Neet (Ug) - 2022 Examination QP - 17!07!2022

NEET (UG) - 2022 | CODE-Q6
NEET(UG) 2022 EXAMINATION

Answers and Solutions
Date: 17-07-2022 Code: Q6 Max Marks : 720M
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Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3.20 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options with
a single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt
all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (Candidates are advised to read
all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the event of a
candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every wrong
response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses on Answer Sheet.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the
Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is Q6.
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Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
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9. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the
Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
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Subject : Physics
SECTION : A
1. To graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength    of a particle and its
associated momentum  p  is
1) 2) 3) 4)
Key: 4
2. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
(1) increases for both conductors and semiconductors
(2) decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
(3) increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
(4) decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors
Key: 3
3. Let Tl and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atom,
respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio Tl:T2 is
1) 1 : 4 2) 4 : 1 3) 4 : 9 4) 9 : 4
Key: 4
4. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of
length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg
mass is
10 20
1) m 2) m 3) 10 m 4) 5 m
3 3
Key: 2
5. The ratio of the distances traveled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second
1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 2) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 3) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Key: 3
6. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre
and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is
1) 2 : 1 2) 2 :1 3) 4 : 1 4) 1: 2
Key: 2
7. The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm
to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s2 is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 12 4) 104
Key: 2
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8. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure
below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which
represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Key: 2
9. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2  R1  R2  have equal charges. the
potential would be
1) more on bigger sphere
2) more on smaller sphere
3) equal on both the spheres
4) dependent on the material property of the sphere
Key: 2
10. When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity r and relative
permeability  r , the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)

r r c
1) vc 2) v 3) v 4) v
r r r r
Key: 4
11. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the
magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is
1) 6.2810 2T 2) 12.5610 2T
3) 12.56104T 4) 6.28104T
Key: 2
12. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to:
1) The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
2) The rms value of the ac source
3) 2 time the rms value of the ac source

4) 1/ 2 times the rms value of the ac source
Key: 3
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13. An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant
speed of 1.5 ms-1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000N. The minimum power

delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : g 10ms
1

1) 23000 2) 20000 3) 34500 4) 23500
Key: 3
14. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen
when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to
400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is:
1) 6 2) 8 3) 9 4) 12
Key: 4
15. A copper wire of length 10 m and radius 10 2

/   m has electrical resistance of 10 . The
current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10(V / m) is:
1) 10
4 A/ m2 2) 10 6 A/ m2 3) 10 5 A/ m2 4) 10
5 A/ m2
Key: 4
16. The dimensions  MLT 2 A2  belong to the:

 
1) Magnetic flux 2) Self inductance
3) Magnetic permeability 4) Electric permittivity
Key: 3
17. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of
a transverse wave along the string is
1) 1:1 2) 2 :1 3) 1: 2 4) 1: 2
Key: 3
18. In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be:
1) Zero 2) 30 Hz 3) 60 Hz 4) 120 Hz
Key: 3
19. The displacement – time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 300 and 450 with the x –
Axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is
1) 3:1 2) 1:1 3) 1:2 4) 1: 3

Key: 4
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20. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of
loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is
1) 2 weber 2) 0.5 weber 3) 1 weber 4) zero weber
Key: 2
21. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is:
1) 36 107 J 2) 36 104 J 3) 36 105 J 4) 1105 J
Key: 1
22. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point.
The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is:
1) 0.5 N/kg 2) 50 N/kg 3) 20 N/kg 4) 180 N/kg
Key: 2
23. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I List – II
(Electromagnetic waves) (Wavelength)
A) AM radio waves i) 1010 m
B) Microwaves ii) 102 m
C) Infrared radiations iii) 102 m
D) X-rays iv) 104 m
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), c-(ii), (d)-(i) 2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), c-(i), (d)-(iv)
3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), c-(ii), (d)-(i) 4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), c-(iv), (d)-(i)
Key: 4
24. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2
: 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed
 , the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is:
1)  2) 2 3) 2 2 4) 3 2
Key: 3
25. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the
lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is:
1) +2D 2) +20 D 3) +5D 4) Infinity
Key: 3
26. Given below are two statements:
Statements I:
Biot-Savert’s law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current
element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only
Statement II:
Biot-Savert’s law is analogous to Coulomb’s inverse square law of charge q, with the former being
related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q.
In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options give below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Key: 3
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27. In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is:

