CHAPTER – 1

Chemical Reactionsand Equations

q Chemical Reaction : – Whenever a chemical change occurs we can say that
a chemical reaction has taken place

eg – Food gets digested in our body

– Rusting of iron.

q Chemical Equation :– A chemical reaction can be expressed symbolically

by using chemical equation

eg magnesium is burnt into air to form magnesium oxide can be represented

as

Mg + O2 →  MgO
– We can observe or recognise a chemical reaction by observing change
in state, colour, by evolution of gas or by change in temperature.

q Physical state of the reactant and products are mentioned to make chemical
reaction more informative. eg we use (g) for gas, (l) for liquid, (s) for solid
and (aq) for aqueous.

q Balancing Equation :– We balance the chemical equation so that no. of

atoms of each element involved in the reaction remain same at the reactant
and product side.

eg Fe + H2O → Fe2O3 + H2 can be written as

3 Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe2O3(s) +4H2(g)
q Combination Reaction :– The reaction in which two or more substances
combine to form a new single substance

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 eg CaO(s) + H2O(l) 
→ Ca(OH)2 (aq)
Calcium Water Calcium hydroxide
oxide (slaked lime)

Quick lime

– Ca(OH)2 slaked lime is used for white washing walls. It reacts will CO2 to
form CaCO3 and gives a shiny finish to the walls.

Ca(OH)2 CO2 
→ CaCO3 H2O (l)
(aq)+ (g) (s)+

Calcium Calcium

hydroxide Carbonate

– Burning of Coal

C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + heat + light

– Formation of water

2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)

q Exothermic Reactions :– Reaction in which heat is released along with the

formation of products.

eg. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

– Respiration is also exothermic reaction.

– De composition of vegetable matter into compost.

q De compositon Reactions :– The reaction in which a single substance

decomposes to give two or more substances. De composition reactions can
be of three types

Thermal Decompositon :– When a decompositon reaction is carried out by

heating

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– Silver bromide behaves similarly
Sunlight 2Ag(s) + Br (g)
2Ag Br  
→ 2

– The above two reactions are used in black and white photography.

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– Endothermic Reactions – The reactions which require energy in the form
of heat, light or electricty are called Endothermic Reactions.

2Ba(OH)2 + NH4Cl → 2BaCl2 + NH4OH

– Displacement Reaction : The chemical Reaction in which an element

displaces another element from its solution

Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4 + Cu(s)

Copper (aq)
Sulphate Iron Sulphate

– The nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of Copper Sulphate
solution fade.

– Other examples Zn(s) + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu(s)

(aq) (aq)

Copper Zinc
Sulphate Sulphate

Pb(s) + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu(s)

(aq) (aq)

Copper Lead
Chloride Chloride

– Zinc and lead are more reactive elements than copper. They displace copper
from its compounds.

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– Double Displacement Reaction : The reaction in which two different atoms
or group of atoms are mutually exchanged

eg. Na2 SO4 + BaCl2 

→ BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl
(aq) (aq) (aq)

Sodium Barium Barium Sodium

Sulphate Chloride Sulphate Chloride
A white substance is formed due to above reaction. The insoluble substance
is called precipitate.

Precipitation Reaction – Any reaction that produces a precipitate is called a

precipitation reaction.
eg. Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2  +2KNO3
(aq) (aq) (aq)

Lead Nitrate Potassium Lead Potassium

Iodide Iodide Nitrate
– Oxidation : Oxidation is the gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen
eg. 2Cu + O2  Heat → 2CuO

When Copper is heated a black colour appears. If this CuO is reacted with
hydrogen gas then again Cu becomes brown as reverse reaction takes place
CuO + H2  Heat → Cu + H2O

– Reduction : Reduction is the loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

– Redox Reaction : The reaction in which one reactant gets oxidised while
other gets reduced

eg. ZnO + C → Zn + CO

MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2

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– Corrosion : When a metal is attacked by substances around it such as
moisture, acids etc.

eg. Reddish brown coating on iron.

(ii) Black coating on Silver.

– Rancidity : When fats and oils are oxidised they become rancid and their
smell and taste change.

– Antioxidants are added to foods containing fats and oil.

EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
(1 Mark)

Answer the following questions very breifly

1. What happens when the milk is left at room temperature during summer?
2. Write a chemical equation when magnesium is burnt in air to give magnesium
oxide.
3. A substance under goes chemical reactions to produce simpler products,
what type of reaction is this?
4. Why do copper vessels lose their shine when exposed to air?
5. Which gas is produced by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on zinc
granules?
6. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of which type of reaction.
7. Name the type of reaction in which energy is absorbed.
8. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is
dipped into it?
9. Give an example of decomposition reaction which proceeds by absorbing
electric energy.

10. Why do we balance the chemical equation?

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Answer the following questions briefly (2 mark)
1. Write down the observations which indicate the occurence of a chemical
reaction.
2. Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction? Explain.
3. Transfer the following statements into Chemical equations and then balance
them.
a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
b) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and
hydrogen gas.
4. Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced
to the folllowing reactions.
1. Na + O2 
→ Na2O
(s) (g) (s)

CuO + H2 
→ Cu + H O
2 (l)
(s) (g) (s)

5. What happens when silver chloride is exposed to sunlight? Give one practical
application of this reaction. Write the equation also.
6. Why is the bag used for potato chips flushed with nitrogen gas?
Answer the following questions in detail (3 marks)
1. Write down the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.
a) Zinc Carbonate(s) → Zinc Oxide + Carbon Dioxide(g)
b) Aluminium(s) + Chlorine(g) → Aluminium Chloride(s)
c) Magnesium(s)+ Water(l) Heat →
 Magnesium Hydroxide(l)+ Hydrogen(g)

2. Choose combination, displacement and double displacement reactions out of

the given reactions.

i) MnO2 + 4HCl(l) → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O

(s) (s) (g) (l)

ii) CaO + CO2 

→ CaCO3
(s) (g) (s)

iii) 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2

(g)

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3. What happens when CO2 is passed through slaked lime? Write the balanced
(g)
chemical equation. Write the type of reaction that has occured.

Explain the following questions detail (5 marks)

1. Balance the following chemical equation and identify the type of reaction they
represent

KClO3 → KCl + O2

NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O

Na2O + H2O → NaOH

Na + H2O → NaOH + H2

FeCl3 + NaOH → Fe (OH)3 + NaCl.

2. Define various types of chemical reactions. Write one chemical equation for
each type.

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 CHAPTER – 2

ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

q
Acids Bases
– Sour in taste – Bitter in taste
– Change the blue litmus to red – Change red litmus to blue
– eg. HydrochloricAcid HCl eg. Sodium hydroxide NaOH
– SulphuricAcid H2SO4 Potassium hydroxide KOH
– Nitric Acid HNO3 Calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)2
– Acetic Acid CH3 COOH – Ammonium hydroxide NH4OH

q Some Naturally occuring acids

Vinegar – Acetic Acid
Orange – Citric Acid
Lemon – Citric Acid
Tamarind – Tartaric Acid
Tomato – Oxalic Acid
Sour milk (Curd) – Lactic Acid
Ant and Nettle sting – Methanoic Acid
q Acid – Base Indicators – Indicate the presence of an acid or base in a
solution.
q Litmus solution – It is a natural indicator. It is a purple day extracted from
Lichens. Other examples are Red Cabbage and coloured petals of Petunia
and turmeric.
q Olfactory indicators – Show odour changes in acidic or basic media. eg.
onion and clove.

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q Acid – Base Indicators

S. No. Name of the Colour Change Colour Change

Indicator with Acid with Base
A. Blue litmus solution To red No change
B. Red litmus solution No change To blue
C. Turmeric No change To red
D. Methyl orange To red To yellow
E. Phenolphthalein (colourless) No change To pink
q Dilute Acid : Contains only a small amounts of acid and a large amount of
water.
q Concentrated Acid : A concentrated acid contains a large amount of acid and
a small amount of water.
q Chemical Properties of Acids and Bases
Acid + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen
(Refer activity 2.3 on page No. 19 of NCERT Book)
2HCl + Zn → ZnCl2 + H2

2HNO3 + Zn → Zn (NO3)2 + H2

H2SO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + H2

2CH3COOH + Zn → (CH3COO)2 Zn + H2

q Pop test : When a buring candle is brought near a test tube containing
hydrogen gas it burns with a ‘Pop’ sound. This test is conducted for examining
the presence of hydrogen gas.
q Base + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen
NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2
Sodium Zincate
Note – Such reactions are not possible with all the metals.

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q Action of Acids with metal Carbonates and metal bicarbonates
Metal Carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbondioxide + Water
Na2CO3 + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
(s)
Metal bicarbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbondioxide + Water
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + CO2 + H2O
q Lime water Test : On passing the CO2 gas evolved through lime water,
Ca(OH)2 (aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
Lime water White precipitate
On passing excess CO2 the following reaction takes place
CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) → Ca(HCO3)2 aq
Soluble in water
q Neutralisation Reactions
Base + Acid → Salt + Water

NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

Neutralisation reacton takes place when the effect of a base is nullified by
an acid and vice versa to give salt and water.
q Reactions of metal oxides with acids
Metal Oxide + Acid → Salt + Water
CuO + HCl → CuCl2 + H2O
Copperoxide Hydrochloric Copper + Water
acid chloride

Note : Appearance of blue green colour of the solution because of formation

of CuCl2.
Metallic oxides are said to be basic oxides because they give salt and water
on reacting with acids.
q Reaction of Non Metallic Oxide with Base
Non metallic oxide + Base → Salt + Water
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
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 Note : Non Metallic oxides are said to be acidic in nature because on reacting
with a base they produce Salt and Water.
q All acidic solutions conduct electricity
Refer activity 2.3 on page 22 of NCERT Book
– Glowing of bulb indicates that there is a flow of electric current through the
solution.
q Acids or bases in a Water Solution
Acids produce H+ions in the presence of water
HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl–
H3O+ – Hydronium ion.
– H+ion cannot exist alone. It exists as H+(aq) or (H3O+) hydronium ion.
H+ + H2O → H3O+
– Bases provide (OH–) ions in the presence of water
H2O
NaOH(s)  + –
→ Na (aq) + OH (aq)
H2O
KOH(s)  + –
→ K (aq) + OH (aq)
H2O
Mg(OH)2(s)  2+ –
→ Mg (aq) + 2OH (aq)
q Alkalis
All bases donot dissolve in water. An alkali is a base that dissolves in water.
Common alkalis are
NaOH Sodium hydroxide
KOH Potassium hydroxide
Ca(OH)2 Calcium hydroxide
NH4OH : Ammonium hydroxide
Note : All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis.
q Precaution must be taken while mixing acid or base with water. The acid must
always be added to water with constant stirring as it is highly exothermic
reaction.

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 When an acid or a base is mixed with water they become dilute. This results
in the decrease in the concentration of H3O+ or OH– per unit volume in acids
and bases respectively.
q Strength of an Acid or Base
Strength of acids and bases depends on the no. of H+ions and OH–ions
produced respectively.
With the help of a universal indicator we can find the strength of an acid or
base. This indicator is called PH scale.
pH = Potenz in German means power.
This scale measures from 0 (very acidic) to 14 (very alkaline) 7 Neutral
(water in Neutral).
pH paper : Is a paper which is used for measuring PH.
Variation of PH

S. PH Colour of the Nature of H+ion O H –i o n

No. Value pH Paper Solution Conc. Conc.
1. 0 Dark red Highly acidic very high very low
2. 4 Orange or yellow Acidic high low
3. 7: Green Neutral Equal Equal
4. 10 Bluish green or blue Alkaline low high
5. 14 Dark blue or voilet highly basic very low very high
– strong Acids give rise to more H+ions.
eg. HCl, H2SO4 and HNO3.
– Weak Acids give rise to less H+ ions
eg. CH3 COOH, H2 CO3 (Carbonic acid)
– Strong Bases – Strong bases give rise to more OH– ions.
eg. NaOH, KOH, Ca(OH)2
– Weak Bases : give rise to less OH– ions.
eg. NH4OH

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q More about Salts
Salts and their derivation

S. No. Name of Salt Formula Derived from Derived from

1. Potassium Sulphate K2 SO4 KOH H2SO4
2. Sodium Sulphate Na2SO4 NaOH H2SO4
3. Sodium Chloride NaCl NaOH HCl
4. Ammonium Chloride NH4Cl NH4OH HCl
Note : NaCl and Na2 SO4 belong to the family of sodium salts as they have
the same radicals. Similarly NaCl and KCl belong to the family of chloride
salts.
Importance of pH in our daily life
q Importance of pH in our digestive system – pH level of our body regulates
our digestive system. In case of indigestion our stomach produces acid in a
very large quantity because of which we feel pain and irritation in our stomach.
To get relief from this pain antacids are used. These antacids neutralises the
excess acid and we get relief.
q pH of Acid Rain : When pH of rain water is less than 5.6 it is called Acid
Rain.When this acidic rain flows into rivers these also get acidic, which causes
a threat to the survival of aquatic life.
q pH of Soil : Plants require a specific range of pH for their healthy growth. If
pH of soil of any particular place is less or more than normal than the farmers
add suitable fertilizers to it.
q Our body functions between the range of 7.0 to 7.8 living organisms can
survive only in the narrow range of pH change.
q Tooth decay and pH : Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by
degredation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth. Using toothpaste
which is generally basic can neutralise the excess acid and prevent tooth
decay.
q Bee sting or Nettle sting contains methanoic acid which causes pain and
irritation. When we use a weak base like baking soda on it we get relief.

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 Neutral Salts : Strong Acid + Strong base
pH value is 7
eg. NaCl, CaSO4
Acidic Salts : Strong Acid + weak base
pH value is less than 7
eq. NH4Cl, NH4 NO3
Basic Salts : Strong base + weak acid
pH value is more than 7
eg. CaCO3, CH3 COONa
q Chemicals from Common Salt
– Sodium chloride is called as common salt used in our food. It is derived
from seawater.
– Rock Salt is the brown coloured large crystals. This s mined like coal.
– Common Salt is an important raw material for many materials of daily use
such as.
Sodium hydroxide
Washing Soda
Bleaching Power.
q Sodium Hydroxide
Preparation : Prepared by the method called chlor-alkali
Called chlor-alkali because we get chlorine and a base in this.
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

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q Bleaching Power
Preparation → Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
calcium hydroxide chlorine bleaching water
power

uses in textile, factories and laundry, used as disinfectant

q Baking Soda
– Common name – Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate

Preparation NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4Cl + NaHCO3

Sodium Water Carbon Ammonia Sodium hydrogen
chloride dioxide carbonate

On heating NaHCO3 produces :

NaHCO3 Heat →
 Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
CO2 produced causes dough to rise and make cakes, pastries spongy.
Uses : In household, ingredients of antacid
In making baking power
On heating baking powder produces
NaHCO3 + H+ → CO2 + H2O + Sodium Salt of acid
q Washing Soda
Preparation : Recrystallisation of sodium carbonate
Na2CO3 + 10H2O Heat →
 Na2CO3. 10H2O
Uses
– Used in glass, soap and paper industry
– Cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
– Removal of hardness of water.
– Manufacturere of borax.
q Water of crystallisation : Fixed no. of water molecules present in one formula
unit of a salt.
– On heating copper sulphate crystals water droplets appear, formula of
hydrated copper sulphate – CuSO4. 5H2O.

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 – gypsum also contains water of crystallisation.
– Formula of gypsum – CaSO4.2H2O
– On heating gypsum at 373k it becomes CaSO4.½H2O is plaster of
paris.
– Plaster of Paris is used as plaster for fractured bones.
– When plaster of Paris is mixed with water it changes to gypsum.
CaSO4.½ H2O + 1½ H2O → CaSO4.2H2O
Uses of plaster of Paris : Making toys, decorative material and smooth surfaces.

EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short answer type questions (1 mark)
1. Two solution have pH number 4 and 9 respectively which solution has more
H+ ion concentration?
2. Why should cured and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper
vessel?
3. What is the chemical name of bleaching powder?
4. Write down the molecular formula for one strong and one weak acid.
5. Explain why plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture proof container?
6. Name the gas evolved when dil. sulphuric acid acts on sodium carbonate.
7. What is the use of common salt in soap industry?
8. What do you observe when a buring candle is brought near the testube
containing hydrogen gas?
9. Name the indicator used to measure pH values over the whole range.
10. Write the formula of washing powder.
Short Answer Type Questions (2 marks)
1. Write two physical properties of an acid
2. Complete the reaction CaCO3 + H2O → name the products formed.
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3. A testtube contains solution of NaOH and Phenolphthalein. Why the colour
of the solution changes when HCl in added to it.
4. Why metallic oxides are called as basic oxides and non-metallic oxides are
calles acidic oxides?
5. In a beakey a solution of HCl is poured and an electric circuit containing bulb
is placed systemtically. What happens to the bulb and why?
What will happen if HCl is repplaced by NaOH?
6, Identify the type of reaction
H X + M OH → MX + HOH
7. Why all bases are not alkalies but all alkalis are bases?
Answer the following questions in detail (3 marks)
1. What is acid rain? What is its pH? How does it affect the aquatic life?
2. What happens when a metal react with dilute hydrochloric acid? Write the
reaction
© NaOH + Zn → _________ + _________.
3. What happens when an acid or a base is added to the water? Why does the
beaker appear warm? Why should we always add acid or base to the water
and not water to the acid or base.
Answer the following question in detail (5 marks)
1. (a) Write down five products formed with the help of common salt on
industrial level.
(b) Write down the chemical name of these compounds and one use of
each of them.
2. Fill in the blanks
a) Acid + ______ → Salt + Water..
b) _____ + Metal → Salt + _____
c) Metal carbonate / metal hydrogen carbonate + acid
 → _______ + _______ + _______.

d) NaOH 
H2 O
→ _______ + _______
e) Na2CO3 + 10H2O → _______.

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 CHAPTER – 3

METALS AND NON-METALS

q About 118 elements are known today. There are more than 90 metals, 22
non metals and a few metalloids.
q Sodium (Na), potassium (K), magnesium(Mg), aluminium(Al), calcium(Ca),
Iron(Fe), Barium(Ba) are some metals.
q Oxygen(O), hydrogen(H), nitrogen(N), sulphur(S), phosphorus(P), fluorine(F),
chlorine(Cl), bromine(Br), iodine(l) are some non-metals
*Physical properties of metals:
q Solid at room temperature except mercury
q Ductile (drawn into wires)
q Malleable (beaten into thin sheets)
q Sonorous(produce sound)
q Lustrous(natural shine)
q Have high melting point. Cesium and gallium have very low melting point.
q Generally good conductor of heat and electricity, except lead and mercury
which are comparatively poor conductors. Silver and copper are best
conductors.
q Have high density. Sodium and potassium can be cut with knife, they have
low density.
Physical properties of non-metals:
q Occur as solid or gas. Bromine is liquid.
q Generally bad conductors of heat and electricity. Graphite a natural form of
carbon is a good conductor.
q Non-sonorous.

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q Non-lustrous, only iodine has lustre.
q Metals form basic oxides like Magnesium oxide(MgO), while non-metals
form acidic oxides (as in acid rain).
*Chemical properties of metals:
1. Reaction with air
Metals can burn in air, react or don't react with air.
Metal + oxygen → Metal Oxide
q Some metals like Na and K are kept immersed in kerosene oil as they react
vigorously with air and catch fire.
q Some metals like Mg, Al, Zn, Pb react slowly with air and form a protective
layer.
q Mg can also burn in air with a white dazzling light to form its oxide
q Fe and Cu don't burn in air but combine with oxygen to form oxide. When
heated iron filings burn when sprinkled over flame.
q Metals like silver, platinum and gold don't burn or react with air.
2Na + O2 
→ Na2O
2Mg + O2 
→ 2MgO
2Cu + O2 
→ 2CuO

4Al + 302 
→ 2Al2O3

Amphoteric Oxides : metal oxides which react with both acids as well as
bases to form salt and water e.g. Al2O3, ZnO.
Al2O3 + HCl 
→ AlCl3 + H2 O
Al2O3 + NaOH 
→ NaAlO2 + H2 O
2. Reaction with water :

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 Na + H2 O 
→ NaOH + H2
K + H2 O 
→ KOH + H2
Ca + H2 O 
→ Ca(OH)2 + H2
Mg + H2 O 
→ Mg(OH)2 + H2
In case of Ca and Mg, the metal starts floating due to dubbles of hydrogen
gas sticking to its surface.
Al + H2 O 
→ Al2O3 + H2
Fe + H2 O 
→ Fe3O4 + H2
Try Balancing these Chemical equations yourself
3. Reaction with dilute acids:
Metal + dilute acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas
Metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid and dilute sulphuric acid to form
salt and hydrogen gas.
Fe + 2HCl 
→ FeCl2 + H2
Mg + 2HCl 
→ MgCl2 + H2
Zn + 2HCl 
→ ZnCl2 + H2
2Al + 6HCl 
→ 2AlCl3 + 3H2
Copper, mercury and silver don’t react with dilute acids.
Hydrogen gas produced is oxidised to water when metals react with nitric
acid. But Mg and Mn, react with very dilute nitric acid to evolve hydrogen
gas.
Mg + 2HNO3 
→ Mg(NO3)2 + H2
4. Reaction of metals with other metal salts :
Salt Salt
Metal A + solution 
→ solution + Metal B
of B of A
All metals are not equally reactive. Reactive metals can displace less reactive
metals from their compounds in solution. This forms the basis of reactivity
series of metals.

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 Reactivity series is a list of metals arranged in order of their decreasing
activities.

Fe + CuSO4 
→ FeSO4 + Cu

Zn + CuSO4 
→ ZnSO4 + Cu
Reaction between Metals and Non-Metals :
– Reactivity of elements can be understood as a tendency to attain a completely
filled valence shell.
– Atom of metals can lose electrons from valence shells to form cations (+ve
ions).
– Atom of non-metals gain electrons in valence shell to form anions (–ve ions).
– Oppositely charged ions attract each other and are held by strong electrostatic
forces of attraction forming ionic compounds.
Formation of MgCl2
Mg 
→ Mg2+ + 2e–
2,8,2 2,8 (Magnesium ion)
Cl2 + 2e– 
→ 2Cl–
2,8,7 2,8,8 (Chloride ion)

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Properties of Ionic Compounds :
– Are solid and mostly brittle.
– Have high melting and boiling points. More energy is required to break the
strong inter-ionic attraction.
– Generally soluble in water and insoluble in kerosene, petrol.
– Conduct electricity in solution and in molten state. In both cases, free ions are
formed and conduct electricity.
Occurance of Metals
Minerals : elements of compounds occuring naturally are minerals.
ORES : mineral from which metal can be profitably extracted is an ore. For example,
sulphide ore, oxide ore, carbonate ore.
– Metals at the bottom of activity series like gold, platinum, silver, copper
generally occur in free state. But copper and silver also occur in sulphide and
oxide ores.
– Metals of medium reactivity (Zn, Fe, Pb etc.) occur mainly as oxides, sulphides
or carbonates.
– Metals of high reactivity (K, Na, Ca, Mg and Al) are very reactive and thus
found in combined state.
GANGUE : ores are naturally found mixed impurities like soil, sand, etc. called
gangue. The gangue is removed from the ore.
METALLURGY : step-wise process of obtaining metal from its ore.
*Enrichment of ore
*Obtaining metal from enriched ore.
*Refining of impure metal to obtain pure metal.
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Extracting Metals Low in the Activity Series :
By heating the ores in air at high temperature.
*Mercury from cinnabar
Heat → 2HgO + 2SO2
2HgS + 3O2 
Heat → 2Hg + O2
2HgO 
* Copper from copper sulphide
Heat → 2Cu2O _ 2SO2
Cu2S + 3O2 
Heat → 6Cu + SO2
2Cu2O + Cu2S 
Extracting Metals in the Middle of Activity Series :
*Metals are easier to obtain from oxide ores, thus, sulphide and carbonate ores are
converted into oxides.
*Metal ore heated strongly in excess of air (Roasting)
Heat → 2ZnO + 2SO2
2ZnS + 3O2 
Metal ore heated strongly in limited or no supply of air (Calcination)
Heat → ZnO + CO2
ZnCO3 
Reduction of Metal Oxide :
1. USING COKE: Coke as a reducing agent.
Heat → Zn + CO
ZnO + C 

2. USING DISPLACEMENT REACTION : highly reactive metal like Na, Ca

and Al are used to displace metals of lower reactivity from their compounds.
Heat → 3Mn + 2Al2O3 + heat
MnO2 + 4Al 
Heat → 2Fe + Al2O3 + heat
Fe2O3 + 2Al 

– In the above reaction molten iron is formed and is used to join railway tracks.
This is called thermit reaction.

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Extracting Metals at the Top of Activity Series :
These metals
– have more affinity for oxygen than carbon.
– are obtained by electrolytic reduction. Sodium is obtained by electrolysis of
its molten chloride NaCl → Na+ + Cl–
As electricity is passed through the solution metal gets deposited at cathode
and non-metal at anode.
– At cathode :
Na+ + e– → Na
– At anode :
2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e–
Refining of Metals :
– Impurities present in the obtained metal can be removed by electrolytic refining.
Copper is obtained using this method. Following are present inside the
electrolytic tank.
– Anode – slab of impure copper
– Cathode – slab of pure copper
– Solution – aqueous solution of copper sulphate with some dilute sulphuric
acid
– From anode copper ions are released in the solution and equivalent amount
of copper from solution is deposited at cathode.
– Impurities containing silver and gold gets deposited at the bottom of anode
as anode mud.

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Corrosion :
– Metals are attacked by substances in surroundings like moisture and acids.
– Silver - it reacts with sulphur in air to form silver sulphide and articles become
black.
– Copper - reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air and gains a green coat of
copper carbonate.
– Iron-acquires a coating of a brown flaky substance called rust. Both air and
moisture are necessary for rusting of iron.
Prevention of corrosion:
– Rusting of iron is prevented by painting, oiling, greasing, galvanizing, chrome
plating, anodising and making alloys.
– In galvanization, iron or steel is coated with a layer of zinc because zinc is
preferably oxidized than iron.
Alloys : These are mixture of metals with metals or non-metals
– Adding small amount of carbon makes iron hard and strong.
– Stainless steel is obtained by mixing iron with nickel and chromium. It is hard
and doesn’t rust.
– Mercury is added to other metals to make amalgam.
Brass : alloy of copper and zinc.
Bronze : alloy of copper and tin.
– In brass and bronze, melting point and electrical conductivity is lower than
that of pure metal.
Solder : alloy of lead and tin has low melting point and is used for welding
electrical wires.
Question Bank
1 MARK
1 Name a metal which is the best conductor of electricity and one which is poor
conductor of electricity.
2 Why food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc?
3. Name any two alloys whose electrical conductivity is less than that of pure
metals.
4. Name the non-metal with lustre.
5. Define amphoteric oxide.
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6. An aqueous solution of Al2O3 is electrolysed. Name the element collected at
anode.
7. An oxide of an element was dissolved in water. The final solution turned red
litmus blue. Is the element metal, non-metal or a metalloid?
8. What happens when cinnabar is heated?
9. Ionic compounds have high melting point. Why?
10. Name two metals which are found in nature in free state.
2 MARKS
1. Why Magnesium and calcium float when they react with water?
2. Write the chemical equations of heating of Cu and Fe.
3. Write two chemical equations to show that Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide.
4. What is galvanization? Why it is done?
5. Hydrogen gas is not evolved generally when metals react with nitric acid.
Explain.
6. Explain the thermit process. Write the chemical equation involved.
7. Distinguish between roasting and calcination.
8. Every ore is a mineral but not every mineral is an ore. Explain.
9. Why highly reactive metals can't be obtained from their oxides using coke as
a reducing agent?
3 MARKS
1. Diagrammatically show the formation of MgO.
2. Ionic compounds are good conductors of electricity under specific conditions.
Name the two conditions and give reasons.
5 MARKS
1. i) What is reactivity series of metals? Arrange the metals zinc, magnesium,
aluminium, copper and iron in a decreasing order of reactivity.
ii) What is observed when you put
a) Some zinc pieces into blue copper sulphate solution.
b) Some copper pieces into green ferrous sulphate solution.
iii) Name a metal which combines with hydrogen gas. Name the compound
formed.

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2. Give reasons:
i) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
ii) Sodium and potassium are stored under oil.
iii) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, still it is used to make utensils for
cooking.
iv) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during
the process of extraction.
METALS AND NON-METALS
IN BRIEF
– Metals are generally solid, sonorous, lustrous, good conductor of heat and
electricity, malleable, ductile, high melting point, high densities, form basic
oxides, form +vely charged ion.
– Non-metals are generally solid or gas, non-lustrous, non-sonorous, bad
conductor of heat and electricity, have low melting point, form acidic oxides
and form -vely charged ions.
– Metals like Na, K and Ca are highly reactive, while others like Magnesium,
Aluminium, Zinc and Lead are less reactive and some others are least reactive
like silver, gold and platinum.
– Metals generally displace hydrogen from acids.
– Reactivity series is based on displacement capability of metals and is a series
of metals in the order of their decreasing reactivity.
– Metals and non-metals react to form ionic compounds which are soluble in
water, have high melting point and are good conductor of electricity in their
aqueous solution or molten state.
– Ores are minerals from which a metal can be profitably extracted.
– Metals are extracted from their ores according to their reactivity.
– Sulphide and chloride ores are roasted while carbonate ores are roasted.
– Pure metals can be obtained using electrolytic refining process.
– Metals are generally attacked by air and corrode. To alter the properties of
metals alloys are made.
– Steel, stainless steel, amalgams, brass, bronze and solder are some alloys.

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 CHAPTER – 4

CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

q Carbon is a versatile element.
q In earth’s crust, carbon is 0.02% and found in form of minerals.
q Atmosphere has 0.03% of Carbon dioxide.
q All living structures are carbon based.
Covalent Bond in Carbon
– The atomic number of carbon is 6 and its electronic configuration is 2, 4. To
attain a noble gas configuration it can
1. Gain 4 electrons. But it would be difficult for nucleus to hold 4 extra electrons.
2. Lose 4 electrons. But it would require a large amount of energy to remove
4 electrons.
– It is difficult thus for an atom of carbon to either gain or lose electrons.
– Carbon attains the noble gas configuration by sharing its valence electrons
with other atoms. Atoms of other elements like hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen,
chlorine also show sharing of valence electrons.
– Formation of H2, O2 and N2 is shown as below :

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– It is evident that the number of shared pair of electrons can be one, two or
three. Try making the structures of H2O and CH4.
– Bond formed by the sharing of an electron pair between two atoms is called
covalent bond.
– Covalently bonded molecules have low melting and boiling points because of
comparatively weaker intermolecular forces, unlike ionic compounds.
– These molecules are generally poor conductor of electricity since no charged
particles are formed.
Versatile Nature of Carbon Atoms:
Two important properties of carbon atom enable carbon to form enormously large
number of compounds.

CATENATION : property of carbon atom to form bond with other atoms of

carbon is called catenation. Like carbon, silicon forms compounds with hydrogen
upto seven or eight atoms of silicon.

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TETRAVALENCY : Having a valency of 4, carbon atom is capable of bonding
with atoms of oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine and other elements.
The smaller size of carbon atom enables nucles nucleus to hold the shared pair of
electrons strongly, thus carbon compounds are very stable in general.
Saturated and Unsaturated Carbon Compounds

– ALKANE : CnH2n+2
– ALKENE : CnH2n
– ALKYNE : CnH2n–2
– Electron dot structure of a saturated carbon compound, ethane is as follows:

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– Electron dot structure of an unsaturated cabon compound, ethene is as follows:

TRY DRAWING THE ELECTRON DOT STRUCTURE OF ETHYNE

Formulae and Structures of Saturated Compounds of Carbon and Hydrogen

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On the basis of structures the hydrocarbons can be:

Structural isomers : these are the compounds having identical molecular formula
but different structures. For example, isomers of butane.

Heteroatom and Functional Group :

*In hydrocarbon chain, one or more hydrogen atoms can be replaced by other
atoms in accordance with their valencies. The element that replaces hydrogen is
called a heteroatom.
*These heteroatoms and the group containing them impart chemical properties to
the compound and hence are called functional groups.

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Homologous Series:
– It is a series of compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for
hydrogen in a Carbon chain.
– For instance, the ALCOHOLSs: CH3 OH, C2H5 OH, C3H7 OH, C4H9 OH.
– The successive member differs by –CH2-; unit and 14 units of mass.
– The chemical properties are imparted by the functional group thus all members
have similar chemical properties. But the members have different physical
properties.
– The physical properties vary among the members of homologous series due
to difference in their molecular mass.
– Melting point and boiling point increases with increasing molecular mass.
Nomenclature of Carbon Compounds:
1. Identify the number of carbon atoms in the compound.
2. Functional group is indicated either by prefix or suffix.
Functional Group Suffix Prefix
Alkene ene
Alkyne yne
Alcohol ol
Aldehyde al
Ketone one
Carboxylic acid oic acid
chlorine chloro

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3. If a suffix is added, then final ‘e’ is removed from the name eg. methanol
(methane-e = methan + ol).
Chemical properties of Carbon compounds :
1. COMBUSTION :
*Carbon compounds generally burn (oxidize) in air to produce carbon dioxide and
water, and release heat and light energy.
CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + heat and light
*Saturated hydrocarbon burns generally with a blue flame in good supply or air and
with a yellow sooty flame in limited supply of air.
*Sooty flame is seen when unsaturated hydrocarbons are burnt.
*Burning of coal and petroleum emits oxides of sulphur and nitrogen which are
responsible for acid rain.
2. OXIDATION :
*Alcohols can be converted to carboxylic acids by oxidizing them using alkaline
potassium permanganate or acidified poatassium dichromate (they add oxygen to
the reactant, thus are called oxidizing agents).

Alkaline KMnO 4 + heat

CH 3 - CH 2 OH CH 3 COOH
Acidified K 2 Cr2 O7 + heat

3. ADDITION REACTION:
Hydrogen is added to unsaturated hydrocarbon in presence of palladium or nickel
as catalyst.
Vegetable oils are converted into vegetable ghee using this process.

Saturated fatty acids are harmful for health and oils with unsaturated fatty acids
should be used for cooking.

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4. SUBSTITUTION REACTION :
In saturated hydrocarbons, the hydrogen attached to carbon can be replaced by
another atom or group of atoms in presence of sunlight.
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl (sunlight required)
IMPORTANT CARBON COMPOUNDS : Ethanol and Ethanoic Acid
Ethanol :

*Consumption of dilute ethanol causes serious health issues and intake of pure
alcohol is lethal.

CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF ETHANOL

C2H5OH Reacts with Sodium When C 2 H 5 OH is Heated with
to from Sodium Ethoxide and Concentrated Sulphuric Acid at 443
Hydrogen k, It is Dehydrated to Ethene

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Ethanoic Acid (CH3COOH) / Acetic Acid :

*5-8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar.

*Pure acetic acid is called glacial acetic acid.

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Esterification :
Carboxylic acids react with alcohols in presence of few drops of concentrated
sulphuric acid as catalyst and form sweet smelling compounds called ester.
Hydrolysis :
On heating with an acid or a base the ester forms back the original alcohol and
carboxylic acid.
CH3COO CH2CH3 + NaOH → CH3COONa + CH3-CH2OH

CH3COO CH2CH3 

Dil.H 2 SO 4
HEAT
→ CH3COOH + CH3-CH2OH

*Alkaline hydrolysis of ester is also called saponification.

Soaps and Detergents
– Soap is sodium and potassium salt of carboxylic acids with long chain.
– Soaps are effective with soft water only and ineffective with hard water.
– Detergents are ammonium or sulphonate salts of carboxylic acids with long
chain. They are effective with both soft as well as hard water.
An ionic part (hydrophilic) and a long hydrocarbon chain (hydrophobic) part
constitutes the soap molecule.

Structure of a Soap Molecule

Cleansing Action of Soaps :
– Most dirt is oily in nature and the hydrophobic end attaches itself with dirt,
while the ionic end is surrounded with molecules of water. This result in
formation of a radial structure called micelles.

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– An emulsion is thus formed by soap molecule. The cloth needs to be
mechanically agitated to remove the dirt particles from the cloth.
– Scum : The magnesium and calcium salts present in hard water reacts with
soap molecule to form insoluble products called scum, thus obstructing the
cleansing action. Use of detergents overcome this problem as the detergent
molecule prevents the formation of insoluble product and thus clothes get
cleaned.

EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
1MARK
1. How an atom of carbon attain noble gas configuration?
2. Draw the electron dot structure of a molecule of water.
3. Define catenation.
4. The kerosene/gas stove used at home has inlets for air. Give reason.
5. Write only the chemical equation for dehydration of ethanol by hot conc.
Sulphuric acid.
6. Write the number of covalent bonds present in propane.
7. Define the term: oxidising agent.
8. Write the formula for first member of ketone.

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9. Would you be able to check if water is soft by using a soap?
10. Write the molecular formula of an alkyne containing 10 atoms of hydrogen.
2 MARKS
1. Define saponification. Write a chemical equation for it.
2. Covalent compounds generally don't conduct electricity. Why?
3. Specify the condition in which ethanol undergo oxidation to form ethanoic
acid. Write the chemical equation.
4. Define isomerism. Draw the structures of the two isomers of butane.
5. Identify the functional group present in the following compounds: HCOOH,
HCHO, CH3Br and C10H21OH
3 MARKS
1. What is a homologous series? Write any two characteristic features of any
homologous series using one example.
2. Write any three differences between soaps and detergents.
5 MARKS
1. Differentiate between ethanol and ethanoic acid on the basis of any three
physical properties and two chemical properties.
2. An organic compound 'A' is used as a preservative in pickles and has molecular
formula C2H4O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling
compound 'B'.
i) Determine the compound 'A'.
ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form
compound 'B'.
iii) Write any two uses of compound 'B'.
iv) Which gas is produced when compound 'A' reacts with washing soda?
Write the chemical equation
v) How can vinegar be obtained from compound 'A'?

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CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS IN BRIEF
– Carbon is a versatile non-metal.
– Carbon atom like atoms of other non-metals like oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen
and chlorine shares electrons.
– Carbon forms large number of compounds due to catenation and tetravalency.
– Carbon can form single, double and triple covalent bonds.
– The compounds of hydrogen and carbon are called hydrocarbons, which can
be saturated or unsaturated.
– Structurally hydrocarbons can have straight chain, branches or cyclic structure.
– Difference in Structural arrangement of same molecule gives rise to isomerism.
– In a hydrocarbon, a heteroatom can replace the hydrogen atom and imparts
it chemical properties.
– Homologous series is a series of compounds with same general formula and
same chemical properties but different physical properties.
– Carbon based compounds are excellent fuels.
– Ethanol is an important industrial compound. It reacts with reactive metals and
is also dehydrated to ethene.
– Ethanoic acid is another important compound. It combines with ethanol to
form sweet smelling esters.
– Soaps and detergents are used as cleansing agents. Detergents efficiently
cleanses with soft and hard water.

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 CHAPTER – 5

PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF
ELEMENTS
q Elements : Substances containing atoms of only one type. eg. Na, Au, Mg etc.
– There are around 118 elements known to us.
q Elements are classified to make the study easy.
q Dobereiner’s Traids : When the elements were written in order of increasing
atomic masses the atomic mass of the middle was the average of the atomic
mass of the other two elements.
eg. Elements Atomic Mass
Ca 40.1
Sr 87.6
Ba 136.3
Limitations : Only three triads were recognised from the elements known at
that time.
q Atomic mass of an element is the relative mass of its atom as compared widh
the mass of a Carbon-12 atom taken as 12 units
q Newland’s law of octaves :
– Based on increasing atomic mass of elements.
– When elements are arranged it was found that every eighth element had
properties similar to that of the first. eg properties of sodium and Lithium are
the same.
Limitations :
– Applicable only upto Calcium
– Properties of new elements couldn’t fit in it.

