Physical Science Majorship LET SEPTEMBER 2022

1. Which is the most fundamental of the physical sciences?

(a) astronomy (b) chemistry (c) physics (d) meteorology

2. Which one of the following is a concise statement about a fundamental relationship in nature?
(a) hypothesis (b) law (c) theory (d) experiment

3. Which human sense is first in supplying the most information about the external world?
(a) touch (b) taste (c) sight (d) hearing

4. Which is the standard unit of mass in the metric system?

(a) gram (b) kilogram (c) slug (d) pound

5. Which one of the following is not a fundamental quantity?

(a) length (b) weight (c) mass (d) time

6. Which metric prefix means “one-thousandth”?

(a) centi- (b) milli- (c) mega- (d) kilo-

7. Which metric prefix means “thousand”?

(a) centi- (b) milli- (c) mega- (d) kilo-

8. Which of the following metric prefixes is the smallest?

(a) micro- (b) centi- (c) nano- (d) milli-

9. How many base units are there in the SI?

(a) four (b) five (c) six (d) seven

10. Which combination of units expresses density?

(a) mass/(time)3
(b) mass/(kg)3
(c) mass/(length)3
(d) mass/m2

11. What is the expression 1 in. = 2.54 cm properly called?

(a) equation
(b) conversion factor
(c) SI factor
(d) equivalence statement

12. A student measures the length and width of a rectangle to be 49.4 cm and 0.590 cm,
respectively. Wanting to find the area (in cm2) of this rectangle, the student multiplies on a
calculator and obtains a result of 2.9146. The area should be reported as ___.
(a) 2914.6 cm2
(b) 2915 cm2
(c) 2.9 x 103 cm2
(d) 2.91 x 102 cm2

13. Which of the following numbers has the greatest number of significant figures?
(a) 103.07
(b) 124.5
(c) 0.09914
(d) 5.048 x 105

14. What is necessary to designate a position?

(a) fundamental units
(b) motion

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(c) a direction
(d) a reference point

15. Which one of the following describes an object in motion?

(a) A period of time has passed.
(b) Its position is known.
(c) It is continuously changing position.
(d) It has reached its final position.

16. Which one of the following is always true about the magnitude of a displacement?
(a) It is greater than the distance traveled.
(b) It is equal to the distance traveled.
(c) It is less than the distance traveled.
(d) It is less than or equal to the distance traveled.

17. Distance is to displacement as ___.

(a) centimeters is to meters
(b) a vector is to a scalar
(c) speed is to velocity
(d) distance is to time

18. Acceleration may result from what?

(a) an increase in speed
(b) a decrease in speed
(c) a change in direction
(d) all of the preceding

19. For a constant linear acceleration, what changes uniformly?

(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) distance
(d) displacement

20. Which one of the following is true for a deceleration?

(a) The velocity remains constant.
(b) The acceleration is negative.
(c) The acceleration is in the direction opposite to the velocity.
(d) The acceleration is zero.

21. Which is true for an object in free fall?

(a) It has frictional effects.
(b) It has a constant velocity.
(c) It has a constant displacement.
(d) It increases in distance proportionally to t2.

22. If the speed of an object in uniform circular motion is tripled and the radial distance remains
constant, then the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration increases by what factor?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 9

23. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following is true for a ball thrown at an angle u to the
horizontal?
(a) It has a constant velocity in the 1x direction.
(b) It has a constant acceleration in the 2y direction.
(c) It has a changing velocity in the 1y direction.
(d) All of the preceding are true.

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11. In the absence of air resistance, a projectile launched at an angle of 288 above the horizontal
will have the same range as a projectile launched at which of the following angles?
(a) 458
(b) 578
(c) 628
(d) 1808 2 338 5 1478

12. A football is thrown on a long pass. Compared to the ball’s initial horizontal velocity, the
velocity at the highest point is ___.
(a) greater
(b) less
(c) the same

13. Mass is related to an object’s ___.

(a) weight
(b) inertia
(c) density
(d) all of the preceding

14. What is a possible state of an object in the absence of a net force?

(a) at rest
(b) constant speed
(c) zero acceleration
(d) all of the preceding

15. What term refers to the tendency of an object to remain at rest or in uniform, straight-line
motion?
(a) mass
(b) force
(c) inertia
(d) external force

16. What is necessary for a change in velocity?

(a) inertia
(b) an unbalanced force
(c) a zero net force
(d) a change in direction

17. According to Newton’s second law of motion, when an object is acted upon by an unbalanced
force, what can be said about the acceleration?
(a) It is inversely proportional to the object’s mass.
(b) It is zero.
(c) It is inversely proportional to the net force.
(d) It is independent of mass.

