WMC (All Unit MCQS)

WIRELESS MOBILE COMMUNICATION MCQs
UNIT-1
1. Which of the following is not a standard used for paging system?
a) POCSAG
b) ERMES
c) IS-95
d) FLEX
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IS-95 is a standard used for cellular system which is based on code division
multiple access (CDMA). POCSAG (Post Office Code Standard Advisory Group), ERMES
(European Radio Messaging System) and FLEX are the protocols used in paging system.
2. Paging system uses which mode of transmission?
a) Full duplex
b) Simplex
c) Half Duplex
d) Duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Simplex systems communicate in only one way. For the paging systems,
messages received are not acknowledged and thus they use simplex mode of transmission.
3. The information sent by paging system is known as a ___________
a) Note
b) Line
c) Message
MOHD ZEESHAN 1
d) Page
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Page is concise information sent by a paging system to the subscribers of
entire service area.
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4. Which type of message cannot be sent with the help of paging system?
a) Alphanumeric message
b) Video message
c) Voice message
d) Numeric message
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The message sent by a paging system can be numeric, alphanumeric or voice
depending upon the type of service.
5. What is a paging access number?
a) An e mail id
b) A username
c) A toll free telephone number
d) A registration number
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Paging access number is a telephone number which is used to send the
information to the subscriber.
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6. Which type of transmission technique is employed by paging system?
a) Simulcasting
b) Multicasting
c) Unicasting
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Simulcast is a reliable technique used by paging system by transmitting the
same paging signal from multiple paging transmitters at approximately equal times.
7. Which of the following is not the property of paging system?
a) Asymmetric communication
b) Light weight
c) High cost
d) Wide area coverage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the main reasons for the increased users of paging system was its less
cost. But as the prices of cellular system declined, the users of paging system also
decreased.
8. Which of the following properties describes the transmitters and receivers in paging
system?
a) High complexity and high power transmitter, high complexity and high power receivers
b) Low complexity and low power transmitter, low complexity and low power receivers
c) Low complexity and low power transmitter, high complexity and high power receivers
d) High complexity and high power transmitter, low complexity and low power receivers
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 3
Answer: d
Explanation: High power of transmitters helps paging signal to easily penetrate the building
and low power receivers allow long usage time and light weight batteries.
9. What is a pager in the paging system?
a) A transmitter
b) A receiver
c) A transceiver
d) An equalizer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pager is a wireless device which receives the page, i.e. numeric,
alphanumeric or voice message sent by the transmitter.
10. Who introduced the paging system for the first time?
a) Al Gross
b) Teri Pall
c) Alexander Graham Bell
d) Martin Cooper
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is a protocol used for cordless telephone system?
a) PACS
b) ERMES
c) IS-95
d) FLEX
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: PACS (Personal Access Communication System) is a protocol used for cordless
telephone system. ERMES and FLEX are used by paging system. And IS-95 is used for cellular
system.
2. In which frequency range do the cordless phones mostly work?
a) 43-50 MHz
b) 88-108 MHz
c) 540-1600 KHz
d) 200-540 KHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cordless phones mostly operate in the frequency range of 43-50 MHz. The
frequency range of FM is 88-108 MHz and for AM is 540-1600 KHz.
3. Which of the following is the drawback for cordless telephones?
a) Wireless technology
b) Limited coverage area
c) Mobile
d) Security
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cordless telephone systems are wireless, but they have a disadvantage of
limited coverage area with cell size of approx. 300 m. Being digital, they have very less
chance of eaves dropping.
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4. Which of the following is a fully digital cordless system?

a) CT0
MOHD ZEESHAN 5
b) CT1
c) CT1+
d) DECT
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Digital enhanced cordless telecommunication (DECT) is a fully digital system
established in 1991. CT0, Ct1, Ct1+ were analog systems established in 1980, 1984 and 1987
respectively.
5. Which of the following is an example of local wireless system?
a) GSM
b) Cordless telephone system
c) UMTS
d) EDGE
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: GSM, UMTS and EDGE covers worldwide area whereas cordless system has vey
less coverage area.