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– It some cases properties of the elements were not same as defined by octave.
– Worked well only with lighter elements.
Mendeleev's periodic law :– The properties of elements are the periodic function
of their atomic mass.
Mendeleev's periodic table based on the chemical properties of elements.
Contain eight vertical columns called groups and seven horizontal rows called periods
form Mendeleev’s peridic table.
Achievements of Mendeleev’s Periodic table
– Elements with similar properties could be grouped together
– Some gaps were left for the undiscovered elements.
– Noble gases could be placed without disturbing the existing order.
Limitations:
– No fixed position for hydrogen
– No place for isotopes
– No regular trend in atomic mass.
Modern Periodic Table
Modern Periodic Law : Properties of elements are a periodic function of their
atomic number.
– Atomic Number – denoted by Z and equals to the no. of protons in the
nucleus of an atom.
– Modern periodic table contains 18 vertical columns known as groups and 7
horizontal rows known as periods.
– Elements in a group have valence electrons
– No. of the shells increases as we go down the group.
– Elements in a period have same number of shells.
– Each period marks a new electronic shell getting filled.
– No. of elements placed in a particular period depends upon the fact that how
electrons are filled into various shells.

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– Maximum no. of electrons that can be accomodated in a shell depend on the
formula 2n2 where n is the no. of the given shell.
eg. k shell – 2 x (1)2 = 2 elements in the first period L shell – 2 x (2)2 = 8
elements in the second period.
– Position of the element in the periodic table tells about its reactivity.
Trends in the Modern Periodic Table
– Valency : No. of valence electrons present in the outermost shells.
– Atomic Size : Atomic size refers to radius of an atom.
– Atomic size or radius decreases in moving from left to right along a period
due to increase in nuclear charge
– Atomic size increases down the group because new shells are being added
as we go down the group.
Metallic Character : Metallic character means the tendency of an atom to lose
electrons.
– Metallic character decreases across a period because the effective nuclear
charge increases that means the tendency to lose electrons decreases.
– Metals are electropositive as they tend to lose electrons while forming bonds.
– Metallic character increases as we go down a group as the effective nuclear
charge is decreasing. Non metals are electronegative. They tend to form
bonds by gaining electrons.
– Metals are found on the left side of the period table while non-metals are
towards the right hand side of the periodic table.
– In the middle we have semi-metals or metalloid because they exhibit some
properties of both metals and non metals.
– Oxides of metals are basic in nature while oxides of non-metals are acidic in
nature.
(Refer the table given on side page)

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Gradation in Periodic Properties
S. Property Variation Reason Variation Reason
No. across period along group

1. Atomic size Decreases Due to increase Increases due to addition

in nuclear charge of new shells.

due to increase in
distance between
outer most electron
and nucleus.

2. Metallic Decreases due to increase Increases due to decrease in

Character in effective effective nuclear
nuclear charge charge tendency to
tendency to lose lose valence electrons
valence electrons increases.
decreases.

3. Non-Metallic Increases due to increase Decreases due to decrease in

Character in effective effective nuclear
nuclear charge charge tendency to
tendency to gain gain electron
electrons increases decreases

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 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answer type Questions. (1 mark)

1. Write down three elements which represent Dobereiner’s triad.

2. Write down two drawbacks of Newland’s law of octaves.

3. Which important property did Mendeleev used to classify the elements in his
periodic table.

4. Explain why the number of elements in the third period is 8?

5. Name the most metallic and most non-metallic element in the periodic table.

6. Define Isotopes.

7. What was the need for classification of elements?

8. Name two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shell.

9. How many vertical columns and horizontal rows are there in modern periodic
table. What is the special name assigned to them?

10. Name the element having electronic configuration 2, 8, 2.

Short Answer type Questions (2 Marks)

1. Why He, Ne and Ar are called inert gases?

2. Which one has greater atomic size – Cl or Br?

3. What were the drawbacks of Mendeleev’s periodic table? Write any two.

4. How does the tendency to lose electrons will change in a group and why?

5. Justify the statement – Atomic size of an element decreases along a period

whereas increasing down the group.

6. Why metallic oxides are basic in nature whereas Non-metallic oxides are
acidic in nature.

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Long Answer Type (3 Marks)

1. How do we calculate the valency of an element from its electronic configuration?

– How does the valency vary in a period?

– How does the valency vary in going down a group?

2. Study the variation in the atomic radii of elements given below and arrange
them in an increasing order

Na Li Rb Cs K

186 152 246 262 231

ii) Name the element which has the smallest and the largest atoms.

iii) How does the atomic size vary as we go down a group.

3. Four elements ABCD along with their electronic configurations are given
below

Elements – A B C D

Electronic Configuration – 2, 1 2, 8 2, 8, 1 2, 8, 8

4. Now answer the following questions

a) Which two elements belong to the same period,

b) Which two elements belong to the same group

c) Which element out of A and C is more reactive and why?

Long Answer Type Question (5 Marks)

1. Write down five major differences between Mendeleev periodic table and
modern periodic table.

2. Examine elements of the third period and classify them as metals and non
metals.

ii) On which side of the table do you find metals and why.

iii) On which side of the table do you find the non-metals and why?
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 CHAPTER – 6

LIFE PROCESSES
All living things perform certain life processes like growth, excretion, respiration,
circulation etc.
All the processes like respiration, digestion, which together keep the living organisms
alive and perform the job of body maintenance are called life processes.
Examples :

Kinds of nutrition in which in organic Kinds of nutrition in which in organisms do

materials like CO2, water etc are utilized to not possess the ability to synthesize their
prepare organic food by the process of own food. They depend on autotrophs for
photosyntheses their food supply directly or indirectly.
Eg. Green Plants eg. Animals, Fungi

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Autotrophic Nutrition :
The organisms which carry out autotrophic nutrition are called autotrophs (green
plants)

Autotrophic nutrition is fulfilled by the process by which autotrophs take in CO2 and
H2O and convert these into carlohydrates in the presence of chlorophyll, sunlight is
called PHOTOSYNTHESIS
Equation :

Raw Materials for Photosynthesis :

q Sunlight
q Chlorophyl  Sunlight absorbed by chlorophyll
q CO2  enters through Stomata, and Oxygen (O2) is released as by product
through stomata on leaf.
q Water  water + dissolved minerals like Nitrogen phosphorous etc are taken
up by the roots from the soil.
Site of Photosynthesis :
Chloroplast in the leaf. Chloroplast contain chlorophyll. (green pigment)
Main Events of Photosynthesis :
q Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
q Conversion of light energy into chemical energy + splitting (breaking) of water
into hydrogen and oxygen.
q Reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates.
STOMATA : Tiny pores present on the surface of the leaves
FUNCTIONS :
(i) Exchange of gases O2/CO2
(ii) Loses large amount of water [water vapour] during transpiration.

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How do organisms obtain their food
Unicellular / single celled organism : food is taken up through entire surface.
Example : (i) Amoeba. (ii) Paramaecium

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 NUTRITION IN HUMAN BEINGS
The human digestive system comprises of alimentary canal and associated disgestive
glands.
Mouth  Intake of whole food

Teeth  Chewing/grinding of food.

Tongue  Rolling of food
 +
Tasting of food
+
Swallowing / pushing down of the food
Salivary Glands  Secrete Saliva + Mucus.
Salivary

→
 Starch amylase Sugar
[Saliva]
Oesophagus  Taking food from mouth to stomach by
 Peristaltic movements
[contraction and expansion of muscles of the oesophagus]
Stomach  Gastric glands secrete Gastric juice

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Small Intestinal 

Small Intestine  Villi → helps in absorption of food into the blood.
[finger like projections]

small intestine  Receives

secretion from

Emulsification : The process of breakdown of large fat

globules into smaller fat globules by bile juice.

Large intestine  Absorb excess of water.

 The rest of the material is removed from the body via the
anus. (Egestion)

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 Respiration
Respiration involves
(i) Gaseous exchange : Intake of oxygen from the atmosphere and release of
CO2 → Breathing
(ii) Breakdown of simple food in order to release energy inside the cell → Cellular
Respiration
Breakdown of Glucose by various pathways

* Takes place in the presence of * Takes place in the absence of

oxygen oxygen
* Occurs in mitochondria * Occurs in cytoplasm
* End products are CO2 and H2O * End products are alcohol or lactic
* More amount of energy is released acid.
* Less amount of energy is released.
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 Human Respiratory System
Passage of air through the respiratory system.
Nostril

Nasal Passage

Nasal Cavity

Pharynx

Larynx

Trachea

Bronchi

Lungs

Bronchioles

Alveolar → Blood capillaries

* During inhalation the thoracic * Thoracic cavity contracts

cavity (chest cavity) expands * Ribs move downwards
* Ribs lift up Diaphragm becomes dome shaped
* Diaphragm become flat in shape * Volume of lungs decreases and air
* Volume of lungs increases and air exits from the lungs.
enters the lungs

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Exchange of Gases between alveolus, blood and tissues.

Terrestial Organism – use atmospheric oxygen for respiration

Aquatic Organisms – used dissolved oxygen for respiration
Respiration in Plants :
Respiration in plants is simpler than the respiration in animals. Gaseous exchange
occur through
1. Stomata in leaves
2. Lenticels in stems
3. General surface of the roots.

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 Life Process (II)
Transporation and Excretion
– Human beings like other multicellular organism need regular supply of food,
oxygen etc., This function is performed by circulatory system or Transport
system.
– The circulatory system in human beings consists of :
The circulatory system in human beings consists of :

A Pumping Organ Blood vessels A circulatory medium

Heart - Arteries & Veins Blood & Lymph

Deoxygenate Vena Right Right Right

Blood Cava Atrium Atrium Ventricle
(from body) (Relaxed) (contracts) (relaxed)

Body Parts Right

Blood Circulation ventricle
in Human Heart contracts
via AoRTA
Lungs
Left Left Left Left Oxygenated
Ventricle Ventricle Atrium Atrium blood
(contracts) (relaxed) (contracts) (relaxed)
AORTA

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 Blood
(A fluid Connective Tissue)

Solid Component Liquid Component

Blood Corpuscles PLASMA

R.B.C.s Blood W.B.C.

A yellow colour fluid
Platelets
Provide Body contain 90% water &
- carries respect helps in defence by 10% Organic substances
gas (O2, CO2) Blood engulfing the like
- contain Hb Clotting germ cells & - Plasma Proteins viz.
impart red colour producing albumin, globulin
to me blood antibodies inorganic-mineral ions

- Lymph - a yellowish fluids escapes from the blood capillaries into the
intercellular spaces contain less proteins than blood. Lymph flows from the
tissues to the heart assisting in transportation and destroying germs.
Blood Vessels

Arteries Veins
1. Carry Oxygenated blood from 1. Carry deoxygenated blood
heart to body part except from body parts to heart
pulmonary Artery except pulmonary vein.
2. Also called distributing Vessel 2. Also called collecting Vessel.
3. Thick and elastic 3. Thin and Less elastic.

Transportation in Plants
- There are two main conducting Pathways in a Plant

Xylem Phloem
1. Carries water & minerals 1. Carries product of
from the roots to other part photosynthesis from leaves
of the plant to the other part of the plant.
2. No energy is used. 2. Energy is used from ATP

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– Transpiration is the process of loss of water as vapour from aerial parts of the
plant.
Function :
1. Absorption and upward movement of water and minerals by creating
PULL.
2. helps in temperature regulation in Plant.
– Transport of food from leaves (food factory) to different part of the plant is
called Translocation.
EXCRETION
– The process of the removal of the harmful metabolic wastes from the body.
– Excretory system of human beings includes :
1) A pair of kidneys
ii) A Urinary Bladder
iii) A pair of Ureter
iv) A Urethera

– Urine produced in the kidneys passes through the ureters into the urinary
bladder where it is stored until it is released through the urethera.
– The purpose of making urine is to filter out waste product from the blood ie,
urea which is produced in the liver.
– Each kidney has large numbers of filtration units called nephrons.
– The Urine formation involves three steps
1. Glomerular Filtration : Nitrogenous wastes, glucose water, amino acid
filter from the blood into Bowman Capsule of the nephron.
2. Tubular reabsorption : Now, useful substances from the filtrate are
reabsorbed back by capillaries surrounding the nephron.
3. Secretion Extra, water, salts are secreted into the tubule which open up
into the collecting duct & then into the ureter.

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– Haemodialysis : The process of purifying blood by an artificial kidney. it is
meant for Kidney failure patient.
Excretion in Plants

Through stomata
– Oxygen, CO2 & H2O (Transpiration)

– Other wastes may be stored in leaves, bark etc. which fall off from the plant.
– Plants excrete some waste into the soil around them.
– Gums, Resin fi
In old Xylem
– Some metabolic wastes in the form of crystals of Calcium oxalates in the
leaves of colocasia and stem of Zamikand.

Life Processes
EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. State one difference between autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of
nutrition.
2. What will happen to a plant if the xylem is removed.
3. What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food?
4. Name the tissue that transports water and minerals in plants.
5. What is the role of acid in our stomach?
6. What is emulsification
7. Name the organelle in which photosynthesis occur.
8. Name the largest artery in the human body.
9. Define transpiration
10. What are structural and functional unit of kidneys called.
Short Answers (2 Marks or 3 Marks)
1. How is small intestine designed to absorb digested food?
2. What are stomata? Draw a labelled diagram of stomata.

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3. Write the equation for the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell
i) in the presence of oxygen
ii) in the absence of oxygen.
4. Write the difference between inhalation and exhalation.
5. List the three events which occur during photo synthesis.
6. How does transpiration helps in upward transport of substances.
7. Describe the process of double circulation in human beings.
8. Write the functions of the components of blood.
Long Answers (5 Marks)
1. Explain the process of digestion of food in mouth stomach and small
intestine in human body. Draw a well labelled diagram.
2. Draw a diagram showing Human Respiratory system. Label the following
parts
i) Larynx ii) Trachea
iii) Bronchus iv) Lungs

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 CHAPTER – 8
How do Organisms Reproduce
– Reproduction is the process by which living organisms produce new
individuals similar to themselves.
– Reproduction ensured continuity of life on earth.
– Reproduction - A bridge to hereditary transmission.
– It involves continuation of characters from the parents to daughter cells by
Copying of DNA (Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid) molecules present in the
chromosomes of the cell.
– Copying of DNAs is also not a foolproof exercise, even minute changes bring
about Variation in the blue print of the offsprings.
– The useful variations are retained while the harmful one does not go beyond.
– Actually variations help the species to withstand drastic environmental
changes, thus save the species from becoming extinct and promotes its
survival for a longer time.
– This inbuilt tendency of variation is the "fuel" for Evolution.
REPRODUCTION

Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction

1. A single parent is involved 1. Both Parents involved
2. Gametes not formed 2. Gametes are formed
3. Progeny is Identical to parent 3. Progeny is only genetically
eg. Fission in Amoeba similar to the parent.

– Asexual Reproduction is extremely useful as a mean of rapid multiplication.

It is common in lower plants and animals.
– Different form of Asexual Reproduction.
1. FISSION : the parent cell divides/splits into two daughter cell-Binary
Fission; splits into many cells-multiple Fission

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2. BUDDING : A new organism is produced as an outgrowth of the parent
body part.

3. Spore Formation : Spores are

small, bulb like structure develops
at the top of the erect hyphae of the
fungus plant, released into the air
and germinate, into new
individuals after landing into food
or soil.

4. FRAGMENTATION : It is the accidental process when the broken pieces

of an organism (fragments) grows into a complete organism.

eg. fragmentation in
spirogyra

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 5. REGENERATION : When the simple animals like Hydra Planaria
develop a new individual from their broken older part it is known as
regeneration. It is carried out by specialised cells which grow large numbers
of cells.

VEGETATIVE PROPAGATION :
A mode of reproduction in which part like the stem, root, leaves develop into new
plant under favourable conditions.
Benefits
1. Plants can bear flowers, fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.
2. Growing Banana, orange, rose, jasmine that have lost the capacity to produce
seeds.
3. Genetical similarity is maintained in the plants.
eg. Sugarcane, rose, grapes by layering or grafting.
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
When reproduction takes place as a result of fusion between two gamets, one from
each parent, it is called sexual reproduction.
– This process of fusion between two gamets is called fertilization.
– The formation of gamets involves exchange of chromosomal (genetic)
fragments between homologous chromosomes causing genetic
recombination which leads to variation.
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS
It occurs mostly in flowering plants. In fact flowers are the reproductive organ of
plants.

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 FLOWERS

Bisexual Flowers Unisexual Flowers

Both male and female Either male or female
reproductive part i.e., stamen & reproductive part is present.
carpel present. Eg. Papaya, Watermelon
Eg. Hibiscus, mustard

A typical flower consists of four main whorls namely calyx (sepals), Corolla
(Petals), Androecium (Stamens) and Gynoecium (Carpels).

Reproductive Part of Flower

STAMEN CARPEL
(male part (female part)
(2n) Style Stigma
Filament Anther Ovary
(2n)
MEIOSIS Egg cell (ovule) [n]
(n) Pollen grain
(male gamet)
– Pollen grains of a flower transfer to stigma of the carpel of the same flower
(Self-Pollination) or to the carpel of the another flower (Cross-Pollination).
– This transfer of pollens is achieved by agent like wind, water or animals.
– After Pollination, the pollen grains reach to the egg cell in the form of a pollen
tube.

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– Fertilization : The fusion between the pollen grain and female egg cell. It
occurs inside the ovary. Zygote is produced in this process.

– Zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule
develops a tough coat and is converted into a seed.
– Ovary grows rapidly and ripens to forms a fruit, while the seed contains the
future plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under suitable
condition. This process is known as Germination.
REPRODUCTION IN HUMAN BEINGS
– Humans use a Sexual Mode of reproduction.
– It needs sexual maturation which includes creation of the germ cells ie, egg
(ova) in the female and sperm in the male partener & this period of sexual
maturation is called Puberty.
– Human beings have a well developed male and female reproductive system.
– The formation of male germ cell (sperms) takes place in the testes (male
reproducture organ)
– Actually a pair of testes are located inside scrotum situated outside the
abdominal cavity. It is meant to keep relatively a low temperature needed for
the production of sperms by testes.
– Moreover testes release a male sex hormone called testosterone whose
function is to:
1. Regulate the production of sperm
2. Brings about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.

76 X-Science
– The sperms along with the secretion of prostate gland and seminal vesicle,
together constitute semen, which is released and made to enter into the female
genital tract during Copulation.

FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

?
The female germ cells or eggs are made in the ovaries, a pair of which is
located in both side of abdomen.
?
When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of immature eggs.
?
At the puberty, some of these Eggs start maturing. One egg is produced every
month by one of the ovaries.
?
The Egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through a fallopian tube. These
two fallopian tube unite into an elastic bag like structure known as Uterus.
?
The Uterus opens into the vagina through the cervix.
?
Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube of female genital tract.
The fertilized egg also called zygote (2n) gets implanted in the lining of the
?
Uterus, and start dividing. Actually uterus is richly supplied with blood to
nourish the growing embryo. If zygote is not formed, the inner wall of uterus
breaks which causes bleeding through vagina. This process is called
MENSTRUATION. It occurs at a regular interval of 28 days.
The Embroyo gets nutrition fromthe mother's blood with the help of a special
?
tissue called PLACENTA. It provides a large surface area for glucose and
oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. Similarly the wastes from
developing embryo are removed to mother's blood through placenta.
The child is born as a result of rhythmic contractions of the muscles in the
?
uterus. after Nine months (36 weeks) of development inside mother's womb.
It is also called Gestation Period.

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 The sexual cycle in a woman continues upto the age of 45 to 50 years. After
that the ovary do not release egg. This stage is called Menopause. It a also
marks the end of menstruation in the woman.
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Reproductive Health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproductive,
?
ie., physical emotional, social and behavioural.
Contraception : It is the avoidance of pregnancy. It can be achieved by
?
Methods of contraception

PHYSICAL SURGICAL CHEMICAL

BARRIER METHOD METHOD

To prevent union of Also called sterilization Oral contraceptive

sperm & egg. in Vasectomy, the vas (OCs) - changes the
Use of condoms, deferens of male is hormonal balance to
Diaphragm & cervical blocked to prevent check the egg release in
caps. sperm transfer. females. OCs cause side
In Tubectomy, the effect.
fallopian tube of female
is blocked to prevent
egg to reach uterus.
Copper-T or loop is
placed in uterus to
prevent pregancy.

Healthy society needs a balanced sex ratio that can be achieved by educating
?
the people to avoid malpractices like female foeticide & pre-natal sex
determination.
Sexually Transmitted Disease (STDs)

VIRAL STDs Bacterial STDs

Eg. H.I.V. - AIDS Eg. Syphilis &
Warts Gonorrhoea
STDs are communicated during unsafe sexual contact.

78 X-Science
 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
1. Where is the DNA present in the cell?
2. What is bisexual/hermaphrodite?
3. Write suitable condition necessary for seed germmration.
4. Write the function of the secretion of seminal vesicle and prostate gland.
5. Name the part of female body in which the egg is fertilized.
6. Name the chemical method to prevent the pregnancy.
2 Marks
7. What is importance of DNA copying in reproduction.
8. Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the
individual?
9. Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some types of plants?
10. Name any two STDs. What measures can you suggest to prevent them.
11. Distinguish between male & female gamete.
12. Write two important function of testosterone.
13. What is placenta. Also write its two functions?
14. Draw a well labelled diagram of human female reproductive system.
Explain the menstrual cycle of female.
15. Draw a labelled diagram to explain the fertilization in the higher plant.

79 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 7
Control and Coordination
Living organisms respond and react to various stimuli like heat, light, cold, touch,
pressure etc. Plants and animals both respond to stimuli but in different manner.
Example : withdrawl of hand on touching a hot object.
Control and Coordination in Animals
It is brought about in all animals with the help of two main systems
a) Nervous System b) Endocrine System
Nervous System :
Functions
i) To receive the information from environment
ii) To receive the information from various
body parts. (Stimuli fi
Response)
iii) To act accordingly through muscles and glands.
Stimulus : Any change in environment or within that bring about the reaction eg:
touching a hot plate.
Response : The reaction of our body to these changes. eg. withdrawal of our hand
How do we detect that we are touching a hot object?
Receptors : Are specialised tips of some nerve cells that detect the information
from the environment.
Receptors
are
Sense Organs

Inner Photo receptors Skin Olfactory Gustatory

Ear Eyes Receptor Receptor
(Nose) (Tongue)
Hearing/ Visual Pain Smell Taste
Balance of Stimulus Touch Detection Detection
the body Heat

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 Neuron : Structural and functional unit of nervous system.
Neuron (3 main parts)

I II III
Dendrite Cell body Synapse
and Axon

Information is Information Part where

acquired travels as an electrical signal
electrical impulse is converted into
chemical message
for onward transmission
to next neuron
by release of neurotransmitters

Nucleus
Nerve
Dendrite ending
Axon

Cellpody
Structure of neuron
Fig. 7.1 (a) P 115
Synapse : The point of contact between the terminal branches of axon of one
neuron with the dendrite of another neuron is called synapse.
Reflex Action
A quick, sudden, immediate response of the body to the certain stimuli that
involves Spinal cord. eg. (not brain) withdrawal of hand, knee jerk etc.
Reflex arc : The pathway through which impulses pass is called reflex arc.

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 Stimulus RECEPTOR Sensory Nerves
› ORGAN
eg. Heat (SKIN)
Spinal Cord

Response EFFECTOR
› ORGAN Motor Nerves
eg. Withdrawal (MUSCLE)
of
Hand
Refer to diagram Fig 7.2 Reflex arc

Response
Responses are of three main types
Voluntary : Controlled by fore brain
eg. Talking, Writing
Involuntary : Controlled by mid and hind brain
eg. Heart beat, vomiting, regulation of heartbeat
Reflex action : controlled by spinal cord
eg. Withdrawl of hand on touching a hot object.
Human Nervous System

Central Nervous Peripheral Autonomic

System Nervous Nervous
System System
(CNS (PNS) (ANS)

Brain Spinal Cranial Spinal Sympathetic Para

Cord. Nerves Nerves Nervous Sympathetic
System Nervous
Fore Brain Arise from Arise from System
Mid Brain the brain Spinal Card

Hind Brain

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 Human Brain
Human brain has three major parts or regions
a) Forebrain b) Mid Brain c) Hind Brain
FOREBRAIN
Most complex/specialized part of the brain is CEREBRUM

FUNCTIONS :
1. Thinking part of the brain
2. Control the voluntary actions.
3. Store information (Memory)
4. Centre associated with HUNGER
5. Receives sensory impulses from various body parts and integrates it
Mid Brain :
HYPOTHALAMUS : Chemical co-ordination
PITUITARY GLAND : Secretes hormones
Hind Brain :
CEREBELLUM i) Controls posture and balance
ii) Control precision of voluntary actions
MEDULLA Controls involuntary actions
eg. blood pressure, salivation, vomiting
PONS Involuntary action, regulation of respiration

Fig 7.3 Human Brain

66 X-Science
 PROTECTION OF BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD
Brain : Brain is protected by a fluid filled balloon which acts as shock
absorber and enclosed in cranium (Brain Box)
Spinal Cord : Spinal Cord is enclosed in Vertebral column.

Coordination between Nervous and Muscular Tissue

Information Central Information
[collected by Nervous Processed
Nervous tissue] System by
(Sensory Nerve) [CNS] [CNS]

Action Decesion
made
[by CNS]
Muscle shorten (Motor Nerves)
Message
Contraction Muscles Passed to
[Muscle cell] [Change in shape muscles
and arrangement
of proteins]
Coordination in Plants
Movement in Plants

Movement dependent Movement independent

on growth of growth
[immediate response
to stimulus]
Tropic movements eg. dropping of leaves
[directional movements of Touch-me-not
in response to stimulus] plant on touching it

Phototropism Geotropism Chemotropism Hydrotropism

Movement Movement Movement Movement

towards light towards gravity towards Chemicals/ towards /
growth of pollen water
tube towards avule

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Plant hormones :
Are chemical compounds which help to coordinate growth, development and
responses to the environment.
Plant hormones : Main plant hormones are :
a) Auxin : [Synthesized at shoot tip]
Function : – Helps in growth
Phototropism : more growth of cells towards light.
b) Gibberellin : Helps in the growth of the stem
c) Cytokinins : Promotes cell division
d) Abscisic acid : Inhibits growth, cause witting of leaves.
(Stress hormone)
Hormones in Animals
Hormones : These are the chemical messengers secreted in very small amounts by
specialised tissues called ductless glands. They act on target tissues/organs usually
away from their source.
Endocrine System helps in control and coordination through chemical compounds
called HORMONES

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 S. Hormone Endocrine Location Functions
No. Gland

1. Thyroxine Thyroid Neck/ Regulation of metabolism

Throat of carbohydrates, fats
region and proteins.

2. Growth Pituitary Mid Regulates growth and

hormone development.

3. Adrenaline Adrenal Above Regulation (increasing)

both of blood pressure, heart
kidneys heat, carbohydrate
metabolism (during
emergency)
G

{
4. Testosterone Testes O
Genital/ Changes associated
SEX in Males N lower with puberty
Hormone A abdomen (Sexual maturity)
D
estrogen Ovaries S area

5. Insulin Pancreas Below Reduces and regulates

stomach blood sugar level

IODISED SALT IS NECESSARY BECAUSE :

Iodine mineral is essential part of thyronine hormone so it is important that we
must consume iodised salt as in turn it is essential for thyroid gland as it controls
carbohydrate, proteins and fat metabolism for best balance of growth deficiency of
iodine might cause disease called goitre
Diabetes :
Cause : It is due to deficiency of Insulin hormone secreted by Pancreas that is
responsible to lower/control the blood sugar levels.
Treatment : Patients have to internally administer injections of insulin hormone
fiwhich helps in regulating blood-sugar level.
Feedback Mechanism
fi makes sure that hormones should be secreted in precise quantities and at right
time, which is regulated by feedback mechanism.

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 Sugar level in the blood rises
SWITCH OFF
Feedback sent
Detected by cells of Pancreas

Synthesis insulin

Blood sugar level falls

(like a float in watertank)
Stop secreting more
insulin

EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. Where is auxin synthesized in plants?
2. Which gland is known as Master gland?
3. Name the hormone that regulates blood sugar level.
4. What is synapse.
5. What are tropic movements? Give one examples
6. Define hormones
7. Which hormone has inhibiting effect on growth of plants
8. What is phototropism?
9. What are the components of central Nervous System.
10. What happens at synapse between two neurons.
Short Answers (2 Marks)
1. Draw diagram of neuron and label cell body, dendrites and axon.
2. What is reflex arc? Explain with the help of a flow-chart.
3. Mention one function of each of the following
i) Cerebellum
ii) Pons.
4. What is the cause of diabetes? How it can be controlled.
5. Why it is advisable to use iodised salt.

70 X-Science
6. What are the different receptors present in our body? What are their
functions.
7. What are plant hormones? Name a plant hormone that promotes growth in
plants.
8. What are sensory and motor neurons? Write their functions.
Long Answers (5 Marks)
1. What are hormones (in animals) List four characteristics of hormones. Name
the hormone required for the following.
i) Development of moustache and beard in human male
ii) Lowering of blood glucose.
2. Mention the functions of
a) Fore brain
b) Mid brain
c) Hind brain

71 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 9
Heredity and Evolution
Genetics : Branch of science that deals with Heredity and variation.
Heredity : It means the transmission of features/ characters/ traits from one
generation to the next generation.
Variation : The differences among the individuals of a species/ population are
called variations.
MENDEL AND HIS WORK ON INHERITANCE
Gregor Johann Mendel (1822&1884) : Started his experiments on plant
breeding and hybridisation
Mendel fi
was known as Father of Genetics
Plant selected by Mendel : Pisum sativum (garden pea). Mendel used a number
of contrasting characters for garden pea.

TABLE OF CONTRASTING CHARACTERS. (SEVEN PARTS)

CHARACTER DOMINANT RECESSIVE
TRAIT TRAIT
Flower colour Purple White
Flower position Axial Terminal
Seed colour Yellow Green
Seed shape Round Wrinkled
Pod shape Inflated Constricted
Pod colour Green Yellow
Height of plant Tall Dwarf

Seven pairs of contrasting characters in Garden

Pea
Mendels Experiments : Mendel conducted a series of experiments in which he
crossed the pollinated plants to study one character (at a time)
Monohybrid Cross :
Cross between two pea plants with one pair (monohybrid cross) contrasting
characters
Example : Tall / Short Plants.

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PARENT Tall plant ·Dwarf plant
GENERATION
TT ·tt
GAMETES T T

Tt All tall plants

F1 GENERATION
(first filal generation)

Tt · Tt
SELF POLLINATION
(F1) Tt (F1)

GAMETES
T t T E

TT Tt Tt tt
F2 GENERATION
(Second Final TALL TALL TALL SHORT
Gneration
Phenotypic ratio 3:1
Phenotypic ratio 1:2:1

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82 X-Science
TT Both dominant gene Pure or homozygous
tt Both recessive gene conditon

Tt One dominant, one Hetrozygous

recessive gene condition.
[Hybrid]
Phenotypic ratio : 3:1

Genotypic ratio : 1:2:1

Phenotype fi
Physical appearance [Tall or Short]
Genotype fi
Genetic make up [TT, Tt or tt]

Observations : 1. All F1 progeny were tall

(no medium height plant (half way characteristic)
2. F2 progeny ¼ were short
3. Phenotypic ratio F2 – 3:1
Genotypic ratio F2 – 1:2:1
Conclusions : 1. TT and Tt both are tall plants while tt is a short plant.
2. A single copy of T is enough to make the plant tall, while
both copies have to be 't' for the plant to be short.
3. Characters/Traits like 'T' are called dominant trait (because
it express itself) 't' are recessive trait (because it remains
supressed)
Dihybrid Cross : A cross macle between two plants having two pairs of
contrasting characters is called dihybrid cross.
PARENT ROUND ·WRINKLED
GENERATION GREEN SEEDS YELLOW SEEDS

RRYY rryy
GAMETES fl fl
RY ry
F1

RrYy
[round, yellow]

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 F1 · F1
Selfing F1fi RY RY G
A
Rr Yy Ry ·Rr Yy Ry H
E
rY rY T
E
ry ry S

fl
F2 RY Ry rY ry
RY RRYY RRYy RrYy RrYy
flRy RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
PHENOTYPIC RATIO : Round, yellow :9
Round, green :3
Wrinkled, yellow :3
Wrinkled, green :1
GENOTYPIC RATIO : RRYY ; 1
RRYy : 2
RrYY : 2
RRyy : 1
RrYy : 4
Rryy : 2
rrYY : 1
rrYy : 2
rryy : 1
RATIO : 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
Observations : 1. When RRYY was crossed with rryy in F1 generation all
were Rr Yy round and yellow seeds.
2. Self pollination of F1 plants gave parental phenotype + two
mixtures (recombinants) Round wrinkled, green yellow :
seeds plants appeared in the ratio of 9:3:3:1
Conclussions : 1. Round and yellow seeds are DOMINANT characters
2. Occurence of new phenotypic combinations show that
genes for round and yellow seeds are inherited
independently of each other.

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 Sex Determination
Phenomenon of decision or determination of sex of an offspring
FACTORS
Responsible for Sex Determination

Environmental Genetic
In some animals the temperature In some animals like humans gender or
at which the fertilised eggs are individual is determined by a pair of
kept decides the gender. chromosome called sex chromosome
eg. in Turtle XX – Female
XY – Male
Sex Chromosomes : In human beings there are 23 pairs of chromosome. Out of
these 22 chromosomes pairs are called autosomes and the last pair of
chromosomes that help in deciding gender of that individual are called sex
chromosome.
XX – female
XY – male
Sex determination in Human beings
PARENTS : FATHER MOTHER
XY XX

GAMETES X Y X X
(Reproductive cells)

Zygote XX XX XY XY
formed FEMALE FEMALE MALE MALE
after fusion
of gametes 50% probability 50% probability
of a female child of a male child

This shows that half the children will be boys and half will be girls. All children
will in herit an X chromosome from their mother regardless whether they are boys
or girls. Thus sex of children will be determined by what they inherit from their
father, and not from their mother.

85 X-Science
 Evolution
SITUATION-I
Group of red beetles

Colour variation arises during reproduction

All beetles red except One beetle Green

one that is green Reproduction
Crows feed on red beetle Progeny beetles green

No. of beetles reduces Crow could not feed on

green beetles as they
got camouflaged
in green bushes

Number of green
beetles increases
Situation 1 : Green beetles got the survival advantage or they were naturally
selected as they were not visible in green bushes. This natural selection is exerted
by crows resulting in adaptations in the beetles to fit better in their environment
SITUATION-II
Group of red beetles
Reproduction
All beetles are red except one
that is blue One blue beetle
Reproduces Reproduces
Number of red beetle No. of blue
increases beetle increases

Crows can see both blue and red beetles and can eat them

Number reduces but still red beetles are more and blue ones are few

Suddenly elephant comes and stamps on the bushes

But now beetles left are mostly blue.

86 X-Science
Situation 2 : Blue beetles did not get survivals advantage. Elephant suddenly
caused major havoc in beetle population otherwise there number would have been
considerably large.
From this we can conclude that accidents can change the frequency of some genes
even if they do not get survival advantage: This is called genetic drift and it leads to
variation.
Mechanism of Heredity
Characters or traits of an organism are controlled by the genes
A Section of DNA (cellular)

Gene

Provides information

For synthesis of Proteins

Proteins controls a character

Example :
Gene T responsible for More Results
synthesis of efficient production in
enzyme (Protein) of growth Tall
hormone Plants
Gene t responsible for Less Results
synthesis of less production in
efficient enzyme of growth short
hormone Plants

87 X-Science
 Genetic drift. It leads to diversity without any adaptation
SITUATION-III
Group of red beetles

Habitat of beetles (bushes)

Suffer from plant disease

Average weight of beetles

decreases due to poor nourishment

No of beetles kept on reducing

Later plant disease gets eliminated

Number and average weight of the beetles

increases again
Situation 3 : No genetic change has occured in the population of beetle. The
population gets affected for a short duration only due to environmental changes

Acquired and Inherited Traits

Acquired Traits Inherited Traits
1. These are the traits which are 1. These are the traits which are
developed in an individual due passed from one generation to
to special conditions the next.
2. They cannot be transferred to 2. They get transferred to the
the progeny progeny.
3. They cannot direct evolution 3. They are helpful in evolution.
eg. Low weight of starving eg. Colour of eyes and hair
beetles.

88 X-Science
 Speciation
Micro evolution : It is the evolution which is on a small scale. eg. change in body
colour of beetles.
Speciation : it is the process of formation of new species.
Species : A group of similar individuals that along to a population that can
interbreed and produce ferrite off spring.
Geneflow : It is exchange of genetic material by interbreeding between
populations of same species or individuals
WAYS BY WHICH SPECIATION TAKES PLACE

Speciation takes place when variation is combined with geographical isolation.

Gene flow : occurs between population that are partly but not completely
seperated
Interbreeding
Sub Population Gene Variation
X1 (local) flow in
[Reproduction] Local
population
Sub Population
X1 (migrant)

Genetic Drift
It is the random change in the frequency of alleles (gene pair) in a population over
successive generations.
*Natural Selection : The process by which nature selects and consolidate those
organisms which are more suitably adapted and posesses favorable variations
POPULATION Z

Sub Population GEOGRAPHICAL Sub Population

Z1 BARRIER Z2
ISOLATION
(River, Mountain)

Over many-many generations

89 X-Science
 Results in Accumulation of different variations in
Sub population Z1 and Z2

Genetic drift

Natural selection

Sub population Z1 and Z2 incapable

of interbreeding
Reproductive
Barrier
Formation of Formation of
new Species 1 new Species 2

Genetic drift takes place due to

a) Severe changes in the DNA
b) Change in number of chromosomes

Evolution and classification

Both evolution and classification
are interlinked.
1. Classification of species is
reflection of their
evolutionary relationship.
2. The more characteristic two
species have in common the
more closely they are
related.
3. The more closely they are
related, the more recently
they have a common
ancestor.
4. S i m i l a r i t i e s a m o n g
organisms allow us to group
them together and to study
their characteristic

90 X-Science
 Tracing Evolutionary Relationships
(Evidences of Evolution)

I. Homologous Organs : (Morphological and anatomical evidences. These are

the organs that have same basic structural plan and origin but different
functions.
Example :
Forelimb of Horse (Running) Same basic
Winds of bat (flying) plan,
Paw of a cat (walk/scratch/attack) different
functions
II. Analogous Organs : These are the organs that have different origin and
structural plan but same function example :
Design different
Wings of bat fi elongated fingers with skin folds same function
ie. flight
Wings of bird fi Feathery covering along the arm
III. Fossils : (Palaeontological evidences)
The remains and relics of dead organisms of the past.
Example :
i) Fossil of wooly mammoth
ii) Archeopteryx (fossil bird)
iii) Dead insect caught in hot mud.
FOSSILS ARE PRESERVED TRACES OF LIVING ORGANISMS
Eg. AMMONITE - Fossil invertebrate
TRILOBITE - Fossil in vertebrate
KNIGHTIA - Fossil fish
RAJASAURUS - Fossil dinosaur skull

91 X-Science
 AGE OF THE FOSSILS
1. ...........................
i. Deeper the fossil, older it is. 2. ...........................
Recent
II. Detecting the ratios of different of 3. ...........................
the same element in the fossil 4. ...........................
material ie Radio-carbon dating.
5. ..........................
[C-(14) dating) Older
6. ..........................
Evolution by stages
Evolution takes place in stages ie bit by bit over generations.
I. Fitness advantage
Evolution of Eyes
Evolution of complex organs is not sudden it occurs due to minor changes
in DNA, however takes place bit by bit over generations.
enough to
Flat worm has rudimentary eyes give fitness
advantage
Insects have compound eyes
Humans have binocular eyes
II. Functional Advantage
Evolutions of feathers
Feathers fi
provide insulation in cold weather
but later they might become useful for flight.
Example :
Dinosaurs had feathers, but could not fly using feathers. Birds seem to have
later adapted the feathers to flight.
Artificial Selection :
Humans have been a powerful agent in modifying wild species to suit their own
requirement through out ages by using artificial selection. eg (i) Wild cabbage the
dissimilar looking structures have evolved from a common ancestral design. (ii)
Wheat (many varieties obtained due to artificial selection)

92 X-Science
 WILD KALE
CABBAGE
CABBAGE

with larger
leaves
with short distance
between the leaves
BROCCOLI KOHL RABI
CAULIFLOWER

Has sterile With Swollen

Arrested flower flowers parts
development

Molecular Phylogeny :
It is based on the idea that changes in DNA during reproduction are the basic
?
events in evolution
Organisms which are more distantly related will accumulate greater
?
differences in their DNA

93 X-Science
 Human Evolution
Tools to Study Human Evolutionary Relationship

Excavating Time dating Fossils Determining

DNA
Sequences
Although there is great diversity of human forms all over the world get all humans
are a single species
GENETIC FOOTPRINTS OF HUMANS
Hundreds/thousand of years ago
Earliest members arose in Africa
East Asia
South Africa

Africa Island West Central Australia

Philippines of Asia Asia Eurasia
Indonesia

They did'nt go in a single line

?
They went forward and backward
?
Moved in and out of Africa
?
Sometimes came back to mix with each other.
?