18. A net force ___.

(a) can produce motion
(b) is a scalar quantity
(c) is capable of producing a change in velocity
(d) both (a) and (c)

19. For every action force, there is which of the following?

(a) a net force
(b) a friction force
(c) an unbalanced force
(d) an equal and opposite force

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20. Which is true of the force pair of Newton’s third law?

(a) The two forces never produce an acceleration.
(b) The two forces act on different objects.
(c) The two forces always cancel each other.
(d) The two forces are in the same direction.

21. Which is true about the acceleration due to gravity?

(a) It is a universal constant.
(b) It is a fundamental property.
(c) It decreases with increasing altitude.
(d) It is different for different objects in free fall.

22. Work is done on an object when it is _____

(a) moved
(b) stationary
(c) acted on by a balanced force
(d) none of the preceding

23. Which of the following is a unit of work?

(a) W
(b) J/s
(c) N/s
(d) N/m

24. What is the SI unit of energy?

(a) ft/lb
(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) joule

25. Which of the following objects has the greatest kinetic energy?
(a) an object with a mass of 4m and a velocity of v
(b) an object with a mass of 3m and a velocity of 2v
(c) an object with a mass of 2m and a velocity of 3v
(d) an object with a mass of m and a velocity of 4v

26. When negative work is done on a moving object, its kinetic energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant

27. The reference point for gravitational potential energy may be which of the following?
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) all of the preceding

28. When the height of an object is changed, the gravitational potential energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) depends on the reference point
(d) remains constant

29. Energy cannot be ___ .

(a) created
(b) conserved
(c) transferred

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(d) in more than one form

30. On which of the following does the speed of a falling object depend?
(a) mass
(b) "Dh
(c) 12 mv2
(d) parallel distance

31. Power is expressed by which of the following units?

(a) J/s
(b) N?m
(c) W?s
(d) W/m

32. If one motor has three times as much power as another, then the less powerful motor ___ .
(a) can do the same work in three times the time
(b) can do the same work in the same time
(c) can do the same work in one-third the time
(d) can never do the same work as the larger motor

33. In the United States, which one of the following sectors consumes the most energy?
(a) residential
(b) commercial
(c) industry
(d) transportation

34. Which one of the following would not be classified as a total alternative fuel source?
(a) photocells
(b) gasohol
(c) windmills
(d) wood

35. Which of the following renewable energy sources currently produces the most energy?
(a) wind power
(b) solar power
(c) hydropower
(d) tidal power

36. Temperature is ____ .

(a) a measure of heat
(b) a relative measure of hotness and coldness
(c) internal energy in transit
(d) both (b) and (c)

37. Which unit of the following is smaller?

(a) a degree Fahrenheit
(b) a kelvin
(c) a degree Celsius

38. Which of the following is the largest unit of heat energy?

(a) kilocalorie
(b) calorie
(c) joule
(d) Btu

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39. The specific heat of substance A is 10 times that of substance B. If equal amounts of heat are
added to equal masses of the substances, then the temperature increase of substance A would
be ___
(a) the same as that of B
(b) 10 times that of B
(c) one-tenth that of B
(d) none of the preceding

40. Which of the following methods of heat transfer generally involves mass movement?
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation

41. The heat we get from the Sun is transferred through space by which process?
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all of the preceding

42. In which of the following is intermolecular bonding greatest?

(a) solids
(b) liquids
(c) gases

43. Which of the following has a definite volume but no definite shape?
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) plasma

44. Pressure is defined as

(a) force
(b) force times area
(c) area divided by force
(d) force divided by area

45. When we use the ideal gas law, the temperature must be in which of the following units?
(a) 8C
(b) 8F
(c) K

46. When heat is added to a system, it goes into which of the following?
(a) doing work only
(b) adding to the internal energy only
(c) doing work, increasing the internal energy, or both

47. The direction of a natural process is indicated by which of the following?

(a) conservation of energy
(b) change in entropy
(c) thermal efficiency
(d) specific heat

48. A wave with particle oscillation parallel to the direction of propagation is a(n) _____ .
(a) transverse wave
(b) longitudinal wave
(c) light wave
(d) none of the preceding

