifth decades, the
condition can occur at any age. There is an increased incidence in males,
b) True The condition is frequently idiopathic, but may be associated with lymphoma.
haematological disorders and immune suppression,
c.i True The characteristic HRCT appearance is geographical ground glass opacification,
associated with thickening of the interlobular septae, giving rise to
a crazy-paving appearance.
d) True It is associated with an increased incidence of Nocardia infection.
e) False About 50% of patients show improvement or remission with bronchoalveolar lavage.
16
34 a) False COP is also known as bronchiolitis obliterans organising pneumonia (BOOP) or

bronchiolitis obliterans with intramural polyps. The peak incidence is in the fifth
and sixth decades of life, with equal gender predisposition. About 50% of patients
are symptomatic, presenting with fever, cough, breathlessness and malaise,
b) True The presence of intramural polyps results in a predominantly obstructive
pattern on lung function tests.
c» False Pleural effusions are uncommon, occurring in less than 5% of cases.
d) True The typical radiographic appearance is one of multiple, bilateral, asymmetric
consolidation, with a basal and peripheral predominance, accompanied by
nodules and reticular change.
e) True The condition is usually steroid responsive, resolving in days to weeks following
treatment. However, relapse is not infrequent following steroid withdrawal.
35 aj False COP is characterised by peripheral basal consolidation. Air trapping is not

a dominant feature.
b) True Expiratory scans are helpful in conditions resulting in constrictive bronchiolitis
and air trapping. The visualisation of air trapping in the pulmonary lobules
is enhanced on expiratory scans.
c) True Minor thickening of the airways may occur In bronchial asthma. However,
the degree of air trapping is best appreciated on expiratory scans,
c)) True Small airway involvement occurs early in pulmonary sarcoidosis, resulting
In air trapping and mosaic lung attenuation,
e) False Langerhans' cell histiocytosis does not result in airway abnormality. Hence,
expiratory scans are unhelpful.
36 a True
b True
c True
d True
e False
The 'halo' sign refers to the increase in lung attenuation surrounding a lung
lesion. The appearance can be seen in invasive aspergillosis, which is a result
of hyphae infiltration into the lung parenchyma. The phenomenon is a result
of perilesional haemorrhage in metastatic choriocarcinoma and Wegener's
granulomatosis. Alveolar spread of bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma results
in the appearance of a 'halo' in these patients.
37 All true All these conditions are related to smoking. RB-ILD and DIP occur as a response
to cigarette smoke, resulting in accumulation of 'pigmented' macrophages
within the respiratory bronchioles and the adjacent alveoli. In RB-ILD. the lung
involvement is typically centred on the small airways, and is characterised
on HRCT by a background of ground-glass attenuation with superimposed
centrilobular nodules. Septal lines and emphysematous change may be present
The lung changes are similar in DIR except that the disease tends to affect the lung
more uniformly and diffusely. On HRCT, diffuse ground-glass attenuation is
frequently seen in the mid and lower zones and may show a subpleural prediction.
It may be difficult to distinguishable RB-ILD from DIP on imaging and histopathology.
17
Thoracic radiology
38 a) False Failure to visualise the spinal artery should not be a contraindication to

embolisation. Preferential flow into the hypertrophied bronchial vessels
frequently occurs and the spinal artery may not be easily visualised.
However, if the spinal artery is seen arising from a bronchial artery, then
caution should be taken when performing the embolisation.
b) False Embolisation may be performed using particles, gel-foam and coils. A metallic
coil should not be deployed at the origin of the bronchial artery, as it would
preclude further embolisation if necessary.
c) True Spillover of embolic material into the thoracic aorta can result in intestinal
ischaemia, causing abdominal pain.
d) False Initial control of haemoptysis is achieved in 70%-80% of cases.
However, there is a rebleed rate of 20% in the following 6 months,
e) False Rebleed in patients can be successfully treated with embolisation.
39 a) True Pulmonary contusions, which appear as airspace opacification over the site
of trauma, resolve rapidly, usually within 48 hours.
b) False Bronchial rupture is frequently (70%), but not invariably, associated with
a pneumothorax. The falling lung sign, referring to the displacement of
the lung to the dependent position, is typical.
c) True A normal chest radiograph has a 98% negative predictive value for significant
intrathoracic injury.
d) True Traumatic diaphragmatic injury is more common on the left side.
MRI has the highest sensitivity in the detection of diaphragmatic injury
e) False Aortic rupture is most common at the level of the ductus arteriosus.
40 a) True The pre-engraftment (neutropenic) phase following bone marrow transplant

(up to 30 days) is characterised by severe neutropenia. At this time, patients
are most susceptible to bacteria and fungal infections.
b) False The post-engraftment (post-neutropenic) phase occurs at about 30-100 day's
following transplantation. At this stage, neutropenia is recovering, but there
is still considerable depressed lymphocytic humoral and cellular immunity.
Viral and protozoal infections are most common at this stage.
c) False Acute graft versus host reactions occur with allogenic transplants, usually affecting
the gastrointestinal tract, liver and skin. Involvement of the lungs is rare. A chronic
graft versus host reaction is a more systemic disease with lung involvement.
d) True Overall, infection due to cytomegalovirus accounts for up to 50% of infections
encountered in bone marrow transplant patients.
e) True Obliterative bronchiolitis occurs in the late stages of post-allogeneic bone
marrow transplantation and has a 50% mortality rate. The condition responds
poorly to steroids.
10
Chapter 2
Cardiovascular imaging

a) In interruption of the inferior vena cava (IVC), the hepatic veins drain directly
into the right atrium
b) The pulmonary arteries cannot be differentiated from adjacent bronchi
with gradient echo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c) A left-sided superior vena cava (SVC) occurs in 10% of the population
d) The anomalous right-sided subclavian artery indents the anterior surface
of the oesophagus
e) A ratio of ascending to descending aortic diameter at the level of the aortic
root of greater than 1.7 is abnormal
2 Regarding aortic transection (traumatic aortic injury), which of the following are true?
a) The most common site is the ascending aorta
b) The descending aorta is rarely involved
c) The left apical cap' sign is highly specific for aortic transection
d) The chest radiograph is normal in 30% of cases at presentation
e) Chronic false aneurysm develops in 5% of cases
3 In cardiac MRI, which of the following are true?

a) The normal pericardium returns low signal on T1-weighted imaging
b) Prosthetic heart valves are an absolute contraindication to MRI scanning
c) The superior pericardial recess is rarely seen on MRI
d) In constrictive pericarditis, the pericardium is typically thickened
e) MRI may distinguish constrictive pericarditis from restrictive cardiomyopathy
4 Which of the following are true regarding pericardial defects?

a) The left side is most commonly affected
b) They are associated with bronchogenic cysts
c) Most patients are symptomatic
d) Tracheal deviation is a typical feature on chest radiography
e) Surgical treatment is Indicated In the majority
5 Regarding Takayasu's arteritis, which of the following are true?

a) Males are more commonly affected than females
b) The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is rarely elevated
c) The left subclavian artery is rarely involved
d) Pulmonary arteries are commonly involved
e) Aortic calcification is a feature on chest radiography In 40% of cases
6 Which of the following arc true regarding transposition of the great arteries (TGA)?
a) In the D loop of TGA, the atria and ventricles have a normal morphological relationship
b) Pulmonary stenosis is an associated feature
c) Chest radiograph shows pulmonary plethora in the D loop of TGA
d) In the L loop (corrected) transposition, there is a physiologically corrected circulation
e) Dextrocardia is associated with the L loop of TGA
20
MCOs in Clinical Radiology
7 In tetralogy of Fallot, which of the following are true?

a) Pulmonary artery hypoplasia an associated finding
b) Right-sided aortic arch is present in 5% of cases
c) Right ventricular hypertrophy is a feature of antenatal scanning at midtrimester
d) The most common associated coronary artery variant is an anomalous origin
of the left anterior descending artery
e) The aortic root over-rides the ventriculoseptal defect
8 Regarding total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage (TAPVD), which of the

following are true?
a) The supracardiac type is the most common
b) The left atrium is not enlarged
c) The infracardiac type may drain into the hepatic veins
d) Pulmonary oedema in the presence of a normal size heart is a feature
of cardiac type TAPVD
e) There is an association with scimitar syndrome
9 Which of the following are true regarding aortic dissection?

a) There is an association with Turner’s syndrome
b) Cardiac failure is a common presenting feature
c) The most common site in the ascending aorta is the left lateral wall
d) Chest radiograph shows a left pleural effusion in 30% of cases
e) The aortic intimal flap is seen in 75% of cases at angiography
10 Regarding the pulmonary arteries, which of the following are true?

a) The upper lobe pulmonary veins lie lateral to the upper lobe arteries
on chest radiography
b) On a lateral chest radiograph, the right pulmonary artery lies posterosuperior
to the Carina
c) The pulmonary artery systolic pressure may be estimated by Doppler echocardiography
d) Pulmonary arteriovenous malformations are rarely multiple
e) A pulmonary varix is commonly found in the upper lobes
11 Which of the following are true regarding inflammatory aneurysm of the abdominal aorta?
a) Periaortic fibrosis usually appears as a well defined soft tissue mass
b) Fibrosis typically spares the posterior aorta
c) Extension into the pelvis is a feature
d) On computed tomography (CT). periaortic fibrosis enhances avidly following
intravenous contrast
e) On MRI, periaortic fibrosis gives typically high signal on T1-weighted imaging
12 In patients following thoracotomy, which of the following are true?

a) Mediastinal infection has a mortality rate of 25%
b) Postoperative haematoma usually’ resolves on CT after 2 3 weeks
c) Pericardial effusion is not a normal finding follow ing sternotomy
d) Mediastinal air usually resolves within 7 days
e) CT is the technique of choice in establishing the diagnosis of mediastinitis
21
13 Which of the following are true regarding the cardiopulmonary system during pregnancy?
a) Cardiac output may increase by 85% during delivery
I)) In peripartum cardiomyopathy, cardiac size can predict prognosis
c) Amniotic fluid embolism may be associated with disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC)
dj Spontaneous pneumothorax during pregnancy is common
e) Cardiac activity is visualised by transvaginal scan when crown-to-rump length (CRL)
is 5 mm
14 Which of the following are true regarding MRI and heart disease?
a) Infarcted myocardium is typically high signal on T2-weighted imaging
b) There is marked enhancement of infarcted myocardium following intravenous
gadolinium contrast
c) The cardiac valves are well demonstrated on MRI
d) In acute myocardial Infarction, systolic wall thickening is reduced
e) Viable myocardium may be differentiated from infarcted tissue
15 Regarding cardiac myxomas, which of the following are true?

a) 20% of patients are asymptomatic
b) Embolism occurs in 20% of patients
c) The most common site is the right atrium
d) It is usually homogenous in attenuation on contrast-enhanced CT
e) There is an association with myxoid fibroadenomas of the breast
16 Which of the following are true regarding benign cardiac tumours?

a) Papillary fibroelastomas typically affect the ventricles
b) Recurrence after excision of papillary fibroelastomas is common
c) Rhabdomyomas of the heart are typically seen in children aged less than 1 year
d) Rhabdomyoma is associated with tuberous sclerosis
e) Cardiomegaly is the most common radiological finding in patients with cardiac fibroma(s)
17 Regarding aortic aneurysms, which of the following are true?

a) Abdominal aortic aneurysm is associated with renal artery stenosis (RAS) in 25% of cases
b) Abdominal aortic aneurysm extends to involve the common iliac arteries in 65% of cases
c) Mycotic aneurysm most frequently affects the ascending aorta
d) Thoracic aortic aneurysm is the most common vascular cause of a mediastinal mass
e) Renal failure occurs in 14% of postoperative patients
18 In Buerger's disease, which of the following are true?

a) There is a strong association with cigarette smoking
b) Raynaud's phenomenon occurs in 30% of cases
c) The upper limbs are more frequently affected than the lower limbs
d) Migratory thrombophlebitis is an associated feature
e) There is typically tapered narrowing of the occluded artery
22
19 Which of the following are true regarding coarctation of the aorta?

a) Adult coarctation is commonly associated with cardiac anomalies
b) The ductus arteriosus usually remains patent in adult type coarctation
c) A short segment of narrowing of the ascending aorta is seen in infantile coarctation
d) It is a rare cause of infantile heart failure
e) Rib notching is usually present by 1 year of age
20 Which of the following are true regarding splenic abnormalities?

a) Polysplenia is associated with left-sided azygos continuation of an interrupted IVC
b) Gastrointestinal malrotation is associated with polysplenia
c) Asplenia is rarely associated with total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
d) Duplex kidneys are seen in the majority of patients with asplenia
e) Howel-Jolly bodies in the peripheral blood arc a feature of asplenia
23
Answers
1 a) True The IVC terminates before reaching the right atrium and blood reaches the SVC
via the azygos vein on the right side. The hepatic veins drain directly into the
right atrium. This is a rare anomaly and usually does not produce symptoms.
It is associated with polysplenia syndrome, asplenia syndrome, dextrocardia
and a retroaortic left ren.il vein.
b) False Blood returns high signal from within the arteries on gradient echo sequences,
allowing differentiation from adjacent bronchi, unless saturation bands have
been applied.
c) False Left-sided SVC is seen in 0.3% of the population and 4% of patients
with congenital heart disease.
d) False The anomalous right-sided subclavian artery arises from the descending portion
of the aortic arch and is the last of the great vessels to arise from this point.
It passes to the right, posterior to the oesophagus.
e) True A ratio greater than 1.7 indicates aortic root dilatation.
2 a) False The most common site is the aortic isthmus (95% of cases). The ascending
aorta is involved in only 1% of cases.
b) True The descending aorta is rarely involved (2% of cases).
c) False The 'left apical cap’ is a sign of mediastinal haematoma with extrapleural
extension of blood (but only 15% of cases of mediastinal haematoma
are due to an aortic tear).
d) True A delay of up to 36 hours may occur before the onset of radiographic signs.
e) True Chronic aortic pseudoaneurysm occurs in 5% of patients who survive aortic
transection. Patients may be symptom free for years and present with delayed
symptoms. Complications include progressive dilatation and rupture, bacterial
endocarditis, lumen obstruction and aorto-oesophageal fistula.
3 a) True The pericardium consists of predominantly' fibrous tissue, which returns

low signal.
b) False Most cardiac valves (except the old Star Edwards) are MRI compatible.
c) False The superior pericardial recess is usually seen on MRI.
d) True In constrictive pericarditis, MRI shows a thickened pericardium (greater
than 5 mm) with a small right ventricle with decreased end-diastolic volume.
e) True See d) above. In restrictive cardiomyopathy, the pericardium is typically
normal and an associated small pericardial effusion and abnormal myocardial
systolic thickening may be seen.
24
4 a) True Part of the pericardium develops poorly due to premature atrophy of the cardinal
vein, which leads to loss of integrity of the pleuropericardial membrane. The
left side is affected in 70% of cases and total bilateral absence is seen in 9%.
b) True Other associations include ventriculoseptal defect, patent ductus arteriosus,
diaphragmatic hernia and mitral stenosis.
c) False Symptoms when present may include palpitations, tachycardia, syncope
and chest pain. However, most patients are asymptomatic.
d) False Tracheal deviation is not a feature. Radiographic findings are only present with
large defects or complete pericardial absence and include poor definition of the
right heart border with levo-position and absence of the left pericardial fat pad.
e) False Surgical treatment is not indicated in the majority, but may. however, be required
when there is herniation of the atria or the atrial appendage.
5 a) False Females are more commonly affected than males (M:F = 1:8).
b) False ESR is typically elevated in 80% of cases.
c) False Takayasu's arteritis is a chronic arteritis, which affects the aortic segments and
their branches. The left subclavian, common carotid and brachiocephalic trunk,
coeliac axis, superior mesenteric artery and pulmonary arteries are commonly
affected. The axillary, vertebral and brachial arteries are rarely involved.
d) True See c) above.
e) False Aortic calcification is seen in 15% of cases. Other chest radiography features
include widened mediastinum, focal pulmonary oligaemia and abnormal
descending aortic contour.
6 a) True In the D loop of TGA, the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary
artery from the loft ventricle. A normal relationship exists between the atria
and the ventricles. TGA have a normal anterior-posterior relationship.
b) True Other associations include ventriculoseptal defect, patent ductus arteriosus
and coarctation of the aorta.
c) True Chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly and a narrow pedicle (‘egg on a string'
appearance), as the aorta lies anterior to the main pulmonary artery.
d) True In the L loop of TGA, them is transposition of the aorta and pulmonary arteries
in addition to inversion of the left and right ventricles. The atria and coronary
arteries are associated with their corresponding ventricles.
e) True Dextrocardia with situs solitus (normal situs) is associated with congenital heart
disease in 95% of cases. Dextrocardia associated with situs inversus is associated
with congenital heart disease in 5% of cases (e.g. Kartagener’s syndrome).
7 a) True See e) below.

b) False Right-sided aortic arch is present in 25% of cases and is usually of the
mirror-image type.
c) False Antenatal ultrasound findings include dilated over-riding aorta, perimembranous
ventricular septal defect and mildly stenotic right ventricular outflow tract,
but right ventricular hypertrophy is not a feature at this stage.
d) True The left anterior descending artery arises from the right coronary artery and
runs over the- surface of the ventricle where it may be at risk during surgery.
e) True Other features of the tetralogy of Fallot include large ventriculoseptal defect,
right ventricular outflow trait stenosis and right ventricular hypertrophy.
25
8 a) True In TAPVD, the pulmonary confluence fails to communicate with the left atrium.
In the supracardiac type (52% of cases), the pulmonary confluence drains into
an ascending vein on the left (remnant of the left-sided SVC), which in turn drains
into the left brachiocephalic vein and subsequently the right sided SVC. In the
cardiac type (30% of cases), the abnormality drains via the coronary sinus into the
right atrium. In the infracardiac type (12% of cases), the pulmonary confluence
drains into a descending win, which passes through the diaphragm, where it
may be obstructed, and into the portal vein, the IVC or the hepatic veins.
b) True The right atrium and ventricle have volume overload. An atrial septal defect is
critical for survival as it allows the return of oxygenated blood to the systemic
circulation. Other radiographic features of the supracardiac type include
increased pulmonary blood flow and the characteristic figure-of-eight
cardiac silhouette.
c) True See a) above.
d) False Pulmonary oedema is a characteristic feature of the infracardiac type TAPVD.
e) False Scimitar syndrome is the association of hypogenetic lung with congenital
pulmonary venolobar syndrome where all or part of the hypogenetic lung is
drained via an anomalous vein into the subdiaphragmatic IVC, hepatic veins,
portal vein or coronary sinus.
9 a) True Other associations include: hypertension in 60%-90% of cases, Marfan's syndrome,

relapsing polychondritis, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and coarctation of the aorta.
b) False Cardiac failure is rare at presentation. Common signs include asymmetrical
or absent femoral and peripheral pulses, neurological deficits, haemodynamic
shock and aortic regurgitation.
c) False In the ascending aorta, the most common site of aortic dissection the anterior
and right lateral wall, the superior and posterior wall at the aortic arch and the
posterior and left lateral wall of the descending aorta. The ascending aorta and/or
the aortic arch are involved in 70% of cases and 30% involve the descending
aorta only.
d) True Other radiographic features include: Inward displacement of atherosclerotic
plaque, a difference in size between the ascending and descending aorta,
mediastinal widening, cardiac enlargement anti left lower lobe atelectasis.
e) True Other features at angiography include opacification of two aortic lumens,
abnormal placement of catheters, compression of the true lumen by the
false lumen and aortic regurgitation.
10 a) True The lower lobe veins have a more horizontal course as they lie towards
the left atrium.
b) False The left pulmonary artery lies posterosuperior to the carina. The right pulmonary
artery lies in front and below the Carina.
c) True Estimation of the pulmonary artery systolic pressure may be achieved by
measuring the velocity of the regurgitated jet through the tricuspid valve
with Doppler echocardiography.
d) False Pulmonary arteriovenous malformations are multiple in one-third of cases
and frequently associated with Rendu Osler-Weber syndrome (60% of cases).
However, only 5%-15% of patients with Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome
have pulmonary arteriovenous malformations.
e) False A pulmonary varix is a tortuous dilatation of a pulmonary vein just before
draining into the left atrium usually seen in the infrahilar region.
26
11 a) True This is a variant of the abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) when there is
inflammatory change in the periaortic tissue. The inflammatory changes are
usually well defined and begin anterolaterally. sparing the posterior aortic wall.
Occasionally they may be poorly defined and extend along the posterior
aortic wall.
b) True See a) above.
c) True Extension along the iliac vessels may occur.
d) False Enhancement after contrast is usually variable, depending on the degree
of fibrosis, hyalinisation and lipogranulomatosis.
e) False The fibrosis usually has low or intermediate signal. The signal on T2-weighted
imaging is variable.
12 a) True Diffuse mediastinitis has a mortality rate approaching 50%, but which
decreases with early diagnosis.
b) True Normal findings include: retrosternal soft tissue infiltration with blood or
oedema, air, haematoma, bone defects and minimal pericardial thickening.
c) False Minimal effusion can be normal.
d) True However, postoperative changes may persist longer than 7 days.
e) False Although CT plays an essential role, diagnosis is established by microbiological
examination. CT may show the extent of the fluid collection and can be used
to guide aspiration or drainage.
13 a) True Cardiac output increases more in vaginal than caesarean deliveries. This can
result in pulmonary’ vascular engorgement and left ventricular enlargement.
b) True Peripartum cardiomyopathy occurs from the last month of pregnancy to
6 months post-partum. Chest radiography findings include cardiac enlargement
and pulmonary oedema. Although 80% of cases initially Improve, the overall
mortality reaches 60%. The heart size at 6 months can predict prognosis.
c) True Amniotic fluid embolism can occur at delivery or peripartum, especially
during prolonged labour. Circulatory shock with extensive haemorrhage
occurs due to DIC.
d) False Spontaneous pneumothorax during pregnancy is rare, but affected individuals
tend to have prolonged labour, asthma or a history of pneumothorax,
e) True Cardiac activity is visualised by transabdominal ultrasonography when
CRL is greater than 9 mm (6.9 weeks) and by transvaginal scan when
CRL. exceeds 5 mm (6.2 weeks).
14 a) True The infarcted area is low signal on T1-weighted imaging.

b) True Infarcted myocardium may be better visualised on post-intravenous gadolinium
T1-weighted images compared with T2-weighted images.
c) False The myocardium and endocardial surface are well demonstrated on MRI. The
interatrial and interventricular septae, papillary apparatus and moderator hand
are generally well seen. The cardiac valves are, however, inconsistently seen.
d) True Using criteria of systolic wall thickness and abnormally high signal on
T2-weighted images, the accuracy of MRI in cardiac infarction is more than 85%.
e) True Viable myocardium, unlike infarcted tissue, shows wall thickening at systole
and thinning at diastole.
27
15 a) True Left atrial myxomas may cause mitral valve obstruction, leading to dyspnoea
and orthopnoea due lo pulmonary oedema. Right atrial myxoma may obstruct
the tricuspid valve and cause right-sided heart failure. The classic triad consists of
obstructive cardiac symptoms, embolic phenomena and constitutional symptoms.
b) True Embolism is the second most common feature of cardiac myxomas, frequently
involving the central nervous system, coronary arteries, kidney, spleen and
pulmonary arteries. It is seen in up to 40% of cases.
c) False The most common site of cardiac myxomas is the left atrium (75% of cases).
The ventricles are rarely affected and 20% of tumours occur in the right atrium.
d) False The tumour is low attenuation compared with intracardiac blood and is
heterogeneous duo to frequent necrosis, haemorrhage, cystic change,
fibrosis or ossification.
e) True Most (93%) myxoid fibroadenomas of the breast are sporadic. The remainder
may be associated with the autosomal dominant Carney syndrome (skin and
myxoid fibroadenomas of the breast, skin pigmentation, pituitary adenomas
and testicular tumour).
16 a) False Papillary fibroelastomas (benign endocardial papillomas) mainly affect the valves.
They are the second most common primary benign cardiac tumour. Most are
small when discovered at echocardiography and are not usually associated
with valvular malfunction.
b) False Recurrence after excision of papillary fibroelastomas is rare.
c) True Most (90%) rhabdomyomas of the heart occur in children aged less than 1 year.
They arc benign hamartomas and may be associated with tuberous sclerosis
in 50% of cases. At echocardiography, they appear as hyperechoic nodules.
When multiple, they may cause diffuse myocardial thickening.
d) True See c) above.
e) True Cardiac fibromas are congenital tumours with 33% occurring in those aged
less than 1 year and 15% in adolescents. They may be associated with Gorlin's
syndrome. Craniomegaly and a focal bulge in the cardiac contour are common
radiological findings. Calcification is seen in 25% of cases. MRI reveals these
tumours to be hyperintense to myocardium and hypointense on T2-weighted
images, which is typical of fibrous tissue.
17 a) True Stenosis of the coeliac and superior mesenteric artery (SMA) is seen in 22%
of cases of abdominal aortic aneurysms and occlusion of the inferior mesenteric
artery occurs in 80%.
b) True Most (90%) abdominal aortic aneurysms are infrarenal.
c) True Mycotic aneurysm arises from a variety of non-syphilitic infections
(Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella, Neisseria gonorrhoeae). The ascending aorta
is most commonly affected with involvement of the visceral arteries in the
abdomen. Most are true aneurysms involving dilatation of all three layers
of the aortic wall.
d) True Other vascular causes of a mediastinal mass include: Right-sided/double aortic-
arch, anomalous origin of the right subclavian artery, ectatic or dilated subclavian
vein, thoracic aorta, aneurysm of the sinus of Valsalva, oesophageal varices
and interruption of the IVC with azygos or hemiazygos continuation.
e) True
28
18 a) True Buerger's disease is a segmental obliterative vasculitis affecting the medium

and small arteries. Veins are affected in 30% of cases. Of those affected,
95% are smokers and 98% are male.
b) True Other causes of Raynaud's phenomenon include vasculitis, atherosclerosis, drugs
(eg, ergot), dysproteinaemia, myxoedema and primary pulmonary hypertension
c) False lower limbs are affected (80% of cases) more often than upper limbs
d) True Migratory thrombophlebitis is seen in up to one third of patients,
e) True Skip lesions are typical as well as abundant corkscrew collaterals, one
of which may follow the path of the original artery (Martorell’s sign).
19 a) False Adult coarctation is a short narrowing at the ligamentum arteriosum. It is rarely

associated with cardiac anomalies and the ductus arteriosum is usually closed.
Angiography shows a shelf-like lesion with prestenotic narrowing and
poststenotic dilatation,
b) False See a) above.
c) False Infantile aortic coarctation invokes a long tubular segment of the aortic
arch distal to the origin of the brachiocephalic artery.
d) False Aortic coarctation is the second most common cause of heart failure
in the neonate (hypoplastic left heart is the most common).
e) False Rib notching involves the third to eighth ribs and in 75% of cases is seen
in those over 6 years of age.
20 a) True Polysplenia or bilateral left-sidedness is associated with two morphological

left lungs, biliary atresia, absence of the gall bladder, malrotation and
cardiovascular abnormalities.
b) True Seen in 80% of cases
C) False Asplenia may have bilateral right-sidedness. There are two morphological right
lungs, midline location of the liver, reversed position of the aorta and IVC and
total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage is seen in nearly 100% of cases.
Other associations include: gastrnintestinal anomalies (situs inversus, annular
pancreas, Hirschsprung’s disease), renal anomalies (horseshoe kidney, duplex
system, absent left adrenal gland, bicornuate uterus) and cardiac defects
(endocardial cushion defect, single ventricle, dextrocardia),
d) False See c) above. Genitourinary anomalies are seen in 15% of cases,
e) True Howell Jolly bodies in the peripheral blood are a feature of an absent spleen.
29
30
Chapter 3
Abdominal imaging
Ahclomin.il imaging
1 In abdominal lymphoma, which of the following are true?

a) Multifocal nodules are the most common pattern of splenic involvement
b) Splenic involvement is reliably diagnosed with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c) Liver involvement is seen in 60% of patients with Hodgkin's lymphoma
d) The small intestine is the most common gastrointestinal site of involvement
e) The caecum is the most common site of colonic involvement
2 Which of the following are true regarding trauma to the gastrointestinal tract?
a) Acutely clotted blood within the abdomen typically' has CT attenuation values
of 50-60 Hounsfield units (HU)
b) The terminal ileum is the most common site of bowel laceration
c) jejunal laceration is frequently associated with pneumoperitoneum
d) Interloop fluid of water density on CT is a useful sign of bowel perforation
e) A small hypodense spleen is a feature of haemorrhagic shock
3 Which of the following are true regarding the kidney?

a) The presence of cyst calcification in patients with adult polycystic kidney disease
confers a high risk of renal malignancy
b) The ipsilateral adrenal gland is involved in 10% of patients with renal cell carcinoma
c) In renal cell carcinoma, the demonstration of stranding in the perinephric space
on CT indicates tumour extension beyond the kidney
d) Gradient echo sequences have greater accuracy in the detection of inferior vena cava
(IVC) tumour thrombosis than spin echo sequences
e) Lymphangioleiomyomatosis of the kidney is associated with tuberous sclerosis
4 Regarding hepatocellular carcinomas, which of the following are true?

a) They are commonly hyperechoic on ultrasonography
b) The majority are hyperdense during the arterial phase on CT
c) The majority are hyperintense on T1-weighted and T2-weighted imaging
d) The central scar may bo hypo intense on T2-weighted imaging
e) Portal or hepatic venous invasion is seen on MRI in one third of patients
5 Which of the following are true regarding fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma?

a) The majority are associated with elevated alphafetoprotein
b) A central scar is present in 50% of cases on ultrasonography
c) Calcification is rarely seen on CT
d) There is delayed enhancement of the- tumour following intravenous gadolinium on MRI
e) The central scar may enhance following intravenous contrast on CT
6 Which of the following are true regarding testicular tumours?

a) Seminomas are highly radiosensitive
b) About 90% of non-germ cell tumours are benign
c) Lymphoma typically presents as a focal hypoechoic mass on ultrasonography
d) Yolk sac tumours usually spread by lymphatic dissemination
e) Isolated involvement of the external iliac nodes rarely occurs
32
7 In the imaging of acute testicular torsion, which of the following are true?
a) Surgery is successful in 20% of patients who present between 12 and 24 hours
after onset of symptoms
b) On sonography, a reactive hydrocoele is seen after 6 hours
c) Colour Doppler ultrasound may show increased blood flow in the epididymis
d) Hyperperfusion of the testicle on colour Doppler ultrasonography makes testicular
torsion unlikely
e) Technetium-99m pertechnetate scintigraphy typically shows a halo of hyperactivity
in the acute phase (first 6 hours)
8 Which of the following liver lesions may demonstrate signal loss on out-of-phase
(opposed phase) MRI?
a) Hepatocellular carcinoma
b) Cholangiocarcinoma
c) Lymphoma
d) Hepatocellular adenoma
e) Haemangioma
9 Which of the following are true of cystic fibrosis?

a) Chronic liver disease is present in 75% of adults with cystic fibrosis
b) The most common abdominal MRI finding is fatly infiltration of the pancreas
c) Pancreatic calcification is seen in 30% of patients on radiography
d) Pancreatic cysts are a common finding
e) Microgallbladder is a rare finding
10 Which of the following are true regarding Behcet's syndrome?

a) The gastrointestinal tract is involved in up to 40% of cases
b) The jejunum is the most common site involved within the gastrointestinal tract
c) Deep ulceration of the bowel wall is typical
d) Pericolonic infiltration is a typical feature on CT in uncomplicated cases
e) Necrolytic erythema migrans is an associated finding
11 In ultrasonography of the renal tract, which of the following are true?

a) Pregnancy-related renal dilatation is present by the tenth week of gestation
b) In pregnancy-related dilatation of the collecting system, the right side is invoked
in most cases
c) The resistive index (Rl) in intrarenal arteries is normally greater than 0.7
d) Renal cancers are rarely hyperechoic at ultrasound
e) A hyperechoic lesion with posterior acoustic shadowing in the absence of calcification
on ultrasound is more suggestive of angiomyolipoma than renal cell carcinoma
12 In carcinoma of the oesophagus, which of the following are true?

a) Oesophageal cancer is associated with coeliac disease
b) Pericardial effusion suggests unresectability
c) Five-year survival in oesophageal cancer patients without nodal disease is 48%
d) Barrett’s oesophagus is associated with squamous metaplasia of the distal oesophagus
e) Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS) is more accurate than endoscopy in diagnosing
recurrent oesophageal cancer
33
Abdominal imaging
13 Which of the following are True concerning benign lesions of the oesophagus?
a) Duplication cysts are completely surrounded by muscularis propria
b) Duplication cysts typically are of water density on CT
c) Leiomyomas are more common in the proximal oesophagus
d) Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy may be a feature of leiomyomas
e) Giant oesophageal ulcer is a feature of cytomegalovirus (CMV) oesophagitis
14 Which of the following are true regarding radiation enteritis?

a) Enteritis typically develops after a dose of 4 500 cGy
b) The underlying pathology is endarteritis
c) Hypertension is a predisposing factor
d) Effacement of mucosal folds is a typical feature on barium studies
e) MRI findings are specific
15 In imaging tumours of the small bowel, which of the following are true?
a) Adenocarcinoma is more common in the distal small bowel than the proximal bowel
b) Ulceration is a frequent feature of adenocarcinoma
c) Leiomyomas show marked enhancement on contrast-enhanced CT
d) Focal aneurysmal dilatations of the bowel are a feature of lymphoma
e) Thickening of the valvulae conniventes is a typical feature of Mediterranean lymphoma
16 In inflammatory bowel disease, which of the following are true?

a) Homogenous enhancement of the bowel wall on contrast-enhanced CT is a feature
of Crohn's disease
b) Bowel wall thickening is greater in Crohn's disease than in ulcerative colitis
c) Fibro-fatty mesenteric proliferation is present in 40% of patients with Crohn's disease
d) Submucosal fat deposition is a feature of chronic ulcerative colitis
e) Widening of the presacral space is a feature of ulcerative colitis
17 Which of the following are true regarding mucosal associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
lymphoma of the gastrointestinal tract?
a) The normal stomach does not contain lymphoid follicles
b) MALT lymphoma is widely disseminated at the time of diagnosis in most patients
c) The most common site within the stomach is the antrum
d) Ulceration is a common feature on barium study
e) Perforation of the stomach is a recognised feature of gastric MALT lymphoma
18 Which of the following are true regarding imaging of the small bowel?
a) Loss of haustrations is a typical feature of graft-versus-host disease
b) Thickening of the valvulae conniventes is a typical feature of Henoch-Schönlein purpura
c) Marked bowel dilatation is a feature of intestinal lymphangiectasia
d) Distal small bowel is more commonly involved than proximal small bowel in scleroderma
e) Duodenal stricture is a feature of Strongyloides infection
34
19 In the imaging of portal hypertension, which of the following are true?

a) Coronary vein collaterals are the most common varices seen on portal venography
b) Oesophageal varices are supplied by the anterior branch of the left gastric vein
c) Para-umbilical varices are present in 75% of patients with portal hypertension
d) Endoscopy is a reliable method of detecting gastric varices
e) Para-oesophageal varices appear as a posterior mediastinal mass on radiography
20 Which of the following are true regarding imaging of liver transplantation?

a) Hepatic artery thrombosis is the most common vascular complication
b) Portal vein thrombosis usually occurs within 24 hours of transplantation
c) Hepatic vein stenosis is more common following living related transplants than
after cadaveric transplants
d) Periportal low attenuation on contrast-enhanced CT is a reliable sign of acute
graft rejection
e) Biliary anastomotic stenoses are reliably diagnosed using magnetic resonance
cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
21 Regarding focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH), which of the following are true?
a) There is a strong causal association with the oral contraceptive pill
b) Most cases are solitary
c) There is early intense enhancement on contrast-enhanced CT
d) The central scar is seen in more than 70% of cases on MRI
e) The lesion appears hyperintense on MRI following intravenous mangafodipir trisodium
22 In the imaging of the liver, which of the following are true?

a) The hepatic artery lies within the lesser omentum
b) A hypodense rim surrounding a focal lesion is more suggestive of a haemangioma
than a metastasis on contrast-enhanced CT
c) Most hepatocellular adenomas have high signal relative to normal liver
on T1-weighted MRI
d) Calcification is seen in 10% of hepatocellular carcinomas on CT
e) Hyperintensity on T1-weighted imaging is helpful in differentiating hepatocellular
carcinoma from metastasis
23 Which of the following are true regarding the gall bladder?

a) 95% of cases of acute cholecystitis are caused by an obstructing calculus in the cystic duct
b) MRCP has 95% sensitivity for cystic duct stones
c) The most common site of biliary-enteric fistula formation is between the gallbladder
fundus and the duodenal bulb
d) Metastases are present in 25% of carcinomas of the gallbladder at presentation
e) Pneumobilia is a common feature of emphysematous cholecystitis
24 Which of the following are true of pancreatic carcinoma?

a) CA 19-9 is elevated in more than 80% of patients with ductal adenocarcinoma
b) Ductal adenocarcinoma has reduced signal on T1-weighted and T2-weighted MRI
relative to normal pancreas
c) The loss of a fat plane around the superior mesenteric artery is indicative of invasion
d) Solid and papillary neoplasms are usually locally invasive at diagnosis
e) Intraductal papillary mucinous subtypes are characterised by hyperintense pancreatic
ducts on T2-weighted MRI
35
Abdominal imaging
25 Regarding pancreatic masses, which of the following are true?

a) Pancreatic cysts are seen in 40% of patients with adult polycystic kidney disease
b) There is an association between von I lippol-Undau syndrome (VHL) and pancreatic
ductal adenocarcinoma
c) Serous microcystic neoplasm (serous cystadenomal is hypcrvascular at angiography
d) Mucinous cystic neoplasms (cystadenocarcinoma) occur most frequently in the
pancreatic head
c) Islet cell tumours commonly show cystic change
26 In the imaging of acute colitis, which of the following are true?

a) Paucity of pericolonic inflammation is more suggestive of pseudomembranous
colitis than ulcerative colitis
b) In pseudomembranous colitis, the most common site involved is the rectosigmoid
c) Toxic megacolon is not a feature of pseudomembranous colitis
d) Portal venous gas is a more specific sign of Ischaemic colitis than pneumatosis
cystoides intestinalis
e) Neutropenic colitis (typhlitic colitis) most commonly affects the descending
and sigmoid colon
27 In Whipple's disease, which of the following are true?

a) Females are more commonly affected
b) Sacroiliitis is a feature
c) Small bowel dilatation is a typical finding
d) Ulceration is a common finding on barium studies
e) Involved lymph nodes are hypodense on CT
28 Regarding colorectal cancer, which of the following are true?

a) Radiation colitis is a predisposing factor
b) T3 cancer indicates spread beyond the colonic wall
c) 30% of polyps are not detected by a faecal occult blood test
d) Most recurrent cancers are endoluminal at diagnosis
e) 80% of recurrences present within 2 years
29 In the imaging of rectal carcinoma, which of the following are true?

a) MRI does not demonstrate tumour extension to the circumferential resection margin
b) Reduction in local recurrence is better achieved with postoperative radiotherapy
than p«operative radiotherapy
c) Involvement of the submucosal veins on MRI is a poor prognostic sign
d) Recurrent tumour following abdominoperineal resection commonly involves
the pvriformis muscle
e) Peritoneal involvement is present in 25% of cases
30 Which of the following are true regarding tissue harmonic imaging on ultrasound?
a) I larmonic waves are generated within body tissues
b) Axial resolution is better than with conventional ultrasonography
c) Artefacts are reduced compared with conventional ultrasonography
d) There is better visualisation of fat and calcium when compared w ith
conventional ultrasound
e) Puke inversion ultrasound is useful for lesions more than 10 cm in depth
36
31 Regarding imaging of the spleen, which of the following are true?

a) Melanoma is the most common primary tumour to metastasise to the spleen
b) Splenic cysts are a common finding at ultrasound
c) Pyogenic abscesses of the spleen are usually secondary to penetrating trauma
d) Ultrasound typically shows multiple cystic lesions in splenic haemangiomata
e) Angiosarcoma of the spleen is secondary to thorotrast exposure
32 In the abdominal imaging of HIV seropositive patients, which of the following are true?
a) Cryptosporidiosis is associated with pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis
b) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex enteritis is associated with
low-density lymphadenopathy
c) CMV colitis usually affects the distal colon
d) Amoebiasis has a predilection for the caecum
e) Kaposi's sarcoma affects the gastrointestinal tract in 5% of cases
33 Which of the following are true of gastric cancer?

a) The majority of early gastric cancers arise in the distal half of the stomach
b) Liver metastases are present in 45% of patients at presentation
c) Gastric cancers typically enhance on CT following intravenous contrast
d) A T3 cancer on EUS indicates invasion of the serosa
e) On CT, ascites Indicates the presence of peritoneal disease
34 Which of the following are true regarding phaeochromocytomas?

a) In adults, 90% of cases arise from the adrenal medulla
b) They are markedly hyperintense on T2-weighted MRI
c) About 10% of extra-adrenal phaeochromocytomas are malignant
d) There is typically maximal enhancement on the immediate postgadolinium MRI
e) The normal adrenal medulla is well demonstrated with 111I metaiodobenzylguanidine
(MIBG) imaging
35 In recurrent cervical cancer, which of the following are true?

a) Hydronephrosis occurs in 70% of cases
b) Para-aortic nodes are generally involved before pelvic side-wall nodes
c) Liver metastases occur in 30% of cases
d) Adrenal gland involvement is rare
e) The rectum is rarely involved
36 Which of the following are true regarding ovarian cancer?

a) About 75% of ovarian neoplasms are benign
b) Lesions greater than 4 cm on CT are suggestive of malignancy
C) Mediastinal lymph node involvement is a rare finding
d) The liver is the most common site of haematogenous metastasis
e) Serous cystadenocarcinoma contains calcification in 30% of cases on CT
37 In hydatid disease, which of the following are true?

a) The liver is invoked in 75% of cases
b) Calcification is seen radiographically in 30% of cases with liver involvement
c) Hepatic hydatid cysts typically have a high signal rim on T2-weighted MRI
d) Rupture of the hepatic cysts occurs in 10% of cases
e) Peritoneal seeding occurs in a large proportion of liver hydatid disease
37
Abdominal imaging
38 Regarding cholangiocarcinoma, which of the following are true?

a) Caroli’S disease is a predisposing factor
b) The majority are squamous cell carcinomas
c) It typically shows delayed enhancement on CT
d) Tumours are low signal relative to liver on T2-weighted MRI
e) Duodenal obstruction is an early feature
39 Regarding carcinoid tumour of the gastrointestinal tract, which of the following are true?
a) The jejunum is the most common site of involvement in the small bowel
b) Metastases from carcinoid of the appendix are rare
c) Low-density lymphadenopathy is a feature on CT
d) One third of patients have a second malignancy
e) Multiple lesions are rare
40 Which of the following are true regarding bladder cancers?

a) Urachal abnormalities are most frequently associated with squamous cell carcinomas
b) MRI can identify muscle invasion
c) Tumour extension to the cervix is common
d) The presence of low signal within the seminal vesicles on T2-weighted MRI
is specific (or tumour involvement
e) Bladder cancer enhances early following intravenous gadolinium-
diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA)
38
Answers
1 a) False The spleen is involved in 40% of cases at laparotomy. The spleen is usually
diffusely involved hut splenic size is not a reliable indicator of lymphomatous
involvement. Less commonly, there may be nodular involvement of the spleen
and liver. The nodules are hypoechoic on ultrasonography, exhibit low
attenuation on computed tomography (CT), and are hypo/isointense
on T1-weighted and hyperintense on T2-weighted MRI.
b) False The normal and diffusely involved spleen may have a similar appearance on MRI.
c) True The liver is invoked in 60% of Hodgkin's lymphoma and 50% of non-Hodgkin's
lymphoma at autopsy. Diffuse involvement is much more common than
focal disease (10%).
d) False The stomach is the most common site of involvement. The infiltrating form
is most common and may be difficult to distinguish from scirrhous carcinoma.
e) True The caecum accounts for 85% of colonic involvement.
2 a) True Free lysed blood has an attenuation of 25 HU. The sentinel loop sign indicates
the proximity of the anatomical injury to the site with the highest attenuation
of free fluid.
b' False The most common site of bowel laceration is when- the bowel is fixed at the
ligament of Treitz. Jejunal laceration is the most common site of perforation.
c) False The proximal jejunum is usually free of gas, so perforation is not frequently
associated with pneumoperitoneum.
d) True Free intraperitoneal fluid (HU less than 15) from small bowel perforation
may collect between mesenteric reflections, and water density interloop
fluid may be the only sign of small bowel perforation.
e) True following haemorrhagic shock, there is intense vasoconstriction, which may
involve the splenic artery branches. This leads to a small homogenously
hypoattenuating spleen. Other signs of hypovolaemic shock include flattened IVC,
small aorta and mesenteric arteries, lack of renal contrast excretion, marked
enhancement of the aclren.il glands and generalised thickening and dilatation of
the small bowel folds with luminal fluid due to mesenteric vessel vasoconstriction.
39
Abdominal imaging
3 a) False The presence of cyst calcification in patients with this autosomal dominant
condition carries less risk of malignancy than it does with cyst calcification
in the general population.
b) True The contralateral gland is rarely involved.
C) False Thickening of renal fascia, stranding and tortuous vessels in the perinephric space
on CT are poor predictors of tumour extension. They are frequently secondary
to oedema, inflammation or engorgement of vessels from increased tumour
blood flow. The distinction between stage I (confined disease) and stage II
(extension into the perinephric fat) may not be important as both are treated
by nephrectomy and have a favourable prognosis,
d) True Extension into the IVC indicates stage III disease. This is seen with tumours
larger than 4.5 cm. Signs include distension of the vein. Filling defects within
the contrast opacified lumen or vessel occlusion with paravertebral collaterals.
On CT imaging, the tumour may be isodense with venous blood and may be
missed. MRI is more accurate in assessing venous invasion than CT and may
be equal to venography. Tumour thrombus replaces the normal signal void
on spin echo imaging, but slow flowing blood may also give this appearance.
On gradient echo sequences, the thrombus appears as a low-signal filling
defect against the high signal flowing blood,
e) True Lymphangioleiomyomatosis results from smooth muscle proliferation that
obstructs the lymphatic vessels, resulting in cysts. The most common site is the
thorax. Other associations of the condition include angiomyolipomas of the
kidney (40%-80%), renal cysts (15%) and renal cell cancer (1%). Renal failure
rarely occurs.
4 a) False The ultrasonographic appearance is variable. Small tumours are usually uniformly
hypoechoic. Large tumours are of mixed echogenicity. Rarefy, the tumours
may be very echogenic due to fat and resemble haemangiomas. Other features
include: hypoechoic rim, target appearance with a hypoechoic halo, mosaic
pattern and lateral shadowing. Continuous or pulsatile flow within the lesion
on Doppler ultrasonography is also suspicious.
b) True They are hypodense on unenhanced CT. Focal calcification is rarely seen.
The majority are hyperattenuating during the arterial phase following intravenous
contrast, but 10% are hypoattenuating. Venous invasion is seen in up to 48% on
CT. Other features include: thick tumour capsule due to compressed liver tissue,
hypodense central scar that does not enhance, fatty change and arterio-portal
shunting seen as early and prolonged portal vein enhancement.
c) False On MRI, most are hypointense on T1-weighted and hyperintense on
T2-weighted imaging (54% of patients). Other MRI appearances include:
isointensity on T1-weighted and T2-weighted imaging (16%), hypointensity on
T1-weighted and isointensity on T2-weighted imaging (10%) and hyperintensity
on TI -weighted and T2-weighted imaging (6%). Following intravenous
gadolinium contrast, there is early enhancement during the arterial phase,
d) True The central scar is hypointense on T1-weighted imaging and may be hypointense
or hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging,
e) True Portal or venous invasion is seen in one third of cases on MRI.
40
5 a False Fibrolamellar carcinoma is not associated with chronic liver disease and tumour
markers are not usually elevated. Elevated neurotensin and vitamin B12 binding
capacity have been reported.
b) True The ultrasonographic appearances are variable. The central scar is seen as
hyperechoic lines.
C) False Calcification is present in 40% of cases on CT. The tumours are usually large
(mean size 12 cm), hypodense on unenhanced CT and hyperdense during
the arterial phase following intravenous contrast,
d) False On MRI, these tumours are heterogeneously hypointense on T1-weighted
imaging and hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging. Following gadolinium
contrast, the tumour enhances heterogeneously during the arterial phase,
e) True The central scar may show delayed enhancement on MRI and CT.
6 a) True Germ cell tumours can be divided into seminomas and nonseminomatous types.
Seminomas are highly radiosensitive and advanced disease is treated by radiation
(although chemotherapy is used increasingly). Advanced nonseminomatous
tumours are treated with lymphadenectomy and/or chemotherapy. The primary
tumour in both types is treated with orchidectomy.
b) True Nongerm cell turnouts of the testes arise from Leydig's and Sertoli's cells
or the connective tissue stroma and are benign in 90% of cases.
i) False Lymphoma usually presents as a homogeneous, hypoechoic mass, which diffusely
replaces the testes. The tunica vaginalis is usually intact and the tumour may
be demonstrated extending into the epididymis and spermatic cord. Lymphoma
is usually of the non-Hodgkin's type and is the most common primary tumour
of the testes in those over the age of 60 years,
d) False Most testicular tumours spread by lymphatic dissemination, but choriocarcinoma
and yolk sac carcinoma spread haematogenously.
e) True The lymphatic drainage of the testes is predominantly to the lymph nodes near
the renal hilum. After involvement of the sentinel renal hilar nodes, spread
occurs to the para-aortic nodes. Subsequent spread to the mediastinal nodes
or haematogenous dissemination can occur. Both testes may also drain to the
external iliac nodes, hut this is more common after primary drainage has been
disrupted by surgery at the groin.
41
Abdominal imaging
7 a) True The success of surgical intervention is dependent upon the time from the onset
of symptoms to the time of surgery. Surgery is almost 100% successful within
6 hours of onset of symptoms. After 24 hours, the testicle is beyond salvage
and must be removed. The infarcted testis can have detrimental effects on
the contralateral testis due to the formation of autoantibodies,
b) True The appearances are usually normal for the first 4 hours. Between 4 and 6 hours,
the testis is enlarged and appears hypoechoic. Later, there is haemorrhage,
oedema and ischaemia and the testis is heterogeneous and echogenic. If it
is not removed, the testis involutes and becomes small and hypoechoic.
C) True Rarely, the testis may' tort independently of the epididymis, due to a long
mesorchium. In such a case, the epididymis shows reactive hyperaemia.
d) False Spontaneous detorsion may occur leading to unilateral testicular hyperperfusion.
Surgery is still indicated in these cases.
e) False Scintigraphy is highly sensitive and specific when performed early. In the acute
phase, there is reduced perfusion in the testis with decreased activity. In the
subacute phase (6-15 hours), there is peritesticular reactive hyperaemia with a
halo of increased tracer activity. Later, there is marked absence of tracer activity.
8 a) True
b) False
c) False
d) True
e) False
Loss of signal on opposed phase MRI indicates intracellular lipid and steatosis.
Fatly infiltration occurs in 14% of hepatocellular carcinomas and 68% of
adenomas, whk h may result in T1-weighted hyperintensity. Rarely, focal
nodular hyperplasia may also demonstrate signal loss on opposed phase MRI.
9 a) False Chronic liver disease is present in 25% of adults with cystic fibrosis and
the severity Increases with age.
b) True The most common MRI findings are lobulated fatty replacement of the
pancreas, atrophy with partial fatty replacement and diffuse atrophy without
fatty replacement.
c) False Pancreatic calcification is seen in 8% of patients on radiography. MRI depicts
the calcification poorly.
d) True Pancreatic cysts are usually small and well depicted on MRI.
c) False Microgallbladder is a common finding (seen in 20% 50% of cystic fibrosis cases
at autopsy). In patients with cystic fibrosis, the gallbladder is typically small,
trabeculated, contracted and poorly functioning. It often contains echogenic
bile, sludge and cholesterol gallstones. These changes are due to the thick
tenacious bile that is characteristic of this disease.
42
10 a) True The gastrointestinal tract is involved in 10% 40% of cases of Behcet’s syndrome.
Major criteria include buccal/genital ulceration, ocular lesions, such as
iridocyclitis, and dermal lesions. The terminal ileum is the most common
site in gastrointestinal involvement
b) False See a).
c) True Ulcers are deep and hence complications include: perforation, haemorrhage,
fistula and peritonitis.
d) False CT features of bowel involvement include concentric wall thickening with
marked enhancement. In the absence of complications such as perforation,
pericolonic or peri-enteric inflammatory changes are minimal,
c) False Associated features include: erythema nodosum, migratory thrombophlebitis.
chronic meningoencephalitis and retinal vasculitis. Necrolytic erythema migrans
is seen in glucagonomas.
11 a) True Dilatation begins at 10 weeks' gestation. This may be related to relaxation

of the distal ureter secondary to raised progesterone levels.
b) True The right side is affected in 85% of cases.
c) False The normal Rl is less than 0.7. In pregnancy this does not change significantly.
In acute ureteric obstruction the Rl rises above 0.7 and may decrease soon after
resolution of the obstruction. Ureteric obstruction in pregnancy can be difficult to
distinguish from pregnancy-related renal dilatation. Features to suggest the former
include marked dilatation (grade III), extension of a dilated ureter across the
common iliac: artery (as opposed to tapering of the ureter in pregnancy-related
dilatation), raised Rl and absence of ureteric jets.
d) False About 30% of small renal cancers may be hyperechoic resembling
angiomyolipoma. These lesions should be investigated with CT to confirm
the presence of fat.
c) True However, this is seen in only 21% of angiomyolipomas. Renal cancer is more
likely to have cystic areas or a hypoechoic rim than the pattern described.
12 a) True Other associations include hereditary tylosis, Barrett's oesophagus, smoking.