22 
11 Na  X  e  v
22 23 22 22
1) 11 Na 2) 10 Ne 3) 10 Ne 4) 12 Mg
Key: 3
28. Plane angle and solid angle have:
1) Units but no dimensions 2) Dimensions but no units
3) No units and no dimensions 4) Both units and dimensions
Key: 1
29. The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is:
1) 00 2) 450 3) 900 4) 1800
Key: 3
30. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index 3 , at an angle 600. The angle between the
refracted and reflected rays would be:
1) 300 2) 600 3) 900 4) 1200
Key: 3
31.
In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in:
(1) Circuit (a) only (2) Circuit (b) only
(3) Circuit (c) only (4) Both circuits (a) and (c)
Key: 4
32. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph

shown, which represents the speed of the ball ( ) as a function of time (t) is:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Key: 2
33. Two resistors of resistance 100 and 200 are connected in a parallel in an electrical
circuit the ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 to that in 200 in a given time is:
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
Key: 2
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
34. When two monochromatic lights of frequency,  and are incident on a photoelectric metal,
2
VS
their stopping potential becomes and VS respectively. The threshold frequency for this
2
metal is:
2 3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3)  (4) 
3 2
Key: 4
35. If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble:
(1) decreases (2) increases
(3) remains the same (4) is equal to the atmospheric pressure
Key: 1
SECTION-B
36. Two point charges, q and q are placed at a distance of L as shown in the figure.
The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R (R>>L) varies as :

1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
R2 R3 R4 R6
Key: 2
37. The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding ff the
value for correct significant digits is:
(1) 138101 (2) 1382 (3) 1382.5 (4) 14102

Key: 4
38.
The truth table for the given logic circuit is:
1) 2)
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3) 4)
Key: 3
39. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A):The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the
spring
Reason (R):A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same
dimensions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Key: 3
40. From Ampere’s circuit law for a long straight wire of circuit cross-section carrying a steady
current, the variation of magnitude field in the inside and outside region of the wire is:
(1) Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
(2) a linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing
for the outside region.
(3) a linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one
with 1/r dependence for the outside region.
(4) a linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly
increasing one for the outside for the outside region.
Key: 3
41. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10  F, resistance 50  is connected to
an ac source of voltage, V = 200 sin(100 t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is v0
and the frequency of the ac source is v, then :
1) v0  v  50Hz 2) v0  v  50 Hz

3) v0  50 Hz, v  50Hz 4) v 100Hz, v0  100 Hz
 
Key: 2
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42. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
 2 2 
a) Gravitational constant (G) (i)  LT 
 
b) Gravitational Potential energy


(ii)  M 1L3T 2 
 
c) Gravitational Potential

(iii)  LT 2 
 
 2 2 
d) Gravitational intensity (iv)  ML T 
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
a b c d
1) ii i iv iii
2) ii iv i iii
3) ii iv iii i
4) iv ii i iii
Key: 2
43. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two
are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter
pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is :
1) 11 2) 9 3) 10 4) 8
Key: 1
44. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter
at 2 rad s-1 If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2105T and

electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 then the maximum induced current in the coil will be :
1) 0.25A 2) 1.5A 3) 1A 4) 2A
Key: 3
45. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a).
Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of
capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is
:
1) 4.5106 J 2) 3.25106 J
3) 2.25106 J 4) 1.5106 J
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Key: 3
46. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of
radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is :
1) 1 : 1 2) 4 : 5 3) 5 : 4 4) 25 : 16
Key: 3
47. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the
variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the
resistances P and Q
1) should be approximately equal to 2X

2) should be approximately equal and are small
3) should be very large and unequal
4) do not play any significant role
Key: 2
48. The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular
forces vanish away is
1) 5.610 6 m3 2) 5.6103 m3
3) 5.6103 m3 4) 5.6 m3
Key: 2
49. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms-1, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed
at the highest point of its trajectory will be :
1) Zero 2) 5 3 ms1 3) 5ms1 4) 10ms1

Key: 2
50. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those
media are 1.5108 m/s and 2.0108 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light
for these two media is :
1) sin 
1 0.500
 2) sin 1  0.750 
3) tan 1  0.500  4) tan 1  0.750 
Key: 2
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Subject : Chemistry
SECTION : A
51. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionization enthalpy because of
1) small size 2) high exchange enthalpy
3) high electronegativity 4) high basic character
Key: 2
52. Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton’s Law of partial pressure?
Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture?
1) p = p1 + p2 + p3
RT RT RT
2) p  n1  n2  n3
V V V
3) pi  X i P, where pi = partial pressure of ith gas Xi = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
4)
pi  X i Pi o
, where Xi = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
Pi o =
pressure of ith gas in pure state
Key: 4
53. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion(A):
In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations
are missing from its unit cells.
Reason(R) :
In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to
interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Key: 2
54. The pH of the solution containing 50mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01M acetic
acid is [Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]
1) 5.57 2) 3.57 3)4.57 4) 2.57
Key: 1
55. Identify the incorrect statement from the following
1) Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides
2) The oxidation number of K in KO2 is + 4
3) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group
4) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals
Key: 2
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56. Given below are two statements

