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Strictly according to the latest reduced syllabus and the latest sample Question Paper

released by the central Board of secondary education, New Delhi,


for term ii examination to be held in March-april, 2022

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CBSE Sample Paper and
Model Test Papers in

English

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Language and Literature
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[subject code – 184]
For Class

10
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Term II
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Exam
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 As per the latest reduced and Bifurcated syllabus for term ii examination to be held in
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March-april, 2022
 cBse sample Question Paper (Solved with Marking Scheme) for term ii examination
(March-april, 2022)
 10 Model test Papers (solved) based on the latest cBse sample Question Paper issued
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by cBse for term ii examination to be held in March-april, 2022


 5 Model test Papers (unsolved) based on the latest cBse sample Question Paper issued
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by cBse for term ii examination to be held in March-april, 2022


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GOYAL BROTHERS PRAKASHAN


Goyal Brothers Prakashan
Educational Publishers
Sales & Registered Office :
11/1903, Chuna Mandi, Paharganj, New Delhi - 110055
Post Box : 5720, Phones : 43551877, 43561877

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E-mail : info@goyal-books.com
Website : www.goyal-books.com

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Administrative Office :
D-231, Sector 63, Noida-201301 (U.P.)
Phone : 0120-4655555
SHOWROOMS

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Ahmedabad : Y-10, Dev Castle Complex Opp. Radhekrishan Villa, Jaymala-Govindwadi
Road Isanpur, Ahmedabad–382 443 (Gujarat) Tel : 09925004030
Chennai : No. 50/39, Ground Floor, Five Furlolng Road, Guindy,

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Chennai-600 032 (Tamil Nadu) Phones : 044-22552776, 044-22552767
Guwahati : Plot No. 1179, KRB Road, Bharalumukh, near Post Office, Railway Gate
No. 8, Guwahati-781009 (Assam), Phone : 0361-2735337
Hyderabad : F-7/8/41, First Floor, Agarwal Chambers, 5-9-1121, King Kothi Road,

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Hyderabad - 500001, Tele-fax : 23211332
Kochi : Fair Heavens, H.No. 52-2783/A, Shine Road, Vyttila
Ernakulam - 682019 (Kerala) Phone : 0484-2305288
Kolkata : No. 203, 2nd Floor, Fomra Towers, 84-A, Acharya Jagdish Chandra Bose
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Road, Kolkata - 700014, Phone : 033-22262683
Bengaluru : 1681/5/4, Ground Floor, 3rd Main Ramamohanapuram,
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Bengaluru - 560 021, Phone : 080-23320655
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Bhopal : Plot No. 203, Zone-II, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal-462 011 (M.P.),
Tele-fax : 0755-4271371
Lucknow : B-319, Sector-B, Mahanagar, Opposite P.A.C Main Gate,
Lucknow - 226 006, Phone : 0522-2320841
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Patna : Ravi Kiran Apartment, Flat No. 2-A, Second floor, Near Water Pumping
Station, Pani Tanki Lane, Pirmohani, Patna – 800003
Nagpur : Thakkar Villa House No. 436 Joshiwadi, Sitabuldi, Nagpur - 440012,
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Phone : 9823655077

To buy our books online log on to www.goyal-books.com

© Reserved
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Edition : January, 2022


Price : `  ??
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Disclaimer
Due care and diligence has been taken while writing, editing and printing the book.
Neither the author nor the publishers of the book hold any responsibility for any
mistakes that may have inadvertently crept in.
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Published & Printed by


Roshan Lal Goyal for Goyal Brothers Prakashan, New Delhi
Reduced Syllabus for Academic Year 2021–22
English Language and Literature
[Code No. 184]
Class 10 (2021-22)

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Term-II Syllabus

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Term II
READING
Question based on the following kinds of unseen passages to assess inference, evaluation, vocabulary,

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analysis and interpretation:
1. Discursive passage (400-450 words)
2. Case based Factual passage (with visual input/ statistical data/ chart etc. 300-350 words)
WRITING SKILL

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1. Formal letter based on a given situation
Letter of Order Letter of Enquiry
Analytical Paragraph (based on outline/chart/cue/map/report etc.)

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GRAMMAR
1. Tenses 2. Modals 3. Subject Verb Concord
4. Determiner 5. Reported Speech 6. Commands and Requests
7. Statements 8. Questions
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LITERATURE
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Questions based on extracts / texts to assess interpretation, inference, extrapolation beyond the text and
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across the texts.


FIRST FLIGHT
1. Glimpses of India 2. Madam Rides the Bus 3. The Sermon at Benares
4. The Proposal (Play)
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Prose
1. Amanda 2. Animals
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3. The Tale of Custard the Dragon


Poems
1. The Making of a Scientist 2. The Necklace 3. The Hack Driver
4. Bholi
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Each Semester
SECTION WEIGHTAGE (IN MARKS)
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READING 10
WRITING & GRAMMAR 10
LITERATURE 20
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TOTAL 40
INTERNAL ASSESSMENT 10
GRAND TOTAL 50
contents

Section A : CBSE SAMPLE Question PAPER


[Released by CBSE in September 2021

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for the Term II Examination to be held in January 2021]

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1. CBSE Sample Question Paper ... ...

Section B : Sample Papers (with Answers)


Based on the Latest CBSE Sample Paper

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for the Term II Examination to be held in March-April, 2022
2. Sample Paper-1 ... ...

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3. Sample Paper-2 ... ...
4. Sample Paper-3 ... ...
5. Sample Paper-4 ... ...
6. Sample Paper-5
7. Sample Paper-6
8. Sample Paper-7
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... ...
... ...
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9. Sample Paper-8 ... ...
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10. Sample Paper-9 ... ...


11. Sample Paper-10 ... ...

Section C : Sample Papers (Unsolved)


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Based on the Latest CBSE Sample Paper


for the Term II Examination to be held in March-April, 2022
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12. Sample Paper-11 ... ...


13. Sample Paper-12 ... ...
14. Sample Paper-13 ... ...
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15. Sample Paper-14 ... ...


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16. Sample Paper-15 ... ...


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CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
(Released by CBsE for the academic year 2021-22)

Time allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 40

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General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING & GRAMMAR and

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LITERATURE.
2. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

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sECTiON A - REAdiNG (10 marks)
1. Read the passage given below.
Technology is making advancements at a rapid rate but at the cost of a

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valued tradition—the crafts industry. The traditional crafts industry is
losing a lot of its trained and skilled craftsmen. With that, the art of
embellishing brass and copper utensils with fine engravings is also
disappearing. The government has identified around 35 crafts as

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5
languishing craft.
The speciality of handcrafted items is its design, an association with long
traditions belonging to a specific region. The word ‘handcrafted’ does not
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imply the involvement of dexterous human fingers or an agile mind with
10 a moving spirit anymore. Lessening drudgery, increasing production and
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promoting efficiency have taken precedence. The labour-saving devices are
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taking the place of handcrafted tools and this has jeopardized the skills of
these artisans.
Mechanisation has made its way into everything - cutting, polishing,
edging, designing etc. Ideally, the use of machinery should be negligible
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and the handicrafts should be made purely by hand with a distinguishable
artistic appeal. However, with the exception of small-scale industries, the
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export units are mostly operated by machines. The heavily computerised


designs contribute to a faster production at lower costs.

20 Although mechanization of crafts poses a challenge to safeguarding


traditional crafts, the artisans are lured with incentives in order to impart
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handicrafts training. Some makers do see machines as a time-saving blessing


since they are now able to accomplish difficult and demanding tasks with
relative ease. These machines might give a better finesse to these products
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25 but they don’t stand out as handcrafted. Quantity has overtaken quality in
this industry.
A need to highlight the importance of the handmade aspect is required by
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both the government and private sectors, in order to amplify awareness


and also support the culture of making handicrafts. A few artisans are still
30 trying their best to rejuvenate and revive their culture and heritage but it’s
an uphill task competing with the machine-made goods. A multitude of
Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 5
artisans have changed their professions and are encouraging their progeny
to follow suit. There are others who have stayed their ground but are clearly
inclined towards buying machines.

35 Nearly two decades ago, there were around 65 lakh artisans in the country.
Three years ago, when the government started the process of granting a
unique number to the artisans based on the Aadhaar card, 25 lakhs were

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identified. Loss of traditional crafts is clearly a worrying issue, but it stands
to reason that forcing any artisan to follow old ways when concerns of

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livelihood overrule other considerations, is unfair.
Adapted from: https://www.outlookindia.com/magazine/story/business-news-
handicraft-uncrafted-by-artisan-hands/302877

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Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions
from the six given below. 1*5
(i) What does the writer mean by calling handicrafts a ‘valued tradition’? 1

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Ans. By calling handicrafts a ‘valued tradition’, the writer meant that handicrafts showcase the
talents of trained and skilled craftsmen representing the rich artistic culture and tradition.
(ii) Rewrite the following sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with a word that

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means the same from lines 5– 15. 1
If it continues, the workcation (work + vacation) trend will be a
powerful boost to domestic tourism operators failing to make progress
in the economic slump caused due to the pandemic.
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Ans.
If it continues, the workcation (work + vacation) trend will be a powerful boost to
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domestic tourism operators languishing in the economic slump caused due to the
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pandemic.
(iii) State any two reasons why artisans are choosing to work via machines rather than
handcrafted tools? 1
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Ans. Two reasons why artisans were choosing to work via machines rather than handcrafted
tools were that these tools save extra labour and reduce drudgery.
(iv) Why do the artisans need to be ‘lured with incentives’ to impart handicrafts training? 1
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Ans. The artisans need to be ‘lured with incentives’ to impart handicrafts training because
if artisans impart training to mass/bulk producers, they risk losing their traditional
livelihood and hence need to be tempted via benefits or rewards to do so.
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(v) List one likely impact of the support of government and private sectors towards the
culture of making handicrafts. 1
Ans. One likely impact of the support of government and private sectors towards the culture
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of making handicrafts is creating awareness and supporting the culture of making


handicrafts.
(vi) How does the writer justify an artist’s act of abandoning her/his traditional craft for a
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more lucrative option? 1


Ans. The writer justifies an artist’s act of abandoning her/his traditional craft for a more
lucrative option, arguing that the artisans cannot be expected to continue their profession
if it is not profitable, even though the loss of traditional crafts is perturbing.
6 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
2. Read the following excerpt from a case study titled Impacts of Festivities on Ecology.
Festivals are synonymous with celebration, ceremony and joy. However,
festivals bring to fore the flip side of celebrations – pollution – air,
water, soil and noise. This led to the need of assessing the awareness
level among people about ecological pollution during festivals. So, a
5 study was conducted by scholars of an esteemed university in India. This

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study was titled Awareness Towards Impact of Festivals on Ecology.