6. Which of the following is not a standard for cordless telephony?
a) CT-2
b) DECT
c) UMTS
d) PHS
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: CT-2 is a cordless telephone standard used in Europe and Asia. DECT and PHS
(Personal Handyphone System) are cordless telephone standards used in Europe and Japan
respectively. UMTS is a cellular system standard.
7. What is the range of cell diameter of DECT?
a) 300 m
b) 2 km
c) 10 km
d) 70 km
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DECT has the cell diameter of 300 m from the base station while GSM is
designed for outdoor use with a cell diameter of 70 km.
8. Which of the following standard of cordless telephone system is also approved as a 3G
standard?
a) PHS
b) PACS
c) DECT
d) CT2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DECT fulfills the IMT 2000 requirements and is approved as a 3G standard by
ITU (International Telecommunication Union).
9. Cordless telephone system will not work under which of the following criteria?
a) Within a home
b) Within a building
c) Within campus
d) Within a city
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View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cordless telephones are used in homes, in offices, on campus, at trade shows.
But due to their limited coverage they cannot cover a whole city.
10. Which of the following is not an application of DECT?
a) Multimedia processing
b) Cordless private branch exchange
c) Wireless local loop
d) Home cordless phones
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular telephone system?
a) Accommodate a large number of users
b) Large geographic area
c) Limited frequency spectrum
d) Large frequency spectrum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cellular systems accommodate a large number of users within a limited
frequency spectrum over a large geographic area.
2. What is the responsibility of MSC in cellular telephone system?
a) Connection of mobile to base stations
b) Connection of mobile to PSTN
c) Connection of base station to PSTN
d) Connection of base station to MSC
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View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mobile Switching Center (MSC) is responsible for connecting all mobiles to the
PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) in a cellular system.
3. Who has the responsibility of billing and system maintenance function in cellular system?
a) Base Station
b) PSTN
c) MSC
d) Mobile system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mobile switching center (MSC) accommodates 100,000 subscribers and 5,000
simultaneous conversations at a time and handles all billing and system maintenance
functions.
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4. What is the function of FVC (Forward Voice Channel)?

a) Voice transmission from base station to mobiles
b) Voice transmission from mobile to base station
c) Initiating mobile calls
d) Broadcast all traffic request for all mobile
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FVC (Forward Voice Channel) and RVC (Reverse Voice Channel) are responsible
for voice transmission. FVC is used for voice transmission from base station to mobile and
RVC is used for voice transmission from mobile to base station.
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5. Which two channels are responsible for initiating mobile calls?
a) FVC and FCC
b) FVC and RVC
c) FCC and RCC
d) FCC and RVC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FCC (Forward Control Channel) and RCC (Reverse Control Channel) are control
channels responsible for initiating mobile calls.
6. Of the total channels present in the cellular system, what is the percentage of voice and
control channels?
a) 95% voice channels, 5% control channels
b) 5% voice channels, 95% control channels
c) 50% voice channels, 50% control channels
d) 25% voice channels, 75% control channels
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In each cellular system, control channels are 5% of the total channels available
and remaining 95% are dedicated to voice and data traffic.
7. What is MIN?
a) Subscriber’s telephone number
b) Paging message
c) Traffic request number
d) Mobile Internet
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: MIN (Mobile Identification Number) is a 10 digit unique number which
represents the telephone number of subscriber.
8. What is transmitted along with the call initiation request during the origin of call by a
mobile?
a) MIN
b) ESN
c) ESN and SCM
d) MIN, ESN and SCM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a mobile originates the call, it sends the MIN (mobile identification
number), ESN (electronic serial number) and SCM (station class mark) along with the call
initiation request.
9. What does SCM indicates?
a) Maximum receiver power level for a particular user
b) Maximum transmitter power level for a particular user
c) Minimum receiver power level for a particular user
d) Minimum transmitter power level for a particular user
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SCM (Station Class Mark) indicates the maximum transmitter power level for a
particular user.
10. What is the shape of the cell present in the cellular system?
a) Circular
b) Square
c) Hexagonal
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d) Triangular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shape of the cell present in the cellular network is hexagonal since it can
cover the entire geographical area without any gap and overlapping.