Plummer Vinson syndrome and ethanol abuse.
b) True Other features suggesting unresectability include: intraluminal mass in airway,
tumour extension between trachea and aortic arch or between left main
bronchus and descending aorta, more than 90 degrees' contact with the
aortic circumference, pleural thickening or effusion adjacent to the tumour,
and nodal involvement in the mediastinum or coeliac axis.
c) True The 5-year survival with nodal disease is 6%-15%. Nodal involvement is
a poor prognosis factor.
d) False Barrett's oesophagus is associated with columnar metaplasia due to chronic
reflux oesophagitis; hence, there is increased incidence of adenocarcinoma.
These tumours occur in the distal oesophagus and have a tendency to invade
the gastric fundus.
e) True EUS is also more accurate than CT in the local staging of oesophageal cancer and
is particularly useful for tumours confined to the mucosa and submucosa, local
nodes may be sampled at EUS. Recurrent cancer is also usefully evaluated at EUS.
Positron emission tomography has an increasing role in detecting recurrence.
43
Abdominal imaging
13 a) True Duplication cysts appearing as intramural masses and on barium study

are indistinguishable from other mural masses, such as leiomyoma.
b) True Duplication cysts have a fluid density and are usually low signal on T1-weighted
imaging and high signal on T2-weighted imaging. However, increasing protein
may result in high signal on T1-weighted imaging.
c) False Leiomyomas are benign tumours of smooth muscle and are, therefore, more
common in the distal rather than the proximal oesophagus. They arise from
all layers of the wall (shown well with EUS) and appear as homogenously
enhancing, well-defined masses on CT. Multiple leiomyomas may be associated
with congenital neural deafness and renal impairment (Alport's syndrome).
d) True However, hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is rare.
e) True However, HIV is a more common cause of giant oesophageal ulceration than CMV.
14 a) True Radiation enteritis is an obliterative endarteritis following doses in excess

of 4,500 cGy.
b) True See a).
c) True Other factors that impair the microcirculation (such as diabetes mellitus,
atherosclerosis, adhesions and prior peritonitis) also predispose to
radiation enteritis.
d) True Other features include: thickening of the valvulae conniventes, ulceration,
stenosis, fistula and sinus tract formation.
e) False CT and MRI show nonspecific bowel wall thickening and increased mesenteric
vascular markings.
15 a) False Adenocarcinoma is usually solitary and located in the proximal small bowel.
b) True Other features include annular constriction with shouldering, marked
desmoplastic reaction or polyps.
c) True Leiomyomas are more common in the jejunum and ileum (80% of cases)
than elsewhere in the small bowel and are usually solitary. On CT, they
are smooth and well defined and show uniform or rim enhancement.
d) True Lymphoma of the small bowel is more common distally and may present
as a large cavitating, ulcerating or nodular mass with aneurysmal dilatation
of the bowel lumen.
e) True Thickening of the valvulae conniventes is uncommon and is typically seen
with familial Mediterranean lymphoma.
16 a) True In ulcerative colitis, inhomogeneous mural wall enhancement is seen in 70%

on contrast-enhanced CT. The mural heterogeneity is thought to be due to
submucosal fat deposition, which is seen in the subacute and chronic phase.
b) True CT demonstrates homogenous thickening of the bowel wall.
c) True Fibro-fatty proliferation is seen in 40% of patients with Crohn's disease
and is a common cause of bowel loop separation.
d) True See a).
e) True Other features may include narrowing of the rectum, rectal wall thickening
and perirectal fat stranding. The normal presacral space measures less than
5 mm In 95% of patients. A presacral space greater than 10 mm is definitely
abnormal. Other causes of widened presacral space Include proctitis, carcinoma,
haematoma, sacral tumour and congenital lesions, such as rectal duplication cysts.
44
17 a) True However, lymphoid follicles can develop following infection with Helicobacter
pylori. The acquired lymphoid tissue is of the MALT type. Persistent antigenic
stimulation by H. pylori is thought to lead to neoplastic transformation.
b) False In addition, MALT lymphoma generally has a better prognosis than non-
Hodgkin's lymphoma.
c) True The most common site of H. pylori infection is the gastric antrum. See a).
d) False The most common pattern on barium study is infiltrative, either focal or diffuse.
Ulcerative lesions, especially in the stomach, are rare,
e) True Perforation is a recognised but uncommon finding.
18 a) True Other features on barium study include: effacement of the small bowel with
a tubular appearance, fold thickening, persistent coating of the bowel mucosa
by barium and markedly decreased transit time,
b) True Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an allergic vasculitis characterised by a purpuric
rash, glomerulonephritis with microscopic haematuria, arthralgia and abdominal
pain. Haemorrhage and oedema produce thickening of the valvulae conniventes.
c) False Intestinal lymphangiectasia involves dilatation of the lymphatics and may be
primary (associated with atresia of the thoracic duct) or secondary (associated
with retroperitoneal fibrosis, pancreatitis, diffuse small bowel lymphoma and
mesenteric adenitis). It is characterised by a protein-losing enteropathy and
barium studies show diffuse symmetric a) thickening of the duodenal and
jejunal folds, dilution of barium and little or no bowel dilatation.
d) False The small bowel is involved in 45% of cases of scleroderma. Proximal bowel
dilatation, especially of the duodenum (megaduodenum), is a typical feature.
Other features cm barium study include a hidebound pattern in 60% of cases
(decreased intervalvular distance with well-defined folds of normal thickness),
pseudodiverticula, pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis and a prolonged transit time.
e) True Strongyloides stercoralis is a helminthic parasite, which traverses the lungs and
reaches the duodenum and jejunum, where it causes oedema and inflammation
due to invasion by the developing larvae. Fold thickening, stenosis of the third
and fourth parts of the duodenum, and dilatation of the more proximal
duodenum are all recognised findings.
45
Abdominal imaging
19 a) True Coronary vein collaterals (dilated left gastric vein greater than 6 mm) are seen
in 86% of cases of portal hypertension on angiography and 80% on dynamic
contrast CT. They are seen within the gastro-hepatic ligament. Ultrasound usually
identifies the caudal segment near the portal vein and CT identifies the cephalic
segment near the gastro-oesophageal junction. They are usually associated
with oesophageal and para-oesophageal varices,
b) True Oesophageal varices are dilated mucosal and submucosal veins, which are
usually supplied by the anterior branch of the left gastric vein. The posterior
branch usually supplies the para-oesophageal varices. On CT, they appear as
scalloped, enhancing areas of thickening in the lower oesophageal wall with
intraluminal projections.
c) False Para-umbilical venous collaterals are seen in up to 30% of patients with portal
hypertension. They are supplied by the left portal vein and lie in the falciform
ligament. CT is more sensitive than angiography in detecting their presence.
d) False Endoscopy and barium studies are limited in the diagnosis of gastric varices,
which lie deep within the mucosa or serosa. Portal venography and CT are
equally sensitive in their detection.
c True Para-oesophageal varices lie in the posterior mediastinum and in 8% of cases
can appear as a posterior mediastinal mass on radiography.
20 a) True Hepatic artery thrombosis may lead to a biliary leak, stricture and hepatic
infarction, and is more common in paediatric liver transplantation. Thrombosis
can be confidently diagnosed on Doppler ultrasonography, and hepatic infarction
on contrast-enhanced CT.
b) False Portal vein stenosis or thrombosis develops slowly, presenting with varices,
splenomegaly and ascites. Portal vein stenosis may he treated by balloon
dilatation, but once the thrombus is extensive and reaches the periphery
of the intrahepatic portal vein branches, then repeat liver transplant is the
only alternative.
c) True In living related transplant, the hepatic vein is reconstructed without the IVC
by end-to-end or end-to-side anastomosis. Anastomotic stenoses may result.
d) False Although periportal low' attenuation on contrast-enhanced CT may be a feature
of acute graft rejection, it has poor sensitivity and specificity and is frequently
seen with oedema of the periportal lymphatic vessels.
e) False Ultrasonography, CT and MRCP are not as reliable as percutaneous transhepatic
cholangiography in the diagnosis of anastomotic strictures. Biliary strictures
are seen in 20% of cases and are most common in children following live,
related donor transplantation.
46
21 a) False It is generally agreed that oral contraceptive pills do not cause FNH. but
discontinuation of these can result in reduction in the size of the lesion.
Oestrogen is thought to have a trophic effect.
b) True About 80% of cases of FNH are solitary and usually subcapsular.
c) True After contrast, there is intense enhancement during the arterial phase. The
lesion becomes isointense during the portal venous phase. The sensitivity
of CT in detecting the lesion is 78%.
d) True The central scar is seen in 20% of cases on ultrasound, 60% on contrast-
enhanced CT and 78% on MRI. On MRI, FNH is isointense or slightly
hypointense on T1-weighted imaging and slightly hyperintense on T2-weighted
imaging. During the arterial phase following intravenous gadolinium, FNH
is hyperintense with a hypointense central scar on T1-weighted imaging.
During portal venous phase, the lesion is isointense or slightly hyperintense
with a hyperintense central scar on T1-weighted imaging. The central scar
is hyperintense on T2-weighted MRI.
c) True With hepatobiliary specific contrast, such as mangafodipir trisodium, FNH
is hyperintense on T1-weighted imaging with a hypointense central scar.
22 a) True The hepatic artery arises from the coeliac axis and enters the lesser omentum.
It gives off the right gastric and gastroduodenal branches and travels within
the hepatoduodenal ligament to reach the porta hepatis.
b) False Haemangiomas typically show peripheral nodular enhancement with progressive
centripetal fill-in, although a central non-enhancing fibrotic scar is common
in larger lesions. Hypervascular metastases also show early enhancement
However, the density of hypervascular neoplasms often fades more rapidly
than adjacent normal vessels and a hypodense rim may be seen, a feature
not observed in haemangiomas.
c) True Most hepatocellular adenomas are high signal on T1-weighted images due
to the presence of fat and haemorrhage. On T2-weighted imaging, they are
usually isointense or slightly hyperintense. They enhance following intravenous
gadolinium. The MRI appearances are frequently not specific enough to make
a confident diagnosis.
d) True Most are hypodense on unenhanced CT. After contrast, they are hyperdense
during the arterial phase and become iso/hypodense during the portal
venous phase.
e) True T1-weighted imaging hyperintensity may be present in hepatocellular carcinoma
due to the presence of haemorrhage, fatty metamorphosis, copper deposition,
or glycogen. Metastases usually return a low T1-weighted image signal.
However, benign masses such as adenoma and angiomyolipoma can return
a high T1-weighted imaging signal.
47
Abdominal imaging
23 a) True In 80%-95% of cases, the level of obstruction is at the cystic duct.

b) True MRCP has a very high sensitivity for cystic duct stones. These appear as low
signal filling defects within a high signal bile-filled gallbladder or cystic duct.
c) False About 80% of cases of biliary-enteric fistula formation occur between the
cystic duct and the duodenum just distal to the bulb. In these cases, the
gallbladder is frequently shrunken mimicking a duodenal diverticulum.
d) False The tumour is locally advanced at presentation (75% are unresectable)
and metastases are present in 75% of cases.
e) False Pneumobilia is a rare feature. Characteristic features include air within the
gallbladder wall or an air-fluid level within the lumen. About 80% of cases
are associated with gallstones and the causative organisms include Clostridium
perfringens/welchii, Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus.
24 a) True CA 19-9 is elevated in 89% of cases. It is also elevated in 29% of extrapancreatic

malignancy and 13% of benign pancreatic disease. Pancreatic carcinoma is also
associated with raised alkaline phosphatase (85%). lactate dehydrogenase (69%),
bilirubin (55%) and glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (67%).
b) True Tumours are often isodense on unenhanced CT and hypodense relative
to enhancing pancreas on the pancreatic phase of enhancement. On MRI,
tumours are often hypointense on T1-weighted and T2-weighted imaging.
Fat suppression and intravenous gadolinium may increase tumour conspicuity.
c) True However, this is less reliable at the splenic/superior mesenteric vein confluence
and around the proximal portal vein.
d) False These are large (10 cm) tumours that are well demarcated, thick walled (hence
less likely to invade locally) and have solid and cystic areas. Imaging shows
enhancement of the thick wall with nodular projections from the inner wall margin.
They are more common in the body and tail of the pancreas. Calcification may
be seen at the periphery. Prognosis is good with a 95% cure rate.
e) True These are rare tumours characterised by a dilated pancreatic duct with mucin
spilling from the ampulla at endoscopy. They are classified according to location:
main duct or branch duct. On MRI, mucin-laden dilated ducts have high signal
on T2-weighted imaging and variable signal on T1-weighted imaging.
40
25 a) False Cysts are seen in 10% of patients with adult polycystic kidney disease. The cysts
are usually small and may be localised or diffuse. Rarely, pancreatic cysts are
the dominant feature.
b) True VHL is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. Clinical manifestations include
haemangioblastomas of the central nervous system, retinal angiomas and cystic-
disease of the liver, kidneys and pancreas. There is an association with
epididymal cysts, phaeochromocytomas, pancreatic serous neoplasms, ductal
adenocarcinomas and islet cell tumours.
c) True Serous microcystic neoplasm is benign and occurs in the elderly with a slight
propensity for the pancreatic head. They are usually large and lobulated with
a central calcified scar. Multiple small (less than 2 cm) cysts are seen. Their
rich capillary network predisposes to haemorrhage.
d) False Mucinous cystic neoplasms usually occur within the tail or body (75%) of the
pancreas and are more common in females (80%), occurring in the sixth decade.
The lesion appears as a unilocular or multilocular hypovascular mass on CT
with a thick wall and papillary excrescences, although the septae and wall
may enhance after intravenous contrast. The appearance of the cyst varies on
MRI, depending on the presence of mucin, haemorrhage and protein content.
e) False Islet cell tumours are typically hypervascular lesions. They are usually solid
and cystic change is only seen in 10% of cases.
26 a) True Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by Clostridium difficile enterotoxin.

CT features are nonspecific and include mural thickening with bowel dilatation.
b) False The disease distribution of pseudomembranous colitis includes: pancolitis (50%),
right-sided colitis (27%) and isolated rectosigmoid disease (12%). The
rectosigmoid is spared in up to 67% of cases and ascites is not uncommon.
c) False Complications of pseudomembranous colitis include toxic megacolon,
perforation and peritonitis.
d) True The presence of mesenteric vascular thrombosis and portal vein gas strongly
suggests ischaemic colitis. Less specific signs include mural wall thickening,
mural enhancement, pneumatosis, mesenteric fluid, oedema and haemorrhage.
Bowel involvement is often segmental in a vascular territory,
e; False Neutropenic colitis is seen in neutropenic patients and usually presents as
non-specific thickening of the caecal and ascending colonic wall due to
necrosis. Pericolonic inflammation, ascites and pneumatosis are also features.
27 a) False Males are more commonly affected (0:1 M:F). Whipple’s disease is a systemic
disease characterised by intestinal lipodystrophy,
b) True Typical features include: migratory arthralgia/arthritis, malabsorption, generalised
lymphadenopathy, skin pigmentation, splenomegaly and pleuropericarditis.
C) False Barium findings include absence of (or minimal) bowel dilatation, no ulceration
and thickening of the duodenal and jejunal folds due to infiltration by periodic
acid-Schiff positive glycoprotein containing macrophages.
d) False See c).
e) True CT shows bulky hypodense abdominal lymph nodes. This appearance may also
be observed in patients with AIDS who have Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
complex infection (pseudo-Whipple’s).
49
Abdominal imaging
28 a) True Other factors include adenomatous polyps, familial polyposis, ulcerative

colitis (pancolitis and duration of disease greater than 10 years) and
ureterosigmoidostomy. Additional associations include family history
of colorectal carcinoma, history of endometrial or breast cancer, and
hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (Lynch syndrome).
b) True T4 indicates spread to neighbouring tissues.
c) True Additionally, colonoscopy may miss up to 24% of colonic polyps. Flexible
sigmoidoscopy fails to evaluate the proximal colon where 45% of colorectal
cancers are found.
d) False 5% of recurrent cancers are endoluminal and 50% are extraluminal. Thus.
cross-sectional imaging is an important method of follow-up of these patients.
e) True 50% of recurrences present within 1 year and 60% of these recur locally
at the anastomosis site. Twenty-six percent recur with distant metastases.
29 a) False The mesorectum on MRI is represented by a hypointense line surrounding the

rectum, perirectal fat, blood vessels, lymphatics and nerves. The mesorectum is
cleaved along its plane at surgery (total mesorectal excision) with removal en bloc
of the perirectal lymphatics. This reduces local recurrences of rectal carcinoma
and also spares the hypogastric nerves. Tumour deposit that compromises the
circumferential resection margin has a high risk of local recurrence. MRI is useful
in demonstrating tumour encroaching the circumferential resection margin.
b) False Preoperative radiotherapy reduces local recurrences significantly, particularly
when the circumferential resection margin is compromised.
c) False Independent poor prognostic factors include: involvement of circumferential
resection margins, node positivity, tumour involvement of the extramural veins
and peritoneal infiltration.
d) True Recurrent tumour is usually seen as a homogenous soft tissue mass sometimes
with a low-density centre containing gas. It commonly invades the coccygeus
and pyriformis muscles. The sciatic nerves may also be invoked causing leg pain.
e) True Local peritoneal spread is a poor independent prognostic sign and may predict
recurrence in upper rectal tumours.
50
30 a) True Harmonic waves are created within body tissues when these tissues are
resonated by a specific frequency of transmitted ultrasound. Harmonic waves
are made up of frequencies of multiples of the transmitted frequency. Once
the transmitted frequency is filtered the image is formed by detecting these
harmonic waves.
b) True This is due to the shorter wavelengths of the harmonic waves and the use of
higher effective transmitting frequency. Also, improved focusing due to a higher
transmitted frequency allows a narrow beam. This allows better axial resolution.
c) True The harmonic waves are of low amplitude and scattered waves are less likely
to be detected. Harmonic waves are produced within tissues and not -it the
body surface, which reduces defocusing at the body surface.
d) True There is bettor visualisation of lesions containing fat, calcium and air. The
technique is particularly useful in obese patients and in patients with cystic
lesions; it helps to distinguish cystic lesions from other hypoechoic masses.
e) False Conventional and harmonic ultrasounds rely on a single pulse of ultrasound
Pulse inversion produces two or more identical ultrasonographic pulses with
reversed polarity. This technique produces better image resolution. However,
due to attenuation, it is not useful for structures greater than 10 cm in depth.
31 a) True Splenic metastases arc seen in 7% of patients with disseminated malignancy.

Half of the cases are due to melanoma and the remaining 50% are due to breast,
bronchogenic, colonic, renal, ovary and endometrial cancer.
b) False True splenic cysts (congenital cysts or epidermoid cysts) are an unusual finding
within the spleen. Most cysts (80%) are post-traumatic.
c) False Pyogenic abscesses are secondary to haematogenous dissemination (75%),
penetrating trauma (15%) and splenic infarction (10%).
d) True Multiple cystic lesions within an echogenic mass are seen in splenic
haemangiomata. CT shows low attenuation masses resembling cysts with
enhancement of the more solid elements following contrast.
e) False Unlike angiosarcomas of the spleen, angiosarcomas of the liver are secondary
to previous thorotrast or polyvinyl chloride exposure. These are rare tumours.
51
Abdominal imaging
32 a) True Other causes of pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis include: intestinal trauma,

ischaemia, peptic ulcer, inflammatory bowel disease, collagen vascular disease,
chronic airway disease, asthma and cystic fibrosis.
b) True Other features of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex enteritis include:
mild dilatation of the mid and dist.il small bowel, irregular fold thickening
and splenomegaly with focal low attenuation lesions in the liver and spleen.
c) False CMV colitis results in a small vessel vasculitis with ischaemic necrosis. The
terminal ileum is the most common site of involvement. There may be aphthous
ulcers on a background of normal or nodular mucosa. Other features include:
marked colonic wall thickening, ascites, toxic megacolon and pericolonic
inflammatory changes.
d) True Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba histolytica. The protozoa invade the mucosa
and submucosa causing ulceration and necrosis, with a predilection for the
ascending colon and caecum (90% of cases). Radiographic features include:
loss of haustra, collarbutton ulcers, scarred cone-shaped colon and stenosis
of the bowel lumen. The ileocaecal valve may be thickened and fixed,
e) True About 30% of patients with AIDS develop Kaposi's sarcoma. The skin is the
most common site and lesions may encompass the entire gastrointestinal tract.
The gastrointestinal tract is the sole site of Kaposi's sarcoma in 5% of cases.
33 a) True Most early cancers are found in the distal half of the stomach, usually along
the lesser curve. More recently, there has been an increase in incidence
of cancers in the proximal third of the stomach and distal oesophagus.
b) False With advanced gastric cancer, liver metastases are present in 25% of cases.
Increasing submucosal spread increases lymph node involvement.
c) True Contrast-enhanced CT usually shows focal or more diffuse enhancing mass
involving the gastric wall. More advanced cancer may show transmural
enhancement. The accuracy of CT in detection of advancer! gastric cancer
(T3/T4) is 78%. CT is less accurate for early cancer (T1 and T2).
d) True EUS is more ac curate in local (T) staging than CT. Most tumours are seen as
hypoechoic lesions with irregular margins. The tumour may be limited to the
mucosa and submucosa (T1), limited to the muscularis propria (T2), show serosal
invasion (T3) or invade adjacent organs (T4). EUS is more accurate than CT in
local staging (staging accuracy 92%). The accuracy of nodal staging is 83%. The
limited field of view reduces detection of involved nodes distant from the tumour.
e) True The presence of ascites on CT indicates peritoneal spread. Although discrete
peritoneal nodules may not be realised on CT, laparoscopy may detect these
lesions earlier. Peritoneal spread is present in 25% of patients at diagnosis.
52
34 a) True The most common location of an extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma is the

aortic bifurcation. Extra-adrenal tumours are more common in children,
accounting for 30% of cases.
b) True However, this appearance is not diagnostic as adrenal cysts and carcinoma
may have a similar, but less hyperintense, appearance.
c) False About 40% of extra-adrenal phaeochromocytomas are malignant. About
10% of adrenal phaeochromocytomas are malignant and 10% are bilateral.
d) False These tumours usually exhibit greatest enhancement during the later interstitial
phase. There is usually mild early enhancement due to few feeding vessels
and greater enhancement later due to the large extracellular space.
e) False 131I-MIBG is an analogue of guanethidine and is taken up actively by the amine
transport system. The normal adrenal medulla is either not seen or only faintly
demonstrated. Adrenal medullary hyperplasia, phaeochromocytoma,
neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroblastoma and paraganglioma show increased
uptake of the tracer.
35 a) True At autopsy, hydronephrosis occurs in 70% of cases. Local recurrence can

also involve the bladder and lead to a vesicovaginal fistula.
b) False The paracervical, parametrial, obturator and iliac nodes are involved first.
Later there is spread to the common iliac and para-aortic nodes with
a progressively worse prognosis.
c) True The liver is the most common site of haematogenous metastasis (33%). The
adrenal gland is the next most common solid organ to bo involved (16%).
The kidneys and pancreas may be involved, but this is rare.
d) False See c).
e) False Recurrent tumours commonly involve the rectum, and rectovaginal fistulae
may develop in 17% of cases. Other sites of spread include the peritoneum
and chest, where lung metastases and less commonly pleural deposits,
endobronchial lesions or pericardial disease may lie seen.
36 a) True Tumours may arise from the surface epithelium, germ cells or specialised gonadal
stroma, but 75% are benign. Malignant tumours account for 21% of cases
(borderline type 4%). About 85% of malignant tumours are of the epithelial type.
b) True Other features suggestive of malignancy include papillary projections, septa
of more than 3 mm and complex cysts with increasingly solid elements
and enhancing tumour vessels.
c) False Lymph node spread is typically along the path of the gonadal vessels to the
para-aortic nodes and along the parametrial channels to the external iliac and
hypogastric group. Enlarged paracardiac nodes may be seen in 28% of stage III
and recurrent epithelial ovarian cancer. Mediastinal nodal involvement may
be seen in up to one third of cases at autopsy.
d) True Other sites of haematogenous metastasis include adrenal glands, bone, spleen.
pancreas and kidneys.
e) True CT may also show calcification within peritoneal nodules and lymph nodes.
53
Abdominal imaging
37 a) True Echinococcus granulosus reaches the liver via the portal circulation. The lung is
involved in 15% of cases. In the liver, the right lobe is the most frequently involved.
b) True Calcification is usually ring-like due to calcification of the pericyst. Complete
calcification of the pericyst is seen with its death.
c) False On T2-weighted MRI, the cysts have a low signal rim (due to high collagen
content). On CT, the cyst walls have high attenuation even in the absence
of calcification.
d) False Cyst rupture occurs in 50%-90% of cases and can be clinically insidious or
lead to anaphylaxis. Rupture may be contained, communicating with the biliary
system, or cause free spill into the pleur.il/peritoneal cavity or hollow viscera
when rupture is direct.
e) False Peritoneal spread occurs in 13% of cases and is frequently seen after
previous surgery. It is typically clinically silent until cysts are large enough
to produce symptoms.
38 a) True Caroli's disease is characterised by the presence of multiple intrahepatic bile duct
cysts, due to cavernous ectasia of the biliary tract, in the absence of liver cirrhosis
and portal hypertension. It is associated with renal cysts. Other predisposing
factors for cholangiocarcinoma include choledochal cysts, primary sclerosing
cholangitis, Clonorchis sinensis infection and ulcerative colitis.
b) False About 95% of cholangiocarcinomas are adenocarcinomas. Other tumours
are rare and Inc lude squamous cell carcinoma, lymphoma, carcinoid and
mucin-secreting papillary adenocarcinoma.
c) True The tumours are generally hypovascular with fibrotic centres and viable cells
at the periphery'. After intravenous contrast, there is little initial tumour
enhancement or only mild rim enhancement. On delayed images, there may
be more diffuse and persistent enhancement. The tumour is usually isodense
to liver on unenhanced CT.
d) False The tumours have varied appearance on T2-weighted imaging, from very high
signal to mildly increased signal relative to the liver, depending on the degree
of the fibrotic component. On T1 -weighting, they are isointense or low signal
relative to the liver. After intravenous gadolinium administration, there is
moderate enhancement on T1-weighted imaging with better delineation
of the tumour than with contrast-enhanced CT.
e) False The tumour spreads by local invasion and may involve the portal vein and
hepatic artery. Lymphatic spread may a ho involve the periductal, peripancreatic,
and peri-aortic nodes. Duodenal and gastric obstructions are late features.
54
39 a) False Carcinoid is the most common primary malignant tumour of the small bowel.
It arises from neuroendocrine cells of the submucosa and may secrete a variety
of products (for example: 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid, adrenocorticotropic
hormone, histamine and serotonin). A third occur in the small bowel (91% in
the ileum, 7% in the jejunum and 2% in the duodenum) and 45% arise in the
appendix. Gastric carcinoids are rare.
b) True The incidence of metastases, which are usually to the liver and lymph nodes
(also lung and bone), is related to tumour size (2% of tumours less than 1 cm
metastasize and 85% of tumours greater than 2 cm have metastases). It is also
related to tumour site. Metastases are rare in carcinoid of the appendix (3%),
but common with those in the ileum (38%).
c) True Low-density lymphadenopathy is clue to necrosis. Lymphadenopathy may
be bulky and resemble lymphoma. Metastases to the liver are nearly always
hypervascular and enhance early during the arterial phase. Metastases may also
calcify. Other CT features include a stellate radiating pattern with beading of
the mesenteric neurovascular bundle due to the desmoplastic reaction. There
may be retraction anti shortening of the mesentery with kinking and separation
of the bowel loops.
d) True A second primary malignancy may be seen at another site in 36% of cases
at autopsy'.
e) False Multiple lesions may be seen in up to one third of cases
40 a) False About 90% of bladder cancers are transitional tumours. Squamous cell
carcinoma is associated with chronic infection (e g. schistosomiasis) as well
as calculi and leukoplakia. Risk factors for adenocarcinoma of the bladder
include persistent urachus, cystitis glandularis and bladder exstrophy. Only
1%-2% of urachal abnormalities are complicated by squamous cell carcinoma.
Only 1%-2% of urachal tumours are squamous cell neoplasms.
b) True MRI cannot distinguish invasion of the lamina propria from superficial muscle
invasion, but can detect invasion into the deep muscle layer (T3 tumour).
c) False Transitional cell tumour may extend to the perivesical fat, seminal vesicles
and prostate in males, but extension to the uterus and cervix is uncommon.
d) False The normal seminal vesicles are high signal on T2-weighted imaging. Low-signal
changes may be seen with tumour extension, hut also with atrophy, fibrosis
and amyloid deposition. In the latter group, deposition tends to be bilateral
and symmetrical. Tumour involvement is usually unilateral or asymmetrical.
Alteration in morphology of the seminal vesicles may also indicate metastases.
e) True Early enhancement is related to tumour neovascularization; typically,
enhancement occurs within 2 minutes of intravenous gadolinium administration.
55
56
Chapter 4
Uroradiology
Uroradiology
1 Regarding the anatomy and development of the renal tract and adrenal gland,
which of the following are true?
a) The adult kidney is formed directly from the mesonephros
b) The mesonephric ducts in men lead to the development of the vas deferens
c) There are usually three adrenal arteries and one adrenal vein bilaterally
d) The bladder develops from the cloaca
c) The posterior urethra in men is formed by the prostatic and bulbous segments
2 Regarding ultrasound of the renal tract and adrenal glands, which of the
following are true?
a) The normal renal cortex is more echogenic in neonates than in adults
b) The neonatal adrenal glands are harder to visualise in neonates than in adults
c) The junctional parenchymal defect is seen more commonly in the left kidney
d) The renal resistive index is frequently normal in chronic obstruction
e) The normal wall thickness of a well-distended bladder is less than 3 mm
3 Concerning magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the kidneys and adrenal glands,
a) Renal corticomedullary differentiation is more prominent on T2-weighted than
T1-weighted imaging
b) Gadolinium use is contraindicated in patients with impaired renal function
c) Adrenal corticomedullary differentiation is not possible on MRI
d) The adrenal glands demonstrate marked enhancement after intravenous
gadolinium administration
e) Following intravenous gadolinium administration, the urine may appear
of low signal intensity on T2-weighted imaging
4 Regarding congenital renal fusion anomalies, which of the following are true?
a) In a horseshoe kidney, the two kidneys are always joined at their inferior poles
b) The renal pelves point posteriorly in a horseshoe kidney
c) There is a higher incidence of Wilms' tumour in a horseshoe kidney
c) A pancake kidney results from fusion of both kidneys in the pelvis
e) In crossed renal ectopia, renal fusion occurs in 85% of cases
5 Which of the following are true of multicystic dysplastic kidneys?

a) Antenatal ultrasound reveals a paraspinal mass with multiple communicating cysts
b) It is more common in infants of diabetic mothers
c) Approximately 30% of contralateral kidneys are abnormal
c) Up to 20% of cases have residual renal function in the affected kidney on scintigraphy
e) Nephrectomy is usually required, as it cannot be differentiated from cystic Wilms' tumour
6 Regarding multi-locular cystic nephroma, which of the following are true?

a) It demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance
b) In females, it is more common after 4 years of age
c) On computed tomography (CT), it typically has a poorly defined border
with the rest of the kidney
c) Enhancement or calcification of septae suggests a different diagnosis
e) It is treated by nephrectomy
58
7 Which of the following conditions are associated with multiple renal cortical cysts?
a) Caroli's disease
b) Tuberous sclerosis
c) Zellweger (cerebrohepatorenal) syndrome
d) Turner's syndrome
e) Dandy-Walker syndrome
8 Which of the following are true of adult polycystic kidney disease?

a) It usually results from a defective gene on the short arm of chromosome 16
b) The mean age of diagnosis is 20 years
c) Females are more likely to develop associated hepatic cysts than males
d) There is an association with mitral valve prolapse
e) Antenatal ultrasound typically reveals enlarged kidneys with visible cysts
9 Regarding medullary sponge kidney, which of the following are true?

a) The cystic areas in the medulla do not communicate with the collecting ducts
b) The changes are unilateral in 25% of cases
c) Medullary nephrocalcinosis is visible radiographically in 10% of cases
d) It is a feature of Meckel-Gruber syndrome
e) There is an association with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
10 Concerning renal papillary necrosis, which of the following are true?

a) Necrosis involves the overlying cortex in 10% of cases
b) A single papilla is affected in approximately 15% of cases
c) It is associated with a higher incidence of renal tract squamous cell carcinoma
d) It may result from aspirin use
e) Medullary sponge kidney is a cause
11 Cortical nephrocalcinosis is seen in which of the following?

a) Ethylene glycol poisoning
b) Chronic transplant rejection
c) Chronic glomerulonephritis
d) Oxalosis
e) AIDS-related nephropathy
12 Medullary nephrocalcinosis occurs in which of the following conditions?

a) Renal tubular acidosis
b) Hyperparathyroidism
c) Primary hyperoxaluria
d) Secondary- hyperoxaluria
e) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
13 Regarding renal calculi, which of the following are true?

a) Renal calculi are more common in women than men
b) More than 50% of staghorn calculi contain magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)
c) Uric acid calculi are nonopaque
d) Xanthine stones are not visible on CT
e) Crohn's disease predisposes to the formation of oxalate stones
59
Uro radiology
14 In xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis, which of the following are true?

a) About 75% of cases are associated with an underlying calculus
b) About 90% of patients have diabetes mellitus
c) The organism most commonly associated with the condition is Escherichia coli
d) Imaging reveals a small kidney containing low attenuation parenchymal masses
e) Optimal treatment is with antibiotics and percutaneous nephrostomy if there
is associated obstruction
15 Regarding tuberculosis of the renal tract, which of the following are true?
a) There is coexistent radiographic evidence of active pulmonary tuberculosis in 10% of cases
b) Renal Involvement is usually bilateral
c) Involvement of the calyceal system is typically late in the disease process
d) Vesico-ureteric reflux is uncommon because of ureteric stricture
e) bladder wall calcification is common
16 Which of the following are true of angiomyolipomas?

a) Tumours are benign in 80% of cases
b) Approximately 20%-40% of patients have tuberous sclerosis
c) Calcification is present in less than 10% of cases
d) On angiography, the lesions typically demonstrate arteriovenous shunting
e) Nephrectomy is the treatment of choice, as underlying malignancy cannot be excluded
17 Which of the following are true of Wilms' tumour (nephroblastoma!?

a) It is bilateral in one third of cases
b) There is an association with sporadic aniridia
c) Calcification is seen on CT in more than 50% of tumour
d) Tumours are usually’ small at presentation
e) Metastases to bone are common
18 Which of the following are true of renal cell carcinoma?

a) von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a risk factor
b) Calcification and cystic change occur in the minority of cases
c) About 75% of tumours less than 3 cm in size are hyperechoic on ultrasonography
d) About 30% of tumours are hypo vascular on angiography
e) The lungs are the most common site for metastatic spread
19 Which of the following are true of renal neoplasms?

a) Oncocytomas can be confidently differentiated from renal cell carcinoma on imaging
b) Calcification is seen in 15% of oncocytomas
c) juxtaglomerular cell tumours (reninomas) are typically vascular tumours
(I) Renal involvement is more common in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma than Hodgkin's disease
e) Metastases are the most common malignant tumour of the kidney
20 Regarding renal artery stenosis (RAS), which of the following are true?
a) It is present in about 1%-2% of all patients with hypertension
b) Atherosclerosis is the cause in more than 95% of cases in the developed world
c) Fibromuscular dysplasia responds poorly to angioplasty
c)) A ratio of renal artery' peak systolic velocity to aortic peak systolic velocity of more
than 3.5 is suggestive of the diagnosis
e) Haemodynamic significance is suggested by a trans-stenotic gradient of more than 40 mmHg
60
21 Which of the following are true?

a) Acute tubular necrosis following renal transplantation is more common in transplants
with multiple renal arteries
b) Perirenal fluid collections are seen in 10%-20% of transplants
c) Transplant rejection typically leads to a fall in the resistive index
c)) In trauma, the absence of microscopic haematuria excludes a renal injury
e) There is no parenchymal enhancement after a traumatic renal pedicle avulsion
22 Regarding congenital ureteric conditions, which of the following are true?

a) Pelvi-ureteric junction obstruction is more common in females
b) Pelvi-ureteric junction obstruction is more common on the left side
c) In megaureter, there is dilatation of the distal ureter above a mechanical obstruction
d) The abnormality in megaureter is bilateral in 80% of cases
e) A retrocaval ureter occurs on the left side in 20% of cases
23 Which of the following are true regarding complete ureteric duplication?

a) It is more common in males
b) The orthotopic ureter drains the lower pole
c) The upper moiety ureter is typically prone to vesico-ureteric reflux
d) There are more calyces in the upper moiety collecting system
e) In females, the ectopic ureter inserts Inflow the external sphincter
24 Concerning ureterocoeles, which of the following are true?

a) They can be indistinguishable from bladder diverticula during voiding
b) A simple ureterocoele never occurs in an ectopic ureter
c) A single simple ureterocoele can cause bladder outlet obstruction
d( About 80% of ectopic ureterocoeles occur in duplicated systems
e) In children, a pseudoureterocoele most commonly results from an impacted stone
25 Regarding vesico-ureteric reflux and reflux nephropathy, which of the following are true?
a) Primary (congenital) vesico-ureteric reflux is seen in 30% of children with a single
episode of urinary tract infection
b) Secondary (acquired) vesico-ureteric reflux is seen in up to 50% of cases of cystitis
c) A dilated and tortuous ureter in the presence of vesico-ureteric reflux is an indication
for surgery
d) Radionuclide cystography has a lower radiation dose' than fluoroscopic cystography
e) Renal scarring from reflux nephropathy is more common at the renal poles
26 Regarding pyeloureteritis cystica, which of the following are true?

a) It is associated with recurrent ureteric calculi
b) It is associated with diabetes mellitus
c) It is characterised by multiple small epithelial outpouchings into the lamina propria
d) It is usually bilateral
e) The radiographic appearances resolve in the majority of cases alter treatment
61
Uroradiology
27 Which of the following are true of retroperitoneal fibrosis?

a) The fibrotic plaque usually originates around the aortic bifurcation
b) When the ureters arc involved, there is typically only mild pyelocalyectasis
c) On CT, the aorta is typically enveloped and anteriorly displaced by a fibrotic mass
d) An increase in signal intensity on T2-weighted imaging indicates a good response
to steroid treatment
e) It is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis
28 In bladder exstrophy, which of the following are true?

a) There is frequently a bifid clitoris in affected females
b) There is diastasis of the pubic symphysis
c) In closed exstrophy, the mucosa of the bladder is continuous with the skin
d) There is a frequent association with cryptorchidism
e) There is .in increased risk of bladder carcinoma
29 In prune belly syndrome, which of the following are true?

a) The inheritance is autosomal recessive
b) The condition is more common in females
c) It is characterised by markedly distended and obstructed ureters
d) There is an association with Hirschsprung’s disease
e) Death occurs within 1 year of birth in the majority of cases
30 Concerning bladder neoplasia, which of the following are true?

a) Analgesic abuse is a risk factor for bladder transitional cell carcinoma
b) Bladder exstrophy is a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma
c) Urachal carcinoma calcifies in 70% of cases
d) Leiomyoma is the most common type of benign bladder tumour
e) Bladder involvement is more common in non-Hodgkin's than Hodgkin's disease
31 Regarding trauma to the bladder, which of the following are true?

a) Approximately 10% of patients with a pelvic fracture have associated bladder injury
b) Bladder contusion is the most common form of traumatic bladder injury
c) About 50% of bladder ruptures are intraperitoneal
d) Extraperitoneal ruptures are most common around the base of the bladder
e) About 10% of bladder ruptures are only evident on postvoiding cystography films
32 Regarding infection of the urinary tract, which of the following are true?
a) Schistosoma mansoni causes bladder wall calcification
b) Malakoplakia most commonly involves the bladder
c) Leukoplakia most commonly involves the bladder
d) About 20%-40% of cases of emphysematous pyelonephritis result from
ureteral obstruction
e) Patients with AIDS nephropathy have an increased risk of developing
renal cell carcinoma
62
33 Regarding the urethra, which of the following are true?

a) The bladder neck is typically dilated on <cystography in patients with
posterior urethral valves
b) A short well-defined stricture favours a non infective aetiology
c) Trauma to the anterior urethra is more common than to the posterior urethra
d) Transitional cell carcinoma is the most common primary malignant tumour
e) Acquired urethral diverticula are more common in females
34 Which of the following are true of prostate cancer?

a) Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) predisposes to prostate cancer
b) Serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) levels can be elevated by BPH
c) Low signal on T2-weighted imaging within the seminal vesicle is diagnostic
of seminal vesical invasion
d) About 40% of hypoechoic peripheral zone lesions on transrectal ultrasound are malignant
e) Pelvic side wall lymph nodes more than 8 mm in the short axis are abnormal
35 Regarding endorectal MRI of the prostate, which of the following are true?
a) Routine use of contrast enhancement is essential in the staging of prostate cancer
b) The endorectal surface coil does not allow assessment of all pelvic nodes
c) MRI spectroscopy has no current role in the diagnosis of prostate carcinoma
d) On T2-weighted imaging, the peripheral zone appears hyperintense
e) Capsular bulging strongly suggests extracapsular tumour spread
36 Regarding testicular ultrasound, which of the following are true?

a) The normal epididymis is slightly hypoechoic to the normal testis
b) There is. in association between testicular microlithiasis and Klinefelter's syndrome
c) Testicular cysts are seen in up to 10% of testicular ultrasound studies
d) The epididymis is typically enlarged, hypervascular and hyperechoic when inflamed
e) Absent testicular blood flow on colour Doppler imaging is pathognomonic
of testicular torsion
37 Regarding the malpositioned testis, which of the following are true?

a) About 10% of testes are maldescended in neonates delivered at term
b) Cryptorchidism is associated with Noonan’s syndrome
c) Cryptorchidism is bilateral in 10% of cases
d) There is an increased risk of testicular torsion in cryptorchidism
e) Teratoma is the most common tumour in Undescended testes
38 Which of the following are true of testicular neoplasms?

a) A contralateral tumour develops in 8% of cases
b) Germ cell tumours account for 75% of all testicular neoplasms
c) Teratoma is the most common germ cell tumour
d) Choriocarcinoma classically metastasises late
e) Metastases to the testes are more common than germ cell tumours in patients
aged more than 55 years
63
Uroradiology
39 Regarding phaeochromocytoma, which of the following are true?

a) The incidence of malignancy is lower in extra-adrenal compared
to adrenal phaeochromocytoma
b) Extra-adrenal tumours occur most commonly at the aortic bifurcation
c) There is an association with parathyroid adenoma
d) MIBG scintigraphy has a 10% fake negative rate for tumour detection
e) They are high signal on T2-weighted imaging and enhance avidly after
gadolinium administration
40 Regarding adrenal cortical carcinoma, which of the following are true?

a) This is the most common primary malignant adrenal tumour
b) There is an association with hemihypertrophy
c) Excess hormone production is present in at least 50% of patients
d) They are bilateral in 30% of cases
e) These tumours arc usually radiosensitive
64
Answers
1 a) False The adult kidney is formed from the metanephros (metanephric blastema)
under the influence of the ureteral bud, which comes off the caudal end
of the mesonephric duct.
b) True In men, these ducts form the vas deferens, seminal vesicles and ejaculatory
ducts, whereas in women they undergo complete involution.
c) True Normal arterial supply is via the superior (branch of the inferior phrenic artery'.
middle (from aorta) and inferior (from renal artery) adrenal arteries. Each gland
is drained by a single vein, which enters the inferior vena cava (IVC) on the
right and the renal vein on the left.
d) True The cloaca is divided by the urorectal septum into an anterior urogenital sinus
and a posterior rectum (failure of this process leads to bladder agenesis).
The urogenital sinus develops into the bladder and urethra (and prostate'.
e) False In men, the urethra is divided into posterior (made up of prostatic and
membranous) and anterior (made up of bulbous and penile) segments. The
female urethra is divided into intrapelvic, membranous and perineal parts.
2 a) True Glomeruli occupy a greater proportion of the cortex in the neonate, appearing
more echogenic than the adjacent liver and spleen. The converse is true in adults.
b) False Relative to renal size the adrenal glands are much larger in neonates. The right
is normally easier to visualise than the left.
c) False The junctional parenchymal defect is an echogenic notch in the renal cortical
contour that may extend to the sinus and results from incomplete fusion of the two
sub-kidneys. It is more commonly seen in children, in the right kidney and at the
junction of the middle and upper thirds, and shouki not be mistaken for a scar.
d) True The resistive index can be elevated in obstruction (greater than 0.75, and more
than 0.08 higher than the nonobstructed side). However, the resistive index
can be elevated by non obstruct he renal disease as well as being normal
in chronic obstruction.
e) True The normal wall thickness of a well-distended bladder is usually less or equal
to 5 mm in a nondistended bladder. Wall thickening is seen with: tumours,
infection and inflammation (cystitis), muscular hypertrophy (neurogenic bladder
and outlet obstruction) and underdistended bladders.
65
Uroradiology
3 a) False The converse is true. On T1-weighted imaging, there is distinct corticomedullary

differentiation with the cortex having a medium signal intensity (similar to liver)
and the medulla having lower signal Intensity. On moderate T2-weighted
imaging, corticomedullary differentiation is not usually seen and both cortex
and medulla are hyperintense. On heavily T2-weighted images, the medulla
is slightly more intense than the cortex.
b) False Although 95% is excreted via the kidneys (5% hepatobiliary), intravenous
gadolinium can bo safely used in renal impairment, although the excretion
is prolonged (normal tl/2 = 90 minutes).
c) True Adrenal corticomedullary differentiation is also not possible on CT. However,
the adrenal medulla appears as a linear echogenic structure on ultrasonography
in neonates.
d) False There is only slight enhancement of the adrenal glands after intravenous
gadolinium administration.
e) True This reflects the very high concentrations of excreted gadolinium in urine, which
can lead to a fall in signal intensity (most often seen in renal pelvis and bladder).
4 a) False The two kidneys are joined (upper poles in 10% and lower poles in 90%) by
a parenchymal or fibrous band, which lies at L4/5 between the aorta and inferior
mesenteric artery. It is the most common renal fusion anomaly (1-4 per 1000
births) and is more common in males. There is an association with pelvi-ureteric
obstruction, ureteral duplication and malformations of the cardiovascular system,
musculoskeletal system and anorectal region.
b) False The renal pelves point anteriorly. The ureters descend in front of the isthmus.
c) True There is also an increased risk of trauma, calculi, obstruction and infection
in a horseshoe kidney.
d) True Fusion is usually near the aortic bifurcation. The associations include:
cryptorchidism, vaginal or sacral agenesis, caudal regression and tetralogy of Fallot,
o) True In crossed renal ectopia the kidney is located on the opposite side of midline
to its ureteral orifice. Four types have been described: crossed renal ectopia
with fusion, without fusion, solitary crossed renal ectopia (only one kidney,
which lies contralateral to its ureteral orifice) and bilateral crossed renal ectopia
(both kidneys are crossed). The left kidney is more likely to cross than the right.
The crossed kidney is inferior to the normal kidney. Associations include
megaureter, hypospadias and multicystic dysplastic kidney.
66
5 a) False The cysts are typically noncommunicating and of variable size, allowing
differentiation from hydronephrosis. Multicystic dysplastic kidney b the second
most common cause of neonatal abdominal mass after hydronephrosis. It results
from complete ureteral obstruction (at 8-10 weeks’ gestational age), which
inhibits nephron maturation and the collecting tubules enlarge into cysts.
b) True The incidence is 1:4000 for unilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney and
1:10000 when bilateral. It is unilateral in 80% of cases. It is also associated
with Turner's syndrome.
c) True The most common contralateral renal abnormalities are pelvi-ureteric junction
obstruction, horseshoe kidney or vesicoureteric reflux. trilateral anomalies
include vesico-ureteric reflux (in 25% of cases) and an ectopic ureter.
d) True Residual renal function is seen best on delayed scans.
e) False Serial ultrasound scans of multicystic dysplastic kidney usually show renal
involution. There is a small risk of renin-dependent hypertension. Malignant
change is rare (less than 0.5%). Nephrectomy is only required if it fails
to involute, or if there is uncontrolled hypertension.
6 a) False It is a rare nonhereditary benign neoplasm, which b usually large and contains
multiple noncommunicating cysts with prominent septae. No association
with congenital anomalies in other organ systems has been established.
b) True It has a biphasic age and sex distribution - female patients with multilocular cystic
nephroma typically present with symptoms between 4 and 20 years of age or after
40 years of age. Conversely, 90% of tumours in males occur in the first 2 years
of life. Consequently, among children presenting before 4 years of age, over 70%
are male whereas nearly 90% of patients presenting after 4 years of age are female.
c) False The lesion is unifocal and encapsulated, with a well-defined border to the
adjacent normal kidney. Hence, it can be differentiated from multicystic-dysplastic
kidney, which normally involves the whole kidney and, when focal, is ill defined.
d) False The septae often calcify and may enhance,
e) True It is surgically removed because distinction from cystic Wilms' tumour is not
possible by imaging. Local recurrence or coexistent Wilms' tumour is very rare.
7 All true Cortical cysts are very common (50% incidence in those aged over 50 years)
and arise from obstructed tubules or ducts. They do not communicate with the
collecting system (unlike pyelogenic cysts) and are most commonly asymptomatic,
but can cause haematuria, infection, pain and even hypertension. Cortical cysts
should be differentiated from medullary cystic disease, which is a spectrum of
diseases with various inheritance patterns (autosomal recessive and autosomal
dominant), which have juvenile and adult onsets and an association with retinitis
pigmentosa. They frequently lead to renal failure and are characterised by
medullary' cysts (small and often not resolved on imaging) and a thin cortex
free of cysts. Syndromes associated with multiple renal cortical cysts include
Meckel-Gruber, Jeune's, trisomy 13, von Hippel-Lindau, Conradi’s disease
(chondrodystrophia congenital punctata) and uraemic cystic disease (seen
in 90% of patients on dialysis for more than 5 years).
67
Uroradiology
8 a) True Inheritance is usually autosomal dominant, but spontaneous mutations occur

in 10% of cases. In 85%-95% of cases, patients have a genetic abnormality
at 16p13.3 and this gene has been named PKD1. A second gene named PKD2
lies at 4q21-23; patients with this gene tend to have a milder form of disease.
b) False There is great variability in onset of cystic change. Mean age at diagnosis is
45 years for PKD1 and 69 years for PKD2.
c) True Liver cysts develop in 25%-75% of patients. Females are more commonly
and severely affected than males. The cysts may be sensitive to sustained levels
of sex hormones because cyst size is related to parity of the patient.
d) True Cysts may also be detected in other organs such as the pancreas (10% of cases)
anti spleen (less than 5% of cases). Cysts may rarely occur within the lungs,
thyroid, ovaries, uterus and scrotum. Saccular berry aneurysms of cerebral
arteries are present in up to 20% of cases.
e) False Visualisation of the cysts at this stage is unusual. The kidneys appear enlarged
and diffusely echogenic with a poorly demarcated renal contour.
9 a) False This is a relatively common sporadic condition affecting mainly young-to-middle-

aged adults. There is dysplastic cystic dilatation of papillary and medullary
portions of the collecting ducts.
b) True The process may involve one or both kidneys or may be confined to a single
papilla. It is often asymptomatic, but it may be complicated by stones,
haematuria or infection. Less than 10% of cases result in renal impairment.
c) False Medullary nephrocalcinosis is visible radiographically in 40%-80% of cases.
A striated nephrogram on excretory urogram is typical.
d) False This autosomal recessive syndrome is characterised by bilateral multicystic
dysplastic kidneys, occipital encephalocoele and polydactyly
e) True Other associations include hemihypertrophy, parathyroid adenoma.
Caroli's disease, congenital pyloric stenosis and other renal lesions.
10 a) False The cortex is never involved. Renal papillary necrosis results from an ischaemic
coagulative necrosis of the pyramids and medullary papilla secondary to
interstitial nephritis or intrinsic vascular obstruction.
b) True Renal papillary necrosis can be localised/diffuse and unilateral bilateral.
Multiple papillae arc affected in 85% of cases. Bilateral disease usually
reflects a systemic illness.
c) True In addition, there is an eight-fold increase of transitional cell carcinoma
in analgesic abusers.
d) True Analgesics are one of the most common causes of renal papillary necrosis.
Other causes include: diabetes mellitus, sickle cell disease, pyelonephritis,
obstructive uropathy, tuberculosis, trauma, alcohol and renal vein thrombosis.
e) False Medullary sponge kidney is a condition characterised by dysplastic dilatation
of the collecting tubules. It causes renal papillary calculi but not necrosis.
68
11 All True Cortical nephrocalcinosis (5% of cases) is much loss common than medullary
nephrocalcinosis (95% of cases). It is characterised by peripheral (occasionally
tramline) calcification, which spares the medullary pyramids. The columns of
Bertin may be involved. Ultrasonography shows a hyperechoic cortex. Other
causes include acute cortical necrosis (secondary to pregnancy, shock, Infections
and toxins, such as methoxyfluorane and ethylene glycol), Alport's syndrome
and chronic hypercalcaemia.
12 All true This form of nephrocalcinosis results from a diffuse process and is characterised
by calcification of the distal convoluted tubules and the loops of Henle. Imaging
reveals stippled pyramidal calcification and a hyperechoic medulla. Other causes
include medullary sponge kidney (which along with renal tubular acidosis and
hyperparathyroidism accounts for 70% of all causes), renal papillary necrosis,
any cause of hypercalcaemia/hypercalciuria (such as milk-alkali syndrome,
sarcoidosis, frusemide therapy, vitamin E or calcium supplements and
Bartter's syndrome) and any cause of hyperuricosuria (such as gouty kidney
or Lesch-Nyhan syndrome).
13 a) False The reverse is true. Calculi are four times more common in men. Struvite stones
are the exception to this rule, as they are twice as common in women. About
12% of the population develop stones by age 70 years and 2%-3% of the
population experience an attack of renal colic. Stones recur in 50% of untreated
patients within 10 years. About 80% of all stones contain calcium oxalate
or calcium phosphate.
b) True Struvite calculi account (or 70% of staghorn calculi (the remainder are cystine
or uric acid stones) and are commonly the result of urea-splitting organisms
such as Proteus. Struvite is usually mixed with calcium phosphate to create
‘triple phosphate' calculi.
c) True Other nonopaque stones include xanthine and the rare mucoprotein matrix
calculi, which occur in poorly functioning, infected urinary tracts. Cystine calculi
are slightly opaque.
d) False CT detects most calculi regardless of composition, although matrix stones are
poorly visualised. Contiguous unenhanced images are required. A stone in the
ureter often has a rim of surrounding soft tissue from mucosal oedema (ureteric
rim sign), which helps to differentiate it from phlebolith. However, stones
resulting from indinavir treatment (in HIV seropositive patients) are frequently
lucent even on CT.
e) True The formation of oxalate stones is secondary to excess oxalate absorption from the
bowel, which also occurs in ulcerative colitis and following a small bowel bypass
or resection. These patients are also at an increased risk of uric acid stones.
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Uroradiology
14 a) True In 75% of cases, there is an underlying stone, which causes obstruction and
chronic inflammation/infection with subsequent parenchymal destruction
and deposition of lipid-laden macrophages. The remaining cases result from
a pelvi-ureteric obstruction or a ureteric tumour. The kidney is diffusely
involved in 90% of cases.
b) False Approximately 10% of patients have diabetes mellitus.
c) False Proteus is the most commonly associated organism. E. coli, Klebsiella,
Pseudomonas and Enterobacter are also frequently cultured. Multiorganism
urinary tract infection is common.
d) False The kidney is irregularly enlarged with parenchymal replacement by xanthomatous
masses (CT: -10 to 30 HU) that may extend into the perinephric space.
e) False Optimal treatment involves nephrectomy.
15 a) True Only 5%-15% of cases have active cavitary tuberculosis. The renal tract is the
second most common site of tuberculous involvement after the lungs. Renal
disease typically results from haematogenous spread from the lung, bone or
gastrointestinal tract. Frequency, sterile pyuria and haematuria are common
presenting symptoms.
b) False Involvement is unilateral in 70% of cases. Infection commences within the renal
parenchyma, which ulcerates into the collecting system and may descend down
the renal tract. Imaging findings include calcification (autonephrectomy in
advanced cases), cavity formation, scarring, papillary necrosis and tuberculomas
(20% of cases).
c) False Involvement of the calyceal system is early with mucosal irregularity, infundibular
stenoses and amputated calyces. Renal calculi are present in 10% of cases
d) False Vesico-ureteric reflux is common through the fixed patulous ureteric orifice.
e) False Calcification of the bladder wall can occur but is rare. Wall thickening and
ulceration with a shrunken' bladder are more usual. Calcification may also
be observed within the seminal vesicles and epididymis. Infection is not
associated with an increased risk of renal cell carcinoma.
16 a) False Tumours are always benign. Angiomyolipomas are hamartomas composed

of varying amounts of fat, smooth muscle and thick-walled blood vessels.
The blood vessels lack a complete elastic layer and this predisposes to bleeding
and aneurysm formation. Lesions more than 4 cm in size bleed spontaneously
in 50%-60% of cases.
b) True Conversely, angiomyolipomas occur in 80% of patients with tuberous sclerosis
(commonly multiple).
c) True Calcification is rare and probably reflects previous haemorrhage. A renal lesion
containing fat is very suggestive of an angiomyolipoma. although there are
a few case reports of fat within renal cell carcinomas and oncocytomas.
d) False Arteriovenous shunting is rarely seen and is more typical of renal cell carcinoma.
About 95% of cases are hypervascular with enlarged and tortuous vessels,
e) False Small lesions (less than 4 cm) are followed-up annually, whilst larger lesions
can be treater with either a partial nephrectomy or selective embolisation.
70
17 a) Falsi Wilms’ tumour is the most common intra-abdominal malignancy in children.