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There were two main objectives of the study. The first one was to assess the
awareness level among people about ecological protection during festivities.
Exploring solutions to bring awareness about celebrating festivals without
10 harming ecology was the second objective. The method used to collect data

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was a simple questionnaire containing 6 questions, shared with 50 respondents
across four selected districts of a state in the southern region of India.
The research began by understanding the socio-economic conditions of

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the respondents before sharing the questionnaire. Once the responses were
15 received, the data collected was tabulated (Table 1), for analysis.
Table-1: Awareness level among respondents

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QUESTIONS YES % NO % CAN’T SAY%
1. Do you feel that bursting crackers 46 54 0
is a must during festivities?
2. Do you think most people abuse 72 28 0
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environmental resources during
celebration of festivals?
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3. Do you think that celebrations 64 32 4
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& festivities result in uniting


people?
4. Do you enjoy bursting crackers 68 32 0
for amusement?
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5. Do you feel pressured to burst 82 12 6


crackers during festivals as an
expectation of your social status?
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6. Are you aware of waste 56 40 4


segregation & disposal guidelines
for better ecology?
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The study recommended the imposition of strict rules and regulations as


opposed to a total ban on all festive activities which have a drastic impact
on our environment. The researchers believed that such measures would
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help in harnessing some ill-effects that add to the growing pollution and
20 suggested further studies be taken up across the country to assess awareness
about ecological degradation.
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The observations made in the study pointed to the environmental groups


and eco-clubs fighting a losing battle due to city traffic issues, disposal
of plastics, garbage dumping and all sorts of ecological degradation. The
25 researchers stressed that the need of the hour is increasing awareness among
Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 7
people to reduce ecological pollution which can be facilitated by celebrating
all festivals in an eco-friendly manner.
Largely adapted from
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/325366454_Awareness_towards_Impact_of_Festivals_
on_Ecology_Need_for_Social_Work_Intervention

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On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions
from the six given below. 1*5

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(i) Why do the researchers call pollution the ‘flip side’ of festivals? 1
Ans. The researchers call pollution the ‘flip side’ of festivals because festivals and pollution
are two sides of the same coin. We associate festivals with joy and celebration, but we

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can’t deny that pollution is an ignored reality.
(ii) Comment on the significance of the second objective of the study with reference to
lines 7-12. 1

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Ans. The second objective of the study refers to the steps that need to be taken to address the
problem and implement and focus on the actions to be corrected or avoided to solve the
problem.

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(iii) Justify the researchers’ recommendation for limiting the drastic impact of festival
pollution on the environment with reference to lines 16-21. 1
Ans. The researchers recommended imposing strict rules and regulations to limit the impact of
festival pollution as strict rules pose some restrictions but still give the needed freedom.
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On the contrary, in the case of a total ban, people do not generally conform to it and
tend to revolt.
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(iv) Why do the researchers feel that environmental groups and eco-clubs
are fighting a losing battle in the given scenario? 1
Ans. The researchers felt that environmental groups and eco-clubs are fighting a losing battle
in the given scenario because festivals cause pollution and other issues like city traffic
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issues, disposal of plastics, garbage dumping, etc. Therefore, spreading awareness is the
only solution to this issue.
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(v) Even though a larger number of people say ‘no’ to bursting crackers than those who
say ‘yes’, festival pollution persists. How does evidence from table 1 support this
statement? 1
Ans. Even though a fair percentage of people say ‘no’ to bursting crackers, festival pollution
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persists because a large percentage of people (72%) abuse environmental resources to


celebrate festivals. Also, a high percentage of people (82%) use crackers to celebrate
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festivals to live up to the expectation of their social status.

(vi) What purpose does the ‘Can’t Say’ column serve in the questionnaire (table 1)? 1
Ans. The ‘Can’t Say’ column in the questionnaire allows the respondents to choose whether to
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answer or not in case they lack clarity or even if they are unwilling to respond.

8 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
SECTION B - Writing and Grammar (10 marks)
3. Attempt ANY ONE from (i) and (ii).
(i) Study the concept chart from the self-help magazine section of
a monthly publication. 5
Situation: Setback

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Experience: Feeling upset

Healthy Processing Inability to process fully

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Desire to:
Feel it
Learn from it Block feeling Block Learning:
Let it go Overwhelm

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Self-criticism
Self-Doubt

Feel/Reflect/Learn/Align:
Observe the pattern! Can’t come to terms
Stuck in rumination
Rework beliefs on adequacy and with:

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Experience listlessness
process childhood memories I can fail sometimes
Attention diverted
Assess magnitude of setback Everything can’s be
from potential learning
Assess difficulty of work & likelihood controlled
of future success by doing the work Learning takes time
Build grit to do the work and effort
Access healing states to experience and
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transform anxiety

Unacceptance of
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Situations Triggers:
Inadequacy Apathy
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Incompetency Anger
Danger and Threat Anxiety
Blaming others Depression
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Unconscious/Implicit memories:
Habitual process blocks
Scary early life experiences of being
reprimanded for not meeting
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expectations

Write a paragraph in not more than 120 words, analysing the listed responses
to the situation when one faces setbacks.
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FOR THE VISUALLY IMPAIRED CANDIDATES


Read the following excerpt from an article that appeared in a monthly
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newsletter circulated among residents of a township.


The by-laws of some residential associations and management that ban

owners and tenants from keeping pets in their apartments, are justified.
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Write a paragraph to analyse the given argument.


You could think about what alternative explanations might weaken the given
conclusion and include rationale / evidence that would strengthen / counter
the given argument.
Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 9
Ans. Setbacks often leave one with a feeling of disappointment and sometimes even worse. The
given concept chart displays two ways to handle setbacks–healthy or unhealthy processing.
Healthy processing helps one learn from and let go of the emotions inside. Contrarily, the
inability to process healthily leads to blocked learning, self-criticism, and self-doubt. An
optimistic way of seeing a setback processes the ability to feel, reflect, learn and align
childhood memories, build grit to work, etc. On the contrary, negative perspective can lead to

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listlessness, diverted attention, excessive rumination, and inability to accept failures that, in
turn, trigger a feeling of anger, anxiety, depression, and apathy. It is evident that experiencing

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a setback leads to feelings of inadequacy and incompetency and an unwillingness to accept
situations. Responding positively to setbacks leads to success.
(ii) You are Samina Zaveri, Class X, Vadodara, Gujarat. You come across the following
information on a local library’s notice board. 5

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Create Your Own Board Game Competition!
Create an educational board game, and send it to us at Teen-Toggle

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Games Pvt. Ltd, 307, Satija building, Colaba, Mumbai by July 2022. The
top 10 winning board games will be featured on our international portal.
Attractive scholarships for the winners!

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You wish to participate but require more information. Write a letter to
Teen-Toggle Games Pvt.Ltd in about 120 words, enquiring about rules,
scholarship details and deadlines. Also enquire about specifications for solo
or group entries.
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Ans. 23, XYZ Colony
Vadodara, Gujarat
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1 June 2022

The Director
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Teen-Toggle Games Pvt. Ltd.


307, Satija Building
Colaba, Mumbai
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Sir
Subject: 'Create Your Own Board Game Competition!' enquiry
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This is regarding the participation in 'Create Your Own Board Game Competition!'. I
have seen your advertisement on a local library's noticeboard and realised that it could be
a golden opportunity to enter the international arena. I belonged to a middle-class family,
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and this scholarship would really be helpful for my career prospects. I have already
participated in a game creating competition in which I had bagged the second position. I
am keen to participate in the competition. Kindly furnish me with the following details:
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1. Rules
2. Scholarship details
3. Deadlines

10 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
Also, please provide me with the information about the solo or group entries.

Yours truly
Samina Zaveri
Class X

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4. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the
error and write its correction against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the

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correction. The first one has been done for you. 1*3
Error Correction
Have you ever learn from a mistake you have made? E.g. learn learnt

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Many shouldn’t admit doing so. For those who do, a)
there was no need for guilt. We often make mistakes b)

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while taking risks, but all brush them aside and learn. c)
With that, they usually don’t make mistakes the next time.
Ans. (a) won't/don't


(b) is
(c) some/many
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5. Read the conversation between a teacher and student and complete the passage that
follows. 1*2
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Biology Teacher: I instructed you to draw the diagram of bacteria.



Why did you submit a blank sheet?
Sameer: Sir, I had drawn the diagram of bacteria, but you can’t see it
because it is not visible to the naked eye.
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The biology teacher had instructed Sameer to draw the diagram of a bacterial
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cell and asked him (a) …………………………………………… a blank


sheet. Sameer respectfully answered that he had drawn the diagram but
(b) ……………………………………………………to the naked eye.
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Ans. (a) why he had submitted


(b) he/the teacher couldn’t see it because it is not visible
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SECTION C - Literature (20 marks)


6. Answer ANY SIX questions in 30-40 words each. 2*6
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(i) What is the significance of the Buddha’s request for a handful of mustard seeds and the
addition of a condition to it? 2
Ans. To show that death is universal, Buddha instructed Kisa Gautami to bring a handful of
mustard seeds from a house where no one had ever died. Accordingly, she could not find
Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 11
any house where nobody had died. Buddha wanted her to see the truth of life and death
and accept the destiny of human beings.
(ii) Justify how ‘Animals’ by Walt Whitman is a criticism of mankind and its ways? 2
Ans. Walt Whitman feels that animals are better than humans because they do not make
the poet sick by discussing their duties to God. Human society is blemished by ego,
hypocrisy, hatred, materialism, fake display. Unlike humans, animals do not whine about

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their condition or regret any past sins.