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49. If a piece of ribbon were tied to a stretched string carrying a transverse wave, then how is the
ribbon observed to oscillate?
(a) perpendicular to wave direction
(b) parallel to wave direction
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)

50. The energy of a wave is related to the square of which of the following?
(a) amplitude
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) period

51. How fast do electromagnetic waves travel in vacuum?

(a) 3.00 3 108 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s2
(c) 344 m/s
(d) 3.44 3 106 m/s

52. Which of the following is true for electromagnetic waves?

(a) They have different speeds in vacuum for different frequencies.
(b) They are longitudinal waves.
(c) They require a medium for propagation.
(d) None of the preceding is true.

53. Which one of the following regions has frequencies just slightly less than the visible region in
the electromagnetic frequency spectrum?
(a) radio wave
(b) ultraviolet
(c) microwave
(d) infrared

54. The speed of sound is generally greatest in ____ .

(a) gases
(b) liquids
(c) solids
(d) vacuum

55. Which of the following sound frequencies would not be heard by the human ear?
(a) 25 Hz
(b) 900 Hz
(c) 20 kHz
(d) 25 kHz

56. A sound with an intensity level of 30 dB is how many times louder than the threshold of
hearing?
(a) 10
(b) 3000
(c) 100
(d) 1000

57. A moving observer approaches a stationary sound source. What does the observer hear?
(a) an increase in frequency
(b) a decrease in frequency
(c) the same frequency as the source

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58. Which of the following properties does not change in the Doppler effect?
(a) wavelength
(b) speed
(c) frequency
(d) period

59. If an astronomical light source were moving toward us, then what would be observed?
(a) a blueshift
(b) a shift toward longer wavelengths
(c) a shift toward lower frequencies
(d) a sonic boom

60. Which of the following occur(s) when a stretched string is shaken at one of its natural
frequencies?
(a) standing waves
(b) resonance
(c) maximum energy transfer
(d) all of the preceding

61. For ray reflections from a surface, which statement is true?

(a) The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence.
(b) The reflection angle is measured from a line perpendicular to the reflecting surface.
(c) The rays lie in the same plane.
(d) All the preceding are true.

62. To what does the law of reflection apply?

(a) regular reflection
(b) specular reflection
(c) diffuse reflection
(d) all the preceding

63. What is the case when the angle of refraction is smaller than the angle of incidence?
(a) The critical angle is exceeded.
(b) The first medium is less dense.
(c) The second medium has a smaller index of refraction.
(d) The speed of light is greater in the second medium.

64. In refraction, which of the following wave properties is unchanged?

(a) frequency
(b) wavelength
(c) speed
(d) both (a) and (b)

65. What is the unit of the index of refraction?

(a) m
(b) none; it is unitless
(c) m/s
(d) l/s

66. Which is true of a convex mirror?

(a) It has a radius of curvature equal to f.
(b) It is a converging mirror.
(c) It forms only virtual images.
(d) It forms magnified and reduced images.

67. Which is true for a real image?

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(a) It is always magnified.

(b) It is formed by converging light rays.
(c) It is formed behind a mirror.
(d) It occurs only for Di Do.

68. Which of the following is true of a concave lens?

(a) It is a converging lens.
(b) It is thicker at the center than at the edge.
(c) It is a lens that forms virtual images for Do . f.
(d) It is a lens that forms real images for Do , f.

69. Which is true of a virtual image?

(a) It is always formed by a convex lens.
(b) It can be formed on a screen.
(c) It is formed on the object side of a lens.
(d) It cannot be formed by a concave lens.

70. What happens when the polarization directions of two polarizing sheets are at an angle of 90
degrees to each other?
(a) No light gets through.
(b) There is maximum transmission.
(c) Maximum transmission is reduced by 50%.
(d) None of the preceding.

71. Which is true of diffraction?

(a) It occurs best when the slit width is less than the wavelength of a wave.
(b) It depends on refraction.
(c) It is caused by interference.
(d) It does not occur for light.

72. When does total constructive interference occur?

(a) when waves are in phase
(b) at the same time as total destructive interference
(c) when the waves are equal in amplitude and are completely out of phase
(d) when total internal reflection occurs

73. What can be said about the electric force between two charged particles?
(a) it is repulsive for unlike charges.
(b) it varies as 1/r.
(c) it depends only on the magnitudes of the charges.
(d) it is much, much greater than the attractive gravitational force.

