Aakash Aiats Paper Neet

13/11/2021, 16:13 Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor
Answer keys : AIATS for One Year Medical-2022 (XII Studying)_Test-01
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.
Question : 1
The magnitude of electrostatic force between two point charges, separated by a distance r is F. If the distance between the
charges is doubled, then the new electrostatic force will be
Options:
2F
4F
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.:
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 2
An electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field of magnitude 2 N/C, experiences a maximum torque of magnitude 5 × 10–3 N
m. If the charges of the dipole have a magnitude of 2 mC, then the length of the dipole is
Options:
2m
6m
2.5 m
1.25 m
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:
Sol.:

2/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 3 skipped
An electric field in a certain region is radially outwards from origin and has a magnitude equal to Ar3/2, where r is distance from
the origin. The charge contained in a sphere of radius R, centered around origin is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Gauss’s law
Sol.:

3/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 4
A conical container (height = h, Radius of base = R), a spherical container (Radius = 3R) and a cylindrical container (height = h,
Radius of base = 2R), each contain a charge Q inside them. The ratio of respective electric flux through the containers will be
(All containers are closed)
Options:
1:2:3
1:1:1
3:2:1
6:3:2
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.:

As Qenc is same, thus is same for all
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 5
A charged oil drop of mass 10 µg and charge 10 nC is suspended between two parallel horizontal charged plates. The electric
field between the plates is
Options:
4 N/C
6 N/C
10 N/C
8 N/C
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: mg = qE

Sol.: 10 × 10–9 × (10) = 10 × (10–9)E

⇒ E = 10 N/C
4/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
There are two small uncharged spheres placed at a distance of 1 m from each other. N number of electrons are transferred from
one sphere to another. The force between the spheres is now measured to be equal to 2 newton, then the value of N is
Options:
4.8 × 105
6.1 × 102
2.8 × 106
9.3 × 1013
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:
Sol.: |q1| = |q2| = Ne
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 7
If a soap bubble is given an electric charge, then its radius
Options:
Increases
Decreases
Remains same
May increase or decrease depending upon whether the charge is negative or positive
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Due to electrostatic repulsion, the radius would increase.
5/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 8
The electric field lines distribution due to two charges is shown in the figure. Which of the following is correct?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: More the field lines originating or terminating more is the charge.
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 9
Consider the following two statements:

A. Electrostatic field lines do not form closed loops.
B. In the direction of electrostatic field, the potential increases.
The incorrect statement(s) among the above is/are
Options:
Only A
Only B
Both A and B
Neither A nor B
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: In direction of electric field lines the potential decreases.
6/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
In a region, a uniform electric field is given by . The electric flux through a sphere of radius 1 m,
centered at the origin is
Options:
8 N-m2/C
Zero
10 N-m2/C
16 N-m2/C
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.: For a closed surface, in uniform electric field the flux is zero. This is because numbers of field lines entering is equal to number
of field lines exiting the closed surface.
7/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 11
Magnitude of electric field due to an electric dipole at a distance r from it, at axial position is given as E. The magnitude of
electric field due to the dipole at a distance 2r from it, on equatorial line is
Options:
8E
16E
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.:

8/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 12
A charge 8.85 µC is placed at the centre of a cube. The electric flux (in SI units) through any one face will be
Options:
10–13
10–6
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:
Sol.:

9/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 13
Which of the following statement about electric dipole is incorrect?
Options:
The dimensions of dipole moment is [LTA]
The SI unit of dipole moment is C m
Dipole moment is vector quantity and directed from negative charge to positive charge
Dipole moment is a scalar quantity and has magnitude equal to the charge on the dipole
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Dipole moment =

is directed from negative charge to positive charge.
You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
A capacitor of capacitance 2 mF, is charged to a potential of 10 V. The capacitor is now connected to an identical capacitor
charged to a voltage 20 V such that the plates of same polarity are connected together. The loss of energy in redistribution of
the charges is
Options:
2.8 J
0.5 J
0.05 J
6.6 J
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:
Sol.:

10/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 15
Consider the arrangement of charges on the vertices of a square as shown in the figure. The net electrostatic potential at the
centre of the square will be
Options:
0.69 V
0.5 V
2V
Zero
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:
Sol.:

= Zero
11/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 16
Distance between plates of a parallel plate charged capacitor (disconnected from battery) is increased. The quantity that
remains constant is
Options:
Potential difference between plates
Charge
Electric field between plates
Both (2) and (3)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For disconnected capacitor, charge remains unchanged
Sol.:

As Q remains unchanged, E remains unchanged
12/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 17
A parallel plate capacitor is filled with two dielectrics as shown in the diagram. The area of plates is A and the distance between
the plates is d. If the thickness of each dielectric slab is d/2 and the dielectric constants are K1 and K2, then the net capacitance
is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Cseries =

Sol.:

13/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 18
Capacitance of a sphere A is 4 µF while for another sphere B, it is 8 µF. If on sphere A, there is a charge 2 µC and on B the
charge is 4 µC, then the ratio of potentials of the spheres is
Options:
6:1
1:1
4:1
2:1
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: V = Q/C
Sol.:

You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
The graph between capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor and charge on a capacitor is (charge is within breakdown limit of
capacitor)
Options:
Straight line inclined to charge axis
Straight line parallel to charge axis
Straight line parallel to capacitance axis
Parabola
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.:

Capacitance is independent of charge.
14/129
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Phy-Section A
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Question : 20
The equivalent capacitance of the circuit shown in the figure between terminals A and B is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Parallel and series combination of capacitor.
Sol.:

15/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Three capacitors each of capacity 4 microfarad are to be connected in such a manner that the effective capacitance is 6
microfarad. This can be done by
Options:
All the three are connected in series
All the three are connected in parallel
Two are connected in parallel and then connected in series with the third capacitor
Two are connected in series and then connected in parallel with the third capacitor
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Series and parallel combination of capacitors.
Sol.:
16/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 22
A hollow conducting sphere of radius 2 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 20 V. The electric potential at the
centre of the sphere will be
Options:
10 V
20 V
25 V
30 V
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Electric potential due to a hollow sphere
Sol.: V(surface)

V(inside) V(surface)
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 23
For an isolated uniformly charged spherical conductor, the electrostatic
Options:
Potential is zero everywhere inside the conductor
Field is zero inside the conductor
Field is non-zero and uniform inside conductor
Field is non-zero and non-uniform inside the conductor
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Properties of conductors
Sol.: In electrostatic condition, the electric field inside conductor is zero and potential is non-zero and uniform.
17/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 24
For a point charge, the equipotential surface is in shape of
Options:
Sphere
Paraboloid
Ellipsoid
Hyperboloid
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Electric field is perpendicular to equipotential surface.
Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 25
The magnitude of electric potential on equatorial line due to an electric dipole is E1 and the magnitude of the electric potential
on axial line is E2. The value of E1 + E2 is equal to
Options:
2E2
E2
E1
2E1
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: On equatorial line, potential = 0
Sol.:

18/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
The electric potential changes from 10 V to 30 V as one moves along x-axis from x = 0 to x = 2 m. The magnitude of electric
field in the region
Options:
Must be 10 V/m
May be 10 V/m
May be 20 V/m
Both (2) and (3)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:
Sol.: As per the information

= 10 V/m
and are unknown.

Thus may be 10 V/m or 20 V/m as well.
19/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 27
The external work required to slowly rotate a dipole of dipole moment 1 C-m in uniform electric field of magnitude 20 V/m, from
stable equilibrium state to unstable equilibrium state is
Options:
40 J
–40 J
20 J
–20 J
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:
Sol.:

You scored -1 of 4
Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 28
Force on an electric dipole of dipole moment 2 C-m, placed in a uniform electric field of magnitude 10 V/m
Options:
Has maximum value 20 N
Has minimum value 10 N
Is equal to zero
Both (1) and (2)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Force on a dipole in uniform field is zero.
20/129
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Phy-Section A
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Question : 29
A battery does total 100 J of work during charging a capacitor. Then final energy stored in the capacitor is
Options:
100 J
200 J
50 J
150 J
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: W = QV, U =

Sol.: Q = CV

21/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference between A and B is 100 V. The potential difference across the 6 µF
capacitor is
Options:
40 V
60 V
80 V
50 V
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Series and parallel combination of capacitors
Sol.:
C2 and C3 are parallel
22/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 31
Which of the following statement is false for a perfect conductor in electrostatic condition?
Options:
The surface of the conductor is an equipotential surface.
The electric field lines just outside the surface of a conductor is perpendicular to the surface.
The electric field is continuous across the surface of conductor.
The electric field is discontinuous across the surface of conductor.
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Properties of conductors
Sol.: Just outside conductor