It is the third most common paediatric malignancy after brain tumours and
leukaemia. The mean age of presentation is about 3 years old. It is bilateral
in 5%-10% of cases. The disease may be multifocal in 10% of cases. About
50% of cases occur in children under the age of 2 years and 75% occur under
the age of 5 years. Nephroblastomatosis is a precursor.
b) True About 15% of patients with Wilms' tumour have an associated syndrome or
clinical problem. Of patients with Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome, 10-20%
develop Wilms’ tumour. Up to 33% of patients with sporadic aniridia develop
Wilms' tumour. There are also strong associations with Drash syndrome,
pseudohermaphroditism, glomerulonephritis, and nephrotic syndrome and
hemihypertrophy. There have been reports of increased incidence with
neurofibromatosis (NF), Bloom's syndrome, horseshoe kidneys, hypospadias and
cryptorchidism. Patients with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, sporadic aniridia
and hemihypertrophy tend to present younger and have bilateral disease.
c) False Calcification is seen in 15% of cases (5% on plain films) on CT. This helps to
differentiate Wilms' tumours from neuroblastomas tin which calcification is seen
in 85%-95% of cases). Other features in favour of a Wilms’ tumour include:
intrinsic renal mass effect (instead of displacement), older age of onset
(neuroblastoma normally occurs under 2 years), absence of vascular involvement
(neuroblastomas frequently encase midline vessels) and unilaterality
(neuroblastomas are bilateral in more than 50% of cases.
d) False About 90% of cases in children present with a palpable abdominal mass,
which is often asymptomatic. Most tumours are large (more than 12 cm)
at presentation. Haematuria is common (20% of cases). The incidence of
hypertension varies from 15% to 90%, which may be due to renin production
or vascular compression.
c) False Bone metastases arc rare. Common secondary- sites are the lung and I her.
18 a) True Other risk factors include tobacco, long-term phenacetin use. chronic
haemodialysis (more than 3 years) and a family history.
b) True Calcification occurs in 5%-20% of tumours and is usually central and
amorphous, but may be peripheral or curvilinear in cystic renal cell carcinoma.
Cystic change occurs in 2%-15% of cases,
c) True Tumours larger than 3 cm in size tend to be isoechoic or hypoechoic.
d) False Only 5% of tumours are hypovascular on angiography. Tumours cause
neovascularity, which on angiography may lead to contrast puddling,
arteriovenous shunting, small aneurysms and parasitization of other vessels.
Tumour growth into the renal vein (20%-35%) or IVC (5-10%) may be seen.
e) True About 55% of all metastatic deposits occur in the lungs. Other sites include:
the liver (35%), bone (30%; classically lytic and expansile), adrenals (20%),
contralateral kidney (10%) and other organs (less than 5%).
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Uroradiology
19 a) False These tumours have a peak incidence in the seventh decade. They arise from
the epithelial cells (oncocytes) of the proximal convoluted tubule (2%-10%
of all renal tumours). They are benign, but they may have to be removed,
as confident differentiation from renal cell carcinoma may not be possible
preoperatively, The majority of patients are asymptomatic.
b) False Calcification is rare. Classical imaging findings include a well-defined low-density
mass with pseudocapsule. On ultrasonography, more than 50% of cases are
hypoechoic. A central scar is visible in 30% of cases. On angiography, 80% of
cases demonstrate a spoke-wheel configuration, but no arteriovenous shunting.
c) False These rare tumours are typically small (less than 3 cm), appearing hypovascular
or avascular on angiography and enhancing less well than normal kidney on CT.
They may appear echogenic on ultrasonography.
d) True There are three patterns of lymphomatous involvement: primary renal lymphoma
(rare as the kidneys lack lymphatic tissue), haematogenous dissemination
(common) and direct spread from the retroperitoneum (common). On imaging,
multiple hypoechoic or hypodense nodules are the most common finding.
The disease may also appear us a single mass or diffuse infiltration,
e) True Metastases are 2-3 times as frequent as primary tumours in the kidney at autopsy.
Primary sites include lung, breast, colon, the opposite kidney and melanoma.
20 a) True RAS is also present in 25% of patients with difficult-to-control hypertension.

b) False Atherosclerosis accounts for about 70%-90% of cases, with the remaining
resulting from fibromuscular dysplasia (10-30%), NF, arteritis (polyarteritis
nodosa, Takayasu's arteritis, Buerger's disease, congenital rubella:, radiotherapy,
aortic dissection/aneurysm, arteriovenous fistula, phaeochromocytoma
and retroperitoneal fibrosis.
c) False Fibromuscular dysplasia responds well to angioplasty and tends to affect
the mid and distal thirds of the renal artery (compared with atherosclerosis,
which affects the proximal 2 cm of renal artery and responds less well to
angioplasty). Fibromuscular dysplasia is the most common cause of renal
artery stenosis in children.
d) True Other suggestive signs include a renal artery peak systolic velocity of more than
180 cm/second, poststenotic spectral broadening, absent end-diastolic blood
flow and a tardus-parvus pattern in the distal artery. The role of ultrasonography
in screening is controversial because of technical difficulties (inadvertent sampling
of adjacent collateral vessels), incomplete examination(s) (up to 50% of cases)
or the presence of multiple renal arteries (25% of cases).
e) True Other signs indicating that a stenosis is haemodynamically significant include:
a more than 70% stenosis, poststenotic dilatation, the presence of collateral
vessels, a small kidney and finally a ratio of renin levels, on venous sampling,
between the affected and unaffected renal veins of more than 1.5 (not valid
in the presence of bilateral stenoses).
72
21 a) True Acute tubular necrosis is also more common in cadaveric transplants (due to
donor hypotension, which is seen less with living related donors) and transplants
with prolonged organ storage. Scintigraphic flow may her normal, but there is
diminished excretion. Ultrasonography demonstrates smooth enlarged kidneys,
elevated resistive index (more than 0. 7) and echogenic pyramids. Acute tubular
necrosis is most commonly seen in the first 24 hours following transplant and
rarely occurs after 1 month (compared with cyclosporin toxicity which looks
similar to acute tubular necrosis on imaging, but rarely occurs in the first month).
b) False Perirenal fluid collections are present in up to 50% of transplants. These may be
lymphoceles (10-20% of cases; usually inferomedial to the kidney, large with
thick septa in 50-80% of cases and internal echoes), urinoma (rarely septated
and smaller than lymphocoeles), abscess (fever and complex) or haematoma
(hyperechoic on ultrasonography).
c) False This fall in the RI may result initially from an autoregulatory mechanism. With time,
the typical finding of an elevated resistive index develops. Although values between
0.7 and 0.9 are nonspecific and can also be seen in acute tubular necrosis, values
above 0.9 have a more than 95% positive predictive value for rejection.
d) False With renal pedicle avulsion, the nonperfused kidney may not produce urine.
Furthermore, ureteric avulsion may prevent blood-stained urine reaching
the bladder.
e) False There is enhancement of the renal periphery through intact capsular vessels
(rim sign). Pedicle avulsion is seen in 5% of cases of renal trauma and is treated
surgically. Other forms of renal trauma include subcapsular haematoma, renal
contusion, superficial renal laceration (all treated conservatively) and complete
laceration that communicates with the calyceal system (management is
controversial; 15-50% will require surgery).
22 a) False It is five times more common in males than females, resulting from either
a functional obstruction (80% of cases), secondary to a defect in the circular
muscle of the renal pelvis, or from extrinsic compression (20% of cases).
b) True It may also be bilateral in 10-40% of cases. The contralateral kidney is
absent in 10% of cases and dysplastic in 25%. It is the most common cause
of neonatal hydronephrosis.
c) False There is functional obstruction of the distal ureter secondary to abnormal
muscular development (achalasia of ureter). This results in an aperistaltic
localised dilatation of the pelvic ureter with smooth tapered narrowing
of the intravesical ureter. It is the second most common cause of
neonatal hydronephrosis.
d) False The condition is more frequent in males. It is bilateral in 20%-40% of cases,
but is more common on the left side. Contralateral renal abnormalities
such as pelvi-ureteric obstruction, reflux, ureterocoele, ureteric duplication,
renal ectopia and renal agenesis may occur.
e) False Retrocaval ureter is a right-sided condition and is three times more common
in males. The ureter passes behind the IVC and exits between the aorta and
IVC. It results from persistence of the right subcardinal vein with medial looping
of the right ureter at L3. Obstruction may occur.
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Uroradiology
23 a) False Complete ureteric duplication is twice as common in females and is bilateral

in 15%-40% of cases. Complete duplication results from a second ureteral
bud arising from the mesonephric duct. Incomplete duplication results from
branching of a single ureteral bud before it reaches the developing kidney.
b) True In complete ureteric duplication, the lower pole ureter enters the bladder normally,
while the upper pole ureter has an ectopic insertion (Weigert-Meyer rule).
c) False The upper moiety ureter is prone to obstruction and ureterocoele formation
while the lower moiety ureter is prone to reflux.
d) False The upper collecting system usually consists of only one major calyx.
e) True This may result in urinary incontinence, as the ureter may insert into the distal
urethra, vagina and uterus. In males, the ureteric insertion is suprasphincteric.
24 a) True A ureterocoele is a cystic ectatic subepithelial segment of distal ureter that

prolapses into the bladder; on urography, it is seen as a typical smooth thin
cobra head’ deformity. On voiding, a ureterocoele may evert and resemble
a diverticulum.
b) True By definition, simple (orthotopic) ureterocoeles occur in normally located ureters
They are more common in females, arc usually found in single systems and
are frequently unilateral (80% of cases), asymptomatic and incidental findings.
c) True A simple ureterocoele may rarely prolapse into the bladder neck or urethra
causing obstruction. It can also result in ureteric dilatation or stone formation,
d! True Only 20% of ectopic ureteroceles occur in single systems. They are bilateral
in 10% of cases. When large, they can cause obstruction of the bladder outlet
or the contralateral ureter.
e) True A pseudoureterocoele is an obstructed, but otherwise normal, intramural
ureter that mimics a ureterocoele. It can be differentiated from a ureterocoele
on urography. The halo is thick and irregular and the lesions are acquired.
The causes include transitional cell carcinoma (the most common cause
in adults), invasion by cervical cancer, and oedema resulting from stone,
radiation or instrumentation.
25 a) True Hence the need for a low index of suspicion. Primary reflux results from
immaturity of the vesico-ureteric junction with an abnormally short
submucosal ureteral tunnel through the bladder wall.
b) True Secondary (acquired) reflux can also result from ureteric duplication with
a ureterocoele, paraureteric (Hutch) diverticulum, posterior urethral valves,
neurogenic bladder and absent abdominal musculature (prune belly syndrome).
c) True Clubbed and dilated calyces (Grade IV reflux) or a dilated tortuous ureter
(Grade V reflux) are indications for surgery. Reflux into just the distal ureter
(Grade I) or a collecting system that is of normal calibre (Grade II) or only
mildly dilated (Grade III) is likely to resolve spontaneously as the vesico-ureteric
junction matures. Primary reflux improves spontaneously in 80% of cases.
d) True Two varieties of radionuclide cystography may be performed: indirect with
intravenous injection of technetium-99m diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid
(99mTc DTPA) and direct with bladder instillation of 99mTc pertechnetate.
e) True Scarring results from the intrarenal reflux of infected urine from the collecting
system into the renal parenchyma. Compound papillae (common at the renal
poles) have collecting ducts with prominent orificia and hence are more
susceptible to starring.
74
26 a) True Pyeloureteritis cystica is a result of chronic urinary tract infection or stone

disease. It is more common in females.
b) True Patients with diabetes mellitus are predisposed to pyeloureteritis cystica.
c) False This describes ureteral pseudodiverticulosis. In pyeloureteritis cystica, small
fluid-filled mural cysts develop and project into the lumen of the pelvis and
ureter. The cysts are usually 1-5 mm in diameter, but may reach up to 2 cm.
d) False Pyeloureteritis cystica is usually unilateral. The condition is most common
in the bladder, followed by the proximal third of the ureter and the
pelvi-ureteric junction.
e) False The condition may resolve with antibiotic treatment, but frequently persists
unchanged for years. Ir is associated with an increased incidence of transitional
cell carcinoma.
27 a) True The fibrotic plaque begins around the aortic bifurcation and extends up to the
renal hilum with effects on the ureters, lymphatics and great vessels. It rarely
extends below the pelvic brim. The incidence in males is twice that of females
and the condition generally occurs between the ages of 30 and 60 years.
b) True Evidence shows that obstruction relates to interference with ureteric peristalsis
rather than mechanical effects. Medial deviation of the ureter on urography
is typical.
c) False The aorta is engulfed by a fibrotic mass, but not displaced. Displacement
is more typical of retroperitoneal malignancies, such as lymphoma.
d) False A decrease in tissue oedema after steroid treatment is reflected by a reduction
in signal Intensity on T2-weighted MRI.
e) True Primary disease (two thirds of cases) is thought to result from an autoimmune
vasculitis due to antibodies to ceroid, a by-product of aortic plaque. In
approximately 10% of cases, it is associated with fibrosis elsewhere, including
the mediastinum, thyroid, biliary tree and orbit. Secondary retroperitoneal
fibrosis can result from drugs (e.g. methysergide, methyldopa and ergotamine),
malignancy induced desmoplasia (e.g. lymphoma, carcinoid and metastases),
haematoma and polyarteritis nodosa.
28 a) True Bladder exstrophy results from incomplete retraction of the cloacal membrane
and is characterised by a defect in the lower abdominal wall and pubic region
with the urinary bladder exposed and open anteriorly. In males, the defect
in the dorsal aspect of the urethra causes epispadias.
b) True The width of the diastasis correlates with the degree of the exstrophy. Other
congenital causes of a widened symphysis include cleidocranial dysostosis,
cloacal exstrophy, prune belly syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta.
c) False In closed exstrophy (pseudoexstrophy), there is persistence of the cloacal
membrane. The anterior bladder wall lies subcutaneously and is covered
by a thin epithelial membrane.
d) True Other associated conditions include a low-lying umbilicus, omphalocele,
inguinal hernia, clubfoot, imperforate anus and cardiac anomalies.
e) True Bladder carcinoma develops in 4% of patients.
75
Uroradiology
29 a) False Prune belly syndrome is a sporadic nonhereditary condition.

b) False It occurs almost exclusively in males.
c) False It is characterised by the triad of absent or hypoplastic abdominal wall
musculature (causes prune belly appearance), nonobstructed markedly
distended redundant ureters and cryptorchidism (bladder distension interferes
with testicular descent). There is a spectrum of severity,
d) True Other associations include: urethral atresia, dysplastic kidneys, vesico-ureteric
reflux, oligohydramnios and pulmonary hypoplasia, patent urachus, congenital
heart disease, congenital cystoadenomatoid malformation of the lung
and multiple skeletal abnormalities.
e) False In 20% of cases, death occurs in the fust month of life. In another 30%,
death occurs within 2 years of birth. Mild cases survive into adulthood.
30 a) True Other risk factors include smoking, aniline dyes, aromatic amines, azo dyes
in rubber manufacturing, pelvic radiation and cyclophosphamide therapy.
Transitional cell carcinoma accounts for 90% of all bladder tumours.
b) False Bladder exstrophy is a risk fat tor for bladder adenocarcinoma, which accounts
for only 2% of bladder tumours, along with cystitis glandularis and a urachal
remnant. Risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma (5% of tumours) include:
calculi, chronic infection or instrumentation, bladder diverticula, leukoplakia
and schistosomiasis.
c) True Urachal carcinoma calcifies In 70% of cases, unlike bladder transitional cell
carcinoma, which calcifies in less than 10% of cases. Urachal carcinoma is
a rare tumour, which occurs In adolescence (70% occur before age 20 years)
and arises from the urachal remnant in the mid line.
d) True Leiomyoma lesions are usually submucosal and occur around the trigone.
e) True Bladder involvement is usually seen in disseminated disease. Primary bladder
lymphoma is rare (1% of bladder tumours) and usually occurs around the base
or trigone.
31a) True There are four main types of bladder injury: bladder contusion, interstitial
bladder rupture (rare, Incomplete serosal perforation with intact mucosa),
intraperitoneal rupture and extraperitoneal rupture. Combinations may occur.
b) True Bladder contusion represents a nonperforating tear of the bladder mucosa
resulting in an intramural haematoma. Cystography can be normal, but may
show lack of normal bladder distensibility or a crescent-shaped filling defect.
c) False Only 20% of bladder ruptures are intraperitoneal and such cases generally result
from either a blunt trauma to a distended bladder or a penetrating injury, such
as cystoscopy or a stab wound. It occurs at the dome of the bladder. Cystography
reveals contrast around bowel loops and in paracolic gutters,
d) True Such ruptures are due to bony spicula from the pelvic fracture or an avulsion
tear at the insertion of the puboprostatic ligaments. They account for up to
80% of ruptures. Cystography reveals contrast leakage around the bladder base,
which sometimes extends into the thigh or abdominal wall. The bladder appears
pear-shaped on plain film.
e) True Cystography may miss ruptures sealed by haematoma or mesentery.
76
32 a) False S. mansoni, along with S. japonicum, affects the gastrointestinal tract and causes
portal hypertension, s. haematobium involves the urinary tract and causes
bladder wall calcification, which may extend up the ureters. Other causes
of bladder wall calcification include tuberculosis, cyclophosphamide-induced
cystitis, interstitial cystitis, radiotherapy and bladder neoplasm.
b) True However, malakoplakia can affect any part of the urinary tract from the kidney
to the testes and/or prostate. It is an uncommon response to chronic E. coli
infection. Malakoplakia appears as multiple mural filling defects secondary
to submucosal granulomas.
c) True Leukoplakia also affects the ureter and collecting system. It is due to squamous
metaplasia of transitional epithelium secondary to chronic infection or stones.
It is believed to be a premalignant condition.
d) True However, emphysematous pyelonephritis more commonly results from
Gram-negative infection in immunocompromised patients, including patients
with diabetes mellitus. Nephrectomy is the treatment of choice. Emphysematous
pyelonephritis is associated with a high mortality rate of up to 80%.
e) True Various genitourinary conditions occur in patients with AIDS, including HIV
nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, nephrocalcinosis, infection (such as
cytomegalovirus, Pneumocystis carinii and Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
complex) and neoplasms (such as renal cell carcinoma. Kaposi's sarcoma,
lymphoma, and testicular germ cell).
33 a) False The bladder neck commonly hypertrophies and appears narrowed compared
with the dilated posterior urethra.
b) True The typical postinstrumentation stricture is short, well defined and lies in the
bulbomembranous urethra. Infective strictures (most commonly due to Neisseria
gonorrhoeae) result in a long beaded stricture in the bulbopenile region.
c) False The converse is true. Due to the attachment of the posterior urethra to the
urogenital diaphragm, there is a high risk of a shearing injury to the urethra
after a pelvic fracture (up to 15% in males with pelvic fractures, but less than
1% in females).
d) False Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common primary malignant tumour,
but all urethral malignancies are rare. Adenocarcinoma is very rare and arises
in Cowper's or Littré’s glands. Stricture, trauma and infection are risk factors
for squamous cell carcinoma.
e) True Acquired urethral diverticula result from infection of the paraurethral glands
with subsequent rupture into the urethra. Complications include infection,
calculi and adenocarcinoma.
77
Uroradiology
34 a) False Recognised risk factors include: advancing age, testosterone (eunuchs almost
never develop prostate adenocarcinoma), previous cadmium exposure
and a diet high in animal fats.
b) True The level of this glycoprotein is elevated in 00% of cases of prostate cancer,
but can also be raised by BPH and prostatitis. Cancers tend to elevate PSA levels
much more than prostatic hypertrophy, which is the rationale behind calculating
the PSA density (prostate volume divided by PSA level). Values of more than
0. 12 are 90% sensitive for cancer.
c) False Although seminal vesical invasion is suggested by low signal that appears
contiguous with the tumour, a similar appearance may be the result of
post-biopsy change or amyloidosis.
d) True Other causes of hypoechoic lesions in the peripheral zone include atypical
hyperplasia, focal prostatitis and prostatic cysts. On transrectal ultrasound,
30-40% of prostate cancers are isoechoic to the normal prostate,
e) False Nodes measuring 10 mm or more in the short axis arc considered to be abnormal.
35 a) False The routine use of contrast material is not necessary. Thin slice (3 mm) axial
T2-weighted Images are most useful.
b) True Thus, endorectal MRI studies are usually followed by axial T1-weighted imaging
through the pelvis and lower abdomen to assess for nodal and bony spread.
c) False MRI spectroscopy evaluation of the relative signals of choline and citrate within
the prostate gland has been found useful in the diagnosis of prostate cancer,
particularly cancers arising in the central gland, in the evaluation of multicentric
disease and also in distinguishing between post-biopsy change and tumour.
d) True Diagnostic uncertainty can occur when the peripheral zone is hypointense
from fibrosis, BPH, postbiopsy haemorrhage or prostatitis.
e) False Several studies have shown that signs such as smooth capsular bulging,
retraction or thickening are insufficiently accurate to predict capsular spread.
Signs that are accurate in this regard are unequivocal extension into adjacent
fat or neurovascular bundle, or invasion of the seminal vesicle.
36 a) False The epididymis is usually isoechoic or slightly hyperechoic to the testis.

b) True There is also an association of testicular microlithiasis with cryptorchidism,
Down’s syndrome, male pseudohermaphroditism and pulmonary alveolar
microlithiasis. There is an increased incidence of germ cell tumour. On
ultrasound, testicular microlithiasis appears as multiple (more than five
per testicle) echogenic nonshadowing foci.
c) True In addition, epididymal cysts are seen in up to 40% of studies. Spermatocoeles
are similar in appearance, but may contain internal low-level echoes.
d) False The epididymis is typically enlarged, hypervascular and hypoechoic. Coexisting
orchitis is seen in 20% of cases and has a similar ultrasound appearance.
Orchitis rarely occurs without associated epididymitis.
e) False In colour Doppler imaging of paediatric patients, intratesticular blood flow
can be difficult to demonstrate. In one study (mean age 6. 5 years), flow was
absent bilaterally in 34% of cases and unilaterally in 8%. Power Doppler
may be helpful in such cases.
78
37 a) False At term, 3.5% of testes are maldescended compared with 30% in premature babies.
The testes are normally within the scrotum by 28- 32 weeks' gestational age.
b) True Cryptorchidism is also associated with prune belly syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome,
Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome and Lawrence Moon-Biedl syndrome.
c) True MRI is probably the modality of choice in localising ectopic/maldescended testes.
Ultrasonography is very sensitive when the testes lie within the Inguinal region.
d) True There is also an increased risk of trauma, sterility and malignancy In cryptorchidism.
e) False Seminoma is the most common tumour in Undescended testes. There is a
30-50-fold increased risk of testicular malignancy in cryptorchidism and the
risk correlates with increasing distance from the scrotal sac. The risk is present
even after orchiopexy.
38 a) True Recognised risk factors include: cryptorchidism, a personal or family history

of testicular neoplasia, and Jewish or Caucasian race.
b) False Germ cell tumours account for 95% of testicular neoplasms. The remaining
tumours are made up of sex cord-stromal tumours (Leydig's and Sertoli's
cell tumours) and metastases.
c) False Seminoma is the most common germ cell tumour (40-50%) and usually
presents in the fourth to fifth decade of life. Teratomas occur at a younger age
(during the second decade). Other germ cell tumours include embryonal cell
carcinoma, choriocarcinoma (most aggressive), yolk sac tumour (most common
germ cell tumour in infants, accounting for 60% of testicular neoplasms in this
age group) and epidermoid cyst of the testicle (benign with possible ‘onion skin'
appearance). About 40% of tumours have mixed histology. On ultrasound, most
tumours are hypoechoic (diagnosis of the exact tumour type requires histology).
d) False Choriocarcinomas are highly malignant tumours that metastasize early.
Metastases may be present without evidence of choriocarcinoma in the testes.
e) True Lymphoma is the most common testicular neoplasm in men aged more than
50 years. In adult with metastatic disease to the testes, the primary sites
include the prostate, lung, kidney, gastrointestinal tract, bladder, thyroid
and melanoma. In children, primary sites include neuroblastoma, Wilms’
tumour and rhabdomyosarcoma.
39 a) False There is a 10% incidence of malignancy In adrenal tumours, but this rate
is higher for extra-adrenal tumours (up to 30%).
b) True About 10% of tumours are extra-adrenal (more than 30% in children)
and they can lie anywhere from the neck to the pelvis; 2-5% occur
at the aortic bifurcation (organ of Zuckerkandl).
c) True There are numerous associations, including multiple endocrine neoplasia
(types 2a and 2b), tuberous sclerosis, von Hippel Lindau syndrome,
NF and Carney syndrome.
d) True However, MIBG scintigraphy is still the most sensitive imaging test for
extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma.
e) True Although other adrenal neoplasms (eg, adrenal cortical carcinoma) can also
be high signal on T2-weighted imaging, none of them are as hyperintense
as phaeochromocytomas (light-bulb sign). The enhancement after gadolinium
administration is most marked on the delayed (rather than the immediate)
postcontrast images.
79
Uroradiotogy
40 a) True This is a rare tumour. It is more common than phaeochromocytoma.

It may occur at any age, but the peak incidence is between 30-50 years.
b) True It is also associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome and astrocytomas.
c) True The most common hormone produced in excess in adults is cortisol followed
by androgens, oestrogens and aldosterone.
d) False Adrenal cortical carcinomas are bilateral in 10% of cases and slightly more
common on the left side. They are usually greater than 5 cm in size. On CT,
there is heterogeneous enhancement. The lesion is hyperintense to liver
on T2-weighted MRI.
e) False Adrenal cortical carcinoma is normally resistant to radiotherapy. The prognosis
is generally poor.
80
Chapter 5
Musculoskeletal imaging
1 Which of the following are true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?

a) It is more common in males
b) The incidence is higher in infants with Down's syndrome
c) A radiolucent metaphyseal band is a feature
d) Sclerosis of the skull base occurs
e) It is a cause of posterior scalloping of the vertebral bodies
2 Cone-shaped epiphyses are seen in which of the following conditions?

a) Ellis van Creveld syndrome
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
d) Achondroplasia
e) Down's syndrome
3 Which of the following statements are true regarding cleidocranial dysostosis?

a) It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait
b) Hypoplasia of the distal third of the clavicle is seen in the majority of cases
c) It is associated with osteosclerosis
d) It is associated with an absent radius and fibula
c) Bladder exstrophy is a feature
4 Which of the following statements are true regarding osteomalacia?

a) Looser's zones show increased uptake on radionuclide bone scan
b) looser’s zones are most commonly seen along the medial border of the humeral neck
c) There is an association with neurofibromatosis INF)
d) There is an association with melorheostosis
e) It causes loss of the lamina dura of the teeth
5 Which of the following are true regarding hyperparathyroidism?

a) Soft tissue calcifications are more common in secondary hyperparathyroidism
b) Primary hyperparathyroidism is most commonly caused by parathyroid hyperplasia
c) Secondary hyperparathyroidism results in a 'super scan' on radionuclide bone scan
d) It is a cause of an erosive arthropathy
e) It is a cause of cortical nephrocalcinosis
6 Which of the following are true regarding lumbar discography?

a) Persistent low back pain at the L5/S1 level with a negative spinal magnetic
resonance image is an appropriate indication
b) It is usually performed via a transdural approach along the interspinous line
c) To opacify the nucleus pulposus, 3 ml of contrast is usually required
d) When combined with computed tomography (CT), it increases the sensitivity
of detecting annular tear
e) It is rarely performed because of the high risk of inducing disc herniation
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MCOs in Clinical Radiology

a) Kienböck's disease is associated with a long ulna
b) In the knee, osteochondritis dissecans occurs more frequently over the
lateral femoral condyle
c) Freiberg's disease is frequently bilateral
d) Widening of the joint space is an early sign of Perthes disease
e) Spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee (SONK) frequently affects the
medial femoral condyle
8 Which of the following are true regarding Gorlin’s syndrome?

a) It has a multifactorial aetiology
b) Supernumerary teeth are a feature
c) It is associated with dense calcification of the falx cerebri
d) There is an increased incidence of cerebellar astrocytoma
e) Block vertebrae are a feature
9 Which of the following conditions are associated with thickening of the

lamina dura of the teeth?
a) Cushing's syndrome
b) Hypoparathyroidism
c) Paget's disease
d) Scleroderma
e) Osteopetrosis
10 Which of the following are true regarding Langerhans' cell histiocytosis?

a) Periosteal reaction is not a feature of bony involvement
b) Lesions in the cranial vault typically show a bevelled edge
c) Radionuclide bone scan is the most sensitive test to detect bony involvement
d) Lesions within the long bones are typically metaphyseal
e) It typically involves the vertebral body and posterior elements within the spine
11 Which of the following are true regarding juvenile chronic arthritis?

a) Epiphyseal compression fracture occurs
b) Wrist ankylosis is less common in juvenile chronic arthritis than in rheumatoid arthritis
c) Joint space narrowing and erosions occur early in the disease
d) It results in periostitis of the hands and feet
e) Periarticular osteoporosis is a common finding
12 Which of the following statements regarding multiple myeloma are true?

a) Skeletal radiographs are more sensitive than radionuclide bone scans in detecting
bony lesions
b) Skeletal radiographs are abnormal in the majority of patients at the time of presentation
c) Sclerotic bone lesions are more commonly seen in POEMS (polyneuropathy,
organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal gammopathy and skin changes)
syndrome than in multiple myeloma
d) Bony involvement typically spares the mandible
e) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spine is useful in the staging
of patients with a normal skeletal survey
83
13 Which of the following are true regarding osteosarcoma?

a) There is an association with pineoblastoma
b) There is an increased incidence in osteopetrosis
c) Telangiectatic osteosarcoma typically demonstrates fluid-fluid levels on MRI
d) It frequently metastasises to other bones
e) Parosteal osteosarcoma resembles myositis ossificans on radiographs
14 Which of the following are true regarding soft tissue sarcomas?

a) Calcification is rarely seen in malignant fibrous histiocytoma
b) Myxoid liposarcoma appears near water density on CT
c) Synovial sarcomas show calcification in 30% of cases
d) Central necrosis is frequently seen in leiomyosarcoma
e) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumour is easily distinguished
from neurofibroma on MRI
15 Extramedullary haemopoiesis occurs at which of the following sites?

a) Lymph nodes
b) Gastrointestinal tract
c) Thyroid gland
d) Spleen
e) Falx cerebri
16 Which of the following are true regarding ankylosing spondylitis?

a) It has an increased incidence in Afro-Caribbeans
d) Sacroilitis is typically bilateral and symmetrical
c) It is associated with iritis in less than 5% of cases
d) It Is a cause of atlanto-axial subluxation
e) There is an increased frequency of aortic stenosis
17 Which of the following are causes of atlanto-axial subluxation?

a) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
b) Marfan's syndrome
c) Achondroplasia
d) Turner’s syndrome
e) Psoriatic arthropathy
18 Which of the following statements are true regarding aneurysmal hone cysts?
a) They are more common in females
b) They may involve two contiguous vertebral bodies
c) There is an association with giant cell tumour
d) They do not show any tracer uptake on radionuclide bone scan
e) Patients arc usually asymptomatic at presentation
19 Which of the following statements are true regarding congenital dislocation of the hips?
a) It is more common in females
b) There is an association with oligohydramnios
c) It is most commonly seen in first-born infants
d) It is usually bilateral
e) Premature osteoarthritis typically occurs between 10 and 20 years of age
84
20 Which of the following are true regarding Perthes disease?

a) Female gender is associated with a poorer prognosis
b) Bilateral hip involvement is more common in males
c) There is usually a family history
d) An older age of onset is associated with a better prognosis
e) It results in coxa magna
21 Which of the following MRI features are useful in distinguishing malignant from benign
causes of vertebral collapse?
a) A convex posterior border of the collapsed vertebra
b) The presence of paravertebral soft tissue mass
c) A collapsed vertebral body showing low T1-weighted signal and high T2-weighted signal
d) The presence of spinal cord compression
e) A pattern of impaired diffusion on diffusion-weighted imaging

a) Conversion of red marrow to yellow marrow proceeds from the axial
to the peripheral skeleton
b) Reconversion of yellow marrow to red marrow proceeds from the axial
to the peripheral skeleton
c) Infiltration of the marrow is best detected using a T2-weighted sequence
d) Chemical shift imaging is useful in detecting marrow infiltration
e) MRI abnormality in myelofibrosis is typically patchy in distribution
23 Which of the following are true regarding MRI of the knee?

a) MRI has a greater than 90% negative predictive value for meniscal tear
b) The double posterior cruciate ligament sign indicates a partial tear of the
posterior cruciate ligament
C) On T2-weighted imaging, extension of the joint fluid between the medial
meniscus and the joint capsule is a sign of meniscocapsular separation
d) Tear of the anterior cruciate ligament is frequently associated with contusion
of the anterior lateral tibial plateau
e) Irregularity of the Hoffa's fat-pad is seen in rheumatoid arthritis
24 Which of the following statements are true regarding MRI arthrography of the shoulder?
a) 0.1 ml of gadopentetate dimeglumine (Gd-DTPA) diluted in 20 ml of normal saline
is a suitable intra-articular contrast medium
b) The superior glenohumeral ligament is best identified on T1-weighted axial images
at the level of the biceps tendon
c) Absence of the middle glenohumeral ligament is associated with absence
of the anterosuperior labrum
d) The inferior glenohumeral ligament consists of an anterior and posterior band
e) MRI performed with the shoulder in abduction and external rotation improves
the detection of labral tears
85
25 In MRI of the ankle and foot, which of the following are true?
a) The posterior talofibular ligament is the most common ligament injured in ankle sprain
b) The anterior talofibular ligament is best Identified in the coronal plane
c) Rupture of the Achilles tendon usually occurs at its insertion onto the calcaneum
c)) Tarsal tunnel syndrome is most commonly bilateral
e) Morton's neuroma typically appears as a low-signal mass on both T1-weighted
and T2-weighted imaging
26 Which of the following ultrasonographic signs may be seen in a full thickness

rotator cuff tear of the shoulder?
a) Non-visualisation of the rotator cuff
b) Full thickness focal hyperechogenicity of the rotator cuff
c) Focal thinning of the rotator cuff
d) Fluid in the subacromial-subdeltoid bursa
e) Visualisation of the underlying hyaline cartilage
27 In MRI of the brachial plexus, which of the following are true?

a) The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is formed exclusively by the C7 nerve root
b) The cords of the brachial plexus are seen well on T1-weighted oblique sagittal images
c) Radiation fibrosis typically appears low signal on T2-weighted images
d) Intravenous gadolinium-DTPA is used to distinguish radiation fibrosis from
malignant infiltration
e) Heterogeneous signal on T2-weighted images favours the diagnosis of a malignant
peripheral nerve sheath tumour over its benign counterpart
28 Which of the following statements are true regarding MRI of the wrist?
a) The normal median nerve appears hyperintense to muscle on T2-weighted imaging
b) The lunotriquetral and scapholunate ligaments are best demonstrated in the axial plane
c) Tenosynovitis most frequently affects the extensor pollicis longus tendon
d) The ulnar tunnel syndrome is frequently caused by a ganglion cyst
e) Traumatic tears of the triangular fibrocartilage usually occur at the ulnar attachment
20 Which of the following are true regarding MRI of the elbow?

a) MRI of the elbow is typically performed with the elbow held at 90° flexion
b) The capitellum is a common site for osteochondritis dissecans of the elbow
c) Rupture of the distal biceps tendon usually occurs at its insertion into the radius
d) On axial images, the ulnar nerve is clearly soon within the cubital tunnel
e) Following injection of steroid, increased signal intensity may be detected in the injected
muscle or tendon on T2-weighted imaging for up to 1 month
30 Which of the following are the appropriate treatments for the conditions listed?
a) Percutaneous vertebroplasty with polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) for painful
metastatic vertebral collapse
b) Percutaneous discectomy for a sequestrated lumbar intervertebral disc
c) Percutaneous removal of an osteoid osteoma with a bone biopsy needle
d) Percutaneous injection of methylprednisolone acetate or Ethibloc for fibrous dysplasia
e) Fluoroscopic-guided needle aspiration of calcific tendonitis of the shoulder
86
31 Which of the following statements regarding the spine are correct?

a) Osteoid osteoma is most commonly found within the vertebral body
b) Osteoblastoma is usually confined to the vertebral body
c) Giant cell tumour of the spine most frequently affects the sacrum
d) Aneurysmal bone cyst of the spine most frequently affects the sacrum
e) Chordoma of the sacrum does not cross the sacroiliac joint
32 Which of the following are true regarding musculoskeletal trauma?

a) Atlanto-occipital dislocation is frequently fatal
b) Sternal fracture is an indirect sign of thoracic spine injury
c) Laceration of the dura is commonly associated with lumbar spine fracture
d» A scapholunate angle of more than 800 is suggestive of scapholunate dissociation
e) Epiphyseal plate fractures (Salter-Harris type I) are common in nonaccidental
injury in children
33 Which of the following are true in rheumatoid arthritis?

a) The arthritis is confined to synovial joints
b) The atlanto-axial joint is involved in 3% of cases
c) There is an increased risk of septic arthritis of the affected joint
d) Periostitis occurs in 20% of cases
e) Amyloidosis occurs as a complication in 20% of cases
34 Which of the following are true regarding pigmented villonodular synovitis?

a) It is five times more common in females
b) Soft tissue calcification is common
c) The knee is most frequently affected
d) Painful periarticular osteoporosis is an early feature
e) It causes well-defined bony erosions on both sides of an affected joint
35 Which of the following are true in the following conditions affecting the hands?
a) Subperiosteal bone resorption occurs in sarcoidosis
h) Sarcoidosis results in enlargement of the nutrient foramina of the phalanges
c) Tuberous sclerosis is associated with cystic lesions in the phalanges and metacarpals
d) Periarticular erosions occur early in systemic lupus erythematosus
e) Hypoplasia of the thumb is a feature of Down's syndrome
36 Which of the following are true regarding metastatic disease to the bones?
a) Medulloblastoma results in sclerotic metastases
b) Malignant melanoma is a cause of expansile metastases
c) The level of serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is typically normal in patients
with metastatic prostate carcinoma
d) Retinoblastoma rarely metastasises to the bones
e) About 30% of colorectal carcinomas metastasize to the bones
37 Which of the following statements regarding the ribs are true?

a) Ribbon rib is a feature of NF
b) Short bulbous ribs occur in achondroplasia
C) Takayasu's arteritis results in superior rib notching
d) fluorosis typically spares the ribs
e) Fibrous dysplasia of the ribs results in increased tracer uptake on radionuclide bone scan
87
38 Which of the following are true of acro-osteolysis?

a) Frostbite typically affects the thumb
b) Polyvinyl chloride exposure results in the resorption of the middle portion
of the terminal phalanx
c) It occurs in epileptics who are over-dosed with phenytoin
d) It may result from dermatomyositis
e) It may be caused by Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

a) Metaphyseal comer fracture is a feature of scurvy
b) Metaphyseal corner fracture is a feature of nonaccidental injury in children
c) Diaphyseal infarction occurs in thalassaemia
d) Cubitus varus is a feature of Turner's syndrome
e) Protrusio acetabuli occur in 40% of patients with Marfan’s syndrome
40 Which of the following are true regarding Erdheim-Chester disease?

a) Bony involvement is typically asymmetrical
b) Bony sclerosis is a feature
c) Infiltration of the perirenal space is common
d) It is a cause of diabetes insipidus
e) Unlike Langerhans' ell histiocytosis, the lung is not involved
88
Answers
1 a) False The condition is three times more common in females.

b) True
c) False The bones are slender, with endosteal thickening and typically with
a dense band at the metaphysis.
d) True Sclerosis at the skull base is a feature. Other skull changes include:
brachycephaly, wormian bones, delayed fusion of the sutures and hypoplasia
of the mastoid air cells and paranasal sinuses,
e) False There may be hypoplasia of the vertebral bodies, particularly at the level
of the first or second lumbar vertebrae (bullet-shaped). Posterior scalloping
of the vertebral bodies is seen in acromegaly.
2 a) True
b) False
c) True
d) True
e) False
The causes of cone-shaped epiphysis include: dactylitis (sickle cell disease,
frostbite, burns, osteomyelitis), trauma (batten'd child syndrome), congenital
(achondroplasia, acrodysostosis, multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, Ellis van Creveld
syndrome, chondrodysplasia punctata), metabolic (hyperthyroidism in childhood)
and those of idiopathic origin.
3 a) False The condition is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. However,

33% of cases may arise from new mutations. Pyknodysostosis is inherited
as an autosomal recessive trait.
a) False Hypoplasia of the distal or middle third of the clavicle is encountered
in 10% of cases.
c) False Osteosclerosis is a feature of pyknodysostosis.
d) True Other abnormalities of the appendicular skeleton include: elongated second
metacarpals, short distal hand phalanges with pointed terminal tufts and
accessory epiphyses in the hands and feet.
e False There is delayed ossification of the pubic bones, resulting in widening of the
symphysis pubis. However, this does not result in full-blown bladder exstrophy.
4 a 1 True This is due to the increased bone turnover.

b) False looser's zones are most frequently found along the medial border of the
femoral neck. Other common sites include the scapulae, the pubic rami,
ribs, distal radii and proximal ulna.
c) True Other associations include: melorheostosis, fibrous dysplasia, nonossifying
fibroma, giant cell tumour and osteoblastoma,
d) True See c).
e) True Other metabolic causes include hyperparathyroidism and Cushing's syndrome.
89
5 a) True Secondary hyperparathyroidism usually results from chronic renal failure.

Calcifications are frequently observed within the soft tissue and arterial wall.
b) False In 80-90% of cases, primary hyperparathyroidism is due to a parathyroid
adenoma. In 10-15% of cases, it results from parathyroid hyperplasia. The
degree of hypercalcaemia is related to the size of the adenoma. Ultrasonography
has a diagnostic accuracy of up to 80% in the detection of parathyroid adenoma.
However, radionuclide imaging with sestamibi also has a high diagnostic
accuracy in detecting disease.
c) True 'Superscan' refers to an increased uptake of tracer within the bones, particularly
within the axial skeleton, skull, costochondral junction, sternum and the long
bones. There is an increased bone to soft tissue ratio and reduced activity within
the kidneys. Common causes include: renal osteodystrophy, primary
hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, diffuse skeletal metastases and myelofibrosis,
d) True Hyperparathyroidism results in marginal erosions, especially over the distal
interphalangeal joint. The bones may demonstrate osteopenia with subperiosteal
resorption and cortical tunnelling. It may be associated with chondrocalcinosis
and periarticular soft tissue calcifications.
c) False Hyperparathyroidism may result in medullary nephrocalcinosis. Cortical
nephrocalcinosis is most frequently seen in acute cortical necrosis, chronic
glomerulonephritis and chronic transplant rejection. Other causes include
Alport's syndrome, congenital oxalosis, methylene glycol poisoning and AIDS.
6 a) True Discography is an invasive test, which is reserved for patients who fail
conservative treatment and where noninvasive diagnostic tests, such as magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI), fail to yield diagnostic information. The indications
for the test include negative MRI with recurrent and persistent symptoms,
positive MRI with multiple levels of disc disease but uncertain symptomatic
disc level, and recurrent symptoms following disc surgery-. The test is positive
if discogenic pain is reproduced by contrast injection,
b) False The- procedure is normally performed with the patient prone and the needle
inserted paramedially, 8 to 10 cm lateral to the midline, thus avoiding the dura,
c) False A normal disc takes up to 1-2 ml of contrast. Usually, 1 ml of nonionic contrast
medium is adequate.
d) True CT following discography increases detection and grading of annular tears
(radial, concentric and transverse.
e False Discography does not injure the disc. However, there is a small risk (1%)
of discitis following the procedure.
7 a) False Kienböck's disease (avascular necrosis of the lunate) is associated with

a short ulna.
h1 False Osteochondritis dissecans is more frequently seen over the lateral aspect
of the medial femoral condyle. It is bilateral in up to 30% of cases,
c False Freiberg's disease is typically unilateral and, unlike almost all other
osteochondritides, is more common in females. It typically affects
the head of the second metatarsal.
d) True Widening of the joint space (Waldenstrom sign) occurs early in Perthes disease,
e True SONK typically occurs over the medial femoral condyle. It can also affect
the medial tibial plateau.
90
8 a) False It has an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance.

b) True The syndrome is characterised by multiple basal cell carcinomas and multiple
jaw cysts (dentigerous cysts). Ectopic calcifications, such as that in the falx cerebri,
are a feature. There is also an association with skeletal abnormalities, such
as bifid ribs, block vertebrae, scoliosis and Sprengel's deformity of the scapula.
c) True
d) False The incidence of brain tumours is not increased, unlike in Turcot syndrome,
which is the association of colonic polyposis with central nervous system tumours
such as supratentorial glioblastoma.
e) True
9 a False
b) True
c) False
d) False
e) True
Osteopetrosis and hypoparathyroidism are associated with thickening of the
lamina dura of the teeth. Cushing's syndrome, Paget's disease and scleroderma
cause loss of the lamina dura of the teeth, as do hyperparathyroidism,
osteoporosis, osteomalacia, leukaemia, metastases and Langerhans'
cell histiocytosis.
10 a) False Langerhans' cell histiocytosis results from an altered immune response. It affects
children and young adults and is more common in males. Localised disease
affecting a single bone is more common than disseminated disease. Long bones,
the pelvis, vertebrae and the skull vault are common sites. A periosteal reaction
may be seen.
b) True Lesions in the skull typically have a bevelled edge, giving a ‘hole-in-a-hole‘
or ‘button sequestrum' appearance.
c) False Radiographs are more sensitive than radionuclide bone scans, which may
be negative in up to 35% of cases.
d) False Lesions are usually diaphyseal, but may involve the epiphyses,
e) False Langerhans' cell histiocytosis typically affects the vertebral bodies with sparing
of the intervertebral discs and posterior elements. The collapse of a vertebral
body results in Vertebra plana'.
11 a) True juvenile chronic arthritis occurs most frequently in children aged 1-5 years.
Extra-articular manifestations arc common and are frequently the presenting
symptoms. The majority are negative for rheumatoid factor. The disease can
result in overgrowth or undergrowth of the epiphyses and epiphyseal
compression fractures.
b) False Bony ankylosis frequently affects the carpal and tarsal bones in juvenile chronic
arthritis. Ankylosis is less frequently encountered in rheumatoid arthritis.
c) False Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, where joint space narrowing and bony erosions
occur early, these features tend to occur late in juvenile chronic arthritis.
d) True Periarticular periostitis is common, especially affecting the phalanges.
e) True
91
12 a) True Technetium-99m diphosphonate bone scans are usually normal or show

diminished uptake. Bone scintigraphy is insensitive in the detection of bone
lesions, especially in the skull.
b) True About 80% of patients have abnormal radiographs at presentation. The range
of abnormality includes osteopenia, sharply defined focal bone lucencies,
vertebral collapse, expansile bone lesions, permeative change and sclerotic
foci (2%). Sites of involvement include vertebrae (66%), ribs (45%), skull (40%),
shoulder (40%), pelvis (30%) and the long bones (25%).
c) True POEMS syndrome is a rare multisystem disorder of obscure pathogenesis
characterised by polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy of various
forms, production of a monoclonal component and skin changes. This
syndrome occurs in only about 1% of plasmacytoma cases, but in more
than 50% of the rare osteosclerotic subtypes and plasma cell dyscrasias.
d) False Unlike bony metastases, which rarely affect the mandible, involvement
of the mandible is not unusual in myeloma.
e) True MRI of the spine shows abnormality in 50% of patients with normal radiographs.
Some centres now routinely use MRI in the staging of myeloma. Patients with
marrow infiltrates on MRI have an increased risk of early disease progression.
MRI is also the imaging modality of choice for suspected epidural involvement
and for the assessment of the response of vertebral lesions to treatment.
13 a) True There is an association with bilateral retinoblastoma and pineoblastoma.

b) True The incidence is increased in patients with osteopetrosis, Paget's disease and
prior radiotherapy. The peak incidence is at age 15-20 years. About 75%
of cases arise in the metaphyseal region of the distal femur or proximal tibia.
c) True Telangiectatic osteosarcomas (5%) are aggressive high-grade tumours with
little osteoid formation in the matrix, and hence appear completely osteolytic.
Pathological fractures are common. Fluid-fluid levels are typically seen
on CT or MRI.
d) False Metastatic spread is haematogenous, as bones lack a lymphatic system.
The lungs are the most frequent sites, although bones may be involved.
Lymphadenopathy occurs late in the disease and is a poor prognostic sign,
e) True Parosteal osteosarcoma accounts for 4-5% of all osteosarcomas. They develop
in the cortex of the bone, sparing the medulla, and grow circumferentially
around the bone. They are low-grade lesions and have the best prognosis.
The appearance may resemble myositis ossificans, although the presence
of peripheral calcifications in the mass and a clear plane of separation
from the underlying bone favour the latter.
92
14 a) False Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma (24% of
cases), occurring in the extremities, craniofacial region and the retroperitoneum.
Three main histological subtypes exist: storiform/pleomorphic (most common),
myxoid and inflammatory. Coarse calcifications occur in up to 16% of cases,
usually in the storiform/pleomorphic subtype.
b) True Liposarcoma occurs most frequently between 40 and 60 years of age. rive main
histological subtypes are recognised: well-differentiated, myxoid, round-cell,
pleomorphic and de-differentiated. Myxoid liposarcomas contain gelatinous
material and consequently may appear cystic and near water density on CT.
Well-differentiated tumours typically contain visible fat.
c) True Synovial sarcomas affect adults aged 20-40 years. Although they tend to arise
near a joint, bursa or tendon sheath, the tissue of origin is not synovium but
undifferentiated mesenchyme. About 30% contain calcifications, which denote
a more favourable prognosis. Haemorrhage may be present in up to 40% and
a fluid-fluid level in 20% of cases. Unlike many soft tissue sarcomas, nodal
spread is common and is observed in up to 20% of cases at diagnosis.
d) True Leiomyosarcomas frequently appear heterogeneous with a central necrosis.
About 40% of patients have metastases at the time of diagnosis. Three patterns
of growth have been described: completely extravascular, completely
intravascular, and mixed extravascular and intravascular.
e) False Although a large size (greater than 5 cm), loss of the target sign on T2-weighted
MRI and irregularity suggest a malignant tumour, differentiation from benign
neurofibroma is difficult. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours are
high-grade tumours, which frequently metastasise (65% of cases) and have
a propensity to recur following resection
15 All true Extramedullary haemopoiesis occurs when there is diminished or abnormal

marrow haemopoietic activity This occurs in various haematological conditions,
such as thalassaemia, sickle cell anaemia and myelofibrosis, Extramedullary
haemopoiesis occurs in a variety of sites including the lymph nodes, spleen,
gastrointestinal tract and falx cerebri.
16 a) False The condition is most common in Caucasians. The incidence is three-fold

greater in men than in women and 95% of patients are HLA B27 positive.
b) True The axial skeleton is involved in most cases. Sacroiliitis is typically bilateral
and symmetrical. Involvement of the appendicular skeleton is less common
(10-20% of cases). The temporomandibular joint may rarely be affected.
c) False Iritis occurs in up to 25% of patients and is more frequently encountered
in those with a peripheral arthropathy.
d) True Atlanto-axial subluxation may result due to laxity of the transverse ligament
from synovitis.
e) False There is an increased incidence of aortic incompetence (5%) due to aortitis.
About 1% of patients develop bilateral upper lobe pulmonary fibrosis.
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17 a) False
b) True
c) False
d) False
e) True
Apart from trauma and infection, the two main groups of causes are congenital
and the arthritides. Congenital causes include: Down's syndrome. Marfan’s
syndrome, Morquio's disease, spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, chondrodysplasia
punctata and pseudoachondroplasia. Arthritic causes include: rheumatoid
arthritis, juvenile chronic arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis,
systemic lupus erythematosus, gout/pseudogout, Reiter's syndrome (rare)
and Behcet’s syndrome (rare).
18 a) True Aneurysmal hone cysts occur In growing bones in patients aged 10 to 30 years
and are more common in females.
b) True Lesions occur in the unfused metaphysis of long bones, or in the metaphysis
and epiphysis of bones after fusion; 20-30% occur within the spine and up
to 25% affect two contiguous vertebral bodies. Lesions are typically expansile
and the thin but intact cortex may be difficult to discern. On CT, fluid-fluid
levels are typically seen within the lesion.
c) True Up to one third of cases are associated with an underlying bone abnormality,
such as a giant cell tumour.
d) False Aneurysmal bone cysts show increased blood pooling activity on bone scintigraphy.
e) False Patients are usually symptomatic at presentation, complaining of pain and swelling.
19 a) True Congenital dislocation of the hips is eight times more common in females
It is most common amongst Caucasians.
b) True Oligohydramnios is a risk factor. Other risk factors include breech presentation,
a prior family history, foot deformities, skull-moulding deformities and
congenital torticollis.
c) True Two thirds of cases occur in the firstborn child.
d) False Two thirds of cases are unilateral. The left side is more frequently affected
than the right-
e) False Secondary osteoarthritis is typically not apparent until 40-60 years of age.
20 a) True Females have an earlier onset of disease, but a poorer prognosis. However,
the disease is more common in males.
b) True Bilateral disease is more common in males. However, involvement is rarely
synchronous or symmetrical.
c) False There is no increased incidence in families. However, there is reportedly
an associated increased incidence of cardiac abnormality, pyloric stenosis,
renal abnormality and Undescended testes.
d) False Poor prognostic factors include the female sex. an older onset of disease,
metaphyseal in vehement, a greater degree of epiphyseal involvement
(Caterell's grade III or VI) and uncovering of the lateral femoral neck.
e True Coxa magna is a late sequela «•! the disease and h typified In a remodelled
femoral head, which is wider and flatter with a mushroom configuration.
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21 a) True A convex posterior border suggests underlying vertebral infiltration, especially

when associated with epidural compression. Other signs in favour of metastatic
infiltration include complete replacement of marrow signal in the vertebral body
and extension of abnormal signal into the pedicles/posterior elements.
b) True
c) False Both osteoporotic and metastatic vertebral body fractures can result in high
T2-weighted and low T1-weighted signal acutely. Follow-up MRI 6 weeks after
trauma may be useful to look for a return towards normal marrow signal within
the vertebra, which would suggest a benign aetiology.
d) False The presence of cord compression alone does not necessarily indicate
a malignant cause.
e) True Tumour infiltration typically causes a greater limitation in diffusion compared
with osteoporotic collapse.
22 a) False From early childhood, the conversion of red to yellow marrow proceeds rapidly,
beginning with the peripheral appendicular skeleton and progressing centrally.
In adults, red marrow is normally localised to the axial skeleton and proximal
femora and humeri.
b) True Marrow reconversion proceeds from the axial to the appendicular skeleton.
c) False Marrow infiltration is usually best detected on T1-weighted images, as the low
signal infiltrates are easily discernible against the high signal of the fatty marrow.
d) True In-phase and out-of-phase imaging may be helpful in distinguishing an area
of marrow infiltration from normal fat-containing marrow.
e) True Myelofibrosis typically affects the marrow in a widespread but
patchy distribution.
23 a) True Several large MRI studies have found the- negative predictive value greater
than 90% for meniscal tear. MRI has a slightly higher sensitivity and specificity
for medial compared with Literal meniscal tear.
b) False A bucket-handle tear of the medial meniscus results in the double posterior
cruciate ligament sign due to medial displacement of the meniscal fragment.
c) True Meniscocapsular separation may be suggested when this is seen within the
medial joint compartment. However, this is not necessarily true when the
same is observed in the lateral compartment of the knee. The diagnosis
is best made on arthroscopy.
d) False The classic bone-bruising pattern results from anterior subluxation of tlx- tibia.
There is marrow oedema within the anterior aspect of the Literal femoral
condyle immediately adjacent to the anterior horn of the lateral meniscus
and in the posterolateral tibial plateau. There is frequently an associated
medial meniscal tear.
e) True Irregularity of the Hoffa's fat pad is an early sign of synovitis in rheumatoid arthritis.
95
24 a) True MRI arthrography is increasingly used to evaluate shoulder instability. Typically,

10-12 ml of contrast containing Gd-DTPA in a dilution of 1:200 is administered
intra-articularly under fluoroscopic guidance.
b) True The superior glenohumeral ligament comprises bands of thickened joint capsule
and is the most consistently identified capsular ligament. It can arise from the
anterosuperior labrum, the attachment of the long head of the biceps tendon
or even the middle glenohumeral ligament. It is best seen on axial images,
at or just above the level of the long head of the biceps tendon,
c) False Absence of the anterosuperior labrum is associated with cord-like thickening
of the middle glenohumeral ligament (Bufford complex). It occurs in 1.5%
of individuals.
d) True The inferior glenohumeral ligament consists of an anterior and posterior band,
with the axillary recess lying between the two.
e)True MRI with the shoulder in abduction and external rotation (ABER position)
improves the detection of anterior labral tears and superior labral
anterior posterior (SLAP) lesions.
25 a) False The anterior talofibular ligament is the most common ligament injured, follows!
by the calcaneofibular ligament, then the posterior talofibular ligament.
b) False The anterior talofibular ligament is best visualised on axial images.
c) False Rupture of the Achilles tendon usually occurs 2-6 cm above its insertion onto the
calcaneum. Rupture of the tendon at its insertion is uncommon and is associated
with Haglund's deformity- (prominent posterosuperior calcaneal tuberosity -.
d) False Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, this condition is usually unilateral.
e) True Morton s neuroma arises from a plantar digital nerve It is more common
in females, frequently located between the heads of the third and fourth
metatarsals. The mass typically appears low-to-intermediate signal on both
T1-weighted and T2-weighted imaging, attributed to the presence of fibrous
tissue. Mild but variable enhancement occurs following intravenous gadolinium.
26 a) True
b) False
c) True
d) True
c) True
The ultrasonographic signs of a full thickness rotator cuff tear include
non-visualisation or absence of the cuff tissue, a full thickness hypoechoic
defect, focal thinning in the cuff, fluid in the subacromial-subdeltoid bursa,
loss of the normal convexity of the cuff contour, exposure and visualisation
of the underlying hyaline cartilage, and the ability to compress the deltoid
muscle against the humeral head.
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27 a) True The roots of the brachial plexus are derived from the anterior divisions of the
spinal nerves of C5 to T1. The C5 and C6 roots combine to form the upper
trunk, the C8 and T1 roots form the lower trunk and the middle trunk is derived
from the C7 root. The three cords (lateral, medial and posterior) are derived
from the anterior and posterior divisions of the trunks.
b) True The brachial plexus is well seen on axial and coronal images, but the cords are
best demonstrated in relation to the subclavian artery in the oblique sagittal plane.
c) True Radiation fibrosis appears as diffuse thickening and enhancement of the brachial
plexus without a focal mass. The soft tissue abnormality typically appears low
signal on both T1-weighted and T2-weighted images.
d) False Both radiation fibrosis and tumour infiltration can show enhancement
following intravenous gadolinium-DTPA. The presence of a mass that is low
signal on T1-weighted and high signal on T2-weighted images is more
suggestive of a tumour.
e) True There is overlap in the MRI features of benign and malignant neural tumours.
Findings in favour of a malignant tumour include a large size (greater than 5 cm),
irregular margins and internal heterogeneity.
28 a) True The normal median nerve appears hyperintense to muscle. Hence, the diagnosis
of carpal tunnel syndrome should be made on a combination of signs: enlargement
of the nerve proximal to the transverse carpal ligament, flattening of the median
nerve, increased signal intensity and volar bulging of the flexor retinaculum.
b) False These ligaments arc best visualised in the coronal planes. The ulnolunate, lunate
and ulnotriquetral ligaments, although not consistently seen, are best visualised
on sagittal images.
c) False Tenosynovitis usually affects the tendons of the flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi
radialis, abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis (de Quervain’s
disease) muscles, and also the tendon of extensor carpi ulnaris.
d) True The ulnar tunnel (Guyon's tunnel), which transmits the ulnar artery and nerve,
lies superficial to the flexor retinaculum, closely related to the hook of hamate
bone and the pisiform bone. A ganglion cyst within the ulnar tunnel usually
causes ulnar nerve impingement.
e) False Unlike degenerative tears, traumatic tears of the triangular fibrocartilage
frequently occur within 1-2 mm of its radial attachment.
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29 a) False The elbow is typically imaged with the patient supine with the arm at the side.
The prone position may be adopted with the arm extended overhead.
b) True Osteochondritis dissecans most commonly affects the capitellum within the
elbow. The anterior capitellum is frequently involved and should be distinguished
from the pseudodefect (normal finding) that occurs posterolaterally. MRI is useful
for staging of the abnormality.
c) True Rupture of the distal biceps tendon is more common in men. Complete rupture
of the tendon from its insertion on the radial tuberosity is most common,
d) True The ulnar nerve is well scon on axial MRI as it courses through the cubital tunnel.
The roof of the tunnel is formed by the cubital tunnel retinaculum. Thickening
of the retinaculum results in entrapment of the nerve during elbow flexion.
MRI features of neuritis and entrapment include swelling and enlargement
of the proximal nerve and increased T2-weighted signal,
e) True Hence, MRI of the elbow should be performed prior to any intra-articular
or periarticular steroid injections.
30 a) True Percutaneous vertebroplasty may be performed using PMMA for vertebral

haemangiomas, or malignant or osteoporotic vertebral collapse. Injection
of this cement material stabilises the spine leading to alleviation of pain.
b) False Percutaneous lumbar discectomy can be performed in patients whose disc-
herniations are contained behind the annulus or the posterior longitudinal
ligament. The likelihood of success with a sequestrated disc is low.
c) True Ablation of an osteoid osteoma can be successfully achieved by removal
of the central nidus with a trephine biopsy needle under CT guidance.
d) False Intraosseous injection of methylprednisolone acetate may be used in the
treatment of simple bone cysts. Injection of Ethibloc can be utilised in the
treatment of both simple and aneurysmal bone cysts,
e True Removal of the hydroxyapatite crystals can improve the night pain experienced
by these patients. Aspiration of the calcium deposit is usually followed with
an in situ injection of corticosteroid.
31 a) False The majority of osteoid osteomas in the spine (75% of cases) are located
within the posterior elements (pedicles, articular facets and laminae). Only
7% are within vertebral bodies. Patients present with a painful scoliosis,
with the pain typically being worst at night and relieved by salicylates.
b) False Osteoblastoma affects the posterior elements in 55% of cases, with extension
into the vertebral body in 45% of cases. However, isolated involvement
of the vertebral body is rare. Unlike osteoid osteoma, the pain produced
by osteoblastoma is usually' dull and may be associated with neurological
symptoms, such as paraesthesia and paraparesis.
c) True The sacrum is the most common site of involvement followed by the vertebral
bodies of the thoracic, cervical and lumbar spine. There is usually bony
expansion. In the sacrum, extension across the sacroiliac joint is not unusual,
d/ False The thoracic spine is the most common site of involvement, followed by
the lumbar and cervical segments. Involvement of the sacrum is rare.
e( False Chordoma of the sacrum presents as a destructive lesion, usually at the level
of S4 or S5, centred on the midline, without bony expansion, and associated
with a soft tissue mass that frequently calcifies. The tumour can sometimes
cross the intervertebral disc space or the sacroiliac joint.
90
32 a) True Atlanto-occipital dislocation is usually a fatal injury. The diagnosis is frequently

missed and CT is frequently needed to make a confident diagnosis. Nevertheless,
the diagnosis should be suspected in traumatised patients with findings
of brainstem injury.
b) True A severe axial load to the upper thoracic spine can result in a fracture of the
sternum, with posterior displacement of the upper fracture fragment. This pattern
of injury is called an indirect sternal fracture and is associated with thoracic spine
injury. Fractures of posterolateral and posteromedial ribs, with or without associated
costovertebral dislocation, are also indirect signs of thoracic spinal injury.
c) False This is uncommon, occurring in 7%-16% of cases. It is more common in patients
with a burst fracture that is associated with neurological deficit and laminae fracture.
d) True The normal scapholunate angle measures 30-60O. Disruption of the
scapholunate angle allows the scaphoid to rotate volar and the lunate dorsal
resulting in widening of the angle (greater than 80°). This is also seen in dorsal
intercalated segmental instability (DISI). Values less than 30° are seen in ventral
intercalated segmental instability (VISI).
e) False Epiphyseal plate injuries are rarely encountered in nonaccidental trauma.
33 a) False Although the disease predominantly affects the synovial joints, cartilaginous joints
such as the symphysis pubis and manubriosternal joint may also be involved.
b) False The atlanto-axial joint is commonly affected in up to 25% of cases.
c) True The inflamed joints are at increased risk of developing septic arthritis.
d) False Periostitis and periosteal reaction is unusual, occurring in less than 5% of cases,
e) False Amyloidosis is an uncommon complication.
34 a) False There is an equal incidence in males and females.