Statement I : The acidic strength of monosubstitued nitrophenol is higher than phenol
because of electron withdrawing nitro group.
Statement II :
o-nitrophenol, m- nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they
have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.
given below:
1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
2) Both statement I and Statements II are incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Key: 3
57. What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralize 50 mL of 0.5M HCl solution
according to the following reaction?
CaCO3 s   2 HCl aq   CaCl2 aq   CO2 g   2 H 2O1
[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
1) 1.25g 2) 1.32g 3) 3.65g 4) 9.50g
Key: 2
58. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is
1) Ununennium 2) Unnilennium
3) Unununnium 4) ununoctium
Key: 1
59. Choose the correct statement:
1) Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network
2) Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic
3) Diamond is sp3 hybridised and graphite is sp3 hybridized
4) both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
Key: 3
60. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is
in the order Al 3  Ba 2  Na 
Statement II:
In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the
order
NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4
given below
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4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Key: 3
61. Which of the following p – V curve represents maximum work done?
1) 2)
3) 4)
Key: 2
Statement I:
Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.
Statement II: Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which
are stable even above 300 K.
given below:
(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Key: 3
63. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
1) The bond orders of O2 , O2 , O2 and O22 are 2.5,2,1.5 and 1, respectively
2) C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate  molecular orbitals

3) H 2 ion has one electron

4) O2 ion is diamagnetic
Key: 4
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dry H 3O 
64. RMgX  CO2 
 Y 
 RCOOH ether
What is Y in the above reaction?
 
1) RCOO Mg X
2) R3CO- Mg+ X
3) RCOO  X 
4)  RCOO 2 Mg
Key: 1
65. Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?
1) Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces.
2) Fibers possess high tensile strength.
3) Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and
cooling respectively.
4) Thermosetting polymers are reusable.
Key: 4
66. Given below are half-cell reactions:

MnO -4 + 8H + + 5e -  Mn 2+ + 4H 2O, E oMn 2+ / MnO- = -1.510V
4
1
O 2 + 2H + + 2e-  H 2O, EoO 2 / H 2O = +1.223V
2
Will the permanganate ion, MnO4 liberate O 2 from water in the presence of an acid?
o
1) Yes, because Ecell  0.287V
o
2) No, because Ecell  0.287V
o
3) Yes, because Ecell  2.733V
o
4) No, because Ecell  2.733V
Key: 1
67. The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount
of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?
1) 2) 3) 4)
Key: 3
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68. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is :

(1) Enzymes are biocatalysts.
(2) Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.
(3) Enzymes are polysaccharides.
(4) Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
Key: 3
69. The IUPAC name of the complex –
[Ag (H2O)2] [Ag(CN)2] is:
1) dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
2) diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
3) dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)
4) diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
Key: 4
70. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(Drug class) (Drug molecule)
(a) Antacids (i) Salvarsan
(b) Antihistamines (ii) Morphine
(c) Analgesics (iii) Cimetidine
(d) Antimicrobials (iv) Seldane
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Key: 2
71. Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair-lone pair’ electron
repulsions?
1) CIF3 2) IF5 3) SF4 4) XeF2
Key: 4
72. At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu 2+ / Cu, Zn 2+ / Zn,Fe 2+ / Fe and
Ag + / Ag are 0.34V,-0.76V,-0.44V and 0.80V respectively.
On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction
cannot occur?
1) CuSO4 aq   Zn s   ZnSO4 aq   Cu s 
2) CuSO4 aq   Fe s   FeSO4 aq   Cu s 
3) FeSO4 aq   Zn s   ZnSO4  aq   Fe s 
4) 2CuSO
4 aq 
 2 Ag s   2Cu s   Ag 2 SO4  aq 
Key: 4
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73. Identify the incorrect statement from the following