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(iii) Comment on the tone of the speaker when she says ‘Will you please look at me when
I’m speaking to you, Amanda!’. 2
Ans. The speaker wants Amanda to look at him when he is addressing her. But Amanda was
not listening to the speaker and chose not to respond. So, the speaker was annoyed and

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angry as her daughter was not listening to her.
(iv) A ballad includes the telling of a tale as well as a surprise ending. Using evidence
from the poem, explain how these features are included in ‘The Tale of Custard the

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Dragon’. 2
Ans. The poem tells the story of Custard, the dragon. It includes the setting, characters, rising
action, climax, and resolution. The poem portrays Custard’s life with Belinda and the

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other pets, where he is considered a coward. Also, there is a surprise ending, showing
how Custard rose to the occasion, gobbled the pirate and proved his bravery.
(v) Which two issues about himself convinced Lomov of his decision to get married? 2
Ans. Lomov wanted to marry Natalya because he was suffering due to a weak heart and
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sleep-sickness. He wanted a companion who could look after him. Secondly, he expected
to marry and couldn’t stay unmarried. He ought to lead a quiet, settled and regular life at
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his age.
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(vi) Briefly state how Matilda invited ‘a dreadful life of necessity’ into her family. 2
Ans. Matilda’s downfall was caused by her unhappiness with whatever life offered her. She
was always in a bad mood and felt as if she had been born for all the luxuries and
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delicacies. She had lost her friend’s necklace and her life had become miserable. In
paying for the necklace, she invited a horrible life of necessity and deprivation.
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(vii) The hack driver successfully trapped the narrator in his web of words. Comment. 2
Ans. The hack driver was a conversationalist, cheerful, and friendly. He befriended the
narrator, who trusted him for everything he said. He asked the narrator to stay behind,
made inquiries, offered homemade lunch and minted money. He befooled and outwitted
the narrator in the guise of helping.
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7. Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. 4*2
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(i) Parents play a crucial role in the upbringing of their children. Critically examine the
parents of Bholi and Ebright, highlighting their impact on their children’s lives. 4
Ans. Bholi’s parents were quite ordinary. Her father, Ramlal, was the Numberdar of his
village. He was quite prosperous; he was quite traditional in his outlook. He was quite
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much worried about Bholi because of her looks and stuttering. Ramlal had to send Bholi
to school because of pressure from Tehsildar.

12 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
Ramlal’s wife was very backward in thinking; she believed that if the girls were allowed
to go to school, nobody would marry them.
Bholi's parents were uncaring, indifferent, biased, insensitive, and patriarchal. They did not
believe in girls' education, were indifferent to Bholi and her needs, and neglected her.
Bholi needed special care, but neither of her parents did that; they just wanted to get her
married. Despite their prosperity, they left Bholi to her own misery, worst was when they

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decided to marry her off to Bishamber.

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Ebright's mother was crucial in his development as a scientist. She encouraged him to
broaden his horizons by teaching him new skills. She took him on trips and purchased
telescopes, microscopes, cameras, mounting materials, and other items for him.

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Every evening, around the dinner table, mother and son communicated. If Ebright had
nothing to do, she would find his work—learning work.
Ebright's mother also sent him a book called ‘The Travels of Monarch X’, which introduced

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him to the realm of science. She encouraged him to pursue a career in science by nurturing
his enthusiasm for it.
(ii) Pranjol and Rajvir discuss their next vacation destination. They shortlist Coorg and Goa.

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Rajvir is keen on Coorg and tries to convince Pranjol. Develop a conversation between
the two, based on your understanding of Glimpses of India. 4
You may begin like this:
Rajvir: Hey Pranjol! I think we should be visiting Coorg. It is a beautiful place with
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coffee plantations. I can smell the aroma already!
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Pranjol: We visited a tea plantation last year, in Assam; I want to…
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Ans. Rajvir: Hey Pranjol! I think we should be visiting Coorg. It is a beautiful place with
coffee plantations. I can smell the aroma already!
Pranjol: We visited a tea plantation last year, in Assam; I want to visit Goa this time.
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Rajvir: There is a lot more to do in Coorg than smelling the coffee! The place has
rainforests, so the mega fauna will be worth watching. Not just this, Coorg provides
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opportunities to indulge in adventure sports like river rafting, rappelling, mountain biking,
to name a few.
Pranjol: That sounds interesting, but I would prefer some serene moments too, away
from this post-pandemic hustle-bustle.
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Rajvir: Oh! The answer is Coorg again!


Pranjol: Oh, come on! You can’t be serious.
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Rajvir: Believe me, I am. Coorg has beautiful natural walking trails, and the Brahmagiri
hills offer a panoramic view. I read that the place has the largest Tibetan settlement, so
the environment will reflect peace and spirituality, I’m sure.
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Pranjol: Have to say, you’ve presented a fine case in favour of Coorg and convinced me.
Let’s plan to leave for Coorg next Wednesday!

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 13
(iii) Farce is a kind of comedy which includes situations and dialogues that are ridiculous,
exaggerated and even absurd. Evaluate the play, The Proposal, as a farce. 4
Ans. For most people in Russia in the past, marriage was a source of financial security. They
married for the sake of accumulating wealth and goods or to appease social pressure. In
the play, the sarcasm is skillfully communicated by stressing the couple's silly disputes
about little issues. The primary points of contention in the play are 'The Oxen Meadows'

n
and 'the two dogs', Guess and Squeezer.

ha
We can detect farcical characteristics as we read the play. Lomov's attire and demeanour
are both amusing. When Chubukov and Natalya quarrel with him, we can see how he
reacts. On the other hand, Natalya can be described as a quarrel-loving, dominating
young lady. Chubukov is a wise man, but when he sees Natalya and Lomov fighting,

as
he joins in and supports his daughter. There are several comical scenarios. According
to the concept of farce, it consists solely of story development rather than character
development, and it skillfully produces comedic circumstances rather than any change in
character behaviour. All of the characters are realistic; however, their emotions are often

ak
exaggerated.

Pr
r s
he
ot
Br
al
oy
G

14 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
MARKING SCHEME TERM-II
(Released by CBsE for the academic year 2021-22)

Time allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 40

n
READING (10 MARKS)
Note:

ha
(i) Since the Reading Section focuses on testing a candidate’s ability to comprehend, no deductions
are to be made for errors in spelling, grammar or punctuation.
(ii) Marks should be awarded only if the answer reveals formation of a response to the question.

as
(iii) No marks to be awarded if a chunk/exact line/s is/are transcribed from the passage without
evidence of structure or semblance of coherent thought, in an attempt to pass off as a response.

Objective: This section evaluates the reading and comprehension skills of the students and their

ak
ability to analyse, infer (information/meanings) and evaluate the given information.

1. uNsEEN PAssAGE 1*5=5


(ANY 5 OuT OF 6)

Pr
(i) What does the writer mean by calling handicrafts a ‘valued tradition’? (1 mark)

Ans. Value Points Guidance


• valued – showcase talents that are The learner is required to respond to—
s
associated with artisans’ lifestyle and Why are handicrafts valued? Why are they
history considered a part of our tradition?
r
• tradition – represent rich our artistic ▪ Award maximum 1 mark for the complete
he

culture / heritage / tradition correct answer


▪ Award partial credit of ½ mark if just
‘valued’/ ‘tradition’ is addressed in the
ot

response.

(ii) Rewrite the following sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with a word that
Br

means the same, from lines 5– 15. (1 mark)


If it continues, the workcation (work + vacation) trend will be a powerful boost to
domestic tourism operators failing to make progress in the economic slump caused due
to the pandemic.
al

Ans. VALuE POiNTs GuidANCE


If it continues, the work cation (work + ▪ 1 mark for the correct answer
oy

vacation) trend will be a powerful boost ▪ No partial credit


to domestic tourism operators languishing
in the economic slump caused due to the ▪ No marks to be deducted if the learner
fails to rewrite the complete sentence
G

pandemic.
and just lists the chosen meaning—the
purpose of the given sentence is to share
a context.

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 15
(iii) State any two reasons why artisans are choosing to work via machines rather than
handcrafted tools? (1 mark)

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


Saves labour / reduces drudgery / increases The learner is required to state 2 clear
production / finesse / efficiency points that indicate the advantage of using
machines over working with hands and tools

n
▪ Award 1 mark for any two points

ha
(½ + ½)
▪ ½ mark as partial credit for one point
stated

as
(iv) Why do the artisans need to be ‘lured with incentives’ to impart handicrafts training? (1 mark)

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


Because if artisans impart training to mass/ The learner is required to rationalise why the

ak
bulk producers, they run the risk of losing bulk producers have to tempt/ attract/ entice
their traditional livelihood to them and artisans to share their craft secrets/ training
hence need to be tempted via benefits or with them.
rewards, to do so.

Pr
▪ Award 1 mark for complete rationalisation.
▪ ½ mark for partial explanation–just
elaborating on either the reason or the
effect.
s
(v) List one likely impact of the support of government and private sectors towards the
r
culture of making handicrafts. (1 mark)
he

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


Creation of awareness and public support The learner is required to list an advantage
for the artisans and their work /more that is the outcome of the support of
artisans would be incentivized to continue government and private sectors towards
ot

their tradition /artisans wouldn’t change handicraft making.


their professions seeking better livelihood ▪ Award 1 mark for any one impact
Br

▪ No partial credit
(vi) How does the writer justify an artist’s act of abandoning her/his traditional craft for a
more lucrative option? (1 mark)
al

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


Via the argument that the artisans cannot The learner is required to state how the writer
be expected to continue their profession if agrees that an artisan is justified in moving
oy

it is not profitable, even though the loss of to options that pay better than traditional
traditional crafts is perturbing. handicraft making, in order to support his
livelihood.
G

▪ Award 1 mark for the correct answer.