Just inside conductor Einside = 0

∴ Electric field is discontinuous across surface of conductor.
23/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 32
A bulb is first connected across a 10 V DC supply and then a 20 V DC supply. The ratio of power dissipated in the two cases will
be (resistance is constant)
Options:
1:2
1:4
2:3
4:3
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.:

24/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
As shown in the figure, the emf of the cell is 5 V and the internal resistance of the cell is zero. The reading of the ideal voltmeter
is
Options:
12 V
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Voltage divider formula
Sol.:

25/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 34
A uniform wire of total resistance 21 ohm is bent in shape of an equilateral triangle. The value of equivalent resistance between
any two vertices of the triangle is
Options:
2Ω
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Series and parallel combination of resistors
Sol.:
26/129
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Phy-Section A
one is correct.
Consider the circuit as shown in the following figure. The current through the resistor marked R1 immediately after closing the
switch is
Options:
6A
4A
1A
2A
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Immediately after closing switch, the capacitor behaves like a conductor
Sol.: Equivalent circuit diagram immediately after closing switch
2A
27/129
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Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions
Question : 36
A wire of resistance 1 Ω is stretched such that the length becomes 1.2 times the initial value. The final resistance of the wire is
Options:
1.2 Ω
1.44 Ω
2.1 Ω
4.32 Ω
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.: lA = Volume = constant

As length increases by factor of n, area would decreases by factor of n
28/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 37
In the circuit as shown in the figure, the value of resistance R is
Options:
22 Ω
21 Ω
25 Ω
16 Ω
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Kirchhoff’s laws
Sol.:
Rnet =
also,
29/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 38
An electric bulb is rated as 100 W, 200 V. If the bulb is connected across a 100 V supply, then the current drawn by the bulb at
this voltage is (Assume no change in resistance)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Power
Sol.:

30/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 39
The value of current i in the following network of wires is
Options:
4A
1A
2A
3A
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Kirchhoff’s junction law
Sol.:

1+4–2–i=0
A
31/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
In a potentiometer, a uniform potential gradient of 0.4 V/m is maintained across its 5 m length. The potential difference across
two points located at 0.5 m and 4.5 m is
Options:
1.6 V
2V
0.4 V
2.8 V
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 41
For measuring voltage of any circuit, potentiometer is preferred to voltmeter because
Options:
The potentiometer is cheap and easy to handle
Calibration in the voltmeter is sometimes wrong
The potentiometer draws no current during measurement
Range of the voltmeter is not as wide as that of the potentiometer
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Potentiometer draws no current at null/balance point and thus it is an accurate method.
32/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 42
Two cells of emf 2 V and 4 V respectively and internal resistance 1 Ω each are connected in series with emf in opposite sense.
The equivalent emf of the combination is
Options:
6V
2V
3V
10 V
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: εeq = e1 ± e2
Sol.: εeq = 4 – 2 = 2 V
33/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
A parallel combination of following cells is connected to an external load. If all the cells are connected in same polarity, then the
value of resistance of the external load such that the power transfer to the load is maximum is
S. No. EMF Internal Resistance

1. 4V 4Ω
2. 6V 4Ω
3. 2V 2Ω
Options:
3Ω
2Ω
4Ω
1Ω
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: In maximum power transfer,
Rload = rinternal
Sol.:

Rload = rinternal = 1 Ω
34/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 44
The reading of a high resistance voltmeter when a cell is connected across it is 4.2 V. When the terminals of the cell are also
connected to a resistance of 10 Ω the voltmeter reading drops to 4.0 V. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
Options:
1Ω
2Ω
0.5 Ω
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Voltmeter will measure potential difference across terminals of cell.
Sol.:
Case 1 :

V = 4.2 = e (as no current flows)
Case 2:

4r = 2
r = 0.5 Ω
35/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 45
A capacitor of capacitance 8 μF is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. Charge on the plates of the capacitor is
Options:
32 μC
64 μC
4 μC
8 μC
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: In steady state no current will flow through capacitor.
Sol.:
36/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 46
A body which was initially neutral, is now positively charged. Then its mass
Options:
Slightly decreases
Slightly increases
Remains same
May increase or remain same
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Body is given a positive charge means that electrons are removed from the body. Thus, the mass of the body
decreases.
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Phy-Section B
questions
Question : 47
Kirchhoff’s loop law is based on conservation of
Options:
Charge
Energy
Momentum
Angular momentum
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Kirchhoff’s loop law is based on conservation of energy.
37/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Three capacitors, with capacitance equal to 6 μF, 6 μF and 3 μF respectively are connected in series with 20 volt line. Find the
charge on 3 μF.
Options:
20 μC
30 μC
40 μC
50 μC
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In series combination, charge on each capacitor is same.
Sol.:

Q = CnetV = 30 μC
38/129
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Phy-Section B
questions
Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by
Options:
Increasing the distance between the plates
Increasing the charge on the plates
Decreasing the area of the plates
Decreasing the distance between the plates
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.:
You scored 0 of 4
Phy-Section B
questions
The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can withstand without break-down is called its
Options:
Permittivity
Dielectric constant
Electric susceptibility
Dielectric strength
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: & Sol.: The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can withstand without break-down is called its dielectric strength.
39/129
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Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 51
A metal crystallises with a face centered cubic lattice. If edge length of the unit cell is 400 pm then the radius of the metal atom
will be
Options:
173.2 pm
346.4 pm
141.4 pm
100 pm
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: For fcc unit cell,

Sol.:
40/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 52
A compound is formed by cations X and anions Y. If anion Y form ccp structure and cations occupy 1/4th of the tetrahedral
voids, then the formula of the compound will be
Options:
XY2
X2Y
XY
XY4
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: If number of anions of Y = n, then number of tetrahedral voids will be 2 n.
Sol.: Y = n
Formula of compound XY2
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Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 53
n-type semiconductor is obtained when germanium is doped with
Options:
As
Ga
Al
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: n-type semiconductor is obtained when germanium is doped with group 15 elements.
Sol.: Germanium forms four bonds with four valence electrons of arsenic while the fifth electron of arsenic becomes delocalized and
increases conductivity of the semiconductor. Hence germanium doped with electron-rich impurity is called n-type semiconductor.
41/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 54
If KCl is doped with 10–6 mol% of BaCl2 then concentration of cationic vacancies will be
Options:
6.02 × 1017 mol–1
6.02 × 1016 mol–1
6.02 × 1015 mol–1
6.02 × 1018 mol–1
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Each Ba2+ ion is responsible for one cationic vacancy.
Sol.: Concentration of cationic vacancies
42/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 55
The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in bcc unit cell is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Packing fraction

Sol.: For bcc unit cell
Packing fraction

43/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 56
If mole fraction of urea in water is 0.2 then the molality of the solution will be
Options:
13.9 m
8.5 m
7.7 m
10.8 m
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Molality =

Sol.: Molality = = 13.9 m
44/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 57
A solution of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol–1) has been prepared by dissolving 36 g of glucose in 500 g of water. The
freezing point of the solution obtained will be (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
Options:
–0.25°C
–1.25°C
–0.74°C
–1.74°C
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: ΔTf = Kfm
Sol.:
ΔTf
Tf = –0.74°C
45/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 58
Which solution will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
Options:
Phenol and aniline
Chloroform and acetone
Nitric acid and water
Ethanol and acetone
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: In solutions showing positive deviations from Raoult’s law, the intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are
stronger than those between A-B.
Sol.: In pure ethanol, molecules are hydrogen bonded, on adding acetone, its molecules get in between the host molecules and
break some of the hydrogen bonds between them. Due to weaking of interaction, the solution, shows positive deviation.
46/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 59
A solution containing 34.2 g per dm3 of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol–1) is isotonic with 15% (w/v) solution of a non-volatile
and nonelectrolyte solute at same temperature. The molar mass of the solute is
Options:
750 g/mol
1500 g/mol
150 g/mol
300 g/mol
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Two solutions having same osmotic pressures at a given temperature are called isotonic solutions.
Sol.: For solutions containing non-volatile and non-electrolyte solutes to be isotonic,
Molarity of solution A = Molarity of solution B
or
or MB = 1500 g/mol
47/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 60
If vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are 100 torr and 140 torr, respectively then total vapour pressure of the solution
obtained by mixing 4 moles of A and 6 moles of B would be
Options:
110 torr
115 torr
124 torr
120 torr
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:
Sol.: Mole fraction of A