74. Two equal positive charges are placed equidistant on either side of another positive charge.
What would the middle positive charge experience?
(a) a net force to the right
(b) a net force to the left
(c) a zero net force

75. In a dc circuit, how do electrons move?

(a) with a slow drift velocity.
(b) in alternate directions.
(c) near the speed of light.
(d) none of the preceding.

76. What is a unit of voltage?

(a) joule
(b) joule/coulomb

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(c) amp-coulomb
(d) amp/coulomb

77. In electrical terms, power has what units?

(a) joule/coulomb
(b) amp/ohm
(c) amp-coulomb
(d) amp-volt

78. Appliances with heating elements require which of the following?

(a) a large current
(b) a large resistance
(c) a low joule heat

79. The greatest equivalent resistance occurs when resistances are connected in which type of
arrangement?
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series–parallel

80. Given three resistances, the greatest current occurs in a battery circuit when the resistances
are connected in what type of arrangement?
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series–parallel

81. When two bar magnets are near each other, the north pole of one of the magnets experiences
what type of force from the other magnet?
(a) an attractive force
(b) a repulsive force
(c) a Coulomb force
(d) both (a) and (b)

82. What is the variation in the location of the Earth’s magnetic north pole from true north given
by?
(a) the law of poles
(b) the magnetic field
(c) magnetic domains
(d) the magnetic declination

83. What type of energy conversion does a motor perform?

(a) chemical energy into mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(d) mechanical energy into chemical energy

84. What type of energy conversion does a generator perform?

(a) chemical energy into mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(d) mechanical energy into chemical energy

85. Which of the following is true of a step-up transformer?

(a) It has an equal number of windings on the primary and secondary coils.
(b) It has fewer windings on the secondary coil.
(c) It has fewer windings on the primary coil.
(d) None of the preceding statements is true.

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86. A transformer with more windings on the primary coil than on the secondary coil does which
of the following?
(a) Steps up the voltage.
(b) Steps up the current.
(c) Steps up both current and voltage.
(d) Will operate off dc current.

87. Who championed the idea of the atom about 400 BCE?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Plato
(c) Democritus
(d) Archimedes

88. Which scientist is associated with the “plum pudding model” of the atom?
(a) Thomson
(b) Rutherford
(c) Bohr
(d) Dalton

89. Planck developed his quantum hypothesis to explain which of these phenomena?
(a) the ultraviolet catastrophe
(b) line spectra
(c) the photoelectric effect
(d) uncertainty

90. Light of which of the following colors has the greatest photon energy?
(a) red
(b) orange
(c) yellow
(d) violet

91. The Bohr theory was developed to explain which of these phenomena?
(a) energy levels
(b) the photoelectric effect
(c) line spectra
(d) quantum numbers

92. In which of the following states does a hydrogen electron have the greatest energy?
(a) n 5 1
(b) n 5 3
(c) n 5 5
(d) n 5 7.5

93. Bombarding a metal anode with high-energy electrons produces which of the following?
(a) laser light
(b) X-rays
(c) microwaves
(d) neutrons

94. The “s” in the acronym laser stands for

(a) simple
(b) specific
(c) spontaneous
(d) stimulated

95. Which of the following does a laser do?

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(a) amplifies light

(b) produces monochromatic light
(c) produces coherent light
(d) all the preceding

96. Limitations on measurements are described by which of the following?

(a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(b) de Broglie’s hypothesis
(c) Schrödinger’s equation
(d) Einstein’s special theory of relativity

97. Which of the following pairs of particle properties is it impossible to determine exactly and
simultaneously?
(a) charge and mass
(b) position and velocity
(c) charge and position
(d) velocity and momentum

98. What scientist first hypothesized matter waves?

(a) Schrödinger
(b) de Broglie
(c) Heisenberg
(d) Einstein

99. According to the de Broglie hypothesis, how is the wavelength associated with a moving
particle?
(a) It is independent of mass.
(b) It is longer the greater the speed of the particle.
(c) It easily shows diffraction effects.
(d) None of the preceding.

100. Why did the Bohr model need improvement?

(a) It worked only for the hydrogen atom
(b) It did not explain why the atom is quantized.
(c) It did not explain why an electron does not emit radiation as it orbits.
(d) All these answers are correct.