▪ No partial credit
▪ No marks for lines just copied from the text

16 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
2. UNSEEN PASSAGE 1*5=5
(ANY 5 OUT OF 6)
(i) Why do the researchers call pollution the ‘flip side’ of festivals? (1 mark)

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


▪ because the accepted norm is that festivals The learner is required to explain how

n
are synonymous with celebration/joy and pollution is the darker side of festivals and
people fail to see the other side, which is unfortunately goes hand-in-hand, often, with

ha
pollution festivities

OR ▪ Award maximum 1 mark for the complete


correct answer.
▪ festivals and pollution are two sides of

as
▪ There is no partial credit.
the same coin currently/ polar opposites/
completely in contrast, yet together with ▪ Accept any other similar complete
each other—where we associate festivals interpretation, with reference to the given

ak
with joy and celebration, we can’t deny passage that convey the reason why
that pollution is an ignored reality pollution is the flip side of festivals.

(ii) Comment on the significance of the second objective of the study with reference to lines

Pr
7-12. (1 mark)

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


Second objective-Exploring solutions ▪ Award maximum 1 mark for the mention
s
Significance- important for knowing steps of any one valid significance.
that need to be taken to address the problem ▪ There is no partial credit.
r
investigated in the research/ knowing what
he

are the immediate actions that need to be


implemented to address the issue studied/
helps focus on what needs to be corrected
& what needs to be avoided to solve the
ot

problem focussed on in the research

(iii) Justify the researchers’ recommendation for limiting the drastic impact of festival
Br

pollution on the environment with reference to lines 16-21. (1 mark)

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


▪ Researcher’s recommendation: Strict The learner is required to state the
al

rules recommendation and then defend it against


▪ Justification: Strict rules are better than a the other stated alternative.
total ban because banning does not serve ▪ Award maximum 1 mark for the complete
oy

the purpose of awareness/ people do not correct answer.


generally conform to banning and tend to ▪ Award partial credit of ½ mark if just the
revolt/ strict rules pose some restrictions recommendation is listed or ‘strict rules’
G

but still give the needed freedom. is the response, without substantiation.

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 17
(iv) Why do the researchers feel that environmental groups and eco-clubs are fighting a
losing battle, in the given scenario? (1 mark)

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


▪ the festivals cause pollution along with The learner is required to rationalise why
other issues (give examples) that add to environmental groups and eco-clubs aren’t
it.

n
succeeding in their purpose.
▪ awareness is the only solution but the ▪ Award maximum 1 mark for the complete

ha
lack of it only adds to the problem. correct answer including both situation
and the reason
▪ Award partial credit of ½ mark if just

as
either aspect is listed.
(v) Even though a fair percentage of people say ‘no’ to bursting crackers, festival pollution
persists. How does evidence from table 1 support this statement? (1 mark)

ak
Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE
▪ a large percentage of people (72%) abuse The learner is required to study table 1 and
environmental resources to celebrate ▪ choose data that indicates what number

Pr
festivals percentage of people partake in activities
▪ a high percentage of people (82%) use that add to pollution.
crackers to celebrate festivals in order to ▪ Then, check to see if the number is higher
live up to the expectation of their social than the number about ‘no to bursting
s
status crackers’
r
▪ Finally rationalise the data to prove the
he

Q statement, by using the evidence data.


▪ Award maximum 1 mark for the mention
of any one point—identification + listing
of percentage
ot

▪ Award partial credit of ½ mark if the


questionnaire point is listed without the
Br

percentage/ percentage is listed without


the mention of the questionnaire point.
(vi) What purpose does the ‘Can’t Say’ column serve in the questionnaire (table 1)? (1 mark)
al

Ans. VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


▪ gives a provision to/ allows the The learner is required to explain the role
respondents to choose not to express/ not of the “can’t say’ section, with reference to
oy

to answer/ allows an option to those who study table 1.


lack clarity/ are unwilling to respond ▪ Award maximum 1 mark for the complete
correct answer-- any one point.
G

▪ No partial credit

18 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
SECTION B- Writing and Grammar (10 marks)
3. Attempt ANY ONE from (i) and (ii). 5*1
(i) ANALYTICAL PARAGRAPH WRITING
Study the concept chart from the self-help magazine section of a monthly publication.

n
Situation: Setback

ha
Experience: Feeling upset

Healthy Processing Inability to process fully

as
Desire to:
Feel it

ak
Learn from it Block feeling Block Learning:
Let it go Overwhelm
Self-criticism
Self-Doubt

Pr
Feel/Reflect/Learn/Align:
Observe the pattern! Can’t come to terms
Stuck in rumination
Rework beliefs on adequacy and with:
Experience listlessness
process childhood memories I can fail sometimes
Attention diverted
Assess magnitude of setback Everything can’s be
from potential learning
Assess difficulty of work & likelihood controlled
s
of future success by doing the work Learning takes time
Build grit to do the work and effort
r
Access healing states to experience and
transform anxiety
he

Unacceptance of
Situations Triggers:
Inadequacy Apathy
Incompetency Anger
ot

Danger and Threat Anxiety


Blaming others Depression
Br

Unconscious/Implicit memories:
Habitual process blocks
Scary early life experiences of being
reprimanded for not meeting
expectations
al

Write a paragraph in not more than 120 words, analysing the listed responses to setbacks.
oy

The question tests the following writing LOs:



▪ convey ideas convincingly using appropriate language
▪ organize the content and structure the ideas logically, sequentially, cohesively
G

▪ use a range of vocabulary and sentence structure appropriate to the content and context
▪ use of functional language to show comparison, contrast, emphasis, conclusion etc.

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 19
GUIDANCE
Award 3 marks for content—
▪ Topic sentence identifying the two responses to setbacks in the concept map – ½ mark
For Instance:

n
Setbacks often leave one with a feeling of disappointment and sometimes even worse. / The

concept chart given below displays two ways to handle setbacks, for the better or for the worse/

ha
the two ways of processing setbacks – healthy and unhealthy.
▪ Any 2 points of contrast/ comparison with evidence – 2 marks
For instance:

as
Healthy processing helps one learn from and let go the emotions inside. On the contrary, inability

to process leads to a block, self-criticism and self-doubt.
Or

ak
An optimistic way of seeing a setback processes the ability to feel, reflect, learn and align. On

the other hand, negative perspective of a failure can lead to listlessness, diverted attention,
excessive rumination and unacceptance of failures.

Pr
▪ Concluding sentence, tied to the content of the topic sentence, showcasing a perspective/
rationalising the importance of healthy processing of setbacks encountered. – ½ mark
For instance, one might want to point to the fact that the responding to setbacks negatively leads
to a vicious cycle of undesirable feelings):
s
It is evident that experiencing a setback leads to feelings of inadequacy and incompetency along
r
with an unwillingness to accept situations. Responding to setbacks the positive way is empowering
he

as it leads to success.
Note- Just listing concept map matter without evidence of analysis carries no credit.
Award 2 marks for organisation & expression –
ot

▪ ½ mark—
Inclusion of a single paragraph organisation with a suitable topic sentence supporting

sentences and a suitable concluding sentence.
Br

No requirement of a title (because the purpose is analysis, not publication). No penalty if title
is written.
▪ 1 mark—
al

use of appropriate functional language to show comparison/contrast & emphasis:



Comparison/ Contrast: in contrast with, in comparison to, on the contrary, however, whereas, as

oy

opposed to, while, a striking difference, a noticeable difference, despite etc.


Emphasis: in other words, /especially/ specifically/ to emphasise/ to demonstrate/such as/in

particular etc.
G

full credit 1 mark to be allotted if the functional language has been used consistently
partial credit ½ mark to be allotted if the functional language has been used occasionally/
sparingly
No credit of marks if functional language is missing (not used at all)
20 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
FOR THE VISUALLY IMPAIRED CANDIDATES
The by-laws of some residential associations and management that ban owners and

tenants from keeping pets in their apartments, are justified.
Write a paragraph to analyse the given argument.

n
You could think about what alternative explanations might weaken the given conclusion
and include rationale / evidence that would strengthen / counter the given argument.

ha
use of appropriate functional language to agree or disagree with the premise
Agree: completely agree as it clearly points…. / Offers credible arguments to

support…/ …is difficult to contradict/undeniably/ hard to disagree etc.

as
Disagree: Unlike…what matters is…/even though …claims that…, it stands to reason

that…/fails to convince/ is overstated/ this opinion is contentious etc.
Justify: Answer the ‘why’? and use words like – because, since, due to, as a

ak
consequence of, based on and etc.
full credit 1 mark to be allotted if the functional language has been used
consistently

Pr
partial credit ½ mark to be allotted if the functional language has been used
occasionally/sparingly
No credit of marks if functional language is missing (not used at all)
s
▪ ½ mark—
r
Unity of ideas in the complete paragraph with ideas arranged logically –sentences

he

within paragraph follow expected organizational frameworks*


*[Categorical – in order of importance; Evaluative - a problem is introduced, and the pros and
cons are weighed; Comparative – similarities and differences; Cause and Effect; Descriptions-
ot

from general to specific attributes]


Accuracy-
Deduct from the overall score if the error density is high as this impacts the communicative
Br

function.
½ mark for a total of 2-3 spelling and grammatical errors
1 mark for a total of more than 3 spelling and grammatical errors
al

(ii) Letter of Enquiry 5*1


oy

You are Samina Zaveri, Class X, Vadodara, Gujarat. You come across the following information
on a local library’s notice board.
Create Your Own Board Game Competition!
G

Create an educational board game, and send it to us at Teen-Toggle


Games Pvt. Ltd, 307, Satija building, Colaba, Mumbai by July 2022.
The top 10 winning board games will be featured on our international portal.
Attractive scholarships for the winners!

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 21
You wish to participate but require more information. Write a letter to Teen-Toggle Games Pvt.
Ltd in about 120 words, enquiring about rules, scholarship details and deadlines. Also enquire
about specifications for solo or group entries.
Content -2 Expression-2 Accuracy -1
Value points- Content

n
• Reference to the source of information
• Conveying interest

ha
• Seeking information about rules
• Enquiring about scholarship details
• Asking about defined articles

as
• Confirm type of entries allowed
Any other relevant information

ak
Descriptors for Content
NOTE-Dedicated marks at a level are to be awarded only if ALL descriptors match. If one or

more descriptors do not match, the marks are awarded at a level lower.