Mole fraction of B

48/129
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Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of given ions in water at 298 K is
Options:
K+ > Na+ > Mg2+
Mg2+ > K+ > Na+
Mg2+ > Na+ > K+
Na+ > K+ > Mg2+
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Higher is the charge, greater is limiting molar conductivity.
Sol.: For same value of charge on the ions, greater is the solvation, lower is the limiting molar conductivity. Ion with greater
charge/radius value will be solvated more. Order of limiting molar conductivity: Mg2+ > K+ > Na+.
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Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 62
How many grams of copper will be deposited at cathode when an aqueous solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed with a
current of 6 amperes for 965 seconds? (Atomic mass of copper = 63.5 u)
Options:
2.8 g
3.8 g
5.2 g
1.9 g
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Mass of copper deposited = Eq. wt. of copper × No. of Faradays passed
Sol.: No. of Faraday =

Mass of copper deposited =
49/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 63
The concentration term which depends on temperature is
Options:
Mole fraction
Molality
Molarity
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Concentration term which contains volume component is temperature dependent.
Sol.: Molarity is which contains volume part hence it depends on temperature.
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Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 64
Incorrect statement among the following is
Options:
AgBr shows both Frenkel and Schottky defects
In Schottky defects density of crystal decreases
Excess of lithium makes LiCl crystals pink
Metal excess defect and Schottky defects are stoichiometric defects
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Frenkel defect and Schottky defects are example of stoichiometric defect.
Sol.: In metal excess defect the stoichiometric of the crystal is disturbed and it is an example of non-stoichiometric defect.
50/129
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 65
Which among the following is a ferrimagnetic substance?
Options:
Fe
CrO2
Fe3O4
MnO
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: In ferrimagnetism, magnetic moments of the domains in the substance are aligned in parallel and anti-parallel directions in
unequal numbers.
Sol.: Magnetite (Fe3O4) is an example of ferrimagnetic substance.
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Chem-Section A
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Question : 66
For tetragonal crystal system, the axial angles are
Options:
α=β= = 90°
α = β = 90°, = 120°
α= = 90°, β ≠ 90°
α≠β≠ ≠ 90°
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Tetragonal crystal system has axial angles similar to cubic system.
Sol.: In tetragonal crystal system, axial angles are α = β = = 90°.
51/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 67
Unit of rate constant for second order reaction is
Options:
mol L–1 s–1
s–1
mol–2 L s–2
mol–1 L s–1
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: For second order reaction, 2 A → P
Rate = k[A]2
Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 68
If rate constant of first order reaction is 1.386 × 10–2 s–1 then the half life of the reaction will be
Options:
100 s
200 s
50 s
150 s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:
Sol.:
52/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 69
For Arrhenius equation, slope of the graph obtained by plotting is
Options:
ln A
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Arrhenius equation,

Sol.:

53/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 70
In a zero order reaction, for every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate of reaction is doubled. If temperature is increased from
20°C to 80°C, then the rate of the reaction will become
Options:
48 times
128 times
64 times
32 times
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:
Sol.: Rate (80°C) = 26 rate (20°C)

= 64 rate (20°C)
54/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 71
For the reaction, 3 A + 2 B → 5 C + 4 D. Which of the following does not express the reaction rate?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: For reaction, aA + bB cC + dD,
Sol.:
Rate
55/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 72
Consider the following statements

a. For zero order reaction t1/2 is directly proportional to the initial concentration of the reactants.
b. Inversion of cane sugar is an example of pseudo first order reaction.
c. Decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a zero order reaction at high pressure.
The correct statements are
Options:
a & b only
b & c only
a & c only
a, b & c
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: In inversion of cane sugar, water is taken in excess amount.
Sol.: Reaction of gaseous substances on metal surface at high pressure is zero order reaction.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 73
A reaction is 50% completed in 30 minutes and 87.5% completed in 90 minutes. The order of the reaction is
Options:
Zero
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: · For zero order, [R] = –kt + [R]0
· For first order,

Sol.:
t87.5% = 3 × t50%, the order of the reaction is one.
56/129
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
For a first order reaction, if the initial concentration of the reactant is 0.8 M and rate constant is 6.93 × 10–3 s–1, then the rate of
the reaction after 100 s will be
Options:
1.4 × 10–3 M s–1
2.5 × 10–2 M s–1
2.8 × 10–3 M s–1
1.9 × 10–4 M s–1
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: and rate = k[R]

Sol.:

After 100 s the concentration will be 0.4 M

Rate of reaction = 0.4 × 6.93 × 10–3 = 2.8×10–3
57/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 75
For the cell reaction,

Ni(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Ni2+(aq) + Cu (s)
if at 298 K then standard Gibb’s energy change (ΔrG°) of the cell reaction is
Options:
–225.5 kJ mol–1
–115.8 kJ mol–1
–75.2 kJ mol–1
–55.1 kJ mol–1
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: ΔG° = –nFE°
Sol.:
= –115.8 kJ/mol
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 76
Unit of cell constant is
Options:
cm2
ohm–1
cm–1
cm
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: is called cell constant.

Sol.:
58/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 77
If conductivity of 0.2 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.024 S cm–1, then the molar conductivity in S cm2 mol–1 of the solution will
be
Options:
120
150
85
180
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:
Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 78
If standard reduction potential of three metals A, B and C are +0.24 V, +0.80 V and –0.60 V respectively, then oxidizing power of
the metals will be in the order
Options:
C>B>A
A>B>C
B>A>C
C>A>B
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Higher is the reduction potential greater is the oxidizing power.
Sol.: Among the given metals, metal cation B will be most easily reduced as its reduction potential is highest. Correct order of
oxidizing power will be B > A > C.
59/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 79
If molar conductivities at infinite dilution of KBr, HBr and HCOOK are x, y and z S cm2 mol–1 respectively, then for
HCOOH in S cm2 mol–1 will be
Options:
x+y–z
x–y–z
z+y–x
z+x–y
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:
Sol.:
60/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 80
The equilibrium constant of the given cell reaction at 298 K will be

Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + Cu(s)
(Given : )
Options:
1072.1
1082.5
1055.6
1091.5
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:
Sol.:

Kc = 1091.5
61/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 81
Product obtained on the electrolysis of dilute aqueous solution of Na2SO4 at anode and cathode respectively are
Options:
H2 and Na
SO2 and O2
H2 and O2
O2 and H2
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Electrolysis of aq. solution of Na2SO4 will result in electrolysis of water.
Sol.:
Reaction at anode, 2 H2O(l) → O2(g) + 4 H+(aq) + 4 e–
Reaction at cathode, 2 H2O(l) + 2 e– → H2(g) + 2 OH–
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
One faraday of electricity was passed through NaCl(l), CaCl2(l), AlCl3(l) kept in three different vessel using platinum electrode.
The ratio of moles of Na, Ca and Al deposited at respective electrodes will be
Options:
1:2:3
3:2:1
6:3:2
6:2:3
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: 1 faraday will deposit 1 equivalent of metal at the cathode.
Sol.: Mole of Na deposited = 1
Mole of Ca deposited = 1/2
Mole of Al deposited = 1/3
Ratio of moles of Na, Ca, Al
= 1: 1/2 : 1/3
=6:3:2
62/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 83
Electrolyte used in the mercury cell is
Options:
Moist paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2
Paste of KOH and ZnO
38% solution of H2SO4
Paste of HgO and carbon
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Paste of HgO and carbon is used as cathode in mercury cell.
Sol.: Paste of KOH and ZnO is used as electrolyte in mercury cell.
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 84
0.1 m aq. solution of which of the given compounds will have highest freezing point?
Options:
NaCl
MgCl2
Urea
K4[Fe(CN)6]
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Higher is the number of particles of solute more will be depression in freezing point.
Sol.: Number of particles of urea will be least in the aqueous solution hence depression in freezing point will be lowest. The freezing
point of the solution will be highest.
63/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 85
For ideal solution which of the given relation is incorrect?
Options:
ΔHmix < 0
ΔSmix > 0
ΔGmix < 0
ΔVmix = 0
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: For ideal solution, A-B interactions are same as A-A interactions and B-B interactions.
Sol.: For ideal solution, ΔHmix = 0.
64/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 86
0.2 molal aqueous solution of a K3[Fe(CN)6] is 70% ionised. If Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol–1 then boiling point of the solution
will be
Options:
100.82°C
100.32°C
101.21°C
101.52°C
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: ΔTb = iKbm
Sol.:
ΔTb = iKbm = 3.1 × 0.52 × 0.2 = 0.322