101. A generalized mental image of an object is a (an)

a. definition.
b. impression.
c. concept.
d. mental picture.

102. Which of the following is the best example of the use of a referent?
a. A red bicycle
b. Big as a dump truck
c. The planet Mars
d. Your textbook

103. A well-defined and agreed-upon referent used as a standard in all systems of measurement
is called a
a. yardstick.
b. unit.
c. quantity.
d. fundamental.

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104. A process of comparing a property to a well-defined and agreed-upon referent is called a

a. measurement.
b. referral.
c. magnitude.
d. comparison.

105. How much space something occupies is described by its

a. mass.
b. volume.
c. density.
d. weight.

106. The relationship between two numbers that is usually obtained by dividing one number by
the other is called a (an)
a. ratio.
b. divided size.
c. number tree.
d. equation.

107. The ratio of mass per volume of a substance is called its

a. weight.
b. weight-volume.
c. mass-volume.
d. density.

108. After identifying the appropriate equation, the next step in correctly solving a problem is to
a. substitute known quantities for symbols.
b. solve the equation for the variable in question.
c. separate the number and units.
d. convert all quantities to metric units.

109. The equation ρ = _ m V is a statement that

a. describes a property.
b. defines how variables can change.
c. describes how properties change.
d. identifies the proportionality constant.

110. Measurement information that is used to describe something is called

a. referents.
b. properties.
c. data.
d. a scientific investigation

111. What is needed to change a proportionality statement into an equation?

a. Include a proportionality constant.
b. Divide by an unknown to move the symbol to left side of the equal symbol.
c. Add units to one side to make units equal.
d. Add numbers to one side to make both sides equal

112. Quantities, or measured properties, that are capable of changing values are called
a. data.
b. variables.
c. proportionality constants.
d. dimensionless constants.

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113. A proportional relationship that is represented by the symbols a ∝ 1/b represents which of
the following relationships?
a. direct proportion
b. inverse proportion
c. direct square proportion
d. inverse square proportion

114. A scientific law can be expressed as

a. a written concept.
b. an equation.
c. a graph.
d. all of the above.

115. The symbol ∝ has a meaning of

a. “almost infinity.”
b. “the change in.”
c. “is proportional to.”
d. “therefore.”

116. A movie projector makes a 1 m by 1 m image when projecting 1 m from a screen, a 2 m by

2 m image when projecting 2 m from the screen, and a 3 m by 3 m image when projecting 3 m
from the screen. What is the proportional relationship between the distance from the screen and
the area of the image?
a. direct b. inverse
c. square d. inverse square

117. A movie projector makes a 1 m by 1 m image when projecting 1 m from a screen, a 2 m by

2 m image when projecting 2 m from the screen, and a 3 m by 3 m image when projecting 3 m
from the screen. What is the proportional relationship between the distance from the screen and
the intensity of the light falling on the screen?
a. direct b. inverse
c. square d. inverse square

118. According to the scientific method, what needs to be done to move beyond conjecture or
simple hypotheses in a person’s understanding of his or her physical surroundings?
a. Make an educated guess.
b. Conduct a controlled experiment.
c. Find an understood model with answers.
d. Search for answers on the Internet.

119. How fast an object is moving in a particular direction is described by

a. speed. b. velocity.
c. acceleration. d. none of the above.

120. Acceleration occurs when an object undergoes

a. a speed increase.
b. a speed decrease.
c. a change in the direction of travel.
d. any of the above

121. In free fall, an object is seen to have a (an)

a. constant velocity.
b. constant acceleration.
c. increasing acceleration.
d. decreasing acceleration.

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122.Ignoring air resistance, an object falling toward the surface of Earth has a velocity that is
a. constant.
b. increasing.
c. decreasing.
d. acquired instantaneously but dependent on the weight of the object.

123. Ignoring air resistance, an object falling near the surface of Earth has an acceleration that is
a. constant.
b. increasing.
c. decreasing.
d. dependent on the weight of the object

124. You are standing freely on a motionless shuttle bus. When the shuttle bus quickly begins to
move forward, you
a. are moved to the back of the shuttle bus as you move forward over the surface of Earth.
b. stay in one place over the surface of Earth as the shuttle bus moves from under you.
c. move along with the shuttle bus.
d. feel a force toward the side of the shuttle bus.

