STEM-Center Model Examination: Grade 12 Chemistry May/2020

Choose the best answer and write the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet.

Atomic numbers (Z) and atomic mass (A)

Element H He Li B C N O F Ne Na P S Cl Ca
Z 1 2 3 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 15 16 17 20
A 1.0 4.0 6,9 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2 22.9 31.0 32.0 35.5 40.1
Physical constants: R = 8.314 J/molK, NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1, h = 6.626 × 10-34 J/s, c = 3.0 × 108m/s, F = 96500
C/mol
1. Which one of the following salts forms aqueous solutions with pH = 7?
A. Na2S B. NaBr C. NaClO2 D. NaNO2
2. The pH of an aqueous sodium fluoride (NaF) solution is ______ because ______
A. 7; sodium fluoride is a simple salt.
B. Above 7; fluoride is a weak base.
C. Below 7; fluoride reacts with water to make hydrofluoric acid.
D. About 7; fluoride is a weak base, but produces hydrofluoric acid, and these two neutralize one another.
3. The reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) has the following rate law: Rate = k[O2][NO]2 If the concentration
of NO is reduced by a factor of two, the rate will __________
A. double B. be reduced by one-half C. quadruple D. be reduced by one-quarter
4. Use the following acid ionization constants to identify the correct decreasing order of base strengths.
HF, Ka = 7.2 × 10–4 HNO2, Ka = 4.5 × 10–4 HCN, Ka = 6.2 × 10–10
A. CN– > NO2 – > F– C. NO2 – > F– > CN–
B. F– > NO2 – > CN– D. NO2 – > CN– > F–
5. Which of the following is in the correct order of standard state entropy?
I. Liquid water < gaseous water
II. Liquid water < solid water
III. NH3 < H2
A. I only B. I and II only C. II only D. I and III only
6. Processes are always spontaneous, regardless of temperature, when __________ (H and S refer to the
system).
A. ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0 C. ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0
B. ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0 D. ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0

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7. For the reaction diagram shown, which of the following statements is true?
A. Line W represents the ∆H for the forward reaction; point B represents the transition state.
B. Line W represents the activation energy for the forward
reaction; point B represents the transition state.
C. Line Y represents the activation energy for the forward
reaction; point C represents the transition state.
D. Line X represents the ∆H for the forward reaction; point B
represents the transition state.
8. If the rate of appearance of O2 in the reaction: 2O3(g) → 3O2(g) is 0.250 M/s over the first 5.50 s, how
much oxygen will form during this time?
A. 1.38 M B. 0.25 M C. 4.13 M D. 0.69 M
9. Indicate which of the following has the highest entropy at 298 K.
A. 0.5 g of HCN B. 1 mol of HCN C. 2 kg of HCN D. 2 mol of HCN
10. Which of the following statements is false?
A. When a reaction is exothermic, this results in dispersal of energy and in an increase in the entropy of the
surrounding
B. Both the dispersal of energy and the dispersal of matter tend to be favorable things
C. All exothermic reactions are product-favored
D. Gaseous molecules tend to have higher entropy than solid molecules
11. To which component of the scientific methods can we classify the statement ‘’Ice always floats on liquid
water.’’
A. Law B. Hypothesis C. An experiment D. Observation
12. Which transition would involve the emission of a photon with the longest wavelength?
A. E1 → E3
B. E2 → E3
C. E3 → E1
D. E3 → E2

13. Identify the four quantum numbers that can be used to describe an electron in the depicted atomic orbital.
A. n = 2, l = 1, ml = 1 and ms = +1/2
B. n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1,0,1 and ms = ±1/2
C. n = 1, l = 2, ml = -1,0,1 and ms = ±1/2
D. n = 2, l = 2, ml = -1,0,1 and ms = +1/2