Tb = 100.32°C
65/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 87
10 g of urea is present in 250 mL of aqueous solution at 27°C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is
Options:
8.2 atm
12.4 atm
16.4 atm
10.5 atm
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: π = cRT
Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 88
Which colligative property is widely used to determine molar masses of polymers?
Options:
Depression in freezing point
Elevation in boiling point
Osmotic pressure
Relative lowering of vapour pressure
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Magnitude of osmotic pressure is large even for very dilute solutions.
Sol.: Solubility of polymers in solvent is very poor hence their solution is very dilute. Osmotic pressure is used to determine the
molecular mass of such compounds.
66/129
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
If concentration of nitric acid is 70% (w/w) HNO3 then the mass of concentrated nitric acid required to prepare 200 mL of 1.0 M
HNO3 is
Options:
25 g
18 g
32 g
10 g
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.:

70 g HNO3 is present in 100 g of solution
12. 6 g HNO3 is present
67/129
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
If iron oxide has formula Fe0.95O then what percentage of Fe exist as Fe2+ ion?
Options:
85%
98.5%
89.5%
95%
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:
• Fe0.95O contains both Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions.
• Total positive charge = total negative charge
Sol.: Per 100 ions of O2– there are 95 ions (Fe2+ + Fe3+) of iron.
Let number of Fe2+ ions = x
Let number of Fe3+ ions = (95 – x)
Total positive charge = 2 x + 3(95 – x)
Total negative charge = 2 × 100 = 200
2 x + 3(95 – x) = 200 ⇒ x = 85
Percentage of Fe2+
68/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 91
Number of tetrahedral voids present in a fcc unit cell is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Effective number of atoms in fcc unit cell is 4.
Sol.: Number of tetrahedral voids = 4 × 2 = 8
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
If the rate constant of the reaction, X → Y is 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 and initial concentration of X is 2.4 M, then the concentration
of Y after 40 minutes will be
Options:
1.49 M
0.48 M
1.24 M
0.96 M
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Reaction follows zero order kinetics.
Sol.: Concentration of Y = k × t
= 4 × 10–4 × 40 × 60 = 0.96 M
69/129
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Incorrect statement about the catalyst is
Options:
It does not appear in the balanced chemical equation
It does not affect the equilibrium composition of the reaction mixture
It increases the rate of forward reaction and reverse reaction
It catalyses both spontaneous and non-spontaneous reactions
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Catalyst decreases the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
Sol.: Catalyst catalyses only spontaneous reactions.
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
If the molar conductance of 0.04 M solution of weak monobasic acid is 10 S cm2 mol–1 and at infinite dilution is 500 S cm2
mol–1 then the dissociation constant of the acid will be
Options:
8 × 10–4
1.6 × 10–5
2.4 × 10–6
4.0 × 10–4
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.:

K = C × α2 = 0.04 × (0.02)2 = 1.6 × 10–5
70/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 95
Standard electrode potential of Fe2+/Fe couple is –0.44 V and that of Ag+/Ag couple is 0.80 V. These two couples in their
standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be
Options:
1.24 V
1.10 V
0.36 V
1.54 V
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:
Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 96
Consider the following statements about zinc blende crystal structure

(a) Sulphide ions occupy fcc lattice points
(b) Zn2+ occupy all octahedral voids
(c) Number of ZnS units per unit cell is 4
The correct statements are
Options:
(a) and (b) only
(b) and (c) only
(a) and (c) only
(a), (b) and (c)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Co-ordination number of Zn2+ in ZnS is 4.
Sol.: Zn2+ occupy half of the total number of tetrahedral voids.
71/129
You scored -1 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 97
Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at 1 atm pressure of H2 gas dipped in 0.01 M HCl solution at 298 K is
Options:
–0.872 V
+0.325 V
–0.118 V
+0.059 V
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: 2 H⊕ + 2 e H2
Sol.:

= –0.118 V
72/129
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
If a metal crystallises in fcc lattice then number of unit cells present in 13 g of metal is (Atomic mass of metal = 65 u)
Options:
3 × 1023
6 × 1021
3 × 1020
3 × 1022
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Effective number of atoms in fcc unit cell = 4.
Sol.: Mole of metal atoms =

Mole of unit cells =

Number of unit cells =

= 0. 3 × 1023
= 3 × 1022
73/129
You scored 4 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
Question : 99
100 ml of 5 M HNO3 is mixed with 800 ml of 2.5 M HNO3 solution. The molarity of the resultant solution becomes
Options:
3.28 M
3.72 M
4.21 M
2.78 M
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: M1V1 + M2V2 = M3V3.
Sol.: 100 × 5 + 800 × 2.5 = M3 × (100 + 800)
You scored 0 of 4
Chem-Section B
questions
The metals which will not evolve hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute HCl is
Options:
Mg
Ca
Ni
Ag
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Reduction potential of noble metal is positive.
Sol.: Reduction potential of Ag+/Ag is positive hence it will not reduce H+ and H2 gas will not be evolved.
74/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 101
Organism which reproduces through multiple fission under special circumstances is
Options:
Penicillium
Yeast
Amoeba
Hydra
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Multiple fission occurs under favourable conditions.
Sol.: Amoeba reproduces through multiple fission under special circumstance.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 102
Adventitious buds arise from the notches present at margins of leaves that help in vegetative propagation is found in
Options:
Sugarcane
Banana
Dahlia
Bryophyllum
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Banana vegetatively reproduces by rhizome.
Sol.: Bryophyllum propagates vegetatively by leaf buds.
75/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 103
Which of the following produces isogametes?
Options:
Fucus
Homo sapiens
Cladophora
Rose
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Isogametes are morphologically similar.
Sol.: Cladophora produces morphologically similar gametes.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 104
Chromosome number in meiocytes of maize is
Options:
46
20
34
12
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Meiocytes undergo meiosis and produces haploid gametes.
Sol.: Maize has 20 chromosomes in diploid cells (meiocyte).
76/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 105
All of the following show internal fertilization, except
Options:
Bryophytes
Most of the algae
Gymnosperms
Angiosperms
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Fusion of gametes is called syngamy.
Sol.: Algae mostly show external fertilization.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 106
Select the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t asexual reproduction.
Options:
Sponges – Gemmules
Ginger – Rhizome
Paramecium – Conidia
Agave – Bulbil
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Penicillium forms the conidiospores.
Sol.: Paramecium reproduces mainly by binary fission.
77/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 107
Read the statements and select the correct option

A. Life span of crocodile is approximately 60 years.
B. Parrot can live for approximately 140 years.
C. Life span of rose is less than that of butterfly.
Options:
Both A and B are correct
Both A and C are correct
Only B is correct
Both B and C are correct
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Butterfly lives for 1-2 weeks.
Sol.: Life span of rose is approximately 5-7 years while butterfly has life span of 1-2 weeks only.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 108
Which of the following is not correct for neelakuranji?
Options:
It flowers only once in 12 months
It is a perennial plant
Plant grows in large tracks of hilly areas in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
It shows mass flowering
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Neelakuranji is a monocarpic plant.
Sol.: Neelakuranji flowers once in 12 years.
78/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 109
Archegonium is
Options:
Present on the male thallus of Marchantia
The female sex organ of Marchantia
Male sex organ of Chara
Female sex organ of flowering plants
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Archegonium produces eggs.
Sol.: Archegonium is female sex organ of bryophytes, pteridophytes and gymnosperms.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 110
Event which occurs after fertilisation is
Options:
Pollination
Embryogenesis
Gametogenesis
Syngamy
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Gametogenesis is a pre-fertilisation event.
Sol.: Embryogenesis occurs after fertilization or syngamy.
79/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 111
After fertilization ovules develop into
Options:
Seeds
Fruits
Pericarp
Embryos
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Embryo develops from zygote after fertilization in flowering plants.
Sol.: After fertilization
Ovules develop into seeds
Ovary develops into fruit
Integument develops into seed coat
80/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 112
Read the given statements and select the correct answer.

I. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca.
II. The proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower.
III. Innermost layer of microsporangium is responsible for dehiscence.
I II III
(1) True False True
(2) False False True
(3) True True False
(4) True True True
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Innermost layer of anther is called tapetum.
Sol.: Outer three layers of anther are responsible for dehiscence in flowering plants.
Tapetum nourishes developing pollen grains.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 113
Pollen grains in angiosperms develop from the ______ of anther.
Options:
Epidermis
Endodermis
Tapetum
Sporogenous tissue
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Pollen mother cell develops from the sporogenous tissue.
Sol.: Sporogenous tissue of anther leads to the formation of pollen grains.
81/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 114
Cells of which anther layer possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus?
Options:
Outermost layer
Tapetum
Middle layers
Endodermis
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
Sol.: Cells of tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 115
Which of the following is not true for the pollen grains?
Options:
The hard outer layer is made up of sporopollenin
Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin
The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the intine
Inner wall of pollen grain is resistant to strong acid and can withstand high temperatures
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Inner wall of pollen grain is composed of cellulose and pectin.
Sol.: Outer covering of pollen with sporopollenin is resistant to strong acid and can withstand high temperatures.
82/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 116
In over A percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at B stage.
Options:
A – 90, B – Single celled
A – 60, B – 2 celled
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In around 40% of flowering plants, generative cell divides and pollen is shed at three celled stage.
Sol.: In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at two celled stage.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 117
Pollen grains of rice and wheat
Options:
Can survive for months
Lose viability within 30 minutes of their release
Lack exine and intine
Can survive for several weeks after shedding from the anther
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Pollen grains of cereals have short duration of pollen viability.
Sol.: Pollen grains of rice and wheat can survive only for upto 30 minutes.
83/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 118
Multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil is present in
Options:
Papaver
Michelia
Hibiscus
Tomato
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Michelia has apocarpous ovary.
Sol.: Multicarpellary and syncarpous pistil is present in Papaver, Hibiscus and tomato.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 119
Cells of the which part of ovule have abundant reserve food materials and enclosed within the integuments?
Options:
Micropyle
Chalaza
Nucellus
Funicle
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Nucellus provide nutrition to developing embryo sac.
Sol.: Cells of nucellus have abundant reserve food materials and enclosed within the integuments.
84/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 120
Match the column-I and column-II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Chalaza i. Stalk of ovule
B. Funicle ii. Represents the basal part of the ovule
C. Hilum iii. Represents the junction between ovule and stalk
Options:
A-i, B-ii, C-iii
A-ii, B-i, C-iii
A-iii, B-ii, C-i
A-i, B-iii, C-ii
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Chalaza represents the basal part of ovule.
Sol.: Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 121
Mark the plant which has recovery phase or interflowering phase.
Options:
Wheat
Rice
Marigold
Mango
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Mango flowers multiple times in its life.
Sol.: Mango is a perennial polycarpic plant which has the recovery phase.
85/129
You scored -1 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 122
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. typical female gametophyte of flowering plants.
Options:
The functional megaspore divides mitotically
Six of the eight nuclei are separately surrounded by cell walls in embryo sac
Each nuclear division is immediately followed by cell wall formation
Polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Karyokinesis is not immediately followed by the cytokinesis during embryo sac formation.
Sol.: During embryo sac formation karyokinesis occurs one by one and finally cytokinesis occurs.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 123
Read the following statements and select the correct option.

A. The synergids have special cellular thickenings called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the entry of
pollen tube.
B. Three antipodal cells are found towards the micropylar end in most of angiosperms.
Options:
Both A and B are correct
Only A is correct
Only B is correct
Both A and B are incorrect
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Antipodal cells are present opposite to the egg apparatus.
Sol.: Three antipodal cells are found towards the chalazal end in most of angiosperms.
86/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 124
In xenogamy
Options:
Pollen grains of a plant are transfered from anther to stigma of another plants of the same species
Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant
Pollination occurs within the same flower
No pollinating agent is required for pollination
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Xenogamy is only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen grains.
Sol.: In xenogamy, pollen grains are transfered from anther to the stigma of a different plant of same species.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 125
Plant which is pollinated by insects or wind is
Options:
Zostera
Water lily
Vallisneria
Hydrilla
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Vallisneria is pollinated by water.
Sol.: Water lily although an aquatic plant, pollinated by insects or wind.
87/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 126
Select the odd one w.r.t. characteristics of flowers which are pollinated by water.
Options:
Their pollen grains are unwettable
Pollen grains are covered by a mucilaginous covering
Flowers are colourful
Flowers do not produce nectar
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Colourful petals and nectar attract the insects.
Sol.: Wind and water pollinated flowers are generally colourless and they lack nectar.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 127
Asexual reproduction does not involve
Options:
Formation of clones
Fusion of gametes
Only a single parent
Mitosis
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Asexual reproduction does not bring variation in offsprings.
Sol.: Asexual reproduction does not involve syngamy i.e. fusion of gametes.
88/129
You scored -1 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 128
Which of the following plants are monoecious and dioecious respectively?
Options:
Rice and wheat
Mangifera and Wheat
Castor and Maize
Maize and Vallisneria
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Monoecious plants possess both male and female sex organs in the same individual.
Sol.: Maize – Monoecious
Vallisneria – Dioecious
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 129
Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in all, except
Options:
Castor
Pea
Beans
Groundnut
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Plant seeds in which endosperm is consumed during the embryo growth are known as non-endospermic seeds.
Sol.: Castor has endospermic seeds.
89/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 130
Which one produces male and female sex organs on separate plant bodies?
Options:
Pea
Marchantia
Mustard
Pinus
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: In dioecious plants male and female sex organs are borne on separate plant bodies.
Sol.: Marchantia is dioecious.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 131
Amorphophallus and Yucca are mainly pollinated by
Options:
Wind
Water
Insects
Birds
Solution :
Answer (3)
Sol.: Amorphophallus and Yucca are pollinated by insects.
90/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 132
Some plants such as Oxalis and _____ produce both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.
Options:
Commelina
Cucumber
Groundnut
Water hyacinth
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Cleistogamous flowers do not open and are self-pollinated.
Sol.: Some plants such as Oxalis and Commelina produce two types of flowers i.e. chasmogamous and cleistogamous.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 133
Select the incorrect match w.r.t. ploidy level of given structures in angiosperms.
Options:
Nucellus – 2 n
Megaspore mother cell – 2 n
Functional megaspore – n
Female gametophyte – 2 n
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Gametophytic structures are haploid.
Sol.: Female gametophyte or embryo sac is haploid.
91/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 134
Cleistogamy
Options:
Ensures the seed formation even in the absence of any pollinators
Is present in dioecious plants
Can be seen in papaya
Is an outbreeding device
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Cleistogamous flowers are self-pollinated flowers.
Sol.: Cleistogamy ensures the seed formation even in the absence of any pollinators.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 135
Failure of pollen grains from fertilizing the ovule by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the same flower is
known as
Options:
Dicliny
Dichogamy
Self-incompatibility
Heterostyly
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Dicliny is the presence of only one kind of reproductive whorl in a flower and thus it represents unisexuality.
Sol.: Failure of pollen grain to fertilize the ovule of same plant is called self-incompatibility.
92/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 136
After double fertilization in flowering plants, synergids
Options:
Develop into seeds
Degenerate
Form the fruit wall
Develop into PEN
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: After syngamy, synergids degenerate.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 137
Pollen germination can be studied by dusting the pollen on a glass slide containing a drop of A with B .
Select the correct option for A and B.
Options:
A – 5% sugar solution, B – boric acid
A – 10% sugar solution, B – boric acid
A – 1% sugar solution, B – calcium salts
A – 1% sugar solution, B – potassium salts
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Boron is required for pollen germination.
Sol.: Pollen germination can be studied by dusting the pollens on a glass slide containing a drop of 10% sugar solution with boric
acid.
93/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 138
Vegetative cell of male gametophyte in flowering plants
Options:
Is smaller than the generative cell
Has large irregularly shaped nucleus
Floats in the cytoplasm of generative cell
Has dense cytoplasm and is spindle shaped
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Generative cell is smaller than vegetative cell in pollen grain.
Sol.: Vegetative cell has large irregularly shaped nucleus.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 139
Plant which causes the severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people and came into India as a contaminant with
imported wheat, is
Options:
Water hyacinth
Parthenium
Hibiscus
Zostera
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Water hyacinth is an aquatic weed.
Sol.: Parthenium causes the severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people and came into India as a contaminant with
imported wheat.
94/129
You scored -1 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 140
Cell of female gametophyte which forms the primary endosperm cell after fertilization is
Options:
Antipodal cell
Egg cell
Polar nuclei
Central cell
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Male gamete fuses with secondary nucleus and forms PEN.
Sol.: Primary endosperm cell is formed from the central cell after fertilization.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 141
Select the mismatched pair for dicot seed
Options:
Epicotyl – The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons
Hypocotyl – The cylindrical portion of embryonal axis below the level of cotyledons
Radicle – Covered by root cap
Plumule – Covered by coleoptile
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: In monocots, plumule and radicle are covered by sheath like structures.
Sol.: Plumule is covered by coleoptile in monocots.
95/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 142
Single cotyledon present in the grass family is called
Options:
Coleorrhiza
Scutellum
Coleoptile
Hypocotyl
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Coleoptile represents a sheath protecting a young shoot tip in monocot seeds.
Sol.: Single cotyledon present in the grass family is called scutellum.
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 143
Identify the parthenocarpic fruit.
Options:
Guava
Banana
Orange
Mango
Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit.
96/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 144
2000 years old viable seed of which plant was found during the archeological excavation at King Herod’s palace near the Dead
Sea?
Options:
Crotalaria
Phoenix dactylifera
Lupinus arcticus
Vinca
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Seeds of Lupinus arcticus germinated and flowered after an estimated record of 10,000 years of dormancy.
Sol.: 2000 years old viable seeds of Phoenix dactylifera was discovered during the archeological excavation at King Herod’s palace
near the Dead Sea.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Triple fusion
Options:
Occurs outside the embryo sac
Involves fusion of one male gamete and egg cell
Is absent in most of the flowering plants
Leads to the formation of PEN
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Secondary nucleus fuses with male gametes leading to the formation of triploid nucleus.
Sol.: Triploid nucleus form the primary endosperm nucleus.
97/129
You scored 4 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Question : 146
Nucellus is persistent in the seeds of