Pr
2 marks
All points included
Well-developed with sustained clarity
s
1½ marks
r
Almost all points incorporated
he

Reasonably well-developed
1 mark
Some points incorporated
ot

Fair attempt at developing ideas with some impact on clarity of response


½ mark
Br

Most of the points of the given task not incorporated


Limited awareness of task development
Expression -2 marks

al

Marks Descriptors for Expression


NOTE-Dedicated marks at a level are to be awarded only if ALL descriptors match. If one or

oy

more descriptors do not match, the marks are awarded at a level lower.
2 • Highly effective style capable of conveying the ideas convincingly with appropriate layout
of a formal letter viz. addresses, salutation, subscription, and ending.
G

• Carefully structured content with organised paragraphing presented cohesively.


• Highly effective register (formal tone and vocabulary), relevant and appropriate sentences
for conveying the ideas precisely and effectively.

22 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
1½ • Frequent clarity of expression most of the times, layout of a formal letter largely
accurate.
• Ideas generally well sequenced and related to the given topic maintaining overall
cohesion of ideas.
• Range of vocabulary is mostly relevant and conveys the overall meaning and the purpose
of the writing.

n
1 • Inconsistent style, expression sometimes awkward, layout of a formal letter basically

ha
accurate.
• Sequencing of ideas is somewhat clear and related to the given topic attempting to
maintain a general overall cohesion.

as
• Range of vocabulary is limited but manages to convey the overall meaning and the
purpose of the writing.
½ • Expression unclear, layout partially followed affecting the format of the letter.

ak
• Poor sequencing of ideas but ideas are related to the given topic in a disjointed manner
exhibiting a lack of coherence of ideas.
• Very limited vocabulary or copying from the question.

Pr
Accuracy -1 mark
Descriptors for Accuracy
1 mark
s
Spelling, punctuation and grammar consistently/largely accurate, with occasional minor errors,
that do not impede communication.
r
½ mark
he

Spelling, punctuation and grammar display some errors spread across, causing minor impediments
to the message communicated.
No credit
ot

Frequent errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar, impeding communication.


Br

3. EDITING 1*3 = 3
Q. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error
and write its correction against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the correction.
The first one has been done for you.
al

Error Correction
Have you ever learn from a mistake you have made? E.g. learn learnt
oy

Many shouldn’t admit doing so. For those who do, a)


there was no need for guilt. We often make mistakes b)
G

while taking risks, but all brush them aside and learn. c)
With that, they may not make mistakes the next time.

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 23
ANSWERS
Error Correction
Have you ever learn from a mistake you have made? E.g. learn learnt
Many shouldn’t admit doing so. For those who do, a) shouldn’t won’t/don’t

n
there was no need for guilt. We often make mistakes b) was is
while taking risks, but all brush them aside and learn. c) all some/many

ha
With that, they may not make mistakes the next time.

GUIDANCE

as
Award 1 mark for each correct answer
▪ ½ mark for identification of the error
▪ ½ mark for the writing of the correction

ak
Editing is incomplete if either aspect (identification or rectification) is missing.

4. PASSAGE COMPLETION - REPORTED SPEECH 1*2

Pr
Read the conversation between a teacher and student and complete the passage that follows.

Biology Teacher: I instructed you to draw the diagram of bacteria. Why did you

submit a blank sheet?
s
Sameer: Sir, I had drawn the diagram of bacteria, but you can’t see it because it is

not visible to the naked eye.
r
he

The biology teacher had instructed Sameer to draw the diagram of bacteria
and asked him (a) ……………………………………………………. a blank
sheet. Sameer respectfully answered (b) that he had drawn the diagram but
…………………………………………………………………………to the naked
ot

eye.

ANSWER GUIDANCE
Br

(a) why he had submitted Award 1 + 1 mark for each correct answer.
NO partial credit.
(b) he/ the teacher couldn’t see it because it Direct speech Indirect speech
is not visible (a) simple past tense → Past perfect tense
al

(b) Past perfect tense → No change


(c) fact/universal truth → No change
oy

SECTION C - LITERATURE (20 MARKS)


5. SHORT QUESTIONS 2*6 = 12
(ANY 6 OF 7)
G

Objective: This section evaluates the questions based on texts to assess interpretation, inference,

extrapolation beyond the text and across the texts.
Content -1 mark

24 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
• Value points based on Q asked.
Expression- 1 mark
• Answer organised effectively/ logically (instead of a careless group of sentences strung
loosely together)
• Use of required functional language/ expressions

n
No marks deducted for exceeding word limit

ha
(i) What is the significance of the Buddha’s request for a handful of mustard seeds and the addition
of a condition to it? (2 marks)

VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE

as
▪ mustard seeds easy to procure/ available in The question indicates that the examiner is
every household she knocked at familiar with the Buddha’s request and hence
▪ added condition – must be procured form that requires no elaboration.
a house where no one had lost a child, The question requires an answer to:

ak
husband, parent or friend Why - mustard seeds with an added condition?
▪ made Kisa Gotami realize the universal What did the Buddha want Kisa Gotami to
nature of death

Pr
realize?
Content -
Award 1 mark for full explanation of the two
strands.
s
Award ½ mark for partial explanation.
r
Expression –
he

1 mark when both aspects included


Answer organised effectively
usage of words supporting the reasoning/
ot

expression of significance - since, because,


therefore, so that etc.
½ mark when either aspect is missing
Br

Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the


error density is high (more than a total of 2
spellings and grammatical errors).
al

(ii) Justify how ‘Animals’ by Walt Whitman is a criticism of mankind and its ways? (2 marks)

VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


oy

▪ human beings seem to have dropped/ shed The question indicates that the examiner
their values/virtues/attributes knows that the poet appreciates the animals
▪ human society blemished by ego, hypocrisy, for the display of virtues and hence that
G

hatred, materialism, fake display requires no elaboration.

▪ profusion of complaints, race for greed and The question requires an explanation of
lack of contentment criticism of mankind and evidence to justify
the same.

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 25
▪ the poet wishes to leave the human world Content -
and join animals as he finds them better Award 1 mark for full explanation of the two
than humans (a testimony) strands-criticism & evidence
Award ½ mark for partial explanation.
Expression –

n
1 mark when both aspects included

ha
Answer organised effectively
usage of words supporting explanation &
justification (that’s why, because, therefore
etc.)

as
½ mark when either aspect is missing
Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the
error density is high (more than a total of 2

ak
spellings and grammatical errors).

(iii) Comment on the tone of the speaker when she says ‘Will you please look at me when I’m
speaking to you, Amanda!’. (2 marks)

Tone
▪ exasperated
VALUE POINTS

Pr GUIDANCE
The question indicates that the examiner
knows that Amanda is being questioned and
s
she chooses not to respond and hence that
▪ irritated requires no elaboration.
r
▪ frustrated The question needs an answer to the tone
he

▪ annoyed of the speaker for the line mentioned in the


Or words with similar meanings question.

Illustration- Exclamation mark, suggestive of Content -


ot

the inherent emotion Award 1 mark for full explanation of the


identification of the tone, supported by
reference to the supporting evidence.
Br

Award ½ mark for partial explanation.


Expression –
1 mark when both aspects included
al

Answer organised effectively


usage of words supporting illustration (as
oy

supported by, as illustrated by, as can be


seen from etc.)
½ mark when either aspect is missing
G

Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the


error density is high (more than a total of 2
spellings and grammatical errors).

26 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
(iv) A ballad includes the telling of a tale as well as a surprise ending. Using evidence from the
poem, explain how these features are included in ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’. (2 marks)

VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


▪ Tale: The poem tells the story of Custard, The question indicates that the examiner
the dragon (setting, characters, rising action, knows the elements of a ballad and that the
climax, resolution). poem has a few and hence that requires no

n
▪ portrays his life with Belinda and the other elaboration.

ha
pets where he is considered a coward The question needs an answer identifying the
features that match to the listed aspects of a
▪ Surprise ending: The end of the poem shows
ballad
how Custard rose to the occasion; gobbled
the pirate and proved his bravery. Content -

as
Award 1 mark for full explanation of the two
strands (Tale and Surprise ending).
Award ½ mark for partial explanation.

ak
Expression –
1 mark when both aspects included
Answer organised effectively

Pr
usage of words linking ballad to evidence
from the poem (similarly, just as etc.)
½ mark when either aspect is missing
Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the
error density is high (more than a total of 2
s
spellings and grammatical errors).
r
he

(v) Which two issues about himself convinced Lomov of his decision to get married? (2 marks)

VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


▪ He is expected to marry and cannot stay The question needs an answer to the points
ot

unmarried he thought about himself. Those favouring


▪ He ought to lead a quiet, settled and regular Natalaya are not relevant here.
life at his age(‘critical age’/ thirty-five). Content -
Br

▪ He needs a partner as he suffers from Award 1 mark for any 2 relevant points
palpitations and is always getting upset. Award ½ mark for any one point
Expression –
1 mark when both aspects included
al

Answer organised effectively


usage of words for listing/ order (primarily/
oy

To begin with/ apart from this/ In addition


to this/ Also/ secondly etc.)
½ mark when either aspect is missing
Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the
G

error density is high (more than a total of 2


spellings and grammatical errors).

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 27
(vi) Briefly state how Matilda invited ‘a dreadful life of necessity’ into her family. (2 marks)

VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE


▪ Matilda’s extreme self-indulgence--dreams The question does not require the summary
of a luxurious life, riches and jewellery of the story but needs an answer only with
▪ Doesn’t pay heed to the advice of wearing relevant reference to Matilda’s extreme self-

n
natural flowers-- borrows the necklace-- indulgence and loss of the necklace.
loses it Content -

ha
▪ In paying for the necklace invited a horrible Award 1 mark for full explanation of the two
life of necessity and deprivation/ a life that strands
resulted in a hand-to-mouth existence OR Award ½ mark for partial explanation.
any other relevant point

as
Expression –
1 mark when both aspects included
Answer organised effectively

ak
usage of words for elaboration and cause-
effect
½ mark when either aspect is missing

Pr
Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the
error density is high (more than a total of 2
spellings and grammatical errors).