94 X-Science
 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. Define variation
2. What is monohybird cross?
3. What is dominant trait.
4. What are genes?
5. Define Homologous organs
6. If an individual has XX chromosome [22+XX] will that individual be male
or female.
7. Which plant Mendel had choosen for his experiments.
8. How do Mendel's experiment show that traits may be dominant or recessive?
9. Define analogous organs? Give example.
Short Answers (2 Marks)
1. Differentiate between acquired and Inherited traits? Give example of each.
2. Explain what are fossils? How the age of fossils be determined
3. What is speciation? What factors lead to formation of a new species.
4. Explain the mechanism of sex determination in humans.
5. Differentiate between homologous and analogous organs. by giving
examples.
6. Define inheritance. What are the units of inheritance
7. What is genetic drift? How it contributes to the formation of new species
8. Explain monohydrid cross by taking tall and dwarf plants. Mention the
phenotypic and genotypic ratio of F1 and F2 off springs.
Long Answer (5 Marks each)
1. Explain the process of artificial selection by taking the example of wild
cabbage plant.
2. Explain about the human evolution.

95 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 10
LIGHT-REFLECTION
& REFRACTION
Light is a form of energy, which enable us to see the object.
In this chapter we will study the phenomena of reflection and refraction using the
property of light i.e. straight line propagation (Light wave travel from one point to
another, along a straight line).
Reflection of Light
When the light is allowed to fall on highly polished surface, such as mirror, most of
the light gets reflected. normal
Laws of Reflection
1. The angle of incidence is always equal to
Reflected
angle of reflection. ray
Incident
— i=— r ray
i r
2. The incident ray, reflected ray and the
normal to the reflecting surface at the
point of incidence lie in the same plane.
Points of incidences
Image formed by Plane Mirror (Plane reflecting surface)
Plane Mirror

A A1

Object Image

—
i
B —r B1

1) Virtual (imaginary) & Erect (Virtual The image that do not form on
screen.)
2) Laterally inverted (The left side of object appear on right side of image)
3) The size of image is equal to that of object
96 X-Science
4. The image formed is as for behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.
Reflection of light by spherical Mirrors
Mirrors, whose reflecting surface are curved inward or outward spherically are
called spherical mirror.
For example - Spoon } fi
The curved surface of shinning spoon can be considered
as curved mirror.
If it is curved inward fi
Act as concave mirror
If it is curved outward fi
Act as a convex mirror.

Reflecting Reflecting
side side

Concave Convex
Mirror mirror
OR CONVERGING OR DIVERGING
MIRROR MIRROR

Few Basic terms related to Spherical Mirror

Radius of curvature
Principal R Concave
P
Axis C F f Mirror
focal length

Radius of curvature
Principal R
Axis P f F C
focal length
Convex
Mirror

97 X-Science
1. Principal axis : Line joining the pole and centre of curvature of the spherical
mirror.
2. Pole : The geometrical central point of the reflecting spherical surface.
(aperture), denoted by (P).
3. Aperture : The width of reflecting spherical surface.
4. Centre of curvature : The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror form a part
of sphere. It has a centre, which is known as centre of curvature, denoted by
(C)
5. Radius of curvature : The separation between the pole and the centre of
curvature. ie. PC = R
6. Focus point : The point on the principal axis, where all parallel rays meet
after reflection, denoted by (F)
7. Focal length : The length between the pole and focus point i.e. PF = f
8. Relationship between focal length and Radius of curvature.
F= R
2
Image formation by spherical Mirror
Before we learn the formation of image or ray diagram, let us go through few tips
a) Remember, A say of light which is parallel to principle axis always pass
through focus (meet at focus) or vice-versa

P P
Principal C F Principal C F
Axis Axis CONCAVE
CONCAVE MIRROR
MIRROR

Principal P F C
Axis
CONVEX MIRROR
Appear as if coming
from focus pt in case of convex mirror

98 X-Science
 Principal P F C
Axis

b) A ray of light which passes through centre of curvature (it is also known as
normal at the point of incidence on spherical mirror) will retrace their path
after reflection

Pole (P)
Principal C F CONCAVE
Axis MIRROR

P
Principal F C CONVEX
Axis MIRROR

c) A ray of light falling on pole get reflected at the same angle on the other side of
principal axis.

i P —
i=—
r
r
C
F

—
i=—
r
— i
—
r F C

99 X-Science
Note : A ray of light passes through centre of cus-valerie reflecting spherical
surface is always act as normal at the point of incidence. If we know the normal we
can draw angle of incidence and angle of reflection

i
r
P
al
norm dence C F
ng t of inci
(passi c) at p
r oug h
th

—
r
—
i

P F C

Note : The image will only form when two or more rays meets at apoint. Image
formation by a concave mirror for different position of the object

1. Object Position of Nature

At infinity Image Real and
P At focus Inverted
C F
Size of
Image
Highly diminished
(point size)

2. Object A Position of Nature

Beyond C Image Real and
object
B1 — i P Between F&C Inverted
B C image F —
r

Size of
A1 Image
Small

3. Object Position of Nature

A Image
At C Real and
At C Inverted
B1 B P
F Size of
Image
A
Same Size
of object

100 X-Science
4. Object A — i=— r
Between C&F Object Position of Nature
B1 B —
i P Image Real and
—
r
C F Beyond C Inverted
Image
Size of Image
A 1 Enlarged

5. Object — i=— r
At F A Position of Nature
Image Real and
B —
i P At (infinity) Inverted
F —
r
C
Size of Image
Highly enlarged
A1

6. Object
Between F&P A
(Special Case)
—
i P
B —
r B1
C F
Position of Image Nature
Behind the mirror Virtual
and
Size of Image
Erect
Enlarged

Image formation by Convex Mirror

1. Object
At infinity P
F C

Position of Image Size of Image Nature

At focus Highly diminished Virtual & erect

101 X-Science
1. Object
Anywhere between
infinity and pole A
of the mirror A1
P
B B1 F

Position of Image Size of Image Nature

Between P & F Very small Virtual & erect

Uses of Concave Mirror

1. Used in torches, search light and headlight of vehicle.
2. Used to see large image of face as shaving mirror
3. Used by dentist to see large images of the teeth
4. Large concave mirror used to focus sunlight (heat) in solar furnaces.
Uses of Convex Mirror
1. Used as rear-view mirror in vehicles because it gives erect image. It also helps
the driver to view large area.
Sign Convention for Reflection by Spherical Mirror
1. The object is always placed to the left side of mirror.
2. All distance should be measured from pole (P); parallel to principal axis.
3. Take 'P' as origin. Distances measured
Right of the origin (+ x - Axis) are taken positive
Left of the origin (– x-Axis) are taken negative
Perpendicular to and above principal axis (+y-Axis) are taken positive
Perpendicular to and below principal axis (–y-Axis) are taken negative
+y

o (Cartesian system)
–x +x

–y

102 X-Science
MIRROR FORMULA
f fi
distance between F and Pole
1 1 1
v fi
distance of image from Pole
F = v + u
u fi
distance of object from Pole
R R fi
distance between centre of curvature and pole.
where f = 2

MAGNIFICATION
It is expressed as the ratio of the height of the image to height of the object
height of image h1
m= = 1
height of object h
It is also related to 'u' and 'v'
–v
m= u 2

\
from 1 and 2 equation
1
– v where h fi
image height from principle axis
1
h
m= h = u 1
h fi
Object height from principle axis.

It magnitude m > 1 _____ Image is magnified

m = 1 _____ Image is of same size
m < 1 _____ Image is dimirushed

Few tips to remember sign convention for Spherical mirror

Object height h fi
always positive | Image height h
1
} Real - negative
Virtual - positive
Object distance from pole u fi
is always negative

Image distance from pole v fi

}
Real - Image always negative
Virtual - Image always positive
Focal length f fi }
Concave mirror – always negative
Convex mirror – always positive
REFRACTION OF LIGHT
Refraction of Light : Happens in Transparent medium when a light travels from
one medium to another, refraction takes place.
A ray of light bends as it moves from one medium to another

103 X-Science
Refraction is due to change in the speed of light as it enters from one transparent
medium to another.
Speed of light decreases as the beam of light travel from rarer medium to the denser
medium.

normal normal

Incident Denser medium

Raver medium
Ray

Denser medium Rarer medium

Refracted Ray
When ray travel from Rarer to Denser it bends When ray travel from denser to
towards normal after refraction rarer medium it bends away
from normal

Some Commonly observed phenomenon due to Refraction

1. The stone at the bottom of water tub appear to be raised.
2. A fish kept in aquarium appear to be bigger than its actual size.
3. A pencil partially immersed in water appears to be displaced at the interface of
air and water.
Refraction through a Rectangular Glass Slab
A
N
Incident ray Air (Rarer Medium)
i1
K L
O

r1

1
Glass
i2 N (Denser
Medium)
1
N O M
e Air (Rarer Medium)
Here light ray changes is
1
direction at O and O , the
point at the interface of (Refracted Ray)
transparent medium. C
B

104 X-Science
When a incident ray of light AO passes from a rarer medium (air) to a denser
medium (glass) at point. O on interface AB, it will bends towards the normal. At pt
1
O , on interface DC the light ray entered from denser medium (glass) to rarer
medium (air) here the light ray will bend away from normal OO1is a refracted ray
OB is an emergent ray. If the incident ray is extended to C, we will observe that
emergent ray O1B is parallel to incident ray. The ray will slightly displaced laterally
after refraction.
Note : When a ray of light is incident normally to the interface of two media it will
go straight, without any deviation.
Laws of refraction of light-
1. The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two
transparent media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
2. The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a
constant ie.
Sin i constant
Sin r = (r)

for given colour and pair of media, this law is also known as Snells Law
Constant n is the refractive index for a given pair of medium. It is the refractive
index of the second medium with respect to first medium.
Sin i n2 Where 2 is for second
Sin r = n1 = n21 medium and 1 is for first
medium

Refractive Index
The refractive index of glass with respect is air is given by ratio of speed of light in
air to the speed of light in glass.
ng Speed of light in air c
nga = n = = v
a Speed of light in glass
C fi Speed of light in vacuum = 3· 108 m/s
speed of light in air is marginally less, compared to that in vacuum.
Refractive index of air with respect to glass is given by
na
( a fi
g fi
air
glass )
nag = n =
g
Speed of light in glass
Speed of light in air
v
= c

105 X-Science
The absolute refractive index of a medium is simply called refractive index
Speed of light in air c
nm = = v
Speed of light in the medium
Refractive index of water (nw) = 1.33
Refractive index of glass (ng) = 1.52

Spherical Lens
A transparent material bound by two surface, of which one or both surfaces are
spherical, forms a lens.
CONVEX LENS
A lens may have two spherical surfaces, bulging outwards, is
called double convex lens (or simply convex lens.
It is also known as converging lens because it converges the light.
CONCAVE LENS
A lens bounded by two spherical surfaces, curved inwards is
known as double concave lens (or simply concave lens)
It is also known as diverging lens because it diverges the light.
Few Basic Terms related to spherical lens.

R
Principal f Convex
Axis C1 F1 O F2 C2 Lens
or (2F1) or (2F2)
Optical
centre (O)

R
Optical centre (O)
Principal Concave
Axis C1 F1 O F2 C2 Lens

C1 O C2

106 X-Science
1. Centre of curvature - A lens, either a convex lens or a concave lens has two
spherical surfaces. Each of these surfaces form a part of sphere. The centre of
these two spheres are called centre of curvature represented by C1 and C2.
2. Principal axis - Imaginary straight line passing through the two centres of
curvature
3. Optical Centre - The central point of lens is its optical centre (O). A ray of
light, when passes through 'O' it remains undeviated i.e. it goes straight.
4. Aperture - The effective diameter of the circular outline of a spherical lens.
5. Focus of lens - Beam of light parallel is principal axis, after refraction from
1) Convex lens, converge to the point on principal axis, denoted by F,
known as Principal focus

Principal Axis
F1 O F2

2) Concave lens, appear to diverge from a point on the principal axis, known
as principal focus.

Principal
F1 O F2 Axis

The distance OF2 and OF1 is called as focal length

Tips for drawing Ray diagram
a) After refraction, a ray parallel to principal axis will pass through F.

Principal
Axis
F1 O F2 F1 O F2

(Converge) (Diverge)

107 X-Science
b) A ray passes through F, after refraction will emerge parallel to principal axis.

F2
Principal F1 F2 Principal
F1 Axis Axis
O O

c) A ray passes through optical centre 'O', paeses without any deviation.

Principal
F1 F2 F1 O F2 Axis
O

Image formation by a convex lens for various position of object

1. Object Position of Image Nature
At infinity At focus Real &
F2 inverted
Size of Image
2F1 F1 F2 2F2 Highly
diminished
(point size)
2. Object
Beyond 2F1
Position of Image Nature
A
Between F2 & 2F2 Real &
inverted
B1 Size of Image
B 2F1 F1 O 2F2 Small
F2
A1
3. Object
At 2F1
A
Position of Image Nature
B1
At 2F2 Real &
B
2F1 F1 F2 2F2 inverted
O Size of Image
Same size of
A1 object

108 X-Science
4. Object Position of Image Nature
Between F1 & 2F1 Beyond 2F2 Real &
A inverted
Size of Image
Enlarged
B
2F2 B1
2F1 F1 O F2

A1
Object
5. Position of Image Nature
At focus F1
at infinity Real &
A
inverted
Size of Image
B Highly Enlarged
2F1 F1 O F2 2F2

6. (Special Case) Size of Image Nature

A1 Enlarged
Object Virtual &
Between F1 and A Erect
optical centre 'O'
B1
Position of Image 2F1 F1 B O F2 2F2
On the same
side of the
object

Image formation by concave lens

1. Object Position of Image Nature
Alt infinity At F1 Virtual &
Size of Image Erect
Highly Diminished
2F1 F1 O F2 2F2

109 X-Science
2. Object Position of Image Nature
Between infinity Between F1 & O Virtual
and optical centre & Erect
Size of Image
(at any point)
Very small
A
A
B
2F1 F1 B O F2 2F2

Sign Convention for Refraction by spherical lens

Similar to that of spherical mirror, only the difference is that all the measurement
are made from optical centre 'O'
+ y-axis

o
– x-axis + x-axis

– y-axis

LENS FORMULA
'O' fioptical centre
1 1 – 1
= f - distance between F and 'O'
f v u
u - distance of object from 'O'
R v - distance of image from 'O'
f= r - distance between centre
2
of curvature & 'O'
MAGNIFICATION
It is defined as the ratio of the height of image to the height of object.
1
h – image height
m=
height of image
height of object
=
h
h
1

= 1
} from principal axis
h – object height
from principal axis
It is also related to 'u' & 'v'
v
m= 2
u

110 X-Science
 From equation 1 & 2
h1 v
m= =
h u

If magnitude of m > | fi
Image is magnified
m = 1 fi
Image is of same size
m < | fi
Image is deminished
Few tips to remember sign convention for spherical lens
Object height h fi
is always positive

Image height h1 Real fi is always negative

Virtual fi is always positive
Object distance from optical centre u fi
is always negative

Image distance from optical centre v fi }

Real fi positive
virtual fi
negative

Focal length v fi }
Convex lens fi
is always positive
Concave lens fi
is always negative
Power of Lens
The degree of convergence or divergence of light ray achieved by a lens is known
as power of a lens.
It is difined as the reciprocal of its focal length Represented by P
It f is given in meter, then
1
1 P=
f= f
f It f is given in cm, then
100
P=
f

SI unit of power of a lens is "dioptre" denoted by 'D'

I dioptre or ID fi
It is the power of lens whose focal length is 1m
1 –1
ID = OR ID = 1m
1m

111 X-Science
Power convex lens or converging lens is always positive

f is +ve
O F2

Power of concave lens or diverging lens is always negative

f is –ve
F1 O

If any optical instrument have many lens, then net power will be
P = P1 + P2 + P3....

EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. If the angle of incidence is O°, what is the angle of reflection?
2. What is the nature of image formed by concave mirror if the magnification
produced by the mirror is +3?
3. Give two uses of concave mirror?
4. Find the focal length of a convex mirror, whose radius of curvature is 30 cm?
5. What do you understand by magnification of a spherical mirror?
6. An object is held at the principal focus of a concave lens of focal length f.
Where the image will form?
7. Show the angle of incidence and angle of refection.

8. Complete the ray diagram.

2F1 F1 O F2 2F2

112 X-Science
9. Define the SI unit of power of lens.
10. When light undergoes refraction at the surface of seperation of two media,
what happens to speed of light.
Short Answer Type Questions (2-3 Marks)
1. What do you understand by refraction of light. Draw the labelled ray
diagram, when ray passes through glass slab.
8
2. The refractive index of glass is 1.54 and the speed of light in air is 3x10 m/s.
Calculate the speed of light in water?
3. A convex mirror used on an automobile has a focal length of 6m. If vehicle
behind is at a distance of 12m. Find the nature and location of image.
(4m, virtual erect small)
4. A concave lens of focal length 15cm, forms an image 10 cm from the lens.
How far is the object placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram?
5. Two thin lens of power +3.5D and - 2.5D are placed in contact. Find the
power and focal length, if the lens are in combination. (p = + 10, f = 1m)
6. What are the law of refraction. Define refractive index of a medium.
Very Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
1. Draw the ray diagram, showing the image formed by concave mirror, when
object is placed at
a) at infinity b) between F22F
c) At 2F d) At F
e) between F&P
2. Draw the ray diagram, showing the image formed by convex lens, when
object is placed at.
a) At infinity b) between F1 & 2F1
c) At 2F1 d) Beyond 2F1
e) between F1 & optical centre 'O'

113 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 11
The Hyman Eye and the Colourful World
In this chapter we will study Human eye that uses the light and enable us to see the
objects.
We will also use the idea of refraction of light in some optical phenomena in nature
i.e. Rainbow formation, twinkling of star, blue and red colour of sky etc.
Human Eye : A Sensitive sense organ
It acts like a camera, enable us to capture the colourful picture of the surroundings.
It forms an inverted, real image on light sensitive surface Retina

The Various parts of eye and their functions

1. Cornea : It is a thin membrane through which light enters. It forms the
transparent bulge on the front of eyeball. Most of the refraction occurs at the
outer surface of the cornea.
2. Eyeball : it is approximately spherical in shape, with a diameter of about
2.3cm.
3. Iris : It is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of pupil. It is
behind the cornea.
4. Pupil : It regulates and control the amount of light entering the eye. It is the
black opening between aqueous humour & lens.
5. Crystalline eye lens : Provide the focussed real & inverted image of the
object on the retina. It is composed of a fibrous, jelly like material. This is
convex lens that converges light at retina.

114 X-Science
6. Ciliary muscles : It helps to change the curvature of eyelens and hence
changes its focal length so that we can see the object clearly placed at different
positon.
7. Retina : Thin membrane with large no. of sensitive cells.
8. When image formed at retina, light sensitive cells gets activated and generate
electrical signal. These signals are sent to brain via optic nerue. Brain analyse
these signals after which we perceive object as they are.
How pupil works ?
Example : You would have observed that when you come out of the cinema hall
after watching movie in the bright sun light, your eyes get closed . And when you
entered the hall from the bright light, you won't be able to see and after some time
you would be able to see.
Here the pupil of an eye provide a variable aperture, whose size is controlled by iris
a) When the light is bright : Iris contracts the pupil, so that less light enters the
eye.
b) When the light is din : Iris expand the pupil, so that more light enters the eye.
Pupil open completely, when iris is relaxed.
Persistence of Vision : It is the time for which the sensation of an object continue
th
in the eye. It is about 1/16 of a second.
Power of Accommodation :
The ability of eye lens to adjust it focal length is called accommodation with the
help of ciliary muscles.

Ciliary Muslces

Relaxed Contract
1. Eye lens become thin 1. Eye lens become thick
2. Increases the focal length 2. Decreases the focal length
3. Enable us to see distant object clearly 3. Enable us to see nearby object clearly

Near point of the Eye For point of the Eye

It is 25cm for normal eye. The It is infinity for normal eye. It is the
minimum distance at which object can farthest point upto which the eye can
be seen most distinctly without strain. see object clearly.

115 X-Science
DEFECTS OF VISION AND THEIR CORRECTION
1. CATARACT : The image can not be seen distinctly because eye lens become
milky and cloudy. This condition is known as cataract, it can cause complete
or partial loss of vision.
This can be corrected by surgical removal of extra growth (cataract surgery)
2. Myopia : (Near Sightedness)
A person can see nearby object clearly, but cannot see distant object distinctly.
Image formed in front of the retina.

Normal O Image
Eye Object formed
at Retina

Myopic
O1 O Eye

The Reason of defect

1. Excessive curvature of eye lens (thick, decrease focal length)
2. Elongation of the eye ball.
CORRECTION
Corrected by using a Concave Lens of appropriate power.

O1 O

Correction of Myopita

116 X-Science
(3) Hypermetropia (Far - Sightedness) –
A person cannot see nearby object clearly, but can see distant object distinctly.
Image formed at a point behind the retina

NORMAL Image formed

EYE N at Retina

Hypermetropic
NORMAL eye
EYE N N1

The Reason of defect

1. Increase in focal length of the eye lens (Thin eye lens)
2. Eye ball has become too small.
CORRECTION
Corrected by using a Convex Lens of appropriate power.

N
N1

Correction of Hypermetropic eye

117 X-Science
4. Presbyopia
As we become old, the power of accommodation of the eye usually decreases,
the near point gradually recedes away.
This defect is called Presbyopia. Person may suffer from both myopia and
hypermetropia.
Reason of defect- Gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and decreasing the
flexibility of the eye lens.
Correction- Using of Bifocal lens with appropriate power.
Bifocal lenses consist of both concave and convex lens, upper position consist
of concave lens and lower portion consist of convex lens.
Refraction of light through a Prism
Prism- It has two triangular bases and three rectangular lateral surfaces.
These surfaces are inclines to each other. The angle between its two lateral
faces is called Angle of Prism.
A Angle of Prism

D (Angle of deviation)
Ð
Ð
i- incident angle
Ð
i
Ð
r Ð
e
t (emergent angle)
ligh
Sun
Em
B C erg
ent
ray

Angle of Deviation (D) ®

The angle between the incident ray and emergent ray.
Dispersion fo white light by a Glass Prism

Ð
D for red colour
ÐD for violet colour
ht
h ite lig
W
R
beam While light
Spectrum
V
Ð
D for violet colour > Ð
D for red colour

118 X-Science
Inclined refracting surfaces of glass prism show exciting phenomenon.
Splitting of White light into band of colours
The band of the coloured components of light beam as called Spectrum i.e.
VIBGYOR
The splitting of light into its component colours is called Dispersion.
The different component colour of light bends at different angle with respect to
incident angle the red light bends the least while the violet bends most.
ISSAC NEWTON ® He was the first, who obtained spectrum of sunlight by
using glass prism.
He tried to split the spectrum of white light more by using another similar prism,
but he could not get any more colours.
He repeated the experiment using second prism in on inverted position with
respect to the first prism.
Allowed all the colours of spectrum to pass through second prism. He found white
light emerges on the other side of second prism.
en
Scre

te
ght R R whi
h ite li ligh t
w
V V
rce
Sou

He concluded that sun is made up of seven visible colour ‘VIBGYOR’

RAINBOW ® It is the spectrum of sunlight in nature It is formed due to the
dispersion of sunlight by the tiny water droplet, present in atmosphere.
Water droplet act like prism.
It refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally (internal
reflection) and finally refract it again, when it emerges out of the water droplet.
A rainbow is always form in a direction opposite to that of sun.
Due dispersion and internal reflection of light different colour reaches to
observer’s eye.
Red colour appear on top & violet at the bottom of rainbow

119 X-Science
 Sunlight Rain drop
A

At ‘A’®
Refraction & dispersion takes place B
At ‘B’®
Internal refraction takes place
C
At ‘C’®
Refraction & dispersion takes place
R
V

Atmospheric Refraction –
1. Apparent Star Position– It is due to atmospheric refraction of star light.
The temperature and density of different layer of atmosphere keeps varying.
Hence we have different medium.
Distant star act as point source of light. When the starlight enter the earth’s
atmosphere it undergoes refraction continuously, due to changing refractive
index i.e. from Rarer to denser. It bends towards the normal.
Due to this the apparent position of the star is different from actual position.
The star appear higher than its actual position.

Apparent position of star

Actual
position
of Star In atmosphere layer
.............................................
.............................................
Refractive index
.............................................
.............................................
decreases
.............................................
.............................................
.............................................
.............................................
Atmosphere
.............................................
.............................................
EARTH

2. Twinkling of Star– It is also due to atmospheric refraction

Distant star act like a point source of light. As the beam of starlight keeps
deviating from its path, the apparent position of star keeps on changing
because physical condition of earth’s atmosphere is not stationary
Hence the amount of light enters our eyes fluctuate some time bright and some
time faint.
This is the “Twinkling effect of star”

120 X-Science
Q. Why Planet do not twinkle?
Ans. Planets are closer to earth and are seen as extended source of light i.e. the
collection of large no: of point sized sources of light. Therefore the total
amount of light entering our eyes from all individual point source will nullify
the twinkling effect.
(3) Advance Sunrise and delayed sunset
This is also due to atmospheric refraction.
Because of this sun is visible about 2 minutes earlier than actual sunrise and
about 2 minutes after the actual sun set. Apparent
position
Atmosphere of sun
n
rth o

Horizon
Ea rver
se
Ob

EARTH Actual
Sun

Apparent flattering of the sun’s disc at sun set and sun rise is due to atmospheric
refraction.
Scattering of Light
Tyndall Effect– When a beam of light strikes the minute particle of earth’s
atmosphere suspended particles of dust and molecule of air the path of beam
become visible. The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particle
gives rise to Tyndall Effect.
It can be observed when sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest.
The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles

Very fine particle Large size particle Very large enough

(scatter mainly (Scatter light of (The sky appear
blue colour short longer wave length white)
wave length) i.e. red)
(1) Why cloud Appear white– The size of water droplet (scattering particle) is
very large, hence scattered all wavelength of light almost equally.
(2) Why colour of sky is blue– The molecules of air and other fine particles in
the atmosphere have size smaller than the wavelength of visible light. Since
the blue has shorter wavelength than red, hence it will scattered the most.

121 X-Science
 According to Rayleigh scattering
1
Scattering of light a l 4 ( l – Wavelength)
Scattering of light decreases with increase in wavelength

Q. If there is no earth’s atmosphere? What will happen to scattering

phenomenon?
Ans. There will be no scattering and sky will appear dark.
(3) Colour of the Sun of Sunrise and Sunset
While sunset and sunrise, the colour of the sun and its surrounding appear
red.
During sunset and sunrise, the sun is near horizon, and therefore the sunlight
has to travel larger distance in atmosphere. Due to this most of the blue light
(shorter wavelength) are scattered away by the particles. The light of longer
wavelength (red colour) will reach our eye. This is why sun appear red in
colour.
(4) Why the danger signal or sign are made of red colour.
Red colour scattered the least when strikes the small particle of fog and
smoke because in has the maximum wavelength (visible spectrum). Hence
at large distance also, we can see the red colour clearly.
(4) At noon sun appear white–
At noon the, sun is overhead and sunlight would travel shorter distance
relatively through the atmosphere. Hence, at noon, the Sun appear while as
only little of the blue and violet colours are scattered.
(In the afternoon)
(In the early morning (Less blue
or evening) Light travel less scattered)
distance in atmosphere.
(Blue scattered away
sun appear reddish
.............................................
.............................................
.............................................
.............................................
Light Travel large distance
.............................................
.............................................
in atmosphere
Sun near
.............................................
.............................................
Atmosphere
horizon .............................................
.............................................
EARTH

122 X-Science
 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. What is the phenomenon responsible for the blue colour of sky?
2. What is the near and far point of a normal eye?
3. Name the component of eye that is responsible for the adjustment of
eyelens?
4. To an astronaut why does the sky appear dark instead of blue?
5. How can your remove the defect of vision ‘Presbyopia’.
6. Name three primary colour? (Ans. RED, BLUE, GREEN)
7. Write the nature of image formed by our eye?
8. What do you understand by Dispersion of light?
9. What is Tyndall Effect?
10. A student has difficulty reading the black board while sitting in the last row.
What is the defect of vision and how it can be corrected?
Short Answers (2 Marks)
1. Name the phenomenon responsible for formation of rainbow? Explain it
with the help of diagram?
2. What is power of accommodation. How ciliary muscles helps in
accommodation?
3. Why the sun appear red while sunset and sunrise. Explain?
4. Why the star twinkle but not earth?
5. Explain the function of
(i) Iris (ii) Pupil (iii) Retina
6. Explain the refraction of light through glass prism with the help of diagram.
Show angle of emergence and angle of deviation?
Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
1. What is myopia. State the two causes of myopia? With the help of labelled
ray diagram show
(1) Eye defect
(2) Correction of myopia
2. What is hypermetropia. State the two causes? With the help of labelled ray
diagram show
(1) Eye defect
(2) Correction of hypermetropia.
3. Draw the labelled diagram of human eye and explain the image formation?

123 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 12
ELECTRICITY
Think life without “electricity” in this modern society. Is it possible to survive
without electrical energy in world of technology. Since we are science student, so it
is necessary to understand the basic concept behind the word “electricity”
Charge®
(q)
It is a very small particles present in an atom it can be either negative (electron) or
positive (proton)
“Coulomb” is the SI unit of charge, represented by C.
Net charge (Q)– Total charge
1018
IC Net charge is equivalent to the charge contained in nearly electrons 6´

Q = ne (n is no: of electron)
–19
If Q = 1C, e = 1.6 ´
10 C (negative charge on electron)
Q 1
n= =
e 1.6 ´ 10
–19

100 18 18
= ´ 10 = 6.2 ´
10
16
18
n=6´
10 electron

Current (I)
Rate of flow of net charge is called current. Denoted by (I)

Q
I = t is time
t

SI unit of current is “Ampere” rep. by A.

Ampere ®
Defined as one coulomb of charge following per second.

1C
1A =
1s

124 X-Science
In an electric circuit the electric current flow in the opposite direction of the flow of
electron (–ve charge) conventionally. It flows from the +ve terminal of battery or
cell to –ve terminal.
Small quantity of current are expressed in
–3
mA (milli Ampere) = 10 A
–6
uA (micro Ampere) = 10 A
Ammeter– It is an instrument used to measure the electric current in a circuit.
It is always connected in series m a circuit
It is represented by the symbol ––––––––+ A – ––––––– in an electric circuit. It has
low resistance.
Electric Circuit– It is a closed path along which an electric current flow.

Bulb
The arrow shows the direction
of electric current in circuit.
–
Ammeter A
+
Key In this circuit ammeter is
+ – connected in series.

Battery
(Having 3 cells)
The electron can only flow when there is difference of electric pressure. For
example “water flowing through a tube” It is only possible when there high
pressure at one side and low at another side, then it will move from high pressure to
low pressure.
In case of electric current, the flow of charge is made possible due to chemical
action with in a cell that generates the potential difference across the terminals of
the cell.
8. Electric potential Difference– It is defined as the work done in carrying a unit
charge from one point to another between the two points of an electric circuits.
V – Potential Difference
W
V= W – Work
Q
Q – Net Charge
SI unit of potential difference – Volts rep. by “V”

125 X-Science
One Volt ® When 1 Joule of work is done to carry one coulomb (1C) of charge
from one point to another of a current carrying conductor then the potential
difference is send to be IV.

1J
IV =
1C

Voltmeter ® It is an instrument, used to measure the potential difference and

represented by the symbol +V – in an electric circuit. It is always
connected in parallel across the points between which the potential difference is to
be measured. It has high resistance.
Symbols for some commonly used instrument in circuit diagrams

(1) Cell + –

(2) Battery + –

(3) Key (switch) open OR

(4) Key (Close) OR

(5) Joint wire

(6) Wires with no join

(7) Bulb

+ –
(8) Ammeter A

+ –
(9) Voltmeter V

126 X-Science
Georg Simon Ohm (physicist) 1787 – 1854
Found the relationship between the current (I) flowing through a conductor and
potential difference (V) across the terminals of a conductor using the circuit
diagram.
+ V– GRAPH

–
A
+ V Va
I
(V)
O I (A)
+ –

In this circuit diagram we come across two new symbols

RESISTANCE (R)

OR RHEOSTAT (Variable Resistance)

Ohm’s Law ® He stated that the electric current flowing through a conductor is
directly proportion at to the potential difference across its ends, provided the
temperature remain constant
Va I
V = IR
Where “R” is the proportionality constant for the given metal at given temperature
and is said to be resistance, the graph between V and I is always straight line.
Resistance– It is the property of a conductor that opposes the flow of current. It is
represented by ‘R’ and symbol is
SI unit of resistance “Ohm” OR W
1 Ohm – The resistance of a conductor is said to be one Ohm, when the potential
difference across the conductor is 1V and the current flowing through it is 1A.
V = IR
\ R= V
I
1 Ohm or 1 W = 1V
1A

127 X-Science
Rheostate–
As we know that
V = IR
1= V
\
R {
Shows that current through
conductor resistor is inversely
proportional is its resistance }
So to increase or decrease the current accordingly in the circuit a component is
used is called “Rheostat”, that regulates the current without changing potential
difference. Represented by “Rh”

Its symbol is OR

it a conductor has less Resistance, then more current will flow through it.

FACTORS ON WHICH RESISTANCE OF A CONDUCTOR DEPENDS–

(1) On its length (l)
(2) On its cross sectional area (A)
(3) On the nature of material

(Resistance) Ral (Directly prop. to length)

1 (inversely prop to cross-sectional area)
Ra
A
Ra l
A
R= l
A
Where “ ” (rho) is a proportionality constant known as resistivity of the material
of conductor.
11. Resistivity ( ) – the resistance offered by a wire of unit length and unit cross-
sectional area is called resistivity.
l
Its SI unit is W m Since R =
A
R.A W .m2
\ ==
l m
\
SI unit of =
W
m.

For a material irrespective of length and area, the resistivity is a constant.

128 X-Science
Resistantly of a material vary with temperature
Resistivity of an alloy (homogeneous mixture of metals) is generally higher than
of its constituent metals. Example Constantan (alloy of Cu & Ni)
Alloys have high resistivity and do not oxidise (burn) readly at high temperature,
for this reason they are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electric
iron, heater, toasters etc. For example “Tungsten” as filament of electric bulb.
Resistance in Series– (Maximum Effective Resistance)
Let us take three resistance R1, R2 and R3 that are connected in series in a circuit.
R1 R2 R3

V1 V2 V3
I

+ –

V
Ohm’s low stated
V = IR
The current (I) flowing through the resistance in series will remain same, where as
the potential difference (V) across each resistor will be different.
V = IR
V1 = IR1 , V2 = IR2 , V3 = IR3
Total potential difference (V) = V1 + V2 + V3
V = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
} Putting the value of
V, V , V & V
1 2 3

I R = I (R1 + R2 + R3)
Reff = R1 + R2 + R3

Thus, we conclude that effective Resistance of the several resistors joined in series
is equal to the sum of their individual resistance.
Resistance in Parallel (Minimum Effective Resistance)
Let us take three R1, R2 and R3, that are connected in parallel in the electric circuit.
R1
I1
I2 R2
I1 R3
I3

+ –

129 X-Science
 Now,
I1 = V , I2 = V , I3 = V
R1 R2 R3
Total current (I) = I1 + I2 + I3
substitute the value of I1 , I2 , I3 and I
V = V + V + V
R R1 R2 R3
V = V 1 + 1 + 1
R R1 R2 R3

1 = 1 + 1 + 1
Reff R1 R2 R3
Thus, we conclude that the reciprocal of total effective resistance of the several
resistors connected in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the
individual resistance.
Disadvantage of series connection in on electric circuit :–
1. In series connection if any of the component fail to work, the circuit will break
and then none of the component (ex. TV, bulb, fan..) will work.
2. It is not possible to connect a bulb and a heater in series, because they need
different value of current to operate properly.
Hence, to overcome this problem we generally use parallel circuit.
Heating effect of Electric Current :
Explanation® Battery or a cell is a source of electrical energy.

Battery or Cell Electron

(Chemical reaction in will come in motion
it will produce potential to flow current
difference at its through resistor
two terminals)

Rest of energy of source is Part of this energy is To maintain this current,

converted into heat, that consumed in useful the source has to keep
raises the temperature work expending its energy
of gadget. (like rotating of fan)

This is known as heating This effect is utilized in

effect of electric current devices such as electric
heater, iron etc.

130 X-Science
Mathematical Expression :–
Let us suppose that current (I) is flowing through a resistor of resistance (R) for the
time (t). The potential difference across the resistance is (V).
W
V= Q

\
Work done in morning the charge Q will be
W = VQ
W
Then power, P = t [Rate of change of work done]
VQ
= t
Q
P = VI I= t – (1)

Heat energy supplied by the source for time t will be

Energy or Work
H=P´ t P= – (2)
time
Put equation (i) in equation (2)
H = VIt
= (IR) It \
V = IR Ohm’s Law]
2
H = I Rt
This is known as Joule’s Law
The law stated that the heat produced in a resistor is
(i) directly proportional to square of the current(I)
(ii) directly proportional to resistance (R) for given current
(iii) directly proportional to time (t) for which current flow through resistor.
Application of Heating Effect of Electric Current :–
(1) Used in electric iron, toaster, oven, heater etc.
(2) It is also used in bulb to produce light.
(Filament of bulb is made of strong metal with high melting point such as
tungsten (m.pt = 3380°C). This filament can retain as much of the heat
generated as possible, to become very hot and emit light)
(3) It is also used in the “fuse connected in an electric circuit {Fuse a safety
device, protect the circuits and appliance by stopping the flow of high current.
The wire of fuse is made of an alloy of metals for ex Aluminium Copper, Iron

131 X-Science
 lead etc. The alloy should be of low m.pt and high resistivity, fuse is always
connected in series circuit. When large current flow through the circuit, the
temperature of fuse wire will increase. This melts the fuse wire and break the
circuit.
“ Fuses” used for domestic purposes are rated as 1A, 2A, 3A, 5A, 10A etc. for
various operation depending upon the power of appliance using.
Example- let us consider an appliance “electric Iron” which consume 1KW
electric power, at 220V
P = VI
I = P = 1KW = 1000W
V 220V 220V
I = 4.54A

In this case a 5A fuse is required.