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14. How many electrons in an atom can have the following quantum numbers: n = 3, l = 2, ms = +1/2
A. 10 B. 2 C. 5 D. 3
15. 550 nm electromagnetic radiation is in what region of the electromagnetic spectrum?
A. Ultraviolet B. Infrared C. Visible D. Microwave
16. Which relationship is false for solubility in water?
A. C5H11OH > C11H23OH C. CCl4 > CaCl2
B. C5H11OH > C5H12 D. CH3OCH3 > CH3CCl3
17. Consider the reaction A + B → 4C, if the rate of disappearance of A is 0.16 mol/min, what is the rate of
formation of C?
A. 0.04 mol/min B. 0.16 mol/min C. 0.32 mol/min D. 0.64 mol/min
18. For the reaction diagram shown, which of the following statements is true?
A. Line W represents the ΔH for the forward reaction; point B represents
the transition state.
B. Line W represents the activation energy for the forward reaction;
point B represents the transition state.
C. Line Y represents the activation energy for the forward reaction; point
C represents the transition state.
D. Line X represents the ΔH for the forward reaction; point B represents the transition state .
19. Given the mechanism shown, what would be the rate law?
2 NO → N2O2 fast, equilibrium
N2O2 + Br2 → 2NOBr slow
A. rate = k[NO]2[Br2] C. rate = k[NO]2[N2O2][Br2]
B. rate = k[N2O2] 2 [Br2] D. rate = k[NO][Br2]
20. The heat of formation of lead (II) carbonate is – 699 kJ/mol. Which equation below best represents this
process?
A. Pb(s) + C(s) + O2(g) → PbCO3(s) C. 2Pb(s) + 2C(s) + 3 O2(g) → 2PbCO3(s)
B. Pb(s) + C(s) + 3/2 O2(g) → PbCO3(s) D. 2PbCO3(s) → 2Pb(s) + 2C(s) + 3O2(g)
21. Which of the following choices is true regarding the wave amplitude of electromagnetic radiation?
A. A larger wave amplitude correlates with higher energy photons.
B. A larger wave amplitude correlates with a larger number of photons.
C. A larger wave amplitude correlates with a longer wavelength.
D. A larger wave amplitude correlates with increased wave speed.

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22. Why does CH3CH2NH2 dissolve readily in water but C4H10 does not?
A. Hydrogen bonding between CH3CH2NH2 and water is strong. But interactions between C4H10 and water are
weaker than the water-water interactions that would need to be sacrificed in order to dissolve C4H10.
B. C4H10 has strong hydrogen bonding with water.
C. CH3CH2NH2 has only induced dipole forces (London forces).
D. C4H10 is much more polar than CH3CH2NH2.
23. What is the rate law for the reaction A + 2B + C → products:
Initial [A] Initial [B] Initial [C] rate
0.25 0.25 0.25 3.0
2.5 0.25 0.25 30.0
0.25 0.50 0.25 6.0
0.25 0.25 0.75 27.0
2 2 3
A. rate = k[A][B][C] C. rate = k[A][B] [C]
B. rate = k[A][B] D. rate = k[A][B]2[C]
24. Given the following reduction potentials, what would be the E° for a cell for a product favored reaction
involving the chemicals shown?
Cl2 + 2e– → 2Cl– E° = +1.32 V; Cr3+ + 3e– → Cr E° = –0.74 V
A. 2.06 V B. 4.9 V C. 0.58 V D. 1.72 V
25. What reaction occurs as a hydrochloric acid solution is added to a solution containing equal concentrations
of acetic acid and sodium acetate?
A. CH3COOH + H+ → CH3COOH2+ C. 2CH3COO– + 2H+ → CH3COO + H2
B. CH3COO– + H+ → CH3COOH D. CH3COOH + H+ → CH3CO+ + H2O
26. Identify all the correct statements about an acid–base buffer solution.
I. It can be prepared by combining a strong acid with a salt of its conjugate base.
II. It can be prepared by combining a weak acid with a salt of its conjugate base.
III. It can be prepared by combining a weak base with its conjugate acid.
IV. The pH of a buffer solution does not change when the solution is diluted.
V. A buffer solution resists changes in its pH when an acid or base is added to it.
A. I, II, and IV B. II, III, and V C. I, II, IV, and V D. II, III, IV, and V
27. Calculate the pH of a solution containing 0.40 mol fluoride anion and 0.30 mol of hydrogen fluoride (HF).
(HF, Ka = 7.2 × 10–4)?
A. 0.20 mol B. 0.30 mol C. 0.40 mol D. 0.50 mol
28. Which one of the following 0.1 M solutions would have a pH of 7.0?
A. NaOCl B. KCl C. NH4Cl D. NiBr2