(vii) The hack driver successfully trapped the narrator in his web of words. Comment. (2 marks)
s
VALUE POINTS GUIDANCE
r
▪ Hack driver – a conversationalist, cheerful, The answer needs to showcase the hack
he

friendly, open driver’s clever and crafty words with evidence


▪ befriends the narrator who trusts him for of the narrator being conned/tricked
everything he says and does Content -
ot

▪ asks the narrator to stay behind, himself Award 1 mark for full explanation of the two
makes inquiries, offers home-made lunch, strands
Br

mints money Award ½ mark for partial explanation.


▪ befools and outwits the narrator in the guise Expression –
of help
1 mark when both aspects included
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Answer organised effectively



usage of words for description and
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substantiation
½ mark when either aspect is missing
Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the
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error density is high (more than a total of 2


spellings and grammatical errors).

28 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
7. LONG QUESTIONS 4*2
ANY 2 OF 3
GUIDANCE – Content 2 marks; Expression & Accuracy 2 marks
Note-
Use the given descriptors to mark the LQs for CONTENT (refer to value points) and EXPRESSION
If the response does not justify all points of a level, the response is marked down.

n
DESCRIPTORS FOR CONTENT Mark

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• Sustained, clear, well-developed personal response to the task 2
• Well-developed and justified arguments/evidence for the characters
• Largely, a reasonably well-developed personal response to the task 1½

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• Clear justification with arguments/evidence for the characters
• Fairly competent personal response to the task 1
• Clear justification with restricted arguments/evidence for the characters

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• Limited awareness of the task ½
• Limited justification or relevant arguments/evidence for the characters

DESCRIPTORS FOR EXPRESSION (Coherence & Cohesion) Mark

Pr
• Carefully structured content with a beginning, middle and end with highly 2
relevant ideas presented cohesively.
• Highly effective vocabulary usage, relevant and appropriate sentences for
conveying the ideas precisely and effectively.
s
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar are almost always accurate
r
• Ideas generally well sequenced and related to the given topic maintaining overall 1½
he

cohesion of ideas.
• Range of vocabulary suffices in large parts to convey the overall idea and meaning
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar mostly accurate, with occasional minor
errors but does not impede communication
ot

• Ideas sequenced fairly well and related to the given topic, sometimes maintaining 1
cohesion of ideas.
Br

• Range of vocabulary is limited and conveys a basic idea of the overall meaning
• Spelling, punctuation and grammar fairly accurate, with occasional minor errors
but does not impede communication
• Poor sequencing of ideas; though related to the given topic, expressed in a ½
disjointed manner exhibiting a lack of coherence of ideas.
al

• Very limited expected/ topical vocabulary as per question asked


• A lot of errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar that impede communication.
oy

(i) Parents play a crucial role in the upbringing of their children. Critically examine the parents of
Bholi and Ebright, highlighting their impact on their children’s lives. (4 marks)
VALUE POINTS
G

Students may draw upon the following:


▪ Introductory sentence:
crucial and indelible role played by parents

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 29
parents influence their children both implicitly (indirectly) and explicitly (directly)
are role models, first teachers, friends, companions, guides
▪ Critical examination:
Richard H. Ebright’s mother- loving, caring, understanding, a friend, a companion
filled the vacuum in Ebright’s life in his father’s absence

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invested time and energy in his upbringing which made him see heights of success

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Bholi’s parents – uncaring, indifferent, biased, insensitive, had a patriarchal mindset
traditional outlook- did not believe in the education of girls, totally indifferent to Bholi
and her needs, neglected her
did not bother to groom her (oil her hair, give her good clothes to wear)

as
sent her to school not to educate her but to save their own face
despite their prosperity, they left Bholi to her own misery, worst was when they decided

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to marry her off to Bishamber
(Accept any other relevant content point that lends itself to critical examination)
▪ Concluding thought:

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The contribution and companionship of parents cannot be denied. Love, care, and
guidance from parents makes a difference, sculpts children and shapes their future.
(ii) Pranjol and Rajvir discuss their next vacation destination. They shortlist Coorg and Goa. Rajvir
is keen on Coorg and tries to convince Pranjol. Develop a conversation between the two, based
s
on your understanding of Glimpses of India. (4 marks)
Specimen answer to assist content points
r
Rajvir: Hey Pranjol! I think we should be visiting Coorg. It is a beautiful place with coffee

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plantations. I can smell the aroma already!


Pranjol: We visited a tea plantation last year, in Assam; I want to…
Rajvir: There is a lot more to do in Coorg than smelling the coffee! The place has rainforests,

ot

so the megafauna will be worth watching. Not just this, Coorg provides opportunities to indulge
in adventure sports like river rafting, rappelling, mountain biking, to name a few.
Pranjol: That sounds interesting, but I would prefer some serene moments too, away from this
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post-pandemic hustle-bustle.
Rajvir: Oh! The answer is Coorg again!
Pranjol: Oh, come on! You can’t be serious…

al

Rajvir: Believe me, I am. Coorg is the place. It has beautiful natural walking trails and the

Brahmagiri hills offer a panoramic view. I read that the place has the largest Tibetan settlement,
so the environment will reflect peace and spirituality, I’m sure.
oy

Pranjol: Have to say, you’ve presented a fine case in favour of Coorg and convinced me. Let’s

plan to leave for Coorg next Wednesday!
▪ The dialogues should be based on understanding of the chapter. There should be arguments
G

from Pranjol showing he requires more to get convinced. Rajvir, being an explorer must be
able to give an interesting account about Coorg to convince Pranjol. The persuasive element
using examples from text descriptions need to be showcased.

30 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
Apart from the above the following could be added:
• Coorg is culturally rich, the people there are brave and their hospitality is great.
• Some people in Coorg are the only ones allowed to keep firearms without license. It will
be fun meeting such bravehearts.
• Rainforests can be visited for flora and fauna.

n
• There flows the river Kaveri and sitting by the river could be peaceful.
(iii) Farce is a kind of comedy in which the situations and dialogues are ridiculous, exaggerated and

ha
even absurd. Evaluate the play ‘The Proposal’ as a farce. (4 marks)
VALUE POINTS
Introductory sentence:

as
• farcical characters, their ridiculous and odd behaviour, unlikely and exaggerated situations
(profuse in the play)
Evaluation:

ak
• humor in the play, improbable situations, childish behavior of the characters (making a
mountain out of a molehill), arguments and quarrels
• hurling of accusations and insults without a second thought

Pr
• resolving the differences and fighting again over another topic
• Lomov’s nerve problems and other ailments, Chubukov’s theatrical statements, Natalaya’s
impulsive and belligerent remarks and other relevant evidence.
Concluding Statement:
s
• the manner in which the final proposal is made amidst all the chaos, makes the play a
r
farce
he
ot
Br
al
oy
G

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 31
MODEL TEST PAPER–1 (Solved)
(Based on the latest CBsE sample Paper)

Time allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 40

n
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING & GRAMMAR and

ha
LITERATURE.
2. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

as
sECTiON A - REAdiNG (10 marks)
1. Read the passage given below.
The difference between effectively and ineffectively pursuing happiness may all be in how

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we go about it. Research suggests that people who strive to feel happy all of the time may
suffer disappointment, and people who pursue happiness, as if it were the only thing that
matters, may, ironically, chase happiness away. But these are not the only ways you can go

Pr
about pursuing happiness. Another approach involves what I call “prioritizing positivity”:
deliberately organizing your day-to-day life so that it contains situations that naturally give
rise to positive emotions. This way of pursuing happiness involves carving out time in
your daily routine to do things that you genuinely love, whether it be writing, gardening
or connecting with loved ones. This way of pursuing happiness means proactively putting
s
yourself in contexts that spontaneously trigger positive emotions.
r
One reason is that prioritizing positivity involves monitoring one’s daily itinerary, not
he

one’s moment-to-moment emotional experience. As research has revealed, the mere act of
monitoring one’s happiness from one second to the next may get in the way of positive
emotions. In contrast, we thought a more effective strategy would be “situation selection,”
which involves approaching (or avoiding) situations that naturally trigger certain emotions.
ot

Going for a walk with your partner after dinner is one way you might use situation selection
to experience a feeling of tranquillity. The tendency to prioritize positivity draws upon this
Br

strategy.
We also predicted that prioritizing positivity would predict greater happiness and fewer
symptoms of depression because of its relevance to daily life. The “highs” we get from
one-time events like going on a vacation or winning a prize wear off over time. As a
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result, pursuing happiness may require regular engagement in behaviours that promote
happiness. By its nature, prioritizing positivity increases the chance that we will weave
these positive behaviours into our daily lives rather than just maintaining a general desire
oy

for happiness or expecting it to come from a few isolated events.


The science on the deliberate pursuit of happiness is young, so any prescriptions for happiness
must be offered with the caveat that the research is still evolving and conclusions might be
G

subject to change. I do have some speculations, based on my research, about how people
might more effectively pursue happiness. First, let go of extreme ways of relating to your
happiness. Don’t set the unrealistic goal of feeling positive emotions all—or even most—of

32 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
the time. Second, reflect on the activities that give you joy or contentment. This thought
experiment should be highly personalized. Finally, once you think of a couple of activities,
schedule them into your upcoming week.
The pursuit of happiness is not easy. If people attempt it with unrealistic expectations and too
much attention, they risk sabotaging it. But this doesn’t mean you should give up on trying
to be happy. It may be more effective to adjust your daily routine so that it includes activities

n
that naturally spark interest or contentment. Seeking happiness, although a delicate art, may
still be a worthwhile pursuit.

ha
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions
from the six given below. 1*5

as
(i) Why might some people chase away happiness? 1
Ans. Some people might chase away happiness because of the constant pursuit of happiness as
the ultimate thing.

ak
(ii) Rewrite the following sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with a word that
means the same from para 2. 1
Lack of sleep or too much sleep can lead to migraine.