A. Black pepper
B. Beet
C. Maize
Options:
All A, B and C
A and B only
A and C only
B and C only
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Maize plant has endospermic seeds.
Sol.: Black pepper and beet seeds has persistent nucellus called perisperm.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Thalamus contributes in fruit formation in all the following, except
Options:
Apple
Maize
Strawberry
Cashew
Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Maize has true fruits which develop from the ovary.
98/129
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Some species of Asteraceae and grasses produce seeds without fertilisation by a special mechanism, called
Options:
Parthenocarpy
Apomixis
Syngamy
Triple fusion
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Fruit formation without fertilization is called parthenocarpy.
Sol.: Some species of Asteraceae and grasses produce seeds without fertilisation by a special mechanism, called apomixis.
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Most common type of embryo sac in flowering plants
Options:
Has three celled egg apparatus
Lack polar nucleus
Has two antipodal cells only
Is an 8 celled structure
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Angiosperms have 7 celled and 8 nucleated embryo sac.
Sol.: Three celled egg apparatus has two synergids and one egg cell in embryo sac.
99/129
You scored 0 of 4
Bot-Section B
questions
Cellular and free-nuclear endosperm is present in
Options:
Castor
Groundnut
Coconut
Wheat
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Coconut has two types of endosperms.
Sol.: Coconut has cellular and free-nuclear endosperm.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 151
Fusion of male and female gametes during sexual reproduction is called
Options:
Karyogamy
Syngamy
Zygote
Embryogenesis
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Zygote is a product of syngamy.
Sol.: Fusion of male and female gamete is syngamy. Fusion of nuclei of male and female gametes is called Karyogamy. Fusion of
gametes results in formation of zygote which undergoes cleavage to form embryo called embryogenesis.
100/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 152
Choose the incorrect match w.r.t asexual reproduction in animals.
Options:
Paramecium – Transverse binary fission
Amoeba – Multiple fission
Euglena – Oblique binary fission
Hydra – Fragmentation
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Longitudinal binary fission is present in flagellates.
Sol.: Euglena performs longitudinal binary fission in favourable conditions. Oblique binary fission is present in dinoflagellates, e.g.,
Ceratium. In fragmentation, each segment is called fragment which grows into complete organism.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 153
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A: The period from birth to natural death of an organism represents its life expectancy.
Statement B: Life span of organisms are necessarily correlated with their sizes.
Options:
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Smaller animals may also have longer life span.
Sol.: The period from birth to natural death of an organism represents its life span. Life expectancy is based on average life span of
members of a population.
101/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 154
Choose the odd one w.r.t the individuals which possess both male and female reproductive system.
Options:
Monoecious
Hermaphrodite
Dioecious
Bisexual
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Unisexual organism
Sol.: The individuals which possess both male and female reproductive systems are called monoecious/bisexual/hermaphrodites.
Organisms which possess either male or female reproductive system are called unisexual/dioecious.
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 155
Oogamy is a special type of sexual reproduction characteristically present in most of the animals in which fertilization involves
Options:
A large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete
A large motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete
A large non-motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete
A large non-motile female gamete and a large non-motile male gamete
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Presence of ova and sperms
Sol.: Oogamy is a special type of sexual reproduction present in multicellular animals in which female gamete is large and non-
motile, and male gamete is small and motile. These gametes fuse together to form zygote.
102/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 156
Parthenogenesis is
Options:
Formation and development of ovum
Development of unfertilized egg into embryo
Development of embryo to form zygote
Formation of gametes
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Formation of embryo without fertilization
Sol.: Formation of sperms and ova is called gametogenesis. Development of embryo from zygote is called embryogenesis.
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 157
Read the following statements and choose the option with only correct statements.
(a) Birds possess cleidoic eggs and exhibit external fertilization and development.
(b) Diploid zygote is formed in sexually reproducing organisms.
(c) In unicellular organisms, cell division is itself a mode of sexual reproduction.
(d) Asexual reproduction is uniparental.
Options:
(a) and (b)
(b) and (c)
(c) and (d)
(b) and (d)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Parthenogenesis is a type of asexual reproduction.
Sol.: In birds, fertilization is internal and shell around fertilized egg is formed when it passes through uterus. Development in them is
external. In unicellular organisms, cell division is itself a mode of asexual reproduction, e.g., binary fission and multiple fission.
103/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 158
Offspring produced by asexual reproduction that are not only identical to one another but are also exact copies of their parents
and are known as
Options:
Clones
Twins
Hermaphrodites
Gemmules
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Product of sexual reproduction shows variations.
Sol.: Twins are product of sexual reproduction. Identical twins are exact copies to each other but they are not exact copies of their
parents. Gemmule formation is found in sponges.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 159
Select the incorrect match.
Animals Approximate life span

(1) Crow 15 years
(2) Crocodile 60 years
(3) Parrot 140 years
(4) Butterfly 1-2 years
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Animal having minimum life span.
Sol.: Butterfly has a life span of about 1-2 weeks.
104/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 160
Complete the analogy w.r.t diploid chromosome number in meiocytes.

