Fiitjee - Jee (Main) : Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics Phase-4
Fiitjee - Jee (Main) : Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics Phase-4
Fiitjee - Jee (Main) : Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics Phase-4
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
Important Instructions
BATCHES –2022
A. General Instructions
1. This question paper contains Three Sections.
2. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
3. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, clip boards, log
tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices ext. except the Admit Card
inside the examination hall / room.
B. Marking Scheme for All Two Parts:
(i) Section-1 (01-20) – Contains Twenty (20) multiple choice objective questions which have four (4) options
each and only one correct option. Each question will be awarded + 4 Marks for correct answer and -1
mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(ii) Section-2 (01-05) contains Five (05) Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,
ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive). Each question will be awarded + 4 Marks for correct answer and NO
MARKS will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
3. Three rods of same material form an isosceles triangle (the two angles at the base are equal.) When
the structure is heated the base angles of the triangle will.
(A) increase (B) not change (C) decrease (D) be doubled
6. A block of mass M is kept in gravity free space and touches the two k M 4K
springs as shown in the figure. Initially springs are in its natural length.
0 20
Now, the block is shifted (0/2) from the given position in such a way it
compresses a spring and released. The time-period of oscillation of
mass will be
M M 3 M M
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 K 5K 2 K 2K
7. The speed of sound in a gas is v. The r.m.s. speed of molecules of this gas is c.
Cp
If the ratio of v to c is
Cv
3 3
(A) (B) 0.33 (C) (D)
3
8. The density of water at 20C is 998 kg m3 and at 40C, it is 992 kg m3. The coefficient of cubical
expansion of water is nearest to
(A) 2 104/C (B) 4 104/C (C) 6 104/C (D) 3 104/C
5 7
9. If one mole of a mono atomic gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic gas , the value
3 5
of for the mixture will be
(A) 1.4 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.53 (D) 3.07
10. Two rods of equal length and diameter have thermal conductivities 2 and 3 units. If they are joined in
series, the equivalent thermal conductivity of the combination will be
(A) 1 unit (B) 5 units (C) 6 units (D) 2.4 units
11. A particle moves such that its acceleration a is given by a = –bx, where x is the displacement from
equilibrium position and b is a constant. The period of oscillation is
2 2
(A) 2 b (B) (C) (D) 2
b b b
12. The equation of a simple harmonic motion is X = 0.34 cos(3000t + 0.74) where X and t are in mm and
sec. the frequency of motion is
(A) 3000 (B) 3000 / 2 (C) 0.74 / 2 (D) 3000 /
13. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. the period of oscillation of pendulum on
this planet will be (If it is a second's pendulum on earth)
1 1
(A) sec (B) 2 2 sec (C) 2 sec (D) sec
2 2
14. Two whistles A and B produces notes of frequencies 660 Hz and 596 Hz respectively. There is a
listener at the mid-point of the line joining them. Now the whistle B and the listener start moving with
speed 30 m/s away from the whistle A. If speed of sound be 330 m/s, how many beats will be heard by
the listener
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
15. A source producing sound of frequency 170 Hz is approaching a stationary observer with a velocity 17
–1
ms . The apparent change in the wavelength of sound heard by the observer is (speed of sound in air
–1
= 340 ms )
(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.2 m (C) 0.4 m (D) 0.5 m
16. A mass m = 1.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the m
ground. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly
and released, the mass executes simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is
500 N/m. What is the amplitude A of the motion, so that the mass m tends to get
k
detached from the pan?
2
(take g = 10 m/s )
The spring is stiff enough so that it does not get distorted during the motion.
(A) A > 2.0 cm (B) A = 2.0 cm (C) A < 2.0 cm (D) A = 1.5 cm
th
17. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5 of the speed of sound.
The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are and f respectively. The apparent frequency
and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively
(A) 1.2 f, (B) f, 1.2 (C) 0.8 f, 0.8 (D) 1.2 f, 1.2
18. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is dipped vertically in water so
that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now :
3f f
(A) (B) 2f (C) f (D)
4 2
19. A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended from a rigid support. A short wave pulse is introduced at
its lowest end. It starts moving up the string. The time taken to reach the support is:(take g = 10 ms2)
(A) 2s (B) 2 2 s (C) 2 s (D) 2 2 s
20. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In first s, after starting from rest it
travels a distance a, and in next s it travels 2a, in same direction, then :
(A) amplitude of motion is 4a (B) time period of oscillations is 6
(C) amplitude of motion is 3a (D) time period of oscillations is 8
SECTION – 2: (Only Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0
to 9 (both inclusive).