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29. The following titration curve is most likely to be associated with
A. The titration of a strong acid with a strong base titrant.
B. The titration of a weak acid with a strong base titrant.
C. The titration of a strong base with a strong acid titrant.
D. The titration of a weak base with a strong acid titrant.
30. For F2, C3H7OH, and Na2O, which of the following is true at room temperature?
A. F2 is a gas, C3H7OH is a liquid, and Na2O is a solid.
B. Na2O is a gas, F2 is a liquid, and C3H7OH is a solid.
C. F2 is a gas, Na2O is a liquid, and C3H7OH is a solid.
D. C3H7OH is a gas, F2 is a liquid, and Na2O is a solid.
31. Which of the following will require the greatest energy input to separate the ions?
A. MgI2 B. MgBr2 C. MgF2 D. NaCl
32. How many significant figures are in the following numbers?
(I) 6.0 g/mol and (II) 6.022 × 1023 atoms/mol
A. 2 and 23 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 4 D. 2 and 27
33. An irregularly-shaped metal object has a mass of 10.867 g. When the object was immersed in 50 mL of
water in a graduated cylinder, the water level rose from 50.0 mL to 58.5 mL. What is the density of the
object?
A. 0.5 g/mol B. 1.3 g/mol C. 2.7 g/mol D. 10 g/mol
34. According to De Broglie’s theory, an electron moving at 12.5 % the speed of light will display wave
behavior at what wavelength?
A. 19.4 nm B. 19.4 pm C. 12.8 pm D. 16.4 nm
35. What is the hybridization of the central atom in SO2?
A. sp B. sp3 C. sp2 D. sp3d
36. For the molecule SNO-, which resonance structure is the most reasonable structure?

A. C.

B. D.
37. Draw the molecular orbital diagram of BN-, considering only the valence electron.
A. 1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, (2p)4 C. 2s2, *2s2, (2p)4
B. 1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, (2p)4, 2p1 D. 2s2, *2s2, (2p)4, 2p1
38. The Ka for H2S = 9.1 x 10-8. Calculate the pH of a 0.15 M solution of H2S in water.
A. 5.1 B. 3.9 C. 4.5 D. 7.9

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39. Dinitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) decomposes to nitrogen dioxide (NO2). If ΔH° = 58.02 kJ/mol and ΔS° = 176.1
J/molK, at what temperature are reactants and products in their standard states at equilibrium?
A. +56.5°C B. +25.0°C C. +329.5°C D. –272.7°C
40. Suppose a chemical reaction is found to be spontaneous, but with Ssys < 0. Which of the following
statements must be TRUE?
A. ΔSsurr < 0 and its magnitude is < ΔSsys. In other words, the system loses entropy and the surroundings also
lose entropy. The loss by the surroundings is less than the loss by the system.
B. ΔSsurr < 0 and its magnitude is > ΔSsys. In other words, the system loses entropy and the surroundings also
lose entropy. The loss by the surroundings is greater than the loss by the system.
C. ΔSsurr > 0 and its magnitude is < ΔSsys. In other words, the system loses entropy but the surroundings gain
entropy. The gain by the surroundings is less than the loss by the system.
D. ΔSsurr > 0 and its magnitude is > ΔSsys. In other words, the system loses entropy but the surroundings gain
entropy, and the gain by the surroundings outweighs the loss by the system.
41. Which of the following statements is false regarding collision theory?
A. As temperature rises, a higher number of bimolecular collisions result in successful reaction.
B. As the concentration of either chemical increases, the bimolecular collision frequency increases
C. Not all bimolecular collisions result in successful reactions.
D. Elementary steps are routine that are either termolecular (three molecules colliding at once) or
tetramolecular (four molecules colliding at once).
42. Consider the following four solutions, and choose which statement is False :
i) 1 L of Pure Water
ii) 1 L of water with 0.15 moles of CH3OH added
iii) 1 L of water with 0.15 moles of CH3CH2OH
iv) 1 L of water with 0.15 moles of NaCl added
A. The pure water solution will have the highest vapor pressure.
B. The solution with 0.15 moles of CH3OH will have the same vapor pressure as the solution with 0.15 moles
of CH3CH2OH.
C. The solution with 0.15 moles of CH3OH will have higher vapor pressure than the solution with 0.15 moles
of NaCl.
D. The solution with 0.15 moles of NaCl will have the highest vapor pressure.
43. Rank the following in terms of increasing boiling point:
LiCl C3H7OH C4H8 N2
A. N2 < LiCl < C3H7OH < C4H8 C. N2 < C4H8 < C3H7OH < LiCl
B. LiCl < C4H8 < C3H7OH < N2 D. LiCl < C4H8 < N2 < C3H7OH