Pr
Ans. Lack of sleep or too much sleep can trigger migraine.
(iii) State two ways to pursue happiness. 1
Ans. The two ways to pursue happiness are, first, don't strive to be happy; rather, feel happy.
The second reason is "prioritizing positivity", that is, deliberately organise your day-to-
s
day life so that it contains situations that naturally give rise to positive emotions.
r
(iv) What does the phrase “prioritizing positivity” refer to? 1
he

Ans. 'Prioritizing positivity' refers to organizing daily life according to positive emotional
triggers.
(v) Write the author's speculations about how people can pursue happiness more effectively. 1
ot

Ans. As per the author's speculations, a person must let go of extreme ways that relate to
happiness. He/she shouldn't set any unrealistic goal of feeling positive emotions. Also,
one must reflect on the activities that give joy or contentment.
Br

(vi) How does the author explain the pursuit of happiness? 1


Ans. The author explains the pursuit of happiness through the concept of prioritizing positivity.
2. Read the passage given below.
al

Globalization is the way to open businesses, improve technological growth, economy, etc. at


the international level for all countries. It is the way in which manufacturers and producers
oy

of the products or goods sell their products globally without any restriction. It provides huge
profits to the businessmen as they get low cost labour in poor countries easily. It provides a
big opportunity to the companies to deal with the worldwide market.  
G

Globalization helps to consider the whole world as a single market. Traders are extending
their areas of business by treating the world as a global village. Earlier, till the 1990s, there
was a restriction on importing certain products which were already manufactured in India

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 33
like agricultural products, engineering goods, food items and toiletries. However, during the
1990s, there was a pressure from the rich countries on the poor and developing countries to
allow them to spread their businesses by opening their markets. In India, the globalization
and liberalization have been a bonanza for the consumers, however, a loss to the small-scale
Indian producers. 

n
Main players for international trade in goods, 2018
(billion EUR)

ha
2,500

2,000

as
1,500

ak
1,000

Pr
500

0
EU-28 (1) China (2) United Japan South Mexico Canada India Singapore Russia Switzer- Brazil
States Korea land (3)
s
 Exports    Imports
r
(1) External trade flows with extra EU-28.
(2) Excluding Hong Kong, estimated data.
he

(3) Including Liechtenstein.


Source: Eurostat (online data code: ext_lt_introle, Comtrade and UNCTAD)
ot


Globalization has had some very positive effects on the Indian consumer in all sectors of
society. It has affected the Indian students and education sector to a great extent by making
study books and a lot of information available over the internet. Collaboration of foreign
Br

universities with the Indian universities has brought about a huge change in the field of
education
Globalization of trade in the agricultural sector has brought varieties of quality seeds which
have disease resistance property. However, it is not good for the poor Indian farmers because
al

the seeds and agricultural technologies are costly.  It has brought about a huge revolution in
the employment sector by the spread of businesses like handloom, carpet, artisan carving,
ceramic, jewellery and glassware, etc.
oy

With globalization’s strong momentum running up against powerful headwinds, it is important


to recognize that market integration is still limited in absolute terms. The foreign operations
of multinational firms around the world generate only about 9% of global output. Exports
G

of goods and services add up to 29% of world GDP, but even that figure comes down to
about 20% if we adjust for output that crosses borders more than once. Managers surveyed
across six countries in 2017 estimated these international production and trade metrics at 37%
and 41%, respectively.
34 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
We cannot predict with confidence whether the coming year will bring a higher or a lower
level of globalization. But we can safely say that international flows and the constraints
that borders and distance impose upon them will both continue to matter. So, the biggest
winners regardless of whether globalization goes up or down, are likely to be companies that
embrace globalization’s complexity rather than purely local or global visions of their business
environments.

n
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions from
the six given below. 1*5

ha
(i) What do the observations state about market integration? 1
Ans. The observations about market integration state that the export of goods and services add
to 29% of world GDP.

as
(ii) Comment on the inherent traits of globalization with reference to para 1. 1
Ans. Globalization helps in improving technological growth and the economy on the
international level. It led to the way in which manufacturers and producers of the

ak
products or goods sell their products globally without any restriction.
(iii) Who doesn’t benefit from globalization in India in reference to para 2? 1
Ans. In India, small-scale producers don’t get benefitted from globalization.

Pr
(iv) To which fact does the ‘global village’ concept of globalization point? 1
Ans. The ‘global village’ concept of globalization points towards the fact that the information
sector has had a boost.
s
(v) According to the graphical representation, who are the biggest and the lowest player in
import in international trade in 2018? 1
r
Ans. The graphical representation clearly shows that the biggest player in import in international
he

trade in 2018 was the United States of America and the lowest player was Brazil.
(vi) What does the impact of globalization on the agricultural sector indicate? 1
Ans. The impact of globalization on the agricultural sector indicates that the quality of seeds
ot

has improved, but affordability has decreased.

SECTION B - Writing and Grammar (10 marks)


Br

3. Attempt ANY ONE from (i) and (ii).

(i) The pie chart below shows the spending on Digital 5% 4% Radio
advertising in India through different media. Out-of-home 6%
al

The accompanying extract talks about Print


advertising as an industry. Write a paragraph 39%
oy

commenting upon the situation.


Advertising was initially meant to make people TV 46%
aware of the goods available in the market. It
G

was as simple as announcing what you have


in your store or the services you offer on your premises. Over the years, advertising has
evolved into a major industry that goes beyond informing to persuading and influencing.
It is a form of brainwashing consumers. 5
Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 35
Ans. Gone are the days when advertising was meant just to announce a product. We now have
specially designed advertising campaigns by the fully evolved and established advertising
industry. The job of the advertising industry is not only to inform consumers about the
launch of a new product but also to overwhelm them with stimuli that would persuade
them to buy the product. TV and print media have a major role to play with the annual
spend on TV advertisements, amounting to 46 per cent and print to 36 per cent. The

n
spending on advertisements on the radio and digital media are as minor as 4 and 5 per
cent respectively. Out-of-home advertising has a minuscule share of 6 per cent.

ha
(ii) You have just graduated in Commerce (B.Com.) from Bangalore University. You want to do a
high-level computer course at a reputed institute. Write a letter making inquiries about admission
fees and courses offered. 5

as
Ans. B-9 Battery Lane
Avenue Road
Bengaluru-560002

ak

10 July 20XX

Pr
The Director
Alps Computer Institute
MG Road
s
Bengaluru-560001
r
he

Dear Sir
Subject: Seeking admission to a Computer Course
ot

I have just received my degree in B.Com. from Bangalore University. I am keen to do


a high level computer course from your institute. Please let me know the criteria for
admission, courses offered, their level and duration, and fees to be charged. I will be
Br

grateful if I get a full reply from you as soon as possible.

Yours faithfully
al

Nagarath Karman
4. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the
oy

error and write its correction against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the
correction. The first one has been done for you. 1*3
Error Correction
Only those who work hard gets glory and success in life. E.g. gets get
G

Nothing great could be achieved without effort. (a)


A student can never comes out with flying colours unless he (b)
has really worked hard throughout a year. (c)

36 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
Ans. Error Correction
(a) could can
b) comes come
c) a the

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5. Read the conversation between Raghav and Ravi and complete the passage that follows. 1*2
Raghav: Ravi, Varun and I are going to watch the cricket match tomorrow. Would you like to

ha
join us?
Ravi: I would love to, but I have to take my father’s permission first.

as
Raghav: You must let me know by this evening because I have to arrange for the passes.
Ravi: I will do so as soon as I get permission.
Raghav informed Ravi that Varun and he were going to watch the cricket match the next
day. He asked Ravi (a) ________________. Ravi replied that he would love to, but he had to

ak
take his father’s permission first. Raghav told him (b) ________________ because he had to
arrange for the passes. Ravi said that he would do so as soon as he would get permission.
Ans. (a) whether he would like to join them
(b) to let him know by that evening

Pr
SECTION C - Literature (20 marks)
s
6. Answer ANY SIX questions in 30-40 words each. 2*6
r
(i) “Not enough can be said to show how important a baker can be for a village.” How
he

were the services of the baker required on various occasions? 2


Ans. The services of the baker were, undoubtedly, required on various occasions, making
him a very important person for a village. Mothers had to prepare sandwiches for
their daughter’s engagement. Cakes and bolinhas were a must for Christmas and other
ot

festivals. Thus, the services of the baker in the village are important.
(ii) Amanda was longing for wishful desires. List them. 2
Br

Ans. Initially, she imagined herself as a drifting mermaid in the green emerald sea. She also
imagined herself as an orphan and a fictional character, Rapunzel, to live aloof and enjoy
her freedom.
(iii) What is the turning point in the poet’s life in the poem ‘Animals’? 2
al

Ans. The poet expresses his desire to live with animals instead of humans. He believes
humans do not possess many qualities that animals do, such as kindness, love, respect,
oy

and truthfulness.
(iv) Belinda’s pets, except Custard, were a boastful lot. Explain with reference to the poem. 2
Ans. Belinda and her three pets, excluding Custard, were very proud of their bravery, but they
G

were not brave. Only Custard dared to face the pirate, so he was fearless. The other pets
soon made excuses for their cowardice and said that they would have been twice and
thrice as brave as Custard.

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 37
(v) Give exemplars from the story to show that Valli was a painstaking and meticulous
organizer. 2
Ans. Valli was a meticulous planner. She listened carefully to her neighbours' conversations
and people who regularly used the bus and asked them discreet questions. She picked up
the various small details about the bus journey and then planned it.
(vi) Matilda rarely met her rich friends. Why? 2

n
Ans. Matilda was unhappy due to her poverty and lack of comforts in her life. She lived in

ha
a shabby house and remained ill-tempered over her poor situation. This was the only
reason why she rarely met her friends.
(vii) What do you know about the character of Lutkins? Was he served summons? 2

as
Ans. Oliver Lutkins was a hack driver who showed himself as Bill before the lawyer to
deceive him.
The lawyer was sent to New Mullion to serve him notice. Yes, the summons was served
to Lutkins.

ak
7. Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. 4*2
(i) “Put the fear out of your heart, and you will be able to speak like anyone else.” These

Pr
words of encouragement from the teacher highlight that a change of social attitude and
encouragement can help a child like Bholi to become confident and face the world
bravely. 4
Ans. Taking help from the lesson ‘Bholi’, write how the social attitude towards Bholi made
s
her an introvert. What should be done to help such children face the world bravely?
Bholi’s mind was weakened due to a childhood mishap (falling from her cot). She began
r
to stammer while speaking as well. She then became unattractive due to pock-marks
he

on her face and a diseased body caused by smallpox. As a result, her family and other
children mistreated her, causing her to become an introvert.
We must treat such youngsters with love and affection and urge them to enter
ot

mainstream society to help them face the world boldly. Instead of mocking their
limitations, we should motivate and encourage them, giving them hope that they can be
as good as the other children.
Br

(ii) The Buddha said, ‘The world is afflicted with death and decay; therefore, the wise do
not grieve, knowing the terms of the world.’ Write your views in the context of the
above statement. 4
Ans. In his first sermon, Gautama Buddha preached that human life is very short and it
al

is full of sorrow and pains. He cleared that the mortals’ brief life is full of troubles
and pains. Everyone on this earth has to one day face death. Human beings are led
oy

to death as an ox taken for killing. We cannot console ourselves by weeping and


grieving. By following these methods out, the pain will be greater. Our bodies will
suffer and become weak. The wise and intelligent persons never weep on death and
grieve on sorrow. They know that these are the realities and truths of our lives.
G

Those who are born are to die certainly. No one can escape from death. So we
should not grieve on deaths.