1) All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals
2) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals
3) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state
4) The shapes of d xy , d yz and d zx orbitals are similar to each other; and
d x2  y 2 and d z 2 are similar to each other.
Key: 4
74. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is
1) 500 mL of solvent 2) 500 g of solvent
3) 100 mL of solvent 4) 100 g of solvent
Key: 2
75. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : ICI is more reactive than I2
Reason (R) : I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond
given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Key: 1
76. Which compound amongst the following is not and aromatic compound?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Key: 4
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Statement I: The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in
the order- H 2O < H 2S < H 2Se < H 2 Te
Statement II: The boiling points of these hydrides increase in molar mass.
given below:
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Key: 2
List-I List-II
(a) Li (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide
(b) Na (ii) electrochemical cells
(c) KOH (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactor
(d) Cs (iv) photoelectric cell
1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
Key: 4
79. Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
1) Benzene, Cl2 , anhydrous FeCl3
2) Phenol, NaNO2 , HCl , CuCl
, HCI
3)
NH2
, HCI, Heating
4)
Key: 1
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80. Give below are two statements:

Statement I:
The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable
molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to
dipole – dipole interactions.
Statement II:
The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar
molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
given below:
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Key: 1
81. Match List- I and List – II
(Products formed) (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
a)Cyanohydrin i) NH OH
2
b) Acetal ii) RNH
2
c)Schiff’s base iii) alcohol
d)Oxime iv) HCN
1) (a)-(iii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (ii), (d)- (i)
2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Key: 4
82. The incorrect statement regarding chirality is
1) SN1 reaction yields 1: 1 mixture of both enantiomers
2)The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows
inversion of configuration
3)Enantiomers are superiomposable mirror images on each other
4)A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
Key: 3
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83. Match List – I with List – II

(Hydrides) (Nature)
a)MgH2 i)Electron precise
b)GeH4 ii)Electron deficient
c) B2H6 iii) Electron rich
d) HF iv) Ionic
1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iii)
2) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iv)
3) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(iii)
4) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
Key: 1
84. Which of the following statements is not correct about diborane?
1)There are two 3-centre -2-electron bonds
2)The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds
3)The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two boron atoms lie in one plane
4)Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised
Key: 4
85. The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction
constant temperature T
y
x
The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are
1)zero order (y=concentration and x= time), first order(y = t1/2 and x = concentration)
2)zero order (y= concentration and x= time), first order (y= rate constant and x = concentration)
3)zero order (y= rate and x = concentration), first order (y= t1/2 and x = concentration)
4)zero order (y= rate and x = concentration), first order (y= rate and x =t1/2)
Key: 2
List – I List- II
(Ores) (Composition)
a)Haematite i)Fe3O4
b)Magnetite ii)ZnCO3
c)Calamine iii) Fe2O3

d)Kaolinite iv)  Al  OH  Si O 
 2 4 2 5
19 | P a g e

1) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)
2) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iv)
3) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)
4) (a)-(i),(b)-(iii),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iv)
Key: 2
87. A 10.0 L flask contains 64g of oxygen at 270C. (Assume O2 gas is behaving ideally).The
pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K-1 mol-1)
1)2.5 2)498.6 3)49.8 4)4.9
Key: 4
88. For a first order reaction A  products, initial concentration of A is 0.1M which
becomes 0.001M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min 1 is
1)1.3818 2)0.9212 3) 0.4606 4)0.2303
Key: 2
89. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes
   
2    
2 2
A)  Ni H O  en 
   B)  Ni H O  en
   and c)  Ni  en 3 
  2 2  2   2 4    
is
1)A > B > C 2) C > B > A 3) C > A > B 4) B > A > C
Key: 3
90. 3O  g   2O  g 
2 3
For the above reaction at 298 K, Kc is found to be 3.01059 . If the concentration of
O2 at equilibrium is 0.040M then concentration of O3 in M is
1) 4.381032 2) 1.91063 3) 2.41031 4) 1.21021
Key: 1
91. Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K
Ni(s) + 2Ag + (0.001M)  Ni 2+ (0.001M) + 2Ag(s)