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44. Which of the following statements is True?
A. In a saturated solution at equilibrium, the rate at which solid material is dissolving differs from the rate at
which solid material is reforming.
B. For solids that dissolve in water, the primary reason is because dissolving results in increasing disorder.
C. Any and every solid that dissolves in water does so in an exothermic way.
D. The solubility of a solid always decreases at higher temperature.
45. Consider a saturated solution of AgCl in water. Compared to the original concentrations of the [Ag+] and
[Cl–], how would the concentrations be different after some NaCl was added to the solution?
A. The resulting [Ag+] and [Cl–] would both end up higher than they were originally.
B. The resulting [Ag+] and [Cl–] would both end up lower than they were originally.
C. The resulting [Ag+] would be larger, but the resulting [Cl–] would be smaller.
D. The resulting [Ag+] would be smaller, but the [Cl–] would be larger.
46. If you start with 80.0 mL of 0.40 M HNO3, calculate the pH following addition of 50.0 mL of 0.80 M KOH.
A. 3.4 B. 7.0 C. 12.8 D. 13.1
47. Given the following equilibrium, which of the following statements is true?
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) ΔH° = -78 kJ
A. An increase in temperature will cause a shift in the equilibrium position to the right.
B. A reduction in volume will cause a shift in the equilibrium position to the left.
C. An increase in the concentration of O2 (g) will cause the concentration of SO3 (g) to increase.
D. An increase in the amount of SO2 (g) will cause the amount of SO3 (g) to decrease.
48. What is the conjugate base of CH3OH?
A. CH3O+ B. CH3O- C. CH3OH2+ D. CH3OH+
49. When methyl butanoate under go reduction reaction in the presence of LiAlH4/H+; the product will be:
A. 1-pentanol and methanol C. 1-butanol and methanol
B. 1-butanol and ethanol D. 1-butanol and ethane
50. Detergents are better than soaps because they:
A. are naturally available. C. can be used in hard water.
B. are biodegradable. D. are basic.
51. Determine concentration of a solution that contains 825 mg of Na2HPO4 dissolved in 450.0 mL of water in
mole fraction.
A. 2.32 × 10-4 B. 0.00123 C. 0.012 D. 1.23 × 10-4
52. When 10 g CaCO3 decomposes into CaO, C (graphite), and oxygen in a coffee cup calorimeter, the Hrxn
= 571.6 kJ. What is the expected temperature change of the calorimeter assuming the specific heat of
calorimeter is 4.07 J/goC and the mass of the calorimeter is 1000 g.

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A. 14.0 oC B. 0.14 oC C. – 0.14 oC D. – 14.0 oC
53. Electrons in the helium atoms transition from 5th to the 2nd energy shell. If you observe the electromagnetic
radiation that result, what would you observe?
A. An emission spectrum with one line.
B. An absorption spectrum with multiple dark lines.
C. A continuous spectrum.
D. An absorption spectrum with single dark line.
54. How many 3d electrons are present in the ground state of chromium atom? (Z of Cr = 24)
A. 9 B. 6 C. 4 D. 5
55. Which of the following compounds is capable of dipole–dipole interactions?
A. CH4 B. SF6 C. NH4+ D. H2CO
56. The monomer of neoprene is:
A. 1,3-butadiene B. chloroprene C. 2-methyl propene D. isoprene
57. If a mineral is denser than its gangue, the appropriate method of separation is:
A. magnetic separation C. froth floatation
B. amalgamation D. gravity separation
58. When the following redox reaction is balanced (in either acidic or basic solution), what is the coefficient of
Cl- ?
I-(aq) + ClO- (aq) → I2 + Cl- (aq)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
59. Among the following chemical equation about chemical properties of tin one is incorrect:
A. Sn(s) + 2H2O(g) → SnO2(s) + 2H2(g)
B. Sn(s) + dil. 2HCl(aq) → SnCl2(aq) + H2 (g)
C. Sn(s) + conc. 4HNO3(aq) → Sn(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
D. Sn(s) + 2F2 (g) warm SnF4(s)
60. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Electrons are never found in an antibonding MO.
B. All antibonding MOs are higher in energy than the atomic orbitals of which they are composed.
C. Bonding MOs have electron density mainly outside the space between the two nuclei.
D. None of the above is true.
61. You place 2.8 g of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) into 150 ml of 1.0 M sodium hydroxide solution. If the total
volume remains constant, find the concentration of phosphate ion at the completion of the reaction.
A. 1.0 M B. 0.43 M C. 0.19 M D. 0.02 M

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62. Phosgene (COCl2) was used as a chemical warfare agent in World War I. It can be synthesized by reacting
carbon monoxide with chlorine as shown below. Using the data given estimate the heat of reaction (Hrxn)
CO + Cl2 → COCl2
Bond type C–O C=O CO C – Cl Cl – Cl
BE (kJ/mol) 360 750 1070 330 240
A. – 100 kJ/mol B. 230 kJ/mol C. – 330 kJ/mol D. 100 kJ/mol
63. Which of the following is not a possible graph of concentration versus time for a reactant?