38 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
(iii) ‘Disagreements and quarrels occasionally solve a problem.’ Discuss in brief the various
disputes between Natalya and Lomov. 4
Ans. Lomov and Chubukovs were neighbours. Lomov came to Chubukov’s house to propose
Natalya. But instead of proposing, Lomov and Natalya started fighting over petty
issues like Oxen Meadows and the qualities of their dogs. This is not a quality of good
neighbours. Neighbours should be like friends. There should be a positive relationship

n
between two neighbours. There should be understanding and patience among neighbours.
The fight between Lomov and Natalya could have been avoided if handled carefully.

ha
The issue of the Meadows could be resolved calmly and quietly by a good conversation.
There must have been some documents showing the ownership of the Meadows. Both
the parties could be convinced by making them understand that the Meadows would
belong to both of them if they got married.

as
Similarly, the issues of dogs could be solved. Instead of counting the negative points
of each other’s dogs, they could have discussed their positive features. Thus, the issues
could be resolved.

ak
Pr
r s
he
ot
Br
al
oy
G

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 39
MODEL TEST PAPER–11 (Unsolved)
(Based on the latest CBsE sample Paper)

Time allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 40

n
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING & GRAMMAR and

ha
LITERATURE.
2. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

as
sECTiON A - REAdiNG (10 marks)
1. Read the passage given below.

All around me, I see people romanticising the “old times”. The old times were good, they were

ak
peaceful; the old times were happy, they were simpler. My mother would tell tales of the old
times, when world was simpler, people were kinder, there was no social platform to make you
feel bad about yourself, and the technology wasn’t sucking everyone in. People in old times still

Pr
appreciated the nature around them, children played outside, greed wasn’t so blunt, cities were
not overpopulated, and skirts were just a fashion; not a subject of debate.

She intricately painted a picture of a world that was much better than the one I lived in. Sitting
on the counter-top of our marbled kitchen slab, I listened avidly to many stories of her ‘old
s
times’. That was a good time too.
r
It’s amazingly bemusing how time just passes us by, it flies for sure, but we crawl in the moment,
he

burdened by the yearning for the past, never realising that this moment is all we have and it is
soon going to wither. By the time fog clears, we forget the lesson we’ve learnt. We again yearn
for the simpler times, but in the world that is so fast paced, how is one supposed to hold onto a
moment anyway? I think you just need to live in it. It is destined to become a memory so why
ot

not make sure that your old times were good?

I still remember my grandparent’s house in the capital. It had a long balcony that faced a park,
Br

a tall banyan tree stood at a distance, towering even the third floor of the nearest flats. I have
many good memories from that time, but, and this is peculiar, curiously, I remember the smells
the most vividly. Sunlight against the leaves on a summer afternoon, the chilly breeze of a spring’s
evening, the dairy shop and the milk canister and even the token machines that dispelled milk,
al

my grandfather’s cigarette’s smoke, the main park after it had rained, the markets in the evening,
the smell of certain houses we went past when my grandfather took me out for a walk, all these
oy

smells constitute my childhood.

I always loved the idea of going back to those “old times”. That was until one day I smelled the
similar smells around my own house, and noticed that there was a similar tall tree, not banyan
G

though, towering even the third floor of the flats in front of ours, it’s leaves rusting beautifully
along the breeze of a spring evening. The epiphany tip-toed right into my heart. How have I not
noticed this tree before? I’ve been letting time pass me by again. At least this time, I am well
aware to value it.
40 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions
from the six given below. 1*5
(i) What does the writer mean by "burdened by the yearning for the past"? 1
(ii) Rewrite the following sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with a word that
means the same from lines 5– 15. 1
I experienced a sudden realisation that girls were always treated differently than boys.

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(iii) Which elements added to the author’s olfactory senses (sense of smell) during her stays
in her grandparent’s house? 1

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(iv) Why has the writer stressed upon the fact that old times were good? 1
(v) “By the time fog clears, we forget the lesson we’ve learned.” Write what lesson do we
learn from this statement? 1

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(vi) How does the writer justify the statement that he/she had never noticed the tree before? 1
2. Read the passage given below.
The graph below illustrates India’s age distribution in 2018.

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India age breakdown (2018)
30%
27.0%

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26.0%
25%
21.8%
20%
Percentage

15.5%
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15%
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10
7.7%
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5%
1.7%
0.3%
0%
under 15 15–29 30–44 45–59 60–74 75–84 85 and
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over
Age (range)
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The above graph illustrates India’s age breakdown in the year 2018. It extends from under 15

age group to 85 and over, and skims over 7 different age ranges. Doing so, the graph provides
a sneak into India’s age distribution for the given year. It is well known that India is a young
and able nation, a country that provided skilled personnel to many first-world countries and top
tech and otherwise industries. But how old is this rich and dense population?
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Apparently, under 15 age group is the one with the highest number of nationals, at 27%. Whereas
the range of 15-29 is the second-highest as it constitutes 26% of the nation’s population. Next
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up is the range of 30-44 which accounts for 21.8% of the total population. Together these three
groups made up for more than half of the population of India. The age group of 45-59 years
had 15.5% nationals fall into it. While there were only 7.7% of 60-74 years old people. Only
1.7% of the remaining individuals shared the age range of 75-84 and the rest 0.3% were either
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85 or above.
Looking at the data, it is clear that most of the population constitutes of teens and young adults.
This could provide India a scope for growth led by the young generation in the coming years.

Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 41
Having more youth in the working class, in the coming years, could propel India’s growth
upwards and help it harness the mentality and strength of the youngsters, giving the nation and
its working a fresher perspective it needs to catch up with the first world nations.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions
from the six given below. 1*5
(i) What India needs that the younger population could provide it. 1

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(ii) Comment on the aspect that India’s young population ensures its growth in the future. 1

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(iii) Justify the statement “...it needs to catch up with the first world nations.” 1
(iv) According to the above passage, what has leaked out of India into the First World
countries? 1
(v) According to the given data, there are more teen and young adults in the population.

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How does evidence from the graph support this statement? 1
(vi) What fact do you understand about India's population by the given graph? 1

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SECTION B - Writing and Grammar (10 marks)
3. Attempt ANY ONE from (i) and (ii).
(i) Below is a graph given showing birth and death rates in a country from 1901 to 2101.

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Write an analytical paragraph in about 120 words.
s 5
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(ii) You are Raman/Anisha of Gandhi Nagar, Gujarat. You saw an advertisement about a
course in spoken English, published in “The Times of India” by Super Institute, Gujarat.
You wish to join the course. Write a letter to the advertiser, inquiring about the details
you require. 5
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4. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the
error and write its correction against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the
correction. The first one has been done for you. 1*3
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Error Correction
Service to mankind are service to God. There is E.g. are is
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not an single religion which does not preach the (a)


ideal of service to humanity. What is directly give to man (b)
is directly give to God. One dare remember this. (c)

42 Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II)
5. Read the conversation between Ankit and John and complete the passage that follows. 1*2
Ankit : John! Why didn’t you come to school yesterday?
John : I was not well.
Ankit : What happened to you?
John : I was running high fever. I am fine now.

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Ankit : Do not exert yourself today.
Ankit inquired John (a) _______________. John replied that he was not well. Ankit again

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inquired what had happened to him. John explained that he had been running high fever and
he was fine then. Ankit advised not (b) _______________.

SECTION C - Literature (20 marks)

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6. Answer ANY SIX questions in 30-40 words each. 2*6
(i) What did the bakers wear in the Portuguese days, and when the author was young? 2
(ii) Notice the use of the word ‘turn’ in the first line, “I think I could turn and live with

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animals…”. What is the poet turning from? 2
(iii) How old do you think Amanda is? How do you know this? 2
(iv) Why did Custard cry for a nice safe cage? Why is the dragon called “cowardly dragon”? 2

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(v) Which qualities are common in all three characters of the play ‘The Proposal’? 2
(vi) Do you think Richard’s mother was too indulgent when she bought him cameras,
telescopes, microscopes? Give two reasons to support your answer. 2
(vii) Mention two things you would have done, other than what M Loisel did, to help resolve
s
the problem of the lost necklace. 2
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7. Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. 4*2
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(i) The author describes the things that Valli sees from an eight-year-old’s point of view.
Can you find evidence from the text for this statement? 4
(ii) You and your friend have a conversation about prevalent discrimination between boys
and girls, even today. Write the dialogue. 4
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You may begin like this:


Friend: I don’t think discrimination in terms of gender is a thing of the past.
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You: I also agree with you. I see such a discrimination everywhere.


Friend: Hmmm. Yes, I agree; though we are in the 21st century, it still continues in a
blatant manner in many parts of the country.
(iii) What does Chubukov at first suspect that Lomov has come for? Is he sincere when he
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later says “And I’ve always loved you, my angel, as if you were my own son”? Find
reasons for your answer from the play. 4
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Score Plus CBSE Sample Question Paper with MTPs in English Language & Literature for Class 10 (Term II) 43
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GOYAL BROTHERS
PRAKASHAN
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rs
For More Question Banks &
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Model Test Papers


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Visit www.goyal-books.com
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