Electric Power :– In case of electricity, it is defined as the rate of change electrical
energy dissipated or consumed in an electric electrical energy dissipated or
consumed in an electric circuit.
P = VI
or P = I2R ( V = IR Ohm’s Law)
2
V ( I= V )
or P =
R R
or P = Electrical Energy (E)
time (t)
SI unit of electric power is “Watt” (W).
1 Watt® Defined as the power consumed by a device, when 1A of current passes
through it at the potential difference of 1V.
P = VI
1 Watt = 1 Volt ´
1 Ampere

29 Electrical Energy– E – Electrical Energy

P= E t – time
t
\
E=P´
t

132 X-Science
SI unit of electrical energy = Ws or J
Commercial unit of electrical energy = KWh or One unit

E=P´
t
\
KWh = 1KW ´
h
= 1000W ´ 3600 s
5
= 36 ´10 Ws
106J
= 3.6 ´ (SI unit Ws = J)
\
1 106J
KWh = 3.6 ´

One horse power = 746W

133 X-Science
 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. Define the SI unit of (one mark each)
(a) Current
(b) Potential Difference
(c) Resistance
(d) Electric Power
(e) Electric Energy (Commercial)
2. What is the conventional direction of flow of current?
3. Define the term resistivity?
4. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend?
5. How is the voltmeter and ammeter connected in the electric circuit.
6. Heating effect of current carrying conductor is due to –
(Ans : loss of kmectic energy of electron)
7. Why the filament of bulb has high melting point?
8. How does use of a fuse wire protect electrical appliance?
9. What is the relationship between power, current and potential difference
(Ans : P = VI)
10. How many joules are there in 1KWh?
Short Answer (2-3 marks) type Questions
1. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of six cell of
1.5V each, three resistor each of 3W
in series and a plug key.
2. State Ohm’s law. Draw the graph between V&I?
3. What is joule’s Heating effect of current, derive its expression?
4. A wire of length L and R is stretched so that its length’s doubled and the area
of cross section is halved. How will its
(i) Resistance change
(ii) Resistivity change.

134 X-Science
5. An electrical appliance of power 2KW works at potential difference of 220V.
Does it require fuse of 5A, give reason?
6. Calculate the total effective resistance between points A and B
1W 1W
(i)
1W 1W 1W
A 1W 1W B

3W 3W

(ii)
A B

3W 3W

2W
(iii)
A 2W

2W 2W

2W
B

Long Answer (5 Marks) type Questions

1. On what factor the resistance of conductor depends give its mathematical
expression. Give the SI unit of resistivity?
Calculate the resistivity of a metal of length 2m at 20°C having the resistance
of 20W and diameter 0.3mm?
2. In a circuit below, calculate
4W 2W

6W

+ –

6W

135 X-Science
 (1) Calculate total effective resistance
(2) The total current through the circuit.
(3) Potential difference across 4W
and 2W
.
3. Three resistance of 2W
, 3W
and 5W
are connected in the electric circuit.
Calculate the
(1) Maximum effective resistance
(2) Minimum effective resistance

136 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 13
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF
ELECTRIC CURRENT
In this chapter, we will study the effects of electric current :
1. Hans Christian Oersted (1777-1851)
Oersted showed that electricity and magnetism are related to each other. His
research later used in radio, television etc.
The unit of magnetic field strength is name Oersted in his honour.
2. Oersted Experiment

R K
X

XY is conductor (Cu wire)

through which current is passed

Y
– +
On passing the current through the copper wire XY in the circuit, the compass
needle which is placed near the conductor gets deflected. If we reverse the
direction of current, the compass needle deflect in reverse direction. If we
stop the flow of current, the needle comes at rest.
Hence, it conclude that electricity and magnetism are linked to each other. It
shows that whenever the current will flow through the conductor, then
magnetic field around. it will developer
3. Magnetic Field – It is the region surrounding a magnet, in which force of
magnet can be detected. It is a vector quantity, having both direction &
magnitude.
4. Compass needle– It is a small bar magnet, whose north end is pointing
towards north pole and south end is pointing towards south pole of earth.
5. Magnetic field lines–
When a bar magnet is placed on a card board and iron fillings are sprinkled,
they will arrange themselves in a pattern as shown below.

137 X-Science
 N S

The lines along which the iron filling align themselves represent magnetic
field lines.
Hence, magnetic field line is a path along which a hypothetical free north pole
tend to move towards south pole.
6. Characteristics of Magnetic field lines :
(1) The direction of magnetic field lines outside the magnet is always from
north pole to south pole of bar magnet and are indicated by an arrow.
Inside the magnetic, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to north
pole
Thus magnetic field lines are closed curve
(2) The strength of magnetic field is expressed by the closeness of magnetic
field lines. Closer the lines, more will be the strength and farther the lines, less
will be the magnetic field strength.
(3) No two field lines will intersect each other.
If they intersects, then at point of intersection the compass needle will show
two direction of magnetic field which is not possible.

Tangent at the
point of intersection
shows two direction.

7. Magnetic field due to Current Carrying Conductor

N N
x S y x S y
Cu wire Cu wire

+ – – +

(a) (b)

138 X-Science
 The above electric circuit in which a copper is placed paralled to a compass
needle, shows the deflection in needle gets reversed, when the direction of
current reversed. Hence electricity and magnetism are related to each other.
8. Right Hand Thumb Rule :–
It is a convenient way of finding the direction of magnetic field associated
with current carrying conductor.
Hold the straight were carrying current in your right hand such that thumb
points towards the direction of current, then your folded fingers around the
conductor will show the direction of magnetic field.

Direction of magnetic
field lines.

This rule is also called Maxwell’s corkscrew rule.

9. Magnetic Field due to Current through a Straight Conductor
+ –
A
Direction of Direction can be
Current explained using
Right Hand Thumb
Rule

on c + –
ecti i
Dir agnet Pheostat
f
o dm
fiel
10. Magnetic Field due to Current through a circular Loop
S
Z

–
+

139 X-Science
 Every point on the wire carrying current give rise to the magnetic field,
appearing as a straight line at the centre of loop. By applying Right hand
Thumb rule, we can find the direction of magnetic field at every section of the
wire.
11. Solenoid– A Coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped
closely in the shape of a cylinder is called solenoid.
12. Magnetic field due to a current in a solenoid–

S N

+ –

– Using R.H. Thumb Rule, we can draw the pattern of magnetic field lives
around a current carrying solenod.
– One end of the solenoid behaves as a magnetic north pole, white the other
end behave as the South Pole.
– The filed lines inside the solenoid are in form of parallel straigh lines, that
implies that magnetic field inside the solenoid is same at all points i.e. Field is
uniform.
13. Electromagnet– Strong magnetic field inside the solenoid can be used to
magnetise a magnetic material for example soft iron, when it is placed inside
the coil. The magnet so formed is called electromagnet.
14. Force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
Andre Marie Ampere (1775-1836) suggested that the magnet also exert an
equal and opposite force on the current carrying conductor.
Iron Stand
Experiment®

+ S

rod Current Carrying

–

N Aluminium rod should lie

between the two poles
of magnet

Horse shoe magnet

140 X-Science
 We will observe that the rod will displace i.e. the rod will experience a force,
when it is placed in magnetic field, in a perpendicular direction to its length.
– The direction of the exert force will be reversed if the direction of current
through the conductor is reversed.
– If we change the direction of field by inter changing the two poles of the
magnet, again the direction of exert force will change.
– Therefore the direction of exerted force depends on
(1) direction of current
(2) direction of magnetic field lines.
15. Left Hand Fleming Rule
M other F ather C hild

(Force) ®
Motion Field Current
T humb Fore finger Middle finger
Thrust (force)
Three of them perpendicular to each other.

– According to this rule, stretch thumb, forefinger and middle finger

of your left hand such that they are mutually perpendicular to each
other.
If fore finger represent direction of magnetic field & middle finger
represent direction of current, then thumb will point in the direction
motion or force acting on the conductor.
– Functioning of electric motor is based on this rule. It convert electrical
energy into mechanical energy.
16. Michael Faraday– Gave the law of Electro magnetic Induction
17. Galvanometer® It is an instrument that can detect the presence of a current
in a circuit. If pointer is at zero (the centre of scale) the there will be no flow of
current.
If the pointer deflect on either side right or left, this will show the direction of
current. Represented by
o
G

141 X-Science
18. Electro Magnetic Induction – Can be explained by two experiments
(a) FIRST EXPERIMENT ®
“SELF INDUCTION”

N S
G G

In this experiment, when the north pole of bar magnet is brought closes to the
coil or away from the coil, we see momentary deflection in the needle of
galvanometer on either side of null point. First right and then left.
Similarly, if we keep the magnet stationary and coil is made to move towards
or away from the north pole of magnet. Again we will observe deflection in
the needle of galvanometer.
If both bar magnet and coil kept stationary, there will be no deflection in
galvanometer.
This experiment can also be done with the south pole of magnet, we will
observe the deflection in galvanometer, but it would be in opposite direction
to the previous case.
Þ It concludes that motion of magnet with respect to coil or vice-versa,
changes the magnetic field. Due to this change in magnetic field lines,
potential difference is induced in the same coil, which set up an induced
current in the circuit.
(b) SECOND EXPERIMENT – Mutual Induction
Primary Coil Secondary Coil

+ – G
Coil 1 Coil 2

In this experiment plug in the key that is connect coil with battery and observe
the deflection in galvanometer. Now plug out the key that is disconnect the
coil-1 from battery and observe the deflection in galvanometer, which will be
in reverse direction.
Hence, we conclude that potential difference is induced in secondary coil
(coil-2), whenever there is a change in current, in primary coil (coil-1) (by on
and off of key).

142 X-Science
 This is because, whenever there is change in current in primary coil
¯
Magnetic field associated with it also changes
¯
Now, magnetic field lines around the secondary coil (coil-2) will change and
induces the electric current in it (observed by the deflectionof needle of
Galvanometer in secondary circuit)
This process, by which changing of strength of current in primary coil,
induces a current in secondary coil is called Electromagnetic Induction”
The induced current is found to be highest when the direction of motion of coil
is at right angles to the magnetic field.
19. Fleming’s Right Hand Rule
(1) (2) (3)
M other F ather C hild

Motion Field Current

(movement of conductor) (Magnetic) (Induced)

Thumb Fore finger Middle finger

Three of them perpendicular to each other.
Rule can be defined at–
Stretch thumb , forefinger and middle finger of right hand, so that they
are perpendicular to each other. The forefinger indicates direction of magnetic
field, thumb shows the direction of motion of conductor, then the middle
finger will shows the direction of induced current.
Electrical generator is based on the principle of electro magnetic induction.
It convert mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Current

Alternate Current (AC) Direct Current (DC)

(1) Changes the direction Does not change its
periodically after equal direction with time it is
interval of time unidirectional

143 X-Science
 Current

I
I
(A)
(A) time
time (s)
(s)
It has frequency It has frequency
50Hz in India OHz
60 Hz in America

21. Advantages of Alternate Current (AC) over Direct Current (DC)

Electric power can be transmitted to longer distances without much loss of
energy. Therefore cost of transmission is low.
In India the frequency of AC is 50Hz. It means after every 1/100 second it
changes its direction.
22. Domestic Electric Circuits :–
In our homes, the electric power supplied is of potential difference V = 220V
and frequency 50Hz.
It consist of three wires :–
(1) Wire with red insulation cover – LIVE WIRE (POSITIVE)
Live wire is at high potential of 220V
(2) Wire with black insulation cover – NEUTRAL WIRE (NEGATIVE)
Neutral wire is at zero potential
Therefore, the potential difference between the two is 220V.
(3) Wire with Green insulation cover – EARTH WIRE
it is connected to a copper plate deep in the earth near house.
The metallic body of the appliances is connected with the earth wire as a
safety measure.
Function–
Earth wire provide a low resistance to the current hence any leakage of
current to the metallic body of the appliances, keep its potential equal to
that of earth. That means zero potential and the user is saved from severe
electric shock.

144 X-Science
23. Distribution Box
containing main
Earth wire switch & fuse
for each
current
Live wire
Ueutral wire

Electrical Electricity
Fuse board meter

Point to be noted in domestic circuit

(1) Each appliance has a seperate switch of ON/OFF
(2) In order to provide equal potential difference to each appliance, they should
be connected parallel to each other. So that they can be operated at any time.
One consist of current of 15A
for high power appliances
(3) We have two electric circuit in our home
Other circuit consist of current 5A
for low power appliances.

24. Short Circuiting –

Due to fault in the appliances or damage in the insulation of two wires, the
circuit will offer zero or negligible resistance to the flow of current. Due to
low resistance, large amount of current will flow.
I2) heat is produced in live wire
According to Joule’s law of heating effect (Ha
and produces spark, damaging the device and wiring.
25. Overloading–
Overloading can be caused by (1) Connecting too many appliances to a single
socket or (2) accidental rise in supply voltage if the total current drawn by the
appliances at a particular time exceeds the bearing capacity of that wire, it will
get heated up. This is known as overloading.
Fuse a safety device can prevent the circuit from overloading and short
circuiting.

145 X-Science
 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. What is the frequency of AC used in India?
2. Name the point where the iron filling are collected more?
3. Who discovered electro magnetic induction?
4. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near the bar
magnet?
5. If both the coil and the magnet are stationary, will there be deflection in
galvanometer?
6. Why magnetic field lines do not intersect each other?
7. What is the advantage of Alternate Current over Direct current?
8. What do you understand by short circuiting?
9. When the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a
magnetic field is maximum?
10. Write the factors affecting the magnetic field due to a straight conductor?
Short Answers (2 Marks)
1. A charged particles enters at right angles into a uniform magnetic field. What
is the nature of charge particle, if it experiences a force in a direction pointing
vertically out of the page.
Magnetic field

Charge particle (use left hand flemings rule)

2. Name the Rule–
(1) Force experience by a current - carrying conductor placed in a
magnetic field.
(2) Direction of magnetic field lines associated with a current carrying
conductor.
(3) Direction of induced current in a coil due to its rotation in magnetic
field.

146 X-Science
3. What is solenoid? Where the magnetic field is uniform in solenoid?
4. Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines due to current carrying straight
conductor?
(5) Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuit and
appliances?
(6) What is overloading?
Long Answer (5 Marks)
1. Explain the phenomenon of Electro magnetic Induction with the help of an
activity. Write its one application.
2. Draw the schematic diagram of domestic circuit. Write the colour and
function of Neutral wire, Live wire and Earth wire.

147 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 14
SOURCES OF ENERGY
Energy comes in different forms and one form can be converted to another.
?
For example if we drop a plate from a height, the potential energy of the plate
is converted mostly to sound energy when it hits the ground.
If we light a candle, the process is highly exothermic so that the chemical
?
energy of the wax is converted into heat energy and light energy on burning.
A Good Source of Energy would be one
§which has high calorific value
§be easily accessible
§be easy to store and transport
§be economical
SOURCES OF ENERGY

Conventional Source of Energy Non-Conventional Source of Energy

§
Fossil Fuels §
Solar Energy
Eg. Coal & Petroleum Eg. Solar Cooker, Solar Cell Panel
§Thermal Power Plant §Energy From the Sea
§Hydro Power Plants Eg. Tidal & wave energy, O.T.
Energy
§Bio-Mass® bio gas plant
§Geothermal Energy
§Wind Energy
§Nuclear Energy.

Amont the sources of energy, some of them get exhausted (Non-Renewable)

?
While some of them do not get exhausted, therefore called as Renewable
source of energy. Examples
1. Non Renewable source of energy®
Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas
2. Renewable Source of energy®
Air, Water, Solar radiation, Geothermal
Energy, ocean waves etc.

148 X-Science
CONVENTIONAL SOURCE OF ENERGY
1. Fossil Fuels : Fuels developed from the fossils. Eg. Coal & Petroleum.
? Formed over million of years ago have only limited reserves
? These are non-renewable source of energy
? India has about 6% share in the world reserved coal, that may last 250 years
more at the present rate of consumption.
Disadvantages of Burning Fossil Fuels
? released oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen, Sulphur (acidic in nature) cause Air
pollution & Acid rain & green-house effect.

Bulb
Dynamo
Pressure
Cooker
Tennis Ball
Heat fitted with metal plate
(Fossil Fuel)

A Model of Thermo Electric Production.

This is our Turbine for generating electricity. Actually the steam/fluid impart
?
energy to rotor of turbine which can move shaft of the generator to produce
electricity. A very large amount of fossil fuels are burnt in Thermal Power
Plant to heat up water to produce steam.
Hydropower Plants Convert the Potential energy of falling water into
?
Electricity since there are few water-falls which could be used a source of
potential energy, hence this is the reason, a large number of DAMS are built
all over the world.
Around 25% of our country’s energy requirement is met by Hydro Power
?
Plants

149 X-Science
Dams are constructed to :
Prevent flooding of river, provide water for irrigation & to generate
?
hydroelectricity.
Disadvantages of construction of Big Dams
1. Submerging/Loss of large variety of Flora fauna and human settlements &
roting of submerged vegetation release green house gas (CH4).
2. They pose dangers of earthquakes, landslides etc.
3. Biomass is Agricultural & animal wastes that can be used as a fuel. Eg. of
Biomass – Firewood, cattle dung, sewage, dry leaves, stems & bagasse.
Normally biomass has low calorific value & produce lot of smoke when they
?
are burnt. Their efficiency as a good fuel has been increased tremendously
with the application of technology. For Eg. cowdung becomes efficient &
cheap good fuel in a Bio-gas plant.
Charcoal is better fuel than wood because it do not contain water & other
?
volatile material which are present in wood.
Limited
Wood Charcoal
Supply of O2
Charcoal burns without smoke, flames & has high calorific value.
Bio-gas is an excellent fuel & contain 75% of Methane (CH4). It burns
?
without smoke, leaves no reciters like ash, with high heat capacity.
Biogas is produced by anerobic decomposition of the slurry (cowdung +
?
water mixture) by microbes. This process is applied in a Bio gas plant.
Gas Outlet
SLURRY
Manure

Digestel

150 X-Science
The Biogas is stored in the gas tank from which they are drawn through pipes
?
for use in a Bio-gas plant
Bio gas is used for lighting, cooking in the rural areas. While the slurry left
?
behind is used as excellent manure, rich in nitrogen and phosphorous
The large scale use of Bio-wastes & sewage material provide a safe and
?
efficient method of waste-disposal besides supplying energy and manure.
WIND ENERGY
Unequal heating of the landmass and water bodies by solar radiation
?
generates air movement & causes winds to blow. This kinetic energy of the
wind can be used to do work.
This energy is utilised to lift water from the well & to generate electricity in
?
the wind mill.
Actually the rotatory motion of the windmill is used to turn the rotor of the turbine
which then generate electricity through Dynamo.
The output of a single windmill is quite small so a number of windmills are erected
over a large area - called wind energy farm.
India Ranked Fifth in the world in harnessing wind energy for the production of
electricity. It is estimated that nearly 45,000 MW of electric power can be
generated if India’s wind potential is fully exploited.
The minimum wind speed for wind mill to serve as a source of energy is
?
20KMPH.
Advantages of Wind Energy
1. Eco friendly
2. Efficient source of renewable energy.
3. No recurring expenses for production of electricity
Limitations of Wind Energy
1. Wind energy farms need large area of land
2. Difficulty in getting regular wind speed of 15-20 KmPH.
3. Initial cost of establishing wind energy farm is very high.
4. High level of maintenance of blades of wind mill.
Non Conventional Sources of Energy
Solar Energy :
The energy imitted by the sun in form of heat and light is called solar energy.

151 X-Science
 2
Solar Constant = 1.4kJ/s m
2
Outer edge of the earth receives solar energy equal to 1.4 kJ/sm which is known as
solar constant.
Solar energy devices :
A large number of devices that utilize solar energy directly like :
(i) Solar Cooker
(ii) Solar furnaces
(iii) Solar cells
(iv) Solar water heaters
Solar heating devices :
Use black painted surface because black surface absorbs more heat as
?
compared to white or other surface.
Use of glass plate because it allows shorter infrared radiations to pass through
?
it but doesn’t allow the longer wavelength infrared radiations to through it,
that results in increase in temperature.
Solar Cooker :
Box type solar Cooker
It consists of a rectangular box which is made up of material such as plastic or
?
wood.
Box is covered with black sheet and its inner walls are painted black to
?
increase heat absorption.
Solar cookers are covered with glass plate and have mirros to focus the rays of
?
the sun and achieve a higher temperature.

PLANE MIRROR

INNER METALLIC
BOX

GLASS COVER

BLACK CONTAINER

WOODEN BOX

SOLAR COOKER (Box Type)

152 X-Science
Advantages :
1. Use energy which is available in plenty (Solar Energy)
2. Is pollution free.
3. More than one food can be cooked simultaneously
Disadvantages :
1. Cannot be used for frying or baking purpose.
2. Food cannot be cooked at night or on a cloudy day.
3. Direction of reflector of solar heating has to be changed from time to time to
keep it facing the sun
Solar Cells :
? Solar cells are device that convert Solar energy into electricity.
? Develops a voltage of 0.5 – IV and can produce about 0.7W of electricity.
Advantages of Solar Cell
1. Require a little maintenance
2. Have no moving part.
3. No focussing device is required
4. Can be set up in remote areas.
5. Environment - friendly i.e. do not cause pollution.
Disadvantage of Solar Cells
1. It require high cost
2. Efficiency is low
3. Initial cost of installation is quite high.
Uses of Solar Cell
1. Used in calculators, watches etc.
2. Used in artificial satellites and space probes.
3. It is used in radio or wireless transmission system.
Solar Panel
A large number of Solar Cells connected to each other in an arrangement is called
solar panel.
Material used for making solar cells
? Silicon
Silver is used for inter connection of cells.

153 X-Science
 Energy from the Sea or Ocean
The energy from the sea is available in the following forms.
(i) Energy of sea waves
(ii) Tidal energy
(iii) Ocean Thermal Energy.
(i) Energy of Sea Waves
The waves are generated by the strong winds that blows across the sea.
?
The kinetic energy of this moving water rotates the turbine of a generator
?
Limitation
When strong winds stop blowing, the generator stops producing electricity
(iii) Tidal Energy
The tidal energy possessed by water during tides.
?
The tides are caused due to gravitational force of attraction exerted by the
?
moon on the water of the ocean.
This form of energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across a narrow
?
opening to the sea.
A turbine fixed at the opening of the dam converts tidal energy to electricity.
?
(iii) Ocean Thermal Energy
The power plants used to harness the ocean thermal energy is known as “Ocean
Thermal Energy Conversion plant) (OTEC)
Temperature difference between surface water and water at the depth of 2km
?
should be 20°C or more.
The warm surface water is used to boil ammonia (liquid)
?
The vapours of the liquid are used to run the turbine of generator.
?
The cold water (from deeper layers) is pumped up to condense the vapour into
?
liquid.
Geothermal Energy
1. Energy stored as heat inside the earth
2. The steam of underground water is taken out by sinking pipes through holes
drilled in the earth’s crust. The steam under high pressure is used to rotate the
turbines of the generator to produce electricity.

154 X-Science
 Nuclear Energy
Nuclear energy is the energy which is stored in the nucleus of an atom.
?
Nuclear energy is of two types
?

(i) Nuclear fission ® nucleus of a heavy atom (Uranium) when bombarded with
low energy neutron split (break down) into lighter nuclei and huge amount of
energy is released
(ii) Nuclear Fusion® When two lighter nucleic join up to form heavy nucleus
and tremendous amount of energy is released.
Nuclear fission process is utilized in nuclear reactors to produce electricity.
?
Major Nuclear power plants : Tarapur, Rana Pratap Sagar, Kalpakkam.
?
Advantages of Nuclear Energy :
1. Large amount of energy is released.
2. In nuclear power plant, the nuclear fuel is inserted once to get energy over a
long period of time.
Disadvantages of Nuclear Energy :
1. High cost of installation.
2. Environmental contamination may occur due to imporper nuclear waste
disposal.
Environmental Consequences
1. Energy sources should be used judiciously otherwise it would disturb the
environment.
2. Use of clean fuels like CNG (compressed natural gas) because burning of
fossil fuel causes green house effect.
3. Assembly of devices like solar cell (otherwise renewable source of energy)
would have caused environmental damage.
How long will energy source last
the sources of energy can be divided into two catagories :
(i) Renewable sources of energy eg wind, sun, biogas
(ii) Non renewable sources of energy eg. Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas.
Continuous use of non renewable source of energy is a matter of concern because
ultimately the deposit of these sources will be completely finished on the other
hand renewable sources of energy will last forever eg sun as a source of energy will
be available for a very long period of time.

155 X-Science
 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. What is a good source of energy.
2. Expand CNG and LPG
3. What is the minimum wind velocity required to obtain useful energy with a
wind mill?
4. Name the main constituent of biogas.
5. Giv two examples of fossil fuels
6. Name the device which directly converts solar energy into electric energy.
7. What does “OTEC” stand for?
8. What is nuclear energy?
9. Which one out of these is renewable source of energy solar energy, coal,
petroleum, bio gas.
10. Which source of energy would you use to heat your food and why?
Short Answers (2 or 3Marks)
1. State two disadvantages of using fossil fuels as a source of energy.
2. Write two disadvantages of constructing high rising dams.
3. Give (i) two limitations and (ii) two advantages of wind mill.
4. Name any three forms of energy of the oceans which can be converted into
usable energy forms. Describes how it is done in each case.
5. Explain the working of biogas plant with the help of labelled diagram
6. Explain the principle on which the solar cooker works.
7. Write the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker.
8. How does hydro electric power plant operate? Draw diagram
Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
1. (a) Why is the solar cooker box covered with plane glass plate?
(b) Why is nuclear fission reaction considered better.
(c) Use of wood as a domestic fuel is not considered as good. State two
reasons for it
2. Distinguish between renewable and non renewable sources of energy?
Which one of them you consider as better? Why?

156 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 15
OUR ENVIRONMENT
Environment means everything which surrounds us. It may include living
?
(biotic) and non-living (abiotic) components. So, it may includes besides all
creatures, water & air also.
Environment affect the life and development of an organism in its natural
?
habitat & vice a versa.
Substances that are decomposed are called bio-degredable. Eg. organic
?
wastes while some substances like plastics, some chemicals (DDTs &
fertilizers) are inert and can’t be decomposed, are called Non-biodegradable
Actually non-biodegradable persist in the environment for a long time or may
?
harm the various members of the eco system.
ECO SYSTEM & ITS COMPONENT
All the interacting organisms in an area together with non living components form
an ecosystem. So an ecosystem consists of both biotic (living creatures) and
abiotic components like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil etc.
Ecosystem

Man-made Ecosystem Natural Ecosystem

Eg. Cropland, Aquarium etc.

Aquatic Ecosystem Terrestrial Ecosystem

land Ecosystem
Eg. Forest,
Marine Fresh water Desert, Grassland etc.
Ecosystem Ecosystem
Eg. Sea, Oceans River, Lake,
Pond, pool

All living organisms are classified on the basis of the manner in which they
?
survive in the Ecosystem. These groups include
I Producers– All green plants, blue green algae can produce their food (Sugar
& starch) from in organic substance using light energy (Photosynthesis)

157 X-Science
II Consumers– Include organisms which depend on the producers either
directly or indirectly for their sustenance. In other word consumers consume
the food produced by producers.
CONSUMERS

Parasite
Herbivores Carnivores Live & feed Omnivores
– Gross eaters Flash Eaters on the host body Feed on both plant
and flesh.
Eg. Cow, dear Lion, Tiger Plasmodium Eg. Crow

III DECOMPOSERS– Fungi & Bacterias which break down (decompose) the
dead plant, animals complex compounds into the simpler one. Thus
decomposers help in the replenishment of the natural resources.
Food chain refers to an arrangement of different biotic groups in a sequence of
enery transfer. These biotic groups are producer herbivores, carnivores.
For Eg. T1 T2 T3
Grass DearA Lion
A 3-setp Food chain
In a food chain, these biotic components where transfer of energy takes place
?
is called a trophic level.
The green plants capture 1% of sunlight falls on their leaves.
?
The flow of energy is unidirectional in a food chain
?
There is gradual decrease in the amount of energy transfer from one trophic
?
level to next trophic level in a food chain
Tertiary
consumers
1kJ
Secondary ­
Consumer 10kJ
Primary ­
Consumer 100kJ
Producer
­
Energy Flow 1000 kJ TROPHIC LEVEL
Energy

So only 10% of Energy is transferred to next trophic level while 90% of energy is
used by present trophic level in its life processes.

158 X-Science
While the conc. of harmful chemical increases with every next trophic level in
?
a food chain. It is called Bio-magnification For Eg.
Grass Dear Lion
(10 ppm) (200 ppm) (5000ppm)
DDT DDT DDT
Maximum concentration of such chemicals accumulated in human bodies.
?
Naturally the food chains are inter-connected with each other forming a web
?
like pattern, which is known as FOOD WEB.
The loss of energy at each step (trophic level) is very high, so very little
?
amount of energy remains after four trophic levels.
There are gnerally a big population at lower trophic levels of an ecosystem.
?
For Eg. the population of the producer is higher than the consumer carnivore
(lion) population.
ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS
Changes in environment affect us and our activities change the environment
?
around us. This led to the slow degreadation of environment that arose many
environmental problems. Eg. depletion of the Ozone Layer and waste
disposal.
I Depletion of Ozone Layer
Ozone (O3) layer is largely found in the stratosphere which is a part of our
?
atmosphere from 12 km – 50km above sea level.
Ozone is a deadly poison at the ground level.
?
Ozone is formed as a result of a following photochemical reaction.
?

O2 hv O+O (Splitting of
(1800°A to 2000°A) molecular oxygen)
O2 + O O3 (Ozone)

Ozone layer is a protective blanket around earth which absorbs most of the
?
harmful U.V. (Ultraviolet) radiation of the Sun, thus protecting the living
beings of the earth from health hazards like skin cancer, cataract in eyes,
weaken immune system, destruction of plants etc.
The decline of Ozone layer thickness is Antartica was first discovered in 1985
?
and was termed as OZONE HOLE.

159 X-Science
Reason of Ozone Depletion :
Excessive use of CFCs (Chloro Flouro Carbon) a synthetic, inert chemical Eg.
Freon which are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers, caused Ozone
depletion in the upper atmosphere. A single chlorine atom can destroys 1,00,000
Ozone molecules. U.N.E.P. (United Nation Envrionment Programme) did an
excellent job in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels
(KYOTO Protocol) by all countries.
Garbage Disposal
Industrialization and rise in demand of consumer goods have created a major
problem in the form of wastes/garbage accumulation and its disposal especially in
urban area.
The different methods of solid wastes disposal commonly used around the world
are.
1. Open dumping : A conventional method in which solid wastes dumped in
selected areas of a town. It actually cause pollution
2. Land fillings : Wastes are dumped in low living area and are compacted by
rolling with bulldozers
3. Composting : Organic wastes are filled into a compost pit (2m x 1m x 1m). It
is then covered with a thin layer of soil. After about three months the same
garbage filled inside the pit changes into organic manure.
4. Recycling : The solid wastes is broken down into its constituent simpler
materials. These materials are then used to make new items. Even non-bio
degradable solid wastes like plastic, metal can be recycled.
5 Reuse : A very simple conventional technique of using an item again & again.
For Eg. paper can be reused for making envelops etc.

160 X-Science
 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. Define Biomagnification
2. Expand the term CFC & U.N.E.P.
3. Define Ozone hole
4. Which of the following is/are Biodegradable plastic cups, cowdung,
Aluminium foil, cotton.
5. Define food web
6. Define Ecosystem
7. Differentiate between Biodegradable and non biodegradable wastes.
8. Use of Kulhads was not environment friendly idea. Why?
9. Draw an Energy Pyramid showing different trophic level.
10. What is the advantage of disposable paper cup use over plastic cups?
11. How can we help in reducing the the problem of waste disposal? Give any
two methods.
12. What is role of decomposer in Ecosystem.
13. Give any two ways in which non biodegradable substance would affect the
environment.
14. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the
different trophic levels in it.
15. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
16. Study the food chain given below.
I Grass ®
Grasshopper ®
Frog
II Wheat ®
Rat ®
Snake ®
Hawk
Which of the two consumers frog/hawk will get more available energy and why?

161 X-Science
 CHAPTER – 16
MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL
RESOURCES
Natural Resources
? Resources provided to us by nature
Soil, air, water, forests
wildlife, coal and petroleum are used by man for his survival.
?
Management of natural resources is needed for conservation of natural
resources.
There are national and international laws and Acts to protect the environment.
?
Ganga Action Plan : Multi Crore Project came in 1985 to improve the quality
?
of Ganga
Accordingly a survey was conducted and a data was collected of total
?
coliform ( a group of bacteria found in human intestine) between 1993-1994
which was as below
1993-94 Total Coliform (MPN/100ml)

Minimum found Minimum desired level Maximum found in Kannauj

in Rishikesh 450MPN/100ml 1400MPN/100ml
600-650MPN/100ml

MPN ®
? Most probable number.
National Award for wildlife conservation – In the memory Amrita Devi
?
Bishnoi who lost her life in the protection of Khejri trees in Rajasthan
alongwith 363 other people.
Chipko Andolan – Movement originated in Garhwal in early 1970S that was
?
the result of a grassroot level effort to end the alienation of people from their
forest.
Protection of Sal forest in West Bengal in 1972.
?
Three R’s to save the environment
?

162 X-Science
 Reduce means use less Recycle Reuse
Save the resource Segregate the waste that use the things again
by not wasting them can be recycled and use to make and gain.
required things.

Reuse is better than recycling as it saves energy.

?
Management of Natural Resources is necessary so that these may last for the
?
generations to come and are not exploited for short term gains. Also see the
damage they cause to the environment when they are used or mixed.
Forest and wild life conservation – Forests are biodiversity hot spots
?
Biodiversity of an area is the number of species of different life forms like
bacteria, fungi, powering plants insects, birds etc.
Hotspot means an area full of biological diversity.
?
– loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological stability/ecological
imbalance
Stake holders
A person having interest or concern for some thing called as stake holder.
Stakeholders : their dependence on forests

Local People Forest Department Industrialists Wild life

(dependent on (Govt. who owns (Who use various enthusiasts
forests for their the land and controls forest products) (who want to
survival) resources conserve nature)

Sustainable management – Management of forest resources Wisely to make it

?
available for future generations.
Water as a Resource
?
Water is a basic necessity for all terrestrial forms of life.
?
Regions of water scarcity are closely correlated to the regions of acute
?
poverty.
Failure to sustain water availability has resulted in loss of vegetation cover,
?
diversion for high water demanding crops and pollution from industries and
urban wastes and less rain.
Irrigation methods like dams, tanks and coals have been used in various part
?
of India.
Dams
?
Advantages of Dams – Ensures of adequate water for irrigation.
?

163 X-Science
Generate electricity.
?
Continuous supply of water in regions.
?
Disadvantages :
?
No equitable distribution of water.
?
Large no. of people displaced without compensation.
?
Involves huge amount of Public money without giving proper benefits.
?
Causes deforestation and loss of biological diversity.
?
Water Harvesting – Aim is to develop primary resources of land and water
?
and to produce secondary resources of plants and animals for use in a manner
which will not cause ecological imbalance.
? Various ancient methods of water harvesting
? Method State
Khadin, tanks, nadis Rajasthan
Bandharas, tals Maharasthra
Bundhis Madhya Pradesh and U.P.
Pyhes Bihar
Kulhs Himachal Pradesh
Ponds Jammu Region
Eris (tanks) Tamilnadu
Bawlis – old method of water harvesting in Delhi and near by region.
? These techniques are locale specific to ensure the mismanagement and
over-exploitation of these resources
? Advantages of Khadin System :
– Water does no evaporate
– Recharge wells and moisture for vegetation.
– does no provide breeding ground for mosquito
– Ground water is protected from human and animal waste.
Coal and Petroleum
? Generally called fossil fuel.
? Formed from the disintegration of bio-mass millions of years ago.
? They will get exhausted in the future no matter how carefully we use them.
? Petroleum will last us for about 40 years and the coal resources will last for
another two hundred years.
? These contain hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur.
? Why to use fossil fuels judiciously?
– By using public transport enstead of private one, by using C.F.L. tubes, by
using stairs instead of lift, by saving electricity as much as possible.

164 X-Science
 EXERCISE
(Question Bank)
Very Short Answers (1 Mark)
1. Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?
2. Define sustainable development
3. Name any two exhaustible resources
4. What is the most conductive PH range for the life of fresh water plants?
5. List two advantages of water harvesting.
6. Why reuse is better than recycle?
7. What are Dhadin? Where there found?
8. List two steps you would take to conserve electricity in your house.
9. Who are called stake holders?
10. Name some traditional water harvesting systems in India.
Short Answers (2 Marks)
1. How mining is a cause of pollution?
2. Make a list of four forests products that we use.
3. How burning of fossil fuels is effecting our environment?
4. Suggest two weasures for controlling CO2 levels in atmosphere.
5. Why should we conserve forest and wild life?
(3 Marks)
1. What are three main problems from dams?
2. How can you reduce energy consumption at your level. Suggest at least three
points.
3. Explain the maximum of ‘Reduce’, ‘Recycle’ and ‘Reuse’ in your own
words.
(5 Marks)
1. What is the main objective of water harvesting techniques? Name & ancient
water harvesting structures used in India. Mention 3 causes for failure to
sustain water availability under ground?
2. Discuss the damage caused to forest by the following activities:
(a) Building rest houses for 10% tourists in national parks.
(b) Grazing domestic animals on National Parks.
(c) Tourists throwing plastic bottles, covers and other litter in National
Parks.

165 X-Science
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

In-text questions set 1 Page number – 6

1. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?

Solution:
Magnesium rubber should be cleaned before burning in air because Magnesium metal reacts with the
atmospheric oxygen and forms Magnesium Oxide (MgO) layer which is a very stable compound. In
order to prevent further reactions with Oxygen, it is therefore necessary to clean the ribbon by to remove
the layer of MgO.

2. Write a balanced equations for the following chemical reactions.

i) Hydrogen + Chloride —-> Hydrogen chloride
ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate —-> Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
iii) Sodium + Water —-> Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Solution:
i) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
ii) 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
iii) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2

3. Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions
i) Solutions of Barium chloride and Sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble Barium
sulphate and solution of Sodium chloride.
ii) Sodium hydroxide solution in water reacts with hydrochloric acid solution to produce Sodium
chloride solution and water.
Solution:
i) BaCl2 + Na2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl
ii) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

Intext questions set 2 Page number - 10

1. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for whitewashing.

(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named in (i) above with water.
Solution:
i)The substance ‘X’ which is used in whitewashing is quick lime or Calcium Oxide and its formula is
CaO.
ii)
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2

2. Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in Activity 1.7 double of the amount
collected in the other? Name this gas
Solution:
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

In activity 1.7, gas collected in one of the test tubes is double of the amount collected in the other
because water gets hydrolysed to release H2 and O2 gas. Here, after electrolysis two molecules of
Hydrogen and one molecule of oxygen gas is released, hence the amount of Hydrogen collected would
be double than that of oxygen.

In-text questions set 3 Page number – 13

1. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Solution:
When an iron nail dipped in the copper sulphate solution, iron displaces copper from the copper sulphate
because iron is more reactive than copper. Therefore the colour of the copper sulphate solution changes.
The reaction is:
Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu

2. Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in Activity 1.10.
Solution:
Reaction Between silver nitrate (AgNO3) and Sodium chloride (NaCl) is an example of double
displacement reaction. Here Silver donates its ion to Sodium chloride ion and pick up nitare ion to form
silver chloride and sodium Nitrate
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3

3. Identify the substances that are oxidized and that are reduced in the following equation.
i) 4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na2O(s)
ii) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l)
Solution:
The Sodium (Na) in the first equation is getting oxidized with the addition of Oxygen (O2) and the
Copper (Cu) in the second equation is reduced due to the addition of Hydrogen (H2)

Exercise Questions Page number - 14-16

1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?

2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced
(b) Carbon Dioxide is getting oxidised
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all
Solution:
(i) (a) and (b)
Explanation: (a) because Oxygen is being removed and (b) because the removed oxygen from Lead is
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

added to the elemental Carbon.

2. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe

The above reaction is an example of a
1. Combination reaction.
2. Double displacement reaction.
3. Decomposition reaction.
4. Displacement reaction.
Solution:
Answer is 4. Displacement reaction.
Explanation: The Oxygen from the Ferrous oxide is getting displaced to the Aluminium metal to form
Aluminium Oxide. In this reaction Aluminum is more reactive metal than Fe. Therefore Al will displace
Fe from its oxide. This type of chemical reactions in which one of the elements displace another is
called displacement reaction. Here less reactive metal is displaced by more reactive metal. Since one-
time displacement is occurring, therefore, it is called a single displacement reaction.

3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron fillings? Tick the correct answer.
1. Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced.
2. Chlorine gas and Iron hydroxide are produced.
3. No reaction takes place.
4. Iron salt and water are produced.
Solution:
1. Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced.
Explanation: The Chlorine from Hydrogen chloride is displaced by the Iron fillings to undergo the
following reaction.
2HCl + Fe → FeCl2 + H2

4. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should a chemical equation be balanced?

Solution:
A balanced equation is the one in which number of different atoms on both the reactant and product
sides are equal. Balancing chemical equation is necessary for the reaction should obey The Law of
Conservation of energy. Balancing the chemical equation has no defined method and is purely a trial and
error attempt.

5. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and balance them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give Aluminium chloride and a precipitate
of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and Hydrogen gas.
Solution:
(a) Unbalanced: H2 + N2 → NH3
Balanced: 3H2 + N2 → 2NH3
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

(b) Unbalanced: H2S + O2 → H2O + SO2

Balanced: 2H2S + 3O2 → 2H2O + 2SO2

(c) Unbalanced:
BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → AlCl3 + BaSO4
Balanced: 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4

(d) Unbalanced: K + H2O → KOH + H2

Balanced: 2K + 2H2O → 2KOH + H2

6. Balance the following chemical equations.

(a) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
(b) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl
Solution:
(a) 2HNO3 + 2Ca(OH)2 → 2Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O
(b) 6NaOH + 3H2SO4 → H2SO4 + 6H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
7. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reactions.
Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide —-> Calcium carbonate + Water
Zinc + Silver nitrate —-> Zinc nitrate + Silver
Aluminium + Copper chloride —-> Aluminium chloride + Copper
Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate —-> Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride
Solution:
2Ca(OH)2 + 2CO2 → 2CaCO3 + 2H2O
Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag
2Al + 3CuCl3 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu
BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl

8) Write a balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction of each
case
KBr + BaI2 → KI + BaBr2
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
H2 + Cl → HCl
Mg + HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Solution:
2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2 (Double Displacement Reaction)
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2 (Decomposition Reaction)
H2 + Cl → 2HCl (Combination Reaction)
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2 (Displacement Reaction)

9) What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.

Solution:
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

An endothermic reaction occurs when energy is absorbed from the surroundings in the form of
heat.(Example: Photosynthesis, melting of ice, evaporation). Conversely, an exothermic reaction is one
in which energy is released from the system into the surroundings. (Example: Explosions, concrete
setting, nuclear fission and fusion).

10. Why is respiration considered to be an exothermic reaction?

Solution:
For the survival of life, we require energy. We obtain this energy from the food we eat. The food
molecules, through the process of digestion, is broken down into a simpler molecule like glucose. These
substances come in contact with the Oxygen present in our body cells to form Carbon dioxide and water
along with a certain amount of energy (Respiration process). Since the energy is in the form of heat (that
maintains our body temperature) the respiration is considered to be an exothermic reaction. The reaction
taking place is:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

11. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of Combination reactions? Write
equations for decomposition reactions.
Solution:
Combination reaction is said to be the reaction between two or more molecules to form a larger
molecule; whereas the decomposition reaction is defined as the splitting of larger molecules into two or
more smaller molecules. This essentially explains that the decomposition reaction is the opposite of the
combination reaction.
In most of the cases the decomposition reaction is endothermic since heat from the surrounding or
induced heat is used to break the bonds of the larger molecule. Few examples of decomposition
reactions are:
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
CaCO3 + Energy → CaO + CO2
2HgO → 2Hg + O2

12. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions in which energy is supplied in the form of
heat, light or electricity.
Solution:
(a) Thermal decomposition reaction (Thermolysis)
Decomposition of potassium chlorate: When heated strongly, potassium chlorate decomposes into
potassium chloride and oxygen. This reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen.
2KClO3 + Heat → 2KCl + 3O2

(b) Electrolytic decomposition reaction (Electrolysis)

Decomposition of sodium chloride: On passing electricity through molten sodium chloride, it
decomposes into sodium and chlorine.

(c) Photodecomposition reaction (Photolysis)

Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide: In the presence of light, hydrogen peroxide decomposes into
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

water and oxygen.

13. What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write
relevant equations for the above.
Solution:
A displacement reaction is the one when a more reactive substance displaces a less reactive one from its
salt solution whereas a double displacement reaction is the one where a mutual exchange of ions
happens between two compounds.
In a displacement reaction, only a single displacement takes place whereas in the double displacement
reaction, as the name suggests two displacement takes place between the molecules.
Example:
Displacement reaction
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Double displacement reaction
2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2

Q13) What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write
relevant equations for the above.
Solution:
A displacement reaction is the one when a more reactive substance displaces a less reactive one from its
salt solution whereas a double displacement reaction is the one where a mutual exchange of ions
happens between two compounds.
In a displacement reaction, only a single displacement takes place whereas in the double displacement
reaction, as the name suggests two displacement takes place between the molecules.
Example:
Displacement reaction
Mg+2HCl→MgCl2+H2

Double displacement reaction

2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2

14. In the refining of Silver, the recovery of silver from Silver nitrate solution involves
displacement reaction by Copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Solution:
Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)

15. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.

Solution:
When two solutions containing soluble salts are combined, a double displacement reaction takes place in
which the ions are exchanged between the compounds. When one of such compounds formed is in solid
form (that is insoluble in aqua) then it settles down at the bottom of the container. This solid is known as
the precipitate and the respective reaction is termed as the precipitation reaction. Few examples of
precipitation reactions are:
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

CdSO4(aq) + K2S(aq) → CdS(s) + K2SO4(aq)

2NaOH(aq) + MgCl2(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + Mg(OH)2(s)

16. Explain the following in terms of gain of oxygen with two examples each.
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
Solution:
(a) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is added to the element to form its respective oxide it is the
element being oxidised. Example:
4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na2O(s)
H2S + O2 → H2O + SO2

(b) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is being removed from the compound then it is said to be
reduced. Example:
CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l)
2HgO → 2Hg + O2

17. A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in the air becomes black in colour. Name the
element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Solution:
The shiny brown coloured element is the Copper metal (Cu). When the metal is heated in air, it reacts
with atmospheric oxygen to form copper oxide. Hence the black coloured compound is the copper
oxide.
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s)

18) Why do we apply paint on iron articles?

Solution:
Iron articles are painted to prevent them from rusting. When left unpainted, the metal surface comes in
contact with the atmospheric oxygen and in the presence of moisture it from Iron(III) oxide. But if
painted the surface does not come in contact with moisture and air thus preventing Rusting.

19) Oil and Fat containing food items are flushed with Nitrogen. Why?
Solution:
The main purpose of flushing Nitrogen into food packets that contain oil and fat items is to prevent
Rancidity which occurs when the oil or fat reacts with the oxygen letting out an unpleasant smell and
taste. Therefore by flushing Nitrogen, an unreactive surrounding is created thus preventing rancidity.

20) Explain the following terms with one example each.

(a) Corrosion
(b) Rancidity
Solution:
(a) Corrosion is a process where a refined metal is oxidised by atmospheric oxygen to form a more
stable compound such as oxides. The metal gradually degrades during the corrosion process. Rusting of
iron is a good example of corrosion where the iron is converted to Iron oxide. Millions of dollars are
spent annually in preventing rusting from bridges and other monuments.
(b) The condition produced by the aerial oxidation of the oil and fat present in the food material that
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

produces an unpleasant taste and smell. The rancidity is retarded when the food is kept inside the
refrigerator since the low temperature does not promote the oxidation reaction.
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

Multiple Choice Questions

1. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of
power
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D
(d) – 0.2 D

Soln:

Answer is (b) – 0.5 D

Explanation:

The person is Myopic and he need a concave mirror hence the power would be in negative.
1 1
P= = = 0.5 D
𝑓 2𝑚

2. A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard but is not able to read
the letters written in his text book. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away
(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him
(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him
(d) The far point of his eyes has receded away

Soln:

Answer is (a) The near point of his eyes has receded away

Explanation:

Near point of eye move away for 25 cm in hypermetropia. Hence person should keep the book 25 cm apart to read
properly.
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

3. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is
incident on the prism as shown in Figure 11.1. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third
colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky? The Human Eye and the Colourful World
CHAPTER11 Fig.11.1

(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)

Soln:

Answer is (b) (ii)

Explanation:

Band of color show violet at the bottom if prism is kept with BC in the bottom. if prism is kept with BC in the top,
then violet will be in the top followed by indigo and blue.

4. At noon the sun appears white as

(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most
(d) red colour is scattered the most

Soln:

Answer is (b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away

Explanation:

This is due to dispersion of light by the atmosphere.

 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

5. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection

Soln:

Answer is (c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection

Explanation:

Dispersion of light leads to scattering of white light into different color to an angle to cause internal reflection.rs.
Refraction bends incident light leading to the formation of rainbow.

6. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds

Soln:

Answer is (b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices

Explanation:

Refraction of light keeps the position of source of light change. This will make the stars sparkle.

7. The clear sky appears blue because

(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere

Soln:

Answer is (c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colors by the atmosphere .
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of
white light in air?
(a) Red light moves fastest
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light

Soln:

Answer is (c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed

9. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a
distance because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) moves fastest in air

Soln:

Answer is (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog

Explanation:

Wavelength of red color is the largest thus it can easily be seen from a distance. It is the color which is least
scattered by the smoke or smog.

10.Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at
sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Reflection of light from the earth

Soln:

Answer is (b) Scattering of light

Explanation:

Because red color scatters the least it travels long distance. During sunset or sunrise light has to travel long
distance to reach the earth. Hence light will be red when it reaches us.
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

11. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to

(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) reflection of sky in water
(c) scattering of light
(d) absorption of light by the sea

Soln:

Answer is (b) reflection of sky in water

Explanation:

Water is colorless water attains the color it is reflected by. Hence sea appears blue.

12. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(a) crystalline lens
(b) outer surface of the cornea
(c) iris
(d) pupil

Soln:

Answer is (b) outer surface of the cornea

Explanation:

Cornea is a thin membrane through which light is entered. The incident light rays are bent due to cornea and are
converged which results in image formation at retina. So, most of the refraction occurs at the iris of the eye.

13. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles
(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(d) contract and lens becomes thinner

Soln:

Answer is (a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner

14. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly

Soln:

Answer is (c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World
Explanation:

Myopia is a condition where a person cannot see the distant objects clears and he can see nearer objects clearly.

Hypermetropia is a condition in which a person cannot see the nearer object clearly but he can see the distant
objects clearly.

Short Answer Questions

15. Draw ray diagrams each showing (i) myopic eye and (ii) hypermetropic eye.

Soln:

16. A student sitting at the back of the classroom cannot read clearly the letters written on the blackboard.
What advice will a doctor give to her? Draw ray diagram for the correction of this defect.

Soln:

If student cannot see the blackboard distant to her she is suffering from Myopia. Hence doctor advices concave
lens of suitable focal length.

17. How are we able to see nearby and also the distant objects clearly?

Soln:

Our eyes can focus on the images from varied distance by changing its focal length of lens. Action of Ciliary
muscle helps changing focal length of the lens.
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

18. A person needs a lens of power –4.5 D for correction of her vision.
(a) What kind of defect in vision is she suffering from?
(b) What is the focal length of the corrective lens?
(c) What is the nature of the corrective lens?

Soln:

a) Answer is Myopia
1 1 1
b) P= f= = = 0.22 m
𝑓 𝑝 4.5 𝐷
c) Negative sign shows that it is a concave lens.

19. How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism
emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw the diagram.

Soln:

By placing two identical prism inverted with respect to the other we get a narrow beam of white light incident on
one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light.

20. Draw a ray diagram showing the dispersion through a prism when a narrow beam of white light is
incident on one of its refracting surfaces. Also indicate the order of the colours of the spectrum obtained.

Soln:
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

21. Is the position of a star as seen by us its true position? Justify your answer.

Soln:

Star light undergo continuous refraction on entering earth’s atmosphere. Refraction occurs in a medium of
gradually changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent
position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. The star appears slightly higher (above) than its
actual position.

22. Why do we see a rainbow in the sky only after rainfall?

Soln:

Rainbow is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. A rainbow is
always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract
and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the
raindrop.

23. Why is the colour of the clear sky blue?

Soln:

Blue is the colour in visible spectrum which is having maximum scattering. This makes the blue colour to reach
us and the sky appears blue.

24. What is the difference in colours of the Sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon? Give explanation
for each.

Soln:

Sun appears red at sunrise and sunset : At sinrise and sunset, sun is closer to the horizon. The sunlight passes
through denser layer of air and covers larger distance before reaching our eyes. Most of the blue light gets
scattered. And red color reaches us which make the sun appears red at sunrise.

At noon, the sun is overhead. The sunlight passes through layers of air and covers shorter distance before reaching
our eye. So, almost all colours of light are scattered equally. Hence the sun appears white.
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

Long Answer Questions

25. Explain the structure and functioning of Human eye. How are we able to see nearby as well as distant
objects?

Soln:

The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive sense organs. It enables us to see the wonderful world
and the colours around us. On closing the eyes, we can identify objects to some extent by their smell, taste, sound
they make or by touch. It is, however, impossible to identify colours while closing the eyes. Thus, of all the sense
organs, the human eye is the most significant one as it enables us to see the beautiful, colourful world around us.

The human eye is like a camera. Its lens system forms an image on a light-sensitive screen called the retina. Light
enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface of the
eyeball as shown in Fig. The eyeball is approximately spherical in shape with a diameter of about 2.3 cm. Most of
the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea. The crystalline lens
merely provides the finer adjustment of focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina.
We find a structure called iris behind the cornea. Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the
pupil. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye. The eye lens forms an inverted real
image of the object on the retina. The retina is a delicate membrane having enormous number of light-sensitive
cells. The light-sensitive cells get activated upon illumination and generate electrical signals. These signals are
sent to the brain via the optic nerves. The brain interprets these signals, and finally, processes the information so
that we perceive objects as they are.

Our eyes can focus on the images from varied distance by changing its focal length of lens. Action of Ciliary
muscle helps changing focal length of the lens.
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

26. When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic? Explain using diagrams how the defects
associated with myopic and hypermetropic eye can be corrected?

Soln:

When a person cannot see the distant objects clearly he is said to be myopic. Myopia is a condition where image
is formed in front of retina.

When a person cannot see the nearer objects clearly he is said to be hypermetropic. Hypermetropia is a condition
where image is formed behind the retina.

Correction of Myopia

Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power. A concave lens of suitable power will bring
the image back on to the retina and thus the defect is corrected.
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

Hypermetropia can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable power. Eye-glasses with converging lenses
provide the additional focussing power required for forming the image on the retina.

27. Explain the refraction of light through a triangular glass prism using a labelled ray diagram. Hence
define the angle of deviation.

Soln:

The refraction of light through a triangular glass prism is shown below. A ray of light PE is entering from air to
glass at the first surface AB. The light ray EF on refraction has bent towards the normal. At the second surface
AC, the light ray FS has entered from glass to air and bent away from normal. The angle made by extending
incident ray with the emergent ray is called angle of deviation.

28. How can we explain the reddish appearance of sun at sunrise or sunset? Why does it not appear red at
noon?

Soln:

Sun appears red at sunrise and sunset : At sunrise and sunset, sun is closer to the horizon. The sunlight passes
through denser layer of air and covers larger distance before reaching our eyes. Most of the blue light gets
scattered. And red color reaches us which make the sun appears red at sunrise.

During noon sunlight has to travel less distance to reach us. Because most of the colors get scattered we see sun
white in color during noon.
 NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World

29. Explain the phenomenon of dispersion of white light through a glass prism, using suitable ray diagram.

Soln:

When ray of light enters a prism, it bends because of refraction of light. When the ray of light finally emerges out
of the prism. it deviates drastically from its original path. This happens because of unique shape of prism.
Different colours in the visible spectrum have different speeds. Due to this, different colours bend at different
angles of deviation. As a result, the emergent light appears as a band of seven colours: the colours which are the
components of white light. These colours are Violet. Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red.
Segregation of white light into its different components is called dispersion of light.
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

In-text questions set 1 Page number 61

1. What would be the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide which has the
formula CO2?

Solution:

2. What would be the electron dot structure of a molecule of Sulphur which is

made up of eight atoms of Sulphur? (Hint – The eight atoms of Sulphur are joined
together in the form of a ring).

Solution:

In-text questions set 2 Page number 61

1. How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?

Solution: Structural isomer of pentane are

n-pentane
2-methylbutane
2, 2-dimethylpropane
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

2. What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of
carbon compounds we see around us?

Solution: Two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds
we see around us are

• Carbon has six valence electrons which are actually a high number of valency.
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

• Covalent bonding happens easily with carbon atoms and numerous others such as
oxygen, chlorine, nitrogen, Sulphur, hydrogen and etc.
3. What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane?

Solution:

4. Draw the structures for the following compounds.

(i) Ethanoic acid
(ii) Bromopentane*
(iii) Butanone
(iv) Hexanal
Solution: i)

ii)
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

iii)

iv)

5. How would you name the following compounds?

(i) CH3—CH2—Br
(ii)

(iii)
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

Solution:
(i) Bromoethane
(ii) Methanal or Formaldehyde
(iii) 1 - Hexyne

In-text questions set 3 Page number 71

1. Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid an oxidation reaction?

Solution:

Conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid involves the removal of Hydrogen atom and addition of
oxygen it is an oxidation reaction. In first step a H2 molecule is removed from ethanol to form
ethanal. As loss of Hydrogen is oxidation so, the reaction is an oxidation reaction. Similarly
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

Oxygen atom is added to form ethanoic acid from ethanal. As, gain of Oxygen is called
oxidation so, the reaction is an oxidation reaction.

2. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a
mixture of ethyne and air is not used?

Solution: A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding instead of mixture of ethyne
and air because the production of heat is very important for welding metals. When oxygen and
ethyne are burnt, it burns completely and produces a higher temperature than air and ethyne.
Oxygen and ethyne produce very hot blue flame but the mixture of air and ethyne gives out a
sooty flame which means that there are unburnt particles resulting in lesser heat.

In text questions set 4 Page number 74

1. How would you distinguish experimentally between an alcohol and a carboxylic

acid?

Solution: On reaction with Sodium Carbonate, Carboxylic acids produces carbon dioxide gas
which turns lime water milky whereas alcohols do not give this reaction. This experiment can
be used to distinguish an alcohol and carboxylic acid.

Reaction of Carboxylic acid with sodium carbonate:

2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2CH3COONa + H2O + CO2

2. What are oxidising agents?

Solution: Oxidising agents are those compounds which either removes Hydrogen or adds
oxygen to a compound. Ex: halogens, potassium nitrate, and nitric acid.

In text questions set 5 Page number 76

1. Would you be able to check if water is hard by using a detergent?

Solution: It is not possible to check if water is hard by using a detergent because detergents
are salts of ammonium or sulphonates of long chain carboxylic acids. Unlike soaps they do not
react with calcium and magnesium to distinguish nature of water.

2. People use a variety of methods to wash clothes. Usually after adding the soap,
they ‘beat’ the clothes on a stone, or beat it with a paddle, scrub with a brush or
the mixture is agitated in a washing machine. Why is agitation necessary to get
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

clean clothes?

Solution: Agitation is necessary to get clean clothes as agitation aid soap micelles to trap the
oil, grease or any other impurities that have to be removed. When they are being beaten or
agitated, the particles are removed from the clothes’ surfaces and go into the water, thus
cleaning the clothes.

Exercise questions Page number 77-78

1. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has

(a) 6 covalent bonds.
(b) 7 covalent bonds.
(c) 8 covalent bonds.
(d) 9 covalent bonds

Solution: Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has 7 covalent bonds

2. Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group

(a) carboxylic acid
(b) aldehyde
(c) ketone
(d) alcohol

Solution: Answer is option C i.e Ketone.

3. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it
means that
(a) the food is not cooked completely.
(b) the fuel is not burning completely.
(c) the fuel is wet.
(d) the fuel is burning completely.

Solution: Answer is option b. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened
on the outside indicates that the fuel is not burning completely.

4. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation in CH3Cl

Solution: Carbon can neither lose 4 electrons nor do gain four electrons as these process
make the system unstable due to requirement of extra energy. Therefore CH3Cl completes its
octet configuration by sharing its 4 electrons with carbon atoms or with atoms of other
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

elements. Hence the bonding that exists in CH3Cl is a covalent bonding.

Here, carbon requires 4 electrons to complete its octet, while each hydrogen atom requires one
electron to complete its duplet. Also, chlorine requires an electron to complete the octet.
Therefore, all of these share the electrons and as a result, carbon forms 3 bonds with hydrogen
and one with chlorine.

5. Draw the electron dot structures for

(a) ethanoic acid
(b) H2 S
(c) propanone
(d) F2

Solution:
a)

b)

c)
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

d)

6. What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.

A homologous series is a series of compounds, which has the same functional group. This also
contains similar general formula and chemical properties. Since there is a change in the
physical properties, we can say that there would be an increase in the molecular size and mass.

For example, methane, ethane, propane, butane, etc. are all part of the alkane homologous
series. The general formula of this series is CnH2n+2. Methane CH4 Ethane CH3CH3 Propane
CH3CH2CH3 Butane CH3CH2CH2CH3. It can be noticed that there is a difference of −CH2 unit
between each successive compound.

7. How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on the basis of their
physical and chemical properties?

Solution:

Ethanol Ethanoic acid

Does not react with sodium hydrogen Bubbles and fizzes with sodium hydrogen
carbonate carbonate

A good smell Smells like vinegar

No action in litmus paper Blue litmus paper to red

Burning taste Sour taste

8. Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Will a
micelle be formed in other solvents such as ethanol also?

Solution: Micelle formation takes place because of the dirt particles in water and clean water.
There are two mediums that are involved: one is pure water and the other being dirt (also
called as impurities). The soap also has two mediums:
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

(i) organic tail and

(ii) ionic head
So the organic tail mixes and dissolves with the dirt whereas the oil or grease and ionic head
dissolves and mixes with the water. Therefore, when the material to be cleaned is removed
from the water, the dirt is taken off by the soap molecules in the water. Hence, the soap cleans
by forming closed structures by the mutual repulsion of the micelles (positively charged heads).

9. Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications?

Solution: Carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications for they have high
calorific values and give out a lot of energy. Most of the carbon compounds give a lot of heat
and light when burnt in air.

10. Explain the formation of scum when hard water is treated with soap?

Solution: Scrum is produced from reaction of hard water with soap. Calcium and magnesium
present in the hard water form an insoluble precipitate that stick as a white which is also called
as scrum.

11. What change will you observe if you test soap with litmus paper (red and
blue)?

Solution: When we test soap with litmus paper color of litmus paper turns blue from red. As
soap is a base it turn red litmus paper into blue.

12. What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial application?

Solution: Hydrogenation is a process or a chemical reaction between hydrogen and other

compounds. It is usually done in the presence of catalysts: for example nickel, palladium or
platinum. Hydrogenation is used mainly to saturate organic compounds.

13. Which of the following hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions: C2H6, C3H8,
C3H6, C2H2 and CH4.

Solution: Unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions. C3H6 and C2H2 are
unsaturated hydrocarbons which undergo addition reactions.

14. Give a test that can be used to differentiate between saturated and
unsaturated hydrocarbons.
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

Solution: Bromine water test - is used to differentiate between the unsaturated compounds
(like alkenes and alkynes) and the saturated compounds. For this purpose, bromine is used in
the form of bromine water. A solution of bromine in water is called bromine water. Bromine
water has a red-brown color due to the presence of bromine in it. When bromine water is
added to an unsaturated compound, then bromine gets added to the unsaturated compound
and the red-brown color of bromine water is discharged. So, if an organic compound
decolorizes bromine water, then it will be an unsaturated hydrocarbon (containing a double
bond or a triple bond), but saturated hydrocarbon (alkanes) do not decolorize bromine water.

Bromine water test is perform to differentiate between the unsaturated compounds (like
alkenes and alkynes) and the saturated compounds. Bromine water is added to an un-saturated
hydrocarbon red brown color of bromine solution is discharged. Si if there is dis-coloration
then the compound will be an unsaturated Hydrocarbon.

15. Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps.

Solution: There are so many impurities and dirt mixed in water, and most of all the dirt do
not dissolve in the water. Soap molecules are a combination of salts such as sodium or
potassium. The molecules are of a long chain of carboxylic acids. So, when the carbon chain is
dissolved in oil and the ionic end is dissolved in the water, the soap starts cleansing and
trapping the dirt. When this happens, the soap molecules form structures that are called
micelles are used for capturing the oil droplets and then the other end being the ionic faces.
This will then form an emulsion in water and help in dissolving the dirt or impurities when the
clothes are washed.
The soap molecules have different properties at different ends. The first end being the
hydrophilic end which dissolves in the water and is attracted towards the water and the second
one being the hydrophobic end is dissolved in the hydrocarbons and is repulsive to water. The
hydrophobic tail aligns itself along the surface of the water because it is not soluble in the
water.
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

In-text questions set 1

Page number – 18

1. You are given three test tubes. The three test tubes contain distilled water,
acidic solution and the basic solution respectively. There is only red litmus paper
available in order to identify what is there in each test tube. How will you find out
what is in each of the test tubes?

Solution: We can identify the content in each of the test tubes using red litmus paper. This
can be done by noticing the colour change of the red litmus paper.

• If the red litmus paper changes to blue colour the solution is a basic solution.
• If the red litmus paper experience no change in acidic solution.
• If the red litmus paper changes to purple colour the solution is distilled water.

In-text questions set 2

Page number – 22

1. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Solution: Curd and sour food substances contain acids; these acidic substances combine with
metal. This reaction turns food to poison which damage people’s health.

2. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with
an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?

Solution: When an acid reacts with any metal, salt and hydrogen gas are formed.
Metal + Acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas
3. Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce
effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced
chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium
chloride.
Solution: As metal compound released is Calcium Chloride the gas evolved here is CO2.
Hence metal A should be Calcium Carbonate. Hence the reaction between Calcium Carbonate
and HCl is
CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (Aq) → CaCl2( Aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

in text questions set 3

Page number – 25

1. Why do HCl, HNO3, etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while
solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?

Solution: Release of H+ ion in water will make a compound acidic or non-acidic. Acids are the
substance which upon dissociating with water results in production of Hydrogen ions. Some
compounds show acidic character as they dissociate in the aqueous solution which results in
the production of hydrogen ions (acids like HCl, HNO3).

Compounds similar to glucose or alcohol do contain hydrogen element but they do not show
signs of acidic nature. The fact that the hydrogen in them will not separate as like the hydrogen
in the acids. They will not separate to become hydrogen ions, on dissolving in the water.

2. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?

Solution: Charged particles are responsible for the conductance of electricity in an acid. These
charged particles called as ions are the reason behind conductance of electricity in acid.

3. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?

Solution: HCl does not give out Hydrogen ions, therefore HCl does not show any acidic
behaviour and colour of the litmus paper remain the same on reacting with HCl gas.

4. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to
water and not water to the acid?

Solution: While diluting an acid, it is recommended that the acid should be added to water
and not water to the acid because if water is added to concentrated acid, it release huge amount
of heat which may result in explosion and can cause acid burns on face, clothes and body parts.
Hence it is safe to add acid to water but not water to acid.

5. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of

an acid is diluted?
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Solution: When acid is added to water there will be a fixed amount of hydronium present in
the fixed volume of solution. If we dilute the solution hydronium ion per volume of solution
decrease, this in-turn decreases Hydronium concentration in the solution.

6. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) affected when excess base is
dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?

Solution: When base is dissolved in sodium hydroxide solution its hydroxide ions increase
but it will reach saturation at some point. After saturation point hydroxide ion concentration is
not affected even after adding base further.

In-text questions set 4

Page number – 33

1. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B

is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic
and which one is basic?

Solution: In order to find the hydrogen ion concentration, we can use the rule that states,
“The pH of any solution is inversely proportional to the hydrogen ion concentration”.
Therefore, it means that the solution that has a lower pH number will have a higher hydrogen
ion concentration. Hence, solution A will have a higher hydrogen ion concentration. In
addition, solution B will be basic and A will be acidic.

2. What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the
solution?

Solution: Hydrogen ion concentration decides the nature of the solution. If Hydrogen ion
concentration increase then solution turn acidic and similarly if Hydrogen ion concentration
decreases then solution turn basic.

3. Do basic solutions also have H+(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?

Solution: Basic solutions has H+ ions, but hydroxide ions present in basic solution are more
in basic solution. Hence Hydroxide ions turn solution to basic.

4. Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his
fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk
(calcium carbonate)?
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Solution: If the soil is acidic in nature (PH below 7) then such field should be treated with
quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate).

In text questions set 5

Page number – 34-35

1. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?

Solution: Common name of CaOCl2 is bleaching powder.

2. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder
Solution: The substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder is Calcium
hydroxide.

3. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Solution: Sodium carbonate is the compound which is used for softening hard water.

4. What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the

equation of the reaction involved.

Solution: Heating sodium hydrocarbonate yields sodium carbonate and carbon dioxide gas is
liberated in the process.

5. Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
Solution: The chemical equation for the reaction of Plaster of Paris and water is
CaSO4.1/2H2O + 3/2H2O → CaSO4.2H2O

Exercise questions Page number – 33

1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be

(a)1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
Solution: Answer is 10 because litmus paper turns blue when reacts with basic solution (PH
more than 7). Hence 10 is the answer.

2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water
milky. The solution contains
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

(a)NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl

Solution: Answer is HCl.
Egg shells contains calcium carbonate, which on reaction with HCl liberates CO2 gas which
turn lime water to milky.
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a

given solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount
HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be
(a) 4 mL (b) 8 mL (c) 12 mL (d) 16 mL

Solution: Since 10 ml of NaOH requires 8 mL of HCL, 20 ml of NaOH require 8 x 2 = 16mL of

HCl Hence the answer id option d 16mL.

4. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic (c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic

Solution: Indigestion is due to excess production of acid in the stomach. Medicines used to
treat indigestion is called as Antacid.

5. Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking
place when
(a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(c) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(d) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.

Solution:

(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules:

=> dilute sulphuric acid + zinc → Zinc Sulphate + Hydrogen Gas
=> H2SO4(aq) + Zn → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)

(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.

=> dilute Hydrochloric + Magnesium → Magnesium Chloride + Hydrogen Gas
=> 2HCl(aq) + Mg → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)

(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.

=> dilute Sulphuric Acid + Aluminium → Aluminium Sulphate + Hydrogen Gas
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

=> 3H2SO4(aq) + 2Al(s) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)

(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.

=> dilute Hydrochloric Acid + Iron → Ferrous Chloride + Hydrogen Gas
=> 6HCl(aq) + 3Fe(s) → 3FeCl2(aq) + 3H2(g)

6. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not
categorised as acids. Describe an Activity to prove it

Solution: Insert two nails on the wooden or rubber cork and place them on a beaker as shown
in figure. Connect iron nail to a bulb, 6 volt battery and a wire connected to switch. Pour some
alcohol or glucose so as to dip the nails in glucose or alcohol. Turn the switch on and you the
see the bulb not glowing despite of connection to switch. Now empty the beaker and add HCL
solution. This time bulb glows. This proves acid can conduct electricity but alcohol and glucose
does not conduct electricity.

7. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain water does?
Solution:

• Distilled water does not contain any ionic compounds in it.

• Whereas rainwater has a lot, more compounds.
• Rainwater has dissolved acidic gas such as carbon dioxide from the air and that forms
carbonic acid. This means that it has hydrogen ions and carbonate ions. Therefore, with
the presence of acids, rainwater can conduct electricity.

8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?

Solution: The acidic behaviour from acids is because of the presence of hydrogen ions.
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Hydrogen ions can only be produced in the presence of water and therefore water is definitely
needed if acids are to show their acidic behaviour.

9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH

as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9, respectively. Which solution is

(a) neutral?

(b) Strongly alkaline?

(c) Strongly acidic?

(d) Weakly acidic?

(e) Weakly alkaline?

Solution: In increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration:

pH 11(B) -> pH 9(E) -> pH 7(A) -> pH 4(D) -> pH 1 (B)
PH11 - Strongly alkaline
pH9 - weakly alkaline
PH7 - Neutral
pH4 - Weakly acidic
pH1 - Strongly acidic
10. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B.
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is
added to test tube B. Amount and concentration taken for both the acids are
same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Solution: HCl is a strong acid whereas acetic is a weaker acid. Fizzing occurs because of the
production of the hydrogen gas obtained due to reaction of the acid on the magnesium ribbon.
Since HCl is a very strong acid there is a lot of liberation of hydrogen gas from test tube A.
therefore, more fizzing take place in test tube A.
11. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into
curd? Explain your answer.
Solution: Fresh milk is turned to curd due to production of lactic acid. Lactic acid reduces the
pH of the milk.
12. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?

Solution: (a) He shifted the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline to prevent milk
from getting sour due to production of lactic acid.

(b) This milk takes long time to set into curd because the lactic acid produced here first
neutralises the pH then the pH is reduced to turn milk to curd.

13. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?

Solution: Plaster of Paris should be stored in moisture-proof container because moisture can
affect plaster of Paris by slowing down the setting of the plaster because of hydration. This will
turn plaster useless.

14. What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.

Solution: The reaction of the acid + base gives a product of salt + water, which is considered
as neutralization reaction.
Examples:
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Mg(OH)2 + H2CO3 → MgCO3 + 2H2O
15. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Solution:

Washing soda Baking soda

1. It can be used to test the garden soil for

1. It is used as an electrolyte acidity. If bubbles are developed then the soil
Is too acidic

2. If used on washing car then it will

2. It can be used domestically as water
remove dead bug bodies without damaging
softener for laundry.
the colour or the paint on the car.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

In text 12.1 Page: 200

1. What does an electric circuit mean?
Solution:
A continuous closed path made of electric components through which an electric current flows is known as an
electric circuit. A simple circuit consists of the following components:
(a) Conductors
(b) Cell
(c) Switch
(d) Load

2. Define the unit of current.

Solution:
The unit of current is ampere. Ampere is defined by the flow of one coulomb of charge per second.

3. Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge.

Solution:
The value of the charge of an electron is 1.6 × 10-19 C.
According to charge quantization,
Q = nqe, where n is the number of electrons and qe is the charge of an electron.
Substituting the values in the above equation, the number of electrons in a coulomb of charge can be calculated as
follows:

Therefore, the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge is 25 × 1018.

 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

In text 12.2 Page: 202

1. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
Solution:
Battery consisting of one or more electric cells is one of the devices that help to maintain a potential difference
across a conductor.

2. What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 V?
Solution:
When 1 J of work is done to move a charge of 1 C from one point to another, it is said that the potential difference
between two points is 1 V.

3. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery?
Solution:
We know that the potential difference between two points is given by the equation,
V = W/Q, where,
W is the work done in moving the charge from one point to another
Q is the charge
From the above equation, we can find the energy given to each coulomb as follows:
W=V×Q
Substituting the values in the equation, we get
W = 6V × 1C = 6 J
Hence, 6 J of energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V of battery.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

In text 12.5 Page: 209

1. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend?
Solution:
The resistance of the conductor depends on the following factors:
a. Temperature of the conductor
b. Cross-sectional area of the conductor
c. Length of the conductor
d. Nature of the material of the conductor

2. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same material, when connected to
the same source? Why?
Solution:
Resistance is given by the equation,
R = ρ l/A
where,
ρ is the resistivity of the material of the wire,
l is the length of the wire
A is the area of the cross-section of the wire.

From the equation, it is evident that the area of the cross-section of wire is inversely proportional to the resistance.
Therefore, thinner the wire, more the resistance and vice versa. Hence, current flows more easily through a thick
wire than a thin wire.

3. Let the resistance of an electrical component remain constant while the potential difference across the
two ends of the component decreases to half of its former value. What change will occur in the current
through it?
Solution:
The change in the current flowing through the electrical component can be determined by Ohm’s Law.
According to Ohm’s Law, the current is given by
I = V/R
Now, the potential difference is reduced to half keeping the resistance constant,
Let the new voltage be V’ = V/2
Let the new resistance be R’ = R and the new amount of current be I’.
The change in the current can be determined using Ohm’s law as follows:

Therefore, the current flowing the electrical component is reduced by half.

4. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Solution:
The melting point of an alloy is much higher than a pure metal because of its high resistivity. At high temperatures,
alloys do not melt readily. Therefore, alloys are used in heating appliances such as electric toasters and electric
irons.

5. Use the data in the table given below and answer the following questions.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

Material Resistivity
Silver 1.60 × 10–8
Copper 1.62 × 10–8
Aluminium 2.63 × 10–8
Tungsten 5.20 × 10–8
Conductors Nickel 6.84 × 10–8
Iron 10.0 × 10–8
Chromium 12.9 × 10–8
Mercury 94.0 × 10–8
Manganese 1.84 × 10–6
Constantan 49 × 10–6
Alloys Manganin 44 × 10–6
Nichrome 100 × 10–6
Glass 1010 – 1014
Hard rubber 1013 – 1016
Insulators Ebonite 1015 – 1017
Diamond 1012 - 1013
Paper (dry) 1012

a. Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor?

b. Which material is the best conductor?
Solution:
a. Iron is a better conductor than mercury because the resistivity of mercury is more than the resistivity of iron.
b. Among all the materials listed in the table, silver is the best conductor because the resistivity of silver is lowest
among all, i.e., 1.60 × 10–8.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

In text 12.6 Page: 213

1. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5 Ω resistor, an
8 Ω resistor, and a 12 Ω resistor, and a plug key, all connected in series.
Solution:
A battery of three cells of 2 V each equals to battery of potential 6 V. The circuit diagram below shows three
resistors of resistance 12 Ω, 8 Ω and 5 Ω connected in series along with a battery of potential 6 V.

2. Redraw the circuit of Question 1, putting in an ammeter to measure the current through the resistors
and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across the 12 Ω resistor. What would be the readings in
the ammeter and the voltmeter?
Solution:
An ammeter should always be connected in series with resistors while the voltmeter should be connected in parallel
to the resistor to measure the potential difference as shown in the figure below.

Using Ohm’s Law, we can obtain the reading of the ammeter and the voltmeter.
The total resistance of the circuit is 5 Ω + 8 Ω +12 Ω = 25 Ω.
We know that the potential difference of the circuit is 6 V, hence the current flowing through the circuit or the
resistors can be calculated as follows:
I = V/R = 6/25 = 0.24A

Let the potential difference across the 12 Ω resistor be V1.

From the obtained current V1 can be calculated as follows:
V1 = 0.24A × 12 Ω = 2.88 V
Therefore, the ammeter reading will be 0.24 A and the voltmeter reading be 2.88 V.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

In text 12.6.2 Page: 216

1. Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are connected in parallel – (a) 1 Ω and 106 Ω, (b) 1 Ω,
103 Ω, and 106 Ω.
Solution:
(a) When 1 Ω and 106 are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is given by

Therefore, the equivalent resistance is 1 Ω.

(b) When 1 Ω, 103 Ω, and 106 Ω are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is given by

Therefore, the equivalent resistance is 0.999 Ω.