o 2.303 RT
(Given that Ecell = 10.5 V, = 0.059 at 298 K)
F
1)1.385 V 2) 1.385 V 3) 0.9615 V 4) 1.05 V
Key: 3
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92. Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2- pentanone in the
presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?
1) 2)
3) 4)
Key: 2
93. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:
1) 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
2) 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-ol
3) 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan -3-ol
4) 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chorohexan-4-ol
Key: 1
94. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr
orbit of Li2+ ion ?
0
1) 158.7 pm 2) 15.87 pm 3) 1.587 pm 4) 158.7 A
Key: 1
95. Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/ H2O gives formaldehyde and 2- methyl
propanal as products. The compound X is:
1)3-Methylbut-1-ene 2) 2-Methylbut-1-ene
3) 2-Methylbut-2-ene 4) pent-2-ene
Key: 1
96. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change
in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from
1) +7 to +4 2) +6 to +4 3) +7 to +3 4) +6 to +5
Key: 1
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97. The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of:
a) particulate matter
b) ozone
c) hydrocarbons
d) hydrogen peroxide
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) (a),(d) only 2) (a) ,(b),(d) only
3) (b), (c), (d) only 4) (a),(c),(d) only
Key: 2
Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on
the basis of their reactivity with conc, HCl+ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent
Statements II:
Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent
given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statements II are correct
2) Both Statements I and Statements II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Incorrect
Key: 3
99. Copper crystallizes in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608×10-8 cm. The density of
copper is 8.92 gcm-3 . Calculate the atomic mass of copper.
1) 63.1 u 2) 31.55 u 3) 60 u 4) 65 u
Key: 1
100. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is
1) 2) 3) 4)
Key: 4
22 | P a g e
Subject : Botany
SECTION : A
101. Given below are two statements: on is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A):Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification
Reason ( R): The ampicilolin resistant gene is used as a selectable markser to check
transformation
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
2) Bothe (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Key: 2
102. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as:
1) The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
2) The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
3) Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA
4) The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
Key: 1
103. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:
1) Speed up the malting process
2) Promote root growth and roothair formation to increase the absorption surface
3) Help overcome apical dominance
4) Kill dicoty ledonous weeds in the fields
Key: 2
104. Exoskeletion of arthropods in composed of:
1) Cutin 2) Cellulose 3) Chitin 4) Glucosamine
Key: 3
105. Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway?
1) Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells.
2) The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane
3) The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming
4) Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement.
Key: 3
106. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?
1) In vitro fertilization 2) National Parks
3) Micropropagation 4) Cryopreservation
Key: 2
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List - I List – II
a) Manganese i) Activates the enzyme catalase
b) Magnesium ii) Required for pollen germination
c) Boron iii) Activates enzymes of respiration
d) Iron iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis
Choose the correct answer from the potions given below:
1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
Key: 2
108. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis
technique?
1) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution
2) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide
3) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel
4) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to
UV light
Key: 3
109. Which one of the following in not true regarding the release of energy during ATP
synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:
1) Breakdown of proton gradient
2) Breakdown of electron gradient
3) Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
4) Reduction of NADP to NADPH 2 on the stroma side of the membrane
Key: 2
110. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:
1) Genetic mapping
2) DNA finger printing
3) Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing
4) Translation
Key: 3
111. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction
are causes for:
1) Population explosion 2) Competition
3) Biodiversity loss 4) Natality
Key: 3
112. The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal
power plant is:
1) STP 2) Incinerator
3) Electrostatic precipitator 4) Catalytic convertor
Key: 3
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113. Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
1) Cotton 2) Coriander 3) Buttercup 4) Maize
Key: 4
114. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to predation?
1) It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
(2) It might lead to extinction of a species
(3) Both the interacting species are negatively impacted
(4) It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance
Key: 3
115. What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?
1) Approximately 15% 2) More than 18%
3) About 10% 4) Less than 7%
Key: 4
Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed
the laws of inheritance.
Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were
seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position
and stem height.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answers from the options given
below:
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Key: 1
117. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler
substances by microbes .
Statement II : Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin
below:
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Key: 3
118. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
(c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(e) A typical nucleosome contain 400 bp of DNA helix
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
1) (b), (d) , (e) only 2) (a), (c), (d) only
3) (b), (e) only 4) (a), (c), (e) only
Key: 2
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119. Which one of the following plants show vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
1) Colchium autumnale 2) Pisum sativum
3) allium cepa 4) Solanum nigrum
Key: 2
120. In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect
attack due to:
(a) secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels
(b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins the central layers of stem
(c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem
(d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of
stem
(e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (c) and (d) only
3) (d) and (e) only 4) (b) and (d) only
Key: 1
121. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles:
a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate
manner along the different radii
b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium
c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem
d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem
e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
1) a, b and d only 2) b, c, d, and e only
3) a), b, c and d only 4) a, c, d and e only
Key: 2,3
122. Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?
1) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
2) Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles
3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
4) Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
Key: 3
123. Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of
the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known
to produce female flowers in the plants:
1) ABA 2) Gibberellin 2) Ethylene 4) Cytokinin
Key: 3
124. The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
a) Mustard b) Gulmohar c) Cassia d) Datura
d) Chilly
1) a, b, c only 2) b, c only
3) d, e only 4) c, d, e only
Key: 2
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125. Identify the correct set of statements:

a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in citrus and Bougainvillea
b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in opuntia and modified to perform the function of
leaves
d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for
respiration
e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation.