Housefly : 12 :: Butterfly : _______
Options:
190
380
46
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Maximum number of chromosomes
Sol.: Meiocytes in butterfly have diploid chromosome number equal to 380 and its gamete contains 190 chromosomes. Meiocyte of
fruitfly have only 8 chromosomes. In humans, 2 n = 46.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 161
Choose the correct option that represents the major disadvantage of external fertilization.
Options:
Offspring are extremely vulnerable to predators threatening their survival up to adulthood
They show great synchrony between sexes
A large number of offspring are produced
A large number of gametes are produced to enhance chances of syngamy
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Embryos are not protected inside the body.
Sol.: In external fertilization, development is always outside the body and offspring are extremely vulnerable to predators.
105/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 162
Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option.
Statement A: All sexually reproducing organisms begin their life as a single cell - the zygote.
Statement B: Development of the zygote depends on the type of life cycle the organism has and the environment it is exposed
to.
Options:
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Zygote divides by meiosis in case of haplontic life cycle.
Sol.: All members which reproduce sexually start their life from a diploid zygote which divides meiotically to form spores in haploid
organisms and divides mitotically (cleavage) in organisms having diplontic life cycle.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 163
Which of the following is concerned with asexual reproduction only?
Options:
Buds
Gonads
Zygote
Fusion of sperms and ova
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Gametogenesis occurs in gonads
Sol.: Buds are produced during asexual reproduction called budding. Buds grow to form complete organism. Spores are also formed
during asexual reproduction.
106/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 164
Choose the incorrect statement.
Options:
Oviparous animals lay unfertilized or fertilized eggs
In reptiles and birds, after a period of incubation, young ones hatch out
The most vital event of sexual reproduction is perhaps cell differentiation during gametogenesis
Gamete transfer and syngamy are essential for the most critical event in sexual reproduction i.e., fertilization
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Cell differentiation occurs during embryogenesis
Sol.: Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are pre-fertilization events in sexual reproduction. The most vital event of sexual
reproduction is perhaps fusion of gametes. In viviparous animals, young ones are delivered after certain period called gestation
period.
107/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 165
Match items in column-I with those in column-II and choose the option with all correct match.
Column-I Column-II
A Zygote (i) Process of development of embryo from zygote
B Embryogenesis (ii) Cyclical changes during reproductive phase in non-primate placental mammals
C Oestrus cycle (iii) Cyclical changes during reproductive phase in primates
D Menstrual cycle (iv) Vital link between one generation to next
A B C D
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Menstrual cycle is present in primate females
Sol.: Zygote: Vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation and the next.
Embryogenesis: Development of zygote into embryo.
Oestrus cycle is cyclical changes during reproduction in females of non-primate placental mammals.
108/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 166
Spermatogenesis is ‘switched on’ at puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of hypothalamic hormone called
Options:
GnRH
FSH
LH
Androgens
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Hormone synthesized in hypothalamus
Sol.: Gametogenesis starts at puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of GnRH. So, GnRH is considered as ‘switch on’
hormone for puberty. GnRH increases secretion of gonadotrophins (FSH and LH). LH acts on Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis
and secretion of androgens. Androgens, in turn, stimulate the process of spermatogenesis.
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 167
Secretion of which of the following structures is not essential for maturation and motility of sperms?
Options:
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Prostate gland
Cowper’s gland
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Gland which lubricates penis by its secretion
Sol.: Secretion of epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles and prostate gland is essential for maturation and motility of sperms.
109/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 168
At puberty, young males start to develop beard and moustaches and girls begin to develop breasts. These are examples of
Options:
Atavism
Primary sex organs
Secondary sexual characters
Metamorphosis
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Characters which appear at puberty
Sol.: Appearance of beard and moustaches in males and breast in females during puberty under effect of sex hormones is
considered as sexual growth/secondary sexual characters.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 169
In most of the mammals, the testes are located in scrotal sac for
Options:
Sex determination at genetic level
Proper spermatogenesis
Providing more space to intestine
Independent functioning of kidneys
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Formation of sperms
Sol.: Scrotal sac has temperature 2 to 2.5°C less than the normal internal temperature of body which is required for proper
spermatogenesis.
110/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 170
Which of the following unpaired accessory sex gland is chestnut shaped in structure and provides Ca+2 ions to semen?
Options:
Prostate gland
Bartholin’s gland
Seminal vesicle
Cowper’s gland
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: The gland which surrounds proximal part of urethra
Sol.: Prostate gland is chestnut shaped gland, present around prostatic urethra. Its secretion is alkaline and contains calcium citrate,
enzymes, etc.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 171
Select the correct sequence of cell stages formed during spermatogenesis within seminiferous tubules.
Options:
Spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatocytes, sperms
Spermatozoa, spermatids, spermatogonia, spermatocytes
Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa
Spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatogonia, sperms
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Diploid cell which starts spermatogenesis
Sol.: Spermatogonia primary spermatocyte secondary spermatocytes spermatids
sperms
111/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 172
Match items in column-I with those in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
a. Hyaluronidase (i) Progesterone
b. Corpus luteum (ii) First milk rich in IgA
c. Capacitation (iii) Corona radiata
d. Colostrum (iv) Sperm activation
Options:
a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Colostrum provides natural passive immunity to infant.
Sol.: Hyaluronidase – Corona radiata
Corpus luteum – Secretes progesterone
Capacitation – Sperm activation
Colostrum – First milk rich in protein and antibodies
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 173
Attachment of embryo with uterine wall is called
Options:
Gestation
Parturition
Implantation
Fertilization
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Attachment of blastocyst with endometrium.
Sol.: Embryonic development is also called gestation. Delivery of foetus is called parturition. Fusion of male and female gametes to
form zygote is called fertilization.
112/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 174
Secretion of which of the following structures prepares endometrium of uterus for implantation?
Options:
Morula
Placenta
Pars intermedia
Corpus luteum
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Progesterone is the main hormone secreted from this temporary gland.
Sol.: Corpus luteum mainly synthesize progesterone which prepares uterine endometrium for implantation. So, progesterone is
commonly known as progestational hormone or pregnancy hormone.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 175
Which of the following set of hormones are synthesized only during pregnancy?
Options:
hCG, progesterone, relaxin
Relaxin, progesterone, prolactin
hCG, hPL, relaxin
Oestrogen, progesterone, oxytocin
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Hormones synthesized by placenta.
Sol.: Relaxin, hPL hCG are synthesised only during pregnancy from placenta. Relaxin is also synthesized from corpus luteum during
pregnancy.
113/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 176
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t embryonic development in humans.
Options:
Cleavage division brings about considerable increase in mass of protoplasm
Embryo at 8 to 16-celled stage is known as morula
Foetus develops limbs and digits by the end of second month of pregnancy
Secretion of trophoblast facilitates implantation of embryo
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Nucleocytoplasmic ratio increases during cleavage divisions.
Sol.: During cleavage divisions, number of cells increases but there is no increase in mass of cytoplasm. So, nucleocytoplasmic
ratio increases after each cleavage. Embryo at 8-16 celled stage is called morula. Trophoblast secretes hCG which comes out in
urine and detected in pregnancy test.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 177
(1) Insemination Transfer of sperms into female genital tract

(2) Parturition Delivery of foetus
(3) Spermiation Sperm heads become embedded in the Sertoli cells
(4) Spermiogenesis Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Detachment of sperms from cells of Sertoli.
Sol.: After formation of tail, sperms are detached from Sertoli cells and finally released into the lumen of seminiferous tubules by the
process called spermiation.
114/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 178
Identify A, B, C and D in following figure and choose the option which correctly represents A, B, C and D.
A B C D
(1) Anterior pituitary Prolactin Parturition FSH
(2) Neurohypophysis Prolactin Milk ejection Suckling
(3) Pars distalis Progesterone Milk secretion Crying of child
(4) Pars nervosa Milk ejection Parturition Suckling
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Oxytocin is milk ejection hormone.
Sol.: Suckling activates hypothalamus which in turn stimulates posterior pituitary to release oxytocin for milk ejection. Prolactin
stimulates mammary alveoli to synthesize milk.
115/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 179
How many egg(s) was/were released by a human ovary in a month if a mother gave birth to identical twins?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Identical twins are derived from a single zygote.
Sol.: Normally single ovum is produced by one ovary during each cycle which gets fertilized to form zygote. Zygote develops and
embryo by chance separates to form maternal twins. Sometimes two ova are produced which gets fertilized to form fraternal twins.
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 180
How many sex chromosome(s) does a normal human inherit from his father?
Options:
23
46
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Male is XY
Sol.: The zygote would carry either XX or XY depending on whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilises the ovum.
116/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 181
All of the following structures are included in male sex accessory ducts except
Options:
Seminiferous tubules
Vasa efferentia
Rete testis
Epididymis
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Tubules involved in spermatogenesis
Sol.: Seminiferous tubules are not included in category of male sex accessory ducts as they are involved in gamete formation.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 182
Inner cell mass gets differentiated into
Options:
Trophoblast
Embryo
Placenta
Chorion
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Structure formed by cleavage
Sol.: Blastomeres of embryo are differentiated into outer trophoblast cells and inner cell mass. Inner cell mass gets differentiated
into embryo.
117/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 183
Each seminiferous tubule is internally lined by and . B synthesize certain factors which help in .
A B C
(1) Spermatogonia Leydig cells Spermatogenesis
(2) Spermatogonia Sertoli cells Spermiogenesis
(3) Primary spermatocytes Leydig cells Spermatogenesis
(4) Primary spermatocytes Leydig cells Spermiogenesis
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Sperm mother cells (spermatogonia)
Sol.: Seminiferous tubules are internally lined by spermatogonia and Sertoli cells. Sertoli cells synthesize certain factors which help
in spermiogenesis.
118/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 184
(1) FSH Development of follicles