2. An electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of resistance 50 Ω, and a water filter of resistance 500 Ω are
connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron connected to the same
source that takes as much current as all three appliances, and what is the current through it?
Solution:
The electric lamp, the toaster and the water filter connected in parallel to a 220 V source can be shown as using a
circuit diagram as follows:

The equivalent resistance of the resistors can be calculated as follows:

 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

The resistance of the electric iron box is 31.25 Ω.

3. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting them in series?
Solution:
When the electrical devices are connected in parallel there is no division of voltage among the appliances. The
potential difference across the devices is equal to supply voltage. Parallel connection of devices also reduces the
effective resistance of the circuit.

4. How can three resistors of resistances 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 6 Ω be connected to give a total resistance of (a) 4 Ω,
(b) 1 Ω?
Solution:
(a) The circuit diagram below shows the connection of three resistors

From the circuit above, it is understood that 3 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. Hence, their equivalent
resistance is given by
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

The equivalent resistor 2 Ω is in series with the 2 Ω resistor. Now the equivalent resistance can be calculated as
follows:

Req= 2 Ω +2 Ω = 4 Ω
Hence, the total resistance of the circuit is 4 Ω.

(b) The circuit diagram below, shows the connection of three resistors.

From the circuit, it is understood that all the resistors are connected in parallel. Therefore, their equivalent
resistance can be calculated as follows:

The total resistance of the circuit is 1 Ω.

5. What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by combinations of four coils of
resistance 4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12 Ω, 24 Ω?
Solution:
(a) If the four resistors are connected in series, their total resistance will be the sum of their individual resistances
and it will be the highest. The total equivalent resistance of the resistors connected in series will be 4 Ω + 8 Ω +
12 Ω + 24 Ω = 48 Ω.

(b) If the resistors are connected in parallel, then their equivalent resistances will be the lowest.
Their equivalent resistance connected in parallel is

Hence, the lowest total resistance is 2 Ω.

 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

In text 12.7 Page: 218

1. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does?
Solution:
The heating element of an electric heater is made of an alloy which has a high resistance. When the current flows
through the heating element, the heating element becomes too hot and glows red. The cord is usually made of
copper or aluminum which has low resistance. Hence the cord doesn’t glow.

2. Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in one hour through a potential
difference of 50 V.
Solution:
The heat generated can be computed by Joule’s law as follows:
H = VIt
where,
V is the voltage, V = 50 V
I is the current
t is the time in seconds, 1 hour = 3600 seconds
The amount of current can be calculated as follows:

2. An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω takes a current of 5 A. Calculate the heat developed in 30 s.

Solution:
The amount of heat generated can be calculated using the Joule’s law of heating, which is given by the equation
H = VIt
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get,
H = 100 × 5 × 30 = 1.5 × 104 J
The amount of heat developed by the electric iron in 30 s is 1.5 × 104 J.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

In text 12.8 Page: 220

1. What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current?
Solution:
Electric power is the rate of consumption of electrical energy by electric appliances. Hence, the rate at which
energy is delivered by a current is the power of the appliance.

2. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and the energy
consumed in 2 h.
Solution:
The power of the motor can be calculated by the equation,
P = VI
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get
P = 220 V × 5 A = 1100 W
The energy consumed by the motor can be calculated using the equation,
E=P×T
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get
P = 1100 W × 7200 = 7.92 × 106 J
The power of the motor is 1100 W and the energy consumed by the motor in 2 hours is 7.92 × 10 6 J.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

Exercises Page: 221

1. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If
the equivalent resistance of this combination is R′, then the ratio R/R′ is _____.
(a) 1/25
(b) 1/5
(c) 5
(d) 25
Solution:
Answer: d) 25
Explanation:
The resistance is cut into five equal parts, which means that the resistance of each part is R/5.
We know that each part is connected to each other in parallel, hence the equivalent resistance can be calculated as
follows:

The ratio of R/R′ is 25.

2. Which of the following does not represent electrical power in a circuit?

(a) I2R
(b) IR2
(c) VI
(d) V2/R
Solution:
Answer: b) IR2
Explanation:
Electrical power is given by the expression P = VI. (1)
According to Ohm’s law,
V = IR
Substituting the value of V in (1), we get
P = (IR) × I
P = I2R
Similarly, from Ohm’s law,
I = V/R
Substituting the value of I in (1), we get
P = V × V/R = V2/R
From this, it is clear that the equation IR2 does not represent electrical power in a circuit.

3. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be
_____.
(a) 100 W
(b) 75 W
(c) 50 W
(d) 25 W
Solution:
Answer: 25 W
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

Explanation:
The energy consumed by the appliance is given by the expression
P = VI = V2/R
The resistance of the light bulb can be calculated as follows:
R = V2/P
Substituting the values, we get
R = (220)2/100 = 484 Ω
Even if the supply voltage is reduced, the resistance remains the same. Hence, the power consumed can be
calculated as follows:
P = V2/R
Substituting the value, we get
P = (110)2 V/484 Ω = 25 W
Therefore, the power consumed when the electric bulb operates at 110 V is 25 W.

4. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected
in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in
series and parallel combinations would be _____.
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
Solution:
Let Rs and Rp be the equivalent resistance of the wires when connected in series and parallel respectively.
For the same potential difference V, the ratio of the heat produced in the circuit is given by

Hence, the ratio of the heat produced is 1:4.

5. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two points?
Solution:
To measure the voltage between any two points, the voltmeter should be connected in parallel between the two
points.

6. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 × 10–8 Ω m. What will be the length of this wire
to make its resistance 10 Ω? How much does the resistance change if the diameter is doubled?
Solution:
The resistance of the copper wire of length in meters and area of cross-section m2 is given by the formula
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

The length of the wire is 122.72 m and the new resistance is 2.5 Ω.

7. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference V
across the resistor are given below –
I (Ampere) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
V (Volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor.
Solution:
The plot between voltage and current is known as IV characteristic. The current is plotted in the y-axis while the
voltage is plotted in the x-axis. The different values of current for different values of voltage are given in the
table. The I V characteristics for the given resistor is shown below.

The slope of the line gives the value of resistance.

The slope can be calculated as follows:
Slope = 1/R = BC/AC = 2/6.8
To calculate R,
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

R = 6.8/2 = 3.4 Ω
The resistance of the resistor is 3.4 Ω.

8. When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in the circuit.
Find the value of the resistance of the resistor
Solution:
The value of the resistor can be calculated using Ohm’s Law as follows:

9. A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 Ω, 0.3 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω and 12 Ω, respectively.
How much current would flow through the 12 Ω resistor?
Solution:
In series connection, there is no division of current. The current flowing across all the resistors is the same.
To calculate the amount of current flowing across the resistors, we use Ohm’s law.
But first, let us find out the equivalent resistance as follows:
R = 0.2 Ω + 0.3 Ω + 0.4 Ω + 0.5 Ω + 12 Ω = 13.4 Ω
Now, using Ohm’s law,

The current flowing across the 12 Ω is 0.671 A.

10. How many 176 Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
Solution:
Let us consider the number of resistors required as ‘x.’
The equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of resistor R is given by

The number of resistors required is 4.

11. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6 Ω, so that the combination has a
resistance of (i) 9 Ω, (ii) 4 Ω.
Solution:
If we connect all the three resistors in series, their equivalent resistor would 6 Ω + 6 Ω + 6 Ω =18 Ω, which is not
the desired value. Similarly, if we connect all the three resistors in parallel, their equivalent resistor would be
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

which is again not the desired value.

We can obtain the desired value by connecting any two of the resistors in either series or parallel.
Case (i)

If two resistors are connected in parallel, then their equivalent resistance is

The third resistor is in series, hence the equivalent resistance is calculated as follows:
R=6Ω+3Ω=9Ω
Case (ii)

When two resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance is given by
R = 6 Ω + 6 Ω = 12 Ω
The third resistor is connected in parallel with 12 Ω. Hence the equivalent resistance is calculated as follows:

12. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many
lamps can be connected in parallel with each other across the two wires of 220 V line if the maximum
allowable current is 5 A?
Solution:
The resistance of the bulb can be calculated using the expression
P1 = V2/R1
R1 = V2/P1
Substituting the values, we get

Hence, 110 lamps can be connected in parallel.

 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

13. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to

a 220 V line has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24 Ω resistance, which may be used separately, in
series, or in parallel. What are the currents in the three cases?
Solution:
Case (i) When coils are used separately
Using Ohm’s law, we can find the current flowing through each coil as follows:

9.166 A of current flows through each resistor when they are used separately.

Case (ii) When coils connected in series

The total resistance in the series circuit is 24 Ω + 24 Ω = 48 Ω
The current flowing through the series circuit is calculated as follows:

Therefore, a current of 4.58 A flows through the series circuit.

Case (iii) When coils connected in parallel

When the coils are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is calculated as follows:

The current in the parallel circuit is 18.33 A.

14. Compare the power used in the 2 Ω resistor in each of the following circuits: (i) a 6 V battery in series
with 1 Ω and 2 Ω resistors, and (ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 Ω and 2 Ω resistors.
Solution:
(i) The potential difference is 6 V and the resistors 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in series, hence their equivalent
resistance is given by 1 Ω + 2 Ω = 3 Ω. The current in the circuit can be calculated using the Ohm’s law as
follows:

Therefore, the power consumed by the 2 Ω is 8 W.

(ii) When 12 Ω and 2 Ω resistors are connected in parallel, the voltage across the resistors remains the same.
Knowing that the voltage across 2 Ω resistor is 4 V, we can calculate the power consumed by the resistor as
follows:

The power consumed by the 2 Ω resistor is 8 W.

 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

15. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other 60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric
mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply voltage is 220 V?
Solution:
Since both the bulbs are connected in parallel, the voltage across each of them will be the same.
Current drawn by the bulb of rating 100 W can be calculated as follows:
P=V×I
I = P/V
Substituting the values in the equation, we get
I = 100 W/220 V = 100/220 A
Similarly, the current drawn by the bulb of rating 60 W can be calculated as follows:
I = 60 W/220 V = 60/220 A

Therefore, the current drawn from the line is

16. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
Solution:
The energy consumed by electrical appliances is given by the equation
H = Pt, where P is the power of the appliance and t is the time
Using this formula, the energy consumed by a TV of power ration 250 W, can be calculated as follows:
H = 250 W × 3600 seconds = 9 × 105 J
Similarly, the energy consumed by a toaster of power rating 1200 W is
H = 1200 W × 600 s = 7.2 × 105 J
From the calculations, it can be said that the energy consumed by the TV is greater than the toaster.

17. An electric heater of resistance 8 Ω draws 15 A from the service mains 2 hours. Calculate the rate at
which heat is developed in the heater.
Solution:
The rate at which the heat develops in the heater can be calculated using the following formula
P = I2 R
Substituting the values in the equation, we get
P = (15A) 2 × 8 Ω = 1800 J/s
The electric heater produces heat at the rate of 1800 J/s

18. Explain the following.

a. Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
b. Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric irons, made of an
alloy rather than a pure metal?
c. Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
d. How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
e. Why copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission?
Solution:
a. The resistivity and melting point of tungsten is very high. Due to this property, it doesn’t burn readily when
heated. Electric lamps operate at high temperature. Hence, tungsten is a choice of metal for the filament of electric
lamps.
b. The conductors of electric heating devices are alloys because of their high resistivity. Due to its high resistivity
it produces large amount of heat.
c. The voltage is divided in series circuit as result each component in the circuit receives a small voltage because
of which the amount of current decreases and the device gets hot and does not work properly. This is the reason
why series circuits are not used in domestic circuits.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 -
Electricity

d. Resistance is inversely proportional to the area of cross section. When the area of cross section increases the
resistance decreases and vice versa.
e. Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity and have low resistivity because of which they are
usually employed for electricity transmission.
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

In text 13.1 Page:224

1. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
Solution:
The compass needle is a small magnet. When the compass needle is brought close to a bar magnet, the
magnetic field lines of the compass needle interact with the magnetic field lines of bar magnet which causes
the compass needle to deflect.

In text 13.2.2 Page:228

1. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
Solution:
Magnetic field lines of a bar magnet emerge from the North Pole and terminate at the South Pole as
shown in the figure below.

2. List the properties of magnetic field lines.

Solution:
The properties of magnetic field lines are as follows:
 Magnetic field lines do not intersect with each other.
 They emerge from the North Pole and terminate at the South Pole.
 Inside the magnet, the direction of the field lines is from South Pole to North Pole.

3. Why don’t two magnetic field lines intersect each other?

Solution:
If two magnetic field lines intersect then at the point of intersection the compass needle shows two different
direction which is not possible hence they do not intersect with each other.

In text 13.2.4 Page:229

1. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass through the loop
clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic field inside and outside
the loop.
Solution:
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

For the downward direction of the current, the direction of the magnetic field will be as if emerging from
the table outside the loop and merging the table inside the loop. Similarly, for current flowing in the
upward direction, the direction of the magnetic field will as if they are emerging from the table outside
the loop and merging to the table inside the loop as shown in the figure.

2. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it.
Solution:

3. Choose the correct option.

The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current
a. is zero.
b. decreases as we move towards its end.
c. increases as we move towards its end.
d. is the same at all points.
Solution:
d. is the same at all points
The magnetic field inside a long straight current carrying solenoid is uniform therefore it is same at all
points.
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

In text 13.3 Page:231

1. Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field?
(There may be more than one correct answer.)
a. Mass
b. Speed
c. Velocity
d. Momentum
Solution:
(c) and (d)
When a proton enters the region of magnetic field, it experiences magnetic force. Due to which the path of
the proton becomes circular. As a result, the velocity and the momentum change.

2. In Activity 13.7, how do we think the displacement of rod AB will be affected if (i) current in rod AB
is increased; (ii) a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used; and (iii) length of the rod AB is increased?
Solution:
A current carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic field experiences force. The magnitude of this
force will increase with the increase in the amount of current, length of conductor and the strength of the
magnetic field. Hence, the strength of the magnetic force exerted on the rod AB and its displacement will
increase if
(i) The current in rod AB is increased
(ii) Stronger horse shoe magnet is used
(iii) When the length of the rod AB increases

3. A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle) projected towards west is deflected towards north by a

magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is
a. towards south
b. towards east
c. downward
d. upward
Solution:
The direction of the magnetic field can be determined using the Fleming’s Left hand rule. According to
the rule, if we arrange our thumb, forefinger and the middle finger of the left hand right perpendicular to
each other, then the thumb points towards the direction of the magnetic force, the middle finger the
direction of current and the forefinger the direction of magnetic field. Since the direction of positively
charged particle is towards west, the direction of the current will also be towards the west. The direction
of the magnetic force is towards the north hence the direction of magnetic field will be upward according
to Fleming’s Left hand rule.

In text 13.4 Page:233

1. State Fleming’s left-hand rule.
Solution:
Fleming’s Left hand rule states that if we arrange our thumb, forefinger and middle finger of the left hand
right angles to each other, then the thumb points towards the direction of the magnetic force, the forefinger
points towards the direction of magnetic field and the middle finger points towards the direction of current.

2. What is the principle of an electric motor?

Solution:
The working principle of electric motor is based on the magnetic effect of current. A current carrying
conductor when placed in a magnetic field experiences force and rotates. The direction of the rotation of
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

the conductor can be determined by Fleming’s Left hand rule.

3. What is the role of split ring in an electric motor?

Solution:
Split ring plays the role of commutator in an electric motor. The commutator reverses the direction of the
current flowing through the coil after each half rotation of the coil. Due to this reversal of current, the coil
continues to rotate in the same direction.
In text 13.5 Page:236
1. Explain different ways to induce current in a coil.
Solution:
Following are the different ways to induce current in a coil:
 If the coil is moved rapidly between the two poles of horse shoe magnet, electric current is induced
in the coil.
 When a magnet is moved relative to the coil, an electric current is induced in the coil.

In text 13.6 Page:237

1. State the principle of an electric generator.
Solution:
Electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. In a generator, electricity is
generated by rotating a coil in the magnetic field.

2. Name some sources of direct current.

Solution:
DC generator and cell are some sources of direct current.

3. Which sources produce alternating current?

Solution:
Power plants and AC generators are some of the sources that produce alternating current.

4. Choose the correct option.

A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced current
changes once in each
a. two revolutions
b. one revolution
c. half revolution
d. one-fourth revolution
Solution:
c. half revolution
When a rectangular coil is rotated in magnetic field, the direction of the induced current changes once in
half revolution. As result, the direction of the current in the coil remains the same.

In text 13.7 Page:238

1. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Solution:
The safety measured commonly used in electric circuits are as follows:
(i) Fuse
Each circuit should be connected to a fuse because a fuse prevents the flow of excessive current
through the circuit. When the current in the circuit exceeds the maximum limit of the fuse
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

element, the fuse melts to stop the flow of current protecting the appliance connected to circuit.

(ii) Earthing
Earthing protects the user from electric shocks. Any leakage of current in an appliance is
transferred to ground by earthing and the people using the appliance is prevented from getting
electrocuted.

2. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has a
current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect? Explain.
Solution:
The current drawn by the electric oven can be calculated using the formula
P=V×I
I = P/V
Substituting the values, we get
I = 2000 W/220 V = 9.09 A
The current drawn by the electric oven is 9.09 A which exceeds the safe limit of the circuit. This causes
the fuse to melt and break the circuit.

3. What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits?
Solution:
A few of the precautions to be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits are as follows:
 Connecting too many devices to a single socket should be avoided
 Using too many appliances at the same time should be avoided
 Faulty appliances should not be connected to the circuit
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Exercises Page:240
1. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
a. The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
b. The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
c. The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
d. The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Solution:
d. The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
The magnetic field near a long straight wire are concentric circles. Their centers lie on the wire.

2. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is

a. the process of charging a body.
b. the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
c. producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
d. the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Solution:
c. producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
The phenomenon of inducing current in a coil due to the relative motion between the coil and the magnet
Is known as electromagnetic induction.

3. The device used for producing electric current is called a

a. generator
b. galvanometer
c. ammeter
d. motor
Solution:
a. generator
The device used for producing electric current is known as generator. Generator converts mechanical
energy to electric energy.

4. The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that

a. AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet.
b. DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
c. AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
d. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Solution:
d. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
AC generators have two rings known as the slip rings while DC generators have two half rings known as
the commutator. This is main difference between AC generator and DC generator.

5. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit

a. reduces substantially.
b. does not change.
c. increases heavily.
d. vary continuously.
Solution:
c. increases heavily
When two naked wires in the circuit come in contact with each other, the amount of current flowing in the
circuit increase abruptly resulting in short circuit.
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

6. State whether the following statements are true or false.

a. An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
b. An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
c. The field at the center of a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel straight lines.
d. A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an electric supply.
Solution:
a. False
An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
b. True
An electric generator is a device that generates electricity by rotating a coil in a magnetic field.
c. True
A long circular coil is a solenoid. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are parallel straight lines.
d. False
Live wires have red insulation cover while the earth wire has green insulation.

7. List two methods of producing magnetic fields.

Solution:
Following are the methods of producing magnetic fields:
 By using a permanent magnet we can produce magnetic field and it can be visualized by
spreading iron fillings on a white paper and keeping a magnet beneath the paper.
 A current carrying straight conductor produces magnetic field.
 Different types of conductors such as solenoid and circular loop can be used to see the presence
of magnetic field.

8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south poles of a
current–carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.
Solution:
A solenoid is a long coil of circular loops of insulated copper wire. The magnetic field produced around
the solenoid when the current is passed through it is similar to the magnetic field produced around the bar
magnet when current is passed through it. The figure shown below shows the arrangement of magnetic
fields produced around the solenoid when current is passed through it.

When the north pole of the bar magnet is brought close to the end connected to the negative terminal of
the battery, the solenoid repels the battery. As like poles repel each other, we can infer that the end
connected to the negative terminal behaves as a north pole while the end connected to the positive
terminal behaves as a south pole.
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

9. When is the force experienced by a current–carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
Solution:
When the direction of the current is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field is when the force
experienced is the largest.

10. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron beam, moving
horizontally from back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong magnetic field to your right
side. What is the direction of magnetic field?
Solution:
The direction of the magnetic field can be determined using the Fleming’s Left hand rule. The direction of
the magnetic field will be perpendicular to the direction of current and the direction of deflection, i.e.,
either upward or downward. The direction of the current is from the front wall to the back wall because
negatively charged electrons move from the back wall to the front wall. The directed of the magnetic
force is rightward. Hence, using Fleming’s left hand rule it can be concluded that the direction of the
magnetic field inside the chamber is downward.

11. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working. What is the
function of a split ring in an electric motor?
Solution:
An electric motor is a device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy. It works on the
principle of magnetic effect of current. The figure listed below shows a simple electric motor.

When current is made to flow through the coil MNST by closing the switch, the coil starts to rotate in the
anticlockwise direction. This is due to the downward force acting on the length MN and simultaneously
an upward force acting along the length ST. As a result of which the coil rotates in the anticlockwise
direction. Current in the length MN flows from M to N and the magnetic fields act from left to right
normal to the length MN. According to Fleming’s Left Hand rule, a downward force acts along the length
MN. Similarly, the current along the length ST flows from S to T and the magnetic field acts from left to
right. Therefore, an upward force acts along the length ST. These two forces together cause the coil to
rotate anti-clockwise. After half a rotation, the position of MN and ST interchange. The half ring C come
in contact with brush B and the half ring D comes in contact with rush C. Hence the direction of current in
the coil MNST gets reversed.

12. Name some devices in which electric motors are used.

 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Solution:
A few devices in which electric motors are used are:
 Electric fans
 Water pumps
 Mixers
 Washing machines

13. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is
(i) pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil, (iii) held stationary inside the coil?
Solution:
(i) When a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, current is induced in the coil momentarily as a result the
galvanometer deflects in a particular direction momentarily.
(ii) When the bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil, current is induced momentarily but in the
opposite direction and the galvanometer deflects in the opposite direction momentarily.
(iii) When the bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, no current will be induced as a result there
will be no deflection in the galvanometer.

14. Two circular coils A and B are placed closed to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed,
will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Solution:
When the current in coil A changes, the magnetic field associated with it also changes. As a result the
magnetic field around coil B undergoes change. The change in the magnetic field of coil B induces
current in it.

15. State the rule to determine the direction of a (i) magnetic field produced around a straight
conductor-carrying current, (ii) force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a
magnetic field which is perpendicular to it, and (iii) current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a
magnetic field.
Solution:
(i) The rule used to determine the direction of the magnetic field produced around a straight conductor-
carrying current is the Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule.
(ii) The rule used to determine the force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a
magnetic field which is perpendicular to it is the Fleming’s left hand rule.
(iii) The rule used to determine the current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field is the
Fleming’s right-hand rule.

16. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator by drawing a labelled
diagram. What is the function of brushes?
Solution:
The electric generator coverts the mechanical energy into the electrical energy. The working principle of
the electric generator is the electromagnetic induction. It generates electricity by rotating a coil in the
magnetic field. The figure below shows the construction of a simple AC generator.
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

In the diagram,
A and B are brushes,
C and D are slip rings
X is the axle
G is the galvanometer
When the axle X is rotated clockwise, MN moves upwards while ST moves downward. The movement of
MN and ST in the magnetic field results in the production of electric current due to electromagnetic
induction. MN moves upwards and the magnetic fields act from left to right. Therefore, according to
Fleming’s right hand rule, the direction of the induced current will be from M to N along the length MN.
Similarly, the direction of the induced current will be from S to T along the length ST. The direction of
the current in the coil is MNST. Hence, galvanometer shows a deflection in a particular direction.

After half a rotation, length MN starts moving downwards while the length ST starts moving upwards.
Now, the direction of the induced current reverses to TSNM. Since the direction of the induced current
reverses every half rotation, the current induced is known as alternating current.

Function of Brushes
Brushes are kept pressed on to two slip rings separately. Outer ends of brushes are connected to the
galvanometer. Thus, brushes help in transferring current from coil to the external circuit.

17. When does an electric short circuit occur?

Solution:
Listed below are two instances of when a short-circuit can occur:
1) When too many appliances are connected to a single socket or when high power rating appliances are
connected to a light circuit, the resistance of the circuit becomes low as a result the current flowing
through the circuit becomes very high. This condition results in a short-circuit.
2) When live wires whose insulation have worn off come in contact with each other, the current flowing in
the circuit increases abruptly which results in a short circuit.
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

18. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary to earth metallic appliances?
Solution:
The metallic body of electric appliances is earthed by means of earth wire. Any leakage of electric wire is
transferred to the ground by means of earth wire. This prevents the user of the electric appliance from
getting electric shocks. This is the reason why it is important for the metallic appliances to be earthed.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

Questions Page: 243

1. What is a good source of energy?
Solution:
A good source of energy has the following properties:
 Be economical
 Easy storage and transportation
 Easy availability
 Work done per unit volume or mass should be large.

2. What is a good fuel?

Solution:
A fuel is said to be good when it is easily available and when it produces a large amount of heat energy when
burnt.

3. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food, which one would you use and why?
Solution:
For heating and cooking, natural gas can be used for the below given reasons:
 It is easy for using
 It is easily available
 Easy transportation
 It does not produce huge amount of smoke when burnt
 It is highly inflammable.

Questions Page: 248

1. What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels?
Solution:
Following are the disadvantages of fossil fuels:
 Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum results in air pollution as there is release of huge amount of
pollutants.
 Gases such as carbon dioxide is released when a fossil fuel is burnt which causes global warming.
 Soil fertility and potable water is affected by the oxides of carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, etc. that are
released from fossil fuels.

2. Why are we looking at alternate sources of energy?

Solution:
The reason why we are looking at alternate sources of energy is because the fossil fuels are non-renewable
source of energy i.e. they are not available in large quantities and it cannot be replenished. Fossil fuels will get
exhausted if their consumption is not controlled. Therefore, it is better to switch to alternate source of energy.

3. How has the traditional use of wind and water energy been modified for our convenience?
Solution:
In olden days, wind energy was trapped used windmills to do mechanical works like lifting or drawing water
from a well. But these days, windmills are used to generate electricity. The kinetic energy of wind is trapped
and converted into electricity with the help of rotatory motion of the blades which turns the turbine of the
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

electric generator to produce electricity.

Similarly, waterfalls were the source of potential energy in olden days. But these days as the number of
waterfalls as reduced, water dams are constructed and are used as a source to trap the potential energy. Here,
the water falls from a certain height on the turbine producing electricity.

Questions Page: 253

14.3 ALTERNATE OR NON-CONVENTIONAL SOURCE OF ENERGY

1. What kind of mirror – concave, convex or plain would be best suited for use in a solar cooker? Why?
Solution:
For a solar cooker the heat source is sunlight for heating and cooking. The reason why a mirror is used is to
reflect and focus the sunlight at one point. So a concave mirror can be used in a solar cooker, as it focuses all
the sunlight at one point resulting in increase in temperature, thereby heating and cooking the food.

2. What are the limitations of the energy that can be obtained from the ocean?
Solution:
The different forms of energy that can be obtained from the ocean are tidal energy, wave energy and ocean
thermal energy. Following are the limitations of the energy obtained from ocean:
 The relative positioning of the earth, the sun and the moon as an impact on the tidal energy.
 For the conversion of tidal energy into electricity, high dams are required.
 To obtain electricity from wave energy, very strong waves are required.
 For trapping the ocean thermal energy, there should be a temperature difference of more than 20°C
between hot surface water and the cold water at a depth.

3. What is geothermal energy?

Solution:
Geothermal energy cab be defined as the energy that is obtained from the earth. The energy can be obtained
from the hot spots that are formed when the molten rocks at the core of the earth are pushed to the earth’s crust.
Hot springs are used for the production of electricity in the geothermal power plants.

4. What are the advantages of nuclear energy?

Solution:
Following are the advantages of nuclear energy:
 Amount of energy produced per unit mass is large
 As it does not produce any pollutants, it is clean
 Fission of 1 atom of uranium produces 10 million times the energy that is obtained by burning 1 atom
of carbon

14.4. ENVIRONMENTAL CONSEQUENCES

1. Can any source of energy be pollution-free? Why or why not?

Solution:
No source of energy can be pollution-free. But solar cells are considered to be pollution-free. But their
manufacturing may cause environmental damage. In case of nuclear energy, the waste produced after fusion is
zero. But the wastes that are produced during fission are hazardous. Hence, no source of energy is pollution-
free.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

2. Hydrogen has been used as a rocket fuel. Would you consider it a cleaner fuel than CNG? Why or why
not?
Solution:
Hydrogen gas is cleaner than CNG as CNG contains hydrocarbons. Carbon is a form of pollutant in CNG.
On the other hand, hydrogen is waste-free and the fusion of hydrogen does not produce any waste. Hence,
hydrogen as a rocket fuel is cleaner than the CNG.

Questions Page: 254

1. Name two energy sources that you would consider to be renewable. Give reasons for your choices.
Solution:
Following are the two sources of energy that are renewable:
(i) Wind: Wind energy is obtained from the air which is blowing at a high speed. Wind energy is trapped
using windmills so as to generate electricity. Blowing of air is dependent on uneven heating of the earth.
Since the heating of the earth is forever, wind availability will also be forever.
(ii) Sun: The energy obtained from the sun is known as solar energy. It is produced by the fusion of
hydrogen into helium, fusion of helium into other heavy metals and it continues. A large amount of
hydrogen and helium is available in sun which will never be exhausted. Hence solar energy is renewable
source of energy.

2. Give the names of two energy sources that you would consider to be exhaustible. Give reasons for
your choices.
Solution:
Following are the two sources of energy that are exhaustible:
(i) Wood: The source of wood are forests. Due to deforestation the number of forests are reducing. We
know that it takes years to grow forest. If the rate of deforestation increases, the availability of wood will
decrease. Hence, wood is an exhaustible source of energy.
(ii) Coal: The source of coal is from the dead remains of the plants and animals that remained buried for
years. Industrialization has increased the demand for coal and it cannot be replenished. Hence, coal is also
an exhaustible source of energy.

Exercises Page: 254

1. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on
a) A sunny day
b) A cloudy day
c) A hot day
d) A windy day
Solution:
b) A sunny day
A solar water heater uses solar energy to heat water. On a cloudy day, the sunlight won’t be intense and
bright enough and it gets reflected back in the sky from the clouds. This holds the sunlight from reaching
the ground. Therefore, solar energy won’t available for the solar water heater to heat the water.

2. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?

a) Wood
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

b) Gobar-gas
c) Nuclear energy
d) Coal
Solution:
c) Nuclear energy
Bio-mass is obtained from the dead plants and animal wastes. In these dead plants and animals there
is a chemical change as they react with water and sunlight. But nuclear energy is obtained by fusion
and fission of atoms resulting in tremendous release of energy. Both nuclear fusion and fission can be
carried out in the absence of the sunlight.

Wood is a part of plant, gobar-gas is obtained from the animal dung and coal is obtained by the dead
remains of the plants and animals. Therefore, they are all bio-mass energy products.

3. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not
ultimately derived from the sun’s energy?
a) Geothermal energy
b) Wind energy
c) Nuclear energy
d) Bio-mass
Solution:
c) Nuclear energy
Nuclear energy is produced by nuclear fusion and nuclear fission. In nuclear fission, uranium atoms are
bombarded with low energy neutrons resulting in splitting of the atom into two relatively lighter nuclei. In
nuclear fusion, lighter nuclei are fused together to form a relatively heavier nuclei. The energy produced
in nuclear reaction is tremendous and can be carried out in the absence of sunlight.

Geothermal energy is obtained from the deep stored energy in the form heat in the earth’s crust. The
uneven heating of the earth’s surface results in wind movement and bio-mass is obtained from the dead
remains of the plants and the animals.

4. Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the sun as direct sources of energy.
Solution:
Fossil fuels are obtained from the earth’s crust as they are the remains of the dead plants and animals.
They are similar to coal and petroleum and readily available for the use. These are non-renewable source
of energy and cannot be replenished.
Whereas solar energy is abundant in nature and can be replenished.

5. Compare and contrast bio-mass and hydroelectricity as sources of energy.

Solution:
Bio-mass is obtained from the dead plants and animals. It renewable source of energy. Examples of bio-
mass sources of energies are wood, gobar-gas.
Hydroelectricity is obtained from the potential energy of the stored water at a certain height. Water from a
certain height is made to fall on the turbines of the generator resulting in electricity. Dams and reservoirs
are used in hydroelectricity.

Both bio-mass and hydroelectricity are renewable sources of energies.

6. What are the limitations of extracting energy from:

a) The wind?
b) Waves?
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

c) Tides?
Solution:
a) The wind: Wind energy is trapped using windmills. One of the limitations of the wind energy is that
the windmills requires a speed more than 15 km/h to generate electricity. And the number of windmills
will be more to cover a huge area.
b) Waves: In order to extract energy from the waves, very strong ocean waves are needed.
c) Tides: In order to extract energy from the tides, the sun, the moon and the earth should be in a straight
alignment and the tides should be very strong.

7. On what basis would you classify energy sources as:

a) Renewable and non-renewable?
b) Exhaustible and inexhaustible?
Are the options given in (a) and (b) the same?
Solution:
(a) Renewable and non-renewable:
Renewable energy sources are those which replenish on their own and are easily available in nature.
Like solar energy, tidal energy, wind energy, bio-mass.
Non-renewable energy sources are those which do not replenish on their own and have limited in
availability in nature. Like fossil fuels which includes petroleum, coal and natural gas.

(b) Exhaustible and inexhaustible:

Exhaustible source of energy are those which deplete after few hundred years. Like coal and
petroleum.
Inexhaustible source of energy are those which do not deplete and are available in abundant quantity.
Like solar and wind energy.

8. What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy?

Solution:
Following are the qualities of an ideal source of energy:
 It should be economical
 It should be easily available
 Pollution free
 Easy transportation and storage
 The amount of energy produced when burnt should be huge.

9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker? Are there places where solar
cookers would have limited utility?
Solution:
Advantages:
The heat source for a solar cooker is sunlight. It is a clean renewable and inexhaustible source of energy.
As its availability is unlimited, it will be pocket-friendly.
Disadvantages:
It doesn’t work on a cloudy day.

10. What are the environmental consequences of the increasing demand for energy? What steps would
you suggest to reduce energy consumption?
Solution:
Industrialization demands for more energy and to fulfil these demands fossil fuels are used as they are
readily available. Due to their harsh usage, it has an impact on the environment. Too much exploitation of
fossil fuels has led to greenhouse effect resulting in global warming.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

But there are few possibilities of reducing this by reducing the usage of fossil fuels and opting for
alternate sources of energy. Reducing the unnecessary usage of electricity and water. Opting for public
transportation and reducing using own vehicles. These are few small steps that can be implemented for
reducing the energy consumption.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 15 Our Environment

Questions Page: 260

1. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different trophic levels in it.
Solution:
In food chain, the transfer food or energy takes place at the various levels and these levels are known as trophic
levels.
Example:
Grass → Goat → Man

In food chain,
 Grass represents the first trophic level
 Goat represents the second trophic level
 Man represents the third trophic level

2. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?

Solution:
Following is the role of a decomposer in the ecosystem:
 They act as a cleansing agents of the environment by decomposing the dead plants and animals
 They help in recycling the nutrients
 They provide space for new being in the biosphere by decomposing the dead
 They help in putting back the various elements into water, soil and air for the reuse of producers like
crop plants.

Questions Page: 262

1. Why are some substances biodegradable and some non-biodegradable?
Solution:
The reason why some substances are biodegradable and some non-biodegradable is because the microorganisms
like bacteria and decomposers like saprophytes have a specific role to play. They can breakdown only natural
products like paper, wood etc. but they cannot breakdown man-made products like plastics. Based on this some
substances are biodegradable and some non-biodegradable.

2. Give any two ways in which biodegradable substance would affect the environment.
Solution:
Following are the ways in which biodegradable substance would affect the environment:
 They keep the environment clean as they are easily decomposed.
 They can easily go through the geo-chemical cycle with the help of decomposers.

3. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable substance would affect the environment.
Solution:
Following are the ways in which non-biodegradable substance would affect the environment:
 They cause air, soil and water pollution.
 They may cause bio-magnification in the food chain resulting in end of human.
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 15 Our Environment

Questions Page: 264

1. What is ozone and how does it affect the ecosystem?
Solution:
Ozone is a molecule formed by the three atoms of oxygen and is known as an isotope of oxygen. The main
function of ozone layer is to provide protection to the earth’s surface from the harmful UV rays of the sun.
These rays are harmful to living organisms and may result in skin cancer.

2. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give any two methods.
Solution:
Following are the ways to reduce the problem of waste disposal:
(a) 3 R’s: By following the 3 R’s one can reduce the problem of waste disposal. The 3 R’s are reduce, recycle
and reuse. Reducing the usage of own vehicles and opting for public transport can reduce the air pollution.
Recycling and reusing of plastics is also a way to reduce the waste disposal.
(b) Preparation of compost: All the biodegradable wastes like kitchen waste, can be dumped in the compost.

Questions Page: 264

1. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items?
a) Grass, flowers and leather
b) Grass, wood and plastic
c) Fruit peels, cake and lime juice
d) Cake, wood and grass
Solution:
a) Grass, flowers and leather c) Fruit peels, cake and lime juice d) Cake, wood and grass
Above all are the groups that contain only biodegradable items. Since plastic is not a biodegradable
substance, that group cannot be considered as a biodegradable.

2. Which of the following constitute a food-chain?

a) Grass, wheat and mango
b) Grass, goat and human
c) Goat, cow and elephant
d) Grass, fish and goat
Solution:
b) Grass, goat and human
Here, grass is the producer, goat is the primary consumer and human is the secondary consumer.

3. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices?

a) Carrying cloth bags to put purchases in while shopping
b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans
c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her
scooter
d) All of the above
Solution:
All of the above

4. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Solution:
If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the food supply to the next level will strop resulting in
 NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 15 Our Environment

imbalance of the ecosystem. As a result animals in the higher levels will die making the growth of animals
in lower trophic level increase in an enormous way. All of this will affect the overall balance in the
ecosystem.

5. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in trophic level be different for different trophic levels?
Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing any damage to the ecosystem?
Solution:
Yes, the impact of removing all the organisms in a tropic level will be different for different trophic levels.
For example, if all the producers are removed, there is a chance of death or migration of the primary
consumers which will upset the trophic levels. This is same for all the levels. Therefore, removal of
organisms at any level would upset the whole ecosystem as the food chain is disturbed. The survival of the
higher level animals is completely dependent on the animals at the lower levels.

6. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at different levels of
the ecosystem?
Solution:
Biological magnification can be defined as the progressive increase in the concentration of non-
biodegradable wastes in the food chain. As there is an increase in the magnification at the primary level of
the ecosystems, all the other levels do get affected and the concentration may vary when compared to first
level.

7. What are the problems caused by the non-biodegradable wastes that we generate?
Solution:
Following are the problems caused by the non-biodegradable wastes:
 These substances cannot be decomposed by the microorganisms.
 As the quantity increases, dumping becomes a problem.
 Non-biodegradable wastes like heavy metals may enter the food chain in the upper trophic levels.
 They may escape to the ground water which causes soil infertility and disturbance in pH of the soil.

8. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this have no impact on the environment?
Solution:
Biodegradable wastes are decomposed by the microorganisms into simpler substances which can be used
by the producers as a raw material. But following are the effects of too much of biodegradable wastes:
- As the decomposition of the biodegradable wastes are slow, they produce awful smell and when inhaled
by humans it can be harmful.
- The dumping areas can be a place where harmful organisms may start to breed which can be harmful to
humans as well as plants and animals.
- Increase in the number of aquatic organisms may result in depletion of oxygen.

9. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are being taken to limit this damage?
Solution:
Ozone layer is a protective cover for the earth. It prevents harmful UV rays from entering the earth as these
rays harmful and can result in skin cancer. But the air pollutants like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the
main reason for the depletion of the ozone layer. Too much of UV rays are harmful for plants as they affect
the photosynthesis, destroy planktons and decomposers. These are the reasons why damage of ozone layer
a cause of concern.