1) b and c only 2) a and d only
3) b, c, d and e only 4) a, b, d and e only
Key: 3
126. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
1) Ectocarpus – Fucoxanthin 2) Ulothrix – Mannitol
3) Porphyra – Floridian starch 4) Volvox – Starch
Key: 2
127. Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?
1) Rhizobium 2) Frankia 3) Rhodospirillum 4) Beijernickia
Key: 2
128. Identify the incorrect statement related to pollination:
1) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
2) Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
3) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
4) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
Key: 4
Statement I:
Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II:
Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination
Below.
1) Bothe Statement I and Statement II are correct
2) Bothe Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Key: 1
130. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from
1) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
3) Rhodophyceae only
4) Phaeophyceae only
Key: 3
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131. What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules
of pyruvic acid?
1) Four 2) Six 3) Two 4) Eight
Key: 3
132. The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis
characterizes:
1) Synaptonemal complex 2) Bivalent
3) Sites at which crossing over occurs 4) Terminalization
Key: 3
Statement I:
The primary co2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the
mesophyll cells.
Statement II:
Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo enzyme
below.
1) Bothe statement I and statement II are correct
2) Bothe Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Key: 1
134. “Girdling Experiment” was performed by plant physiologists to identify the plant tissue
through which:
1) Water is transported
2) Food is transported
3) For both water and food transportation
4) Osmosis is observed
Key: 3
135. XO type of sex determination can be found in:
1) Drosophila 2) Birds 3) Grasshoppers 4) Monkes
Key: 3
SECTION-B
136. Addition of more solutes in a given solution will:
1) raise its water potential 2) lower its water potential
3) make its water potential zero 4) not affect the water potential at all
Key: 2
137. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism,
followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him
is called as :
1) Sequence annotation 2) Gene mapping
3) Expressed sequence tags 4) Bioinformatics
Key: 1
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138. Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait?
1) Sickle cell anaemia 2) Myotonic dystrophy
3) Haemophilia 4) Thalessemia
Key: 2
139. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) :Mendel’s law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes
that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements,
chose the correct answer from the options given below :
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the not the correct explanation of (A)
Key: 3
140. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit ?
1) A  Mesocarp 2) B  Endocarp
3) C  Thalamus 4) D  Seed
Key: 3
141. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of
statements:
a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid
b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds
c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed
1) a, b and c only 2) a, d and e only
3) c, d and e only 4) a, b and d only
Key: 3
142. Transposons can be used during which one of the following?
1) Polymerase Chain Reaction 2) Gene silencing
3) Autoradiography 4) Gene sequencing
Key: 2
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143. While explaining interspecific interaction of population (+) sign is assigned

for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction and
(0) for neutral interaction, which of the following interactions can be assigned
(+) for one species and (-) for another species involved in the interaction?
1) Predation 2) Amensalism
3) Commensalism 4) Competition
Key: 1
144. In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut
easily by particular restriction enzyme?
1) 5’ G A T A C T 3’; 3’ C T A T G A 5’
2) 5’ G A A T T C 3’ ; 3’ C T T A A G 5’
3) 5’ C T C A G T 3’ ; 3’ G A G T C A 5’
4) 5’ G T A T T C 3’ ; 3’ C A T A A G 5’
Key: 2
145. Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?
1) Burning of fossil fuels 2) Volcanic activity
3) Weathering of rocks 4) Rain fall and storms
Key: 3
146. The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to
this, which one of the following statements is false?
1) CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
2) The same diesel engine is used in CNG buses making the cost of conversion low
3) It is cheaper than diesel
4) It can not be adulterated like diesel
Key: 2
147. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:
a) Spirogyra i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular
plant, with highly reduced male or female
gametophyte
b) Fern ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte
c) Funaria iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating
with reduced gametophyte called prothallus
d) Cycas iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte
alternating with partially dependent
multicellular sporophyte.
1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c)- (ii), (d) – (iii)
2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c)- (iv), (d) – (i)
3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c)- (i), (d) – (ii)
4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c)- (i), (d) – (iii)
Key: 2
30 | P a g e