bt False Calcification is not a feature until Lite in the disease, although the periarticular
soft tissue may appear dense because of haemosiderin deposition. Unlike
pigmented villonodular synovitis, synovial sarcoma frequently exhibits
calcifications (33% of cases) and appears high signal on T2-weighted MRI
c) True Monoarticular involvement is usual (75% of cases), with the knee being
most frequently affected.
d) False Periarticular osteoporosis is unusual, hut may occur late in the disease,
e) True Pigmented villonodular synovitis causes well-defined erosions on either side
of the affected joint, often with sclerotic borders.
35 a) True Subperiosteal resorption of bone may occur in sarcoidosis,

mimicking hyperparathyroidism.
b) True Enlargement of the nutrient foramina is a feature of sarcoidosis,
c) True Patchy areas of bony sclerosis may also be observed.
d) False Bilateral symmetrical arthritis occurs. Soft tissue- swelling and periarticular
osteoporosis is common, but not periarticular erosions, which occur late
in the disease.
e) False Hypoplasia of the middle phalanx of the- little- linger occurs in Down's syndrome.
A short thumb occurs in myositis ossificans progressiva, Fanconi's anaemia
and Holt-Oram syndrome.
99
36 a) True Sclerotic bone metastases commonly result from carcinoma of the prostate,
breast, colon and stomach, lymphoma and carcinoid, and less frequently
from other tumours, such as lung, bladder, myeloma and pancreas.
b) True Expansile metastases are typically observed with renal cell and thyroid carcinoma,
phaeochromocytoma, myeloma and breast and bronchogenic carcinoma.
c) False The serum PSA and alkaline phosphatase levels are usually elevated.
d) False Retinoblastoma is a well-recognised cause of bone metastasis, especially
in children.
e) False Less than 5% of colorectal carcinoma results in bony metastases.
37 a) True Ribbon ribs are most frequently seen in NF and osteogenesis imperfecta.
b) True Short bulbous ribs ('paddle-Iike' ribs) are typical of achondroplasia.
c) False Takayasu’s arteritis results in inferior rib notching clue to dilatation
of the intercostal arteries.
d) False Fluorosis, myelofibrosis, mastocytosis and osteopetrosis result in sclerotic ribs,
e) True Fibrous dysplasia shows tracer uptake on radionuclide bone scan.
Rib involvement occurs in 30% of patients with fibrous dysplasia.
311 a) False Frostbite typically spares the thumb.

b) True
c) False Acro-osteolysis may occur congenitally in infants of epileptic mothers
with phenytoin toxicity.
d) True It may also result from other collagen vascular diseases, such as scleroderma,
systemic lupus erythematosus and Sjӧgren's syndrome,
e) True It may be caused by Lesch Nyhan syndrome as a result of repeated trauma
from self-mutilation.
39 a) True Metaphyseal corner fracture may be seen in scurvy and nonaccidental injuries
b) True Metaphyseal corner fracture results from a sudden twisting motion and is seen
in about 10% of cases of nonaccidental injuries, It is most common around
the knee, elbow, distal forearm and leg.
c) False Diaphyseal infarction occurs in sickle cell anaemia, but not thalassaemia.
c)) False Cubitus valgus, but not cubitus varus, occurs in 60% 70% of patients
with Turner's syndrome.
e) True Protrusio acetabuli is common in patients with Marfan's syndrome,
occurring in 40% of cases.
100
40 a) False
b) True
c) True
d) True
e) False
Erdheim-Chester disease is a xanthogranulomatous infiltrative disease of
unknown aetiology, with multisystemic: involvement. Long bones (lower limbs
more than upper limbs are typically affected in the skeletal system, and
involvement is usually symmetrical. There is usually sclerosis within the
diaphyses or metaphyses associated with cortical thickening or coarsening
of the trabeculae. There is usually sparing of the epiphyses and the axial
skeleton. The retroperitoneum and the kidney are frequently involved.
Involvement of the central nervous system results in diabetes insipidus,
cerebellar symptoms and orbital lesions. Pulmonary involvement occurs
in 20% of cases, resulting in upper lobe fibrosis. Pericardial effusion
and hepatosplenomegaly can also occur.
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102
Chapter 6
Neuroradiology
Neuroradiology
1 Regarding the normal central nervous system, which of the following are true?
a) The corpus callosum develops from the posterior to the anterior
b) The bones of the skull vault develop via intramembranous ossification
c) The conus is normally located at L2/3 at birth
d) On magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), the posterior lobe of the pituitary
is hyperintense on T1 -weighted imaging
e) A cavum septi pellucidi (CSP) is present in 5%-15% of adults
2 Which of the following are true concerning ultrasound of the central nervous
system (CNS)?
a) The biparietal diameter is measured in an axial plane at the level of the thalami
b) The normal cisterna magna is visualised in more than 90% of second trimester foetuses
c) Anencephaly should be identifiable in more than 95% of cases by 14 weeks gestational age
d) Choroid plexus cysts are seen in 20% of antenatal ultrasound scans
e) Acute subependymal germinal matrix haemorrhage appears hypoechoic
3 Concerning neuronal migration disorders, which of the following are true?

a) In Schizencephaly the deft is lined by mature white matter
b) The septum pellucidum is absent in 90% of cases of Schizencephaly
c) Agyria-pachygyria is seen in Zellweger syndrome
d) Nodular heterotopias do not enhance and are isointense to cortical grey matter
e) Polymicrogyria is most common around the sylvian fissure
4 Which of the following are true of Holoprosencephaly?

a) It results from absence of the supraclinoid internal carotid artery (ICA) system
b) Trisomy 13 is the most common associated chromosomal abnormality
c) The septum pellucidum can be seen in the lobar subtype
d) The falx cerebri may be seen anteriorly in the semilobar type
e) The cerebellum is structurally normal in the alobar type
5 Regarding the Dandy-Walker malformation, which of the following are true?

a) The posterior fossa is abnormally small
b) The floor of the fourth ventricle is present
c) The vermian remnant is inferiorly displaced
d) Obstructive hydrocephalus occurs in about 80°% of cases
e) There is an association with polydactyly
6 Regarding Chiari malformations, which of the following are true?

a) The Chiari I malformation is associated with myelomeningoceles
b) In the Chiari II malformation, the fourth ventricle has an increased
antero-posterior diameter
c) The foramen magnum is typically small in the Chiari II malformation
d) The lacunar skull changes of the Chiari II malformation tend to diminish with age
e) Encephalocoeles are always present in the Chiari III malformation
104
7 Concerning the Sturge-Weber syndrome, which of the following are true?

a) The inheritance is autosomal dominant
b) The cutaneous lesion is most common in the distribution of the ophthalmic nerve
c) The conical abnormalities arc usually contralateral to the cutaneous lesion
d) Ipsilateral choroid plexus atrophy is common
e) It is associated with Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome
8 Which of the following are true of central (type 2) neurofibromatosis (NF-2)?

a) The inherited cases are usually due to a defect on chromosome 17
b) Bilateral acoustic schwannomas alone allow a definite diagnosis of NF-2
c) The trigeminal nerve b the next most commonly involved nerve after the
eighth cranial nerve
d) There is an increased incidence of optic nerve gliomas
e) The most common spinal intramedullary tumour is an ependymoma
9 In tuberous sclerosis affecting the brain, which of the following are true?
a) Cortical tubers undergo neoplastic change
b) Cortical tubers enhance avidly
c) Giant cell astrocytomas develop in approximately 15% of cases
d) In adults, the heterotopic grey matter islands are hypointense on T2-weighted images
e) Subependymal nodules are seen in fewer than 50% of cas
10 Regarding colloid cysts of the third ventricle, which of the following are true?
a) They are usually present in childhood
b) They typically arise adjacent to the sylvian aqueduct
c) They are usually hypodense on unenhanced computed tomography (CT)
d) They centrally enhance after intravenous iodinated contrast medium
c) On T2-weighted MRI, they are typically hyperintense
11 Regarding arachnoid cysts and epidermoid cysts, which of the following are true?
a) The cerebellopontine angle (CPA) is the most common location for arachnoid cysts
b) The CPA is the most common location for epidermoid cysts
c) Arachnoid cysts are classically isointense to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) on all MRI sequences
d) Epidermoid cysts typically encase and engulf arteries and cranial nerves
e) Calcification is more common in epidermoid cysts
12 Regarding glioblastoma multiforme, which of the following are true?

a) It is the most common primary brain tumour
b) It has a peak incidence in the third and fourth decades
c) It is associated with NF-1
d) It is most commonly located in the grey matter of the- cerebral hemispheres
e) Classically, there is little peritumoural oedema
105
Neuroradiology
13 Regarding pituitary adenomas, which of the following are true?

a) Macroadenomas are defined as those causing mass effect
b) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)-secreting tumours are the
most common type of pituitary microadenoma
c) They calcify in less than 10% of cases
d) Microadenomas typically enhance more than the normal pituitary
e) They are histologically benign in more than 95% of cases
14 Which of the following are true regarding craniopharyngioma?

a) They are most common in the fifth and sixth decades of life
b) About 15% are malignant
c) Craniopharyngiomas are purely intrasellar in about 10% of cases
d) Visualisation of calcification makes the diagnosis unlikely
e) They are usually hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging
15 Concerning intracranial meningiomas, which of the following are true?

a I They are associated with NF-2
hi The intraventricular type is more common in children than adults
c) On CT, they are typically hyperdense and nonenhancing
d) On MRI, a dural tail is seen in 90% of cases
e) They are more likely to be benign if they give a high signal on T2-weighted imaging
16 Concerning medulloblastoma, which of the following are true?

a) There is an association with Gorlin's syndrome
b) About 75% of tumours occur in the first decade of life
c) They are more frequently midline in location in adults than in children
d) They are typically cystic, with an enhancing mural nodule
e) The liver is the most common metastatic site outside of the nervous system
17 Regarding acoustic neuromas, which of the following are true?

a) They most commonly originate from the cochlear division of the VIII nerve
b) Bilateral tumours are diagnostic of NF-1
c) They are usually isodense on unenhanced CT
d) On T2-weighted imaging, they are hyperintense and enhance avidly
after gadolinium administration
e) Approximately 10-30% show some degree of calcification on CT
18 Concerning intracranial metastases, which of the following are true?

a) In most series they account for more than 40% of intracranial tumours
b) They are most commonly located at the junction of the grey and white matter
c) About 75% of metastatic lesions are single when initially detected on imaging
d) Metastases from sarcomas arc rare
e) Small cell lung cancer metastasis within the medial temporal lobe is the most
common cause of limbic encephalitis
106
19 Calcification of the basal ganglia is a recognised finding in which of the following?

a) Hypoparathyroidism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) AIDS
d) Fahr's disease
e) Cockayne's syndrome
20 Which of the following are true of the basal ganglia?

a) The lentiform nucleus consists of the lateral putamen and medial globus pallidus
b) Copper deposition in Wilson's disease typically causes high-density basal ganglia
c) Low attenuation basal ganglia are seen in hypoglycaemia
d) On T1 -weighted imaging, hyperintense basal ganglia are seen in NF
e) On T2-weighted imaging, hypointense basal ganglia are seen in multiple sclerosis
21 Regarding granulomatous disease of the CNS, which of the following are true?
a) The most common CNS manifestation of tuberculosis is a tuberculoma
b) In adults, tuberculomas occur most commonly in the cerebral hemispheres
and basal ganglia
c) Clinical involvement of the CNS occurs in less than 10% of patients with sarcoidosis
d) Granulomatous meningitis is seen in coccidioidomycosis
e) Granulomatous angiitis preferentially affects small vessels
22 Which of the following are true of herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE)?

a) It is the most common nonepidemic cause of viral encephalitis
b) In neonates, it is usually caused by herpes simplex vims type 2 (HSV-2)
c) Adult infection classically affects the limbic system bilaterally and symmetrically
d) The basal ganglia tend to be spared in adult HSE
e) Enhancement on CT persisting beyond 28 days indicates treatment failure
23 Concerning the neuroimaging of patients with AIDS, which of the following are true?
a) HIV encephalopathy (HIVE) results from an opportunistic infection
b) The imaging findings in HIVE may improve after protease inhibitor treatment
c) Progressive multifocal encephalopathy (PML) spires subcortical white matter
d) Toxoplasmosis is more likely than lymphoma if the lesions are multifocal
e) Basal ganglia involvement in cryptococcosis is unusual
24 Which of the following are true of multiple sclerosis?

a) Infratentorial plaques are more common in children than adults
b) CT scans are normal in approximately 20% of cases
c) Most foci demonstrated on MRI are clinically silent
d) Acute plaques of demyelination enhance for up to 8 weeks on MRI
e) In the spine, it has a predilection for the thoracic region
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Neuroradiology
25 Regarding the leukodystrophies, which of the following are true?

a) Demyelination in adrenoleukodystrophy is usually first seen in the occipital lobes
b) Macrocephaly is typical of Canavan's disease
c) Metachromatic leukodystrophy is the most common inherited leukodystrophy
d) Classically, on CT, low-density basal ganglia are seen in Krabbe's disease
e) Enhancement following contrast administration is seen in Alexander's disease
26 Which of the following are true of intracranial aneurysms?

a) The incidence of saccular (berry) aneurysms is increased in aortic coarctation
b) Saccular aneurysms are multiple in approximately 50% of cases
c) Giant (larger than 2. 5 cm) saccular aneurysms usually present following
a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)
d) Fusiform aneurysms typically affect the anterior circulation
e) Mycotic aneurysms are usually found in vessels distal to the circle of Willis
27 Which of the following are true of SAH?

a) No underlying cause can be identified in 5%-15% of cases
b) MRI is more sensitive than CT in the first 48 hours
c) Only 50% of all SAHs remain visible on CT scans performed 1 week after the event
d) SAH with an interhemispheric main clot suggests a bleed from an aneurysm
of the anterior cerebral artery (ACA)
e) Repeated SAHs classically cause meninges that are hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging
28 Regarding intracranial vascular malformations, which of the following are true?

a) Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) are multiple in 30% of cases
b) More than 70% of AVMs ultimately receive their blood supply from the internal
cerebral artery
c) Capillary telangiectasia is most common in the pons and cerebellum
d) Cavernous haemangiomas have a characteristic low signal rim on T2-weighted imaging
c) Vein of Galen varices secondary to a thalamic AVM typically present in neonates
29 Concerning intracranial haematoma, which of the following are true?

a) An underlying skull fracture is detected in 85%-95% of epidural haematomata
b) An underlying skull fracture is detected in more than 30% of subdural haematomata
c) Hypertensive haemorrhage is most common in lobar white matter
d) Oxyhaemoglobin is isointense on T1-weighted imaging and hyperintense
on T2-weighted imaging
e) Haemosiderin is hypo intense on T1-weighted and T2-weighted imaging
30 Regarding head trauma, which of the following are true?

a) Diffuse axonal injury is most commonly seen at lobar grey-white matter junctions
b) Cerebral contusions are multiple in 70% of cases
c) Post-traumatic diffuse cerebral oedema is more common in adults than children
d) Post-traumatic extracranial ICA dissections commonly involve the bulb region
e) Traumatic SAH is typically less extensive than when secondary to an aneurysm
108
31 Which of the following statements about nonglial tumours are true?

a) Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumours are most common in white matter
b) Gangliogliomas undergo cystic change in 30-50% of cases
c) A pineal germinoma is usually slightly hypodense on unenhanced CT
d) A pineoblastoma typically contains a central foci of fat
e) Primitive neuroectodermal tumours (PNET) usually enhance avidly on CT
32 Which of the following are more typical of thyroid eye disease than
orbital pseudotumour?
a) Bilateral disease
b) Involvement of the muscular tendons
c) The presence of proptosis
d) Enlargement of the lacrimal gland
e) A marked response to steroids
33 Within the orbit, which of the following are true?

a) Orbital melanoma is classically hyperintense on T1-weighted and T2-weighted MRI
b) Norrie's disease is associated with persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV)
c) Coats’ disease typically presents in males aged 6-8 years
d) About 80% of optic nerve gliomas occur in the first decade of life
e) About 90% of capillary haemangiomas are associated with a skin angioma
34 Which of the following are true of retinoblastoma?

a) Approximately one third of cases are hereditary
b) The non hereditary type usually presents before the ago of 5 years
c) Calcification is seen in less than 50% of cases
d( The optic nerve is involved in 25% of cases
e) On MRI, the tumour is distinctly hypointense on T2-weighted imaging
35 Concerning infections of the spine, which of the following arc true?

a) Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of infectious spondylitis
b) Pyogenic spondylitis is most common in the thoracic spine
C) In pyogenic spondylitis the intervertebral disc is typically high signal
d) Paraspinal soft-tissue changes are characteristically minimal in tuberculous spondylitis
e) Brucella spondylitis has a predilection for the cervical spine
36 Regarding spinal tumours, which of the following are true?

a) Approximately 50% of chordomas are located in the sacrum
b) Ependymomas are typically hypointense to the spinal cord on T1 -weighted imaging
c) Spinal astrocytomas are most commonly located in the cervicothoracic region
d) Spinal meningiomas calcify less frequently than intracranial meningiomas
e) Most vertebral body haemangiomas give a high signal on T1 - and T2-weighted imaging
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Neuroradiology
37 Which of the following are true of diastematomyelia?

a) The two hemicords share a thecal sac in approximately 50% of cases
b) An osseous spur is seen on CT in more than 80% of cases
c) There is no association with the Chiari II malformation
d) The cleft is located below T9 in 85% of cases
e) In 75% of cases, the conus medullaris lies below L2
38 Posterior vertebral scalloping occurs in which of the following?

a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Hurler's syndrome
c) Down's syndrome
d) Achondroplasia
e) Hypothyroidism
39 Which of the following are classical associations?

a) Coronal cleft vertebral bodies and chondrodysplasia punctata
b) Central anterior vertebral body beaks and Hurler's syndrome
c) Diffuse platyspondyly and osteogenesis imperfecta
d) A solitary ivory vertebral body and Hodgkin's disease
e) Klippel-Feil syndrome and deafness
40 Which of the following statements are true regarding trauma to the spinal cord?
a) Cord damage is unusual in the Jefferson (vertical compression! fracture of the axis
b) The flexion teardrop fracture is a stable injury
c) Chance fractures are most common at L2 and L3
d) In acute trauma to the spinal cord, areas of hypointensity on T2-weighted imaging
imply a poor prognosis
e) Nerve root avulsions are most common in the thoracic spine
110
Answers
1 a) False The corpus callosum develops from front to back (anterior to posterior), except
for the rostrum, which develops last. Therefore, isolated agenesis of the anteriorly
positioned genu, unlike the rostrum or splenium, is very rare.
b) True Hence, the bones of the skull vault are involved in cleidocranial dysostosis,
but are spared in achondroplasia.
c) True The conus is located at L4/5 at 16 weeks gestational age and at L1/2 at more
than 3 months of age. Location of the conus at or below L3 in an adult is
suggestive of a tethered cord.
d) True This is felt to be secondary to neurosecretory vesicles, which pass down
to the posterior pituitary from the hypothalamus. The posterior lobe of the
pituitary is isointense on T1-weighted imaging in 10% of cases. An absent
T1 high signal is associated with central diabetes insipidus and compressive
anterior pituitary lesions.
e) True CSP is a Midline CSF cavity within the septum pellucidum. It is present in
80% of term infants. Rarely, it may enlarge and cause hydrocephalus. In the
absence of a CSP a septum pellucidum larger than 3 mm is suggestive of
an infiltrating neoplasm. Cavum vergae is a posterior extension of CSP
and is seen in 30% of term infants.
2 a) True The biparietal diameter is measured from the outer edge of the near-field
calvarial table to the inner edge of the far-field calvarial table. It is used
from 12 weeks gestational age, but is less reliable in the third trimester.
b) True The cisterna magna normally measures 3-10 mm deep. If seen, it almost
completely excludes underlying spina bifida. It can be obliterated in
Arnold-Chiari malformation when the cerebellum wraps around the posterior
brain stem (the 'banana sign').
c) True Much earlier diagnosis is difficult, as the normal skull does not ossify until
about 14 weeks gestational age. Ultrasound shows symmetrical absence
of the bony calvarium, a cranial soft tissue mass, bulging frog-like eyes
and polyhydramnios in about 50% of cases.
d) False They' are seen in up to 4% of antenatal ultrasound scans (50% at autopsy).
They frequently resolve spontaneously, but can be associated with
trisomy 18 and 21, triploidy and Klinefelter's syndrome,
c! False Acutely it is echogenic, but after 2-3 weeks the echogenicity decreases
(starting centrally). It may completely resolve or leave a residual cyst.
More than 90% of germinal matrix bleeds occur by the sixth day of life
(35% on day 1). The most common site of germinal matrix haemorrhage is
around the caudothalamic notch. Ultrasound sensitivity is more than 90% for
larger than 5 mm bleeds and less than 30% if the bleed is smaller than 5 mm.
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Neuroradiology
3 a) False lt is lined by heterotopic grey matter, indicating that the cleft forms before the end
of the period of neuronal migration (compare this with acquired porencephaly),
which for the cerebral cortex lasts 8-16 weeks gestational age,
b) True Less commonly, the corpus callosum is absent.
c) True It is also seen in Miller Dicker and Norman Roberts syndromes.
d) True Nodular heterotopias are unlike the subependymal nodules seen in tuberous
sclerosis, which can enhance or calcify and are not always precisely iso intense
to grey matter.
e) True Localised changes are more common than generalised changes and often
invoke arterial territory's, especially the middle cerebral artery.
4 a) False This abnormality results in Hydranencephaly, in which there is no anterior

cerebral mantle or facial anomaly and the falx cerebri and thalami are normal.
b) True
c) False
d) False
e) True
b-e) Holoprosencephaly results from partial/complete lack of cleavage of the
developing forebrain and is divided into three types: alobar, semilobar and
lobar. The alobar type is most severe and is characterised by fused cerebral
hemispheres with an anterior cup-shaped brain, a single monoventricle, fused
thalami and absent corpus callosum, fornix, optic tracts and olfactory bulbs
(the midbrain, brain stem and cerebellum are normal). The semilobar type is of
intermediate severity and is characterised by partial cleavage into hemispheres,
monoventricles with rudimentary occipital and temporal horns. The falx cerebri
may be present posteriorly and the thalami arc variably fused. The lobar type is
the least severe and is characterised by lateral ventricles that are almost normal,
but frontal horns point inferiorly and may be 'squared'. The septum pellucidum
is absent in all three subtypes. The incidence is equal in males and females
and is associated with: chromosome abnormalities (trisomy 13 and 18 are
most common), polyhydramnios (60%), and renal and cardiac anomalies.
Facial anomalies are also common, ranging from cyclopia to hypotelorism,
and they usually correlate with the severity of the brain abnormality. Septo-optic
dysplasia (absence of the septum pellucidum and hypoplastic anterior optic
pathways) may be considered a mild form of lobar holoprosencephaly.
5 a) False Cystic dilatation and posterior extension of the fourth ventricle lead to an
enlarged posterior fossa with a high tentorium, straight sinus and torcular
herophili. In the Dandy-Walker variant, the posterior fossa is normal size.
b) True The fourth ventricle opens dorsally between the separated and hypoplastic
cerebellar hemispheres. The pons maybe hyperplastic or anteriorly displaced.
c) False The vermian remnant is superiorly displaced. There is an association with
hypoplasia and aplasia (total in 25% and partial in 75%) of the cerebellar vermis.
d) True An associated CNS abnormality is seen in 70% of cases of Dandy Walker
malformation: callosal dysgenesis (20%-25%), holoprosencephaly (25%),
grey matter heterotopias or syringomyelia.
e) True Other non-CNS associations include Klippel Feil syndrome, Cornelia de Lange
syndrome, deft palate and cardiac anomalies.
112
6 a) False The Chiari I malformation is characterised by displacement of the cerebellar

tonsils below the foramen magnum (more than 5 mm). The Chiari II
malformation Is associated with myelomeningocele In more than 95% of cases.
b) False The Chiari II malformation is characterised by a small posterior fossa with
a caudally displaced brain stem, which results in a small fourth ventricle
that is vertically elongated with a narrowed antero -posterior diameter.
c) False The foramen magnum is enlarged, as is the upper spinal canal in 75% of cases.
d) True Lacunar skull (lückenschädel) occurs In 85% of cases, is most prominent at birth
and near the torcular herophili and largely disappears by 0 months of age.
e) True The rare Chiari III type is the association of a low occipital/high cervical
encephalocoele with a Chiari II malformation. Death in Infancy is usual.
7 a) False
b) True
c) False
d) False
e) True
This sporadically occurring phakomatosis is characterised by capillary venous
angiomas involving the face and the ipsilateral eye, and leptomeninges. Other
features include: seizures, mental retardation, ipsilateral glaucoma, choroidal
haemangiomata, buphthalmos, contralateral hemiparesis and, rarely, angiomatous
malformations of the intestines, kidneys, spleen, ovaries and lungs. The
intracranial lesions are most common in the parietal occipital lobes, occasionally
the frontal lobes, and, rarely, the posterior fossa. Cortical calcification is unusual
before the age of 2 years. Ipsilateral choroid plexus enlargement, vault thickening,
and prominence of the paranasal sinuses and mastoid air cells can be seen.
8 a) False About 50% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner secondary
to a deletion from the long arm of chromosome 22 (50% are spontaneous
mutations). Chromosome 17 defects can lead to NF-1.
b) True It can also be diagnosed if there is a first-degree relative with NF-2, plus either
a single acoustic schwannoma or any two of schwannoma, glioma, neurofibroma,
meningioma, or juvenile posterior subcapsular lens opacity. NF-2 causes lesions
of Schwann cells and meninges (e.g. schwannomas and meningiomas), whereas
NF-1 causes lesions of neurons and astrocytes.
c) True Isolated schwannomas can occur in other cranial nerves, except for optic
and olfactory nerves, which are really brain tracts and lack Schwann cells.
d) False In NF-1, but not NF-2, optic nerve gliomas are seen in 5% 15% of patients.
e) True Conversely, in NF-1, an intramedullary lesion is more likely to be a low-grade
astrocytoma. Other NF-1 spinal lesions include neurofibromas and Literal
meningoceles secondary to dural ectasia.
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Neuroradiology
9 a) False
b) False
c) True
(I) False
e) False
Four major types of intracranial lesion are recognised.
• Cortical tubers are detected on MRI in 95% of patients; 5% enhance and
they are not premalignant. MRI characteristics change with age, but in older
children and adults they are isointense to brain parenchyma on T1-weighted
imaging, and hyperintense to brain parenchyma on T2-weighted imaging.
• White matter abnormalities are disorganised, dysplastic heterotopic lesions
that enhance in less than 20% of cases, and which have a similar MRI signal
to cortical tubers.
• Subependymal nodules are found in 95% of cases, most commonly along
the third ventricle near the caudate nucleus, and rarely in the third or fourth
ventricles. They increase in number and degree of calcification with time.
• Giant cell astrocytomas occur in 15% of cases, are almost always located
around the foramen of Munro, are frequently calcified and enhance avidly
but heterogeneously. They enlarge with time and often cause hydrocephalus.
10 All false Colloid cysts account for about 1% of intracranial tumours, have an approximately
equal gender incidence, and are present in young adults (aged 20 40 years)
but rare in children. They present with positional headaches, gait apraxia and
changes in mental status. They are thought to be of neuroectodermal origin
and arise almost exclusively from the anterior portion of the third ventricle,
inferior to the septum pellucidum and between the foramina of Munro (hence
the predisposition to hydrocephalus). They contain mucoproteinaceous material,
and are hyperdense on CT in two thirds of cases and isodense in the remaining
third. The MRI characteristics vary, hut the most common appearance is
T1-weighted hyperintensity and T2-weighted hypointensity. Enhancement
is rare, although it has been described peripherally.
11 a) False Glioblastoma multiforme are benign lesions that result from duplication/splitting
of the arachnoid membrane (congenital or postsurgery, posthaemorrhage or
postinfection). They are most common in the middle cranial fossa (about 60%).
while 5%-10% of cases occur in the posterior fossa.
b) True Lesions typically occur off midline; 40%-50% are found in the CPA (they
are the third most common CPA mass after acoustic schwannomas and
meningiomas) and 5-10% occur in the middle cranial fossa.
c) True Arachnoid cysts are isointense/isodense to CSF (unless haemorrhage occurs).
Epidermoid cysts are generally isointense to CSF, but can be hyperintense
on proton density-weighted MRI.
d) True Conversely, arachnoid cysts typically displace, but do not encase, structures.
e) True 10% 25% of epidermoid cysts calcify and occasional peripheral enhancement
is described. Arachnoid cysts do not enhance or calcify.
114
12 a) True It accounts for 50% of all astrocytomas and 1-2% of all malignancies.
b) False It occurs at all ages, but the peak incidence is at age 65—75 years. It is more
common in Caucasians.
c) True It is also associated with Turcot syndrome and Li Fraumeni syndrome.
d) False It is most commonly located in the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres,
particularly fronto-temporal.
e) False Peritumoural oedema is usually striking. The signal intensity and density
of the tumour itself are typically very heterogeneous.
13 a) False Macroadenomas are defined as those more than 10 mm in diameter,

hut they frequently present because of mass effect. They are commonly
hormonally inactive.
b) False ACTH-secreting tumours account for about 15% of microadenomas, as
do growth hormone (GH)-secreting tumours. The most common type of
pituitary adenoma is a prolactinoma (30%), followed by null-cell type (25%).
c) True This is unlike craniopharyngiomas, which calcify in up to 90% of cases.
d) False About 65%-90% are hypodense/hypointense to the normal pituitary on
early postcontrast images. Macroadenomas usually enhance well, but mixed
density/intensity lesions can be seen after haemorrhage or cyst formation.
e) True The so-called malignant adenomas represent less than 1% of all pituitary
adenomas. The most common malignant pituitary tumour is a metastasis.
14 a) False More than 50% present in childhood/adolescence, with a peak incidence

at 8-12 years of age and a second smaller peak in middle age. Headache
and growth delay are the most common presentations. It has an equal
gender incidence.
b) False They are benign tumours from the epithelial remnants along Rathke's pouch.
c) True They are suprasellar in 20% of cases and suprasellar/sellar in 70% of cases.
Occasionally, they are ectopically located in the floor of the third ventricle
(more common in adults) and in the sphenoid bone,
d) False On CT, calcification is seen in 90% of children and 50% of adults. In 90% of
cases, they are predominantly cystic masses with nodular/rim enhancement,
e) True They are characterised by heterogeneously' enhancing lesions with a variable
T1-weighted signal depending on the cyst content (protein, blood, cholesterol),
but are usually hypointense.
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Neuroradiology
15 a) True They are three limes more common in women than men. They can enlarge
in pregnancy and are associated with breast carcinoma, factors that suggest
they are sex hormone-dependent. Radiation therapy is also a risk factor.
b) True Typical locations include the cerebral hemispheres (25%), parafalcine (20%),
sphenoid ridge (20%), spine (12%), frontobasal (10%) and posterior fossa (10%).
Less common locations include the CPA, the optic nerve sheath (adult females),
the ventricular system (lateral > third > fourth), and rarely extradural
(e.g. paranasal sinuses, mediastinum). They are multifocal in up to 10% of cases.
c) False They are hyperdense (75% of cases) or isodense (25% of cases) on unenhanced
CT and avid enhancement is seen in 90%. Surrounding oedema is seen
in 60% of cases, calcification in about 20%, and cystic areas in 15%.
d) False There is an almost 100% detection rate with gadolinium-enhanced MRI.
The signal varies, but is typically hypointense or isointense on T1 -weighted
imaging and isointense or hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging. A dural tail
is suggestive of, but not pathognomonic for, intracranial meningiomas and
is seen in 60% of cases.
e) False About 1%-2% are frankly malignant. No clear radiological signs predict
malignancy, although T2-weighted hyperintense tumours tend to be
more atypical.
16 a) True They are also associated with ataxia telangiectasia.

b) True It accounts for 30% of posterior fossa tumours in children, with a smaller peak
in the third decade of life. There is a slight male predominance (M:F - 2:1).
c) False They are typically located in the cerebellar vermis (75%) and cerebellar
hemispheres (25% The lateral cerebellar location is more common in the
older age group.
d) False This is more typical of hemangioblastoma than medulloblastoma. The 'typical'
CT appearance of medulloblastoma is seen in only 50% of cases: hyperdense
precontrast with strong enhancement. Atypical features (more likely in the older
ago group) Include cystic change (15%), calcification (10%) and nonenhancement
(3%). The MRI signal is variable; it is usually hypointense on T1-weighted imaging
and hypointense to hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging.
e) False Disseminated disease is seen in 50% of cases. Common metastatic sites include
the brain or spine via CSF seeding, but also distant sites, including primarily
the bone (lytic/sclerotic lesions).
17 a) False Although patients typically present with sensorineural hearing loss, the tumour
arises from the vestibular component in 85% of cases and the cochlear in 15%.
b) False They are diagnostic of NF-2, which is also present in up to 25% of patients
with unilateral lesions.
c) True This is unlike classically hyperdense or isodense meningioma,
and hypodense epidermoid.
d) True CPA meningiomas also enhance avidly, but 50% are isointense
on T2-weighted imaging.
g ) False Calcification is rare (unlike meningioma), but cystic change is seen
in 15% of cases.
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MCQs in Clinical Radiology-
18 .i) False Metastases normally account (or up to 35% of intracranial tumours.

b) True Other locations include the subarachnoid space (15%), skull (5%) and dura (rare).
c) False Between 60% and 85% of metastatic lesions arc multiple.
d) True The most common primary sites of intracranial metastases are lung, breast,
colorectal, kidney and melanoma.
c) False A paraneoplastic syndrome (seen in 2%-3% of patients with small cell lung
cancer) is the most common cause of limbic encephalitis. The CT is usually
normal. A high signal on T2-weighted imaging may be seen in the medial
temporal lobes.
19 All true Other causes include:

• idiopathic/senescent (most common)
• metabolic (e.g. hyperparathyroidism, pseudo- and
pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism)
• infection (e.g. TORCH syndrome [toxoplasmosis, other infections, rubella,
cytomegalovirus and herpes simplex], tuberculosis, cysticercosis)
• toxic (e.g. lead, carbon monoxide, chemotherapy, radiotherapy)
• postanoxic (e.g. birth anoxia, cardiac arrest)
• miscellaneous (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus, tuberous sclerosis,
mitochondrial disease, Down's syndrome)
20 a) True The caudate nucleus, claustrum and amygdaloid body are the other constituents
of the basal ganglia. The major blood supply is via the lenticulostriate and
thalamoperforating arteries.
b) False The basal ganglia are low in density, as the copper deposition loads to spongy
degeneration and cavitation. They are high signal on T2-weighted imaging.
Other causes of high signal on T2-weighted imaging of basal ganglia include:
lymphoma, hypoxia, venous infarction, Huntington's chorea (also causes caudate
atrophy), Hallervorden Spatz disease, mitochondrial diseases, aminoacidopathies
and toxins (e.g. methanol, carbon monoxide, hydrogen sulphide).
c) True Low attenuation basal ganglia can also be seen in poisoning (carbon monoxide,
methanol, cyanide, hydrogen sulphide), hypoxia, hypotension (lacunar infarcts)
and Wilson's disease.
d) True They are also seen with dystrophic calcification, liver failure and total parenteral
nutrition (manganese).
e) True They can also occur in old age. Parkinson’s disease and following
childhood hypoxia.
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Neuroradiology
21 a) False The most common CNS manifestation is meningitis. Tuberculomas occur

in 25% of cases (solitary lesions in more than 70%). Vasculitis and infarction
may also be seen. CNS involvement is usually secondary to haematogenous
spread from the lungs.
b) True Cortical/subcortical location of tuberculomas is typical. In children, cerebellar
lesions are common.
c) True In patients with sarcoidosis, CNS involvement occurs in 1%-8% clinically
and about 15% at autopsy. Sarcoidosis affects the meninges and cranial
nerves to a greater extent than the brain parenchyma. The pituitary' gland,
optic chiasm and hypothalamus are also commonly’ involved.
d) True Granulomatous meningitis is also seen in tuberculosis, sarcoidosis and many
fungal causes of meningitis, such as candidiasis, blastomycosis, actinomycosis,
nocardiosis, aspergillosis and cryptococcosis. Meninges appear thickened
and are hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging. It may be associated with
hydrocephalus, cerebritis and abscesses.
e) True Granulomatous angiitis is an uncommon vasculitis of unknown aetiology.
An association with CNS infections and tumours has been reported. Imaging
findings are nonspecific.
22 a) True The mortality rate is 50%-70%, with significant morbidity in survivors.

b) True In neonates, HSV-2 is acquired during parturition or transplacentally and
manifests several weeks after birth as nonfocal encephalitis. HSV-1 affects
children and adults, and is commonly secondary to reactivation of latent virus in
the trigeminal ganglion. Infection is usually focal and involves the limbic system.
c) False Adult HSE is often initially unilateral, but is typically followed by less severe
contralateral disease (sequential bilaterally).
d) True On MRI, the signal abnormalities (hyperintensity on T2-weighted imaging
in the temporal lobe/cingulate gyrus) often extend into the insular cortex,
but spare the putamen.
0} False Peripheral/gyral/cisternal enhancement may persist for several months.
23 a) False HIVE is caused by HIV infection itself and is seen in up to 60% of AIDS cases.
b) True Atrophy is the most common finding. HIVE usually affects deep white matter
and spares grey matter. Lesions are typically multifocal, bilateral, asymmetrical,
nonenhancing, CT hypodense and hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging
with no mass effect.
c) False PML is caused by papovavirus (principally the JC virus) and preferentially involves
subcortical white matter (usually parietal and occipital) before spreading centrally.
Grey matter is involved in up to 50% of cases. Lesions typically do not enhance
or exert a mass effect. Death usually' occurs within 6 months.
d) True Toxoplasmosis is the most common opportunistic CNS infection in AIDS patients.
Lesions classically enhance and affect the basal ganglia and cerebral hemispheres
near the corticomedullary junction. Features favouring lymphoma over
toxoplasmosis include a periventricular location and subependymal spread.
e) False This fungal infection occurs in 2%-5% of patients with AIDS, and the meninges,
basal ganglia and midbrain are most frequently Involved.
118
24 .i) True Only 10% of plaques are infratentorial in adults, whereas 85% of adults
demonstrate periventricular lesions, which are classically oriented perpendicular
to the long axis of the brain and lateral ventricles (Dawson's fingers).
b) True On CT, nonspecific atrophy is seen in 45% of cases. Plaques are hypodense
or isodense and acutely show transient enhancement for about 2 weeks.
c) True This reflects the high sensitivity of MRI (approximately 85%).
d) True This reflects the breakdown in the blood-brain barrier. Enhancement is usually
solid or ring-like and may mimic a tumour or abscess. Chronic plaques
do not enhance due to restoration of the blood brain barrier.
e) False The cervical spine is affected in up to 50% of cases and in 12%
of those without intracranial disease.
25 a) True A defect of fatly acid oxidation leads to a build up of long-chain fatty acids.
Adrenoleukodystrophy is more common in males than females, and typically
occurs age 3-10 years. The most common mode of inheritance is X-linked
recessive. The disease starts around the lateral trigones.
b) True Macrocephaly is also seen in Alexander's disease.
c) True Metachromatic leukodystrophy is seen in 1:100 000 neonates. It is autosomal
recessive and is caused by a deficiency of arylsulphatase A. In 70% of cases, it is
present at 1-2 years. Death occurs 1-4 years later. It involves the periventricular
white matter and cerebellum, but spares the subcortical white matter.
d) False Basal ganglia usually have increased density. Symmetrical high-density foci
can also be seen in the corona radiata and cerebellum, and the white matter
can be of decreased density.
e) True Enhancement is also seen in adrenoleukodystrophy
26 a) True An increased incidence is also seen in the presence of anomalous cranial

vessels, as well as in Marfan's syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, autosomal
dominant polycystic kidney disease and fibromuscular dysplasia.
b) False About 15%-20% of cases of berry aneurysms are multiple. A strong female
predominance exists with multiple aneurysms (overall F:M = 5:1,
but for more than 3 aneurysms F:M = 11:1).
c) False They tend to present with symptoms related to their mass effect.
d) False Fusiform aneurysms more usually affect the vertebrobasilar system and
are secondary to atherosclerosis.
e) True About 65% occur distal to the circle of Willis. Causes include subacute bacterial
endocarditis and intravenous drug abuse (65%), acute bacterial endocarditis
(10%), septic thrombophlebitis (10%) and meningitis (10%). They arc more
common in children than adults and are multiple in 20% of cases.
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Neuroradiology
27 a) True These cases are rarely recurrent and have a good prognosis. Other causes
include: ruptured berry aneurysm (75%), AVM (10%), hypertension (5%),
trauma, anticoagulation, tumour, spinal AVM and intracranial infection.
b) False The converse is true, as deoxyhaemoglobin is almost isointense to normal brain.
CT is 60-95% accurate in the first 4-5 days. MRI is more accurate than CT
for chronic SAM.
c) True This is because 90% of extravasated blood is cleared from the CSF within
1 week. Consider rebleeding if SAH remains visible after 2 weeks.
d) True Other clues as to the original source of the haemorrhage include Sylvian
fissure blood and middle cerebral artery (MCA) aneurysm(s), blood in
the fourth ventricle and ruptured posterior fossa aneurysm(s).
e False Haemosiderin deposition on the meninges leads to leptomeningeal
siderosis, which is hypointense on T2-weighted imaging. This can lead
to neurological dysfunction.
28 a) False In fact, 98% are solitary. AVMs are characterised by an abnormal network
of arteries and veins with no intervening capillary bed. Peak incidence
occurs between ages 20 and 40 years. About 90% are supratentorial,
b) True Approximately 25% receive their blood supply from the dural branches
of the external cerebral artery.
c) True Abnormal dilated capillaries are separated by normal brain tissue. Multiple
lesions are the rule. They are associated with Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome.
CT is often normal. MRI shows multiple T2-hypointense foci if haemorrhage
has occurred.
d) True This is due to a rim of haemosiderin. Combined with a mixed signal intensity
core, secondary to blood products of varying age, the lesion has a characteristic
'popcorn' appearance. About 80% are supratentorial and 50%-80% are multiple.
e) False AVM-type varices typically present in older infants with developmental delay
or haemorrhage. Vein of Galen malformations are a complex group of vascular
anomalies characterized by dilatation of the vein of Galen, either due to a direct
fistula or distant AVM. Fistula types tend to present neonatally with congestive
heart failure.
120
29 a) True The temporo-parietal location is most common (75%). About 90% are secondary
to a tear of the middle meningeal artery and the rest result from a tear of the
meningeal vein or sinus. They do not cross suture lines, but may cross dural
reflections. The mortality rate is 5%.
b) False Associated fractures are rarely seen (less than 10%). They result from tearing
of bridging veins of the subdural space. They cross suture lines, but not dural
reflections. They are bilateral in 20% of adults and 80% of children. The
mortality rate is 30%-90%.
c) False Hypertensive haemorrhage is seen in men aged 60-80 years. Common locations
include the basal ganglia (60%-80%), thalamus (10-20%), pons (5-10%),
dentate nuclei (1-5%) and hemispheres (1-2%). It involves the penetrating
arteries off the MCA. The mortality rate is 50%.
d) True Oxyhaemoglobin (present up to 12 hours following the event) is diamagnetic.
Its appearance reflects the water in blood. At this stage, detection by MRI
is less sensitive than CT.
e) True Haemosiderin forms about 2 weeks after the event (starts at the margins
of the haematoma) and may remain permanently. Methaemoglobin forms
3-14 days after the event and is hyperintense on T1-weighted imaging.
30 a) True It also occurs in the splenium of the corpus callosum and dorsolateral brainstem.
It is seen in severe head trauma where rotational shearing forces lead to axonal
disruption. Initial CTs are normal in 50-85% of cases. MRI shows a multifocal
high signal on T2-weighted imaging.
b) False They are multiple in 30% of cases. They involve the frontal and temporal lobes.
MRI is more sensitive than CT and shows hypodense areas with dense loci
due to petechial haemorrhage.
c) False Posttraumatic diffuse cerebral oedema is seen in 10-20% of severe brain
injuries and is nearly twice as common in children as adults. It usually develops
after 24-48 hours and has a mortality rate of 50%.
d) False Posttraumatic extracranial ICA dissections usually spare the bulb and arise
2 cm distal to the common carotid bifurcation.
e) True Traumatic SAH rarely induces vasospasm. It may arise from an extension
of brain contusions.
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Neuroradiology
3 1 a ) False These are rare, benign tumours that affect children and frequently cause
epilepsy. They are cortically based (commonly in the temporal lobe) and
are associated with cortical dysplasia. They exert little mass effect and do
not enhance. They give a low signal on T1-weighted imaging and a high
signal on T2-weighted imaging.
b) True Gangliogliomas are benign and 80% occur under the age of 30 years. They
are most common in the cerebral hemispheres: temporal > frontal > parietal.
About 30% calcify. They may cause pressure erosion of the overlying vault.
c) False A pineal germinoma is usually slightly hyperdense on precontrast CT They
enhance on CT and MRI. Incidence is much greater in males than females. They
usually present in patients between 10 and 30 years of age. They account for
about 33% of all pineal region neoplasms and nearly 80% of pineal germ-cell
tumours. Other pineal region tumours of germ cell origin include: teratoma
(20% of pineal germ-cell tumours), choriocarcinoma (4%) and embryonal cell
tumours (4%). Apart from germ-cell tumours, the other main category of pineal
region neoplasms is pineal cell tumours, such as pineocytoma (benign) and
pineoblastoma (very malignant).
d) False Fat is typical of pineal teratomas. Pineoblastomas may contain some peripherally
displaced normal pineal calcification ('exploded' pattern).
e) True PNET tumours (e.g. pineoblastoma, medulloblastoma, ependymoblastoma
and retinoblastoma) are aggressive, enhancing and undifferentiated lesions
that are common in children and frequently metastasise via the CSP
32 a) True Thyroid eye disease is bilateral in 85% of cases, whereas pseudotumour

is bilateral in 15%.
b) False Unlike orbital pseudotumour, thyroid eye disease typically spares the muscular
tendons. The order of involvement is inferior rectus > medial > superior > lateral.
The involved muscles give a high signal on T2-weighted imaging.
c) False Proptosis occurs in both conditions. It is painful in pseudotumour. It is defined
as a globe protrusion larger than 21 mm anterior to the interzygomatic line
at the level of the lens.
d) False The lacrimal gland is involved in 5% of cases of pseudotumour.
e) False Although both conditions may respond to steroids, orbital pseudotumour usually
shows a dramatic response. In thyroid eye disease, spontaneous resolution is
seen in up to 90% of cases; 10% develop corneal ulceration/optic neuropathy.
122
33 a) False Orbital melanoma is classically T1 hyperintense (because of melanin) but

T2 hypointense on MRI. It is hyperdense on CT, enhances moderately
and retinal detachments are common.
b) True This rare, X-linked, recessive disease is also associated with seizures,
a low IQ and deafness. CT shows microphthalmia, hyperdense vitreous
and a central structure in the vitreous (a remnant of the hyaloid artery).
Unlike retinoblastoma, there is no calcification and PHPV tends to be
hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging.
c) True Coats' disease is a congenital vascular malformation leading to retinal
telangiectasia and detachment. The incidence in males is twice that in females.
It is unilateral in 90% of cases. There is no focal mass or calcification.
d) True Peak incidence is at age 5 years. Optic nerve gliomas are well-differentiated
pilocytic astrocytomas. They occur in 15% of patients with NF-1 - often
bilaterally. They enhance and calcify much less than optic nerve meningiomas,
which predominantly affect females (80% of cases), peak in incidence in the
fourth decade and are associated with NF-2.
e) True Capillary haemangiomas account for 10%-15% of paediatric orbital tumours.
They grow for less than 1 year and then involute and enhance. The superior
nasal quadrant is the most common location,
34 a) True Such cases are secondary to defects (monosomy/deletions) in chromosome 13.

Hereditary cases present earlier and are more likely to be bilateral (70% of cases)
than nonhereditary cases (30%). The trilateral type is bilateral disease
plus pineoblastoma.
b) True About 70% of nonhereditary cases present before 3 years and 98% before
5 years (mean: 18 months). The incidence is equal in males and females.
c) False Calcification is seen in 50%-95% of cases and its presence is a favourable
prognostic sign. Contrast enhancement is a poor prognostic sign..
d) True Mortality is less than 10% if the optic nerve is spared, but 50% if it
is significantly involved.
e) True The tumour is isointense or mildly hyperintense on T1-weighted imaging
relative to the vitreous.
123-
iur-oradiology
35 a) True S. aureus accounts for 60% of cases of pyogenic infection. Other causes include
Enterobacter organisms (30%), Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas and Klebsiella.
Most instances arise from haematogenous spread. Infection in adults starts
in the end plates, whereas in children it starts in the disc.
b) False Pyogenic spondylitis can occur anywhere in the spine, but most commonly
affects the lumbar spine. The sacrum and cervical spine are less commonly
involved. It affects multiple levels in 25% of cases.
c) True T1-weighted imaging shows a narrowed disc with a low signal in the
adjacent vertebral body.
d) False The converse is true. Up to 80% of cases (as opposed to 20% in pyogenic
infections) involve a large paraspinal abscess, which is often calcified. The
lower thoracic and upper lumbar spine areas are the most frequently involved
sites. Paraspinal soft tissue changes are more indolent than pyogenic infections
and reactive bony sclerosis is a late feature. Discs may be spared and skip
lesions are common.
e) False The lumbar spine (especially L4) is the most common site of Brucella spondylitis
(70% of cases). It is difficult to distinguish from tuberculous spondylitis, but
features in favour of brucellosis include lower lumbar region-only involvement,
normal paraspinal soft tissues and absent gibbus.
36 a) True Chordomas are rare, slow-growing and locally aggressive enhancing tumours,
which arise from notochordal remnants. A total of 35% occur in the clivus
and 15% in the spine (particularly cervical and thoracic). Tumours have
a large soft-tissue component and calcification occurs in 30%-70% of cases.
b) True Ependymomas are the most common primary spinal tumour, accounting for
about 66% of all intramedullary tumours. They are. usually located around the
lower cord, conus and filum terminale. The incidence is greater in females.
The incidence peaks between 40 and 60 years of age. They are associated
with NF-2, are slow-growing, and produce bony scalloping in 30% of cases. •
Tumours enhance and are partially cystic in 50% of cases, and evidence
of prior haemorrhage is seen in 65% of cases on MRI.
c) True Spinal astrocytomas are the second most common primary spinal tumour,
accounting for about 30% of all intramedullary tumours. The incidence is
greater in males than females, and peaks between 20 and 30 years of age.
They are associated with NF-1, bony remodelling occurs in 50% of cases,
and cystic regions are found in 25%-35% of cases.
d) True Most spinal meningiomas occur in the thoracic spine (80%), in females (80%),
and in patients aged over 40 years. About 10% cause bone erosion and 85% are
intradural. Multiple tumours are associated with NF-2. Tumours are isointense
to the spinal cord on T1- and T2-weighted imaging, and enhance avidly.
e) True Vertebral body haemangiomas occur in about 10% of the general population.
The incidence is greater in females than males, and 70% of haemangiomas
are solitary. They most commonly occur in the thoracic and lumber spine, and
may cause symptoms if they are very large. They are partly lytic, with a thick
trabeculae 'corduroy' pattern on plain film and 'polka-dot' appearance on CT
124
37 a) True This condition is characterised by sagittal clefting of the spinal cord or filum
terminale into two hemicords, each of which contains a central canal, but only
one dorsal and one ventral horn (compare with diplomyelia - true spinal cord
duplication). The cord is usually single above and below the split.
b) False An osseous spur is seen on CT in only 50% of cases. In a smaller proportion
of cases the spur is fibrous. The spur may traverse part of or the entire canal
and may not be midline.
c) False Diastematomyelia occurs in 15%-20% of patients with Chiari II malformation.
Other associations include myelomeningocele, hydromyelia, scoliosis, clubfoot,
and cutaneous stigmata overlying the spine. Osseous abnormalities (hemi
or block vertebra, narrow discs) are seen in more than 85% of cases.
d) True A cervical or upper thoracic location is rare.
e) True A tethered cord is seen in more than 50% of cases.
38 a) True
b) True
c) False
d) True
e) False
Posterior vertebral scalloping occurs secondary to:
• long-standing increased intraspinal pressure: tumours in the spinal canal,
communicating hydrocephalus, syringomyelia
• mesenchymal tissue laxity and dural ectasia
• NF (local scalloping can also result from a neurofibroma), Marfan's
syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
• bone softening
• mucopolysaccharidoses (e.g. Hurler's syndrome, Morquio's syndrome
and Sanfilippo's syndrome), acromegaly, achondroplasia, ankylosing
spondylitis and osteogenesis imperfecta
39 a) True Coronal cleft vertebral bodies result from failure of fusion of anterior and posterior
ossification centres, and are also seen in metatropic dwarfism and Kniest syndrome.
b) False Hurler's syndrome is associated with beaks from the lower third of the vertebral
body, as are achondroplasia, pseudoachondroplasia, hypothyroidism, Down's
syndrome and neuromuscular diseases. Morquio's syndrome is associated
with central beaks.
c) True Diffuse platyspondyly is also seen in thanatophoric and metatropic dwarfism,
Morquio's syndrome, Kniest syndrome and spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
(congenita and tarda).
d) True A solitary ivory vertebral body occurs less commonly in non-Hodgkin's
lymphoma, and is also seen with sclerotic metastases, Paget's disease,
haemangioma and chronic infection.
e) True Deafness is seen in about 30% of Klippel-Feil syndrome cases. Cither nonspinal
features include renal agenesis in 33% of cases and congenital heart disease
(atrial septal defect and coarctation) in 5% of cases.
125
le urbrad io lo gy
40 a) True A Jefferson fracture results from an axial compression force transmitted through
the vertex to the axis, causing lateral displacement (hence it tends to spare
the cord) of lateral masses and fractures of anterior and posterior arches of C1.
b) False The flexion teardrop fracture is a severely unstable injury resulting from flexion
fracture-dislocation, which presents with acute anterior cord dysfunction.
All ligaments are disrupted and a combination of posterior vertebral body
subluxation and bilateral facet joint subluxation/dislocation compromises the
adjacent cord. This injury should not to be confused with the stable extension
teardrop fracture.
c) True Chance fractures are produced by hyperflexion secondary to falls or vehicular
accidents whilst wearing a seatbelt. There is distraction and disruption of
the posterior and middle columns. There is a 20% chance of neurological
or abdominal organ injury.
d) True This indicates haemorrhage, which has a very poor prognosis, unlike oedema
of the cord (high signal on T2-weighted imaging), which offers a good potential
for recovery.
e) False Nerve root avulsions are usually caused by traction injuries to the
extremities, hence they spare the thoracic spine. Complete avulsions
lead to CSF-filled pseudomeningocoeles.
126
Chapter 7
Head and neck imaging
1 Which of the following are true of head and neck imaging?

a) The paravertebral space extends from the base of the skull to the diaphragm
b) The parapharyngeal space typically has high signal on T1-weighted magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI)
c) The pterygophalatine fossa communicates with the middle cranial fossa
d) The facial nerve within the parotid gland runs lateral to the retromandibular vein
e) The masticator space communicates with the middle cranial fossa
2 Regarding Tornwaldt's cyst, which of the following are true?

a) They are midline in location
b) They do not enhance after contrast on computed tomography (CT)
c) They are usually low signal on T1-weighted MRI sequence
d) They erode bone
e) They typically arise caudal to Rathke’s pouch cyst
3 Which of the following are true of sinonasal imaging?

a) The ostiomeatal complex is best evaluated in the coronal plane
b) Haller cells are the most posterior extensions of the ethmoid air cells
c) Mucocoeles most commonly involve the sphenoidal sinus
d) Meningoencephalocele is a recognised complication of funduscopic endonasal
sinus surgery
e) Squamous cell carcinoma accounts for 80% of malignancies of the paranasal sinus
4 Concerning thyroglossal duct cysts, which of the following are true?

a) The majority occur above the level of the hyoid bone
b) About 90% of cases present before 5 years of age
c) Ultrasound or radionuclide study is indicated prior to surgical excision
d) Capsular enhancement on CT indicates infection
e) Carcinoma is a rare complication
5 Which of the following are true regarding haemangioma of the head and neck?
a) They are the most common benign tumours of the head and neck in the first few
years of life
b) About 50% of cutaneous haemangiomas resolve by 5 years of age
c) Intramuscularly, haemangiomas of the head and neck most commonly involve
sternocleidomastoid muscles
d) Haemangiomas may be distinguished from lymphangiomas by technetium-labelled
red blood cell study
e) They typically show intermediate signal on T1-weighted MRI and heterogeneously
high signal on T2-weighted MRI
6 Which of the following are true regarding

a) The most common location of dermoid cyst in the head and neck is the orbit
b) High signal on T1-weighted MRI is diagnostic of a dermoid cyst
c) Dermoid cysts may be distinguished from lipoma on T1-weighted MRI
d) Epidermoid cysts are usually unilocular
e) Epidermoid cysts have high signal on T2-weighted MRI scans
128
7 Which of the following are Irue regarding laryngoceles?

a) They typically arise in the vestibule
b) They are bilateral in less than 5% of cast’s
c) They may appear as hypodense masses on unenhanced CT
d) Carcinoma is a recognised complication
e) They rarely extend beyond the thyrohyoid membrane
8 Which of the following are true regarding the salivary gland?

a) There is an increased risk of lymphoma of the parotid gland in Sjogren's syndrome
b) Warthin' tumour of the parotid gland is bilateral in 10% of cases
c) About 50% of minor salivary gland tumours are malignant
d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignant tumour of the parotid gland
e) Through-transmission is a typical feature of pleomorphic salivary gland adenoma
9 Which of the following are true of head and neck imaging?

a) Cervical lipomas most commonly occur in the posterior triangle of the neck
b) Paragangliomas are hypervascular lesions
c) Ranula arc usually high signal on T1 - and T2-weighted MKI
d) Second branchial cleft cysts are typically located anteromedial to the
sternocleidomastoid muscle
e) Melanomas demonstrate shortening of TI - and T2-weighted values on MRl
10 Concerning imaging of the larynx, which of the following are true?

a) The arytenoids usually dislocate rather than fracture during trauma
b) Cricoid cartilage typically fractures in at least two places following trauma
C) More than 90% of laryngeal earners are squamous cell tumours
d) ClottK cancers typically arise from the anterior half of the vocal cord
e) At presentation, subgk>ttic tumours are frequently nonoperative
11 Which of the following are true regarding juvenile angiofibromas?

a) They are highly vascular
b) They extend into the pterygopalatine fossa in more than 90% of cases
( i they lypi« .illy dispfa r the jx>.t«rior wall of the maxillary sinus
d) They may cause widening of the superior and inferior orbital fissure
e) They show areas of low signal on T1-weighted MRl
12 Which of the following are true concerning parathyroid imaging?

a) Supernumerary glands are found in at least 25% of patients
b) Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by a single hyperfunctioning adenoma
in 00% of cases
c) Parathyroid adenomas characteristically return high signal on T2-weighted images
d) About 10% of parathyroid glands are found in the mediastinum
e) On CT, 50% of adenomas typically enhance after intravenous contrast
129
13 Regarding thyroid carcinoma, whic h of the following are true?

a) Follicular carcinoma accounts for 60% of all thyroid carcinomas
h) Lymph node spread occurs in 90% of patients with papillary cell carcinoma
c) Early haematogenous spread occurs in follicular carcinoma
d) Anaplastic carcinoma demonstrates no radioiodine uptake
e)Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type III) may lie associated with medullary
cell carcinoma
14 Which of the following are true regarding laryngeal carcinoma?

a) Most are supraglottic in location
b) Supraglottic carcinomas usually present later than glottic cancer
c) The normal anterior commissure should be no thicker than I mm
d) About 50% of subglottic c ancers involve the thyroid or cricoid cartilage
e) Cartilage invasion implies T4 disease
15 Which of the following are true regarding facial fractures?

a) Orbital fractures are the most common fractures of the facial skeleton
b) All I e Tort fractures involve the pterygoid plates
c) Le Fort fractures are usually associated with fractures of the zygomaticomaxillary complex
d) In blunt trauma, isolated medial wall fractures of the orbit are common
e) An intact orbital rim is typical of an orbital blow-out fracture
16 Regarding imaging of the ear, which of the following are true?

a) Limited hearing is possible with a Michel aplasia
b) Cholesteatomas are hyperintense on TI - and T2-weighted images
c) Ossicular chain disruption is a feature of cholesterol granuk»mas
d) The normal vestibular aqueduct may be up to 5 mm in diameter
e) Otosclerosis most commonly invokes the stapes
17 Regarding trauma to the ear, which of the following are true?

a) The most common cause of conductive deafness following head injury is ossicular
chain disruption
b) Most fractures of the |xtrous bone are longitudinal
c) Longitudinal fractures of the petrous bone are usually associated with
sensorineural deafness
d) The facial nerve is involved in 50% of transverse fractures of the petrous bone
e) The most common site of ossicular injury’ is the incudostapcdial junction
18 Which of the following are true regarding perineural spread of head and neck tumours?
a) Enhancement of the nerve is a reliable sign of perineural spread
b) The nerve most commonly involved in perineural spread of head and neck tumours
is the facial nerve
c) Loss of high T1 -weighted MRI signal in the pterygopalatine fossa is a sign of perineural
spread of the tumour
d) Adenoid cystic carcinoma is one of the most common tumours to show perineural Spread
e) Acutely denervatod muscle ty pically returns high T2-weighted MRI signal
130
19 Which of the following are true regarding sarcomas of the head and neck?
a) Rhabdomyosarcomas typical!y occur in patients over the ago of 40 years
b) The most common site of rhabdomyosarcomas in the head and neck is the nasopharynx
c) Fibrosarcoma of the head and neck usually involves the mandible and maxilla
d) Leiomyosarcomas of the head and neck usually involve the slnonasal cavity
e) Uposarcomas typically have high signal on TI -weighted MRI sequences
20 Which of the following are true of the salivary glands?

a) Malignant tumours of the salivary glands are more common than benign lesions
b) Adenoid cystic carcinoma most commonly affects the submandibular gland
c) About 80% of parotid gland tumours arise in the superficial part of the gland
d) Pleomorphic adenomas of the parotic! gland typically have high signal on
T2-weighted MRI sequences
e) The normal parotkl gland contains lymph nodes
21 Which of the following are true of fibrous dysplasia?