Steps taken to limit is many developing and developed countries have signed and are obeying the directions
of TINEP (United Nations Environment Programme) to freeze or limit the production and usage of CFCs.
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Intext Questions – 1 Page: 271

1. What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment-friendly?
Solution:
In order to become more environment-friendly, the following practices can be incorporated in our day-to-day
lives:
• Turning off any electrical appliance (such as TV’s, water heaters, lights, fans, and air conditioners) when
they are not in use.
• Avoiding the wastage of water by fixing any leaking taps or pipes as soon as possible. Also, the amount of
water consumed must be controlled. For example, the tap should not be left running while brushing teeth.
• Disposing of plastic and glass wastes in recycling bins (many plastics take a long time to decompose and
can have adverse effects on the environment).
• Using recyclable and eco-friendly products instead of the convenient plastic products. For example, using
paper or cloth bags instead of polythene bags is an environment-friendly habit.

2. What would be the advantages of exploiting resources with short-term aims?

Solution:
Overconsumption of resources with short-term interests in mind will give a boost to the economy. However, the
increased growth of the economy will be short-lived since the exploitation of resources is not sustainable.
Exploiting resources for the sake of short-term goals will be beneficial to the present generations but not for
future generations.

3. How would these advantages differ from the advantages of using a long-term perspective in managing
our resources?
Solution:
The long-term model of resource consumption enables the conservation of the resources for them to be used by
future generations. This will enable the economy to grow over a longer timeframe. It also provides more time for
technology to advance and discover new, sustainable energy sources (such as nuclear fusion and fuel cells). All in
all, the long-term perspective in managing of resources has significantly greater advantages when compared to the
short-term perspective.

4. Why do you think that there should be an equitable distribution of resources? What forces would be
working against an equitable distribution of our resources?
Solution:
Equitable distribution of resources enables every human to receive their share of the resources and makes sure
that everyone has the basic requirements for life (such as food, water, shelter, etc.). The forces that work against
equitable distribution include:
 The regional distribution of resources (such as soil and minerals).
 Corruption and greed of some humans
 Uneven distribution of resources between the rich and the poor.

Intext Questions – 2 Page: 275

1. Why should we conserve forests and wildlife?
Solution:
The conservation of forests is very important for the stability of the environment. Forests serve as a home to a
huge variety of life-forms. Destruction of these forests can disturb the food chain and lead to the extinction of
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

many important species. Also, forests protect the soil from erosion and play a vital role in the water cycle. The
loss of forests can severely affect the day-to-day lives of humans.

2. Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of forests.

Solution:
Some steps that can be taken to conserve forests include:
Planting of trees to combat deforestation.
Placement of security forces in forests to prevent the poaching and smuggling of forest resources.
Incorporating steps to protect the forest dwellers without disturbing their lifestyles.
Avoiding the conversion of forest land into roads, buildings, and dams.

Intext Questions – 3 Page: 278

1. Find out about the traditional systems of water harvesting/ management in your region.
Solution:
In populated metropolitan cities, the primary sources of water include groundwater and lakes. Groundwater is
harvested with the help of bore wells whereas pipes harvest water directly from the lakes. The harvested water is
then stored in water tankers placed at strategic locations throughout the city.

2. Compare the above system with the probable systems in hilly/ mountainous areas or plains or plateau
regions.
Solution:
In hilly regions, rainwater is often collected and channelled with the help of a stream. The stream is diverted to
different areas with the help of canals for the purpose of irrigation. In mountainous regions, water is commonly
obtained from the rivers that flow from the glaciers.
In the plains, water is obtained from many natural sources such as lakes and rivers. Groundwater is also harvested
with the help of bore wells for irrigation and human consumption.

3. Find out the source of water in your region/locality. Is water from this source available to all people
living in that area?
Solution:
In metropolitan cities, the primary source of water is groundwater. This water is made available to all people in
the city. However, poor infrastructure in some localities makes it difficult for some people to obtain the water.

Exercises Page: 280

1. What changes would you suggest in your home in order to be environment-friendly?
Solution:
Some important changes that can help make homes more environment-friendly include:
 Segregation of the garbage into biodegradable waste (food waste) and non-biodegradable waste (plastics).
 Use of eco-friendly products such as cloth shopping bags and paper cups instead of plastics.
 Avoiding the wastage of electricity by switching off the electrical appliances that are not in use.
 Avoiding the wastage of water by quickly fix leaking taps and incorporating practices that reduce water
wastage (such as closing the taps while brushing and using water judiciously while bathing).

2. Can you suggest some changes in your school which would make it environment-friendly?
Solution:
Some important changes that can help make schools more environment-friendly include:
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

• Providing a platform for students and teachers to report any leaking taps so that they can be quickly repaired
by the school plumber.
• Students and teachers must make sure all the lights and fans are switched off when the classes end for the
day.
• Setting up waste segregation bins for biodegradable waste and non-biodegradable waste throughout the
school.
• Promoting the use of transport methods such as bicycles and school buses.

3. We saw in this chapter that there are four main stakeholders when it comes to forests and wildlife.
Which among these should have the authority to decide the management of forest produce? Why do you
think so?
Solution:
The government’s forest department should have the authority because they are a branch of the government which
is elected by the people. However, these forest authorities must not be corrupt and must not accept bribes from
poachers/smugglers. The forest authorities can use the resources of the government to effectively protect and
preserve the forest areas.

4. How can you as an individual contribute or make a difference to the management of (a) forests and
wildlife, (b) water resources and (c) coal and petroleum?
Solution:
(a) An individual can contribute to the management of forest and wildlife resources by:
• Organizing and participating in rallies that protest against deforestation and wildlife poaching.
• Volunteering for many non-government organizations (NGOs) that work towards the protection of forests
and wildlife.
• Organizing and participating in group activities that involve the planting of new trees in forest areas.
(b) An individual can contribute towards the management of water resources by:
• Avoiding the wastage of water in their daily lives by using water judiciously.
• Spreading awareness about the importance of water management by participating in rallies/ activities.
• Promoting practices such as rainwater harvesting and discouraging the discharge of wastewater and sewage
into lakes and rivers.
(c) An individual can contribute towards the management of non-renewable energy sources such as coal and
petrol by:
• Using fuel-efficient transportation methods such as carpooling, use of public transport, and use of bicycles.
• Using energy-efficient light sources such as CFLs and LEDs instead of ordinary bulbs.
• Using solar water heaters instead of electric heaters for heating water.

5. What can you as an individual do to reduce your consumption of the various natural resources?
Solution:
Some practices that can be followed by individuals in order to reduce their consumption of natural resources
include:
 Use of fuel-efficient transport options such as carpooling, bicycles, and public transport.
 Judicious use of water and avoidance of its wastage.
 Use of recycled products such as recycled paper and bottles to reduce the demand for natural resources.
 Promoting the use of renewable resources by using solar water heaters instead of electric heaters.

6. List five things you have done over the last week to (a) conserve our natural resources. (b) increase the
pressure on our natural resources.
Solution:
Practices for the conservation of natural resources include:
 NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

 Use of bicycles and public transport while traveling to reduce fuel consumption.
 Use of recycled paper and other recycled products.
 Segregation of garbage into biodegradable and non-biodegradable bins.
 Avoiding the wastage of water by using it judiciously and fixing any leaking taps/pipes.

Practices that deplete natural resources include:

 Wastage of electrical energy by leaving electrical appliances on after use.
 Wastage of water by ignoring any leaking pipes/taps and leaving the tap on while brushing.
 Excessive use of plastic products such as polythene bags.

7. On the basis of the issues raised in this chapter, what changes would you incorporate in your lifestyle in a
move towards the sustainable usage of our resources?
Solution:
The following changes can be incorporated into the lifestyles of individuals in order to move towards a
sustainable usage of natural resources:
• Segregate the waste generated in homes into biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.
• Avoid the wastage of electricity by switching of lights, fans, and other electrical appliances when not in use.
• Use water judiciously and avoid its wastage by quickly repairing any leaking taps/pipes.
• Avoid the wastage of water by regulating the quantity of water consumed for bathing, washing clothes,
brushing, etc.
• Practicing environment-friendly methods such as rainwater harvesting and planting of trees.
• Usage of recycled products such as recycled paper and bottles.
• Usage of eco-friendly products such as cloth shopping bags and paper cups instead of non-biodegradable
polythene bags and disposable plastic cups.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Questions Page number 119

1. What is the difference between a reflex action and walking?
Solution:

Reflex action are the involuntary actions that occur in response to stimuli. They occur
without involvement of conscious areas of brain. All the reflex actions are unconscious
actions. Reflex action occurs brain and spinal cord of central nervous systems.

On the other hand voluntary actions are those which occur under the control of
cerebellum of the brain Walking is learnt as we grow. Walking is controlled by brain as is
used when required.

2. What happens at the synapse between two neurons?

Solution:

Between the synapse between two neurons electric signals are converted into chemicals
that can easily cross over the gap and pass on the chemical messenger to next neuron
where it is converted back to electrical signal.

3. Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body?
Solution:

Cerebellum which is a part of the brain is responsible for Controls the motor
functioning hence it is the part reengaged in the maintenance of posture and equilibrium
of the body.

4. How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (incense stick)?

Solution:

Smell of an agarbatti is detected by Nose, olfactory receptors present in the nose sends
electrical signal to the fore brain. Fore brain interprets this signal as the incense stick to
be detected as smell.

5. What is the role of the brain in reflex action?

Solution:

Reflex actions are formed instantaneously in response to the stimulus that has no time to
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

think. For instance the sensory nerves that detect the heat are connected to the nerves that
move the muscles of the hand. Such a connection of detecting the signal from the nerves
(input) and responding to it quickly (output) is known as reflex arc.

Reflex action are generated in spinal cord and the information also reaches brain. This
helps the brain to record this event and remember it for future use. Brain helps the
person to get awareness of the stimulus and prevent himself from that situation again.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Questions Page number 119

1. What are plant hormones?
Solution:

Plant hormones are the organic substances produces at certain sites of the plant and are
translocated to other parts based on the requirement. Plant hormones help to coordinate
growth, development and responses to the environment. Ex: Auxin’s Gibberlin’s,
cytokines, abscisic acid and ethylene.

2. How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement
of a shoot towards light?
Solution:

Sl. Movement of leaves of the sensitive plant Movement of a shoot

no towards light
1 It does not depend on the direction of stimulus Depends on the direction of
applied. stimulus applied.
2 Called as Nastic movement Called as tropic movement
3 Touch is the stimulus Light is the stimulus
4 Caused by the sudden loss of water from the Caused by the unequal
swellings at the base of leaves growth on the two sides of
the shoot.
5 Not a growth movement Growth movement
6 Occurs very fast Occurs slowly

3. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth

Solution:

Auxins and Gibberlins are the hormone responsible for the growth of plant.

Auxins are responsible for the cell elongation in shoot and also regulates growth.

Gibberlin is responsible for stem elongation and germination.

4. How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support?

Solution:
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Auxins are the plant hormones produces at the tip of a shoot and root. Auxins are present
at the tip of tendrils. When tendrils are attached around any support their growth is
slowed down as auxins are sensitive to touch. This make them move to the other side of
the tip to get support this makes the other side grow faster than the side of tendril in
contact with the support and the tendril bends towards the support.

5. Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.

Solution:

To demonstrate hydrotropism in plants.

Procedure :
i. Plant a seedling in a vessel containing soil.
ii. Adjacent to the seedling put a porous pot containing water.
iii. Leave the set up for few days.
Observation :
iv. On examining the roots it is observed that the roots bend towards the source of
water and do not grow straight.
result :
It confirms that plant shows hydrotropism as the roots bend towards the porous pot of
water. As hydrotropism is a plant growth response in which the direction of growth is
determined by a stimulus of gradient in water concentration.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Questions Page number 125

1. How does chemical coordination take place in animals?
Solution:

Chemical coordination takes place in animals with the help of chemical messengers
called as Hormones. Hormones are the chemic fluids that are secreted by specific glands
of the endocrine gland. Hormones regulate the growth, development and homeostasis of
the animals.

2. Why is the use of iodized salt advisable?

Solution:

Usage of Iodized salt is advisable to avoid the deficiency of Iodine. If the intake of iodine
is low, the release of thyroxine from the thyroid gland will be decreased. This affects fat,
carbohydrate and protein metabolism
Thus a person may have goitre problem in case if the intake of iodine is lowered.

3. How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood?
Solution:

4. Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?

Solution:
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Diabetes is a condition where insulin hormone is produced less or stopped by pancreatic

cells of a person. Insulin regulates blood glucose by converting extra glucose to
glycogen. When insulin is not produced adequately person blood glucose level which
leads to adverse effects. In order to maintain the insulin and blood glucose level diabetes
patients are treated with injections of insulin.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Exercise Questions Page number 126

1. Which of the following is a plant hormone?

(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinin
Solution:

Answer is d) cytokinin.
Cytokinin is a plant hormone whereas Insulin, Thyroxin, Oestrogen are the hormones
produced by animals.

2. The gap between two neurons is called a

(a) Dendrite.
(b) Synapse.
(c) Axon.
(d) Impulse.
Solution:
Answer is (b) Synapse

Dendrite is a short branched extension of a nerve cell, along which impulses received
from other cells at synapses are transmitted to the cell body.

An axon or nerve fiber is a long, slender projection of a nerve cell or neuron in

vertebrates that typically conducts electrical impulses known as action potentials away
from the nerve cell body. The function of the axon is to transmit information to different
neurons, muscles, and glands.

Impulse an electrical signal that travels along axon.

3. The brain is responsible for

(a) Thinking.
(b) Regulating the heartbeat.
(c) Balancing the body.
(d) all of the above.
Solution:
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Answer is (d) all the above

Brain is responsible for thinking, brain regulates the heartbeat, and it balance the body.

4. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where

receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Solution:
Receptors are present throughout our body mainly sense organs. Receptors collect the
information about changes that happen around us and send the signal to information to
brain which render effector mechanism against the change. When receptors do not work
properly, the environmental stimuli are not able to create nerve impulses and body does
not respond.

5. Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its function.

Solution:

Neurons are nerve cells which are functional units of the nervous system. Three main
parts of neurons are Dendrites, Axons and cell body.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Dendrite: Detects information and sends it to cell body

Cell Body: Maintains growth of the cell
Axon: Conducts messages away from cell body and signal to next neuron.

6. How does phototropism occur in plants?

Solution:

Directional movement and growth of plant in response to light is called as phototropism.

Phototropism occurs due to increased auxin on the dark side and decreased auxin on the
illuminated side. Because of presence of more auxin, leaf in the darker side grows faster
causing it to bend towards the source of light.

7. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?

Solution:

In case of a spinal cord injury, signals coming from the nerves as well as the signals
coming to the receptors will be disrupted. Both these signals meet in a bundle in the
spinal cord. Hence, both these signals get disrupted.

8. How does chemical coordination occur in plants?

Solution:

Plant growth, development and responses to the environment is controlled and

coordinated by a special class of chemical substances known as hormones. Hormones are
produced in one part of the plant and are transported to all the needy parts of the plant.
The five major types of phytohormone are auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid,
and ethylene. These phytohormones are either growth promoters (such as auxins,
gibberellins, cytokinins, and ethylene) or growth inhibitors such as abscisic acid.

9. What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?

Solution:

There are various organs in an organism. These organs must be carefully controlled and
coordinated for the survival of an organisms. In the body of an organism various fluids
are secreted from the glands of the endocrine system. These hormones are responsible for
the overall growth and development of an organism. All others daily decision that
includes voluntary and involuntary action are controlled by central nervous system
(CNS).
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

Coordination is needed for all human activities we perform. Our nervous system receives
information from surroundings which is processed and response is ilicited. The endocrine
system (hormonal system) helps in integrating various metabolic activities like
reproduction, development, and all reflex actions (cope up with various give up
situations).

The hormonal system in plants helps in process of photosynthesis; they need carbon
dioxide, water and sunlight. The stomatal opening in leaves opens up to allow in carbon
dioxide gas, the roots bend towards water and the stem grows towards sunlight, the
tendrils in climbing pants are supported by the hormonal system of the plant body.

Thus, we have need of control and coordination system in an organisms.

10. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
Solution:

Reflex actions Involuntary actions

1. Rapid automatic responses to a stimulus 1. Occurs without the consciousness of
without the conscious involvement of the an organism
brain
2. Controlled by spinal cord 2. Controlled by mid brain or medulla
oblongata
3. Very quick and instantaneous 3. Relatively slower
4. May involve any muscle or a gland 4. Involves only smooth muscles
5. Can be conditioned 5. Cannot be influenced by external
conditioning
Examples: Blinking of eyes, salivation Examples: Beating of heart, blood
circulation

11. Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and
coordination in animals.
Solution:

Nervous control Hormonal Control

1 It is consist of nerve impulses 1 It consists of endocrine system which
between PNS, CNS and Brain. secretes hormones directly into
blood.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 -
Control and coordination

2 Here response time is very short. 2 Here response time is very long.
3 Nerve impulses are not specific in 3 Each hormone has specific actions.
their action.
4 The flow of information is rapid. 4 The flow of information is very slow.

12. What is the difference between the manner in which movement takes place in a
sensitive plant and the movement in our legs?
Solution:

Sl. Movement in sensitive plants Movement in our legs

no
1 The movement in a sensitive plant 1 Movement in our legs is a
is a response to stimulus (touch) voluntary action.
which is an involuntary action.
A complete system CNS and PNS
2 No special tissue is there for the 2 is there for the information
transfer of information exchange.
3 3 Animal cells have specialized
Plant cells do not have specialized protein which help muscles to
protein for movements. contract.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

Questions Page no: 128

1. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?
Solution:

DNA – Deoxyribonucleic acid is the genetic material that is present in the cells of all
organisms. DNA carries genetic information from one generation to the other and this
helps in producing organisms of its own types. DNA copying is must for inheriting the
traits from the parents. Any variations in DNA copying will give rise to origin of new
species.

2. Why is the variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the
individual?
Solution:

The reason why the variation is beneficial to the species than individuals is because
sometimes the climatic changes have a drastic effect on the species which makes their
survival difficult. For examples, if the temperature of the water body increases, then are
might be certain species of microorganisms which might die. This may result in
disturbance in the environment. So, variation is beneficial to species and not for the
individuals.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

Questions Page no: 128

1. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Solution:

When a single cell divides into two equal halves, it is known as binary fission. Bacteria
and amoeba are the examples of binary fission.
When a single cell divides into multiple daughter cells at the same time, it is
known as multiple fission. Algae and sporozoans are the examples of multiple
fission.

2. How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores?

Solution:

Following are the ways through which an organism will be benefited if it reproduces
through spores:
 Number of spores produced in one sporangium would be large.
 In order to avoid competition at one place, spores can be distributed to faraway
places with the help of air.
 In order to prevent dehydration under unfavorable conditions, the spores are
covered by thick walls.

3. Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new
individuals through regeneration?
Solution:

Organisms at higher complex levels cannot give rise to new individuals through
regeneration because they have organization of their organs system at different levels. All
these organ systems are interconnected and work in full coordination. They can
regenerate few of their lost body parts like skin, blood, muscles, etc. but can’t give rise to
new individuals.

4. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some types of plants?

Solution:

Following are the advantages of practicing vegetative propagation for growing some
types of plants:
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

 Crops like orange, banana, pineapple do not have viable seeds, so

vegetative propagation can be used.
 It is a rapid, cheap and easier method to grow crops.
 It can be used in places where seed germination fails.
 A good quality of variety can be preserved.

5. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?

Solution:

DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction because it carries the
genetic information from the parents to offspring. A copy of DNA is produced through
some chemical reactions resulting in two copies of DNA. Along with the additional
cellular structure, DNA copying also takes place which is then followed by cell division
into two cells.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

Questions Page No: 140

1. How is the process of pollination different from fertilization?
Solution:

Pollination is defined as the process of transfer of pollens from anther to stigma. The
process takes place with the help of pollinators like air, water and some insects.

Fertilization is defined as the fusion of male and female gametes. It takes place in the
ovule and leads to the formation of zygote.

2. What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland?
Solution:

Lubrication of sperms and providing of a fluid medium for the easy transportation of
sperms takes place with the help of secretions from the seminal vesicles and the prostate
gland. These secretions also provide nutrients in the form of fructose, calcium and some
enzymes.

3. What are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty?

Solution:

Following are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty:

 In genital area, hair growth appears.
 Hair growth in other areas like underarms, face, hands and legs.
 The size of uterus and ovary increases.
 The size of the breast increases followed by darkening of the nipple skin that
are present at the tip of the breast.
 Beginning of menstrual cycle.
 Appearance of pimples, as the oil secretion is more from the skin.

4. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body?
Solution:

The lining of the uterus thickens after fertilization. The blood flow is good so as to
nourish the growing embryo. Placenta is a special tissue which is embedded in the uterine
wall and helps the embryo get the nourishment from the mother’s tissue. Placenta has
villi on the embryo side and blood space on the mother’s side. This spacing provides a
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

large area between the mother and the embryo and also for the waste removal.

5. If a woman is using a Copper-T, will it help in protecting her from sexually

transmitted diseases?
Solution:

No, because usage of copper-T cannot stop the contact of body fluids. Hence, it cannot
protect her from getting sexually transmitted diseases.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

Exercises Page no: 141

1. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
(a) Amoeba
(b) Yeast
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Leishmania
Solution:

(b) Yeast
Yeast is an example for asexual reproduction taking place through budding. A small
protuberance is produced on the parent cell that grows in full size forming a bud. In the
parent cell, the daughter nucleus splits and migrates to the daughter cell. By forming a
constriction, the bud detaches from the mother’s body at the base. This process of
budding continues to form a chain of bud cells. The mother cell is smaller than the
daughter cell.

2. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human
beings?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Fallopian tube
Solution:

(c) Vas deferens

Vas deferens is a part of male reproductive system. It is a long, muscular tube travelling
from the epididymis into the pelvic cavity. It is behind the bladder. Its function is to
transport the mature sperm to the urethra. It also carries urine to the outside of the body.

3. The anther contains

(a) Sepals
(b) Ovules
(c) Pistil
(d) Pollen grains
Solution:

(d) Pollen grains.

Pollen grains are the microscopic particles that occurs in the pollen giving rise to male
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

gametophyte of a seed plant.

4. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

Solution:

Following are the advantages of sexual reproduction:

 The offspring has the characters of both the parent.
 The survival of the species is ensured as there are more variations.
 The offspring can easily adapt to environmental changes.
 It also improves the health of humans.

5. What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings?

Solution:

Following are the functions performed by the testis in human beings:

 Apart from the production of sperms, it also produces the male hormone
known as androgens.
 They also produce hormone called testosterone, which is responsible for
secondary sexual characters in boys.

6. Why does menstruation occurs?

Solution:

Menstruation is the normal bleeding of the vaginal line which starts between puberty and
lasts till menopause. During this period, the body prepares itself for the pregnancy.

Every month an egg is released from one of the ovaries at the same time where the uterus
prepares itself for fertilized egg. The inner lining of the uterus gets thickened and is
supplied with sufficient amount of blood for the embryo. Since there is no interaction
between the egg and the sperms, the fertilization of egg doesn’t takes place. So when the
egg doesn’t fertilized, the uterus lining breaks down slowly resulting in menstruation.

7. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.

Solution:
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

8. What are the different methods of contraception?

Solution:

Following are the different methods of contraception:

 Natural method: In this method, the main focus is to avoid the meeting of
sperms and ovum. This can be achieved by avoiding the mating from 10 th to
17th day of the menstrual cycle. During this period, there are high chances of
fertilization as the ovulation is expected.
 Barrier method: In this method, the meeting of sperms and ovum is avoided
by using a barrier. These barriers are available for males as well as for
females. Condoms for both male and female, diaphragms for female,
cervical cap and contraceptive sponge for females.
 Oral contraceptives: In this methods, pills are taken orally. These pills
contain small portion of hormones that block the eggs so that the fertilization
doesn’t takes place.
 Implants and surgical method: In this method, contraceptive devices like
copper-T or a loop can be used to block the meeting of sperms and ovum. In
surgical method, the fallopian tubes are blocked in females to strop flow of
eggs and vas deference is blocked in men to stop the flow sperms.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?

9. How are the modes for reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular
organisms?
Solution:

The different modes of reproduction in unicellular organisms are fission, budding etc.
Here, the cell divides into two daughter cells and this process of cell division continues.

Whereas, in multicellular organisms there is a different organ system for reproduction.

The different modes of reproduction in multicellular organisms are vegetative
propagation, spore formation, etc.

In more complex organisms like humans and animals, the reproduction is through sexual
reproduction.

10. How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations of species?

Solution:

Reproduction is the process of producing the same kind of species by the existing
species. This is done so as to maintain the population of that species and also to take
forward their species to next generations. Stability is maintained by keep a check of rate
of births and rate of deaths.

11. What could be the reason for adopting contraceptive methods?

Solution:

Following are the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods:

 To control population
 To avoid unplanned pregnancy
 To avoid transfer of sexually transmitted diseases
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

In-text questions set 1

Page number 40

1. Give an example of a metal which

(i) Is a liquid at room temperature?
(ii) Can be easily cut with a knife?
(iii) Is the best conductor of heat?
(iv) Is a poor conductor of heat?

Solution:

(i) Mercury is the metal which is liquid at room temperature

(ii) Sodium and potassium are the metals which can be cut with a knife

(iii) Silver is the best conductor of heat

(iv) Mercury is poor conductor of heat.

2. Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile.

Solution:

i. Metals which can be beaten to sheets are said to be malleable

ii. Metals which can be drawn into thin wires are said to be ductile

In-text questions set 2

Page number 46

1. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?

Solution: Sodium is a reactive metals, if kept open it will react with oxygen to explore and
catch fire. Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene to prevent their reaction with oxygen,
moisture and carbon dioxide of air.

2. Write equations for the reactions of

 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

(i) iron with steam

(ii) calcium and potassium with water

Solution: (i) Iron reacts with steam to form a magnetic oxide of Fe with the liberation of H2.

3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)

(ii) Calcium reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen.
Ca(s) + 2H2O(I) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)

Potassium reacts with cold water violently immediately with evolution of H2 which catches
fire.

2K(s) + 2H2O(I) → 2KOH(aq) + 2H2(g)

3. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following
solution one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows
Metal Iron(II) Copper(II) Zinc Silver Nitrate
sulphate sulphate sulphate

A No reaction Displacement - -

B Displacement - - -

C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement

D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction

Use the Table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.

(i) Which is the most reactive metal?

(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of Copper (II)
sulphate?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Solution:

(i) Metal B is the most reactive as it gives displacement reaction with iron (II) sulphate.

(ii) When metal B is added to copper (II) sulphate solution, a displacement reaction will take
place because of which the blue colour of copper (II) sulphate solution will fade and a red-
brown deposit of copper will be formed on metal B.

(iii)Metal B is the most reactive because it displaces iron from its salt solution. Metal A is less
reactive because it displaces copper from its salt solution. Metal C is still less reactive because it
can displace only silver from its salt solution and metal D is the least reactive because it cannot
displace any metal from its salt solution. Hence, the decreasing order of reactivity of the metals
is B > A > C > D.

4. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive

metal? Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
Solution: Hydrogen gas is liberated when dilute HCl is added to a reactive metal.

Fe(s) + H2SO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)

5. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate?
Write the chemical reaction that takes place.
Solution: Zinc is more reactive (more electro positive) than iron. Therefore Zinc displaces
Iron from its salt solution. The colour of ferrous sulphate is pale green, which turns colourless.

FeSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Fe(s)

Light green Zinc sulphate(Colourless)

In-text questions set 3 Page number 49

1. (i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium and oxygen.

(ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(iii)What are the ions present in these compounds?

Solution: (i) Sodium:

 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Oxygen:
Oxygen:

(ii) Formation of Magnesium oxide:

When magnesium reacts with oxygen, the magnesium atom transfers its two outermost
electrons to an oxygen atom. By losing two electrons, the magnesium atoms form a magnesium
ion (Mg2+) and by gaining two electrons, the oxygen atom forms an oxide ion (O2-).

Mg: + → MgO

Formation of Sodium oxide:

Two sodium atoms transfer their 2 outermost electrons to an oxygen atom. By losing two
electrons, the two sodium atoms form sodium ions (2Na+). And by gaining two electrons,
the oxygen atom forms an oxide ion (O2-).

(iii) The ions present in sodium oxide compound (Na2O) are sodium ions (2Na+) and oxide
ions (O2-).
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

The ions present in Magnesium oxide compound (MgO) are magnesium ions Mg2+ and oxide
ions (O2-).

2. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?

Solution: Ionic compounds are the ones which has both positive and negative charges. Hence
there will be strong force of attraction between them. This make expenditure of lot of heat to
break this force of attraction hence ionic compounds have high melting points.

In-text questions set 4

Page number 53

1. Define the following terms.

(i) Mineral
(ii) Ore
(iii) Gangue
Solution:

(i) Minerals are compounds (also known as elements) which are found naturally in the
earth’s crust. E.g. Alums, K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O, etc.
(ii) Ores are minerals from which metal can be extracted Ex: Bauxite Al2O3.2H2O is the ore
of Al, copper pyrite CuFeS2.All minerals are not considered as ores but all ores are also
minerals.
(iii) Ores mined from the earth are naturally contaminated with sand, rocky materials. There
are impurities present in the ore which are known as gangue.

2. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state
Solution: Gold and platinum are the two metals found in Free State in nature.

3. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
Reduction method is used to obtain metal from its oxide. Ex: Zinc oxide is reduced to metallic
zinc by Heating with carbon.

ZnO + C → Zn + CO
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Ex: Lead oxide is reduced to lead by heating with carbon

PbO +C → Pb + CO

In-text questions set 5

Page number 55

1. Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were heated with the following
metals.
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc Oxide
Magnesium
Oxide
Copper Oxide

Solution:
A more reactive metal can displace a less reactive metal from its oxide. Among Zinc,
Magnesium, and Copper metals, magnesium is the most reactive, copper is the least reactive
metal and zinc is less reactive .The displacement reaction will take place in the following cases
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc Oxide - Displacement -
Magnesium Oxide - - -
Copper Oxide Displacement Displacement -

2. Which metals do not corrode easily?

Solution: Gold and platinum are the metals which do not corrode easily

3. What are alloys?

Solution: An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-
metal.
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Exercise questions
Page number 56-57

1. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?

(a) NaCl solution and copper metal

(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal

Solution: Option d i.e AgNO3 solution and copper is correct answer. Copper displace the
silver cations (reducing them to the elemental metal), in the process copper itself being
oxidised to Copper II cations (Cu2+) and going into solution. So silver metal precipitating out
and a copper II nitrate solution will be remaining.
Cu(s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)

2. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan
from rusting?

a) Applying grease
b) Applying paint
c) Applying a coating of zinc
d) All of the above
Solution: Answer is (c) Applying a coat of Zinc
Though applying grease and applying paint prevents iron from rusting but we cannot apply
these methods on frying pan hence applying a coat of Zinc is most appropriate method to
prevent an iron pan from rusting.

3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point.
This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be

(a) Calcium
(b) Carbon
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

(c) Silicon
(d) Iron

Solution: Correct answer is option (a) i.e Calcium.

Calcium reacts with oxygen to give calcium oxide. Calcium oxide is soluble in water to give
Calcium Hydroxide.
Carbon forms carbon-oxide with oxygen which is gas hence option B is wrong
Silicon reacts with oxygen and forms silicon dioxide. This is insoluble in water. So option C is
not correct.
Iron reacts with oxygen and forms Iron dioxide. This is insoluble in water. So option D is not
correct.

4. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because

(a) Zinc is costlier than tin.

(b) Zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
(c) Zinc is more reactive than tin.
(d) Zinc is less reactive than tin.

Solution: Answer is c. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because Zinc is more
reactive that is electro positive than tin.

5. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch.

(a) How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-
metals?
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-
metals.
Solution:
(a) Metals are malleable and can be easily drown into sheets by hitting with hammer. On
the other hand if we beat non-metals they break down and they cannot be drawn into
sheets as they are non-malleable. Metals of good conductors of electricity hence they
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

make bulb when you connect metals with a battery, wire and bulb. Similarly If non-
metals are bad conductors of electricity chance they fail to lit up the bulb on connecting
with wire and battery.
(b) These experiments can be helpful to demonstrate the malleability and electric
conductivity of the metals and non-metals

6. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides

Solution: Oxides that react with both acids and bases to form salt and water are known as
amphoteric oxides. Examples: PbO and Al2O3.

Amphoteric oxides are the one which reacts with both acids and bases to form salt and water.
Examples: Lead oxide - PbO and Aluminium oxide - Al2O3.

7. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids, and two
metals which will not.
Solution: Zinc (Zn) and Magnesium (Mg) are the two metals which will displace Hydrogen
from dilute acids as they are very reactive metals. Gold (Au) and Silver (Ag) are the metals
which will not replace Hydrogen from dilute acids as these metals are less reactive.

8. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, the
cathode and the electrolyte?
Solution: In the process of electrolytic refining of metal called ‘M’, An impure and thick block
of metal M. is considered as anode, Thin strip or wire of pure metal M is taken as anode A
suitable salt solution of metal M is considered as the electrolyte.

9. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas
evolved by inverting a test tube over it, as shown in figure below.

(a) What will be the action of gas on

(i) dry litmus paper?

(ii) moist litmus paper?

 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.

Solution: a) When sulphur powder is burnt in the air sulphur-di-oxide is formed.

(i) Sulphur-di-oxide does not have any effect on dry litmus paper.
(ii) Sulphur-di-oxide turn the moist litmus paper from blue to red as contact of SO2 with water
turns to sulfurous acid.

(b) S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)

SO2(g) + H2O →H2SO3

10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.

Solution:

1. Iron can be prevented from rusting by coating the surface of the iron with rust proof
paints
2. By applying Oil/grease on the surface of iron objects as it will prevent the iron
surface to get in contact with air consisting of moisture.

11. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Solution: When non-metals combine with oxygen it forms either acidic or neutral oxides. Ex:
N2O5 or N2O3 is an acidic oxide; CO is a neutral oxide.

12. Give reasons

(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.

(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.

(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for
cooking.

(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the
process of extraction

Solution:
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery for these metals are very less
reactive hence they are not affected by air, water or most chemicals. These metals have a
lot of lustre and they are malleable and ductile in nature.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium readily reacts with water to produce a lot of heat. As a
result Hydrogen evolved in the reaction results in fire. On exposure to water they react
with moisture (water droplets) present in the atmosphere, In order to prevent contact
with water hence these metals are stored under oil.

13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or
tamarind juice. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the
vessels.
Solution: Tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind because these sour
substance contains acids which dissolve the coating of copper oxide or basic copper carbonate
present on the surface or tarnished copper vessels. This makes them shining red-brown again.
Hence they are very effective in cleaning tarnished copper vessels.

14. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis of their chemical
properties.
Solution:

Metals Non-metals

When metals are heated with oxygen, they When non-Metals are heated with oxygen,
form ionic oxides which are basic in nature they form covalent oxides which are acidic
and form bases on dissolving with water. in nature which form acid on dissolving with
This turn red litmus paper to blue. water. This turn blue litmus paper to red.

They are electro positive, lose electrons They are electro negative, gain electrons and
readily and become a positive ion. become negative ions.

Non-metals are non-lustrous; graphite is the

Metals are lustrous.
exception
 NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Reducing agents. Good oxidizing agents.

Non-metals are non-conductors of

Metals are the good conductors of electricity
electricity and heat; graphite is the
and heat.
exception

Non-metals are in solid-liquid and gaseous

All metals are solids except mercury.
states

15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the
glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold
bangles to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like
new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after a futile
argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the
nature of the solution he had used?
Solution: Goldsmith used the solution called Aqua regia which is called as royal water in
Latin. It is the mixture of concentrated Hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the
ratio of 3:1. Aqua regia is capable of dissolving noble metals like gold and platinum. When
upper-layer of dull gold ornament is dissolved they lose their weight.

16. Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an
alloy of iron).
Solution: Copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron) because
copper does not reacts with either water or steam whereas iron reacts with steams to corrode
the tank.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

Questions Page number 81

1. Did Döbereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands’ Octaves? Compare
and find out.
Solution:

Döbereiner’s triads did exist in the columns of Newlands’ Octaves; For example, the
elements
Lithium (Li), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) constitute a Dobereiner’s Triad but are also
found in the second column of Newland’s Octaves.

2. What were the limitations of Döbereiner’s classification?

Solution:

(i) They were not applicable for very low mass or very high mass elements.

(ii) All the elements couldn’t fit into Dobereiner’s triads.

(iii) As the methods to calculate atomic mass improved, Dobereiner’s triads validity
began to decrease. For example, in the triad of F, Cl and Br, the arithmetic mean of
atomic masses of F and Br are not equal to the atomic mass of CI.

3. What were the limitations of Newlands’ Law of Octaves?

Solution:

 Limitations of Newlands’ Law of Octaves are as follows

 Newlands’ Law of Octaves applicable to elements up to Calcium
 Newland assumed there are 56 elements in the nature and no more elements would
be discovered in the future.
 To fit elements into table Newland put two elements into one slot. Newland
introduced unlike elements with different properties into one column.
 Iron (Fe) was placed away from elements that resembles in properties. Ex: Nickel
and cobalt
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

Questions Page number 85

1. Use Mendeleev’s Periodic Table to predict the formulae for the oxides of the
following elements: K, C, AI, Si, Ba.
Solution:
K- K2O

C-C2O4 or CO2

Al- Al2O3

Si-Si2O4 or SiO2

Ba2O2 or BaO

Oxygen is a member of group VI A in Mendeleev's periodic table. Its valency is 2.

Similarly. The valencies of all the elements listed can be predicted from their respective
groups. This will help in writing the formulae of their oxides.
(i) Potassium (K) is a member of group IA. Its valency is 1. Therefore, the formula of it is
K2O.
(ii) Carbon (C) is a member of group IV A. Its valency is 4. Therefore, the formula of it is
C2O4 or CO2.
(iii) Aluminium (Al) belongs to groups III A and its valency is 3. The formula of its oxide
is Al2O3.
(iv) Silicon (Si) is present in group IV A after carbon. Its valency is also 4. The formula
oxide is Si2O4 or SiO2.
(v) Barium (Ba) belongs to group II A and the valency of the element is 2. The formula
of oxide of the element is Ba2O2 or BaO.

2. Besides gallium, which other elements have since been discovered that were left
by Mendeleev in his Periodic Table? (Any two)
Solution:

Germanium and Scandium are the element that are left by Mendeleev in his Periodic
Table since its discovery.

3. What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
Solution:
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

Mendeleev concentrated on various compounds formed by the elements with Hydrogen

and
Oxygen. Among physical properties, he observed the relationship between the atomic
masses
of various elements while creating his periodic table.

4. Why do you think the noble gases are placed in a separate group?
Solution:

Noble gases are placed in a separate group because of their inert nature and low
concentration in our atmosphere. They are kept in a separate group called Zero group so
that they don’t disturb the existing order.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

Questions Page number 90

1. How could the Modern Periodic Table remove various anomalies of Mendeleev’s
Periodic Table?
Solution:

(a) In the Modern Periodic table elements are arranged in the increasing order of their
atomic number. This removes the anomaly regarding certain pairs of elements in
Mendeleev’s periodic table.

(b) Atomic number of cobalt is 27 and nickel is 28. Hence cobalt will come before nickel
even though its atomic mass is greater.

c) All isotopes of the same elements have different atomic masses, but same atomic
number; therefore they are placed in the same position in the modern periodic table.

2. Name two elements you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to
magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?
Solution:

Calcium and Beryllium are similar to Magnesium because all the three elements belong
to the same group and have 2 valence electrons in their outer shell.