a) Metacentric chromosome i) Centromere situated close to the end forming
one extremely short and one very long arms
b) Acrocentric chromosome ii) Centromere at the terminal end
c) Sub-metacentric iii) Centromere in the middle forming two equal
arms of chromosomes
d) Telocentric chromosome iv) Centromere slightly away from the
middle forming one shorter arm and one longer
arm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:.
1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c)- (iv), (d) – (ii)
2) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c)- (ii), (d) – (iv)
3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c)- (iv), (d) – (i)
4) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c)- (iii), (d) – (iv)
Key: 1
149. The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the
correct set of statements about springwood.
a) It is also called as the earlywood
b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels
c) It is lighter in colour
d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings
forming annual rings
e) It has lower density
1) a, b, d and e only 2) a, c, d and e only
3) a, b and d only 4) c, d and e only
Key: 2
150. What is the role of large bundle shealth cells found around the vascular
bundles in C4 plants?
1) To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway
2) To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle
3) To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature
4) To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity
Key: 2
31 | P a g e
Subject : Zoology
SECTION : A
Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into
lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.
given below:
1) Both statements I and Statements II are correct
Key: 1
Statement I: The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
given below:
Key: 3
153. Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?
1) It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
2) Inhaled air is humidified
3) Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature
4) Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2
Key: 4
154. Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an
immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporine A:
1) Trichoderma polysporum 2) Clostridium butylicum
3) Aspergillus niger 4) Streptococcus cerevisiae
Key: 1
155. Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood
can deliver _________ ml of O2 to the tissues.
1) 2 ml 2) 5 ml 3) 4 ml 4) 10 ml
Key: 2
156. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from:
1) Prothorax 2) Mesothorax
3) Metathorax 4) Prothorax and Mesothorax
Key: 1
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157. In-situ conservation refers to:

1) Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
2) Conserve only high risk species
3) Conserve only endangered species
4) Conserve only extinct species
Key: 2
158. Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:
1) Catabolism 2) Fragmentation
3) Humification 4) Decomposition
Key: 3
159. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for
C6 H12O6
glucose is then what is the formula for maltose?
1) C12 H 20 O10 2) C12 H 24O12

3) C12 H 22O11 4) C12 H 24O11
Key: 2
160. Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium:
1) Zoospores 2) Conidia 3) Gemmules 4) Buds
Key: 2
161. Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:
1) All the chromosomes lie at equator at metaphase.
2) Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes.
3) Chromosomes decondense at telophase
4) Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase
Key: 2
162. Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
1) RER has ribosomes attached to ER
2) SER is devoid of ribosomes
3) In prokaryotes only RER are present
4) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
Key: 3
163. In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct
in case of animals?
1) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
2) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species
3) Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
4) Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
Key: 1
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164. In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and
gizzard?
1) Corvus, Columba, Chameleon 2) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
3) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus 4) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
Key: 4
Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.
given below:
Key: 3
166. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
1) Blood 2) Adipose tissue 3) Cartilage 4) Neuroglia
Key: 4
167. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:
1) Ornithorhynchus 2) Salamandra
3) Hippocampus 4) Pavo
Key: 4
168. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
given below:
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Key: 1
169. Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
1) Arthritis – Inflammed joints
2
2) Tetany – high Ca level causing rapid spasms
3) Myasthemia gravis – Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
4) Muscular dystrophy – An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal
muscle
Key: 1
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170. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
given below:
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Key: 3
171. In an E.coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product cannot bind the inducer molecule. If
growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome
1) Only z gene will get transcribed
2) z, y, a genes will be transcribed
3) z, y, a genes will not be translated
4) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
Key: 4
172. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of
base pairs?
1) 3.3 109 bp 2) 6.6 109 bp
6 6
3) 3.3 10 bp 4) 6.6 10 bp
Key: 1
173. Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for
Oogenesis?
a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis
c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population
d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone
(FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary
e) It is initiated at puberty
1) (c) and (e) only 2) (b) and (c) only
3) (b), (d) and (e) only 4) (b), (c) and (e) only
Key: 4
174. Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
1) Intercalated discs 2) Cartilage
3) Areolar tissue 4) Smooth muscle
Key: 2
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175. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

1) There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis –I and II
2) DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II
3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II
Key: 2
Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defence mechanism recognizes
its own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.
given below:
1) Both Statements I and Statement II are correct
Key: 3
177. Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the
mean character value, leads to:
1) Stabilising charge 2) Directional change
3) Disruptive change 4) Random change
Key: 2
Statement I: The coagulum is formed network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
given below:
Key: 2
179. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and
healthier fats is called:
1) Bio-magnification 2) Bio-remediation
3) Bio-fortification 4) Bio-accumulation
Key: 3
180. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic
infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:
1) Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes
2) Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages
3) Lymphocytes from patient’s blood are grown in culture, outside the body.
4) Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
Key: 4
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181. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

