Narayana JEE Advanced Paper
Narayana JEE Advanced Paper
Narayana JEE Advanced Paper
IIT_STARBATCH-II_Jee-Adv(2019_P1)_QP
PHYSICS Max.Marks:62
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT CHOICE TYPE)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Marking scheme +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases
1. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 5 kV and the current through it is
3.2 mA. Then the number of electrons striking the target per second is
A) 2 1016 B) 5 1016 C) 1 1017 D) 4 1015
2. A source of light is placed above a sphere of radius 10cm. How many photoelectrons
must be emitted by the sphere before emission of photoelectrons stops? The energy of
incident photon is 4.2 eV and the work function of the metal is 1.5 eV.
A) 2.08 1018 B) 1.875 108 C) 2.88 1018 D) 4 1019
3. In a Photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength , The fastest electron has speed
3
v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron
4
will become
3 4 3 4
A) v B) v C) less than v D) greater than v
4 3 4 3
4. A particle of mass 'm' is projected from ground with velocity 'u' making angle 'θ' with the
vertical. The de-Broglie's wave length of the particle at the highest point is:
h h h
A) ∞ B) C) D)
mu sin mu cos mu
SECTION – II
(MULTIPLE CORRECT CHOICE TYPE)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/ are correct.
Marking scheme +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted
5. A source emits monochromatic light of frequency 5.5 1014 Hz at a rate of 0.1W. Out of
the photons emitted 0.15% fall on the cathode of a photocell which gives a current of
6 A in an external circuit. Then choose the correct options
A) The energy of a photons is 2.27eV
Narayana IIT Academy 22-08-21_INC_Sr. IIT_STARBATCH-II_Jee-Adv(2019_P1)_QP
B) The number of photons leaving the source per second 2.75 1017
C) Number of photo electrons emitted per seconds is 3.75 1013
D) The percentage of the photons falling on the cathode which produce photoelectrons
is 9%
6. For a certain metal, the K absorption edge is at 0.172A0 . The wavelength of K , K and
K lines of K series are 0.210A0 , 0.192 A0 , and 0.182 A0 , respectively. The energies of
10. Two electrons starting from rest are accelerated by equal potential difference.
A) they will have same kinetic energy
B) they will have same linear momentum
C) they will have same de Broglie wave length
D) they will produce x-rays of same minimum wave length when they strike different
targets.
11. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct
A) Proton, deuteron and particles are accelerated through the same potential
SECTION – III
(Numerical Value Answer Type )
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical values comprising of
positive or negative decimal numbers (place value ranging from Thousands Place to Hundredths
place). Eg: 1234.56, 123.45, -123.45, -1234.56, -0.12, 0.12 etc.
Marking scheme : +3 for correct answer, 0 in all other cases.
14. In a photocell the plates P and Q have a separation of 10 cm, which are connected
through a galvanometer without any cell. Bichromatic light of wavelengths 4000 Å and
6000 Å are incident on plate Q whose work function is 2.39 eV. If a uniform magnetic
field B exists parallel to the plates, find the minimum value of B in T for which the
galvanometer shows zero deflection.
15. The wavelength of a photon is 1.4 Å. It collides with an electron. Its wavelength after the
collision is 2.0 Å. The energy of the scattered electron is n 10 16 J where n _____
16. When X-ray tube operated at 40 kV emits a continuous X-ray spectrum with a short
wavelength limit min 0.310Å . Planck’s constant is found to be ______ 1034 J .s Fill in
the blank with appropriate number
17. When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube increases from, V1 10kV to V2 20kV the
wavelength interval between K line and cut-off wavelength of continuous spectrum
increases by a factor of 3. Atomic number of the metallic target is
18. A proton when accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 volt has a wavelength λ
associated with it. An α-particle in order to have the same λ must be accelerated through
a potential difference of_____. Express your answer in volts
1.C2 H 5O Na
BrCH COOEt
N K 2 2.Ph CH 2 Br
A
3.HCl H O B
2
O
Ph CH COOH
A) H 2 N CH 2 COOH B) |
NH 2
COOEt
NH 2 |
C) | D) PhCH 2 C COOH
Ph CH 2 CH COOH |
NH 2
27. Glucose reacts with methanol in presence of dry HCl gas to form:
A) penta methyl derivative B) tetra methyl derivative
C) methyl glucoside D) methyl glucoside
28. Consider the following statements about amino acids:
A) the amino acids that constitute proteins are all L-amino acids
B) among the 20 amino acids that constitute proteins, glycine is the only one that does not
possess chiral centre
C) an important and sensitive test for the detection of L-amino acid is the ninhydrin colour test
D) globular protein is present blood , milk , eggs etc
29. The correct statement(s) are about the following sugars X and Y is (are) :
Narayana IIT Academy 22-08-21_INC_Sr. IIT_STARBATCH-II_Jee-Adv(2019_P1)_QP
pka 8.95 NH 3
OH pka 2.18
pka 10.79 H 3 N
O
32. Periodic acid splits glucose and fructose into formic acid and formaldehyde. Ratio of formic
acid and formaldehyde obtained from glucose and fructose is x and y then their sum is:
33. The number of base pairs present in each turn of DNA helix is:
34. The number of tripeptides formed by three different amino acids are__
35. Sixteen aldohexoses are possible. How many of these do not undergo mutarotation or osazone
formation?