.0 Facial bones are rarely involved
b) Exophthalmos is a recognised feature
c) There is an association with Cushing's syndrome
d) In the calvaria, the frontal bone i> most commonly involved
e) It affects the maxilla more frequently than the mandible
22 Which of the following cause loss of the lamina dura of the teeth?
a) I lyperparathyroidism
b) Cushing's disease
c) Addison's disease
d) Paget's disease
e) Sickle cell disease
23 Which of the following are true regarding lesions of the jaw?

a) Ameloblastoma occurs more frequently in the maxilb
b) A dentigerous cyst develops around an unerupted tooth
c) Dentigerous cysts are associated with basal cell naevi
d) Radicubr cysts arise in rebtion to the tooth apex
e) Simple bone cysts are more common in the maxilla than the mandible
24 Which of the following are true regarding trauma to the neck?

a) In blunt neck trauma, dissection of the extracranbl carotid artery is asymptomatic
in 10% of cases
b) Multiple levels are involved in 20% of fractures of the cervical spine
C) The most common site of vertebral artery injury in blunt trauma to the neck
is at the C5/C6 level
d) fracture of the odontoid peg most commonly involves the tip
e) Barium swallow has poor sensitivity for pharyngoesophageal injury in blunt neck trauma
131
25 Which of the following are true regarding Klippel-Feil syndrome?

a) It is associated with Sprengel's shoulder deformity
b) Conductive hearing loss is a feature
c) Vertebral fusion involves the bodies and neural arches
d) Coarctation is a feature
e) Lymphoedema is a feature
26 Which of the following are true regarding imaging of the thyroid gland?
a) 131I is the preferred agent in thyroid gland imaging
b) Most cold nodules are neoplastic
c) About 25% of solitary nodules on scintigraphy are multinodular on ultrasonography
d) Cold nodules on scintigraphy are usually hyperechoic on ultrasonography
e) Focal thyroiditis is a recognised cause of a cold nodule on scintigraphy
27 Which of the following are true of laryngeal papillomatosis?

a) There is a bimodal age distribution
b) The lung is involved in 5% of cases
c) Subglottic extension is rarely seen
d) There is an association with bronchiectasis
e) Malignant transformation is a recognised complication
28 Which of the following are true regarding 2-[18F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose (FDG)

positron emission tomography (PET) in head and neck imaging?
a) FDG competes with glucose for uptake
b) High FDG uptake is seen in the normal lingual tonsils
c) A standardised uptake value (SUV) greater than 3.5 for cervical lymph nodes
suggests malignancy
d) FDG PET is highly specific for malignant thyroid nodules
e) A decrease in FDG uptake shortly after radiotherapy indicates disease response

a) The carotid bulb is the most common part of the carotid artery to be affected
by atherosclerotic disease
b) Ultrasound can accurately identify ulcerated atherosclerotic plaques
c) Multiple stenosis of the carotid artery is seen in up to 20% of cases
d) Fibromuscular dysplasia of the carotid artery most commonly involves the artery
below the bulb
e) Carotid artery dissection related to trauma usually commences at the origin
of the internal carotid artery
30 Which of the following are true regard fractures of the cervical spine?
a) Flexion teardrop fractures involve the superior endplate of the vertebral body
b) Clay shoveler's fracture is stable
c) In bilateral interfacetal dislocation, there is anterior translocation of the involved
vertebra by at least 50% of the diameter of the subjacent vertebrae
d) Hangman's fracture is a bilateral fracture of the neural arches of C2
e) Unilateral interfacet joint dislocation is a stable injury
132
31 Which of the following are true regarding cholesteatomas?

a) The majority are congenital
b) Acquired cholesteatoma is associated with a disrupted tympanic membrane
c) They arise from Prussak's space
d) They typically enhance with gadolinium
c) Labyrinthine fistulae are a recognised complication
32 Which of the following are true of the oral cavity?

a) Squamous cell carcinoma accounts for 90% of malignant tumours of the oral cavity
b) Pleomorphic adenomas are the most common benign glandular tumours of the oral cavity
c) Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral tongue spreads to the submandibular lymph nodes
d) The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma in the oral cavity is the mucosa
of the upper lip
e) Ranulas frequently present as bilateral masses in the floor of the mouth
33 Which of the following are true regarding salivary gland calculi?

a) More than 80% of salivary gland stones occur in the submandibular gland
b) About 25% of patients have multiple stones
c) Most submandibular stones are radio-opaque
c) Submandibular stones typically occur within Wharton's duct
e) Asymptomatic intraductal parotid stones can be an incidental finding on CT
34 Which of the following are true regarding imaging of the lacrimal system?
a) The most common site of obstruction is at the distal end of the nasolacrimal duct
b) Lacrimal duct calculi are present in up to 30% of patients with chronic dacryocystitis
c) Diverticula of the nasolacrimal duct are usually the result of obstruction
d) Fistulae of the nasolacrimal system typically involve the lacrimal sac
e) Dacryoscintigraphy (DSG) is more sensitive at detecting obstruction than contrast
dacryocystography (DCG)
35 Which of the following are True of tumours of the skull base?

a) Chordomas in the clivus commonly present with nasopharyngeal obstruction
b) Chordomas typically enhance after contrast
c) Meningiomas cause widening of sutures
d) Chondrosarcomas at the skull base are usually related to the synchondrosis or fissures
e) Secondary involvement of the skull base is usually by haematogenous spread
36 Which of the following are true regarding imaging of the brachial plexus?
a) Coronal MRI sequences are useful
b) 50% of brachial plexus injuries result from trauma
c) Brachial plexopathy postradiotherapy typically presents within 1 year of treatment
d) In patients with brachial plexopathy, MRI is useful in distinguishing tumour recurrence
from postradiotherapy change
e) Brachial plexus avulsion injuries are at accurately diagnosed by myelography
133
37 Which of the following are true regarding imaging of lymphoma of the head and neck?
a) In Hodgkin's disease, Waldeyer's ring is typically spared
b) Extranodal involvement is common in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
c) Lymph nodes involved in Hodgkin's disease typically show homogenous
contrast enhancement
d) Lymph node calcification is common before treatment
e) Lymphoma of the orbit most commonly involves the optic nerve sheath
38 Which of the following are true regarding granulocytic sarcoma (chloroma)?

a) It typically affects children
b) It usually presents as a solitary lesion
c) It is associated with myeloproliferative disease in up to 50% of patients
d) It typically enhances after contrast on CT
e) It rarely involves the paranasal sinuses
39 Which of the following are true regarding the facial nerve?

a) The facial nerve lies within the anterosuperior quadrant of the internal auditory canal
b) The facial nerve may protrude through the oval window
c) Facial nerve neuroma is the most common cause of hemifacial spasm
d) The most common neoplasm of the VII nerve is a schwannoma
e) Mild enhancement of the facial nerve on MRI is suggestive of an underlying
inflammatory/infectious process
40 Which of the following are true regarding cross-sectional imaging of the head and neck?
a) The carotid sheath lies posterior to the styloid process
b) The carotid sheath normally contains lymph nodes
c) Neuroblastoma is the most common primary carotid sheath malignancy in children
d) The presence of flow voids in a mass greater than 2 cm involving the carotid artery
favours a diagnosis of a paraganglioma rather than a schwannoma
e) The most common lesion of the carotid sheath is a paraganglioma
134
Answers
1 a) True The retropharyngeal space lies posterior to the parapharyngeal space and medial
to the carotid space, and is divided into anterior and posterior compartments
by fascia. The posterior compartment, which is also known as the prevertebral
space, extends from the skull base through the mediastinum to the diaphragm.
This allows infection to track down into the posterior mediastinum.
b) True This is the major space in the suprahyoid neck and contains mostly fat,
but also major vessels, ectopic minor salivary rest cells and lymph nodes.
Displacement of the fat in the parapharyngeal space helps to localise lesions.
c) True The pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the paranasal sinuses, masticator
space, nasopharynx, orbit and middle cranial fossa via the foramen rotundum,
hence the importance in the spread of disease. It contains the pterygopalatine
ganglion and maxillary nerve.
d) True The normal nerve may not be seen on MRI; hence the position may be
inferred from the vein.
e) True Perineural spread of the tumour can occur via the foramen ovale into the
middle cranial fossa.
2 a) True Tornwaldt's cysts arise as a result of focal adhesion between the ectoderm
and regressing notochord. This forms a small pouch. When the connection
with the pouch is closed, a cyst results.
b) True They are well-defined, nonenhancing cysts between the prevertebral muscles
in the posterior roof of the nasopharynx.
c) False Protein in the cyst increases T1 value, thus increasing the signal
on T1-weighted scans.
d) False They do not cause bone erosion. They are rarely calcified and usually
hypodense on CT.
e) True Rathke's pouch cysts are located anterior and cephalad to Tornwaldt's cysts.
3 a) True The anterior ostiomeatal complex consists of the maxillary sinus ostium,
infundibulum, uncinate process, hiatus semilunaris, ethmoidal bullae, middle
turbinate and meatus. It is best evaluated on direct coronal scanning.
b) False Haller cells are the most anterior of the ethmoid air cells. They predispose
to sinus disease.
c) False Mucocoeles are expansile lesions, which arise secondary to occlusion of the
sinus ostium. They most frequently affect the frontal sinus (65% of cases)
followed by the ethmoid sinus. The sphenoid sinus is rarely involved.
d) True Other complications recognised on CT include orbital trauma (haematoma, lamina
papyracea disruption, surgical emphysema, abscess, orbital nerve damage) and
intracranial injury (pneumocephalus, cerebrospinal fluid [CSF] leak, haematoma,
cerebritis, abscess). The most common site of injury is the lateral lamella.
e) True Squamous cell carcinoma affects the maxillary sinus in 80% of cases. Other
malignancies include adenocarcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma and sarcoma.
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iad and neck imaging
4 a) False About 65% arise below, 1 5% at and 20% above the level of the hyoid bone.
b) False About 30% are diagnosed after age 20 years. Failure of involution of the
thyroglossal duct, which extends from the foramen caecum to the thyroid
gland in the neck, may result in a cyst anywhere along its course. The infrahyoid
cysts are often paramedian. Suprahyoid cysts are midline.
c) True It is important to confirm the presence of functioning thyroid tissue before surgery.
d) False Thyroglossal duct cysts are typically unilocular with capsular enhancement.
Enhancement does not necessarily indicate infection. Features of infection
may include thickened overlying skin and platysma.
e) True Carcinoma is a complication in less than 1% of all cases. Infection is much
more common.
5 a) True They are the most common benign tumour of infancy. Haemangiomas are
true benign neoplasms, which increase in size in the first few years of life.
b) True They are also three times more common in females than males.
c) False Intramuscular haemangiomas involve the posterior triangle muscles -
trapezius and masseter.
d) True However, this is frequently unnecessary in clinical practice.
e) True They are typically isointense with muscle on T1-weighted MRI and
hyperintense on T2-weighted MRI. They enhance briskly with contrast
and may show multiple flow voids.
6 a) True Common sites of dermoid cysts are lateral margins of the orbit,
and the oral and nasal cavities. Oral cavity lesions present later.
b) False Fat with high T1 signal is seen in other lesions (e.g. lipoma). Dermoid cysts
are usually hyperintense on T1-weighted MRI and isointense with muscle
on T2-weighted MRI.
c) False Both may contain fat, which has a high signal on T1-weighted imaging.
d) True Epidermoid cysts are inclusions of epidermal elements. They are usually
unilocular and thin walled.
e) True Epidermoid cysts are usually hypointense on T1-weighted imaging
and hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging.
7 a) False They arise at the saccule of the ventricle, secondary to obstruction

of the laryngeal ventricles. Occasionally this is due to cancer.
b) False they are bilateral in 25% of cases.
c) True They may contain air or fluid.
d) True Carcinoma occurs in less than 1 % of cases. Other complications include
infection or mucocoele formation.
e) False In relation to the thyrohyoid membrane, 30% are internal, 26% are external
and 44% are mixed.
8 a) True There is a 44-fold increased risk of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.

b) True Other bilateral tumours include acinus cell tumour and lymphoma.
c) True This is associated with a poor prognosis.
d) True Mucoepidermoid carcinoma presents as a hard mass, which may be
low grade (well defined) or high grade (with an infiltrating edge).
e) True The Ultrasound features of pleomorphic salivary gland adenoma are classical:
a hypoechoic, lobulated mass with through transmission.
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9 a) True Lipomas are encapsulated masses of mature fat found mostly in the
posterior triangle.
b) True Paragangliomas (glomus jugulare, glomus vagale and carotid body tumours)
are hypervascular lesions. MRI may show flow voids.
c) False Ranulas are retention cysts in the submucosal gland. They are high signal on
T2-weighted scans and may have low, iso, or high signal on T1-weighted scans.
d) True However, they may be seen anywhere along the course of the developing
second branchial cleft (tonsillar fossa to the supraclavicular fossa) and
classically extend between the internal and external carotid arteries.
e) True This is due to the paramagnetic properties of melanin. They are high signal
on T1-weighted scans and low on T2-weighted MRI.
10 a) True Following trauma, the arytenoids dislocate anteriorly and superiorly.

b) True Cricoid cartilage is a ring structure and fractures in at least two places.
c) True Squamous carcinoma is supraglottic in 20%-30% of cases, glottic in
50%-60% and subglottic in only 5% of cases.
d) True Tumours may then spread into the anterior commissure from where they
can spread to the supraglottic and subglottic region.
e) True Subglottic tumours are rare. They usually represent extension of glottic tumours.
They may then invade the trachea, oesophagus and thyroid. They have a poor
prognosis due to late presentation and detection.
11 All true Juvenile angiofibromas most commonly occur in teenage males. They are highly
vascular and arise in the posterior nares and nasopharynx. They extend into the
pterygopalatine fossa in more than 90% of cases and can involve the middle
cranial fossa and orbit, causing widening of the superior and inferior orbital
fissure. Biopsy is contraindicated because of the risk of bleeding. CT shows
immediate enhancement after intravenous contrast and MRI shows intermediate
signal on T1-weighted imaging, with focal areas of low signal due to signal voids.
Presurgical embolisation can be considered.
12 a) True
b) True About 15% of cases are caused by parathyroid hyperplasia and 1% by
hyperfunctioning parathyroid carcinoma.
c) False However, 25% show high signal on T2-weighted MRI.
d) True About 20% of glands are ectopic and 10% are found within the mediastinum.
e) False About 25% of adenomas enhance on CT. However, detection largely depends
on adenoma size. Power Doppler may show increased vascularity.
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13 a) False Papillary carcinoma accounts for 60%, follicular 20%, anaplastic 4-15%
and medullary 1-5%.
b) False Papillary carcinoma metastasises to nodes in 40% of adult cases (but 90%
of child cases). Haematogenous spread is much less common. It affects
the lungs in 4% of cases and rarely bone.
c) True Follicular carcinoma shows early haematogenous spread to lung and bone.
d) True Papillary carcinoma usually takes up radioiodine. Follicular carcinoma
concentrates pertechnetate but not iodine (123I). Medullary carcinoma
demonstrates no iodine or pertechnetate uptake, but does concentrate
thallium (201TI).
e) True Medullary carcinoma may be associated with MEN lla (phaeochromocytoma
hyperparathyroidism and medullary carcinoma) and MEN lIb
(phaeochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma, oral and intestinal
ganglioneuromas and a marfanoid habitus).
14 a) False Most are glottic carcinomas (50-60%); supraglottic carcinoma accounts

for 20-30% and subglottic carcinoma 5% of cases.
b) True Glottic carcinoma presents early with hoarseness. Supraglottic carcinoma
presents late (typically T3/T4 disease) and 50% have lymphadenopathy.
c) True Thickening of the anterior commissure greater than 1 mm is suspicious
of tumour involvement.
d) True Subglottic cancer presents late and spreads circumferentially. Almost 50% of cases
will involve the cricoid or thyroid cartilage. Inferior spread may involve the trachea.
e) True Cartilage involvement indicates T4 disease and often precludes conservative
surgery. Cartilage involvement is largely related to tumour size and site and
not to histology. It is best assessed with MRI.
15 a) False Nasal fractures are the most common facial bone fractures.
b) True Le Fort I is a transverse fracture through the maxilla. Le Fort II involves a fracture
through the alveolar ridge, medial orbital rim and nasal bone. Le Fort III involves
a fracture through the nasofrontal suture, frontomaxillary suture, orbital wall
and zygomatic arch and results in craniofacial instability.
c) True There is usually an associated zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture on the
side of the trauma. To sustain a true Le Fort fracture, the face must be exactly
perpendicular to the force of impact.
d) False The medial wall of the orbit is commonly fractured in an orbital blow-out
fracture in which the floor is also fractured. An isolated medial wall fracture
is uncommon and usually results from penetrating trauma.
e) True Other radiographic features of blow-out orbital fracture include: soft tissue
projecting from the floor of the orbit into the maxillary sinus, a depressed
fragment of orbital floor hanging obliquely from medial to lateral,
and opacification of the maxillary sinus.
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16 a) False A Michel aplasia is total aplasia of the inner ear. The Mondini deformity
preserves the basal turn of the cochlea, allowing some hearing.
b) False Cholesteatomas are isointense to brain on T1-weighted imaging and
hyperintense on T2-weighted imaging. (Compare this with cholesterol
granulomas, which are hyperintense on both T1- and T2-weighted imaging.)
There is no enhancement following intravenous gadolinium.
c) False Cholesteatomas are a focal collection of exfoliated keratin within a sac of
squamous epithelium. They may be acquired or, rarely, congenital. They
may erode the tegmen tympani, cause labyrinthine fistula and disrupt the
ossicular chain (initially the long process of the incus).
d) False A vestibular aqueduct larger than 2 mm is abnormal. Vestibular aqueduct
syndrome can present with unilateral congenital deafness and is commonly
missed radiologically.
e) True Otosclerosis involves the stapes in 80%-90% of cases. There is progressive
bone formation at the oval window with fixation of the stapes. This is bilateral
in 90% of cases.
17 a) False The most common cause of deafness after head injury is haemotympanum
or rupture of the ear drum.
b) True About 75% of fractures are longitudinal and parallel to the long axis
of the petrous bone.
c) False Longitudinal fractures usually result in conductive deafness due to disruption
of the ossicular chain, especially the incus. Facial nerve palsy is seen in only
10-20% of cases. This is usually due to oedema and recovers spontaneously.
d) True With transverse fractures, spontaneous recovery is less common than with
longitudinal fractures. If the fracture line crosses the apex of the petrous
temporal bone with involvement of the internal auditory canal and labyrinth,
then irreversible sensorineural hearing loss will result.
e) True This joint is poorly demonstrated on cross-sectional imaging.
1 8 a ) . False Enhancement may be seen with normal nerves due to the presence of
perineural vascular plexus.
b) False The trigeminal nerve is the largest cranial nerve and the most common nerve
involved in perineural spread.
c) True Loss of perineural fat in the pterygopalatine fossa is a useful indicator of perineural
spread along the V2 branches of the trigeminal nerve. In addition to loss of fat
planes adjacent to nerves, other signs include: erosion or enlargement of nerve
foramina, and enlargement and abnormal enhancement of the nerve with loss
of distinction between the nerve and its perineural vascular plexus.
d) True Common tumours to show perineural spread include squamous cell tumour
and adenoid cystic tumour of the salivary gland.
e) True Denervation is a feature of perineural spread. Denervated muscle returns high
T2 signal acutely. Chronic changes include fatty replacement and atrophy.
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19 a) False 78% occur under the age of 12 years. A second peak is seen between ages 15
and 19 years.
b) False The most frequent sites of origin of rhabdomyosarcomas are the head and neck
(43%), genitourinary system (29%), trunk (16%) and extremities. The most
common sites in the head and neck are the orbit (36%), nasopharynx (15%),
middle ear and mastoid.
c) True 15% of fibrosarcomas involve the head and neck, usually the maxilla,
mandible, sinonasal cavity and larynx. The typical age group is 30-50 years.
d) True Leiomyosarcomas arise from smooth muscle. Up to 10% involve the head and
neck, and usually the sinonasal cavity. The typical age of occurrence is 50 years.
They are bulky tumours, which have areas of cystic and necrotic change.
e) True The usual age of onset of liposarcomas is 40 years and 3% involve the head and
neck, where they usually involve the sinonasal cavity and soft tissues of the neck.
20 a) False Malignant tumours are less common than benign tumours. They are usually
adenoid cystic or mucoepidermoid tumours.
b) False It comprises 30% of malignant neoplasms of the minor salivary glands,
15% of submandibular tumours and 2-6% of parotid gland tumours.
The 10-year survival rate is 40%. Adenoid cystic tumour is a malignant
tumour, which shows early perineural spread along the facial nerve.
c) True About 80% of salivary gland tumours arise in the parotid gland and 80%
of parotid tumours arise in the superficial lobe. A total of 80% of parotid
tumors are benign.
d) True Pleomorphic adenomas comprise 70% of parotid tumours, show high T2 signal,
and are usually well defined. They are mostly seen in women over 60 years of age.
e) True However, nodal enlargement is usually due to infection, inflammation,
or metastases.
21 a) False Fibrous dysplasia typically presents before the age of 30 years. The most
common sites of involvement are the ribs (30%), cranium and facial bones (25%)
and femur and tibia (25%).
b) True Other head and neck manifestations include cranial asymmetry, visual
impairment due to foraminal narrowing, and cranial and orbital asymmetry.
Extensive craniofacial involvement may result in leontiasis ossea.
c) True Other associations include precocious puberty in girls with cafe-au-lait spots
(McCune-Albright syndrome), hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism,
acromegaly and diabetes mellitus.
d) True The most common sites in the skull are the frontal bone, sphenoid and,
less commonly, hemicranial involvement.
e) True In the maxilla, it typically causes a localised homogenous opacity with
an increase in size on one side.
22 a) True
b) True
c) False
d) True
e) False
Other causes of loss of the lamina dura include osteoporosis, osteomalacia,
scleroderma, localised infection and metastasis/leukaemia.
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23 a) False About 75% of ameloblastomas arise in the mandible, usually at the angle.
They may be multilocular and are cystic expansile lesions, which often recur
after excision.
b) True Dentigerous cysts arise adjacent to an unerupted crown, usually a wisdom/canine
tooth. They may be multilocular.
c) True Godin's syndrome comprises dentigerous cysts, multiple basal cell naevi, rib
anomalies and falx calcification. Medulloblastomas may also be seen in children.
It has an autosomal dominant inheritance.
d) True Radicular cysts are common benign cystic lesions near the apex of a caries
tooth, which may erode into the mandible, displacing adjacent teeth.
e) False Bone cysts are unilocular and well defined. They may be trauma-related
and typically arise in the body of the mandible.
24 a) False Dissection of the extracranial carotid artery is asymptomatic at presentation

in 50% of cases. Diagnosis may be delayed.
b) True C2 is the most common fracture site, followed by C6 and C5. The posterior
elements are fractured in over 50% of cases and the body is involved in 30%
of cervical spine fractures. The thoracic and lumbar spine may be involved
in 15-20% of cases.
c) False Vertebral artery injury is usually due to stretching and occurs most frequently
at the C1/C2 level. Vertebral artery injuries are more common than carotid
artery Injuries in blunt neck trauma.
d) False Odontoid peg fractures arc divided into three types. Type 1 is a fracture
of the tip (5-8%). Type 2 is a fracture at the base (54-67%). Type 3
is a subodontoid peg fracture (30-33%).
e) False Barium swallow and endoscopy have 89% and 94% sensitivity for
pharyngoesophageal injury, respectively, with nearly 100% specificity.
25 a) True Other associations include syringomyelia, platybasia, dubbed foot,

hemivertebra and congenital heart disease (e. g. coarctation). One third
have renal agenesis.
b) True Deafness occurs in 30% of cases and can be due to an absent auditory canal,
and ossicular and labyrinthine maldevelopment.
c) True Fusion may involve the craniovertebral junction and cervicothoracic junction.
d) True
e) True
26 a) False 123I
is preferred mainly due to its 159 keV γ energy, short half-life and
low radiation dose. 131I has a higher radiation dose and can be used for
the treatment of functioning thyroid cancer.
b) False Only 5%-20% of cold nodules on scintigraphy are neoplastic.
c) True
d) False Cold nodules on scintigraphy are usually hypoechoic on ultrasound scanning.
Less commonly, they are isoechoic and, rarely, hyperechoic (3%).
e) True Other causes of cold nodule include carcinoma, lymphoma, granuloma,
abscess, cyst and parathyroid tumour.
141
27 a) True Laryngeal papillomatosis consist of benign squamous papillomas, which may

be single or diffuse. They typically affect those under 10 or 20-50 years old.
The latter group usually have a singe papilloma.
b) True Presentation includes hoarseness, stridor, recurrent Infection and haemoptysis,
c) False Areas of involvement include the uvula and palate, vocal cords and subglottic
extension (50-70% of cases).
d) True Complications include: pulmonary involvement, tracheobronchial papilloma
and bronchiectasis
c) True This is usually squamous cell carcinoma.
28 a) True FDG PET depends on altered metabolic activity of tumour tissue, in particular
increased glycolysis. FDG is a glucose analogue, which competes with native
glucose and becomes trapped within tumour cells with increased glycolysis.
Patients are fasted for 6 hours before the FDG injection. Diabetics should
have their glucose normalized before the injection.
b) True Normal physiological uptake is seen in the cerebellar hemispheres and temporal
lobes and milder uptake occurs in the cervical spinal cord. The highest activity
is seen in the palatine and lingual tonsils, lips and sublingual glands.
c) True SUV is a semiquantitative method of evaluating FDG uptake. It is derived by the
following equation: SUV = decay corrected tissue activity concentration in the
tumour ÷ injected dose/body weight. SUV of cervical metastatic nodes ranges from
2-11 with a mean of 3.7. As benign inflammatory nodes have a reported SUV
up to 15 there is overlap. However, an SUV larger than 3.5 may be considered
to indicate malignancy, especially when the PET findings are interpreted together
with the results of clinical examination and other imaging methods,
d) True FDG PET is highly sensitive and specific. However, it does not indicate whether
the tumour cells will take up 131I FDG PET is mainly indicated in the posttherapy
setting when the carcinoma is less differentiated and more metabolically active.
Patients with less well differentiated carcinoma are less able to concentrate
radioiodine. PET is also useful in patients with Hurthle cell carcinoma, anaplasia,
thyroid cancers and in the detection of metastatic or minimal residual disease
in those with medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
e) False After radiotherapy, FDG uptake ;may decrease markedly, but remain stable
in tissue. In order to avoid these false-positive and later false-negative
results, FDG should not be undertaken within 4 months of radiotherapy.
29 a) True Atherosclerosis typically involves the posterior lateral aspect of the bub
in the early stages.
b) false Ulcerated plaques are prone to platelet aggravation and embolus. The best
technique to diagnose an ulcerated plaque is angiography (sensitivity 46%
and specificity 74%).
c) True Multiple stenoses are seen in 20% of cases and most commonly include the
cavernous segment of the internal carotid artery (ICA). This area is poorly
imaged by magnetic resonance angiography.
d) False Fibromuscular dysplasia affects the ICA above the level of the bulb, typically
affects women (F:M = 9:1) aged 50-70 year
e) false Carotid dissection causes 20% or strokes in those less than 40 years old.
When related to trauma, the site of origin is usually the ICA at the level
of the C2 vertebral body.
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30) False Flexion teardrop fractures involve avulsion of the anterior inferior corner,
usually of the C2 vertebral body with displacement of the Involved vertebral
body into the spinal column. There is disruption of all soft-tissue structures
with an associated acute anterior cervical cord syndrome.
b) true This is an oblique fracture of the spinous process of C6, C7 or T1.
c) True In bilateral interfacetal joint dislocation, the articular masse of the involved
vertebra dislocate and rest anterior to the superior facets of the
subjacent vertebrae
d) True This is associated with anterior subluxation of C2 on C3.
e) True The involved inferior articular facet of the vertebra above is dislocated
anterior to the superior facet of the vertebra below.
31 a) False 98% are acquired. Cholesteatomas represent exfoliated keratin within

a squamous epithelium sac.
h) True Cholesteatomas are associated with marginal perforation of the tympanic
membrane and chronic mastoiditis.
c) True Acquired cholesteatomas are thought to arise from retraction pockets in the
superior pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane within Prussak's space. This
space is located in the malleus neck and the lateral wall of the attic.
d) False No enhancement is seen following intravenous gadolinium.
e) True Fistulae usual occur at the level of the lateral semicircular canal
32 a) true About 93% of oral cavity lesions are benign. Of the malignant lesions, 90% are
squamous cell cancers. Other malignancies include adenocarcinoma, adenoid
cystic carcinoma, mucoepidermoid carcinoma, lymphoma and sarcoma
b) True Pleomorphic adenoma are well-defined lesions with little contrast enhancement
on CT On MRI. they are isointense to muscle on T1-weighted scans and
hyperintense on T2-weighted scans. They may have cystic, haemorrhagic
or calcified area
1) True Spread occurs to the submandibular and internal jugular lymph node chain
This is usually bilateral
d) false The most common sites of squamous cell carcinoma are the lower lip,
oral tongue and floor of the mouth
e) False Ranula are mucous retention cysts of the floor of the month. They are
simple unilocular cystic lesions. Rarely, they may dissect across the midline
and present as bilateral masses.
33 a) True About 10-20% occur in the parotid gland and 1-7% in the submandibular gland.
b) True
c) True About 80% of submandibular stones and 60% of parotid stones are radio-opaque,
d) True About 85% of submandibular stones occur within Wharton's duct
e) True
143
34 a) False The most common site of obstruction is at the junction of the lacrimal sac
and nasolacrimal duct.
b) True
c) True Diverticula may resolve once the obstruction is removed.
d) True Fistulae may be congenital, postinfectious, inflammatory or traumatic.
They most commonly involve the lacrimal sac.
e) True Normal DSG is always associated with normal contrast DCG. However,
in 26% of cases in which DCG indicates a normal lacrimal system,
DSG shows evidence of obstruction.
35 a) True Chordomas in the clivus may also involve the spheno-occipital synchondrosis.
A total of 50% arise in the sacrum and 35% arise in the skull base. Metastasis,
usually to the lungs, occurs in 7%.
b) True Most show homogenous enhancement and speckled calcification.
c) True Meningiomas may extend below the base of skull and rapidly enlarge.
Most are uniformly enhancing lesions.
c)) True This is particularly true of petro-occipital synchondrosis, which, unlike
chordomas, is not midline.
c) False Local spread of tumour is the most frequent mode of proliferation.
Other pathways include haematogenous and perineural spread.
36 a) True Due to its multiplanar capabilities and ability to visualise nerves and vessels,
MRI is the preferred mode of investigation.
b) True Trauma to the brachial plexus can result in avulsion of the nerve root and
pseudomeningocoeles. Distal trauma may cause neural oedema and haematoma
and lead to posttraumatic neuroma.
c) True Postradiotherapy brachial plexopathy typically presents within 1 year as
weakness and lymphoedema.
d) True On MRI, postradiotherapy fibrosis (with doses greater than 60 Gy) is often
isointense to muscle on T1- and T2-weighted sequences. Tumour recurrence
shows high signal on T2-weighted imaging and enhances with contrast.
e) True However, myelography fails to demonstrate intradural rootlets at the invoked level.
37 a) True Non-Hodgkin's disease more frequently invokes Waldeyer's ring.

b) True About 60% of non-Hodgkin s lymphomas invoke extranodal sites, whereas
98% of patients with Hodgkin’s disease have involvement of the nodes.
c) False There is frequently no central necrosis.
d) False Calcification is rarely described before treatment, but is common
after chemoradiotherapy.
c) False Orbital lymphoma is usually non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and more commonly
involves the lacrimal gland and other extraconal structures than the intraconal
elements. It may be bilateral.
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146
Chapter 8
Paediatric radiology
1 Regarding intussusception, which of the following are true?

a) The peak incidence is between 6 months and 2 years of age
b) The majority of cases are ileoileal
c) Ultrasound has a low sensitivity in diagnosis
d) Pneumatic reduction has a lower perforation rate compared with hydrostatic reduction
e) The risk of recurrence following a successful reduction is approximately 30%
2 Which of the following fractures in a child are highly specific for nonaccidental injury?
a) Sternal fracture
b) Vertebral spinous process fracture
c) Posterior rib fractures
d) Humeral shaft fracture
e) Tibial shaft fracture
3 Regarding hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which of the following are true?

a) The peak incidence is between 2 and 6 months of age
b) It is frequently diagnosed in premature infants
c) Mules and females are equally affected
d) It is associated with gastric pneumatosis
e) An elongated pyloric canal measuring 14 mm on ultrasound supports the diagnosis
4 Regarding Meckel's diverticulum, which of the following are true?

a) It is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct
b) It arises from the mesenteric border of the small bowel
c) It is the most common identifiable cause of intussusception in children
d) It is only diagnosed at angiography if there is active bleeding
e) About 80-90% contain ectopic gastric mucosa
5 Regarding infantile polycystic kidney disease, which of the following are true?
a) It is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition
b) The most common age of presentation is between 2 and 5 years of age
c) Severe infantile polycystic disease is associated with severe hepatic fibrosis
d) It typically reveals a striated nephrogram on the delayed excretory urogram
e) Infantile polycystic kidneys are echopoor on ultrasound

a) Infratentorial tumours are more common than supratentorial tumours
in the 2-5 years age group
b) Medulloblastomas are the most common posterior fossa tumour in childhood
c) Medulloblastomas are typically cystic lesions with a mural nodule
d) Childhood brainstem gliomas predominantly arise in the midbrain
e) Brainstem gliomas are prevalent in neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1)
7 Regarding nonaccidental injuries, which of the following are true?

a) Shaken baby syndrome is typically seen between 1 year and 18 months of ago
b) Retinal haemorrhages are present in the majority of cases where shaking is involved
c) Interhemispheric subdural haematomas are strongly' associated with nonaccidental injury
d) Extradural haematomas are highly suspicious of nonaccidental injury-
e) The 'white cerebellum sign' refers to posterior fossa haemorrhage following severe abuse
148
8 Regarding umbilical catheters, which of the following are true?

a) An umbilical venous catheter can be recognised by its caudal course from the umbilicus
b) The tip of an umbilical vein catheter may enter the pulmonary veins
c) The tip of an umbilical artery catheter should be positioned above T6
d) The normal umbilicus contains two veins and one artery
e) A common site of malposition of an umbilical vein catheter is with the tip
in the middle hepatic vein
9 Regarding cleidocranial dysplasia, which of the following are true?

a) It is due to a sporadic genetic mutation
b) There is early closure of the cranial sutures
c) It is associated with mental retardation
d) Most patients are delivered by Caesarean section
e) Typically, patients have short second metacarpals
10 Causes of basal ganglia calcification in children include which of the following?

a) Down's syndrome
b) Wilson's disease
c) Cytomegalovirus infection
d) Hypoparathyroidism
e) Congenital rubella
11 Regarding developmental dysplasia of the hip, which of the following are true?
a) A prolonged labour is a recognised risk factor
b) The condition can be diagnosed on ultrasonography up to 18 months of age
c) Subluxation of 6-7 mm during ultrasound stress views of the hip is significant
d) Ultrasonographic examination is performed with the hip in a flexed position
e) The acetabular labrum is poorly seen on ultrasonography
12 Regarding retinoblastoma, which of the following are true?

a) Up to 40% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
b) Presentation is usually after 5 years of ago
c) Tumour spread is typically along the optic nerve
d) A calcified intraocular mass is a characteristic computed tomography (CT) finding
e) There is an association with the later development of chondrosarcoma
13 In childhood, which of the following are true regarding non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is more common than Hodgkin’s disease in young children
b) Splenic involvement occurs in more than 70% of cases at presentation
c) There is a higher incidence of extranodal disease in childhood non-Hodgkin's
lymphoma than when it occurs in adults
d) Pulmonary involvement is more common in Hodgkin's disease
e) Central nervous system disease at presentation indicates a poor prognosis
14 Regarding osteogenesis imperfecta, which of the following are true?

a) It results in intrauterine death in the majority of cases
b) It is associated with abnormally sclerotic bone
c) It is characteristically associated with wormian bones
d) Deafness is secondary to otosclerosis
e) It heals with a florid periosteal reaction around fractures
149
15 Increased reflectivity is a prominent feature of ultrasonography of the infant brain

in which of the following?
a) Interhemispheric lipoma
b) Septo-optic dysplasia
C) Cytomegalovirus infection
d) Nonaccidental injury
e) Periventricular leucomalacia

a) The maximum diameter of the normal appendix on ultrasonography should
not be greater than 8 mm
b) Increased echogenicity of the submucosal layer is a feature of perforation of the appendix
c) In patients with appendiceal perforation, the appendix is visualised on ultrasonography
in 80%-90% of cases
d) Air within the appendix on CT is suspicious for appendicitis
e) The presence of an appendicolith on ultrasonography or CT warrants
an appendicectomy
17 Regarding choanal atresia, which of the following are true?

a) It is usually due to membranous obstruction of the choanae
b) Urgent treatment is required if the condition is bilateral
c) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the modality of choice for diagnosis
d) It is associated with cleft face, nose and palate
e) The vomer is typically thickened on CT
18 Regarding Arnold Chiari type II malformation, which of the following are true?
a) It is characterised by dysgenesis of the cerebellar vermis
b) There is hypoplasia of the cerebellum
c) Spina bifida is strongly associated
d) The spinal cord is frequently tethered
e) It is associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome
19 Regarding Wilms' tumor (nephroblastoma), which of the following are true?

a) Haematuria is a frequent presentation
b) Calcification occurs less frequently than in neuroblastomas
c) Lung metastases are common
d) There is an association with NF
e) The. prognosis is poor

a) The normal thymus in a child is hypoechoic relative to the liver
b) The thymus is highly vascular on colour Doppler ultrasonography
c) The thymus arises from the third and fourth branchial pouches
d) Thymolipomas are common causes of thymic enlargement in childhood
e) Teratomas comprise the most common anterior mediastinal mass in childhood
150
21 Regarding the neonatal spine, which of the following are true?

a) The tip of the conus medullaris is located at L3 in healthy neonates
b) Diastematomyelia typically occurs in the mid-thoracic region
c) Diastematomyelia is associated with cord tethering
d) Lateral meningocoeles are associated with Marfan’s syndrome
e) Spinal ultrasonography is indicated in babies with a subcutaneous lipoma
overlying the spine
22 Causes of neonatal cholestasis include which of the following?

a) Septo-optic dysplasia
b) Alagille syndrome
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Cystic fibrosis
e) Maternal warfarin ingestion
23 Regarding congenital lobar emphysema, which of the following are true?

a) CT demonstrates multiple small cysts in the affected lung
b) It may present with complete opacification of the affected lobe
c) The left upper lobe is most frequently affected
d) It is associated with congenital heart disease
e) Insertion of a chest drain is often curative
24 Regarding cystic fibrosis, which of the following are true?

a) Pleural fluid is usually the first manifestation of pulmonary disease
b) Stenotic pancreatic duct segments are common
c) Lobar pneumonia predominantly affix is the lower lobes
d) The abnormal gene is on the long arm of chromosome 7
e) The paranasal sinuses are radiographically opaque in almost all patients over 2 years of age

a) The 'H' type tracheo-oesophageal fistula is the most common
b) Duplication cysts of the gastrointestinal tract are most common in the ileal region
c) Duodenal atresia usually presents with bilious vomiting
d) Duodenal duplication cysts are located on the convex border of the duodenum
e) Duodenal atresia is associated with malrotation of the small bowel

a) A left-sided superior vena cava usually drains into the left atrium, resulting
in a right-to-left shunt
b) Total anomalous pulmonary circulation is always associated with an atrial septal
defect or patent foramen ovale
c) Partial anomalous pulmonary circulation is associated with a hypogenetic right lung
d) Bronchopulmonary' sequestration characteristically occurs in the right paravertebral gutter
e) Cystic adenomatoid malformation (CAM) occurs with equal frequency- in both lungs
151

a) Vesico-ureteric reflux usually occurs into the lower pole moiety of a complete
ureteral duplication
b) Ectopic ureterocoeles in duplex kidneys are more common in boys than girls
c) Ectopic ureteral insertion in boys is always suprasphincteric
d) An ectopic ureteral insertion may present with daytime incontinence in a girl
e) Horseshoe kidneys are associated with a higher incidence of duplicated kidneys

a) Giant cell tumours of bone are most commonly seen in the 5-15 years age group
b) Ewing's tumour rarely arises within flat bones
c) Parosteal osteosarcomas have a peak in the 10-20 years age group
d) Eosinophilic granuloma usually invokes one bone only
e) Ewing’s tumours often demonstrate calcification on CT
29 Which of the following statements are correct?

a) The gallbladder is implicated in approximately 20% of patients with biliary atresia
b) Neonatal hepatite cannot be distinguished from biliary atresia on ultrasonography
c) The presence of radioisotope within the gastrointestinal tract following
a hepato-iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan excludes biliary atresia
d) Surgical repair of biliary atresia is best delayed until after 3 months of age
e) Biliary atresia is associated with asplenia
30 Causes of delayed hone age include which of the following?

a) Inflammatory bowel disease
b) Turner's syndrome
c) Obesity
d) Pseudohypoparathyroidism
e) Cleidocranial dysplasia
31 Which of the following are true regarding slipped femoral capital epiphysis?
a) It represents a Salter-Harris type V injury
b) It is bilateral in 20% of cases
c) There is slight widening of the joint space
d) The slip is typically in a posteromedial direction
e) Ultrasonography is useful in confirming the diagnosis
32 Regarding hepatoblastomas, which of the following are true?

a) Presentation is usually after 4 years of age
b) Alpha-fetoprotein levels are not elevated
c) Following intravenous contrast-enhanced CT, hepatoblastomas are hypodense
relative to the surrounding liver
d) Calcification is rarely seen
e) MRI characteristics of hepatocellular carcinomas and hepatoblastomas are similar
152
33 Features of Wolman's disease include which of the following?

a) Nephrocalcinosis
b) Splenomegaly
c) An autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
d) Death between 20 and 30 years of ago
e) Generalised osteosclerosis
34 Regarding necrotising enterocolitis, which of the following are true?

a) Presentation is usually seen in premature infants within 48 hours of birth
b) It usually involves the proximal small bowel
c) Portal vein gas demands urgent surgical intervention
d) There is a decreased incidence in neonates receiving enteral nutrition
e) Gastric dilatation is a radiographic finding
35 Features of rickets include which of the following?

a) A sclerotic rim around the epiphysis
b) A metaphyseal spur projecting at right angles to the long axis of the bone
c) ‘Ground glass’ osteoporosis
d) Craniotabes
e) Biconcave vertebral bodies
36 Regarding eosinophilic granuloma, which of the following are true?

a) Bone lesions are usually solitary
b) Vertebral pedicles are typically affected
c) The cranial vault is rarely involved
d) The mandible is rarely involved
e) A periosteal reaction is not seen on plain film
37 Regarding AIDS in children, which of the following are true?

a) Pneumocystis carinii (jirovecii) pneumonia is uncommon in children
b) Kaposi's sarcoma is rarely seen
c) The incubation period is shorter than in adults
d) Hypoechoic areas are present in the neonatal basal ganglia
e) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis is common
38 Causes of ascites in the neonate include which of the following?

a) Hydrops fetalis
b) Posterior urethral valves
c) Meconium peritonitis
d) Biliary atresia
e) Lymphangiectasia
39 Regarding wormian hones, which of the following are true?

a) They are a normal finding up to 18 months of age
b) They typically involve the coronal suture
c) They are a feature of Down's syndrome
d) They are seen in sickle cell anaemia
e) They are a feature of rickets
153
40 Regarding the paediatric parotid gland, which of the following are true?
a) The normal parotid gland is hypoechoic relative to adjacent muscle
b) An accessory parotid gland is present in 20% of patients
c) The facial nerve is not visualised on any imaging modality
d) Pleomorphic adenomas are extremely rare in the paediatric population
e) fluid-fluid interfaces are typical of haemangiomas on MRI
154
Answers
1 a) True Approximately 50% of cases present in the first year of life and 24%
in the second year. Two thirds are male.
b) False More than 90% of cases are ileocolic. Only 4% are ileoileal.
c) False Ultrasound is highly sensitive (90%-100%). Typically, a 'target' sign is seen
on transverse imaging with a central hyperechoic area representing the
mesentery of the intussusceptum and a surrounding hypoechoic ring
representing the wall of the intussuscipiens.
d) False Perforation rates are similar. Pneumatic methods are faster, however,
allowing a lower radiation dose. There is also less peritoneal contamination
in the event of a colonic perforation.
e) False In the absence of a lead point (94% of cases in children are idiopathic),
bowel wall oedema due to reduction of the intussusception tends to prevent
any early recurrence.
2 a) True
b) True
c) True ’
d) True Metaphyseal 'corner' fractures are almost pathognomonic for nonaccidental
injury. Sternal, scapular, humeral shaft, vertebral spinous process and posterior
rib fractures are not normally seen in children and, therefore, also have a high
specificity for nonaccidental injury. Fractures of different ages, irrespective of
the site of injury, or fractures through previous callus formation should also raise
strong suspicions.
e) False Spiral tibial shaft fractures in children are common injuries, often as. a result
of a rotational force applied during a fall. An incomplete, oblique hairline
crack in the distal tibia sustained when the child is learning to walk is termed
a 'toddler's fracture'.
3 a) False There is a peak incidence between 2 and 6 weeks of age. . .

b) False For reasons that are unclear, it is an extremely rare diagnosis in
premature infants.
c) False It typically occurs in firstborn males (M:F = 4:1) with an incidence of 1:1000.
It results from hypertrophy of the circular muscle fibres of the pylorus.
The aetiology is unknown.
d) True Gastric pneumatosis is occasionally identified on plain abdominal X-ray.
Following decompression of the stomach, the pneumatosis rapidly resolves.
Other associations include: oesophageal atresia, tracheo-oesophageal fistula,
hiatal hernia, Turner's syndrome, trisomy 18 and congenital rubella.
e) False The pyloric canal length should measure at least 17 mm, the pyloric wall
thickness at least 3 mm and the transverse diameter of the pylorus at least
1 3 mm in order to make the diagnosis on ultrasound.
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aediatric radiology
4 a) True This is also known as the vitelline duct and connects the midgut to the yolk sac
in the embryo. It is seen in 2% of the population, measures 5 cm in length,
lies within 60 cm of the terminal ileum and, if symptomatic, usually presents
before 2 years of age.
b) False They are true diverticula, containing all four intestinal wall layers. They arise
from the antimesenteric border of the bowel.
c) True The vast majority of intussusceptions in children are of unknown cause. Meckel's
diverticulum is the most common lead point identified. Other causes include
polyps, enteric and duplication cysts, and Henoch-Schönlein purpura.
d) False A long, nonbranching ileal artery typically supplies Meckel's diverticulum.
This may be an incidental finding at angiography.
e) False Only 50% contain ectopic gastric mucosa. These can be detected using
technetium-99m-labelled pertechnetate.
5 a) False Adult-type polycystic kidney disease shows autosomal dominant inheritance

with gene defects identified on chromosomes 16 and 4. Infantile polycystic
kidney disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion.
b) False The most common type is the antenatal form. This condition presents in utero
and progresses to renal failure and pulmonary hypoplasia (Potter sequence),
with the majority of patients dying in the first 24 hours of life.
c) False The milder forms (neonatal, infantile and juvenile types) present in the first
few years of life and are associated with more severe hepatic fibrosis: the less
severe the renal disease, the more severe the hepatic abnormalities.
d) True This appearance is caused by stasis of contrast material in dilated tubules.
The kidneys are symmetrically enlarged and have a smooth outline.
e) False The affected kidneys are replaced by a multitude of small elongated cysts
representing dilated tubules and collecting ducts. These cysts are too small
to delineate on ultrasound, but produce an echogenic pattern due to
multiple interfaces of the walls of the dilated ducts. There is poor
corticomedullary differentiation.
6 a) True Infratentorial neoplasms predominate in the 2-5 years age group.

Supratentorial tumours become more common in the second decade of life.
b) True Medulloblastomas comprise 30%-40% of all posterior fossa neoplasms
in childhood. Cerebellar astrocytomas are the second most common.
c) False This typically describes a cerebellar astrocytoma. Medulloblastomas are
typically densely cellular midline tumours. Both tumour types may obstruct
the fourth ventricle.
d) False About 40%-60% of brainstem gliomas arise in the pons, with only 15%-20%
occurring in the midbrain.
e) True T2-weighted high signal within the brainstem with associated mass effect
and cranial nerve involvement is typical of a brainstem glioma in a child
with NF type I.
156
7 a) False The average age of presentation is 6 months. Older children have a greater
ability to withstand the effects of sudden acceleration and deceleration
when shaken.
b) True Beyond the neonatal period, when retinal haemorrhages are commonly seen
as a consequence of the delivery, retinal haemorrhages are a highly specific
sign of nonaccidental and intracranial injury.
c) True These collections are often in the posterior interhemispheric fissure and are
associated with violent shaking of the baby's head. Convexity subdural
haematomas are usually also present, although they may only be seen on MRI.
d) False Extradural haematomas are infrequent in infancy and are rarely seen in cases
of abuse.
e) False Severely injured infants may develop marked brain oedema secondary to
ischaemia and hypoxia. This predominantly affects the cerebral cortex and deep
white matter tracts and spares the basal ganglia and cerebellum. The relatively
high density of the basal ganglia has been termed the reversal sign and the
increased cerebellar density the 'white cerebellum sign'.
8 a) False The umbilical vein catheter enters the umbilical vein, ascends into the left portal
vein to the ductus venosus and into the inferior vena cava and the right atrium.
b) True The catheter tip may be advanced through the patent foramen ovale, into the
left atrium and into a pulmonary vein. If the catheter crosses the midline, this
should be suspected and the catheter should be withdrawn into the right atrium.
c) False The umbilical artery catheter passes caudal from the umbilicus with a sharp bend
near the superior margin of the sacroiliac joint as the catheter passes from the
umbilical artery into the internal iliac artery and into the aorta, The catheter tip
should lie between T6 and L4.
d) False It contains two arteries and one vein. >
e) True An abrupt reversal of direction of the umbilical vein catheter below the
diaphragm often implies that the catheter has entered the middle hepatic vein.
9 a) False It is transmitted as an autosomal dominant condition. ;

b) False There is widening of the cranial sutures/fontanelles with delayed closure.
There is often a persistent metopic suture.
c) False
d) True Patients usually have a large head, resulting in the need for delivery
by Caesarean section.
e) False The second metacarpals are often elongated. Other features of the hand include
pointed terminal tufts, coned epiphyses and squared-off metacarpal bases.
Hypoplastic clavicles, delayed dentition, wormian bones and extra ribs are
the other classical features.
1 57
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aediatric radiology
10 All true The cause of basal ganglia calcification is unclear in the majority of cases and has
no clinical significance. The basal ganglia are susceptible to insults early in life due
to their high energy requirements. There are multiple other causes of calcification,
including birth anoxia, hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism,
pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, AIDS, tuberculosis,
toxoplasmosis, cysticercosis, poisoning (e.g. lead, carbon monoxide), chemotherapy,
radiotherapy, Fahr's disease, Cockayne's syndrome and childhood infections.
Wilson's disease causes low attenuation lesions in the basal ganglia on CT,
but can also cause calcification.
11 a) False A breech delivery, family history, female sex, oligohydramnios and

neuromuscular disorders are all risk factors for developmental dysplasia. ^
b) False Ossification of the femoral head limits the use of ultrasound beyond
8-10 months.
c) True Up to 5 mm of subluxation can be within normal limits. Beyond this indicates
significant instability. The influence of maternal hormones causes subluxation
of up to 6 mm in neonates; therefore, the study should not be performed
until the baby is more than 2 weeks of age.
d) True Both the neutral and stressed views are performed with the hip in the flexed
position. The stressed manoeuvre is a posterior push with the hip flexed
and adducted.
e) False The labrum is well demonstrated. The lateral tip and juxta-osseous portions
are echogenic, whilst the mid portion is echopoor.
12 a) True The genetic abnormality has been localised to chromosome 13. The majority
of cases are due to a sporadic gene mutation.
b) False Most cases (98%) occur before 5 years of age. A total of 30% of tumours
are bilateral and 30% are multifocal within one eye. Trilateral retinoblastoma
refers to the rare variant of bilateral retinoblastoma and neuroectodermal
pineal tumour (pineoblastoma).
c) True Metastases typically occur along the optic nerve via the subarachnoid space.
Metastases also commonly occur in meninges, bone marrow, lung, liver
and lymph nodes.
d) True . CT reveals a lobulated, dense mass that shows some degree of calcification
in up to 95% of cases. In the absence of calcifications, other mass lesions
should be suspected, such as persistent primary hyperplastic vitreous,
retrolental fibroplasia, toxocariasis, and Coats' disease.
e) True Patients with the inherited form of retinoblastoma are at increased risk
of other nonocular tumours, of which osteosarcoma is the most common.
Other nonocular tumours include chondrosarcoma, fibrosarcoma and
malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
158
T3 a) True It is also three times more common in boys. Immunodeficiency syndromes

increase the risk of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
b) False Abdominal involvement usually presents with a mass, typically in the ileocaecal
region, or intussusception causing obstruction. Splenic involvement is present
in less than 40% of cases at presentation.
c) True Childhood non-Hodgkin's lymphoma also tends to be of a higher histological
grade, with a diffuse pattern being more common than a follicular pattern.
d) True Pulmonary involvement is twice as common in Hodgkin's disease as in
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
e) True Any central nervous system involvement is considered as stage IV disease.
14 a) False Four types of osteogenesis imperfecta are classically described. Type I is the
most common and is compatible with life. Type II is usually fatal in the neonatal
period, with 50% being stillborn. Type III and IV are rare.
b) False There is diffuse osteopenia with a reduced trabecular pattern.
c) True Other changes in the skull include: marked thinning of the calvarium,
platybasia, mastoid cell enlargement and otosclerosis.
d) True This is typically seen in type I osteogenesis imperfecta secondary to a thickened,
undermineralised otic capsule.
e) True Exuberant callus formation may be seen around fracture sites.
T5 a) True
b) False This condition is characterised by hypoplasia of the optic nerves and hypoplasia
of the septum pellucidum.
c) True Other central nervous system manifestations of cytomegalovirus infection include
periventricular calcification, ventricular dilatation and microcephaly.
d) True This is usually due to subdural blood, which is often in the
interhemispheric region.
e) True This represents necrosis of deep white matter tracts secondary to ischaemia,
and is seen in premature infants. Typically, there is periventricular echogenicity,
which becomes apparent 2 days to 2 weeks following an ischaemic insult.
With time, periventricular cystic change occurs.
16 a) False The upper limit of normal is 6 mm. The inflamed appendix is typically
a fluid filled, noncompressible, blind-ending, tubular structure.
b) False An echogenic submucosal layer is typically seen in an inflamed,
but not perforated, appendix.
c) False The appendix is visible in only 40%-60% of patients with appendiceal
perforation. Secondary features of perforation include the presence
of a loculated periappendicular or pelvic fluid collection or abscess.
d) False Thin collimation CT often shows air within the normal appendix.
e) True This is true even in asymptomatic patients. About 50% of patients
will have a perforation or abscess at surgery.
159
17 a) False More than 90% of cases are due to an osseous obstruction. Choanal atresia
results from failed perforation of the oronasal membrane.
b) True Neonates are obligate nose breathers in the first 2-6 months of life. Bilateral
choanal atresia, therefore, causes respiratory distress that is only relieved
by crying. Immediate measures are required to secure an airway.
c) False CT scanning with the patient prone and the gantry angled 5°-10° cephalad
to the hard palate is the imaging modality of choice.
d) True There are several associated conditions, including amniotic band syndrome,
malrotation of the bowel, DiGeorge syndrome, Treacher Collins' syndrome
and craniosynostosis. Overall, 50% of cases of choanal atresia are associated
with other anomalies.
e) True The main CT imaging features are narrowing of the posterior choanae to less
than 0.34 cm in children aged under 2 years, inward bowing of the posterior
maxilla, thickening of the vomer and the presence of a bone or soft-tissue
septum across the posterior choanae.
18 a) False This is present in the Dandy-Walker malformation.

b) False This is typical of the Chiari IV malformation.
c) True Chiari II malformation is the most common Chiari malformation and is the
result of a small posterior fossa with resultant downward displacement of the
cerebellum, fourth ventricle and brain stem. There is herniation of the cerebellar
vermis and tonsils through the foramen magnum and a lumbar
myelomeningocoele is almost always present.
d) True This has been suggested as the underlying aetiology of the condition.
e) False This is present in 10% of Chiari I malformations.
19 a) False Wilms' tumour typically presents as an abdominal mass in a healthy child.