3. Name
(a) Three elements that have a single electron in their outermost shells.
(b) Two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shells.
(c) Three elements with filled outermost shells
Solution:

(a) Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na) and potassium (k) have a single electron in their
outermost shells.
(b) Magnesium (Mg) and Calcium (Ca) have two electrons in their outermost shells
(c) Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar and Xenon (Xe) filled outermost shells

4. a) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals that react with water to liberate
hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements?
(b) Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What,
if anything, do their atoms have in common?
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

Solution:

They’ve one valence electron in their outermost shells and as a result of this, they are
very unstable. So, they readily react with water to liberate hydrogen. They are also called
alkali metals.

Their outermost shells are full leading to high stability. They react only in extreme
circumstances and hence are called noble gases.

5. In the Modern Periodic Table, which are the metals among the first ten elements?
Solution:

Lithium and Beryllium are the metals among the first ten elements in Modern Periodic
Table.

6. By considering their position in the Periodic Table, which one of the following
elements would you expect to have maximum metallic characteristic? Ga Ge As Se
Be
Solution:

Among the elements listed in the question. Be and Ga are expected to be most
metallic. Out of Be and Ga, Ga is bigger in size and hence has greater tendency to
lose electrons than Be. Therefore, Ga is more metallic than Be.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

Exercise questions Page number 91-92

1. Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends
when going from left to right across the periods of periodic Table.
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides become more acidic
Solution:

Correct answer is c .The atoms lose their electrons more easily.

The atoms lose their electrons more easily is a wrong statement because as we move from
left to right across the periods of the periodic table, the non-metallic character increases.
Therefore tendency to lose an electron decreases.

2. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with a high
melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as (a)
Na (b) Mg (c) AI (d) Si
Solution:

Answer is Magnesium because Mg has the valency 2 which is same as the group (a) Na
(b) Mg (c) AI (d) Si
Also Mg when combines chloride forms MgCl2.

3. Which element has?

(a) Two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?
(b) The electronic configuration 2, 8, 2?
(c) A total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?
(d) A total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?
(e) twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell?
Solution:

a) Neon has two shells which are completely filled.

b) Silicon has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2
c) Carbon has a total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell
d) Boron a total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell
e) Magnesium has twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

4. (a) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as
boron have in common?
(b) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as
fluorine have in common?
Solution:

(a)All the elements which lie in me same column as that of boron belong to group 13.
Therefore, they have three electrons in their respective valence shells. Except, boron
which is a non-metal, all other elements (i.e., aluminum, gallium, indium and thallium) in
this group are metals.

(b) All elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as fluorine have in common
three electrons in their valence shell and they all are belong to group thirteen.

5. An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7.

(a) What is the atomic number of this element?
(b) To which of the following elements would it be chemically similar? (Atomic
numbers are given in parentheses.) N(7), F(9), P(15), Ar(18)
Solution:

(a)The element with electronic configuration (2+8+7) 17 is chlorine.

The no. of atomic number = no. of electrons
Therefore, atomic number is 17.

(b) An atom with electronic configuration 2, 8, 7 would be chemically similar to F (9)

6. The position of three elements A, B and C in the Periodic Table are shown below–
Group 16 Group 17
- -
- A
- -
B C
(a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.
(b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive than A.
(c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B?
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by element A?
Solution:
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

(a) Element A is a non-metal

(b) Element C is less reactive than Element A
(c) C is smaller in size than B
(d) A will form anion

7. Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group
15 of the Periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements.
Which of these will be more electronegative? Why?
Solution:
Atomic number of Nitrogen is 7 hence Electronic configuration of Nitrogen is 1s2 2s2 2p3
Atomic number of Nitrogen is 15 hence Electronic configuration of Phosphorous is 1s2
2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

On moving down a group in the periodic table, the number of shell increases. Because of
which valence electrons move away from the electrons and the effective nuclear charge
decreases. This causes the decrease in the tendency to attract electron and hence electro
negativity decreases. Because of all these reasons Nitrogen is more electronegative than
phosphorus.

8. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the
Modern Periodic Table?
Solution:

The number of valence electrons decides an atom’s position in the periodic table while
the electronic configuration decides the number of valence electrons.

9. In the Modern Periodic Table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by

elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and
chemical properties resembling calcium?
Solution:

Calcium has an atomic number of 20, and thus has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 8,
2. Thus, calcium has 2 valence electrons. The electronic configuration of the element
having atomic number 12 is 2, 8.2. Thus, this element with 2 valence electrons resemble
calcium the most.

10. Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev’s Periodic

Table and the Modern Periodic Table.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements

Solution:

Mendeleev’s Periodic Table Modern Periodic Table

Elements are arranged in the increasing Elements are arranged in the increasing
order of their atomic masses. order of their atomic numbers.
There are 8 groups There are 18 groups
Each groups are subdivided into sub group Groups are not subdivided into sub-
'a' and 'b' groups.
Groups for Noble gas was not present as A separate group is meant for noble
noble gases were not discovered by that gases.
time
There was no place for isotopes. This problem has been rectified as slots
are determined according to atomic
number.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

Exercise-9.1 Page: 143

1. If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60%
of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier?
Solution:
Trait B is more probable to arise early as this trait has already been existing and replicating in a larger percentage
of the population as compared to trait A

2. How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?

Solution:
Genetic variations enable the species to better adapt to changes in its environment. Moreover, it is an
important force in evolution as it allows the frequency of alleles to increase or decrease through natural
selection. These variations will determine the difference between extinction or continuation of the
species.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

Exercise-9.2 Page: 147

1. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive?
Solution:
Mendel showed that the traits can either be dominant or recessive through his experiments that focused on mono-
hybrid cross. The experiment involved him crossing tall (TT) pea plants with dwarf (tt) pea plants. The resultant
plants which formed after fertilization represented the F1 (or filial) generation. All the F1 plants were tall. Mendel
then proceeded to self-pollinate the filial generation plants and the result was that 1/4th of the plants obtained in
the F2 generation were dwarfs. From this experiment, Mendel concluded that the F1 tall plants were not true-
breeding, instead they carried the traits for both tall and dwarf heights. A portion of the plants were tall due to the
fact that the traits for tallness were dominant over the traits for dwarfness. This cements the notion that traits can
either be dominant or recessive.

2. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?

Solution:
Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently through his dihybrid cross experiment. The
experiment involved him using two traits - namely, seed shape and seed colour. The colour yellow (YY) is
dominant over green (yy), while the round shape (RR) is dominant over the wrinkled shape (rr). The F2 progeny
of the dihybrid cross resulted in a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1; therefore, 9 plants with round yellow (RRYY)
seeds, 3 plants with round green (RRyy) seeds and 3 plants with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds and one with
wrinkled green seeds (rryy). He further observed that the wrinkled greens and the round yellow are parental
combinations while the round green and wrinkled yellow are new. A dihybrid cross between two seeds with
dominant traits (RRYY) and non-dominant traits (rryy) resulted in the production of 4 types of gametes (RY, Ry,
rY and ry). This means each of the gametes segregate independently of the other; and each with a frequency of
25% of the total gametes produced.

3. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group O and their daughter has blood group O.
Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits – blood group A or O – is dominant? Why or why
not?
Solution:
Given information is not enough to tell us which characteristics are dominant –blood group A or O. Blood type A
is always dominant in ABO blood and blood type O is always recessive. Here, the father's blood group may be
genotypically AA (homozygous) or AO (heterozygous), whereas that of mother can be OA or OO.

4. How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?

Solution:
Sex of child in humans is determined by the males. Males have XX chromosomes while females have
XY chromosomes. Hence, if:-
● The male’s X chromosomes combines the female’s X chromosomes, the mother gives birth to a
girl
● The male’s Y chromosome combines with the female’s X chromosome, the mother gives birth to
a boy
NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

Exercise-9.3 Page: 150

1. What are the different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a population?
Solution:
An individual attribute could increase in a population within the following 2 ways:-
(a) Natural selection: if an attribute is useful to a population, it'll increase naturally.
For example – mosquitoes which are resilient against a particular pesticide will pass on its genes, so that
future generations become resistant as well. The mosquitoes which are affected by the pesticide die out .
(b) Genetic drift: if a species faces a catastrophic event where most of the population is wiped out, the
surviving population can pass on their traits to the following generations. This may result in a rise of the
attribute within the population.

2. Why are traits acquired during the life-time of an individual not inherited?
Solution:
Traits acquired during a life-time cannot be inherited for successive generations as the changes do not reflect in
the DNA of the germ cells. For instance, a football player cannot pass on his skills to his offspring as they are
limited to non-reproductive cells only.

3. Why are the small numbers of surviving tigers a cause of worry from the point of view of genetics?
Solution:
As the size of the tiger population decreases, the genetic pool of the species decreases too. This results in a
limitation on the variations which will be introduced within the genetic makeup of the tigers. This lack of
variation will result in serious implications. For example, if an illness spreads within the tiger population, it can
potentially wipe out the whole population, possibly causing their extinction.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

Exercise-9.4 Page: 151

1. What factors could lead to the rise of a new species?
Solution:
Factors that would result in a new species are as follows:
(a) Mutation.
(b) Genetic drift.
(c) Natural selection.
(d) Geographical isolation.
(e) Generative isolation for prolonged periods
(f) Environmental factors on the isolated populations.
(g) Quantum of genetic variant transmissible from one generation to the following generation.

2. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species? Why or
why not?
Solution:
In a pollination of plant species, geographical isolation is usually not a major factor as no new trait will become
part of the genetic makeup in a self-pollinating plant species. However, there are some possibilities of some
environmental changes which could result in some variations.

3. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of an organism that reproduces asexually?
Why or why not?
Solution:
In the case of asexually reproducing organisms, geographical isolation can't be considered a factor. This
is due to the fact that meiosis does not occur during asexual modes of reproduction.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

Exercise-9.5 Page: 156

1. Give an example of characteristics being used to determine how close two species are in evolutionary
terms.
Solution:
Let us take the instance of humans and chimpanzees. chimpanzees are able to express a wide range of emotions -
such as busting out in laughter or smiling - this trait was once thought to be a feature exclusive to humans. The
smile can be linked to the activation of the brain’s limbic system - where the orbicularis oculi muscle
involuntarily contracts and raises the cheeks, forming wrinkles around the eyes. This implies that the smile is a
true and genuine smile. Interestingly, this type of reflex has a name - the Duchenne smile. Moreover, research has
shown that chimpanzees share 98.6% of our DNA - This means that humans and chimpanzees shared a common
ancestor eons ago. It is important to also note that chimpanzees are the closest living relatives to humans.

2. Can the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat be considered homologous organs? Why or why not?
Solution:
The wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat cannot be considered homologous organs as they do not share a
common ancestor. Even though both structures aid in flying, they have evolved separately. To prove this, the
wings of a butterfly are composed of two chitinous membranes, whereas wings of a bat are composed of bony
skeleton, complete with blood vessels. Hence, these aren't homologous organs but rather analogous organs.

3. What are fossils? What do they tell us about the process of evolution?
Solution:
Fossils are the preserved remains of animals or plants or other organisms that died out millions of years ago.
These fossils tell us about a lot of extinct animals and also give insights into how evolution might have occurred.
Fossils can be used to understand how an organism would have lived and what it may have looked like. More
importantly, we can correlate with fossils as well as extant organisms to understand their relationships. For
instance, scientists were able to recover protein sequences from a dinosaur called the T-rex, which confirmed its
avian lineage. This means birds are the extant relatives of (avian) dinosaurs. Moreover, the pattern of fossil
distribution gives us an idea of the time in history when various species were formed or become extinct.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

Exercise-9.6 Page: 158

1. Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of size, color and looks said to
belong to the same species?
Solution:
While human beings do vary in color and general appearance, their genetic makeup is identical to any other
human. One of the speculations put forth for our drastic changes is due to evolutionary pressure - where the need
to be easily recognized pushed us towards having widely different faces.

2. In evolutionary terms, can we say which among bacteria, spiders, fish and chimpanzees have a ‘better’
body design? Why or why not?
Solution:
Body designs are the result of environmental needs and pressure. Hence, we can't conclude that one organism has
a better body compared to another. For instance, fish have evolved a streamlined design as it is best suited for an
aquatic environment. On the other hand, a spider or a chimpanzee might be ill-equipped to survive in such aquatic
environments.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

Exercises Page: 159

1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants
bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short. This
suggests that the genetic make-up of the tall parent can be depicted as
(a) TTWW
(b) TTww
(c) TtWW
(d) TtWw
Solution:
Correct answer – (c)
TtWW might be the genetic makeup of the tall parent. Since half the progenies are short, this implies
that the parent plant also will have a collection of short genes; all progenies bore violet flowers, further
suggesting that violet color is dominant over white.

2. An example of homologous organs is

(a) Our arm and a dog’s fore-leg.
(b) Our teeth and an elephant’s tusks.
(c) Potato and runners of grass.
(d) All of the above.
Solution:
Correct answer – (d)
Homologous organs have the same origin as each of the above organs, but different functions. Homologous
organs can be defined as the organs of various animals having similar basic structure but different functions. For
example, a whale's flippers, a frog's forelimbs, and man have the same basic structures but perform different
functions, which is why they are called homologous organs.

3. In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with

(a) A Chinese school-boy.
(b) A chimpanzee.
(c) A spider.
(d) A bacterium.
Solution:
Correct answer – (a)
Humans and chimpanzees are related since they belong to the identical order (Primates) and same family,
(Hominidae). However, a school-boy, regardless of the ethnicity is still a Homo sapien

4. A study found that children with light-colored eyes are likely to have parents with light-colored eyes. On
this basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye color trait is dominant or recessive? Why or
why not?
Solution:
Knowledge of at least 3 generations is required for finding if an attribute is dominant or recessive. Hence, it is not
possible to identify if the given trait is dominant or recessive.

5. How are the areas of study – evolution and classification – interlinked?

Solution:
Classification and evolution are two related fields of biology. Evolution pertains to how organisms evolve and
classification deals with finding out how two species are related to each other. For example, evolution and fossil
evidence point to the fact that Australopithecus afarensis is considered one of our earliest ancestors. And
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

classification tells us that Australopithecus afarensis belongs to the genus Homo, which is also the same genus as
modern humans.

6. Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs with examples.

Solution:
Homologous organs are those organs that have the basic structural design as well as origin, however, serve
different functions. For example: The forelimbs of humans and the wings of bats are anatomically similar.

Analogous organs are those organs that have a different structural design as well as origin, however perform
similar functions. For example: The wings of birds and insects.

7. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat color in dogs.
Solution:
Dogs have a certain set of genes that govern coat color. There are a minimum of eleven known sequence series
(A, B, C, D, E, F, G, M, P, S, T) that influence the colour of a dog. A dog inherits one copy from each of its
parents. As an example, within the B series, a dog is genetically black or brown. Assume that one parent is
homozygous black (BB), whereas the other parent is homozygous brown (bb).

In this case, all the offsprings are going to be heterozygous (Bb).

Since black (B) is dominant, all the offsprings are going to be black. However, they are going to have each B and
b alleles. If such heterozygous pups are crossed, they are going to produce 25 homozygous blacks (BB), 15
heterozygous black (Bb), and 25 homozygous brown (bb) offsprings.

8. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationships.

Solution:
Fossils give evidence about:
(a) The organism and their paleobiology

(b) Even behavior of an organism can be deduced to some extent (for example, paleontologists) had unearthed a
site with more than 10,000 skeletons of a dinosaur called Hadrosaurus. This implies that the dinosaur lived in
herds.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution

© Fossils also provide insight into the evolutionary history of animals and plants (for instance, paleontologists
have discovered that whales had evolved from goat-sized land dwelling animal called Pakicetus)

9. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
Solution:
The evidence on the origin of life from inanimate matter was provided by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey's
experiment, which was conducted in 1953. They created an artificial environment which was reminiscent of the
early earth’s atmosphere - it contained ammonia, hydrogen and other gases which were thought to have existed
during primordial earth.

This concoction of gases was kept at a temperature slightly below 100 ° C. Additionally, sparks were generated to
simulate lightning, which was also thought to be common during that period. At the end of the experiment, he was
able to create 11 out of the 20 amino acids which is required for life.

10. Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual reproduction. How
does this affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce sexually?
Solution:
Sexual reproduction causes a lot of viable variations because of the following reasons:
(a) Error in copying of DNA (though it was rare)
(b) Random segregation of paternal and maternal chromosome at the time of sex cell formation.
(c) Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during the formation of gametes.
(d) Accumulation of variations occurred because of reproduction over generation after generation and choice
naturally created wide diversity.
(e) In case of asexual reproduction, variation is severely limited as there is only one parent involved. Hence, the
offspring is genetically similar to the parent

11. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?
Solution:
Equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in progeny through the inheritance of equal
numbers of chromosomes from both parents. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes but not all is paired. The 22 pairs
are called autosomes while the remaining 1 pair is called the sex chromosomes (represented as X and Y.)

Females have two sets of X-chromosomes while males have 1 X-chromosome and 1 Y-chromosome.

During the process of reproduction, fertilization takes place, where the male gamete fuses with the female gamete
and it results in the formation of a diploid zygote. Furthermore, the zygote receives an equal contribution of
genetic material from both parents. The male contributes 22 autosomes plus, 1 X or Y chromosomes. The female
contributes 22 autosomes, plus 1 X-chromosome.

12. Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a population. Do you
agree with this statement? Why or why not?
Solution:
The statement holds true - only variations provide an advantage to individual organisms that will survive in a
population. For example, variations that lead to the increase in heat-resistance in bacteria is very useful for
survival if it finds itself in an environment where there is a sudden increase in ambient temperature. This will
determine the difference between life and death for the bacteria.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

Questions Page: 168

1. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.
Answer-

Light rays that are parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror converge at a specific point on its principal
axis after reflecting from the mirror. This point is called the principal focus of the concave mirror.

2. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length?
Answer-

Radius of curvature (R) = 20 cm

Radius of curvature of the spherical mirror = 2 × Focal length (f)

R = 2f
f= R/2 = 20 / 2 = 10
Therefore, the focal length of the spherical mirror is 10 cm.

3. Name the mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object.
Answer-

The mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object is Concave Mirror.

4. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?

Answer-

Convex mirror is preferred as a rear-view mirror in cars and vehicles as it gives a wider field of view, which
helps the driver to see most of the traffic behind him. Convex mirrors always form an erect, virtual, and
diminished image of the objects placed in front of it.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

Page No: 171

1. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
Answer-

Radius of curvature (R) = 32 cm

Radius of curvature = 2 × Focal length (f)
R= 2f ⇒f = R/2 = 32/2 = 16
Therefore, the focal length of the given convex mirror is 16 cm.

2. A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of object placed at 10 cm
in front of it. Where is the image located?
Answer-

Magnification produced by a spherical mirror:

Object distance (u) = - 10 cm

v = 3 × (- 10) = - 30 cm
Therefore, the negative sign indicates that an inverted image is formed in front of the given concave mirror at a
distance of 30 cm.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

Page No: 176

1. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bends towards the normal
or away from the normal? Why?
Answer-

The light ray bends towards the normal. When a light ray enters from an optically rarer medium (which has low
refractive index) to an optically denser medium (which has a high refractive index), its speed slows down and
bends towards the normal. As water is optically denser than air, a ray of light entering from air into water will
bend towards the normal.

2. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in the glass? The
speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 ms-1.
Answer-

Refractive index of a medium (nm) = Speed of light in vacuum/Speed of light in the medium
Speed of light in vacuum (c) = 3 × 108 m/s
Refractive index of glass (ng) = 1.50
Speed of light in the glass (v) = Speed of light in vacuum/ Refractive index of glass
= c/ng
=3 × 108/1.50 = 2x 108 ms-1.

3. Find out, from Table, the medium having highest optical density. Also find the medium with lowest
optical density.

Material Refractive index Material medium Refractive

medium index

Air 1.0003 Canada 1.53

Balsam

Ice 1.31 - -

Water 1.33 Rock salt 1.54

Alcohol 1.36 - -

Kerosene 1.44 Carbon 1.63

disulphide
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

Fused 1.46 Dense 1.65

quartz flint glass

Turpentine oil 1.47 Ruby 1.71

Benzene 1.50 Sapphire 1.77

Crown 1.52 Diamond 2.42

glass

Answer-

Lowest optical density = Air

Highest optical density = Diamond
The optical density of a medium is directly related with its refractive index. A medium with the highest refractive
index will have the highest optical density and vice-versa.

It can be observed from the table that air and diamond respectively have the lowest and highest refractive index.
Hence, air has the lowest optical density and diamond has the highest optical density.

4. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these does the light travel fastest? Use the
information given in Table.

Material Refractive index Material medium Refractive

medium index

Air 1.0003 Canada 1.53

Balsam

Ice 1.31 - -

Water 1.33 Rock salt 1.54

Alcohol 1.36 - -

Kerosene 1.44 Carbon 1.63

disulphide
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

Fused 1.46 Dense 1.65

quartz flint glass

Turpentine oil 1.47 Ruby 1.71

Benzene 1.50 Sapphire 1.77

Crown 1.52 Diamond 2.42

glass

Answer-

Light travel faster in water as compared to kerosene & turpentine as the refractive index of water is lower than
that of kerosene and turpentine. The speed of light is inversely proportional to the refractive index.

5. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement?
Answer-

Diamond has a refractive index of 2.42 which means that the speed of light in diamond will reduce by a factor of
2.42 as compared to its speed in the air.
In other words, the speed of light in diamond is 1/2.42 times the speed of light in vacuum.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

Page No: 184

1. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
Answer-

Dioptre is the SI unit of power of lens is denoted by the letter D. 1 dioptre can be defined as the power of a lens of
focal length 1 metre.

2. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 50 cm from it. Where is the
needle placed in front of the convex lens if the image is equal to the size of the object? Also, find the power
of the lens.
Answer-

The position of image should be at 2F, since the image is real and same size.

It is given that the image of the needle is formed at a distance of 50 cm from the convex lens. Therefore, the
needle is placed in front of the lens at a distance of 50 cm.

Object distance (u) = - 50 cm

Image distance, (v) = 50 cm
Focal length = f
According to the lens formula,

3. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2 m.

Answer-

Focal length of concave lens (f) = 2 m

Power of lens (P) = 1/f = 1/ (-2) = -0.5D
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

Page No: 185

Exercise

1. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?

(a) Water
(b) Glass
(c) Plastic
(d) Clay
Answer -

(d) Clay cannot be used to make a lens because if the lens is made up of clay the light rays cannot pass through it

2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where
should be the position of the object?
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
(b) At the centre of curvature
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
Answer-

(d) The position of the object should be between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.

3. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens
(b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus.
Answer -

(b) The object should be placed at twice the focal length

4. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens has a focal length of -15 cm. The mirror and the lens are
likely to be
(a) both concave
(b) both convex
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave
Answer -

(a) Both are likely to be concave.

 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

Page No: 186

5. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(a) plane
(b) concave
(c) convex
(d) either plane or convex
Answer -

(d) The mirrors are likely to be either plane or convex

6. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
Answer -

(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm can be used while reading small letters found in a dictionary

7. We wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What
should be the range of distance of the object from the mirror? What is the nature of the image? Is the
image larger or smaller than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer-

Range of the distance of the object = 0 to 15 cm from the pole of the mirror.
Nature of the image = virtual, erect, and larger than the object.

8. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.

(a) Headlights of a car
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle
(c) Solar furnace
Support your answer with reason.
Answer-

(a) Concave Mirror: Because concave mirrors can produce powerful parallel beam of light when light source is
placed at their principal focus.

(b) Convex Mirror: Because of its largest field of view.

(c) Concave Mirror: Because it concentrates the parallel rays of sun at principal focus.

9. One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Will this lens produce a complete image of the
object? Verify your answer experimentally. Explain your observations.
Answer-

Yes, it will produce a complete image of the object, as shown in figure. This can be verified experimentally by
observing the image of a distance object like tree on a screen, when lower half of the lens is covered with a black
paper. However, the intensity or brightness of image will reduce.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

10. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw the ray
diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image formed.
Answer-

Height of the Object, h0 = 5 cm

Distance of the object from converging lens, u = -25 cm
Focal length of converging lens, f = 10 cm
Using lens formula,

Thus, the image is inverted and formed at a distance of 16.7 cm behind the lens and measures 3.3 cm. The ray
diagram is shown below.

11. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the object placed
from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.
Answer-

Focal length of concave lens (OF1), f = - 15 cm

Image distance, v= - 10 cm
According to the lens formula,
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

The negative value of u indicates that the object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens. This is shown in the
following ray diagram.

12. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position
and nature of the image.
Answer-

Focal length of convex mirror (f) = +15 cm

Object distance (u) = - 10 cm
According to the mirror formula,

The image is located at a distance of 6 cm from the mirror on the other side of the mirror.
The positive and a value less than 1 of magnification indicates that the image formed is virtual and erect and
diminished.

13. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this mean?
Answer-

The positive sign means image formed by a plane mirror is virtual and erect. Since the magnification is 1 it means
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

that the size of the image is equal to the size of the object.

14. An object 5 cm is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
Find the position, nature and size of the image.
Answer-

Object distance (u) = - 20 cm

Object height (h) = 5 cm
Radius of curvature (R) = 30 cm
Radius of curvature = 2 × Focal length
R = 2f
f = 15 cm
According to the mirror formula,

The positive value of image height indicates that the image formed is erect.
Hence, the image formed is erect, virtual, and smaller in size.

15. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm. At what
distance from the mirror should a screen be placed, so that a sharp focused image can be obtained? Find
the size and the nature of the image.
Answer-

Object distance (u) = - 27 cm

Object height (h) = 7 cm
Focal length (f) = - 18 cm
According to the mirror formula,
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 –
Light - Reflection and Refraction

The negative value of image height indicates that the image formed is inverted.

16. Find the focal length of a lens of power -2.0 D. What type of lens is this?
Answer-

Power of lens (P) = 1/f

P = -2D
f = -1/2 = -0.5 m
A concave lens has a negative focal length. Therefore, it is a concave lens.

17. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power +1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the
prescribed lens diverging or converging?
Answer-

Power of lens (P) = 1/f

P = 1.5D
f = 1/1.5 = 10/15 = 0.66 m
A convex lens has a positive focal length. Therefore, it is a convex lens or a converging lens.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

Questions Page number 95

1. Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular
organisms like humans?
Solution:

Multi-cellular organism’s like humans have very big body and require a lot of oxygen to
diffuse into body quickly in order to meet the oxygen requirement. Diffusion is a slow
process which will take a lot of time to circulate oxygen to all the body cells. Because of
its slow nature diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular
organisms like humans.

2. What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive?

Solution:

Walking, breathing, growth and other visible changes can be used to determine whether
something is alive or dead. However some living things will have changes that are not
visible to our eye; Hence, presence of life process is a fundamental criteria to decide
whether something is alive.

3. What are outside raw materials used for by an organism?

Solution:

Outside raw material is used by organism for food and oxygen. Raw materials
requirement varies on the complexity of the organism and the environment it is living.

4. What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life?

Solution:

Life processes such as respiration, digestion, excretion, circulation and transportation are
essential for maintain life.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

Questions Page number 101

1. What are the differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic
nutrition?
Solution:

Autotrophic Nutrition Heterotrophic Nutrition

Organism prepare its own food and is not Organism does not prepare its own food
dependent on any other organism. and dependent on other organism for food.
Food is prepared from co2, water, sunlight. Food cannot be prepared from co2, water,
sunlight.
Chlorophyll is required for food Chlorophyll is not required for food
preparation preparation
Green plants and certain bacteria have All the animals and fungi, most bacteria
autotrophic mode of nutrition. have heterotrophic mode of nutrition

2. Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis?
Solution:

Plants required the following raw material for photosynthesis

1. CO2 is obtained from atmosphere through stomata

2. Water is absorbed by plant roots from the soil.
3. Sunlight is an essential raw material for photosynthesis
4. Nutrients are obtained by soil by plant roots

3. What is the role of the acid in our stomach?

Solution:

HCL present in the stomach dissolves food particles and creates an acidic medium. In
acidic environment protein digesting enzymes pepsinogen is converted into pepsin. HCL
in the stomach also acts as protective barrier against many disease causing pathogens.

4. What is the function of digestive enzymes?

Solution:

Digestive enzymes breaks the complex food molecules into simpler ones. This will make
the food absorption process easy and effective. Absorbed food is transported to all parts
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

of the body by blood.

5. How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food?

Solution:

Small intestine has small projections called as micro villi which increases the surface
volume which make absorption more effective. Within the villi there are numerous blood
vessels that absorb digested food and carry it to blood stream. Blood transports food to
each part of our body.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

Questions Page number 105

1. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with
regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration?
Solution:

Terrestrial organisms breathe by using atmospheric oxygen whereas aquatic organism

take oxygen dissolved in water. Oxygen level is high in atmosphere when compared to
oxygen in water. Hence terrestrial organism need not breathe fast to obtain organism
whereas aquatic organisms need to breathe faster to get required oxygen.

2. What are the different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in
various organisms?
Solution:

In cytoplasm Glucose is first broken down into two 3 carbon compounds called as
pyruvate by the process known as Glycolysis. Further breakdown takes place in different
organism by different processes.

3. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings?

Solution:

Oxygen and Carbon-di-oxide is transported in human being via blood stream. Oxygen is
carried to the cells whereas carbon-di-oxide is carried away from the cells. Exchange of
gases takes place between the alveoli of lungs and the surrounding blood capillaries.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

Oxygen is absorbed by the blood capillaries from the lungs alveoli by diffusion while
carbon-dioxide is absorbed by the lungs alveoli from blood capillaries by diffusion.

4. How are the lungs designed in human beings to maximize the area for exchange of
gases?
Solution:

 The lungs is an important part of the body. The passage inside the lungs divides
into smaller and smaller tubes, which finally terminate in balloon-like structures,
called as alveoli.
 The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The
walls of the alveoli usually contains an extensive network of blood vessels. We
know that, when we breathe in, we lift our ribs, flatten our diaphragm and chest
cavity becomes larger.
 Because of this action, air is sucked into the lungs and fills the expanded alveoli.
 The blood brings the essential carbon dioxide from rest of the body and supply it to
alveoli; the oxygen in the alveolar air is taken up by the blood in the alveolar blood
vessels to be transported to the all other cells of the body. During the normal
breathing cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a residual
volume of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and carbon
dioxide to be released.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

Questions Page number 110

1. What are the components of the transport system in human beings? What are the
functions of these components?
Solution:

Heart, blood and blood vessels are the main components of transport system in human
beings.

Functions of these components

Heart

Heart pumps oxygenated blood throughout the body. It receives deoxygenated blood
from the various body parts and sends this impure blood to the lungs for oxygenation.

Blood
Blood transports oxygen, nutrients, CO2, and nitrogenous wastes.

Blood vessels
Blood vessels, arteries and veins carry blood to all parts of body.

2. Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals

and birds?
Solution:

Mammals and birds are warm blooded animals which keep their body temperature
constant irrespective of the environment they leave. This process require lot of oxygen
for more cellular respiration so that warm blooded animals produce more energy to
balance their body temperature. Hence it is very important for warm blooded animals to
separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to keep their circulatory system efficient.

3. What are the components of the transport system in highly organized plants?
Solution:

There are two types of conducting tissues in highly organized plants that carry out
transport system 1) Xylem 2) phloem. Xylem conduct water and minerals from roots to
rest of the plant parts. Similarly Phloem transports food materials from leaf to other parts
of the plant.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

4. How are water and minerals transported in plants?

Solution:

Xylems parts tracheids and vessels of roots, stems and leaves are interconnected to form
a continuous system of water-conducting channels that reaches all parts of the plant.
Transpiration creates a suction pressure which forces water into xylem cells of roots.
After this, there will be a steady movement of water from the root xylem to all parts of
the plant connected through conducting interconnected water-conducting channels.

5. How is food transported in plants?

Solution:

Food is transported in plants by a special organ called as phloem. Phloem transports food
materials from leaf to different parts of a plant. Transportation of food in phloem is
achieved by the expenditure of ATP9 energy). This increases osmotic pressure in the
tissue causing water to move. This pressure moves material in the Phloem to the tissues
with less pressure. This is helping in transportation of food material as per the needs. Ex:
Sucrose
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

Questions Page number 112

1. Describe the structure and functioning of nephrons
Solution:

Nephrons are the filtration units of the kidney which are large in numbers. Some
substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of
water, are selectively re-absorbed as the urine flows along the tube.
Main components of Nephrons are
Glomerulus
Bowman’s capsule
Long renal Tube

Structure of Nephron
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

Functioning of Nephron

 The blood enters the kidney through the renal artery, which branches into many
capillaries associated with glomerulus.
 The water and solute are transferred to the nephron at Bowman's capsule.

 In the proximal tubule, some substances such as amino acids, glucose, and salts are
selectively reabsorbed and unwanted molecules are added in the urine.

 The filtrate then moves down into the loop of Henle, where more water is
absorbed. From here, the filtrate moves upwards into the distal tubule and finally to
the collecting duct. Collecting duct collects urine from many nephrons.

 The urine formed in each kidney enters a long tube called ureter. From ureter, it
gets transported to the urinary bladder and then into the urethra.

2. What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
Solution:

Plants can get rid of excess water by transpiration.

For other wastes, plants use the fact that many of their tissues consist of dead cells, and
that they can even lose some parts such as leaves. Many plant waste products are stored
in cellular vacuoles. Waste products may be stored in leaves that fall off.

Other waste products are stored as resins and gums, especially in old xylem. Plants also
excrete some waste substances into the soil around them.

3. How is the amount of urine produced regulated?

Solution:

Amount of urine produced depends on the amount of excess water and dissolved waste
present in the body. Other factors may be environment and ADH hormone which
regulates the production of urine.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

Questions Page number 113

1. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
(a) nutrition
(b) respiration.
(c) excretion.
(d) transportation
Solution:

Answer is (c) excretion

The excretory system of human beings (Fig. 6.13) includes a pair of kidneys, a pair of
ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra. Kidneys are located in the abdomen, one on
either side of the backbone. Urine produced in the kidneys passes through the ureters into
the urinary bladder where it is stored until it is released through the urethra.

2. The xylem in plants are responsible for

(a) transport of water .
(b) transport of food.
(c) transport of amino acids.
(d) transport of oxygen.
Solution:

In plants Xylem is responsible for transport of water hence the answer is a)

3. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires

(a) carbon dioxide and water.
(b) chlorophyll.
(c) sunlight.
(d) all of the above.
Solution:

Autotrophic mode of nutrition requires carob-di-oxide, water, chlorophyll and sunlight

from the preparation of food hence the answer is d) all of the above.

4. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place
in
(a) cytoplasm.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

(b) mitochondria.
(c) chloroplast.
(d) nucleus
Solution:

The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
mitochondria. Hence the answer is (b) mitochondria

5. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
Solution:

 The small intestine is the place for complete digestion of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins. It receives the secretions of the liver and pancreas for this purpose.
 The food coming from the stomach is usually acidic in nature and it has to be made
alkaline so that pancreatic enzymes can act on it. Bile juice produced in the liver
accomplish this process.
 Fats are usually present in the intestine in the form of larger globules, which makes
it difficult for enzymes to act on them. The bile salts helps in breaking down larger
globules into smaller globules. The pancreas helps in secreting pancreatic juice,
which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins and lipase for breaking
down emulsified fats.
 The walls of the small intestine contains glands, which secretes intestinal juice.
The enzymes present in it finally converts the proteins to amino acids, complex
carbohydrates into glucose and finally fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

6. What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food?

Solution:
Food we intake is complex in nature, if it is to be absorbed from the alimentary
canal then it has to be broken into smaller molecules. This process is mainly done
with the help of biological catalysts called enzymes. The saliva contains an enzyme
called salivary amylase that breaks down starch, which is a complex molecule to
give sugar. The food is mixed thoroughly with saliva and moved around the mouth
while chewing the muscular tongue. Hence saliva plays a pivotal in digestion and
absorption of food.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

7. What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its
byproducts?
Solution:
 The energy and carbon requirements of the autotrophic organism is obtained by the
process of photosynthesis.
 It is defined as the process by which autotrophs take in substances from the outside
surroundings and convert them into stored forms of energy.
 This substance is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water, which is
converted into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
 The main purpose of carbohydrates is to provide energy to the plant. The
carbohydrates are not utilized immediately; but they are stored in the form of
starch, which serves as an internal energy reserve.
 The stored energy can be used as and when required by the plant.

8. What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some
organisms that use the anaerobic mode of respiration?
Solution:

Aerobic respiration

 The process takes place in the presence of free oxygen

 The products of aerobic respiration are CO 2, water and energy.
 The first step of aerobic respiration (glycolysis) takes place in cytoplasm while the
next step takes place in mitochondria.
 The process of aerobic respiration takes place in all higher organisms.
 In this process complete oxidation of glucose takes place.

Anaerobic respiration

 The process takes place in the absence of the free oxygen.

 The products of anaerobic respiration are ethyl alcohol, CO 2 and a little energy.
 Even in anaerobic respiration, the first step takes place in cytoplasm while the next
step takes place in mitochondria.
 In this process the glucose molecules is incompletely broken down.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

 The process of anaerobic respiration takes place in lower organism like yeast, some
species of bacteria and parasites like tapeworm.

9. How are the alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of gases?

Solution:
 The lung is an important part of the body. The passage inside the lungs divides into
smaller and smaller tubes, which finally terminate in balloon-like structures, called
as alveoli.
 The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The
walls of the alveoli usually contains an extensive network of blood vessels. We
know that, when we breathe in, we lift our ribs, flatten our diaphragm and chest
cavity becomes larger.
 Because of this action, air is sucked into the lungs and fills the expanded alveoli.
 The blood brings the essential carbon dioxide from rest of the body and supply it to
alveoli; the oxygen in the alveolar air is taken up by the blood in the alveolar blood
vessels to be transported to the all other cells of the body. During normal breathing
cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a residual volume
of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and carbon dioxide
to be released.

10. What would be the consequences of a deficiency of hemoglobin in our bodies?

Solution:
Hemoglobin is a protein responsible for transportation of oxygen to the body cells for
cellular respiration. Deficiency of Hemoglobin can affect the oxygen carrying capacity of
RBC’S. This lead to lack of oxygen in our body cells. Hemoglobin deficiency leads to a
disease called as anemia.

11. Describe double circulation of blood in human beings. Why is it necessary?

Solution:

Double circulation means, in a single cycle blood goes twice in the heart. The process
helps in separating oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to maintain a constant body
temperature.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

The double circulatory system of blood includes

 Pulmonary circulation
 Systemic circulation.

Pulmonary circulation:
The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the lungs where it is oxygenated. The
oxygenated blood is brought back to the left atrium, from there it is pumped into the left
ventricle and finally blood goes into the aorta for systemic circulation.
Systemic circulation:
The oxygenated blood is pumped to various parts of the body from the left ventricle. The
deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body passes through vena cava to reach
right atrium. The right atrium transfers the blood into right ventricle.

12. What are the differences between the transport of materials in xylem and
phloem?
Solution:
Transport of materials in Xylem Transport of materials in phloem
Xylem tissue helps in the transport of water Phloem tissue helps in the transport of food
and minerals.
Water is transported upwards from roots to Food is transported in both upward and
all other plant parts. downward directions.

13. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidneys
with respect to their structure and functioning.
Solution:
Alveoli Nephrons
Structure Structure
(i) Alveoli are tiny balloon-like structures (i) Nephrons are tubular structures present
present inside the lungs. inside the kidneys.
(ii) The walls of the alveoli are one cell (ii) Nephrons are made of glomerulus,
thick and it contains an extensive Bowman’s capsule, and a long renal tube.
 NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 -
Life Processes

network of blood capillaries.

Function Function
(i) The exchange of O2 and CO2 takes (i) The blood enters the kidneys through the
place between the blood of the capillaries renal artery. The blood is entered here and the
that surround the alveoli and the gases nitrogenous waste in the form of urine is
present in the alveoli. collected by collecting duct.
(ii) Alveoli are the site of gaseous
(ii) Nephrons are the basic filtration unit.
exchange.