1) Puberty 2) Embryonic development stage
3) Birth 4) Adult
Key: 2
182. Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
1) Cervical barrier 2) Vault barrier
3) Non-Medicated IUD 4) Copper releasing IUD
Key: 3
183. Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
1) Control bacterial population in mouth
2) Digestion of complex carbohydrates
3) Lubrication of oral cavity
4) Digestion of disaccharides
Key: 4
184. If ‘8’ Drosophilia in a laboratory population of ‘80’ dies during a week, the death rate in
the population is individuals per Drosophila per week.
1) 0.1 2) 10 3) 1.0 4) zero
Key: 1
Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognize specific sequence to cut DNA known as
palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the
palindromic site.
given below:
Key: 1
186. Which of the following is a correct statement?
1) Cyanobacteria area a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera
2) Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms
3) Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera
4) Mycoplasma have DNA, Ribosome and cell wall
Key: 1
187. Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct
about genetically engineered Insulin?
a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide
b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and
combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional
hormone.
e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
1) (a), (b) and (d) only 2) (b) only
3) (c) and (d) only 4) (c), (d) and (e) only
Key: 2
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Statement I: In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric
wires to charge the dust particles.
Statement II: Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed
by an electrostatic precipitator.
given below:
Key: 4
189. The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a
& b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a
linear chromosome?
1) a, d, b, c 2) d, b, a, c 3) a, b, c, d 4) a, c, b, d
Key: 4
List-I List-II
(Biological Molecules) (Biological functions)
(a) Glycogen (i) Hormone
(b) Globulin (ii) Biocatalyst
(c) Steroids (iii) Antibody
(d) Thrombin (iv) Storage product
1) (a) –(iii), (b) –(ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i) 2) (a) –(iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
3) (a) –(ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i) 4) (a) –(iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
Key: 4
List-I List-II
(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation
(b) Contraceptive pills (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus
(c) Intra Uterine Devices (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation
following parturition
(d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of
sperms
1) (a) –(iv), (b) –(i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii) 2) (a) –(iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
3) (a) –(ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii) 4) (a) –(iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
Key: 2
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192. Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Decreases Ca 2 level in blood
2
(c) Reabsorption of Ca by renal tubules
2
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca digested food
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
Choose the most appropriate answer from options given below:
1) (a) and (c) only 2) (b), (d) and (e) only
3) (a) and (e) only 4) (b) and (c) only
Key: 2
193. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
1) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
2) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
3) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter
4) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
Key: 4
15
194. Ten E.coli cells with N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14 N nucleotide.
15
After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from N?
1) 20 cells 2) 40 cells 3) 60 cells 4) 80 cells
Key: 3
195. If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also a colour blind, what are the
chances of her progeny having colour blindness?
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100%
Key: 4
196. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?
1) Presence of origin of replication
2) Presence of a marker gene
3) Presence of single restriction enzyme site
4) Presence of two or more recognition sites
Key: 4
List-I List-II
(a) Bronchioles (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue
(b) Goblet cell (ii) Loose Connective Tissue
(c) Tendons (iii) Glandular Tissue
(d) Adipose Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium
1) (a) –(iv), (b) –(iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii) 2) (a) –(i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
3) (a) –(ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i) 4) (a) –(iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
Key: 1
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198. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
2) The tricuspid and bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous
contraction of the atria
3) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
4) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
Key: 3
199. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:
1) The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an
electrical synapse.
2) Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical
synapse.
3) Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters
4) Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical
synapse.
Key: 4
200. Which of the following statements is not true?
1) Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.
2) Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
3) Homology indicates common ancestry
4) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
Key: 4
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NEET (UG) - 2022 | CODE-Q6

NEET(UG) 2022 EXAMINATION

permeability  r , the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)

3) 2 time the rms value of the ac source

15. A copper wire of length 10 m and radius 10 2

16. The dimensions  MLT 2 A2  belong to the:

1) 3:1 2) 1:1 3) 1:2 4) 1: 3

27. In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is:

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R (R>>L) varies as :

(1) 138101 (2) 1382 (3) 1382.5 (4) 14102

The truth table for the given logic circuit is:

42. Match List-I with List-II

b) Gravitational Potential energy

1) should be approximately equal to 2X

1) Zero 2) 5 3 ms1 3) 5ms1 4) 10ms1

56. Given below are two statements

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2) C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate  molecular orbitals

66. Given below are half-cell reactions:

68. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is :

73. Identify the incorrect statement from the following

77. Given below are two statements:

80. Give below are two statements:

83. Match List – I with List – II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Ni(s) + 2Ag + (0.001M)  Ni 2+ (0.001M) + 2Ag(s)

107. Match List-I with List-II

125. Identify the correct set of statements:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

143. While explaining interspecific interaction of population (+) sign is assigned

148. Match List – I with List – II

157. In-situ conservation refers to:

1) C12 H 20 O10 2) C12 H 24O12

175. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

181. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

188. Given below are two statements:

198. Which one of the following statements is correct?

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