Other presentations include hypertension and abdominal pain. Fever and
haematuria are rare.
b) True Calcification is seen in 90% of neuroblastomas, but in only 10%
of Wilms' tumours.
c) True Neuroblastoma tends to metastasise to bone.
d) False There is an association with aniridia, hemihypertrophy and urogenital
disorders (horseshoe kidney, cryptorchidism and hypospadia).
e) False Long-term survival is achieved in 90% of patients. This is mainly due
to oncological advances.
20 a) True The gland has a granular echotexture with echogenic strands. It has a smooth,
well-defined margin.
b) False The normal thymus is hypovascular.
c) True This explains the occasional presence of thymic tissue in the neck.
d) False Thymomas and thymolipomas are extremely rare in childhood. Neoplastic
involvement is usually secondary to infiltration by leukaemia or lymphoma.
e) False Thymic hyperplasia is the most common cause. This may be secondary to
hyperthyroidism, myasthenia gravis and rebound growth following illness or stress.
160
21 a) False The tip is located at L1/L2 and should never be present below L3.
b) False Diastematomyelia is most commonly seen at the thoraco-lumbar junction. There
is a sagittal cleft in the spinal cord with either a fibrous, cartilaginous or osseous
septum. Ultrasonography will demonstrate both hemicords in cross-section,
although presence of a bony septum may prevent good visualisation.
c) True About 50% of patients will have cord tethering. Spinal ultrasonography may
also demonstrate associated hydromyelia, syringomyelia and a thickened
filum terminale.
d) True Lateral meningoceles are cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)-filled protrusions of dura
and arachnoid mater through an enlarged intervertebral foramen. They are
associated with Marfan's syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and NF.
e) True Any cutaneous lesion overlying the spine may be a marker of underlying
spinal pathology. Further indications include spinal scoliosis, sacral
malformations, bladder or bowel dysfunction and suspected spi.nal
injury secondary to birth trauma.
22 a) True This is a mild form of lobar holoprosencephaly that is associated with

neonatal cholestasis. It is characterised by absence of the septum pellucidum,
squared frontal horns of the lateral ventricles and hypoplasia of the optic
nerve and chiasm.
b) True There is paucity and hypoplasia of the intrahepatic bile ducts. Affected patients
have abnormal facies, vertebral arch defects and congenital heart disease.
The condition is progressive.
c) True
d) True Plugging of the biliary tract causes obstruction in the neonate. Other inherited
causes of neonatal cholestasis include α1-antitrypsin deficiency, galactosaemia
and hereditary tyrosinaemia.
e) False This is associated with skeletal and neurological anomalies.
23 a) False Congenital lobar emphysema represents an over-inflated lobe that compresses

the normal adjacent lung. Cysts are not a feature. About 50% of cases are
idiopathic and the rest are caused by an airway obstruction (e.g. bronchial
cartilage deficiency, mucus, web, stenosis or extrinsic compression).
b) True Foetal lung fluid becomes trapped within the lobe, resulting in an opaque,
expanded lobe. This converts to the typical hyperlucent lobe once the fluid
has drained or been absorbed.
c) True The left upper lobe is affected in 40% of cases, the right middle lobe in 35% of
cases and the right upper lobe in 20%. Two lobes are affected in only 5% of cases.
d) True In 15% of cases, there is a patent ductus arteriosus or ventriculoseptal defect.
e) False In most cases, treatment is expectant. Surgical excision is sometimes.required.
24 a) False Pleural effusions are rare. Hyperinflation is usually the first radiological
manifestation of lung disease.
b) False Progressive duct dilatation and ectasia with pancreatic atrophy are the typical
features. This is due to obstruction by protein plugs.
c) False There is right upper lobe predominance. Poor mucous clearance encourages
Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection.
d) True This gene codes for an abnormal chloride-ion transport protein.
e) True This is usually due to mucosal hypertrophy rather than active infection.
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aediatric radiology
25 a) False The 'H' type tracheo-oesophageal fistula comprises only 10% of cases.
Upper oesophageal atresia with a fistulous connection between the trachea
and the lower oesophagus is the most common type (85%).
b) True Oesophageal duplications are the second most common.
c) True The obstruction is usually beyond the ampulla of Vater. Typically, vomiting
is delayed until after the first feed. A 'double bubble' is seen on the plain
abdominal X-ray.
d) False Duodenal duplication cysts are usually situated along the concave border where
they may cause duodenal obstruction, biliary obstruction or pancreatitis.
e) True Associated anomalies occur in 50% of cases, including: malrotation of the small
bowel, oesophageal atresia, congenital heart disease, imperforate anus, annular
pancreas and Down's syndrome.
26 a) False An anomalous left-sided superior vena cava usually drains into the right atrium
via the coronary sinus. Uncommonly, it drains into the left atrium causing
a right-to-left shunt.
b) True In total anomalous pulmonary circulation, the total pulmonary venous return
drains into the systemic venous circulation. A right-to-left shunt is required
to maintain systemic circulation.
c) True This is termed the 'scimitar syndrome' due to the characteristic shape
of the right pulmonary veins draining into the inferior vena cava.
d) False About 66% of intralobar sequestrations and 90% of extralobar sequestrations
arise in the left lung base.
e) True CAM is slightly more frequent in the upper lobes. The differential diagnoses
of CAM include diaphragmatic hernia, congenital lobar emphysema
and lung sequestration.
27 a) True Vesico-ureteric reflux is the most common complication of complete ureteral

duplication. It is more common in girls than boys and is due to the lower
pole ureter having a more superolateral position as it enters the bladder
and, therefore, a shorter intramural tunnel.
b) False Ureterocoeles, which are related to the upper pole moiety of a duplex kidney,
occur eight times more frequently in girls than boys. Ureterocoeles related
to a nonduplicated system show an equal gender incidence.
c) True The ureter arises from the wolffian ducts, which in males form the seminal
vesicles, Vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts and the prostatic urethra. These
structures are proximal to the external sphincter so that ectopic ureteral
insertion does not cause incontinence. In girls, wolffian duct remnants are
present in the vagina, urethra and Gartner's ducts, which are beyond the
sphincters, so that ectopic ureteral insertion results in incontinence.
d) True Incontinence may be present only during the day as the dilated ectopic ureter
can act as a reservoir for urine whilst the patient is lying flat at night.
e) True There are associated anomalies in 50% of cases including ureteropelvic junction
obstruction (seen in 30% of cases), ureteral duplication (10%), hypospadia,
cryptorchidism, bicornuate uterus, trisomy 18 and Turner's syndrome.
162
28 a) False The majority of giant cell tumours occur in patients following fusion of
the epiphyses. They have a narrow zone of transition and usually abut
the articular margin.
b) False About 60% arise in long bones, most commonly the metadiaphysis of the femur.
About 40% arise in flat bones, particularly the pelvis. In patients over 20 years
of age, the tumour predominantly arises in flat bones.
c) False Parosteal osteosarcomas occur in an older age group than the periosteal type,
with 50% occurring after 30 years of age.
d) True The process is monostotic in 50%-75% of cases. The skull vault is most
commonly involved.
e) False Calcification is rare in Ewing's tumour of the bone. Ewing's typically presents
with an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction on plain film.
29 a) True Although typically the gallbladder is not visualised in biliary atresia), a smaller
, than expected gallbladder is demonstrated in 20% Of cases.
b) True In 10% of cases of neonatal hepatitis, the gallbladder is not identified. Therefore,
ultrasonography alone is not sufficient to distinguish these two conditions.
c) True However, in severe forms of neonatal hepatitis, the liver may be sufficiently
damaged to prevent enough radioisotope reaching the duodenum to be
detected. The classical appearance of biliary atresia on an HIDA scan is good
hepatic activity after 5 minutes, but no bowel visualisation after 24 hours.
d) False If surgical repair (Kasai operation) is performed before 2 months of age, there
is a 90% success rate. After 3 months, the success rate falls to under 20%.
e) False Polysplenia is seen in 10%--15% of patients with biliary atresia.
30 a) True
b) True
c) False
d) False
e) True
Any systemic chronic illness can delay bone maturation. Metabolic causes
include: hypopituitarism, hypothyroidism, hypogonadism, diabetes mellitus and
rickets. Hypoparathyroidism accelerates maturation of bone, with early fusion of
growth plates resulting in dwarfism. Obesity can also accelerate bone maturation.
163
frfediatric radiology
31 a) False It is a slip of the epiphyseal plate, which is a Salter-Harris type I injury.

A Salter-Harris type V injury describes a crush injury to the growth plate
and is associated with growth impairment in almost 100% of cases. The
prognosis in a type I injury is favourable.
b) True It is more common in overweight male teenagers. There is a history of trauma
in 50% of cases.
c) False Joint space widening is seen in Perthes disease. In slipped femoral capital
epiphysis, there is widening and irregularity of the epiphyseal plate.
d) True Hence the need for the 'frog-leg' view. The antero-posterior film is normal
in 10% of cases.
e) False CT may demonstrate a decreased angle of femoral neck anteversion. Slipped
c a p i t a l femoral epiphysis may be complicated by avascular necrosis of the
femoral head (15%), chondrolysis (10%), varus ('pistol-grip') deformity,
degenerative osteoarthritis and limb-length discrepancy due to premature
physeal closure.
32 a) False Hepatoblastomas typically present as an abdominal mass in an asymptomatic

child aged under 2 years. Hepatocellular carcinomas present in children
over 4 years of age.
b) False Both hepatoblastomas and hepatocellular carcinomas produce elevated
alpha-fetoprotein levels. Hepatoblastomas are associated with hemihypertrophy
and Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
c) True Hepatoblastomas typically enhance to a lesser degree than the surrounding
liver on CT imaging.
d) False Calcification is present on CT in 50% of cases.
e) True Both tumours are inhomogenous on MRI and return a lower T1 signal
and higher T2 signal than the surrounding liver.
33 a) False There is typically bilateral punctate adrenal calcification. The adrenal glands
are enlarged.
b) True Hepatosplenomegaly occurs due to deposition of cholesterol esters and
triglycerides. Other imaging features include enlarged lymph nodes and
small bowel wall thickening, both of which are due to fatty infiltration.
c) True The condition is due to a lack of lysosomal lipase/esterase.
d) False Death occurs within the first 6 months of life.
e) False Osteoporosis is a feature.
34 a) False The condition typically occurs more than 48 hours after birth, with very few
cases developing beyond 2 weeks of life. As well as prematurity, another risk
factor is bowel obstruction (e.g. Hirschsprung's disease, small bowel atresia,
pyloric stenosis, meconium ileus and meconium plug syndrome).
b) False The terminal ileum followed by the caecum and ascending colon are
most frequently involved.
c) False Although a serious finding, portal vein gas can be a transient appearance
and on its own does not warrant urgent surgery.
d) False Approximately 90% of neonates with necrotising enterocolitis have received
enteral nutrition.
e) True Other features include a persistently dilated bowel loop, an unchanging
bowel gas pattern, pneumatosis intestinalis and portal vein gas.
164
35 a) False This is typical of scurvy (Wimberger’s sign). The epiphysis in rickets is typically
poorly mineralised and appears late.
b) True The classical features of rickets are cupping and fraying of the metaphysis,
with irregular widening of the epiphyseal plate.
c) False Coarse trabeculations are seen in rickets. A ground glass appearance
is characteristic of scurvy.
d) True The poorly mineralised occiput becomes flattened in the supine baby.
This is accentuated by frontal bossing.
e) True Other imaging findings are bowing deformities of the long bones, delayed
closure of the fontanelles, periosteal reaction and enlargement of
costochondral junctions ('rachitic rosary').
36 a) True About 75% of cases are monostotic.

b) False Eosinophilic granuloma typically involves the vertebral body, most commonly
the thoracic spine, causing vertebra plana. It rarely involves the posterior
elements and the disc spaces are preserved.
c) False The skull is the most frequent site of involvement. Typically there is a round
or oval lucency within the skull vault with a bevelled edge.
d) False It often involves the mandible, causing a 'floating teeth' appearance.
e) False Although a periosteal reaction is almost never seen in flat bones, a prominent
periosteal reaction is not unusual in the axial skeleton. This may simulate
a neoplastic lesion.
37 a) False P carinii pneumonia is the most common opportunistic infection in children.

Hypoxia is usually severe. There is typically airspace shadowing, but unusual
features, such as calcified hilar and mediastinal nodes, are not uncommon.
b) True
c) True
d) False Nonspecific hyperechoic lesions are seen in the basal ganglia of neonatal .
HIV-seropositive patients. Other causes include cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis,
rubella and asphyxia.
e) True Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis is rare in adults but is the most common
pulmonary complication of AIDS in children. A diffuse reticulonodular pattern
is usually seen.
38 a) True The presence of ascites indicates severe anaemia.

b) True Increasing back pressure results in extravasation of urine into the perirenal
tissues and subsequently into the peritoneal cavity.
c) True Meconium peritonitis typically causes linear calcifications over the serosal
surfaces of the bowel and abdominal organs. This is due to in utero bowel
perforation and is associated with air-fluid levels within the peritoneal cavity.
d) True Presentation is typically with jaundice and hepatosplenomegaly. As cirrhosis
progresses, ascites becomes a feature.
e) True Blockage of the lymphatic system due to intestinal lymphangiectasia results
in chylous ascites.
165
aediatric radiology
39 a) False They are a normal finding up to 6-1 2 months of age.

b) False They typically involve the lambdoid and posterior sagittal sutures,
extending around the posterior fontanelle.
c) True
d) False Sickle cell anaemia, as well as other types of anaemia, classically causes
a 'hair-on-end' appearance in the cranial vault.
e) True They are a feature during the healing phase. They are also seen in osteogenesis
imperfecta, cleidocranial dysplasia, hypothyroidism, hypophosphatasia,
pyknodysostosis, pachydermoperiostosis, progeria, kinky hair syndrome
and as an idiopathic finding.
40 a) False The paediatric parotid gland is homogenous and hyperechoic relative to muscle.
b) True An accessory parotid gland lies superficial to the masseter muscle and anterior
to the main gland. It drains directly into the parotid duct.
c) False MRI is consistently able to demonstrate the facial nerve. Ultrasonography
and CT are not reliable in this regard.
d) False Pleomorphic adenomas are the third most common tumour of the paediatric
parotid gland after haemangiomas and lymphangiomas.
e) False Fluid-fluid interfaces are typical of lymphangiomas. The appearance is due
to haemorrhage within the cystic spaces.
166
Chapter 9
Breast imaging
Breast imaging
1 Which of the following are true regarding screening tests for breast cancer
in the general population?
a) Screening mammography has been shown to reduce mortality from breast cancer
b) Screening using ultrasound has been shown to reduce breast cancer mortality in patients
less than 35 years old
c) In the UK, mammographic screening is currently advocated for women aged over 40 years
c) Cancers showing casting linear calcifications on mammography are associated
with a poorer prognosis
e) Two views of the breast are obtained for all screening assessments
2 Which of the following are causes of a spiculated lesion on mammography?

a) Fat necrosis
b) Medullary carcinoma
c) Cystosarcoma phyllodes
c) Postoperative haematoma
e) Plasma cell mastitis
3 Which of the following arc true regarding noninvasive breast cancer?

a) Spotted calcifications on mammography are typical of high-grade ductal
carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
b) DCIS accounts for 20-40% of nonpalpable cancers diagnosed on mammography
c) The diagnosis of DCIS cannot be made using ultrasonography or magnetic
c) High-grade DCIS is associated with increased expression of the c-erb B-2 oncogene
e) Lobular carcinoma in situ frequently presents as a mass lesion on mammography
4 Which of the following are true regarding invasive breast cancers?

a) Rim calcification is frequently seen in medullary carcinoma
b) There is an association between tubular carcinoma and radial scar
c) Colloid carcinoma has a worse prognosis than invasive ductal carcinoma
d) The most common invasive cancer in the male breast is invasive lobular carcinoma
e) The likelihood of axillary spread of invasive ductal carcinoma depends on the
size of the tumour

a) Radial scar is associated with a carcinoma in 30% of cases
b) Plasma cell mastitis is typically unilateral and asymmetrical
c) Lymphoma of the breast is more common in males
d) Metastases to the breast most frequently present as a solitary mass
e) A galactocoele appears radiolucent on mammography
6 Which of the following ultrasonographic appearances of axillary lymph nodes

are reportedly associated with malignant infiltration?
a) Rounded appearance of the lymph node
b) Loss or displacement of the central fatty hilum
c) An increase in vascular resistive index
d) An increase in vascular pulsatility index
e) Peripheral vascular flow pattern on colour or power Doppler imaging
168
7 Which of the following are true of calcifications detected on mammography?

a) Skin calcifications typically have central lucent centres
b) Milk of calcium has a typical appearance on the cranio-caudal view
c) Sutural calcifications arc usually linear in appearance
d) Bilateral scattered punctate calcifications are probably benign
e) Rim calcification is a feature of fat necrosis
8 On MRI of silicone breast implants, which of the following are true?

a) Radial folds are secondary to infolding of the implant shell
b) Radial folds appear thinner than lines associated with intracapsular rupture
c) Extracapsular rupture is more common than intracapsular rupture
d) The linguine sign is a feature of extracapsular rupture
e) The keyhole sign describes the presence of a gel bleed
9 Which of the following statements are true regarding fibroadenomas?

a) They are clinically palpable in the majority of cases
b) They occur bilaterally in 25% of cases
c) The incidence is higher in women receiving hormone replacement therapy
d) They typically demonstrate posterior acoustic shadowing on ultrasonography
e) Internal septations are typical on gadolinium-enhanced MRI
10 Which of the following are true regarding breast cysts?

a) They are most frequently found in women aged under 30 years
b) They are frequently multiple and bilateral
c) They should be aspirated to exclude intracystic carcinoma
d) They are prone to recurrent infection
e) They may be indistinguishable from fibroadenomas on ultrasonography
11 Which of the following are causes of posterior acoustic shadowing

on breast ultrasonography?
a) DCIS
b) Invasive ductal carcinoma
c) Cooper's ligaments
d) Ruptured silicone breast implant
e) Surgical scar
12 In the staging of invasive breast carcinoma, which of the following are true?
a) A tumour greater than 5 cm in size indicates T3 disease
b) Involvement of internal mammary lymph nodes indicates N3 disease
c) Ultrasound tends to overestimate the size of the primary tumour
d) Mammography tends to underestimate the size of the primary tumour
e) MRI is the most sensitive test in the detection of multifocal disease

a) Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with bilateral axillary lymphadenopathy
b) There is an association between mastopathy and type 2 diabetes mellitus
c) Fibromatosis is indistinguishable from an invasive carcinoma on mammography
d) About 10% of cystosarcoma phyllodes cases result in distant metastases
e) Metastases to the breast are frequently associated with overlying skin retraction
169
Breast imaging
14 Which of the following are true regarding sclerosing adenosis?

a) It commonly presents as focal or diffuse calcification
b) It is a condition with high premalignant potential
c) Biopsy is required to make a definitive diagnosis
d) It presents with a palpable mass in the majority of cases
e) It has an association with lobular carcinoma
15 Which of the following are true regarding fat necrosis of the breast?
a) It is more common in asthenic women
b) It tends to occur in a superficial or periareolar location
c) Breast irradiation is a cause
d) The presence of skin retraction makes fat necrosis unlikely
e) Microcalcifications may occur
16 Which of the following are true regarding the mammographic changes following
breast conserving surgery?
a) Postoperative fluid collections should not persist for more than 3 months following surgery
b) Parenchymal scarring typically contains areas of fat density
c) New calcifications at 12 months following surgery are indicative of tumour recurrence
d) Radiation treatment results in an increase in breast density
e) Skin thickening should not persist for more than 3 months following radiation treatment
17 Which of the following are appropriate uses of ultrasonographic evaluation of the breasts?
a) Differentiating solid from cystic lesions
b) Evaluation of a palpable abnormality
c) Evaluation of a suspected breast abscess
d) Evaluation of a young woman with breast pain
e) Evaluation of the asymptomatic, mammographically dense breast
18 Which of the following are true regarding breast biopsy?

a) Core biopsy of a solid nodule is best performed using an 18G cutting needle
b) In cases of suspicious microcalcifications, 10 or more core biopsies should be obtained
c) Stereotactic needle biopsy involves generating a pair of mammographic images
that are typically 5O off-centre on either side
d) Specimen radiography is essential following biopsy’ for microcalcifications
e) Mammotomy is most useful in the biopsy of microcalcifications
19 Which of the following are causes of a well-circumscribed lesion on mammography?

a) Intramammary lymph node
b) Intraductal papilloma
c) Galactocoele
d) Lipoma
e) Breast haematoma
170
20 Which of the following statements are true regarding breast imaging?

a) The presence of a halo sign on mammography is indicative of benignity
b) MRI of the breast should ideally be avoided between days 6 and 16 of the menstrual cycle
c) MRI is more sensitive than mammography in diagnosing Paget's disease of the nipple
d) Early peripheral enhancement of a lesion on MRI is a feature of malignancy
c) On MRI with intravenous gadolinium, malignant tumours typically demonstrate
early rapid enhancement followed by washout of contrast
171
Brens! imaging
Answers
1 a) True Screening mammography has been shown to reduce mortality from breast
cancer by up to 32%. In the Swedish two-county trial, it was found that
mammographic screening continued to save lives for up to 20 years. This
is because screening improves the diagnosis of early cancers and is also able
to identify subpopulations with a poorer prognosis that may benefit from
more aggressive or adjuvant treatment
b) False Ultrasonography currently has no role as a screening tool in any age group.
However, targeted ultrasound is useful in patients with specific breast symptoms,
clinically palpable abnormality or indeterminate mammographic abnormalities.
c) False Screening is currently available in the UK for patients who are 50-65 years old.
Although the greatest benefits of screening appear in the 50-69 year age group,
there is some evidence that screening also reduces mortality in the 40-49 year
age group. This is currently being evaluated. There is also a plan to extend the
UK's screening programme to include the 66-70 year age group.
d) True For small cancers (1-9 mm) detected by screening mammography, tumours
with casting linear calcifications are associated with a poorer prognosis.
e) False Two views are taken for baseline assessment, but single views are usually taken
at follow up. Emerging data indicate that two views should be taken in all
instances, as this improves lesion detection by up to 40%.
2 a) True A spiculated lesion with central low density on a mammogram may be due
to traumatic fat necrosis or radial scar.
b) False Medullary carcinoma typically presents as a well-defined mass on
mammography. Invasive ductal carcinoma is associated with a spiculated mass.
c) False A phyllodes tumour typically presents as a mass, usually more than 5 cm in size,
with lobulated margins. Spiculation is not a prominent feature.
d) True Other causes of a spiculated lesion on mammography include post-surgical
scar, breast abscess, hyalinised fibroadenoma and sclerosing adenosis.
e) False Plasma cell mastitis is characterised by multiple long linear calcifications
on mammography.
3 a) False Cribriform calcifications are typical of low-grade DCIS. High-grade DCIS

is associated with casting and branching calcifications.
b) True Screening mammography has increased the detection of DCIS.
c) False Although the mammogram is still the most sensitive imaging test in the detection
of microcalcifications, DCIS may be recognised on both ultrasonography and
MRI. On ultrasonography, casting calcifications of high-grade DCIS result in
detectable acoustic shadowing. On MRI, DCIS appears as early linear ductal
enhancement following intravenous gadolinium.
d) True C-erb B-2 oncogene expression is seen in more than 70% of patients with
high-grade DCIS. It has also been reported that c-erb B-2 oncogene expression
is associated with aggressive histological features and a higher likelihood
of rod-shaped and branching calcifications on mammography.
e) False Lobular carcinoma in situ is frequently mammographically occult. The diagnosis
is frequently made incidentally on microscopy following surgical resection.
172
4 a) False Medullary carcinoma usually presents as a well-defined mass on the

mammogram, which may show a lobulated margin or halo sign.
Calcification is not a feature.
b) True There is a high incidence of tubular carcinoma in patients with radial scar.
c) False Colloid carcinoma, which occurs in an older age group (those over 60 years),
is associated with a favourable prognosis because the tumour is slow growing.
d) False The most common tumour in the male is still invasive ductal carcinoma.
This tends to occur in the subareolar region of the breast.
e) True Tumours greater than 1 cm are more likely to metastasise to the axillary
lymph nodes.
5 a) True Radial scar is a benign proliferative condition, but is associated with an

underlying carcinoma (especially tubular carcinoma) in up to 50% of cases.
It most frequently presents as an area of parenchymal distortion with
a central lucency.
b) False The condition is typically bilateral and symmetrical, although it may be unilateral.
c) True Lymphoma of the breast is more frequently seen in males and more commonly
on the right side.
d) True About 85% of metastases to the breast are solitary, usually within the outer
upper quadrant. Primary tumours include lymphoma, melanoma, leukaemia
and renal cell, lung and ovarian carcinoma. In the male, they may also result
from prostatic carcinoma.
e) True Galactocoeles appear as well-circumscribed radiolucencies, 1-1.5 cm in size,
usually bilateral and multiple. They may be associated with egg-shell calcifications.
6 a) True Infiltrated lymph nodes are typically rounded, with a reduced long-to-short
axis ratio (normally more than 2).
b) True The fatty hilum is frequently obliterated, or there may be eccentric cortical
hypertrophy.
c) True An increase in resistive index has been reported, which is believed to be
the result of compression of the arteries by tumour infiltration.
d) True An increase in pulsatility index has also been reported. However, the use
of resistive and pulsatility indices has not gained wide acceptance because
of conflicting reports in the literature.
e) True A peripheral flow pattern is frequently encountered in infiltrated lymph nodes.
7 a) True Skin calcifications are recognised by their superficial location and by their
lucent centres.
b) False On the cranio-caudal view, milk of calcium appears amorphous and ill defined.
However, on the medial-lateral oblique view, it is typically sharply defined,
semilunar, or crescent-shaped and upwardly concave.
c) True Sutural calcification results from calcium deposition on the sutural material.
They are typically tubular or linear in appearance and are common in the
postirradiated breast
d) True Scattered bilateral calcifications are likely to be benign. However, care should
be taken to scrutinise the mammogram for atypical, grouped calcifications.
e) True Rim calcification may be seen in the wall of a cyst or surrounding an area
of fat necrosis.
173
Breast imaging
8 a) True Normal infolding of the implant shell may be seen on MRI as radial folds.
b) False Radial fold are low signal-intensity lines on T2-weighted imaging that arise
from the periphery of the implant and are typically thicker than the lines
associated with intracapsular rupture, which are made up of two layers
of elastomer shell. These folds may be simple or complex.
c) False Intracapsular rupture is more common and is defined as rupture of the elastomer
shell with silicone leakage that does not extend beyond the fibrous capsule.
Extracapsular rupture results when there is extension of silicone beyond the
elastomer shell and fibrous capsule into the breast tissue.
d) False The linguine sign is a reliable indicator of intracapsular rupture, appearing
as low-intensity curvilinear lines within the implant.
e) True Cel bleed is the leakage of silicone through microperforations in the implant
shell. On MRI, gel bleed may be diagnosed when silicone is seen on both
sides of the implant shell (noose or keyhole sign).
9 a) True About 65% of fibroadenomas are clinically palpable as discrete

but mobile masses.
b) False Although they are multiple in 10%-20% of cases, they are found bilaterally
in only about 4%.
c) True Fibroadenomas are common in menstruating women, but tend to regress
following the menopause. However, they may continue to be diagnosed
in women receiving hormone replacement therapy.
d) False They are well-circumscribed masses, with homogenous internal echoes.
but a variable posterior acoustic pattern. Posterior acoustic enhancement
is frequently observed.
e) True Nonenhancing internal septal ions are typically seen within fibroadenomas
on gadolinium-enhanced MRI of the breasts.
10 a) False They are rare in women under 30 years of age.

b) True They are frequently bilateral and multiple, especially in women with fibrocystic
change. Cysts may vary in size and appearance over the course of several months.
c) False Cysts may be aspirated when they are large and symptomatic. However, routine
aspiration for cytology is not necessary because intracystic carcinomas are rare.
d) False There is no such evidence.
e) True Cysts containing cellular debris or proteinaceous secretions may show low-level
homogenous echoes and may be difficult to distinguish from fibroadenomas.
In these cases, aspiration can help to distinguish between the two.
174
11 a) True Linear and punctate calcifications associated with DCIS can be recognised
on high-resolution ultrasound as highly reflective foci associated with posterior
acoustic shadowing.
b) True Invasive ductal carcinoma appears typically as an irregular, poorly marginated
hypoechoic mass, with strong central posterior acoustic shadowing.
c) True Posterior acoustic shadowing may arise from the interface of two Cooper’s
ligaments. The shadowing is typically not associated with a mass and is less
apparent or absent if the area is scanned in a plane perpendicular to the
initial scan.
d) True Extracapsular leakage of silicone results in an area of amorphous reflective echoes.
e) True Fibrosis in the surgical scar results in acoustic shadowing.
12 a) True A T1 tumour is less than 2 cm in size. T2 denotes a tumour that is greater than
2 cm but less than 5 cm in size. A tumour greater than 5 cm represents T3
disease. A tumour is T4 when there is invasion of the overlying skin or chest wall.
b) True Involvement of axillary lymph nodes constitutes N1 disease. Fixed axillary lymph
nodes represent N2 disease.
c) False Ultrasound tends to underestimate the size of the tumour, as infiltration
into adjacent breast tissue may not be visible ultrasonographically.
d) False Mammography tends to overestimate the size of the tumour, as it cannot
distinguish between tumoural and peritumoural changes.
e) True Gadolinium-enhanced MRI is the most sensitive test available for the detection
of multicentric and multifocal disease.
13 a) True Axillary lymphadenopathy may be seen in association with connective tissue

diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus and scleroderma. Nodal
enlargement can also occur in rheumatoid arthritis, granulomatous diseases
(e.g. tuberculosis, sarcoidosis), AIDS, infectious mononucleosis, leukaemia
and lymphoma.
b) False Diabetic fibrous mastopathy is a benign lesion found in patients with type 1
diabetes mellitus that manifests about 20 years after the onset of the disease. It
usually presents as a very firm or hard, nontender breast mass in young women.
c) True Fibromatosis is a benign, localised, infiltrating mass composed of fibroblasts and
collagen. It is typically found in the abdominal wall and, on rare occasions,
in the breast. On mammography, it is indistinguishable from an invasive cancer.
d) True About 10% of cystosarcoma phyllodes act as malignant tumours.
e) False Metastases tend not to cause retraction of the skin or nipple. In addition,
metastases are often found in the subcutaneous fat, whereas primary breast
cancers develop in the glandular tissue. Metastases usually appear as rounded
masses with circumscribed or ill-defined borders. Irregular shape, spiculations
and microcalcifications are rare.
175
Breast imaging
14 a) True Sclerosing adenosis occurs as part of a spectrum of proliferative abnormalities

referred to as fibrocystic change. It may be focal or diffuse, appearing
as a focal cluster of microcalcifications or as diffuse calcifications on
mammography, and it may be associated with a spiculated mass.
b) False It is associated with only a mild (2.5-fold) increase in the risk of infiltrating
breast cancer. The condition itself is nonmalignant.
c) True At mammography, sclerosing adenosis forms part of a differential diagnosis
for spiculated lesions that includes both malignant and benign conditions.
The diagnosis is often only made following biopsy.
d) False Although sclerosing adenosis may manifest as a clinically palpable mass
(adenosis tumour), it is frequently only detected on mammography.
e) True Lobular carcinoma in situ may be found in areas of sclerosing adenosis.
15 a) False Fat necrosis is most common in obese, usually middle-aged women

with fatty, pendulous breasts.
b) True It usually occurs in the superficial aspect of the breast.
c) True The most common causes are surgery and radiation treatment,
although it may result from trauma.
d) False The mammographic spectrum of fat necrosis ranges from clearly benign,
through indeterminate, to malignant-appearing masses or calcifications.
Skin retraction may he a feature.
e) True Calcifications may be curvilinear, punctate or show central lucencies.
16 a) False Postoperative fluid collections are identified in 50% of patients at 4 weeks

and in 25% of patients at 6 months following surgery. Most fluid collections
resolve by 12 months. They appear as oval, dense, well-defined masses
with minimal spiculation.
b) True Parenchymal scarring is characterised by the absence of a central mass,
a changing appearance on different projections and thick, curvilinear spicules.
A soft-tissue density interspersed with radiolucent areas representing entrapped
fat is typical.
c) False Benign calcifications, including needle-like calcifications, thick calcified plaques
and thin arcs of calcium around radiolucent oil cysts, may occur 2-44 months
after breast conservation therapy. However, the appearance of new
microcalcification would raise suspicion of local recurrence.
d) True This is due to radiation-induced oedema.
c) False Maximal skin thickening is usually identified in the first 6 months after
completion of radiation therapy. This gradually resolves over 2-3 years.
176
17 a) True This is one of the most important roles of ultrasonography.

b) True A palpable abnormality can be scrutinised using ultrasound. However,
a palpable abnormality may be invisible on both ultrasonography and
mammography. Note that ultrasonography has a very high false-negative
rate (up to 40%) in the detection of cancer.
c) True Mastitis not responding to appropriate antibiotics may be evaluated using
ultrasonography to detect a possible underlying abscess.
d) False Ultrasonography in young women should also be guided by the presence
of any palpable abnormality, although it is not uncommon for surgeons
and clinicians to request the test to assuage a patient's anxiety.
e) False Ultrasonography is not routinely used in the evaluation of an asymptomatic
dense breast.
18 a) False Biopsy in the breast is usually performed with 14G cutting needles. .
b) True Typically, 10 or more cores of tissues are obtained from an area
of suspected microcalcifications.
c) False The pair of mammographic images is typically 15° off-centre on either side.
This allows -the machine to generate the co-ordinates for the biopsy.
d) True Specimen radiography is essential to verify that the core specimens contain
microcalcifications. The presence of microcalcifications within the specimen
increases the likelihood of a definitive diagnosis.
e) True Mammotomy uses a cutter connected to a suction device, which allows
quick and easy sampling. Tissue samples are harvested without removing
the device from the breast.
19 a) True This is typically well defined with a fatty hilum.

b) True This solitary intraductal papilloma usually occurs in the subareolar region.
They are usually small and mammographically occult, but may grow
to present as a circumscribed lesion.
c) True A galactocoele may appear as a well-defined, fat-containing lesion,
d) True Lipomas are fat containing and well defined.
e) True Haematomas are typically ill defined initially, but become better defined
as they mature and organise. Most of these resolve completely, but some
may result in focal calcifications.
20 a) False The halo sign may be seen in invasive cancers.

b) False MRI is often performed during this window (the second week of the
menstrual cycle). The normal breast tissue can enhance significantly with
intravenous gadolinium about a week before menstruation and may
obscure an underlying lesion.
c) False The normal nipple and subareolar tissue enhance avidly with intravenous
gadolinium. MRI is therefore insensitive in the detection of Paget's disease
of the nipple.
d) True Cancers may show early peripheral enhancement with more delayed
central enhancement.
e) True This is the typical appearance of cancers on dynamic gadolinium-enhanced
MRI. However, some benign lesions (e.g. fibroadenoma) may uncommonly
demonstrate this appearance.
177
178
Chapter 10
Interventional radiology
1 Regarding local anaesthesia, which of the following are true?

a) Toxic effects from subcutaneous lignocaine usually occur within 10 minutes
of administration
b) Circumoral tingling is an early sign of toxicity
c) 10 ml of 1% lignocaine contains 50 mg of lignocaine
d) The maximum nontoxic dose of lignocaine for a 70 kg man is 200 mg
e) Lignocaine is effectively absorbed through mucous membranes
2 Regarding sedation, which of the following are true?

a) Midazolam causes a fall in blood pressure
b) Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine
c) The elimination half-life of flumazenil is longer than that of midazolam
d) Midazolam shows minimal protein binding
e) The amnesia produced by diazepam is more predictable than by midazolam
3 Indications for percutaneous embolisation include which of the following?

a) Postpartum haemorrhage
b) Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
c) Acoustic neuroma
d) Haemoptysis
e) Carotid-cavernous sinus fistulae
4 Regarding transjugular intrahepatic porto-systemic shunts (TIPS), which

of the following are true?
a) The aim is to produce a porto-systemic shunt gradient of approximately 5 mm Hg
b) Embolisation of varices can be performed as part of the procedure
c) Right-sided heart failure is a relative contraindication
d) About 20% of stents have occluded at 1 year
e) Ultrasound is accurate in the assessment of shunt patency
5 Regarding peripheral thrombolysis, which of the following are true?

a) Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) converts plasminogen to plasmin,
which promotes clot lysis
b) tPA is contraindicated in patients with a recent history of transient ischaemic
attacks (within 6 months)
c) Following tPA, angioplasty’ should be deferred for 24 hours
d) tPA is typically combined with systemic intravenous heparin
e) The patient’s blood pressure, pulse rate and puncture site should be checked
hourly following initiation of thrombolysis
6 Regarding adrenal vein sampling in the assessment of hyperaldosteronism,

which of the following arc true?
a) Samples from both adrenal veins are taken simultaneously
b) The left adrenal vein is harder to cannulate than the right
c) Samples are taken before and 1 hour after administration of synthetic
adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
d) Adrenal vein sampling is the most reliable method for distinguishing a unilateral
aldosterone-secreting adenoma from bilateral hyperplasia
e) Adrenal venography is routinely performed during adrenal vein sampling
180
7 Which of the following are true regarding the bronchial arteries?

a) The bronchial arteries most commonly arise from the descending aorta at the T5/T6 level
b) The bronchial arteries also supply blood to the oesophagus
c) The most common cause of massive haemoptysis in the developed world
is bronchogenic carcinoma
d) When searching for a cause of massive haemoptysis, the subclavian arteries
should be examined
e) Rasmussen’s aneurysm arises from the bronchial arteries
8 Regarding percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC) and biliary drainage,

a) A contraindication to percutaneous biliary drainage is obstruction complicated
by cholangitis and septicaemia
b) PTC is to be avoided in the presence of a large amount of ascites
c) Punctured lymphatic vessels are recognised by their smooth, tapered appearance
on Injecting a contrast agent
d) Bacteraemia occurs more commonly during diagnostic PTC than during
percutaneous biliary drainage
e) A bilious pleural effusion may occur following successful biliary drainage
9 Regarding uterine artery embolisation (UAE), which of the following are t r u e ?

a) Coils are the embolisation agent of choice
b) The uterine arteries anastomose with the ovarian arteries
c) Pain typically begins 6-8 hours after the procedure
d) The quoted risk of infection needing a hysterectomy following UAE is 0.1%
e) Sarcomatous change within a fibroid uterus is readily diagnosed on magnetic

a) Nitinol s an alloy composed of steel and titanium
b) Nitinol is more radio-opaque than stainless steel
c) Stent grafts are usually’ covered in polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE)
d) Neointimal hyperplasia refers to excess endothelial cells in the vessel intima
e) Covered stents produce greater neointimal hyperplasia than bare metal stents
11 Regarding superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO), which of the following are true?
a) SVCO is often successfully treated with balloon angioplasty
b) Radiotherapy is the first-line treatment in malignant SVCO
c) In stenting SVCO, the femoral approach is preferred
d) Thrombolysis is rarely useful
e) Migration of superior vena cava stents into the right side of the hear!
is a common complication
12 Regarding percutaneous gastrostomy, which of the following are true?

a) Prophylactic antibiotics are routinely used
b) Ascites is a relative contraindication
c) The gastric fundus is the preferred site of puncture
d) reeding should only be started via the gastrostomy tube after 1 week
c) Gastropexy with 'T-fasteners' prior to insertion of the gastrostomy tube reduces
the complication rate
181
13 Regarding Doppler ultrasound of peripheral arteries, which of the following are true?
a) Triphasic blood flow in a normal artery implies a high-resistance distal vascular bed
b) Spectral broadening occurs in a normal vessel supplying a low-resistance vascular bed
c) The resistive index is calculated from the maximum systolic velocity minus the
maximum end diastolic velocity divided by the- maximum systolic velocity
d) In the majority of patients, the internal carotid artery (ICA) is postero-medial
to the external carotid artery (ECA)
e) Power Doppler is independent of the angle of the incident ultrasound waves
on the vessel
14 Regarding fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD), which of the following are true?

a) It characteristically affects the mid and distal main renal artery
b) It most commonly affects the vessel intima
c) Renal FMD is usually bilateral
d) Transluminal angioplasty has a high long-term success rate in renal FMD
e) FMD also affects the mesenteric vessels
15 Regarding endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), which of the following are true?

a) Five separate layers are identified on EUS of the oesophagus
b) EUS can distinguish different echogenicities of the ventral and dorsal pancreas
c) Involvement of the muscularis propria implies tumour spread through the oesophageal wall
d) Fine needle aspiration of lesions lying outside the bowel lumen can bo performed
during EUS
e) The liver is not visualised on EUS
16 Regarding the risks of lung biopsy, which of the following are true?
a) Pneumothoraces occur in 15-25% of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary-
disease (COPD) following percutaneous lung biopsy
b) Following percutaneous lung biopsy, the patient should be observed for 1 hour
prior to discharge
c) Haemoptysis should be managed by placing the patient in a lateral decubitus
position with the biopsied lung dependent
d) Pleural masses are best biopsied under ultrasound control
e) When performing an anterior mediastinal biopsy, the internal mammary arteries
can be avoided by using a puncture site greater than 1 cm from the sternal edge
17 In hepatic angiography, which of the following produce hypervascular liver lesions?

a) Breast cancer metastases
b) Islet cell pancreatic metastases
c) Renal cell metastases
d) Colonic metastases
e) Ovarian cystadenocarcinoma metastases
18 Regarding varicocoele embolisation, which of the following are true?

a) The procedure can be performed from either a femoral vein or internal
jugular vein approach
b) Complications of the procedure include hydrocele formation
c) Testicular infarction is a recognised complication
d) Gelfoam is a suitable embolisation agent
e) The relationship between infertility and varicoceles is well defined
182
19 Regarding pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (PAVMs), which of the

following are true?
a) PAVMs cause a left-to-right shunt
b) The majority of patients have hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
c) The majority of PAVMs occur in the lower lobes
d) Polyvinyl alcohol particles are the embolizing agent of choice
c) Multiple PAVMs are more common than solitary lesions
20 Regarding percutaneous nephrostomy, which of the following are true?

a) A direct puncture of the renal pelvis is recommended
b) Complete renal obstruction requires urgent decompression
c) Colonic injury does not occur with a postero lateral approach
d) Pseudoaneurysms within the kidney can be treated with angiographic embolisation
o) Percutaneous removal in combination with extracorporeal lithotripsy is the first-line
treatment for calyceal stones
21 Regarding intra-arterial heparin bolus, which of the following are true?

a) It is indicated for renal artery stent placement
b) It is indicated for iliac artery angioplasty
c) It is indicated for posterior tibial artery angioplasty
d) It is indicated for embolisation of a renal pseudoaneurysm
e) A repeat intra-arterial lesion bolus is indicated if the procedure exceeds 2 hours
22 Regarding cholecystostomy, which of the following are true?

a) A direct puncture of the gallbladder is the preferred method
b) An empyema is a contraindication
c) It is of no benefit in acalculous cholecystitis
d) Gallstone extraction can be performed via the cholecystostomy once the tract
has been left to mature for 1-2 weeks
e) Antibiotic cover should be given in all cases
23 Regarding interventional procedures of the liver, which of the following are true?
a) Severe coagulopathy is a contraindication to transjugular liver biopsy
b) Subdiaphragmatic lesions are best biopsied under computed tomography (CT) guidance
c) .Aspiration or drainage of suspected hydatid cysts is contraindicated
d) Shoulder pain is common following liver biopsy
e) A transhepatic route can be used to biopsy the right adrenal gland
24 Regarding the subclavian steal syndrome, which of the following are true?
a) It results from stenosis of the proximal subclavian artery
b) It is more common on the left side
c) The diagnosis can be made on Doppler ultrasound
d) Percutaneous angioplasty offers good long-term results
e) Atherosclerosis is the most common cause of subclavian steal
183
25 Regarding Behcet's disease, which of the following are true?

a) It typically has a relapsing course
b) Erythema multiforme is a feature
c) It is a cause of pulmonary artery aneurysm
d) It is a cause of SVCO
e) It is a cause of destructive arthritis
26 Regarding angiodysplasia, which of the following are true?

a) It is most commonly seen in the caecum and ascending colon
b) It is associated with mitral valve disease
c) Angiography should not be performed in haemodynamically unstable patients
d) Gastrointestinal bleeding can be detected by angiography only if the rate of bleeding
is ≥ 0.1 ml/min
e) It typically presents with severe gastrointestinal bleeding
27 Regarding hysterosalpingography which of the following are true?

a) Opacification of the ovarian and iliac veins is inconsequential
b) A pregnancy test should be performed before every examination
c) The Fallopian tube is narrowest in its intramural segment
d) Uterus didelphys implies complete separation of the uterine body down to the internal os
e) Salpingitis isthmica nodosa causes irregularity of the uterine cavity
28 Regarding aortic stent grafting which of the following are true?

a) Endoleaks due to retrograde filling of the aneurysm sac from side branches
require urgent treatment
b) Stent migration is a common problem
c) If the aneurysm extends down into the pelvis to involve an internal iliac artery,
then stent grafting is not feasible
d) Endoleaks can only be detected by repeat angiography
e) Stent grafts can be used for aortic arch aneurysms
29 Regarding popliteal artery entrapment syndrome, which of the following are true?
a) It typically occurs in young men
b) The syndrome presents with progressive intermittent claudication
c) The condition is secondary to compression of the popliteal artery by the medial
head of the gastrocnemius
d) Angiography is frequently unhelpful
• e) The condition is often bilateral
30 Regarding traumatic rupture of the aorta, which of the following are true?
The most common site is just proximal to the origin of the left subclavian artery
b) Superior displacement of the left main-stem bronchus is typically seen
c) About 20% of patients with a traumatic rupture will die before reaching hospital
d) Dysphagia is a presenting symptom
e) A normal CT scan excludes the diagnosis of an aortic rupture
184
31 In acute Budd-Chiari syndrome, which of the following are true?

a) Hepatofugal flow within the main portal vein is typical
b) A hepatic venogram is not possible
c) An enlarged enhancing caudate lobe is seen on contrast-enhanced CT
d) Stenting of the inferior vena cava (IVC) is a recognised treatment
c) There is an association with paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
32 Regarding stenting of the iliac arteries for atherosclerotic disease, which of the
following are true?
a) A postangioplasty residual systolic pressure gradient of greater than 15 mm Hg
requires stenting
b) The 5-year patency rate of iliac artery stenting is 70%-75%
c) Stenting is always required if intimal dissection occurs following angioplasty
d) Delayed stent occlusion is usually due to thrombosis at the mouth of the stent
e) Stenting of both common iliac arteries should be performed for a proximal
unilateral common iliac stenosis
33 Glucagon is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following?

a) Insulinoma
b) Cardiac arrhythmia
c) Phaeochromocytoma
d) Diabetes mellitus
e) Glucagonoma
34 Regarding mesenteric angiography, which of the following are true?

a) The superior mesenteric artery should be evaluated before the inferior
mesenteric artery (IMA)
b) Vasopressin can be used to control colonic bleeding
C) Upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage should be initially treated using
endoscopic techniques
d) The IMA arises at the level of the L4 vertebral body-
e) Diverticular haemorrhage is the most common cause of colonic bleeding
35 Regarding oesophageal stents, which of the following are true?

a) Following oesophageal stenting, central chest pain occurs in 50% of cases
b) Stent migration is more common with covered oesophageal stents
c) Sedation is usually required for oesophageal stent placement
d) Balloon rupture during balloon dilatation of an oesophageal stricture is associated
with a high rate of oesophageal tears
e) Stenting is preferred to balloon dilatation lor the treatment of achalasia
36 Regarding colonic stents, which of the following are true?

a) Colonic stents provide good long-term palliation for colonic tumours
b) Covered stents are typically used when treating colonic tumours
c) Stents can be deployed throughout the colon
d) Colonic stents should not be used to treat benign disease
e) Antibiotic cover is routinely required before colonic stenting
185
37 Regarding transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) of the prostate, which of the following are true?
a) TRUS is the most accurate method of detecting prostatic carcinoma
b) With TRUS, the peripheral zone is echogenic compared to the central zone
c) Prostatic carcinoma usually appears hyperechoic on TRUS
d) Antibiotic cover is always required for a TRUS-guided prostatic biopsy
e) Two or three cores of tissue should be taken from the peripheral zone of the gland

a) Occlusion of a large arteriovenous fistula results in immediate tachycardia
b) Dissecting aneurysms confined to the descending thoracic aorta require urgent
surgical intervention
c) Dissecting aneurysms of the ascending aorta occur in Marfan's syndrome
d) A double superior vena cava is seen more frequently than an isolated left-sided SVC
e) Fibrosing mediastinitis is caused by histiocytosis

a) Renal angiomyolipomas appear vascular at arteriography
b) Transverse myelitis is a complication of bronchial arteriography
c) Fibrosing mediastinitis often results in SVCO
d) A bleeding Merkel's diverticulum is best diagnosed using mesenteric angiography
e) Small-bowel leiomyomas may be diagnosed on arteriography
40 Which of the following are true regarding renal artery stenosis (RAS)?
a) RAS is associated with type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF-1)
b) RAS following renal transplantation typically involves a long segment of the artery-
c) Renal artery stent placement is usually required for ostial stenoses
d) Renovascular disease accounts for approximately 15% of all cases of hypertension
e) Extravasation of contrast from the renal artery following angioplasty requires urgent surgery
186
Answers
1 a) False Maximum arterial plasma concentrations of lignocaine develop between

10 and 25 minutes following administration.
b) True This can progress to confusion, hypotension, respiratory depression
and convulsions.
c) False 1% lignocaine contains 10 mg/ml of the drug.
d) True This corresponds to 20 ml of 1% lignocaine.
e) True Concentrations of up to 4% provide good surface anaesthesia.
2 a) True This is due to a reduction in systemic vascular resistance.

b) True Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist. Its affinity for receptors
is good, resulting in displacement of sedative benzodiazepines and reversal
of sedation.
c) False The elimination half-life is shorter (50-60 minutes) than that of midazolam.
Repeat doses may be required to maintain the reversal of sedative
benzodiazepines.
d) False Midazolam 90% protein bound. Increased effects may be seen in patients
with low plasma albumin levels.
e) False The amnesia produced by midazolam is more predictable than that
produced by diazepam.
3 a) True The percutaneous embolisation procedure will often avoid the need
for a hysterectomy following postpartum haemorrhage.
b) True This highly vascular tumour is often embolised preoperatively to reduce
blood loss during surgery. Highly selective embolisation is required.
c) False This tumour may be highly vascular, but embolisation is not usually feasible.
d) True The bronchial arteries are the usual source of haemoptysis.
e) True This is the treatment of choice for spontaneous Carotid-cavernous sinus
fistulae, using either detachable balloons or coils. Posttraumatic fistulae
can be treated conservatively,
4 a) False A TIPS procedure is indicated in patients with variceal bleeding despite

sclerotherapy or endoscopic banding, patients with varices inaccessible
to endoscopy and in those at high risk of bleeding whilst awaiting liver
transplantation. Less commonly, TIPS is used in the treatment of rapid onset
ascites or the treatment of Budd-Chiari syndrome. The aim is to produce
a porto-systemic shunt gradient of 10-15 mm Hg, which is usually sufficient
to reduce variceal bleeding and avoid the risk of encephalopathy.
b) True Actively bleeding varices can be embolised with coils via the portosystemic shunt.
c) True This is due to right heart pressure being transmitted through the shunt into
the portal system.
d) False Stent occlusion, due to intimal hyperplasia, reaches 50% at 1 year. Early
complications include extracapsular portal vein damage, haemobilia,
sepsis and encephalopathy.
e) True Doppler ultrasound is the imaging modality of choice in assessing shunt patency.
187
interventional radiology
5 a) True tPA converts plasminogen to plasmin, which lyses fibrin to dissolve thrombus.
b) False tPA is contraindicated if there is a history of a cerebrovascular accident within
6 months, but only contraindicated if the procedure is within 2 months of
a transient ischaemic attack.
c) False Underlying stenoses are often uncovered by tPA, resulting in the need for
percutaneous angioplasty. This can be performed immediately following tPA.
d) True Evidence in vitro suggests that the combination of heparin and tPA is more
effective than tPA alone.
e) False These parameters should be checked at 15-minute intervals for the first hour
and then hourly until the thrombosis is stopped. The patient should ideally
be nursed on a high-dependency unit.
6 a) True Because the secretion of aldosterone by an adenoma is pulsatile, simultaneous

sampling from both sides is essential. This may be performed via bilateral
femoral vein punctures.
b) False The right adrenal vein drains directly into the IVC and is shorter than the left,
which drains into the left renal vein. This makes the right side more difficult
to cannulate,
c) False Samples are taken 15 minutes after the ACTH infusion has started. In patients
with an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma, there will be an abrupt increase
in cortisol and aldosterone levels from the side of the adenoma. On the normal
side, only the cortisol levels will rise.
d) True CT scanning can detect adrenal nodules greater than 7 mm in diameter. Adrenal
vein sampling has almost 100% accuracy in detecting any size of adenoma.
e) False CT scanning is superior to venography at demonstrating adrenal nodules.
In addition, venography carries the risk of adrenal infarction and is therefore
not performed.
7 a) True The most common configuration is with a single artery arising on the right
and two arteries arising on the left. Many variations of this have been described.
b) True The bronchial arteries also supply the diaphragmatic and mediastinal visceral
pleura, the vasa vasora of the aorta, pulmonary arteries and, occasionally,
the myocardium and spinal cord.
c) False Chronic suppuration, usually due to bronchiectasis, is the most common cause
of massive haemoptysis in the developed world. Aspergillomas within chronic
tuberculosis (TB) cavities are also more common than bronchogenic carcinoma
as a cause of massive haemoptysis.
d) True Subclavian artery branches via transpleural vessels may contribute blood supply
to the chronically inflamed lung. Other nonbronchial arteries that may supply
systemic blood to the lung include the intercostal arteries, the axillary arteries
and the inferior phrenic arteries.
e) False This rare aneurysm arises from the pulmonary arterial tree secondary to erosion
from adjacent lung disease (commonly TB).
188
8 a) False In combination with antibiotics, PTC is the treatment of choice.