(2) LH Development of corpus luteum
(3) Progesterone Post-ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle
(4) Oestrogen No effect on female sexual behaviour
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is synthesized from ovarian follicles
Sol.: Oestrogen is female sex hormone responsible for mineralization of bones, development of secondary sexual characters and
regulation of female sexual behaviour.
119/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section A
one is correct.
Question : 185
In the following given figure, identify A, B, C, D and choose the option which represents A, B, C and D correctly.
A B C D
(1) Seminal vesicle Prostate gland Penis Urinary bladder
(2) Ejaculatory duct Bulbourethral gland Foreskin Prostate gland
(3) Ejaculatory duct Prostate gland Penis Urinary bladder
(4) Prostate gland Urinary bladder Urethra Penis
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Ejaculatory duct opens into prostatic urethra.
Sol.: Vas deferens and duct of seminal vesicle of same side unite to form ejaculatory duct which opens into prostatic urethra. Skin
cover of glans penis is called foreskin. Bulbourethral glands are present near membranous urethra and open into penile urethra.
120/129
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 186
At least what percent of sperms must have normal shape and size and must show vigorous motility for normal fertility per
ejaculate?
Options:
60%
40%
72%
24%
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Nearly one fourth of total sperms
Sol.: At least 60% of total sperms in each ejaculate must have normal shape and size and 40% of them must show vigorous motility.
So, sperms having normal shape, size and vigorous motility
121/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 187
Read the following statements carefully and choose the option which correctly state them as true (T) or false (F).
(a) Capacitation occurs in female reproductive tract
(b) Corpus luteum is only temporary endocrine gland in human females formed during pregnancy
(c) Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if sperms and ovum are transported simultaneously to the infundibulum
region of fallopian tube
(d) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus is called ectopic pregnancy
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) T F T T
(2) T T F F
(3) T F F T
(4) F T F T
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Placenta is a temporary endocrine gland.
Sol.: Both corpus luteum and placenta are temporary endocrine glands. Fertilization in human is practically feasible when both
sperms and ovum reach simultaneously to ampullary region of oviduct. Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus is called
ectopic pregnancy.
122/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 188
Signals for parturition originate from fully developed foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called
Options:
Foetal ejection reflex
Hypothalamo - ovarian reflex
Negative hypothalamo - hypophyseal reflex
Suckling reflex
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Expulsion of foetus
Sol.: Signals for parturition are originated from fully developed foetus and placenta to induce mild uterine contractions called foetal
ejection reflex. Hypothalamo-hypophyseal gonadal axis regulates endocrine function of gonads.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 189
Which of the following hormone peaks during luteal phase of ovarian cycle and is also responsible for LH surge?
Options:
Progesterone
LH
Oestrogen
FSH
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Synthesized from ovarian follicles
Sol.: Oestrogen is female sex hormone synthesized from granulosa cells of developing follicles. Oestrogen peaks two times during
menstrual cycle. First, prior to the time of ovulation during follicular phase and second time in luteal phase.
123/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 190
Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Menstrual phase Minimum level of progesterone and gonadotrophins during menstrual cycle
(2) Menarche First menstruation which begins at puberty
(3) Menopause High level of oestrogen and progesterone
(4) Menstrual cycle Cycle of events starting from one menstruation till the next one
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Menstrual cycle stops during menopause.
Sol.: During menopause, there is no developing follicles and corpus luteum within ovary. So, both oestrogen and progesterone level
rapidly falls in blood plasma. Secretion of gonadotropins markedly increases so that FSH starts to come out in urine during
menopause.
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 191
In human females, meiosis-I starts
Options:
Before birth during foetal stage of life
After birth at puberty
After puberty before menopause
During fertile age before menopause
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Oogenesis starts in intrauterine life.
Sol.: In human females, oogenesis starts before delivery of foetus. Primary oocytes enter in meiosis-I but get arrested in diplotene
stage of prophase-I.
124/129
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 192
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t tertiary follicle.
Options:
Secondary follicle transforms into tertiary follicle
It is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called antrum
Primary oocyte completes meiosis-I to form secondary oocyte and 2nd polar body
Theca layer is organised into an outer theca externa and inner theca interna
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: 2nd polar body is released during fertilization.
Sol.: Meiosis-I is completed within tertiary follicle to release secondary oocyte and first polar body. 2nd polar body is released during
fertilization on completion of meiosis-II.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 193
Structural and functional unit between developing embryo and maternal body is called
Options:
Umbilical cord
Placenta
Amnion
Yolk sac
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Structure having chorionic villi
Sol.: Structural and functional unit between developing embryo and maternal body is called placenta. Umbilical cord connects
embryo/foetus with placenta.
125/129
You scored -1 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 194
All of the following hormones increase several folds during pregnancy except
Options:
Cortisol
LH
Oestrogen
Progesterone
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Ovulatory hormone
Sol.: Increase in level of oestrogen and progesterone during pregnancy inhibits GnRH from hypothalamus which leads to decrease
in secretion of both FSH and LH.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Select the incorrect statement.
Options:
Bartholin’s glands are situated on either side of vaginal orifice in human female
Mammary glands are situated ventral to pectoralis major muscles
The number of autosomes in human secondary spermatocyte is 23
Embryo heart is formed after one month of pregnancy
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Sex chromosomes are also present in gametes.
Sol.: In humans, haploid cells contain 22 autosomes and one sex chromosome either X or Y. Pectoralis major muscles are present
in chest region upon which mammary glands are present. Bartholin’s glands are one pair in number present on either side of vaginal
orifice.
126/129
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
In human females, oogenesis is completed
Options:
Before delivery of female foetus
After delivery of female foetus but before puberty
After entry of sperm in perivitelline space
On entry of sperm within ovum during fertilization
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Oogenesis completion results in release of 2nd polar body.
Sol.: In humans, oogenesis completes during fertilization on entry of sperm within ovum resulting in release of 2nd polar body.
You scored 4 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Question : 197
Birth canal for parturition is formed by
Options:
Only vagina
Uterus and oviduct
Cervical canal and vagina
Only cervical canal
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Birth canal lined by stratified epithelium.
Sol.: Cavity of cervix is called cervical canal, which alongwith vagina forms birth canal during parturition for delivery of foetus.
127/129
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
The alveoli of mammary lobes open into which join to form a . Several mammary ducts join to form a
which is connected to . Choose the option which fill all the blanks (A, B, C, D) correctly.
A B C D
(1) Mammary tubules Mammary ampulla Mammary duct Lactiferous duct
(2) Mammary tubules Mammary duct Mammary ampulla Lactiferous duct
(3) Lactiferous duct Mammary tubules Mammary ampulla Mammary duct
(4) Lactiferous duct Mammary ampulla Mammary duct Mammary tubules
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Milk eject out through lactiferous duct
Sol.:
128/129
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
In external genitalia of human females, a cushion of adipose connective tissue which is covered by skin and pubic hairs is called
Options:
Mons pubis
Labia majora
Labia minora
Clitoris
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Lying over the joint of pubic bones
Sol.: External genitalia of female is also known as vulva and includes mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and clitoris.
Labia majora are fleshy folds of tissue surrounding vagina. Labia minora are paired folds of tissue under the labia majora. Hymen is
a membrane which partially covers vaginal orifice. Clitoris is homologous to penis of male.
You scored 0 of 4
Zoo-Section B
questions
Read the given statements and choose the incorrect option.
Options:
Fimbriae help in collection of ovum after ovulation
Stroma of ovary is divided into peripheral cortex and inner medulla
Ovaries and uterus are primary sex organs in females
Ovaries are connected to pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments
Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Primary sex organs produce gametes
Sol.: Ovaries produce gametes (ova) in females and are considered as primary sex organ. Uterus is an accessory duct that assist in
pregnancy.
129/129

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13/11/2021, 16:13 Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor

Answer keys : AIATS for One Year Medical-2022 (XII Studying)_Test-01

Hint & Sol.:

Hint & Sol.:

As Qenc is same, thus is same for all

Sol.: 10 × 10–9 × (10) = 10 × (10–9)E

Sol.: |q1| = |q2| = Ne

If a soap bubble is given an electric charge, then its radius

Consider the following two statements:

Which of the following statement about electric dipole is incorrect?

The dimensions of dipole moment is [LTA]

The SI unit of dipole moment is C m

is directed from negative charge to positive charge.

Potential difference between plates

Electric field between plates

Both (2) and (3)

As Q remains unchanged, E remains unchanged

Straight line inclined to charge axis

Straight line parallel to charge axis

Straight line parallel to capacitance axis

Hint & Sol.:

Capacitance is independent of charge.

All the three are connected in series

All the three are connected in parallel

For an isolated uniformly charged spherical conductor, the electrostatic

Potential is zero everywhere inside the conductor

Field is zero inside the conductor

Field is non-zero and uniform inside conductor

Field is non-zero and non-uniform inside the conductor

For a point charge, the equipotential surface is in shape of

Both (2) and (3)

Sol.: As per the information

and are unknown.

Thus may be 10 V/m or 20 V/m as well.

Has maximum value 20 N

Has minimum value 10 N

Both (1) and (2)

C2 and C3 are parallel

The surface of the conductor is an equipotential surface.

The electric field is continuous across the surface of conductor.

The electric field is discontinuous across the surface of conductor.

Sol.: Just outside conductor

Just inside conductor Einside = 0

Sol.: lA = Volume = constant

In the circuit as shown in the figure, the value of resistance R is

The value of current i in the following network of wires is

For measuring voltage of any circuit, potentiometer is preferred to voltmeter because

The potentiometer is cheap and easy to handle

Calibration in the voltmeter is sometimes wrong

The potentiometer draws no current during measurement

Range of the voltmeter is not as wide as that of the potentiometer

S. No. EMF Internal Resistance

V = 4.2 = e (as no current flows)

May increase or remain same

Kirchhoff’s loop law is based on conservation of

Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by

Increasing the distance between the plates

Increasing the charge on the plates