l (× 104 m)
suspended from the top of a roof at one end and with a load W 3
connected to the other end. If the cross-sectional area of the wire is
2 2
106 m , the Young’s modulus (i.e., Y) of the material of the wire is
11 2
S.I. units is N × 10 N/m . Find out N 1
20 40 60 80
W(N)
3. A string of negligible mass, natural length L has Young’s modulus Y. The string O
hangs from roof with masses m1 and m2 as shown in the figure. If mass m2 is
removed gently, the mass m1 is just able to bounce back upto point O. Find the
ratio m2/m1. (string will not obstruct the motion of mass m1 and system is initially in 2L
equilibrium).
m2
m1
1. O O
Path I O 2N Anh. AlCl3
O2N
HCl
Cl
(P)
O O
Path II O2N Anh. AlCl3
O 2N
HCl
Cl
(P)
The correct statement among the following about the above two paths of synthesizing the organic
product P is:
(A) Path I is better than Path II
(B) Path II is better than Path I
(C) Both the paths are equally good
(D) Path I will give less yield of the product as compared to that obtained by path II
(A) only 1 and 2 (B) only 2 and 3 (C) only 1 (D) All
4. Which of the following have the S configuration?
O
NO2
HN CH3
A) E B)
E
Cl
CH3
+
1. The rate of reaction will be faster in A when compared to B and the E attacks at meta to NO2
group.
+
2. The rate of B is faster than A and the E attacks ortho to –NHCOCH3 group.
+ +
3. The rate of B is faster than A and in A, E attacks at ortho to –Cl and in B, E attacks ortho to –CH3
group.
+
4. The rate of B is slower than A and in A, E attacks meta to –NO2 and in B, ortho to –NHCOCH3
group.
Out of these statements
(A) 1 and 4 are correct (B) 2 alone is correct
(C) 3 alone is correct (D) 4 alone is correct
6. The number of isomers for the compounds with molecular formula C2BrClFI is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
AgNO3
9. A;
O -
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O O - O
11. Cylohexene on treatment with NBS/CCl4/hv followed by treatment with alc KOH mainly gives:
(A) 1, 3-cyclohexadiene (B) 1, 4-cyclohexadiene
(C) 1, 2-cyclohexadine (D) 3-cyclohexanol
13. What is (are) the major organic product(s) obtained from the following reaction?
Br2
CCl4
1. (2R,3R)-dibromobutane 2. (2S,3S)-dibromobutane 3. meso-2,3-dibromobutane
(A) only 2 (B) only 3 (C) only 1 and 2 (D) only 1
14. In the sulphonation of benzene by using conc. H2SO4, the attacking electrophile is
+
(A) SO2 (B) S O2 H (C) SO3 (D) H
15. Which of the following is the correct order of reactivity towards nitration?
(A) C6H6 C6D6 C6 T6 (B) C6D6 C6H6 C6 T6
(C) C6 T6 C6D6 C6H6 (D) C6 T6 C6D6 C6H6
16. An alkane (mol.wt. = 86) on bromination gives only two monobromo derivatives (excluding
stereoisomers). The alkane is :
CH3
|
(A) CH3 C H CH2 CH2 CH3 (B) CH3 C CH2 CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
CH3
|
(C) CH3 CH CH CH3 (D) CH3 C CH3
| | |
CH3 CH3 CH3
17. In the given reaction
Br
H C C6 H5
C 2 H 5 ONa
[P]
H3C C H C 2 H 5 OH
C6 H5
C 6H 5 CH3 C6H5
C6H5
(A) C C C C
(B)
H C6H5 CH 3
H
OC 2 H 5
(C) mixture of (a) and (b) (D) C 6 H 5 CH C C 6H 5
CH3 H
18. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Element/ion present in drinking water Prescribed upper limit concentration
(a) Lead 80 ppb
(b) Nitrate 100 ppm
(c) Sulphate 600 ppm
(d) Aluminium 0.2 ppm
(A) (a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (D) (d)
19. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their reactivity towards electrophilic substitution
reaction.