125. Two objects are released from the same height at the same time, and one has twice the
weight of the other. Ignoring air resistance,
a. the heavier object hits the ground first.
b. the lighter object hits the ground first.
c. they both hit at the same time.
d. whichever hits first depends on the distance dropped.

126. A ball rolling across the floor slows to a stop because

a. there is a net force acting on it.
b. the force that started it moving wears out.
c. the forces are balanced.
d. the net force equals zero.

127. The basic difference between instantaneous and average speed is that
a. instantaneous speed is always faster than average speed.
b. average speed is for a total distance over a total time of trip.
c. average speed is the sum of two instantaneous speeds, divided by 2.
d. the final instantaneous speed is always the fastest speed.

128. Does any change in the motion of an object result in an acceleration?

a. Yes.
b. No.
c. It depends on the type of change

129. Neglecting air resistance, a ball in free fall near Earth’s surface will have
a. constant speed and constant acceleration.
b. increasing speed and increasing acceleration.
c. increasing speed and decreasing acceleration.
d. increasing speed and constant acceleration.

130. An orbiting satellite is moved from 10,000 to 30,000 km from Earth. This will result in what
change in the gravitational attraction between Earth and the satellite?
a. None—the attraction is the same.
b. One-half as much.
c. One-fourth as much.
d. One-ninth as much.

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131. Newton’s law of gravitation considers the product of two masses because
a. the larger mass pulls harder on the smaller mass.
b. both masses contribute equally to the force of attraction.
c. the large mass is considered before the smaller mass.
d. the distance relationship is one of an inverse square

132. According to the definition of mechanical work, pushing on a rock accomplishes no work
unless there is
a. movement.
b. a net force.
c. an opposing force.
d. movement in the same direction as the direction of the force.

133. The metric unit of a joule (J) is a unit of

a. potential energy.
b. work.
c. kinetic energy.
d. any of the above.

134. A Nm/s is a unit of

a. work.
b. power.
c. energy.
d. none of the above.

135. Two cars have the same mass, but one is moving three times as fast as the other is. How
much more work will be needed to stop the faster car?
a. The same amount.
b. Twice as much.
c. Three times as much.
d. Nine times as much

136. Potential energy and kinetic energy are created when work is done to change a position (PE)
or a state of motion (KE). Ignoring friction, how does the amount of work done to make the change
compare to the amount of PE or KE created?
a. Less energy is created.
b. Both are the same.
c. More energy is created.
d. This cannot be generalized.

137. Many forms of energy in use today can be traced back to

a. the Sun.
b. coal.
c. Texas.
d. petroleum.

138. In all of our energy uses, we find that

a. the energy used is consumed.
b. some forms of energy are consumed but not others.
c. more energy is created than is consumed.
d. the total amount of energy is constant in all situations

139. Alternative sources of energy include

a. solar cells.
b. wind.
c. hydrogen.

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d. all of the above.

140. A renewable energy source is

a. coal.
b. biomass.
c. natural gas.
d. petroleum

141. The work accomplished by lifting an object against gravity is measured in units of
a. kg.
b. N.
c. W.
d. J.

142. Two students are poised to dive off equal-height diving towers into a swimming pool below.
Student B is twice as massive as student A. Which of the following is true?
a. Student B will reach the water sooner than student A.
b. Both students have the same gravitational PE.
c. Both students will have the same KE just before hitting the water.
d. Student B did twice as much work climbing the tower 1

143. Petroleum is believed to have formed over time from buried

a. pine trees.
b. plants in a swamp.
c. organic sediments.
d. dinosaurs

144. The process of physically removing weathered materials is called

a. weathering.
b. transportation.
c. erosion.
d. corrosion

145. Chemical weathering, the dissolving or breaking down of minerals in rocks, is also called
a. oxidation.
b. reduction.
c. disintegration.
d. decomposition.

146. The process of peeling off layers of rock, reducing the pressure on the rock’s surface, is
called
a. chemical peel.
b. exfoliation.
c. wedging.
d. disintegration.

147. The weak acid formed by the reaction of water with carbon dioxide is
a. carbonic acid.
b. carbonate acid.
c. hydrocarbonic acid.
d. dihydrocarbonate acid.

148. A mixture of unconsolidated weathered earth materials and humus is

a. gravel.
b. soil.
c. dirt.

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d. mud.

149. Decay-resistant, altered organic material is

a. soil.
b. clay.
c. topsoil.
d. humus

150. The slow movement downhill of soil on the side of a mountain is called
a. rockslide.
b. avalanche.
c. creep.
d. crawl.