36. How many moles of HIO4 will be consumed in the complete oxidation of 1 mole of glucose?
Narayana IIT Academy 22-08-21_INC_Sr. IIT_STARBATCH-II_Jee-Adv(2019_P1)_QP
MATHS Max.Marks:62
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT CHOICE TYPE)
This section contains 4 single correct answer questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Marking scheme +3 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.
37. Let S 1, 2,3,...100 . The number of non-empty subsets A of S such that the product of elements
in A is even is
A) 250 250 1 B) 2100 1 C) 250 1 D) 2100 275
38. The letters of the word “DRAWER” are arranged in alphabetical order. The number of
arrangements that precede the word “ REWARD” is
A) 241 B) 242 C) 247 D) 248
39. The number of ways in which 6 boys and 6 girls can be seated at a round table so that no two girls
sit together and two particulars girls do not sit next to a particular boy is
A) 6. 4 B) 2. 5. 4 C) 2. 6. 4 D) 5. 4
40. The number of four digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 that are
divisible by 3,when repetition of digits is allowed, is
A) 23 32 B) 23 33 C) 23 34 D) 2 4 33
SECTION – II
(MULTIPLE CORRECT CHOICE TYPE)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/ are correct.
Marking scheme +4 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.
(C) 24 ways when vowels and consonants occupy their respective places
(D) 240 ways when vowels do not occur together
43. If n is the number of positive integral solutions of x1 x2 x3 x4 210 .Then
(A) n must be divisible by 3 distinct primes (B) n must be a perfect square
(C) n must be a perfect 4 th power (D) n must be a perfect 8th power
44. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true?
A) maximum value of P such that 3P divides 100! is 48
B) maximum value of P such that 3P divides 50! is 22
C) maximum value of P such that 3P divides 99 97 95 ......... 51 is 14
D) maximum value of P such that 3P divides 25! is 10
45. The total number of positive integers with distinct digits (in decimal system) must be
(A) Infinite
10
i
(B) Less than 10
i1
10
i
(C) Equal to 10
i1
46. The number of arrangements of the letters of the word NAVA NAVA LAVANYAM which
begin with N and end with M is
16 16
(A) 2
(B)
7 3 7 3
14 14
(C) (D)
7 3 2 7 3
2009! 2006!
47. The value of ( . denotes greatest integer function) is
2008! 2007!
(A) 2009 (B) 2008 (C) 2007 (D) 1
48. The number of positive integers which divide 10 999 but not 10 998 is equal to
(A) 999 (B) 1000
(C) 1999 (D)10000
Narayana IIT Academy 22-08-21_INC_Sr. IIT_STARBATCH-II_Jee-Adv(2019_P1)_QP
SECTION – III
(Numerical Value Answer Type )
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical values comprising of positive or
negative decimal numbers (place value ranging from Thousands Place to Hundredths place).
Eg: 1234.56, 123.45, -123.45, -1234.56, -0.12, 0.12 etc.
Marking scheme : +3 for correct answer, 0 in all other cases.
49. Number of pairs of positive integers (p,q) whose LCM (Least common multiple) is 8100, is
“K”. Then number of ways of expressing K as a product of two co-prime numbers is ____
50. The remainder when 2 + [1! + 2(2!) + 3(3!) + . . . . . + 10(10!)] is divided by 11! is
51. The number of ways of arranging the letters of the word NALGONDA, such that the letters of
P
the word GOD occur in that order (G before and O and O before D), is P then
420
52. The number of ways of painting the six faces of a cube with six different given colours is
53. Let the product of all the divisors of 1440 be P. If P is divisible by 24 x , then the maximum
value of x is
p p p p P P 6
54. If 15 2 13 2 5 3 7 411 513 6
then Pr is
r 1