A. C.

B. D.
64. The following graph shows the kinetics curves for the reaction of oxygen with hydrogen to form water:
O2(g) + 2H2(g) → 2H2O(g). Which curve is hydrogen?
A. the dashed curve.
B. the gray curve.
C. the black curve.
D. either the gray or the black curve.
65. Which of the following processes will lead to a decrease in the entropy of the system?
A. Salt crystals dissolve in water. C. Iron and oxygen react to form rust.
B. Air escapes from a hole in a balloon. D. Ice melts in your hand.
66. What substance is reduced in the following reaction?

A. Cr2O72– B. S2O32– C. H+ D. S4O62–

67. Which of the following species has a shape based on two lone pairs and two bond pairs?
A. NH3 B. NH2- C. NH4+ D. PH3
68. Which one of the following statements is false about zinc?
A. It is mainly extracted from galena.
B. It reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to give zinc chloride and hydrogen gas.
C. It shows amphoteric property.

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D. It is used for coating iron to prevent the iron from corrosion.
69. A peptide (amide) is a bond formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and:
A. the amino group. C. the amide group.
B. the hydroxyl group. D. the carbonyl group.
70. Which of the following groups, consist of salts that all form basic solutions in water? (Ac = acetate)

A. NaNO3, NH4CN, NaAc, NH4Cl C. NaHCO3, NaF, NH4Cl, Na2SO3

B. Na2CO3, KCl, NaOOCH3, NH4Cl D. Na2CO3, NaF, NaOOCH3, NaCN
71. sp3 hybridization involves the hybridization of how many atomic orbitals?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
72. Which one of the following statements best describes the enthalpy change of a reaction?
A. The energy released when chemical bonds are formed during a chemical reaction.
B. The energy consumed when chemical bonds are broken during a chemical reaction.
C. The difference between the energy released by bond formation and the energy consumed by bond cleavage
during a chemical reaction.
D. The increase in disorder of the system as a reaction proceeds.
73. Which one of the following statements regarding chemical equilibria is false?
A. Catalysts do not alter the position of equilibrium: they do not shift the equilibrium to the left or right.
B. At equilibrium, G = 0.
C. If G for a reaction is negative, the forward reaction happens spontaneously.
D. If the equilibrium constant is very large, G is positive.
74. Which one of the following is equal to the pKa of a weak acid?
A. Its relative molecular mass.
B. The pKb of its conjugate base.
C. The pH of a solution containing equal amounts of the acid and its conjugate base.
D. The equilibrium concentration of its conjugate base.
75. Which of the following relationships is true for an acidic solution at 25ºC?
A. [H+] > [OH-] C. Kw > 1× 10-14
B. pH > 7.00 D. The solution is negatively-charged.
76. Glancing at a periodic table, where do you expect to find elements that are good reducing agents?

A. in groups 16 and 17 C. at the bottom

B. on the left D. in the middle
77. Which one of the following statements regarding energy is false?

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 A. The total energy in a chemical universe (a system and its surroundings) is constant.
B. Energy can be converted from one form to another.
C. The energy stored in chemical bonds is referred to as kinetic energy.
D. An object suspended in the air has more energy than an object lying on the ground.
78. A non-bonding orbital can contain a maximum of how many electrons?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4
79. The distance travelled by light as it passes through a cuvette is called which of the following?

A. The focal length. C. The path length

B. The sample width. D. The field length

80. How much water must we add to a 10 mL sample of HCl with a concentration of 0.5 mol L-1 to bring about
a ten-fold dilution?

A. 10 mL B. 100 mL C. 90 mL D. 990 mL

Answer key: (Grade 12 Chemistry Model Examination)

Name ________________________________________________ Section: ________
1. 5.
2. 6.
3. 7.
4. 8.

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9. 45.
10. 46.
11. 47.
12. 48.
13. 49.
14. 50.
15. 51.
16. 52.
17. 53.
18. 54.
19. 55.
20. 56.
21. 57.
22. 58.
23. 59.
24. 60.
25. 61.
26. 62.
27. 63.
28. 64.
29. 65.
30. 66.
31. 67.
32. 68.
33. 69.
34. 70.
35. 71.
36. 72.
37. 73.
38. 74.
39. 75.
40. 76.
41. 77.
42. 78.
43. 79.
44. 80.

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