151. The picking up of loose materials from the surface by wind is

a. abrasion.
b. deflation.
c. inflation.
d. polishing.

152. What is the pH of natural rainwater?

a. 5.0 to 5.5
b. 5.6 to 6.2
c. 6.3 to 6.7
d. 7.0

153. A likely source of loess is

a. rock flour.
b. a cirque.
c. a terminal moraine.
d. an accumulation of ventifacts.

154. The landscape in a dry climate tends to be more angular because the dry climate
a. has more winds.
b. lacks as much chemical weathering.
c. has less rainfall.
d. has stronger rock types.

155. A moraine is a
a. wind deposit.
b. glacier deposit.
c. river deposit.
d. Any of the above is correct.

156. Fragments of rocks fall into a mountain stream and are carried into the valley. This is an
example of a. weathering.
b. erosion.
c. transportation.
d. decomposition.

157. Tree roots grow and expand, and eventually break through a sidewalk. This is an example
of
a. corrosion.
b. erosion.
c. wedging.
d. disintegration

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158. The formation of a shallow layer of water by rain on the surface, which dissolves materials
and carries fragments away, is called
a. rain erosion.
b. sheet erosion.
c. waterfall.
d. stream erosion

159. Continental glaciers are found in

a. Iceland.
b. Antarctic.
c. Greenland.
d. Greenland and Antarctic

160. Fossils are most often found in what type of rock?

a. Sedimentary
b. Metamorphic
c. Igneous
d. Volcanic

161. The time before the time of life is called

a. Precambrian.
b. Postcambrian.
c. Phanerozoic.
d. Post-Phanerozoic.

162. The smallest block of time assigned to the geologic time period is the
a. eon.
b. period.
c. era.
d. epoch.

163. Which of the following does not describe a unit of geologic time?
a. Eon
b. Epoch
c. Period
d. Century

164. The time of recent life era is the

a. Cenozoic.
b. Mesozoic.
c. Paleozoic.
d. Phanerozoic.

165. How many eons has there been since the birth of Earth?
a. 2 b. 4
c. 16 d. Over 100

166. The geologic eon that is known for abundant fossil records and living organisms is called
a. Precambrian.
b. Postcambrian.
c. Phanerozoic.
d. Post-Phanerozoic.

167. The earliest abundant fossils are found in what era?

a. Cenozoic

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b. Mesozoic
c. Paleozoic
d. Phanerozoic

168. Dinosaurs first appeared in what era?

a. Cenozoic
b. Mesozoic
c. Paleozoic
d. Phanerozoic

169. On a clear, calm, and cool night, dew or frost is most likely to form
a. under trees or other shelters.
b. on bare ground on the side of a hill.
c. under a tree on the side of a hill.
d. on grass in an open, low-lying area.

170. A low-pressure center where the winds move counterclockwise into the low-pressure center
is called a (an)
a. occluded front.
b. stationary front.
c. cyclone.
d. high.

171. Clear, fair weather is associated with a

a. high.
b. low.
c. stationary front.
d. low-pressure center.

172. A thunderstorm usually does not develop under what conditions?

a. Warm air
b. Cold air
c. Moist air
d. Humid air

173. Upward air motion that leads to the growth of cumulus clouds to tremendous heights is called
a/an
a. lift.
b. flight.
c. updraft.
d. rise.

174. The point on Earth’s surface directly above the focus of an earthquake is called the
a. fault line.
b. epicenter.
c. source.
d. quake starting point

175. P-waves travel __________ S-waves.

a. faster than
b. slower than
c. farther than
d. at the same rate as

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176. The epicenter is located by

a. measuring how long the earthquake lasts.
b. measuring the time difference between P- and S-waves.
c. using time data from several seismographs to triangulate the location.
d. b and

177. The oldest rocks are found in

a. continental crust.
b. oceanic crust.
c. neither, since both are the same age.

178. The least dense rocks are found in

a. continental crust.
b. oceanic crust.
c. neither, since both are the same density

179. A geologic feature that was produced by divergent boundaries is

a. the Alps.
b. the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
c. the Marianas Trench.
d. Japan.

180. Which type of plate boundary accounts for the formation of the Appalachian Mountains?
a. Divergent
b. Ocean to continental convergence
c. Continental to continental convergence
d. Transform

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