b) True If possible, the ascites should be drained first to avoid the increased risk
of intraperitoneal haemorrhage or bile peritonitis.
c) False Intrahepatic lymphatic vessels have a characteristic beaded appearance.
Injection into the portal and hepatic veins is recognised by the rapid flow
of contrast in a direction away from the liver hilum. Contrast injected into
the biliary tree flows much more slowly away from the needle tip.
d) True Bacteraemia, possibly complicated by endotoxic shock, is a result of increasing
the pressure in the biliary tree during injection of contrast medium.
e) True A biliary catheter can traverse the parietal pleura, resulting in a bile effusion.
9 a) False Polyvinyl alcohol particles are typically used. Gelatin sponge particles
have also been shown to be effective. Coils as the sole embolisation agent
do not effectively embolise the small uterine vessels and are therefore
not recommended.
b) True This can result in particles embolising the ovaries, with the associated risk
of ovarian failure and early menopause. This is reported to occur in 1%
of cases, although it appears more likely to occur in the older patient.
c) False Pain usually begins as soon as the second uterine artery has been embolised.
d) False The reported rate of hysterectomy following UAE is 1-2%. This is slightly
higher in patients with very large fibroids.
e) False The diagnosis of sarcomatous change is difficult with any imaging modality.
Rapid growth within a fibroid should raise suspicions, although this can be
seen in benign fibroids. Histology should be obtained if there are any concerns.
Fortunately, sarcomatous change is extremely rare.
10 a) False Nitinol is an alloy composed chiefly of nickel and titanium. Its properties include
a thermal memory and superelasticity, making it ideal for stent manufacture.
b) False The reverse is true.
c) True Dacron or polyurethane are also used.
d) False Neointimal hyperplasia refers to the proliferation and migration of vascular
smooth muscle cells and extracellular matrix from the media into the intima
following trauma to the vessel wall.
e) True The exact reasons for this are unclear. It may be due to the larger foreign area
of a stent graft causing a larger thrombogenic response. Dacron in particular
produces a local inflammatory response in the vessel wall, with release
of cytokines and possible promotion of neointimal hyperplasia.
1 1 a ) False Recurrence rates are high as the underlying aetiology is often outside the SVC.
However, angioplasty combined with stenting is a treatment option.
b) True There is often a rapid response to malignant SVCO following radiotherapy,
especially in the case of lymphoma. Malignant causes account for greater
than 80% of cases. Benign causes include aortic aneurysms, thyroid goitres
and TB mediastinitis.
c) True The femoral vein usually provides the best approach.
d) False Thrombolysis helps to identify the underlying stenosis within the vessel,
often prior to insertion of a stent.
e) False Migration of stents into the right side of the heart, occasionally as far
as the pulmonary artery, is a rare but recognised complication.
189
12 a) False Antibiotics are not indicated.

b) True Ascites may prevent maturation of the catheter tract, resulting in leak of stomach
contents into the peritoneum or a percutaneous ascitic leak.
c) False The preferred puncture site lies inferior to the left lobe of the liver, midway
between the greater and lesser curves and at the junction of the upper two thirds
and lower one third of the stomach.
d) False Providing the patient shows no signs of peritonitis, the gastrostomy tube can
be used after 24 hours.
e) False 'T-fasteners' reduce the risk of catheter displacement into the peritoneum.
They do, however, increase the risk of gastric wall pressure necrosis. Overall,
the complication rate is reported to be little altered whether or not 'T-fasteners'
are used. Most centres routinely use 'T-fasteners'.
13 a) True This is due to a combination of an elastic vessel wall and a high-resistance

distal vascular bed, such as the superficial femoral artery with the leg at rest.
b) False Spectral broadening implies blood flow of different velocities within an artery.
This is commonly seen around an arterial stenosis due to turbulent flow.
c) True The resistive index is useful in detecting changes in downstream
vascular resistance.
d) False The ICA is positioned posterolateral to the ECA.
e) True This is in contrast to colour Doppler ultrasound, which is angle dependent.
Thus, power Doppler gives no information about direction or velocity of flow.
14 a) True The proximal third of the renal artery is typically affected by atherosclerosis,
but rarely by FMD.
b) False The media is affected in 60%-85% of cases. Medial fibroplasia is characterised
by a 'string of beads' appearance of alternating stenoses and aneurysms within
the mid and distal main renal artery.
c) True It is bilateral in two thirds of cases.
d) True Low restenosis rates have been reported. Atherosclerotic disease often requires
stenting due to high restenosis rates.
e) True FMD affects other vessels in 1-2% of cases. These include the celiac,
hepatic, splenic, mesenteric, iliac and internal carotid vessels.
15 a) True Five layers can be identified. The first layer (echogenic) corresponds to the
mucosal surface, the second (echopoor) to the muscularis mucosa, the third
(echogenic) to the submucosa, the fourth (echopoor) to the muscularis propria
and the fifth (echogenic) to the serosa.
b) True The dorsal pancreas may appear hypoechoic compared to the ventral pancreas.
c) True This is easily identified on EUS, resulting in accurate local staging.
d) True Fine needle aspiration can .be performed safely on lesions outsidethe bowel
wall. This includes lymph nodes and solid organs, such as the liver and pancreas.
e) False A large proportion of the liver is clearly identified on EUS.
190
16 a) False Pneumothoraces occur in 50% of patients with COPD. In patients with no

underlying diffuse lung disease, pneumothoraces occur in 15%-25% of cases.
b) False Most practitioners agree that patients should be observed for at least 4 hours
before being discharged. This allows day-case procedures to be performed.
An erect chest X-ray is usually performed before discharge.
c) True This will prevent blood being aspirated into the contralateral lung.
d) True Ultrasound is faster and cheaper than CT and may reduce the risk of a
pneumothorax by showing, and hence allowing avoidance of, the interface
between the pleura and the lung during biopsy. This clearly does not apply
to pleural masses within the fissures.
e) False The internal mammary arteries descend behind the costal cartilages,
approximately 1.25 cm lateral to the sternal edge.
17 All true Other tumours with hypervascular liver metastases include carcinoid,
melanoma, choriocarcinoma, sarcoma and phaeochromocytoma.
18 a) True The internal jugular vein approach is often preferred as it allows a more
favourable angle of approach to the testicular vein.
b) False Complications are rare and include migration of embolic material to the lung
and thrombophlebitis of the pampiniform plexus.
c) False See b).
d) False Coils, detachable balloons or sclerosing agents are the recognised occluding
agents. Particulate embolic material is not recommended.
e) False There is still debate about the role of varicocele embolisation in the treatment
of infertility.
19 a) False PAVMs are congenital communications between the pulmonary artery

and pulmonary vein causing a right-to-left shunt.
b) True This is Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome. Approximately 50-80% of patients
have this condition, although only 15% of patients with Osler-Weber-Rendu
syndrome have PAVMs.
c) True Most (60-70%) occur in the lower lobes.
d) False Particles may pass into the systemic circulation. Coils or detachable balloons
are the agents of choice.
e) False Single lesions are seen in two thirds of patients.
20 a) False A transparenchymal renal tract is preferred, as it reduces the risk of tearing '
the renal pelvis and of damaging a major renal vessel.
b) False Urgent intervention is only required if an obstructed kidney is complicated
by the presence of infection.
c) False A retrorenal colon is a recognised normal variant and therefore can be
punctured via a postero-lateral approach. It may be difficult to identify
prospectively. It is thought to be more common in thinner patients.
d) True Renal haemorrhage following percutaneous nephrostomy is the most common
complication. Arteriovenous fistulae and pseudoaneurysms have been reported
in 0.5-1 % of cases and often require embolisation as treatment.
e) False Extracorporeal lithotripsy alone is the first-line treatment for calyceal stones
in the majority of patients.
191
21 a) True Antispasmodics may also be required.

b) False The high flow in the iliac vessels makes heparin unnecessary.
c) True Heparin is required for any angioplasty within the lower limb.
d) False
e) False Jf the procedure exceeds a maximum of 1 hour, a repeat bolus is required
as heparin has a short half-life.
22 a) False A transhepatic puncture is preferred in the hope of reducing the chance

of an intraperitoneal bile leak.
b) False Art empyema is one of the main indications for the procedure, especially
in patients unfit for a general anaesthetic.
c) False Cholecystostomy has been reported as beneficial in acalculous cholecystitis,
especially in critically ill patients in an intensive care unit.
d) False The tract should be allowed to mature for at least 4-6 weeks.
e) True This is true for all percutaneous transhepatic biliary procedures because
of the high risk of cholangitis.
23 a) False Severe coagulopathy is an indication for the transjugular route.

b) False Ultrasound guidance is preferred, as it is easier to compensate for respiratory
motion with this method.
c) False It is now felt that there is only a minimal risk of anaphylaxis or dissemination
of cysts following percutaneous intervention.
d) True This is due to referred pain from irritation of the diaphragm.
e) True The liver often provides a good ultrasound 'window' to view the adrenal gland.
24 a) True The subclavian artery stenosis causes blood flow to be reversed in the
ipsilateral vertebral artery, in order to provide blood flow to the arm. This
is particularly seen when the arm is exercised and results in signs of
vertebro-basilar insufficiency.
b) True It is three times more common on the left side than the right side.
c) True Doppler ultrasound may show reversal of flow in the vertebral artery on exercising
the arm. The subclavian artery stenosis may be difficult to demonstrate.
d) True Stenting is rarely required.
e) True Other causes include preductal infantile coarctation, hypoplasia of the left
aortic arch, a dissecting aneurysm, trauma and radiation fibrosis.
25 a) True It is a systemic vasculitis of unknown cause, characterised by oral ulceration,

genital ulceration and iritis.
b) False Erythema nodosum is a feature.
c) True These may erode into the bronchial tree, causing massive haemoptysis.
d) True This is due to SVC thrombosis. Thromboembolism is also seen in this disease.
e) False It causes a mild, nondestructive arthritis.
192
26 a) True Only 25% of cases involve the descending and sigmoid colon.
b) False However, it is associated with aortic stenosis in 20% of cases.
c) False Urgent angiography is indicated in haemodynamically unstable patients,
as the site of bleeding is more likely to be identified. Stable patients should
first undergo nuclear medicine imaging.
d) False Sulphur colloid scanning will detect gastrointestinal bleeding at a rate of
0.05-0.1 ml/min. Angiography is much less sensitive, requiring a bleeding
rate of at least 0.5 ml/min.
e) False Angiodysplasia usually presents with anaemia due to chronic blood loss.
27 a) True Venous intravasation itself is of little importance, although it does imply

increased pressure of contrast within the uterine cavity. This may be due
to tubal disease, menstruation, intrauterine synechia, uterine anomalies
or excessive injection pressure
b) False To avoid radiation of an early pregnancy the examination should be performed
before ovulation. If there is any doubt, a pregnancy test should be performed.
c) False The Fallopian tube is divided into four parts: intramural, isthmus, ampulla
and fimbria. The isthmus is the narrowest segment.
d) False Didelphys implies complete duplication of the uterus, cervical os and vagina.
When separation occurs down to the external os, it is termed 'uterus
bicornuate bicollis'.
e) False As the name suggests, salpingitis isthmica nodosa causes irregularity of the isthmic
portion of the Fallopian tube. This is associated with small diverticula and
may progress to obstruction. It is clinically important because of the common
association with pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility and ectopic pregnancy.
28 a) False Endoleaks occur when blood fills the space between the stent graft and the
original aneurysm sac, causing continued expansion of the aneurysm. There
are two broad categories of endoleak - those related to the endograft itself,
including the anastomoses or fixation sites (types 1 and 3), and those due to
retrograde flow into the aneurysm sac from patent aortic side branches (type 2).
Types 1 and 3 should be treated urgently, whereas type 2 endoleaks can be
managed with continued surveillance.
b) False The early stents migrated frequently. With more recent designs, however,
stent migration is an uncommon problem.
c) False In this situation, the internal iliac artery is embolised before stent-graft
placement to prevent retrograde flow into the aneurysm sac.
d) False Arterial phase helical CT has been shown to be an effective method
of radiological surveillance to detect leaks.
e) True Branching aortic stent grafts have been deployed successfully in the aortic arch.
193. '
29 a) True It is nine times more common in men than women and two thirds of patients
are under 35 years of age.
b) True Pain typically occurs during prolonged standing or following vigorous exercise.
c) True The popliteal artery is located medially and deep to the medial head
of the gastrocnemius.
d) False In the resting position, the popliteal artery may appear normal or show slight
medial deviation. The diagnosis is made after active plantar flexion of the foot
against resistance. Angiography shows an abrupt cut-off of the popliteal artery
at the level of the medial head of the gastrocnemius. This may be complicated
by a poststenotic aneurysm.
e) True Up to two thirds of patients have this syndrome in both legs.
30 a) False About 90% of cases occur just distal to the left subclavian artery. This is at the
junction of the relatively fixed aortic arch and the more mobile descending aorta.
b) False The left main stem bronchus is displaced inferiorly.
c) False Up to 85% of patients die before reaching hospital.
d) True This is due to pressure on the oesophagus.
e) True Aortography only needs to be performed if there is a mediastinal haematoma.
A completely normal CT effectively excludes the diagnosis.
31 a) True Bidirectional or reversal of flow within the portal vein, due to increased
postsinusoidal pressure produced by hepatic venous obstruction, is typical.
b) False A characteristic 'spider web' pattern of intrahepatic venous collaterals is
seen following a wedged hepatic venogram.
c) True The caudate lobe drains directly into the inferior vena cava (IVC) and, therefore,
tends to hypertrophy in an attempt to take over the function of the liver.
d) True Obstruction of the suprahepatic IVC by a membranous web causing
Budd-Chiari syndrome can successfully be treated with endoluminal stenting.
e) True There are also associations with other hypercoagulable states, such as
polycythaemia, sickle cell disease, pregnancy and in patients receiving the
contraceptive pill. Other causes include direct injury to the hepatic veins,
tumour ingrowth and membranous obstruction to the suprahepatic IVC.
32 a) True Some practitioners use a mean pressure gradient of greater than 10 mm Hg.
b) False The 5-year patency rate with angioplasty alone is 70-75%. This rises
to 90-95% following stenting.
c) False Stenting is only required if the distal blood flow is compromised.
d) False Stent failure is usually due to neointimal hyperplasia.
e) True These are called 'kissing stents', which avoid the problem of the proximal
end of a single stent occluding the opposite common iliac artery.
33 a) True
b) False
c) True
d) False
e) True
194
34 a) False The IMA should be evaluated first so that the contrast-filled bladder does
not obscure IMA branches.
b) True If a trial infusion of vasopressin controls the bleeding, then a prolonged infusion
for 6-12 hours via the angiography catheter may avoid the need for surgery.
c) True Angiography is only used if endoscopy fails to control the bleeding.
d) False The IMA arises at the level of the L3 vertebral body.
e) True Diverticular haemorrhage accounts for approximately 60% of colonic bleeding.
Angiodysplasia accounts for 20%, neoplasia 10% and colitis 5%-10%.
35 a) False This is seen in only 10%-20% of cases. It is often due to gastro-oesophageal reflux.
b) True Uncovered stents are less prone to this problem and are, therefore, preferred
in the distal oesophagus.
c) True The procedure is usually performed under sedation with the patient on their
right side and a suction catheter available to reduce the risk of aspiration
d) False There is no increase in the procedural morbidity following balloon rupture.
e) False Balloon dilatation is preferred for the treatment of achalasia. Multiple dilatations
may be required. Metallic stents are usually avoided in benign disease.
36 a) False Colonic stents are typically used to decompress an obstructed bowel,

allowing planned definitive surgery to be performed at a later stage.
b) False Uncovered stents are preferred, as they are associated with a lower risk
of stent migration.
c) False Currently, the delivery systems are not long enough to place stents proximal
to the descending colon.
d) False Although most commonly deployed for malignant disease, large-bowel obstruction
secondary to diverticular disease can be treated, with a colonic stent. This allows
resection of the affected colon as a one-stage procedure at a later date.
e) False
37 a) False The combination of digital rectal examination and prostate specific antigen (PSA)
is more sensitive than TRUS at detecting prostatic cancer.
b) True The prostate gland can be divided into three glandular zones (peripheral,
central and transitional). The central and transitional zones are both
heterogenous and hypoechogenic when compared to the more homogenous,
echogenic peripheral zone.
c) False Prostatic cancer is normally hypoechoic (61% of cases) or isoechoic (35%)
on ultrasound. Only rarely is it hyperechoic.
d) True In our practice, a single metronidazole suppository is combined with a single
intravenous injection of gentamicin and a 5-day course of ciprofloxacin.
e) False At least six cores of tissue from all parts of the peripheral zone are necessary
to sample the gland adequately.
195
38 a) False A dramatic bradycardia is often seen following closure of an arteriovenous

fistula or a high-flow arteriovenous malformation (Branham's sign).
b) False Dissecting aneurysms of the ascending thoracic aorta require surgical treatment,
whilst those of the descending aorta should be treated medically.
c) True These are due to cystic medial necrosis of the aortic wall.
d) True The left SVC usually drains into the coronary sinus.
e) False Histoplasmosis and tuberculosis are the most common causes of this condition.
39 a) True This makes them difficult to distinguish from vascular carcinomas on renal
arteriograms. They may have a typical sunburst appearance.
b) True This is a recognised complication due to the spinal cord receiving its blood
supply directly from the thoracic aorta.
c) True This is the most common complication of fibrosing mediastinitis, occurring
in 60%-70% of cases.
d) False Nuclear medicine imaging using technetium-99m-labelled pertechnetate is
the most sensitive method of detecting bleeding from a Meckel's diverticulum.
Imaging every 5 minutes for a minimum of 1 hour is required.
e) True These are typically seen as well-defined, highly vascular masses.
40 a) True A multilobulated, 'beaded' appearance within the distal renal artery is typical
of fibromuscular dysplasia and NF.
b) False About 75% of stenoses involve a short segment of the artery at the anastomosis
site. About 25% involve a longer segment secondary to trauma during allograft
harvesting or chronic rejection.
c) True The success of percutaneous transluminal angioplasty alone in treating ostial
stenoses is not as great as for distal renal artery stenoses, often resulting in
the need for stent placement.
d) False Renovascular disease accounts for less than 5% of cases of hypertension.
e) True A balloon should be inflated at the site of the extravasation and the patient
transferred to the operating room for immediate surgical repair.
196
Chapter 11
Obstetrics and gynaecology
1 Regarding ultrasonography in the first trimester of pregnancy, which of the

following are true?
a) Gestational sac volume is the most accurate estimate of gestational age
in the first 8 weeks of pregnancy
b) The diameter of the yolk sac should not be more than 5 mm
c) The yolk sac is normally identified before the foetal pole
d) Cardiac pulsation becomes visible at the beginning of the eighth postmenstrual week
e) A normal intrauterine gestational sac and foetal pole exclude an ectopic pregnancy

a) An empty gestational sac with a mean sac diameter of 10 mm and an elevated β human
chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) is consistent with a blighted ovum
b) β-HCG levels double every week in the first 8 weeks of pregnancy
c) An absent intrauterine pregnancy on ultrasonography and β-HCG levels between
1 000 and 2 000 IU is highly suspicious of an ectopic pregnancy
d) The risk of a second ectopic pregnancy is 10%

e) Vaginal bleeding is not usually associated with an ectopic pregnancy
3 Regarding gestational trophoblastic disease, which of the following are true?

a) Benign hydatidiform moles account for 60% of cases
b) On ultrasonography, multiple small intrauterine cysts with posterior acoustic
enhancement are characteristic of hydatidiform moles
c) Large bilateral ovarian cysts are a frequent association
d) An invasive mole cannot be distinguished from a hydatidiform mole on ultrasonography
e) Choriocarcinoma follows a normal pregnancy in 1% of cases
4 An axial ultrasonographic section through the foetal head for measurement

of the biparietal diameter should include which of the following?
a) The thalami
b) The cavum septum pellucidum
c) The third ventricle
d) A continuous echogenic midline
e) The cerebellum
5 Regarding ultrasonography of the foetal head and neck, which of the following are true?
a) About 50% of patients with a cleft lip and palate will have an associated
congenital anomaly
b) Hypertelorism can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography
c) Macroglossia cannot be diagnosed on ultrasonography
d) The lemon sign refers to the shape of the cerebellum in patients with hydrocephalus
and spina bifida
e) The majority of cases of spina bifida also have Arnold-Chiari type II malformations
198
6 Regarding the placenta, which of the following are true?

a) Ultrasonography should be performed with a full bladder in order to exclude
placenta praevia
b) The normal placenta should not measure more than 4 cm at its thickest point
c) Painless vaginal bleeding is typical of placental abruption
d) Placenta percreta refers to placental tissue invading through the myometrium
at the site of a previous caesarean section
e) An acute retroplacental bleed will appear echopoor on ultrasonography
7 Causes of a raised maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein include which of the following?

a) Duodenal atresia
b) Gastroschisis
c) Meningocoele
d) Omphalocoele
e) Maternal hepatocellular carcinoma

a) Gadolinium diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA) chelate does not cross
the placenta
b) A foetal goitre can be distinguished from a cervical teratoma on magnetic
c) The most common posterolateral neck mass in the foetus is a cystic hygroma
d) Premature rupture of membranes is the most common cause of oligohydramnios
e) MRI is more accurate than ultrasound in diagnosing spina bifida
9 Regarding endometriosis, which of the following are true?

a) About 30%-50% of women with endometriosis are infertile
b) Endometriomas typically return coarse internal echoes on ultrasonography
c) Endometriomas return a low signal on T1-weighted MRI
d) Endometriosis within the chest usually presents with haemoptysis
e) Endometriotic deposits of the gastrointestinal tract often erode through
into the bowel lumen

a) Adenomyosis typically appears as areas of low echogenicity within the myometrium
on transvaginal ultrasonography
b) Cysts within the myometrium are commonly seen in patients with adenomyosis
on transvaginal ultrasonography
c) T1-weighted MRI best demonstrates normal uterine zonal anatomy
d) Adenomyosis classically widens the outer myometrium on T2-weighted MRI
e) Myometrial contractions can mimic adenomyosis
11 Regarding uterine leiomyomas, which of the following are true?

a) They are typically of low T2 signal relative to the surrounding myometrium
b) Cystic degeneration occurs in 30% of cases
c) Red degeneration is associated with the contraceptive pill
d) Calcification is usually peripheral
e) Simple leiomyomas can metastasise
199
12 Which of the following statements are true regarding cervical carcinoma?

a) Invasion of the bladder represents stage IV disease
b) Cervical carcinoma is typically low signal on T2-weighted Imaging
c) The inguinal region is the first site of metastatic lymph node involvement
d) Cervical carcinoma is typically iso in tense to the surrounding cervix
e) The vagina is isointense to striated muscle on all pulse sequences
13 Regarding perianal fistulae, which of the following are true?

a) The external anal sphincter is continuous with the levator ani
b) The internal sphincter can be divided without loss of continence
c) The internal and external anal sphincters cannot be separately resolved
in normal patients on unenhanced MRI
d) If the ischioanal and ischiorectal fossae are involved on MRI, an intersphincteric
abscess should be considered
e) About 70% of perianal fistulae are trans-sphincteric
14 Which of the following statements arc true?

a) Gartner's duct cysts are typically located anterolateral to the upper two thirds
of the vagina
b) Nabothian cysts occur in the posterolateral wall of the lower third of the vagina
c) The uterus is derived from the paired müllerian ducts
d) A unicornuate uterus is rarely associated with other anomalies
e) The risk of an ectopic pregnancy is higher in patients with a unicornuate uterus

a) Intracavitary uterine polyps are associated with tamoxifen use
b) During the menstrual cycle, the endometrium should not measure more than
11 mm in thickness
c) The endometrium is echogenic relative to the surrounding myometrium throughout
the menstrual cycle
d) The endometrium cannot be identified in the prepubertal female
e) The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is endometrial carcinoma

a) A fluid collection within the endometrial easily of a neonate is abnormal
b) Haematocolpos refers to a uterine cavity distended with blood
c) After puberty, the most common cause of haematocolpos is vaginal atresia
d) Congenital haematometrocolpos is usually associated with other anomalies
e) Haematometra is a cause of ureteric obstruction
17 Regarding mature cystic teratomas of the ovary (dermoid cysts),

a) They typically present before 10 years of age
b) They arc typically multilocular on ultrasonography
c) Ectodermal tissue is invariably present
d) The presence of fat on MRI confirms the diagnosis
e) Malignant degeneration occurs in 1-3% of cases
200
18 Regarding polycystic ovaries, which of the following are true?

a) The ovaries are enlarged on ultrasonography in 95% of cases
b) There is a decrease in the ratio of luteinizing hormone to follicular stimulating hormone
c) There is an increased risk of endometrial carcinoma
d) Cysts of 5-8 mm are characteristically present throughout the ovary
e) They are seen in patients with trophoblastic disease
19 Regarding foetal anomalies, which of the following are true?

a) The triple screen for Down's syndrome refers to the combination of maternal
alpha-fetoprotein, oestriol and HCG levels
b) Short femur and humerus lengths are indicators of Down's syndrome
c) The nuchal-fold thickness is most prominent between 11 and 13 weeks
d) Endocardial cushion defects are strongly associated with Down’s syndrome
e) Separation of the big toe from the remaining toes is a strong sign of Down's syndrome
20 Regarding ovarian tumours, which of the following are true?

a) Sex cord stromal tumours constitute 80-90% of malignant ovarian tumours
b) Ovarian fibromas are typically high signal on T2-weighted imaging
c) Sex cord stromal tumours typically cause pseudomyxoma peritonei
d) Epithelial ovarian neoplasms often produce androgens or oestrogens
e) Granulosa cell tumours spread early to peritoneal surfaces
201
Answers
1 a) False Once the foetus can be identified (5-6 weeks), then the crown-to-rump length
becomes the most accurate measurement. The biparietal diameter becomes
the most accurate towards the end of the first trimester.
b) True A large yolk sac (> 5 mm) is highly suggestive of an abnormal
pregnancy and embryonic death.
c) True The yolk sac can be identified on transvaginal scanning at 4-5 weeks.
The foetal pole is visualised at 5-6 weeks. The yolk sac is the first structure
identified within a normal gestational sac.
d) False Cardiac pulsation is identified almost as soon as the foetal pole is visualised
This is usually at the beginning of the sixth postmenstrual week on
transabdominal scanning.
e) False A coexisting intrauterine and ectopic pregnancy (heterotopic pregnancy)
is extremely rare in spontaneous conceptions (1 in 30 000 pregnancies),
but it is increasingly seen in patients undergoing assisted conception
(up to 1 in 2 000 pregnancies).
2 a) True A 'blighted ovum' (anembryonic pregnancy) still produces β-HCG due

to production by trophoblasts in the wall of the gestational sac.
b) False Levels of β-HCG double every 2-3 days in the first 8 weeks of pregnancy.
c) True This is true even if an adnexal mass cannot be identified.
d) False The risk of a second ectopic pregnancy is 25%. Other risk factors include:
previous tubal surgery, previous pelvic inflammatory disease, endometriosis,
induced ovulation, an intrauterine contraceptive device in situ and salpingitis
isthmica nodosa.
e) False Vaginal bleeding is present in 75%-85% of ectopic pregnancies.
3 a) False This benign form accounts for 80%-90% of cases. An invasive mole is seen
in 5%-8% of cases and choriocarcinoma in 1%-2% of cases.
b) True However, this typical appearance is often not seen until the second trimester.
c) true Multiple theca-lutein cysts, stimulated by the elevated levels of β-HCG,
occur in up to 50% of cases. These may take up to 4 months to regress.
d) False Invasive moles form pockets of trophoblastic cells within the myometrium.
These are highly vascular and are often identified on colour Doppler scanning.
e) False About 20%-25% of choriocarcinomas follow a normal pregnancy. About
50% follow a previous hydatidiform mole.
4 a) True
b) True
c) True
d) False
e) False
The biparietal diameter is used for estimating the gestational age after 12 weeks.
Its accuracy declines after 28 weeks, at which time it should be combined with
a second measurement, such as femur length. Measurements are made from
the outer side of the near skull to the inner side of the distal skull.
202
5 a) True There is a particularly strong association with trisomy syndromes 13 and 18.
Typically these are paramedian clefts. A median cleft lip is much rarer and
may be associated with intracranial abnormalities, such as holoprosencephaly.
b) True Causes include craniosynostosis, cleft lip and palate, frontal encephalocoeles
and exposure to teratogens, such as phenytoin.
c) False When the tongue is enlarged it persistently protrudes from the open mouth.
Intermittent protrusion is often seen in normal foetuses. It is an important
observation because of its association with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
d) False The lemon sign refers to the shape of the head in patients with
hydrocephalus and spina bifida. Typically the head is pointed anteriorly
on the transverse section.
e) True In Arnold-Chiari type II malformation, the cerebellar vermis herniates into
the foramen magnum. There is displacement of the fourth ventricle and
obstructive hydrocephalus. The cerebellum is typically bowed posteriorly,
resulting in the banana sign.
6 a) False A full bladder causing the internal os to appear covered by the placenta
may artificially, lengthen the cervix.
b) True A thick placenta can be a sign of uncontrolled maternal diabetes, intrauterine
infections or hydrops foetalis.
c) False Painless vaginal bleeding is typical of placenta praevia. Bleeding is often
painful with placental abruption.
d) True Placenta accreta implies that the chorionic villi are in direct contact with
the myometrium. In placenta increta the villi invade the myometrium.
In placenta percreta invasion extends through the uterine wall. All types
can cause persistent postpartum haemorrhage.
e) False Initially the blood may be hyperechoic or isoechoic. This can make
differentiation from the adjacent placenta very difficult. The haematoma
will become hypoechoic within 2 weeks.
7 All true Alpha-fetoprotein is produced by the yolk sac and the immature foetal liver.
It is classically raised in open neural tube defects. Other foetal causes include:
ventral wall defects, upper gastrointestinal obstruction, cystic hygroma, teratoma,
amniotic band syndrome and feto-maternal haemorrhage.
8 a) False Hence, its use in pregnancy is avoided. There are no known deleterious
effects of MRI on the foetus, but it is generally avoided in the first trimester
when organogenesis occurs.
b) True A foetal goitre is usually secondary to maternal thyroid disease. On a T1-weighted
fast spin echo sequence, a goitre returns a high signal when compared with
other anterior neck masses in the foetus (teratoma, haemangioma).
c) True This is a fluid-filled lymphatic malformation, which is associated with
Turner's syndrome, trisomies 13, 18 and 21, Noonan's syndrome
and foetal alcohol syndrome.
d) True Other causes include renal anomalies, posterior urethral valves and growth
retardation. MRI can be useful, particularly to clarify renal anomalies when
the oligohydramnios makes ultrasonography difficult.
e) False Ultrasound has much greater spatial resolution than MRI.
203
Obstetrics arid gynaecology
9 a) True In addition, 20% of infertile women have endometriosis. Infertility may relate
to autoimmune factors as well as anatomical abnormalities.
b) False A homogenous, hypoechoic cyst with diffuse low-level internal echoes
is the characteristic ultrasonographic appearance. Atypical examples
may be anechoic and they may be unilocular or multilocular.
c) False Endometriomas are typically high signal on T1-weighted imaging. This is due
to blood breakdown products within the cyst. The appearances are particularly
striking on T1-weighted imaging following fat saturation. This sequence helps
distinguish a dermoid cyst (low signal) from an endometrioma (high signal).
d) False More than 70% of cases present with a pneumothorax. This may be recurrent,
presenting at menstruation. A small number of patients present with haemoptysis
or a haemothorax.
e) False Deposits are serosal and erode through the subserosal layers causing, thickening
of the muscularis propria. The underlying mucosa is almost never breeched. The
inferior surface of the sigmoid colon and the anterior surface of the rectum are
the most common sites. The gastrointestinal tract is involved in 10%-30% of cases.
10 a) True Adenomyosis refers to the presence of heterotopic endometrial glands within

the myometrium, with associated smooth muscle hyperplasia. More than
75% of patients show areas of low echogenicity or heterogeneity on
transvaginal ultrasonography.
b) True Cysts are present in 50% of cases and represent dilated cystic glands or
haemorrhagic areas within the abnormal myometrium. They are usually
less than 5 mm in diameter.
c) False T2-weighted MRI demonstrates normal zonal anatomy better than T1-weighted
MRI or T1-weighted MRI with contrast enhancement. On T2-weighted imaging
the endometrium is high signal, the junctional zone or inner myometrium is low
signal and the outer myometrium is of intermediate signal. The sagittal plane
usually provides the best demonstration of uterine zonal anatomy.
d) False Adenomyosis is predominantly low signal on T2-weighted MRI. This gives the
appearance of a widened low signal junctional zone. A junctional zone greater
than 12 mm in diameter is highly specific for adenomyosis.
e) True Myometrial contractions can thicken the junctional zone and, therefore,
mimic adenomyosis. Adenomyosis itself can mimic endometrial carcinoma
or alter the staging accuracy of endometrial carcinoma.
11a) True This is due to hyalinisation and is present in 60% of uterine leiomyomas.
Intermediate signal on T1-weighted images is also typical. *
b) False Cystic degeneration is rare and occurs in approximately 4% of cases.
c) True Both pregnancy and the contraceptive pill are associated with red degeneration.
Usually there is obstruction of the peripheral draining veins resulting
in haemorrhagic infarction.
d) False However, red degeneration may result in peripheral calcification. Typically
the appearance is of scattered, amorphous calcification marking the site
of hyaline degeneration.
e) True Rarely, there is direct growth into local veins followed by distant metastases
(benign metastasising leiomyoma). Dissemination throughout the peritoneal
cavity is also recognised.
204
12 a) True Stage I disease is carcinoma confined to the cervix. Stage II is tumour extending
beyond the uterus, but not to the pelvic sidewall or the lower third of the vagina.
Stage III is tumour extending to the pelvic sidewall or to the lower third of the
vagina. Stage IV is invasion of the bladder or rectal mucosa (IV-A) or distant
metastases (IV-B).
b) False Cervical carcinoma is usually of intermediate signal relative to the surrounding
low signal cervical stroma on T2-weighted imaging.
c) False Lymph node spread is typically to the iliac and then periaortic nodal groups.
d) True Most tumours are best identified on T2-weighted imaging. Small tumours,
however, are most conspicuous on T1-weighted sequences after
contrast enhancement.
e) True The vaginal vault may be high signal on T2-weighted imaging due to
vaginal secretions.
13 a) True The internal anal sphincter is continuous with the circular smooth muscle
of the rectum.
b) True Although the internal sphincter accounts for 85% of resting anal tone,
it is the external sphincter that is important for continence.
c) True Anal endosonography demonstrates the sphincter mechanism and
intersphincteric plane, but shows the external sphincter less reliably.
It may not identify abscesses lying some distance from the probe and
may not distinguish fibrosis from infection. MRI is superior in this regard.
d) False This implies the presence of a trans-sphincteric fistula/abscess or
translevator disease.
e) False About 70% of perianal fistulae are intersphincteric and 20% are trans-sphincteric.
Extrasphincteric and supralevator fistulae are rare. The fistula starts as an
infection in the anal mucosal gland. The chronic sepsis spreads to the
intersphincteric plane (cryptoglandular hypothesis) from where it may track
in the intersphincteric plane (intersphincteric fistula), through the external
sphincter or above the levator muscle (supralevator). These may be associated
with abscesses anywhere along their length.
14 a) True Gartner's duct cysts occur in 1-2% of females and develop in remnants
of the wolffian duct system. Although they are incidental findings, they
may be associated with renal tract anomalies.
b) False This describes a Bartholin's cyst. Mucous retention within endocervical glands
is termed a nabothian cyst. Gartner's, Bartholin's and nabothian cysts are
all high signal on T2-weighted MRI.
c) True The müllerian ducts form the uterus, the Fallopian tubes and the upper two
thirds of the vagina. The ovaries are formed from primitive germ cells and
the lower third of the vagina arises from the vaginal plate.
d) False About 40% of patients with a unicornuate uterus have associated renal
or ureteric abnormalities. These include renal agenesis, ectopia, fusion,
malrotation and duplication.
e) True About 25% of patients with uterine, abnormalities have fertility problems.
205
Dbstetrics and gynaecology
15 a) True About 60% of women receiving long-term tamoxifen will develop changes
in the endometrial cavity. These may be multiple polyps or cystic and echogenic
areas due to subendometrial adenomyosis. There is also a small increased
risk of endometrial carcinoma.
b) False During the early proliferative stage, the endometrium becomes echogenic and
measures 5-7 mm. In the late proliferative stage, the endometrium becomes
hypoechoic with an echogenic basal layer and can measure up to 11 mm
in thickness. During the secretory phase, the endometrium again becomes
echogenic and can measure up to 16 mm in thickness.
c) False See b).
d) False The endometrium is seen as a thin echogenic line in the prepubertal female.
e) False About 75% of cases of postmenopausal bleeding are due to endometrial atrophy.
Endometrial cancer is responsible in 10% of cases. Other causes include polyps,
submucosal fibroids, endometrial hyperplasia and oestrogen withdrawal.
16 a) False Approximately 25% of normal neonates have a small fluid collection within
the uterine cavity. The uterus is typically tubular at birth with the cervix and
uterine body being similar in size.
b) False Haematocolpos refers to the vagina distended with blood and haematometra
to the uterine cavity distended with blood. Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser
syndrome refers to agenesis of the vagina with intact ovaries/Fallopian tubes
and variable anomalies of the uterus and urinary tract.
c) False An imperforate hymen is the most common cause of haematocolpos.
Other causes include a transverse vaginal septum and vaginal atresia.
d) True Other associations include imperforate anus, renal agenesis, sacral atresia
and oesophageal atresia.
e) True The ureters typically become compressed as they pass anteriorly at the level
of the cervix.
17 a) False The mean age at presentation is 30 years. They are however the most common
paediatric ovarian tumour. Immature teratomas typically present in the first two
decades of life.
b) False About 88% are unilocular. Classically, there is a raised nodule extending into
the lumen of the cyst. This is called a Rokitansky nodule. Any hair within the
cyst arises from this nodule.
c) True These tumours contain material from at least two of the three germ cell layers.
Ectoderm is always present. Mesoderm and endoderm are present in the
majority of cases.
d) True Hence, MRI with chemical shift imaging and fat-saturation techniques
is important.
e) True Surgery is usually performed to avoid torsion or cyst rupture.
206
18 a) False About 70% of cases have bilaterally enlarged ovaries (> 14 cm3).
In 30% of cases, the ovaries are of normal size.
b) False The reverse is true. The condition is caused by decreased conversion of
androgen to oestrogen. This results in immature follicles that do not develop
into graafian follicles.
c) True This is due to chronic noncyclical oestrogen stimulation.
d) False The cysts are typically subcapsular. The central stroma of the ovary is of
increased echogenicity. In 25% of cases, the ovaries are hypoechoic without
demonstrable follicles.
e) False Trophoblastic disease typically causes hyperstimulation of the ovaries with large
multiseptated cysts secondary to elevated HCC levels. There may also be ascites
and severe electrolyte imbalance. Polycystic ovaries may be seen in congenital
adrenal hyperplasia.
19 a) True If all three levels are elevated, the risk of Down's syndrome is increased.
b) True If the humerus and femur are less than 91% of the expected length for
gestational age, there is an increased risk of Down's syndrome.
c) True A measurement of greater than 6 mm at this time is a strong indicator
of Down's syndrome.
d) True Endocardial cushion defects are seen in 25% of cases of Down's syndrome.
Other thoracic anomalies in Down's syndrome include membranous ventricular
septal defects, ostium primum atrial septal defects, cleft mitral valve, patent
ductus arteriosus, 11 rib pairs (in 25% of cases) and a hypersegmented
manubrium (in 90%).
e) False This is termed a sandal toe. It is a weak sign of Down's syndrome.
20 a) False Ovarian tumours are classified as epithelial, germ cell or stromal/sex cord
tumours. Epithelial tumours constitute two thirds of all ovarian tumours
and 80%-90% of malignant ovarian neoplasms.
b) False Ovarian fibromas account for 4% of ovarian neoplasms. They are benign tumours
that may be associated with ascites and pleural effusions (Meigs' syndrome).
On T2-weighted MRI they are very low signal, although scattered areas of high
signal representing oedema can often be seen.
c) False Pseudomyxoma peritonei is typically caused by mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
of the appendix or ovary.
d) False Hormone production is typical of the sex cord stromal tumours. Epithelial
tumours rarely produce hormones.
e) False About 90% of granulosa cell tumours are confined to the ovary at presentation
(stage 1). They are predominantly solid tumours with multiple cystic spaces,
which frequently produce oestrogens and more rarely androgens.
207
208
Chapter 12
Nuclear medicine and
positron emission
tomography imaging
Nuclear medicine and positron emission tomography imaging
1 Which of the following are true regarding the physics of nuclear medicine?
a) Isomers are defined as nuclides with the same number of protons
b) One becquerel (Bq) indicates one radioactive disintegration per second
c) The biological half-life of a radioisotope is usually less than the effective half-life
d) 99mTc emits γ rays with energy of 140 keV
e) Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) has a better spatial resolution
than conventional planar imaging
2 Regarding the design and function of a gamma camera, which of the following are true?
a) The collimator lies between the crystal and the photomultiplier tubes
h) The normal camera crystal is made of Tl-activated sodium iodide
c) The photomultiplier tubes convert electrical energy into light photons
d) The energy of the Compton tail lies above that of the photopeak
e) Intrinsic resolution is always better than system resolution
3 Which of the following are true of positron emission tomography (PET)?

a) It utilises a process known as annihilation coincidence
b) It normally requires close proximity to a cyclotron
c) PET images have a higher spatial resolution than SPECT Images
d) On PET scans using 2-[18F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose (FDG), most tumours
appear as focal 'cold' spots
e) The sensitivity of 18FDG scanning is less in diabetic patients
4 Regarding 99mTechnetium (99mTc) methylene diphosphonate (MDP) bone scans,

a) MDP is absorbed onto hydroxyapatite crystals in bone
b) More than 70% of 99mTc-MDP is renally excreted in the first 24 hours postinjection
c) The static images are routinely obtained 4-6 hours postinjection
d) 99mTc-MDP is normally taken up by the salivary glands
e) 99m Tc-MDP cardiac uptake is seen in unstable angina pectoris
5 Which of the following are classically 'hot' on a 99mTc-MDP bone scan?

a) Acute fracture within 12 hours of injury
b) Bone island
c) Fibrous dysplasia
d) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
e) Multiple myeloma
6 Which of the following can cause a 'superscan' appearance on a 99mTc-MDP bone scan?
a) Mastocytosis
b) Osteomalacia
c) Bony lymphoma
d) Hyperthyroidism
e) Fibrous dysplasia
210
7 Which of the following are true of scintigraphy and bony neoplasm?

a) An increase in activity around metastases can indicate a response to therapy
b) Osteoid osteomas are classically 'hot' with a central 'cold' nidus
c) In 5% of bone scans negative for metastases, the radiograph will be positive
d) Radiotherapy usually leads to a well-defined 'hot' area, which may mask a deposit
e) In a patient with a known malignancy, 40%-50% of solitary 'hot' spots are malignant
8) Regarding the scintigraphic assessment of a joint prosthesis, which of

the following are true?
a) Increased MDP activity over the greater trochanter is diagnostic of an inflammatory bursitis
b) A normal, noncemented total hip replacement (THR) will be 'hot' 12 months after surgery
c) A 'hot' knee prosthesis 18 months after surgery is abnormal
d) Prosthetic loosening results in a scan that is 'hot' on blood pool and delayed phases
e) Uptake of 67gallium (67Ga) around a THR that is more than 2 years old suggests infection
9 Regarding bone marrow imaging, which of the following are true?

a) Only 10% of an injected 99mTc sulphur colloid dose is taken up by bone marrow
b) A bony metastasis classically shows as a 'hot spot' on a marrow scan
c) In normal adults, activity should not be seen in femora
d) Appendicular extension of bone marrow activity can be seen in myelofibrosis
e) Reduced central marrow activity is seen in aplastic anaemia
10 Concerning the radiopharmaceuticals used in lung scintigraphy, which of

the following are true?
a) 99mTc macroaggregated albumin (MAA) particles should be greater than 10 μm in size
b) A right-to-left shunt is an absolute contraindication to the use of 99mTc-MAA
c) If 133xenon (133Xe) is used as the ventilation agent, a perfusion scan should
be performed first
d) 81mKrypton has a half-life of about 13 seconds
e) About 10% of administered 99mTc diethylenetriaminepenta-acetic acid (DTPA)
aerosol reaches the lung parenchyma
11 Regarding scintigraphy for suspected pulmonary emboli, which of the following are true?
a) There is normally more activity posteriorly than anteriorly on perfusion images
b) Costophrenic angles are better seen on 133Xe ventilation images than on MAA images
c) The presence of the stripe sign makes a pulmonary embolus in that region unlikely
d) If ventilation in more than 75% of the lung is abnormal, the study is indeterminate
for pulmonary emboli
e) Pulmonary emboli typically appear as reversed mismatched defects
12 Which of the following are causes of total loss of perfusion of one lung
on a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan?
a) Swyer-James (Macleod's) syndrome
b) A Blalock-Taussig shunt
c) Pleural effusion
d) Pneumothorax
e) Histoplasmosis
211
13 Regarding the radionuclides used in cardiac imaging, which of the following are true?
f a) Cellular uptake of 201thallium (201Tl) chloride relies on an intact Na+/K+-ATPase pump
b) 201Tl chloride has a physical half-life of 73 hours
c) 99mTc sestamibi is preferred over 201Tl chloride for obese patients
d) 99mTc sestamibi, unlike 201Tl, undergoes no significant redistribution phase
e) 99mTc teboroxime has a biological half-life of 10-20 minutes
14 Which of the following are true of stress testing in cardiac scintigraphy?

a) Prior to a treadmill test, patients are routinely fasted
b) The typical target heart rate in a treadmill test is 220 minus the patient's age in years
c) Failure to achieve target heart rate in an exercise test reduces sensitivity for
ischaemia by 50%
d) The normal lung:heart activity ratio is less than 0.5
e) Adenosine is the agent of choice for pharmacological stress testing in patients with asthma
15 Which of the following typically cause a reduction in myocardial uptake of 201Tl?

a) Hibernating myocardium
b) Cardiac sarcoidosis
c) Cardiac amyloidosis
d) Left bundle branch block
e) Mitral valve prolapse
16 Which of the following are true of Cardiac PET studies?

a) Exercise stress testing is usually preferred over pharmacological stress testing
b) 82Rubidium (82Rb) is used to demonstrate cardiac perfusion
c) Ischaemic myocardium is typically 'cold' on an 18FDG PET study
d) Hibernating myocardium cannot be identified by cardiac PET studies
e) Decreased perfusion and metabolism indicate infarcted myocardium
17 Which of the following are true of ventricular function studies?

a) First-pass studies are usually performed with 99mTc-labelled red cells
b) Left-to-right cardiac shunts can be detected on first-pass studies
c) Wall movement is optimally assessed with gated blood-pool studies
d) The normal value for left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) is 50-65%
e) The LVEF normally falls slightly after commencing exercise
18 Concerning the radioisotopes utilised in renal imaging, which of the following are true?
a) 99mTc mercaptoacetyltriglycine (MAG3) is mostly cleared by glomerular filtration
b) 99mTc MAG3 is the radionuclide of choice in renal insufficiency
c) 99mTc DTPA is mostly cleared by glomerular filtration
d) Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) is the agent of choice for calculating renal function
in the presence of an obstruction
e) After 3 hours, 50% of a 99mTc DMSA dose accumulates in renal tubular cells
19 Which of the following are true regarding a normal renal scintigram?

a) On perfusion images, peak renal activity occurs 3-6 seconds after peak aortic activity
b) Peak cortical activity occurs 3-5 minutes postinjection
c) Peak renal activity should be equal or higher than peak spleen activity
d) Quantitative split renal function is estimated between 5-10 minutes postinjection
e) Visualisation of a ureter on a MAG3 study is abnormal
212
20 Which of the following are true of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

inhibition renography?
a) ACE inhibitors predominantly exert their effect on the afferent arteriole
b) Diuretics should be withheld for 48 hours before an ACE inhibitor renogram
c) Unilaterally reduced renal perfusion is diagnostic of renal artery stenosis (RAS)
d) This test is particularly suited to detecting bilateral stenoses
e) A 10% fall in 20-minute cortical activity on an MAG3 renogram indicates
renal artery stenosis
21 Concerning vesico-ureteric reflux radioisotope studies, which of the following are true?
a) The radiation dose of radionuclide cystography is lower than that of
fluoroscopic cystography
b) Vesico-ureteric reflux occurs only during the bladder-filling phase in 20% of cases
c) On serial studies, the threshold volume required for reflux decreases
d) Isotope studies do not allow grading of reflux as accurately as fluoroscopy
e) Vesico-ureteric reflux in a 4-year-old with a normal DMSA scan does not warrant
the use of antibiotics
22 Regarding the scintigraphic assessment of renal transplants, which of the

following are true?
a) Typically acute tubular necrosis results in normal renal perfusion, but decreased excretion
b) Acute rejection is typified by reduced renal perfusion and excretion
c) Early visualisation of the inferior vena cava is typical of an arteriovenous fistula
d) Failure to visualise an isotope outside the collecting system excludes a urinoma
e) Haematoma and urinomas cannot be distinguished by scintigraphy

a) Liquids are more sensitive than solids in detecting abnormal gastric emptying
b) After a solid meal, there is an exponential clearance of activity from the stomach
c) The emptying half-time of the normal stomach is usually 30 minutes for liquids
d) Anorexia nervosa typically results in rapid gastric emptying
e) Thyrotoxicosis typically causes rapid gastric emptying
24 Concerning Meckel's diverticulum scanning, which of the following are true?

a) The sensitivity of pertechnetate scintigraphy falls after adolescence
b) Activity in a diverticulum usually appears 1-2 hours postinjection
c) Glucagon administration results in an increased uptake of pertechnetate
d) A tubular area of increased activity in the right iliac fossa is typical of
a Meckel's diverticulum
e) Barrett's oesophagus can produce a false positive scan
25 Which of the following are true of radionuclide tests and gastrointestinal

a) Radionuclide tests are usually more sensitive for GI bleeding than angiography
b) 99mTc-labelled red cells have a longer half-life than 99mTc sulphur colloid
c) 99mTc sulphur colloid is more sensitive for bleeding in the upper than the lower GI tract
d) Uptake in the bowel that does not alter in location or intensity is typical for GI bleeding
e) The specificity of isotope studies is decreased in Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
213
26 Concerning imaging with 99mTc-labelled iminodiacetic acid (IDA) agents,
a) Of the injected 99mTc-labelled IDA, 85%-99% is excreted into the bile
b) On a normal study, the gallbladder is visualised within 1 hour of injection
c) Normally, the gallbladder is visualised before the duodenum
d) Morphine can usefully be administered during the study in order to contract
the gallbladder
e) The width of activity in the common bile duct correlates closely with actual diameter
27 Which of the following are true of biliary studies?

a) Alcoholism is a recognised cause of failure to visualise the gallbladder
4 hours postinjection
b) The rim sign refers to the appearance of activity in the hypervascular gallbladder wall
c) In 4% of cases of acute cholecystitis, the gallbladder is seen to fill on delayed images
d) The presence of a duodenal diverticulum lowers test sensitivity for cholecystitis
e) Chronic cholecystitis and acalculous cholecystitis can be differentiated
28 Concerning paediatric and postoperative cholescintigraphy, which of the

following are true?
a) Neonatal liver immaturity prevents biliary atresia studies in the first 2 months of life
b) Concurrent phenobarbitone administration hinders paediatric biliary atresia studies
c) On a normal paediatric dimethyl hepato-iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) study, the liver
is visualised 5 minutes after injection
d) Choledochal and pancreatic cysts can be differentiated on cholescintigraphy
e) Cholescintigraphy is more specific than ultrasonography for postoperative bile leaks
29 Regarding the radionuclides used in thyroid studies, which of the following are true?
a) 123Iodine (123I) is the isotope of choice for routine diagnostic imaging
b) 123I is usually administered by intravenous injection
c) 99mTc pertechnetate is trapped, but not organified, by the thyroid
d) 131I has a half-life of 8 days
e) 131I is the isotope of choice for demonstrating retrosternal thyroid tissue
30 Which of the following are true of thyroid nodule imaging?

a) About 10% of 'hot' nodules are malignant
b) About 80%-90% of 'cold' nodules are benign
c) About 25% of 'hot' nodules are palpable
d) Less than 5% of dominant nodules in a multinodular goitre are malignant
e) A classical discordant nodule is 99mTc pertechnetate 'hot' and 123I 'cold'
31 Regarding thyroid scintigraphy and uptake studies, which of the following are true?
a) Decreased 123I uptake is seen in hypoalbuminaemia
b) Increased 123I uptake is seen in thyroiditis
c) Low tracer uptake almost never occurs in hyperthyroidism
d) A 'hot' nodule with central photopenia has the same malignant risk as a 'cold' nodule
e) A rise in thyroglobulin levels after 131l ablation suggests thyroid cancer recurrence
214
32 Which of the following are true regarding parathyroid scintigraphy?

a) 201Tl is utilised in subtraction imaging, as it localizes to the parathyroid glands only
b) With 201Tl/99mTc pertechnetate subtraction imaging, lesion specificity is only 40%
c) Parathyroid scintigraphy is more sensitive to adenomas than gland hyperplasia
d) On delayed 99mTc sestamibi scans, parathyroid adenomas typically remain 'hot'
e) 99mTc sestamibi has a half-life of 6 hours
33. Which of the following are true regarding 99mTc hexamethylpropyleneamine oxine
(HMPAO) brain studies?
a) 99mTc HMPAO does not readily cross the normal blood-brain barrier
b) White matter takes up the agent more readily than grey matter
c) There is reduced uptake in the basal ganglia (caudate) in Huntington's chorea
d) In Alzheimer's disease, there is a reduction in the cortical/cerebellar uptake ratio
e) interictal scans will typically show decreased uptake in the seizure focus
34 Concerning 67Gallium (67Ga) scintigraphy, which of the following are true?

a) There is improved lesion detection in patients with haemochromatosis
b) Neutropenia is a recognised cause of a false negative scan
c) Uptake in the lacrimal glands is not normal
d) Faint activity in the kidneys is normal up to 96 hours postinjection
e) It has a physical half-life of 78 hours
35 Which of the following chest conditions take up 67Ga-citrate avidly?

a) Kaposi's sarcoma
b) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
c) Lymphoma
d) Bacterial pneumonia
e) Sarcoidosis
36 Which of the following is true of labelled white cell scanning?

a) The white cells are most commonly labelled with 111indium (111In) oxine
b) 111In oxine-labelled white cell studies are superior to 67Ga for abdominal imaging
c) On a normal 111In oxine scan, activity is greater in the spleen than the liver
d) Visualisation of the lungs on a 4-hour image suggests thoracic pathology
e) The white cells that are labelled must originate from the patient
37 Which of the following are true of studies using labelled white cells?
a) Isotope uptake around a surgical drainage tube indicates a residual abscess
b) White cell studies are more sensitive to chronic infection than an acute process
c) Crohn's disease is typically 'cold' on an 111In oxine-labelled white cell study
d) Uncomplicated congestive cardiac failure is typically 'hot' on a white cell study
e) The sensitivity of white cell studies falls significantly if the patient is receiving antibiotics
38 Which of the following tumours are 'hot' on a metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scan?

a) Ganglioneuroma
b) Extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma
c) Medullary thyroid carcinoma
d) Neuroblastoma
e) Carcinoid tumour
215
Nuclear medicine and positron emission tonography imaging
39 Which of the following are 'hot' on 111In-octreotide study?

a) Neuroblastoma
b) Gastrinoma
c) Sarcoidosis
d) Breast cancer
e) Kidneys
40 Which of the following are true?