CH3
(A) only 2 and 3 (B) All (C) only 1 and 3 (D) only 1 and 2
1. Total number of resonating structures (including the given structure) of the given compound is/are
___________
o
2. How many of the following carbocations are less stable than tert-butyl carbocation?
CH2
; ; ; ; CH ;
H2C CH CH2 ; (CH3)2 CH
; H3C O CH CH3 ;
O
H3C NH CH CH3 ; H3C C CH CH3
3. How many of the following compound(s) is/are more acidic than p-methoxy phenol?
OH OH OH OH COOH
NO2
; ; ; ;
NO2 CH3 NO2
OH H2C OH
O OH O
H3C CH2 S OH
; ; ;
O
OH O
2. If all the letters of the word “QUEUE” are arranged in all possible manner as they are in a
dictionary, then the rank of the QUEUE is :
th th th th
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18
3. The number of ways of selecting at least one fruit out of 4 Apples, 3 Bananas and 1 each of Mango,
Pineapple and Guava are
(A) 159 (B) 12 (C) 4! 3! 1 (D) 160
10
1
6. If 1, 1 and I denotes the term independent of x in the expansion of x sin cos
x
then I cannot exceed
5
1 5 10 1
(B) 10 C 5 (C) 10 C 5
10
(A) (D) C5
210 210 2 20 2
7. If z1 z2 ... zn 1, then the value of z1 z2 ... zn is
1 1 1
(A) n (B) ... (C) 0 (D) 1
z1 z2 zn
8.
Let n 2009. The least positive integer k for which k n 2 n 2 12 n 2 2 2 n 2 3 2 ... n 2 n 1 2 r ! for
some positive integer r is
(A) 2008 (B) 2009 (C) 1 (D) 2
9. The total number of permutations of 4 letters that can be made out of the letters of the word
EXAMINATION is
(A) 2454 (B) 2436 (C) 2545 (D) 2400
14. The number of integral points (integral point means both the coordinates should be integer) that lie
exactly in the interior of the triangle with vertices 0,0, 0,21, 21,0
(A) 133 (B) 190 (C) 233 (D) 105
15. How many different sphere of radius ‘r’ can be drawn which touches all the three coordinate
axes
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 8
16. The points A(4, 5, 1), B(0, 1, 1), C(3, 9, 4) and D(4, 4, 4) are
(A) collinear (B) coplanar
(C) non-coplanar (D) non-collinear and non-coplanar
17. Number of integers greater than 7000 and divisible by 5 that can be formed using only the
digits 3, 5, 7, 8 and 9, no digit being repeated, is :
(A) 46 (B) 48 (C) 72 (D) 42
18 Number of different words that can be formed using all the letters of the word “DEEPMALA” if
two vowels are together and the other two are also together but separared from the first two
is :
(A) 960 (B) 1200 (C) 2160 (D) 1440
19. Number of quadrilaterals that can be constructed from the vertices of a decagon (10 sided
polygon) such that none of the sides of the quadrilateral is also a side of the decagon, is :
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 200
20. If the letters of the word BANANA are arranged randomly, then the probability that the word thus
formed does not contain the pattern BAN is
1 4 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) 3/5
5 5 5
3. Fifteen persons, among whom are A and B, sit down at random at a round table. It p is the probability
that there are exactly 4 persons between A and B find 14 p.
4.
Coefficient of x 79 in the expansion of x x 2 x 4 20 is equal to
5. One ticket is selected at random from 100 tickets numbered 00, 01, 02, …, 98, 99. If X and Y denote
the sum and the product of the digits on the tickets, What is the value of 19 P (X = 9 | Y = 0)?
FIITJEE - JEE (Main)
(PANINI-eSANKALP022-LOT A, B & C)
JEE - MAIN 2022
Phase Test - 4
ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHS
1. A 1. D 1. B
2. C 2. D 2. C
3. B 3. C 3. A
4. D 4. D 4. A
5. B 5. B 5. A
6. C 6. D 6. D
7. D 7. A 7. B
8. D 8. D 8. D
9. B 9. C 9. A
10. D 10. C 10. A
11. B 11. A 11. D
12. B 12. B 12. B
13. B 13. B 13. B
14. B 14. C 14. B
15. A 15. D 15. D
16. B 16. C 16. B
17. A 17. B 17. D
18. C 18. D 18. D
19. B 19. D 19. A
20. B 20. A 20. B
SECTION - 2 SECTION - 2 SECTION - 2
1. 2 1. 9 1. 2
2. 2 2. 6 2. 4
3. 3 3. 7 3. 2
4. 2 4. 4 4. 0
5. 2 5. 2 5. 2