a) Focal nodular hyperplasia is classically 'cold' on a 99mTc sulphur colloid study
b) The 'nubbin' sign is consistent with testicular torsion
c) Lymphoscintigraphy is contraindicated in congenital lymphoedema
d) On cisternography, activity is usually seen in the basal cistern after 2-4 hours
e) No ventricular activity on cisternography suggests normal pressure hydrocephalus
216
Answers
1 a) False This is the definition of isotopes (e.g. iodine (131I and 125I). Isomers are defined
as nuclides with the same number of protons and neutrons, but with a different
energy state (e.g. 99Tc and 99mTc). Isomers (radionuclides) may be unstable and
are denoted by the symbol 'm' for metastable if the excited state has a fairly long
half-life. They become stable by emitting energy (a process known as isomeric
transition); their detection is useful in nuclear medicine.
b) True This is the SI unit of radioactivity. One megabecquerel (MBq) equals one million
disintegrations per second. The amount of radioactive agent given during
a study is recorded in becquerels (e.g. 500 MBq for a bone scan),
c) False The effective half-life (teff) is shorter than the biological (tbiol) and physical (tphys)
half-lives. A radionuclide undergoes a gradual reduction in activity (physical
half-life), but at the same time is being eliminated by the body (biological
half-life (1/teff = 1/tphys + l/tbiol). Effective half-life varies from person to person.
d) True 99mTc is the most commonly used isotope for various reasons: it emits rays with
enough energy to exit the patient's body, but not so much that they will not
be absorbed by the camera; it has a physical half-life of 6 hours; it decays by
pure gamma emission; it can be easily produced from 99molybdenum (Mo)
in a generator; and it can be readily attached to a wide variety of compounds,
such as dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) and methylene diphosphonate (MDP).
e) False As the parallel hole collimator rotates around the patient (in order to obtain
cross-sectional images), far fewer counts are obtained per position than in static
imaging. Therefore, noise levels are high. To reduce this, a matrix with large
pixels is used, which worsens the spatial resolution.
217
2 a) False A lead collimator, containing multiple small holes (approximately 20 000),

lies between the patient and the crystal. This is used to localise the activity
coming from the patient to a specific location. Only gamma rays travelling
parallel to holes can reach the camera, thus locating any radioactive source
along its line of sight; rays travelling obliquely are absorbed.
b) True This is used because it has a high atomic number (53) and will absorb most
(90%) of the 99mTc gamma rays. It is temperature sensitive and hygroscopic.
Thus, it needs a protective shield, which is usually made of aluminium.
c) False The photomultiplier tubes absorb light photons coming off the crystal and
convert them into electrons, which, via a system of dynodes, are accelerated
towards an anode where they produce a voltage that can be measured.
Thus, the photomultiplier tubes produce an electrical pattern, which reflects
the amount of radioactivity coming from the patient.
d) False The gamma rays absorbed by the crystal include some that were initially
scattered in the patient, as well as others that lost energy via Compton
interactions in the crystal before being absorbed. This means that the electrical
energy produced by the camera varies. A pulse height analyser is used to count
only energy pulses lying within a preset window (around 140 keV for 99mTc
studies) in order to minimise the contribution of scatter or Compton interactions
to the final image. The photopeak lies at the high-energy end of the pulse
height spectrum and results from unscattered gamma rays.
e) True Spatial resolution is the ability of the camera to produce distinct images of two
radioactive sources close together. Intrinsic resolution refers to the resolution
of the camera, whilst system resolution is calculated after the gamma rays have
also passed through the collimator and patient. System resolution is no better
than one line pair per centimetre.
218
3 a) True The radionuclides used in PET scanning emit positrons that collide with nearby
electrons and are annihilated, resulting in the release of two high energy
(511 keV) photons that travel in opposite directions. These photons can be
detected by opposing pairs of bismuth germinate detectors that form a ring
around the patient. Any photon pulses that do not coincide in time are rejected.
By having multiple pairs of detectors and by attaching the radionuclide to
a known metabolic substrate, it is possible to construct a cross-sectional image
of the metabolic activity within the patient.
b) True Positron-emitting radionuclides are nearly all cyclotron-produced and, as most
have a short half-life (18FDG = 1 1 0 minutes), an on-site cyclotron is required.
c) True PET uses electronic collimation instead of the lead collimators (which markedly
reduce the number of photons reaching the detector) used in SPECT. Therefore,
it has better resolution (approximately 2-5 mm) than SPECT (about 4-7 mm).
PET spatial resolution is the same at all depths, unlike SPECT, which worsens
with depth.
d) False 18FDG competes with glucose for cell entry. Once inside the cell, it behaves
in a similar fashion to unlabelled glucose, but only takes part in the first step
of the Kreb's-cycle. It is, therefore, a good marker of glycolytic metabolic activity,
which is elevated in many tumours, including lymphoma, which leads most
neoplasms to appear as 'hot spots' on PET imaging.
e) True As patients with diabetes usually have high circulating blood levels of glucose
(unlabelled) and low insulin levels, there is decreased 18FDG cell entry,
resulting in less avid tissue uptake of radionuclide.
4 a) True 99mTc MDP is the most commonly used agent in bone scintigraphy. Unlike
older agents, it is able to resist in vivo hydrolysis by alkaline phosphatase.
Bone uptake depends on two factors: osteoblastic activity and blood flow.
b) True Hence, the bladder receives a high radiation dose, which is reduced by good
hydration and frequent voiding (this also prevents obscuration of pelvic lesions).
c) False Static images are usually obtained after 2-4 hours, but can take longer in cases
of renal insufficiency. In a four-phase study, images are acquired of flow (first
60 seconds), blood pool (1-5 minutes), static (2-4 hours) and delayed stages
(24 hours).
d) False Salivary gland uptake occurs secondary to free pertechnetate; uptake of which
is also seen in the thyroid and stomach. Sites of increased MDP uptake in
normal scans include: acromioclavicular, sacroiliac and sternoclavicular joints,
costochondral junction(s), deltoid tuberosity (in 7% of scans), scapular tip, lower
cervical spine, growth plates, muscle and tendon insertions (e.g. in line along
the posterior ribs due to erector spinae muscles) and at sites of degenerative
change. Patchy skull uptake can be normal. Strikingly 'hot' or asymmetrical
sites are abnormal.
e) True 99mTc MDP uptake also occurs in various extra-osseous locations: tissue
infarction (myocardial, cerebral and splenic), cardiac insults (surgery, unstable
angina and cardiomyopathies), soft-tissue calcification (myositis ossificans and
nephrocalcinosis), effusions (ascitic, pleural and pericardial: due to malignancy,
uraemia or infection), abscesses, inflammatory breast carcinoma, liver
necrosis/metastases, pneumonia and amyloid deposits.
219
5 a) False Acute fractures are not normally 'hot' until after the first 24-48 hours
(up to 72 hours in the elderly). In adults, bone uptake returns to normal
in 1 year (rib fractures) to 3 years (elderly and long-bone fractures).
b) False Most bone islands do not take up MDP, but some (about 30%), especially
if large, have a very slightly increased uptake. Other benign bone lesions
that behave similarly include osteopoikilosis, osteopathia striata, fibrous
cortical defect/nonossifying fibroma and haemangiomata.
c) True Numerous benign bone lesions can be 'hot' on a bone scan, including fibrous
dysplasia, Paget's disease, brown tumours, aneurysmal bone cyst, Langerhans'
cell histiocytosis, chondroblastoma, melorheostosis, osteoid osteoma,
enchondroma and osteochondroma.
d) True Initially (in the first year), in more than 60% of cases of reflex sympathetic
dystrophy, both blood pool and delayed images are 'hot'. Later, both of these
images may become 'cold' on bone scans.
e) False However, with modern gamma cameras it is often possible to detect subtle
areas of increased or decreased uptake in multiple myeloma.
6 All true A 'superscan' describes a bone scan in which there is a diffuse and symmetrical
increase in bony uptake. There is usually almost total absence of renal or soft-tissue
activity and bony uptake may be seen on the early blood pool images and in
the sternum (the 'bow-tie' sign) and costochondral ('rosary beading') junctions.
Causes of a superscan include:
• widespread bony metastases - primary sites include the prostate
(most common), breast, lung, bladder, lymphoma and colon
• hyperparathyroidism
• Osteomalacia (one may also see areas of more focal uptake in Loose/'s zones)
• renal osteodystrophy
• hyperthyroidism
• Paget's disease (usually a combination of 'hot' and 'cold' lesions)
• fibrous dysplasia
• mastocytosis
• myelofibrosis
• Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
• aplastic anaemia/leukaemia
Uptake in a superscan in the calvarium arid long bones makes a metabolic
cause more likely than metastases, as the latter tends to spare these areas.
In addition, unlike the diffuse uptake in metabolic disease, metastatic superscans
tend to be slightly irregular.
220
7 a) True This is known as the 'flare' phenomenon and is seen in 20-60% of patients,
typically 2-4 months after commencing chemotherapy. It reflects increased local
blood flow and new bone formation secondary to healing. Presence or absence
of a 'flare' has no prognostic significance. A follow-up scan in a further 3 months
can help differentiate healing from progressive, disease.
b) False The sclerotic component of an osteoid osteoma is usually 'hot' and the central
nidus may be even hotter - the so-called 'double density' sign. This allows
differentiation from osteomyelitis, in which the nidus is 'cold'.
c) True Although most malignant bony processes are 'hot', about 5% are 'cold', including
multiple myeloma, purely lytic deposits, anaplastic tumours, infiltrating marrow
lesions (histiocytosis and neuroblastoma) and some renal and thyroid cancer
deposits (some of these conditions produce positive radiographs). Conversely,
about 30-50% of patients with a positive bone scan for metastases will have
a normal radiograph.
d) False Radiotherapy causes an endarteritis, which decreases local blood-flow and
hence MDP uptake, leading to a 'cold' area with a well-defined border.
e) True Of the remaining nonmalignant lesions, 25% are due to trauma and 10% to
infection. Location provides helpful information, as a peripheral lesion is less
likely to be malignant; 80% of bony metastases are seen in the axial skeleton
(35% in the ribs, 25% in the spine and 20% in the pelvis), 15% occur in the
long bones and 5% in the skull.
8 a) False Increased uptake over the greater and lesser trochanters is frequently seen in
normal studies. Bursitis is suggested by increased uptake beyond the confines
of bone on all phases of bone scan. Inflammatory bursitis is just one cause of
a painful hip after a joint replacement. Other causes include prosthetic loosening
and infection, heterotopic bone formation, breakage of fixation wires and
fracture/dislocation of prosthesis. As some of these conditions are easily
identified radiographically, plain film should be performed first.
b) True Cemented THRs remain 'hot' for only 6-12 months after surgery,
but noncemented prostheses may be 'hot' for 24 months or longer.
c) False Unlike hip replacements, knee prostheses may remain 'hot' indefinitely.
Therefore, bone scans are more accurate at assessing THRs than total knee
replacements.
d) False Typically, infection causes hypervascularity and bony inflammation. Thus, images
are 'hot' on both blood pool and delayed phases. Conversely, in prosthetic
loosening, increased uptake is only seen in the delayed phase. Loosening
usually causes increased uptake around the prosthetic tip, whereas infection
results in diffuse uptake, but a white cell scan may be needed to differentiate
between the two.
e) False Minor 67Ga bony uptake around a prosthesis is nonspecific and can be seen
normally and with loosening. If the amount of uptake is much greater than
on concurrent MDP bone scan, infection is likely.
221 ;
siuclear medicine and positron emission tomography imaging
9 a) True More than 90% of the injected dose is removed by the reticuloendothelial system
(mainly the liver and spleen, obscuring images of the lower thoracic spine and ribs)
and the remaining 10% localises in bone marrow. Bone marrow scans have a
limited clinical role, but can show extramedullary haemopoiesis, guide red marrow
biopsies and help identify bony infarcts in sickle cell anaemia ('cold' spots).
b) False As these scans demonstrate active red marrow, any process that replaces
normal marrow will show as a photopenic defect. Focal defects are also
seen in infarction, osteomyelitis, radiotherapy and Paget's disease.
c) False In normal adults, it is usual to see activity extending as far as the proximal third
of the femur and humerus. Extension beyond this is abnormal. In neonates,
red marrow extends to the peripheries, but with age the marrow retracts and
adopts the adult pattern. Therefore, the scan appearance is age dependent.
d) True There is decreased central activity (due to marrow fibrosis), but peripheral
marrow hyperplasia is seen in 50% of patients. Peripheral marrow extension
is also seen in all forms of haemolytic anaemia, Hodgkin's disease and
polycythaemia rubra vera.
e) True However, with recovery, normal central activity may be seen with peripheral
extension. Other causes of reduced central marrow activity include: chronic
myeloid leukaemia, myelofibrosis, chronic renal failure, lymphoma, multiple
myeloma, metastases and radiotherapy.
10 a) True Smaller particles may pass through the pulmonary capillaries and reach the
systemic circulation. MAA acts by occluding pulmonary capillaries. More than
90% of injected particles are trapped in the lung on first pass. MAA particles
should be less than 150 μm to avoid clumping.
b) False MAA can still be used, but the dose needs to be reduced. The dose is also
reduced in neonates and paediatric patients, in cases of pulmonary hypertension,
patients on mechanical ventilation and critically ill patients with severe chronic
obstructive airway disease (COAD).
c) False A ventilation scan has to be performed first, as the Compton scatter from the
99mTc perfusion agent overlies the photopeak of the lower energy 133Xe (81 keV).
Despite this, 133Xe is commonly used and it provides useful washout images
(physical half-life = 5.2 days).
d) True As a result of a short half-life, it must be breathed directly from a "rubidium
generator and washout images cannot be obtained, limiting its sensitivity
in obstructive lung disease. However, high emitted energy (190 keV) allows
ventilation studies to be performed after a perfusion study.
e) True Delivery is not as good as with gases and a large proportion of aerosolised
particles deposit in the large central airways or are swallowed. Images may
show focal 'hot' spots in the pharynx, tracheobronchial tree and stomach.
222
1 1 a) True This reflects greater perfusion to dependent parts of the lung in the supine patient.
99mTc MAA is injected supine to eliminate an apical-to-basal activity gradient.
b) False The converse is true.
c) True The stripe sign refers to an area of hypoperfusion with a zone of preserved
peripheral perfusion. As pulmonary emboli are. pleurally based, the presence
of the stripe sign makes a pulmonary embolus unlikely. The defect is more
likely to be due to COAD.
d) True This was one of the criteria used in the Prospective Investigation of Pulmonary
Embolism Diagnosis (PIOPED) study. In that study, scans were categorised as
being normal or having a low, indeterminate or high probability for pulmonary
emboli. The angiographic incidence of pulmonary emboli in each PIOPED
category was 4%, 16%, 33% and 88%, respectively.
e) False Pulmonary emboli typically appear as mismatched defects. A reversed mismatch
(normal perfusion and abnormal ventilation) is more typical of atelectasis,
pleural effusion, COAD or pneumonia. Other causes of a matched defect
include old pulmonary emboli, other emboli, tuberculosis, vasculitis,
radiotherapy, pulmonary hypertension and bronchogenic cancer.
12 All true This pattern is seen in approximately 2% of V/Q scans. The causes include
the following.
Arterial disease
• Massive pulmonary embolism
• Swyer-James (Macleod's) syndrome (gives a matched defect)
• Congenital pulmonary artery hypoplasia/stenosis
• Shunt procedures to the pulmonary artery (e.g. Blalock-Taussig shunt)
• Secondary to fibrosing mediastinitis (e.g. histoplasmosis, tuberculosis)
Airway disease (usually a small amount of perfusion can be identified)
• Foreign-body obstruction
• Bronchial carcinoma/adenoma
• Bullous emphysema
• Mucous plug
Pleural disease
• Large pleural effusion
• Pneumothorax
Absent lung
• Pneumonectomy
• Pulmonary agenesis
Congenital heart disease
223
|s|uclear medicine and positron emission tomography imaging
13 a) True Cellular uptake is analogous to potassium uptake, but 201Tl is less readily released
from cells. Approximately 3%-4% of the total dose is extracted by the heart
at rest, but uptake can be increased to 10% with pharmacological stress. The
distribution of activity reflects regional cardiac blood flow and the integrity of the
Na+/K+-ATPase pump. Peak cardiac activity occurs 5-15 minutes after injection.
b) True The long physical and biological half-life (approximately 10 days) limits the dose
of 201Tl (80 keV) that can be administered.
c) True The combination of a shorter half-life, permitting a higher injected dose,
and higher energy (140 keV) photons from 99mTc leads to a higher photon flux
in obese patients. 99mTc sestamibi has a high first-pass extraction, a distribution
proportional to blood flow and few metabolic side-effects.
d) True This results in a need for separate stress and rest injections, unlike with
201Tl chloride, which undergoes redistribution, permitting combined stress
and rest imaging on the same day.

e) True This fact, coupled with the very rapid myocardial clearance of 99mTc teboroxime,
necessitates imaging immediately (1-2 minutes) after injection and, thus, limits
its versatility. It also undergoes some hepatobiliary excretion, which may interfere
with inferior-wall evaluation.
A
14 a) True This is to limit splanchnic blood flow, as splanchnic uptake can be seen after
a recent meal, inadequate exercise and after studies using dipyridamole or
2-methoxyisobutylisonitrile (MIBI). If cardiac stress is induced using dipyridamole,
caffeine is restricted for 24 hours, as this can negate dipyridamole's
vasodilator effect.
b) False The target heart rate is 85% of the predicted maximum heart rate, which
is calculated as 220 minus the patient's age in years. The endpoints on a
treadmill test are attaining target heart rate, completing the exercise protocol
(e.g, modified Bruce), onset of fatigue or dyspnoea preventing continuation of
the test, or the development of cardiovascular signs or symptoms (such as severe
angina, hypotension, arrhythmias and ischaemia on electrocardiogram [ECG]).
c) True One disadvantage of using exercise to induce cardiac stress is that about 35%
of patients fail to reach their target heart rate, with a consequent drop in test
sensitivity for ischaemia. Despite this, exercise is generally preferred over
pharmacological stress testing, as only exercise leads to a significant increase
in cardiac workload. Ischaemia is seldom seen after pharmacological stress.
d) True If the ratio is more than 0.5, left ventricular dysfunction should be suspected.
e) False Adenosine can cause bronchospasm and, thus, is contraindicated in patients with
asthma or those who use inhalers. Other recognised side-effects include flushing,
heart block and nausea. These side-effects often dissipate rapidly after stopping
adenosine infusion, as the half-life is only 15 seconds. Bronchospasm can also
be seen after use of dipyridamole, but can be reversed by giving intravenous
aminophylline. The agent of choice in patients with asthma is dobutamine.
224
MCQs in Clinical Radiology^
15 All true There are three basic patterns on a 201Tl stress test.
• Reversible perfusion defect is a perfusion defect on the stress images that
partially or totally fills-in on the rest images. The most common cause is
ischaemia, but it is also rarely seen in Chagas' disease, sarcoidosis and
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
• Irreversible perfusion defect is a perfusion defect seen on stress images
that persists on rest images. It is often seen with old myocardial infarctions,
cardiomyopathies, idiopathic subaortic stenosis and infiltrative and
metastatic lesions.
• A rapid washout pattern on stress view appears normal, but a defect
is seen on redistribution images. It is nonspecific, but may occur in
coronary artery disease, cardiomyopathy or in normal individuals.
Hibernating myocardium is myocardium that shows absent wall motion
and reduced or absent blood flow, but which, following a revascularisation
procedure, may regain function. On 201Tl images, it may resemble an area
of infarction, but it has been shown that images obtained after a second
201Tl injection or after 24 hours may show some uptake, thereby differentiating
the hibernating from the infarcted myocardium.
16 a) False Cardiac PET studies usually rely on pharmacological stress testing, as exercise
is difficult to perform whilst in the scanner.
b) True 82Rubidium is a marker of myocardial blood flow that is similar to Tl. It can be
produced from a 82strontium/82rubidium generator, meaning an on-site generator is
not necessary. The physical half-life is only 76 seconds, allowing repeat blood-flow
measurements within short time intervals. 13Nitrogen (half-life = 10 minutes) is
also a marker of myocardial blood flow, but is produced in a cyclotron.
c) False In myocardial ischaemia, there is an increase in glycolysis (and, therefore,
uptake of glucose) with a decrease in the usual oxidation of fatty acids.
Hence, 18FDG imaging provides information about myocardial metabolism.
d) False PET is probably the noninvasive test of choice for identifying hibernating
myocardium (dysfunctional myocardium that regains function after
revascularisation). On PET, it is characterised by decreased perfusion,
but enhanced 18FDG metabolism (a mismatched defect). PET is more
sensitive than 201Tl in detecting hibernating myocardium.
e) True Areas with decreased perfusion and metabolism (a matched defect) are likely
to reflect previous infarction or fibrosis. They indicate nonviable myocardium
and only 10%-20% will regain function after revascularisation.
225. •
17 a) False There are two kinds of scintigraphic ventricular function test: 'first-pass' and
'gated red blood pool' studies. 99mTc DTPA is the radiotracer used in first-pass
studies, whilst 99mTc-labelled red cells are used in gated blood pool studies.
99mTc DTPA cannot be used for gated studies because its blood clearance
by glomerular filtration is too rapid to allow prolonged imaging.

b) True In this kind of shunt, refilling of the right ventricle and lungs is noted. Right-to-left
shunts are also easily detected. First-pass studies allow determination of transit
time and right ventricular ejection fraction; the latter is often difficult to detect
with gated blood pool studies because of overlap of activity in the right atrium
and pulmonary artery. These studies involve imaging the heart, lungs and great
vessels immediately after the injection of radiotracer. The image acquisition ends
before the agent recirculates.
c) True In blood pool studies, the image acquisition is gated to the R-wave of the cardiac
cycle. This test provides optimal assessment of segmental wall motion and is the
test of choice for LVEF determination; it is more accurate than echocardiography
or contrast ventriculography. Ventricular wall motion is graded segmentally
and segments should contract simultaneously. Typically, the anterior, posterior
and lateral walls move to a greater extent than the septum or inferior wall.
d) True Normal variability is 5%. Cardiotoxicity should be suspected if the ejection
fraction falls by more than 10% on sequential scans on patients receiving
chemotherapy and treatment should be stopped. The absolute value of ejection
fraction is also important, as some treatments (such as adriamycin) are stopped
if the ejection fraction falls below 45%.
e) False Normally, LVEF increases by at least 5% with exercise, but patients with coronary
artery disease or those aged over 60 years may show a fall or no increase.
18 a) False It is mostly cleared by tubular secretion. It undergoes minimal (10%) glomerular

filtration and this makes it an effective renal plasma flow agent. It is not retained
in the renal parenchyma.
b) True This is because it is not reliant on glomerular filtration. Thus, in the setting
of renal impairment, there is still high renal extraction and a good tissue-to-
background ratio. In renal insufficiency, there may be some hepato-biliary
excretion of MAG3 with visualisation of the liver, biliary tree and small bowel.
c) True It is entirely cleared by glomerular filtration, making it a useful agent for
measuring the glomerular filtration rate (GFR); as it is 5%-10% protein bound,
the calculated GFR is lower than with inulin. It undergoes no tubular secretion.
Immediate images provide information about renal perfusion, whilst delayed
images provide information about GFR and the collecting system. It is less
expensive than MAG3.
d) False DMSA may overestimate renal function, as excreted tracer in the obstructed
collecting system, will contribute to renal activity. MAG3 is preferred.
e) True This is why 99mTc DMSA provides such good images of the renal cortex, but
offers little information about renal function or excretion. Other disadvantages
include a high radiation dose and limited availability. It is used in the assessment
of renal scarring in children (SPECT increases sensitivity) and differentiating
renal pseudotumour (made up of functioning renal tissue) from a mass lesion.
226
19 a) True Perfusion (flow) images are rapid sequential images acquired over the first minute.
The aorta is normally seen first. Images are acquired with the patient supine or
prone, as the upright position can lead to anterior displacement of the upper
pole, foreshortening the kidney. Renal perfusion and size should be symmetrical.
b) True After a peak at 3-5 minutes, cortical activity decreases with time.
c) True In renal impairment, splenic or liver activity may be greater than renal activity.
d) False Split renal function is determined with a region of interest (ROI) cursor over
each kidney, with adjustments made for background activity. Measurements
are made after 2-3 minutes, before the collecting systems start to fill. The
collecting system and ureters should begin to fill after 4-5 minutes.
e) False Persistent visualisation of a ureter is abnormal, but transient visualisation,
especially on a MAG3 study, is normal.
20 a) False In order to maintain a positive glomerular filtration pressure in the setting of renal
artery stenosis, there is constriction of the efferent arteriole, a process mediated
via the renin-angiotensin pathway. Following the use of ACE inhibitors, this
pathway is blocked and the efferent arteriole dilates, the filtration pressure falls
and the amount of isotope filtered or taken up by that kidney is reduced. Acute
renal failure can be induced by this test in the presence of a single kidney with
severe renal artery stenoses, or in bilateral severe RAS.
b) True In addition, ACE inhibitors should be stopped for at least 2 days before the test
and the patient should be well hydrated to minimise the hypotensive effect;
of the ACE inhibitor and limit the radiation dose to the bladder.
c) False Differential diagnoses for this appearance include RSA, renal vein thrombosis,
unilateral acute tubular necrosis and glomerulonephritis, perirenal abscess,
or haematoma and an obstructive uropathy.
d) False Bilateral disease, which is seen in 30% of cases of renovascular hypertension,
may lead to a false negative study, as the split renal uptake of isotope will not
change if both renal arteries are involved. However, one artery is usually more
severely affected, allowing post-ACE inhibitor asymmetry to be detected.
e) False A positive MAG3 RAS renogram typically demonstrates a continually rising
activity curve. A rise in cortical activity of more than 10% on 20-minute
post-MAG3 images is consistent with a significant stenosis.
227 ;,
21 a) True There are two techniques for radionuclide cystography: direct and indirect.
Direct cystography involves instillation of 99mTc pertechnetate directly into the
bladder via a urethral catheter, whilst indirect cystography is performed following
intravenous administration of 99mTc DTPA. The direct technique is more sensitive
for reflux during the bladder-filling phase.
b) False In virtually all patients with Vesico-ureteric reflux, some degree of reflux will
be seen during micturition. In about 80% of cases, Vesico-ureteric reflux also
occurs during the filling phase.
c) False Most patients will demonstrate a bladder volume below that at which reflux
occurs (the threshold volume). Typically, on serial studies this volume increases
as the ureteric orifice matures.
d) True The most commonly used fluoroscopic grading system (a 1-5 scale) requires
subtle assessment of the fornices and collecting system that is not possible
on scintigraphy. However, isotope studies can accurately quantify the amount
of reflux and, therefore, provide prognostic information. Reflux just into the
distal ureter is likely to resolve spontaneously, whereas reflux in the presence
of a tortuous dilated ureter will require surgery.
e) True If renal scarring has not occurred by this age, the reflux is not significant.
22 a) True Acute tubular necrosis is the most common form of acute, reversible renal failure
in transplant patients. It is usually seen in the first 24 hours and is rare after the
first month. Imaging shows smooth, enlarged kidneys with normal or only slightly
diminished MAG3 perfusion, but much diminished excretion. Cyclosporin toxicity
can have a similar appearance, but typically occurs after the first month.
In acute rejection, excretion is always reduced, but perfusion may initially be
normal. Serial studies may be required to differentiate this from acute tubular
necrosis. Hyperacute rejection, which is rare and results from preformed
antibodies from an earlier failed transplant, may demonstrate absent perfusion
and excretion, necessitating immediate surgery.
c) True Other vascular complications include: renal vein thrombosis (which usually
occurs in the first 3 days after transplant), RSA (the findings of which are similar
to those in a native kidney), renal infarction and pseudoaneurysm formation.
d) False Urinomas usually develop during the first month posttransplant and may be
'cold' on scintigraphy for several reasons. Firstly, the leak may not be active
at the time of study. Secondly, most leaks occur near the Vesico-ureteric junction
and may be obscured by the bladder; thus, postmicturition views are essential.
Finally, urinomas may lead to hydronephrosis and renal impairment, reducing
isotope excretion and, hence, the chance of visualising a urinoma.
e) False Both appear initially as extrarenal photopenic areas, but on delayed images
the urinoma may, unlike a haematoma, show accumulation of activity.
A haematoma may not be distinguishable from a lymphocoele.
128
MCQ in Clinical Radiology
23 a) False Liquids can exit the stomach purely by gravity, whereas solids have to first be
reduced in size by stomach peristalsis before relying on antral contractions to
enter the small bowel. This test, although not frequently performed, can provide
useful information about possible gastroparesis (e.g. in patients with diabetes
mellitus) or dumping syndrome. The usual isotope is 99mTc sulphur colloid.
b) False The stomach handles liquids and solids differently. Liquids empty faster and
show a monophasic exponential clearance. Solids empty after an initial delay,
but the emptying is nearly linear. Slower emptying occurs with large meals, high
calorie meals and in premenopausal females (due to a progesterone effect).
c) True The emptying half-time for solids is usually 1-2 hours.
d) False Typically, emptying is delayed in anorexia nervosa. It is also delayed in mechanical
gastric outlet obstruction, diabetes mellitus, scleroderma, dermatomyositis,
hypokalaemia, uraemia, hypothyroidism, myotonia dystrophica, postsurgery
(e.g. vagotomy without adequate drainage procedure), amyloidosis and secondary
to drugs (e.g. beta-blockers, anticholinergic agents, opiates) or pain.
e) True Other causes of rapid emptying include postsurgery (e.g. antrectomy, gastrectomy
and vagotomy when performed with adequate drainage procedure), coeliac
disease, Zollinger Ellison syndrome and duodenal ulcer disease.
24 a) True Patients who are asymptomatic throughout childhood are less likely to have
a diverticulum containing ectopic gastric mucosa, which is necessary for
detection by pertechnetate scintigraphy. Overall, 30-50% of diverticula contain
ectopic gastric mucosa. Of these, 60% contain ectopic gastric mucosa if the
patient is symptomatic (symptoms usually occur before the age of 2 years)
and 90% if they are bleeding. Ectopic gastric mucosa is present in only
5-20% of Meckel's diverticula, but this percentage rises to 60% if the
patient is symptomatic and 90% if they are bleeding.
b) False Activity in the diverticulum will first appear at the same time as pertechnetate
accumulates in the normal gastric mucosa (5-20 minutes postinjection).
c) False Glucagon is often administered because it decreases peristalsis and so prevents
downstream washout of pertechnetate. It also decreases pertechnetate uptake,
which is undesirable, but it can be coadministered with pentagastrin, which
increases pertechnetate uptake. Other pharmacological agents that can be used
include: pentagastrin, which enhances gastric mucosal uptake of pertechnetate.
and cimetidine and ranitidine, both of which inhibit intraluminal secretion
and potential translocation of pertechnetate into the small bowel.
d) False Typically, uptake is focal and not tubular. Even though the diverticulum is
tubular, the ectopic gastric mucosa normally only affects a small area of tissue.
Tubular activity is more typical of the bowel.
e) True Any cause of ectopic gastric mucosa (e.g. enteric duplication, gastrogenic cyst) can
simulate a Meckel's diverticulum. Other causes of a false positive scan include:
normal activity in the bowel, bladder or kidneys; local inflammation, such as
appendicitis and intussusception; hypervascularity of a tumour, aneurysm or
arteriovenous malformation; calyceal diverticulum and urinary tract obstruction.
Causes of false negative scans include; small size; absent/necrosed gastric mucosa;
rapid downstream washout of tracer; obscuration by overlying structures.
229
25 a) True Angiography can detect bleeding rates of greater than 0.5 ml/min, while
isotope studies may detect rates as low as 0.05-0.1 ml/min.
b) True Therefore, studies using 99mTc-labelled red cells are more sensitive for intermittent
bleeding than those using 99mTc sulphur colloid or angiography. In addition to
the rate of bleeding and whether bleeding is intermittent, test sensitivities also
depend on the site of bleeding and the isotope agent used (see below).
c) False On sulphur colloid studies, in which label is taken up by the reticuloendothelial
system, there is usually high activity in the liver and spleen. This obscures most
of the proximal small bowel, making it difficult to detect gastric or duodenal
bleeding. The hepatic and splenic flexures of the large bowel are also obscured.
d) False GI bleeding typically changes location with time as the extravasated blood
moves along the bowel and continued bleeding leads to an increase in activity.
Nonmoving bowel activity may indicate a colitis, as uptake is seen in colitis
from inflammatory bowel disease, ischaemia and radiotherapy, or may indicate
faulty labelling, leading to free pertechnetate being excreted into the bowel.
e) True This syndrome is characterised by multisystem telangiectasias and arteriovenous
malformations in the bowel and haemangiomas in the liver. Any abnormal
vascular structure (e.g. arteriovenous malformations, varices, aneurysms,
haemangiomas) may take up isotope and mimic GI bleeding thereby limiting
the test specificity.
26 a) True These agents are cleared from plasma by hepatocytes with a blood half-life
of only 10-20 minutes and are excreted in a similar fashion to bile. The degree
of urinary excretion may be higher in patients with hepatic or biliary dysfunction.
b) True On a normal study, the liver should be visualised on early images and the
gallbladder and duodenum should be seen by 1 hour postinjection. If the
gallbladder is not seen, delayed images (for up to 24 hours) may help
differentiate between acute (the gallbladder almost never fills) and chronic
cholecystitis (delayed filling is usual).
c) True If the gallbladder is seen after the duodenum, it may indicate chronic
cholecystitis. Another sign suggesting chronic cholecystitis is prolonged
biliary-to-bowel transit time. If only the bowel is not seen, consider
choledocholithiasis or ampullary stenosis.
d) False Two pharmacological manoeuvres can be used to aid in visualising the
gallbladder if it is not seen on the initial images. Firstly, cholecystokinin (CCK)
administration causes gallbladder contraction, which may allow it to re-fill
if it is initially distended from prolonged fasting; some centres give CCK routinely,
to all patients fasted for longer than 24 hours. Secondly, morphine contracts
the sphincter of Oddi and forces excreted IDA into the gallbladder, if the cystic
duct is patent.
e) False The width of the common bile duct on images reflects the amount of radioactivity
in the duct from excreted 99mTc IDA, rather than its actual size. Estimates of duct
patency are made from distribution of activity rather than duct size.
230
27 a) True Other causes of failure to visualise the gallbladder at 4 hours include: acute
and chronic cholecystitis; prolonged fasting; a recent meal, which causes the
gallbladder to contract; total parenteral nutrition; severe intercurrent disease
(including pancreatitis and hepatitis); and cystic duct cholangiocarcinoma.
Delayed 24-hour images may be helpful.
b) False This refers to a rim of increased activity in the liver parenchyma adjacent to
the gallbladder in cholecystitis. Possible causes include a local increase in liver
blood flow and delayed drainage of excreted IDA secondary to oedema.
c) True Classically, acute cholecystitis is characterised by failure to visualise the
gallbladder on all phases of the study due to complete blockage of the cystic
duct. However, in about 4% of cases of acute cholecystitis, there is incomplete
cystic duct obstruction and the gallbladder is seen on delayed images. In these
circumstances, the appearance is indistinguishable from chronic cholecystitis.
d) True Duodenal diverticula can cause false negative studies as the diverticulum can be
confused with the gallbladder. An accessory cystic duct is another cause of a false
negative study, as it may allow gallbladder filling, even if the other duct is blocked.
e) False They both cause delayed gallbladder visualisation. The clinical setting may
provide clues, as acalculous cholecystitis is more common in trauma, burns
and on intensive care units.
28 a) False Some forms of this rare condition can be treated with a portoenterostomy
(Kasai) procedure. This has a 90% success rate in the first 2 months of life,
50% in the third month and less than 20% after 3 months. Thus, a HIDA scan
is best performed early, before irreversible liver damage occurs. If the test
is delayed, liver function is so impaired secondary to biliary cirrhosis that
it is often difficult to distinguish between neonatal hepatitis and biliary atresia.
b) False Phenobarbitone is frequently administered for 5 days preceding a HIDA test
in order to induce liver enzymes (and to improve agent conjugation and
excretion), as liver function is often impaired in these patients.
c) True If the liver is not seen on early images and/or there is delayed clearance from
blood pool and some bowel activity after 24 hours, neonatal hepatitis should
be suspected. If there is good liver activity on early images, but no bowel activity
on 24-hour images with or without increased renal excretion, biliary atresia
should be considered.
d) True Choledochal cysts communicate with the biliary tree and are, therefore, seen
on HIDA scans, unlike pancreatic cysts, which cannot be detected unless their
size causes some degree of biliary obstruction.
e) True There is frequently abdominal free fluid after biliary surgery, which limits the
specificity of ultrasound, but it will only show on a HIDA scan if it contains bile.
231
29 a) True 123I is the isotope of choice for several reasons. Firstly, it is not only trapped by
the thyroid, but also undergoes organification and, therefore, the distribution
of 123I activity reflects thyroid function. Secondly, compared with 131I and
99mTc pertechnetate, it has a better target-to-background ratio and a lower
whole-body dose, although the dose to the thyroid is higher than with
pertechnetate. It is also trapped in the stomach and salivary glands.
b) False 123I is usually administered orally (4 8 MBq of sodium iodide tablets) as it
is readily absorbed from the GI tract. Imaging is performed 24 hours later.
c) True 99mTc pertechnetate is rapidly trapped by the thyroid, but is not organified, and so
it does not provide the same functional information as 123I. It is quickly released,
with virtually no isotope left in the gland at 24 hours. It also accumulates in the
salivary glands, stomach and choroid plexus. It is used in place of 123I if imaging
is to be performed within 1 hour, if the patient is taking propylthiouracil,
which blocks organification, or if the patient is not able to ingest iodine orally.
d) True 131I emits β rays, which are responsible for 90% of the radiation, and γ rays
and is now only used for the detection and ablation of thyroid metastases
and therapeutically in Grave's disease. The long half-life requires long patient
isolation. Its use may be complicated by sialoadenitis, nausea and vomiting,
leukaemia, breast and bladder cancer (both rare), bone marrow depression
or sterility if there are pelvic thyroid carcinoma metastases.
e) False 99mTc and 123I are as capable at demonstrating retrosternal thyroid tissue and
have none of the inherent disadvantages of 131I. However, 123I is superior to
99mTc pertechnetate for confirming the presence of lingual thyroid tissue,
as more marked 99mTc pertechnetate salivary gland uptake obscures images.
30 a) False Nodules can be defined as 'hot', 'warm' or 'cold' depending on their activity
relative to normal thyroid. The vast majority of 'hot' nodules represent
hyperfunctioning adenomas, whereas 10% of 'warm' nodules are malignant.
Ideally, nodules should be described as 'indeterminate', rather than 'warm',
to avoid confusion with 'hot' nodules.
b) True About 90% of palpable nodules are 'cold' and of these up to 90% are benign.
A 'cold' nodule may represent an adenoma/colloid cyst (85%), carcinoma (10%),
focal thyroiditis, lymph node, haemorrhage, abscess or parathyroid adenoma.
The incidence of malignancy in a solitary thyroid nodule rises to 30%-50% if
there is a previous history of childhood head and neck irradiation. Other factors
that increase the risk of malignancy within a nodule include: age under 20
or over 60 years, male sex, family history of thyroid carcinoma, dysphagia,
rapid growth, single nodule and lymphadenopathy.
c) False Only. 10% are palpable, even when their position is known from imaging.
d) True The risk of underlying carcinoma in a dominant nodule is low (less than 5%),
but the risk of malignancy anywhere in a multinodular gland is as high
as 13% in some series.
e) True A discordant nodule is nonfunctioning (i.e. 'cold' on 123I) and usually reflects
a thyroid adenoma with a disrupted organification pathway.
232
31 a) False The thyroid uptake test determines how much of an orally ingested dose of 123I
has accumulated within the thyroid gland at 24 hours. It is, therefore, a measure
of iodine trapping and organification. Normal values are 10%-30% of the oral
dose. Increased values are seen in: thyrotoxicosis (e.g. Grave's disease), iodine
deficiency, hypoalbuminaemia and lithium use. Decreased uptake is seen with
hypothyroidism and secondary to the use of various drugs, such as thyroid
hormone replacement therapy, thyroid-blocking therapy and glucocorticoids.
b) True Thyroiditis can cause increased or decreased uptake.
c) False Low tracer uptake occurs in a number of hyperthyroid states, including
amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis, subacute or postpartum thyroiditis, recent
heavy iodine load (e.g. recent contrast media), excessive thyroxine administration
or ectopic hyperfunctioning tissue. This condition is worth recognising,
as hyperthyroidism will not respond to radioiodine treatment.
d) False This is known as the 'owl's eye sign'; the 'cold' area almost always represents
an area of cystic degeneration within a solitary functioning nodule. The reversed
pattern, with peripheral photopenia and a central 'hot' spot, also suggests
benignity and is known as the 'fish eye sign', which usually reflects peripheral
cystic change in a functioning adenoma.
e) True Some studies have suggested that thyroglobulin levels are as sensitive
as 131I at detecting residual/recurrent malignant thyroid tissue.
32 a) False 201Tl localises to both normal thyroid tissue and enlarged parathyroid glands,
whereas 99mTc pertechnetate is taken up by the thyroid gland only. By performing
these two tests together and electronically subtracting the images, it is possible
to obtain images of the parathyroid glands.
b) True This is because 201Tl may also accumulate in benign thyroid adenomas, lymph
nodes, thyroid carcinomas and rarely in sarcoidosis and lymphoma, 201Tl scans
may be uninterpretable in the presence of a multinodular goitre.
c) True The exact cause of this is unclear, but it may be because adenomas tend to
be larger than hyperplastic glands. The sensitivity for detecting adenomas is
70%-90%, but this is very dependent on the lesion size and location. Adenomas
are rarely identified if they are smaller than 0.5 g and sensitivity is higher for
ectopic tissue.
d) True 99mTc sestamibi is taken up by both thyroid and parathyroid tissue, but it quickly
washes out of thyroid tissue. On delayed images, parathyroid adenomas persist
as focal 'hot' spots.
e) True Due to the more favourable physical characteristics of 99mTc sestamibi
(principal γ emission of 140 keV and half-life = 6 hours) compared with 201Tl
(principal γ emission of 80, 135 and 157 keV and half-life = 73 hours), as well
as the simple protocol (early and delayed imaging) and no need for prolonged
patient immobilisation due to a reduced risk of movement artefact, many centres
have replaced 201Tl/99mTc subtraction scans with sestamibi scanning for imaging
the parathyroid glands.
233
33 a) False This lipophilic agent freely passes through the blood-brain barrier and is trapped
in neurones for several hours after intravenous administration, secondary to
an intracellular reaction with glutathione, which converts it to a nonlipophilic
moiety. Normal brain activity is maximal 1 minute postinjection. Activity plateaus
after 2 minutes and then remains constant for about 8 hours.
b) False The reverse is true. Uptake is also seen in the liver and renal tract, as well
as in the lungs of smokers and occasionally in lung cancer.
c) True Reduced basal ganglia flow is also seen in Fahr's and Wilson's diseases.
Conversely, in Parkinson's disease, there is increased basal ganglia activity.
d) True Typically, in Alzheimer's disease, there are bilateral perfusion defects in the
parietal lobes, as well as in the temporal, occipital and frontal lobes. This process
spares the visual and sensorimotor cortex, subcortical regions and cerebellum,
which results in a reduction of the cortical/cerebellar uptake ratio from a normal
of 1 to less than 0.8. The main differential diagnosis is multi-infarct dementia,
which shows asymmetrical perfusion defects. 99mTc HMPAO can also be used
for brain-death studies: it is positive for brain death if it shows no flow or
uptake in the brain.
e) True During a seizure, there is increased uptake at the site of the seizure focus.
Seizure studies are conducted in a dark and quiet room with the patient still.
Due to the short in vivo stability of HMPAO (about 30 minutes), seizures often
have to be induced postinjection.
34 a) False The converse is true. 67Ga is bound to iron transport proteins, such as transferrin,
ferritin and lactoferrin, which bind at sites of infection. This property, along
with its uptake in neutrophils, helps 67Ga to be taken up by a wide variety of
inflammatory and neoplastic conditions. However, in patients with saturated
iron-binding sites (e.g. haemochromatosis), there is increased renal excretion,
resulting in decreased soft-tissue localisation.
b) True This is because 67Ga uptake into neutrophils is partly responsible for its ability to
localise inflammation or a tumour (see above). Other common causes of a false
negative scan include a small area of inflammation, the affected area not being
imaged or uptake being obscured by overlying organs, such as the colon.
c) False The principal sites of normal localisation of 67Ga are in the liver, spleen, bone
marrow and bone. Transient uptake is normally seen in the kidneys (for
24 hours), the colon (for more than 24 hours) and the following for 6-24 hours:
the lacrimal and salivary glands, nasal mucosa, external genitalia, thymus and
breast tissue (especially during pregnancy, with the oral contraceptive pill and
during menarche). Infants demonstrate significant activity in the base of the
skull and the epiphyses, as do children.
d) False Although initially renally excreted, with faint activity sometimes seen in the
kidneys up to 48 hours postinjection, renal activity after 72 hours is always
abnormal. After 24 hours, the colon becomes the major route of excretion,
which limits the usefulness of 67Ga in abdominal imaging.
e) True The physical half-life is 78 hours and the blood half-life is 12 hours. Images
are obtained 24-72 hours after intravenous administration. Photopeaks are
seen at 93, 185 and 300 keV.
234
35 a) False Kaposi's sarcoma does not usually take up 67Ga.

b) True A 67Ga scan is abnormal in 85%-95% of cases. A normal 67Ga scan and chest
X-ray make P. carinii pneumonia very unlikely. There is often increased uptake
at a time when physical signs, symptoms and radiographic changes are minimal.
Other causes of gallium uptake and a normal chest X-ray include drug toxicity,
(such as bleomycin and amiodarone), tumour infiltration and sarcoidosis.
c) True A 67Ga scan is 95% sensitive for detecting mediastinal disease lymphoma.
It is most accurate for the nodular sclerosing and least accurate for the
lymphocyte-predominant subtypes of mediastinal lymphoma.
d) True Typically, in pneumonia there is a segmental or lobar pattern of uptake. Uptake is
also seen in other infections, such as cytomegalovirus pneumonia, Cryptococcus
infection, tuberculosis (uptake reflects disease activity) and toxoplasmosis.
e) True 67Ga scans are 70% sensitive for active parenchymal disease and 95% sensitive
for hilar adenopathy. 67Ga uptake indicates a likely response to steroids. Other
inflammatory conditions that take up 67Ga include: idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis,
pneumoconiosis, lymphangitis, and exudative radiation pneumonitis. The most
common chest uses of 67Ga are to assess sarcoidosis activity, the early detection
of R carinii pneumonia and in lymphoma staging, as it can differentiate between
residual disease and inactive fibrosis. Its role in staging lung carcinoma is
controversial; it will detect 90% of tumours and those missed are usually
less than 2 cm. Sensitivities in this role have varied from 30% to 100%.
It is possibly less sensitive for adenocarcinoma.
36 a). True These type of scans are performed to identify areas of inflammation or infection.
The most common label in white cell imaging is 111In oxine. The lipophilic oxine
component allows 111In to enter the white cell; the bond is then broken and
111In binds intracellularly and oxine leaves the cell. Another white cell label is
99mTc HMPAO, which allows earlier imaging than 111In oxine (1-4 hours versus
18-24 hours), but suffers from bowel excretion and the fact that the heart
and blood pool activity may obscure underlying disease. Other compounds
sometimes used in this kind of imaging include 67Ga citrate, 111In IgG and
chemotactic peptides.
b) True This is because 67Ga citrate is excreted via the colon and the activity in the faeces
potentially obscures any abdominal pathology. In addition, the colon is usually
seen at 24 hours on 99mTc HMPAO white cell studies. The GI tract or kidneys
are not normally seen on a 111In oxine-labelled white cell study.
c) True This is in contrast to a 67Ga citrate scan, in which the liver is 'hotter' than the
spleen. On a 111In oxine study, the spleen receives the highest radiation dose,
d) False It is often normal on both 111In oxine and 99mTc HMPAO studies to see the lungs
on images acquired in the first 4 hours. The exact reason for this is unclear,
but may reflect physiological white cell margination in the pulmonary circulation
or possibly pulmonary repair of white cells damaged during labelling.
e) False Usually this is true, but in severe leucopenia, when there may not be enough
cells to label, donor blood may be used.
235
37 a) False There are many other causes of a false positive study (i.e. no actual infection)
including surgical scars that are at least 10 days old, intravenous injection sites,
colostomies, accessory spleen, haematomas, active bleeding, myocardial infarcts,
cerebrovascular accidents, necrotic bowel, myocarditis, pancreatitis, rejected
renal transplants, sinusitis, tumours, fractures (for the first 2 weeks) and bowel
activity secondary to swallowed purulent material from disease in the lungs,
sinuses or mouth. An abscess (a true positive study) appears as a focal area
of activity that is equal to or hotter than the liver and that becomes hotter
on delayed images.
b) False A chronic abscess may become walled off and so prevent or delay entry of
labelled white cells, resulting in a false negative study; this is more of a problem
with 99mTc HMPAO because images are acquired early. Other causes of a false
negative study include agranulocytosis, immunosuppression, steroid use and
acute spinal osteomyelitis (the exact reason for the latter is not clear).
c) False Ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease and infective colitis are all 'hot'. With white
cells labelled with 99mTc HMPAO, bowel activity is seen in normal individuals
on 24-hour images. Thus, images have to be acquired early (1-4 hours).
d) True Other noninfective causes of lung activity include congestive heart failure,
pulmonary emboli, adult respiratory distress syndrome and atelectasis. Lung
activity is, therefore, less specific for infection, as up to one sixth of all studies
will show activity in the lungs.
e) False Although this would seem logical, studies have shown no significant effect
of concurrent antibiotic usage on white cell study sensitivity.
38 All true MIBG labelled with radioactive iodine (123I or 131I) localises in neuroendocrine
tissue. It can therefore be used to localise neuroendocrine tumours, such as
paraganglioma (e.g. phaeochromocytoma) carcinoid (primary and metastatic),
medullary thyroid carcinoma, neuroblastoma, and ganglioneuroma. Normal
structures that may be 'hot' on MIBG scans include the myocardium, adrenal
glands, liver, spleen, bladder, salivary glands, thyroid, nasopharynx and colon.
Faint visualisation of the adrenal medulla is seen in 16% of studies (more
commonly with 123I), but intense adrenal uptake is always abnormal. Bilateral
adrenal uptake suggests hyperplasia, but unilateral uptake suggests a
neuroendocrine tumour. Thyroid uptake of free iodine is blocked by pretest
administration of potassium iodide. Images are acquired 4 and 24 hours
after 123I and 1-3 days after 131I administration.
236
39 All true Octreotide is a synthetic cyclic octapeptide with similar pharmacological

properties to somatostatin and which can be labelled either with 123I or 111In.
It has a half-life of 6 hours, which is one of the reasons it is preferred over
somatostatin, which has a very short half-life. It is taken up in various neoplastic
and inflammatory conditions, as well as by several normal organs:
Tumours
• Paraganglioma, including phaeochromocytoma, although MIBG is preferred
for this tumour because of renal accumulation of octreotide
• Pituitary adenoma: if a growth hormone-secreting tumour is 'hot' on
a labelled octreotide study, it is likely that the tumour will respond to
regular octreotide therapy
• Islet cell tumours, but note that about 40% of insulinomas are negative
• Adrenal neuroblastoma
• Pulmonary small cell tumours: 80% have somatostatin receptors
• Lymphoma
• Medullary thyroid cancer
• Carcinoid (of GI and chest origin)
• Breast cancer
• Meningiomas/astrocytomas
Sarcoidosis
Autoimmune diseases
• Grave's disease
• Rheumatoid joints
Normal organs
• Kidneys and bladder
• Liver and spleen
• Pituitary
• Lung (after radiotherapy or bleomycin)
Operation sites
237
40 a) False Focal nodular hyperplasia is one of only a few focal liver lesions with sufficient
Kupffer cells to cause normal or increased uptake of sulphur colloid. Appearances
vary and depend on lesion size, but about 10% are 'hot', 60% 'normal' and
40% 'cold'. Other 'hot' liver lesions on sulphur colloid scans include a regenerating
nodule and the caudate lobe in Budd-Chiari/inferior vena cava obstruction.
b) True 99mTc pertechnetate (or DTPA) scanning is very sensitive to the presence of
testicular torsion, although it has been largely replaced by more widely available
ultrasound. Signs of torsion include: a testis with less activity than the opposite
testis or adjacent thigh; the 'nubbin' sign, which is increased activity from the
iliac artery to just above the testicle secondary to increased flow in the pudendal
artery; the 'ring' or 'bull's eye' sign, which is peripheral activity in an inflamed
dartos muscle (supplied by the pudendal vessels) with a central photopenic
testicle. Scintigraphy cannot diagnose torsion in very small testes, such
as in boys under 2 years of age, or in the testicular appendages.
c) False Lymphoscintigraphy involves subcutaneous injection of 99mTc nanocolloid into
web space, followed by dynamic scans as the tracer ascends the lymphatic
system. It is often performed to diagnose suspected congenital lymphoedema
(Milroy's disease), when tracer is seen to pool in the foot. Conversely, increased
lymphatic drainage may be seen in venous oedema. It cannot reliably be used
to identify malignant involvement of nodes as the resolution is inadequate,
but it can be used to guide surgery by identifying the sentinel node.
d) False Cisternography involves injection of 111In DTPA or 99mTc DTPA into the lumbar
subarachnoid space and delayed imaging as the tracer moves up the spine into
the basal cisterns (seen after 2-4 hours) and over the cerebral hemispheres
Onto the vertex (seen after 24-48 hours). Normally, there is no or minimal reflux
into the lateral ventricles; transient reflux at 12-24 hours is not significant.
e) False In normal pressure hydrocephalus, there is persistent tracer reflux from the
basal cisterns into the lateral ventricles, with decreased activity over convexities.
There is no ventricular reflux in obstructive hydrocephalus and flow up to
convexities is slowed.
238
Abbreviations
239
Abbreviations
AAA abdominal aortic aneurysm

ABER abduction and external rotation
ACA anterior cerebral artery
ACE angiotensin-converting enzyme
ACTH adrenocorticotrophic hormone
ADH antidiuretic hormone
AML acute myelolymphoblastic leukaemia
ASD atrial septal defect
AVM arteriovenous malformation
BOOP bronchiolitis obliterans organising pneumonia
BPH benign prostatic hypertrophy
Be, becquerel
CAM cystic adenomatoid malformation
CCK cholecystokinin
CMV cytomegalovirus
CNS central nervous system
COAD chronic obstructive airway disease
COP cryptogenic organising pneumonia
COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
CPA cerebellopontine angle
CRl crown-to-rump length
CSF cerebrospinal fluid
CSP cavum septi pellucidi
CT computed tomography
CVA cerebrovascular accident
DCC dacryocystography
DCIS ductal carcinoma in situ
DIC disseminated intravascular coagulation
DIP desquamative interstitial pneumonia
DISI dorsal intercalated segmental instability
DMSA dimercaptosuccinic acid
DSC dacryoscintigraphy
DTPA diethylenetriaminepenta-acetic acid
ECA external cerebral artery/external carotid artery
ESR erythrocyte sedimentation rate
EUS endoscopic ultrasonography/ultrasound
roe 2-(MF)-fluoro-2-deoxy-o-glucose
FMD fibromuscular dysplasia
FNA fine-needle aspiration
FNH focal nodular hyperplasia
CA gestational age
Ca gallium
Cd-DTPA gadopentetate diethylenetriaminepenta-acetic acid
CFR glomerular filtration rate
CH growth hormone
Cl gastrointestinal
HCC human chorionic gonadotrophin
HIDA hepato-iminodiacetic acid
HIVE 1 1 IV encephalopathy
HMPAO hexamethylpropyleneamineoxime
240
HRCT high resolution computed tomography

HSE herpes simplex encephalitis
HSV herpes simplex virus
HU Hounsfield units
I iodine
ICA internal carotid artery
IDA iminodiacetic acid
IMA inferior mesenteric artery
In indium
IVC inferior vena cava
LDII lactate dehydrogenase
LVEF left ventricular ejection fraction
MAA macroaggregated albumin
MAC, mercaploacetyltriglycine
MALT mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue
MBq megabecquerel
MCA middle cerebral artery
MDP methylene diphosphonate
MEN multiple endocrine neoplasia
MIBC metaiodobenzylguanidine
MIBI methoxyisobutylisonitrile
MO molybdenum
MRCP magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
MRI magnetic resonance imaging
NF neurofibromatosis
NF-1 neurofibromatosis type 1
NF-2 neurofibromatosis type 2
NHL non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
NPII normal pressure hydrocephalus
PAVM pulmonary arteriovenous malformation
PDA patent ductus arteriosus
PET positron emission tomography
PHPV persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
PIOPED Prospective Investigation of Pulmonary Embolism Diagnosis
PML progressive multifocal encephalopathy
PMMA polymethylmethacrylate
PNET primitive neuroectodermal tumours
PPS parapharyngeal space
PSA prostate-specific antigen
PTC percutaneous transhcpatic cholangiography
PTFE polytetrafluorocthylene
PTH parathyroid hormone
RAS renal artery stenosis
RB-ILD respiratory bronchiolitis-interstitial lung disease
Rl resistive index
RIF right iliac fossa
ROI region of interest
SAH subarachnoid haemorrhage
SLAP superior labral anterior-posterior
SLE systemic lupus erythematosus
241

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What is the purpose of the book?

What is the purpose of the book?

What imaging modalities does the book focus on?

What imaging modalities does the book focus on?

MCQs in

JRG Bell, NH Davies, N Jeyadevan, DM Koh

Published by the Remedica Group

Remedica Publishing, 32-38 Osnaburgh Street, London, NW1 3ND, UK

Publisher: Andrew Ward

© 2003 Remedica Publishing

JRG Bell, BSc, MRCP, FRCR

NH Davies, FRCS, FRCR

N Jeyadevan, MRCP, FRCR

DM Koh, MRCP, FRCR

Dr. Michael King

7 Head and neck imaging 127

8 Paediatric radiology 147

9 Breast imaging 167

10 Interventional radiology 179

11 Obstetrics and gynaecological imaging 197

12 Nuclear medicine and positron emission tomography 209

1 When a solitary pulmonary nodule is seen on computed tomography (CT),

3 In using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to stage nonsmall cell carcinoma

5 Which of the following are true regarding bronchoalveolar carcinoma?

6 Which of the following are true regarding bronchial carcinoid tumours?

8 Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary neoplasms are true?

‘) Which of the following are true regarding intrathoracic Hodgkin's lymphoma?

10 Which of the following are true regarding benign pleural fibroma?

11 Which of the following are true regarding malignant mesothelioma?

12 Which of the following are causes of nodular pleural masses?

13 Which of the following are true regarding pulmonary metastases?

14 Which of the following are true regarding thymoma?

15 Which of the following are true regarding Castleman's disease?

16 Which of the following are true regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?

1 7 Which of the following are true regarding round pneumonia?

18 Which of the following are true regarding pulmonary infections?

19 Which of the following are causes of hilar lymph node calcifications?

20 Which of the following are true regarding silicosis?

21 Which of the following are true regarding asbestos-related diseases?

27 Which of the following statements are true?

28 In which of the following conditions may diffuse ground glass attenuation

29 Which of the following are true regarding chronic eosinophilic pneumonia?

30 Which of the following are true regarding extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

33 Which of the following are true regarding pulmonary alveolar proteinosis?

37 Which of the following are smoking-related disorders?

38 Which of the following are true regarding bronchial artery embolisation

39 Which of the following are true regarding blunt pulmonary trauma?

1 a) False Air bronchograms may be seen within a tumour, most frequently

3 a) True Imaging in the coronal plane allows better assessment of the

5 a) True There is an increased incidence with systemic sclerosis, parenchymal scarring

6 a) False The chest radiograph is abnormal at presentation in 90% of cases because

B a) False Benign calcification is seen In 10% of hamartomas, and popcorn calcification

9 a) False Lymphadenopathy in thoracic lymphoma is commonly bilateral but asymmetrical.

10 a) False Unlike malignant mesothelioma, this is not related to asbestos exposure.

13 a) True Metastatic transitional cell carcinoma may appear as a thin-wall

16 a) False Unlike chicken-pox pneumonia, miliary tuberculosis does not heal

24 a) False UIP has no gender predilection.

25 a) True Pleural effusion usually occurs in long-standing disease, with a male

27 a) True Aspiration pneumonia is the most common radiographic abnormality in patients

32 a) True Unlike childhood Langerhans cell histiocytosis, adult pulmonary Langerhans’