11. Why the size of the cell is kept small in cellular network?
a) Increase capacity
b) Decrease capacity
c) Increased size of base station electronics
d) Slow process of handoffs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The size of the cells in cellular network is kept small because of the need of
high capacity in areas with high user density and reduced size and cost of base station
electronics.
12. What is handoff?
a) Forward channel
b) Switching technique
c) Roamer
d) Guard channel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Handoff is a switching technique which refers to the process of transferring an
active call or data session from one cell in a cellular network to another.
13. Which one is not an advantage of using frequency reuse?
a) Increased capacity
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b) Limited spectrum is required
c) Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d) Number of base stations is reduced
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency reuse is a technique of reusing frequencies and channels within a
cellular system to improve capacity and spectral efficiency.
14. The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is
____________
a) MSC
b) Roamer
c) Handoff
d) Forward channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Handoff is the process of changing the channel associated with current
connection while a call is in progress.
15. The interference between the neighbouring base stations is avoided by ____________
a) Assigning different group of channels
b) Using transmitters with different power level
c) Using different antennas
d) Using different base stations
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Cellular concept replaces many low power transmitters to a single high power
transmitter.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cellular concept is a system level idea that replaces a single high power
transmitter to many low power transmitters. High power transmitters lead to large cell, and
thus it was impossible to use the same frequencies throughout the systems. But, it is
possible with low power transmitter.
2. Why neighbouring stations are assigned different group of channels in cellular system?
a) To minimize interference
b) To minimize area
c) To maximize throughput
d) To maximize capacity of each cell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Neighbouring base stations are assigned different group of channels. It
minimizes the interference between base stations and the users under their control.
3. What is a cell in cellular system?
a) A group of cells
b) A group of subscribers
c) A small geographical area
d) A large group of mobile systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cell is a small geographic area in a cellular system. Each cellular base station
within a cell is allocated a group of radio channels that could be used in another cell.
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4. What is frequency reuse?

a) Process of selecting and allocating channels
b) Process of selection of mobile users
c) Process of selecting frequency of mobile equipment
d) Process of selection of number of cells
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency reuse is the process of using the same radio frequencies on radio
transmitter sites within a geographic area. They are separated by sufficient distance to
cause minimal interference with each other.
5. Which of the following is a universally adopted shape of cell?
a) Square
b) Circle
c) Triangle
d) Hexagon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hexagonal cell shape is a simplistic model of radio coverage for each base
station. It has been universally adopted since the hexagon permits easy and manageable
analysis of a cellular system.
6. Actual radio coverage of a cell is called __________
a) Fingerprint
b) Footprint
c) Imprint
d) Matrix
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View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Actual radio coverage of a cell is known as the footprint. It is determined from
field measurements or propagation prediction models. Although the real footprint is
amorphous in nature, a regular cell shape is needed for systematic system design.
7. Why the shape of cell is not circle?
a) Omni directionality
b) Small area
c) Overlapping regions or gaps are left
d) Complex design
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Circle is the first natural choice to represent the coverage area of a base
station. But while adopting this shape, adjacent cells cannot be overlaid upon a map
without leaving gaps or creating overlapping regions.
8. What is the main reason to adopt hexagon shape in comparison to square and triangle?
a) Largest area
b) Simple design
c) Small area
d) Single directional
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a given distance between the center of a polygon and its farthest
perimeter points, the hexagon has the largest area. Thus, by using the hexagon geometry,
the fewest number of cells can cover a geographic region.
9. Which type of antenna is used for center excited cells?
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a) Dipole antenna
b) Grid antenna
c) Sectored antenna
d) Omnidirectional antenna
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For center excited cells, base station transmitters are used at the center of
cell. To cover the whole cell, omnidirectional antenna is the best choice for base station
transmitters.
10. Which type of antenna is used for edge excited cells?
a) Omnidirectional antenna
b) Grid antenna
c) Sectored directional antenna
d) Dipole antenna
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For edge excited cell, mostly base station transmitters are placed on three of
the six cell vertices. To cover the assigned portion of a cell, sectored directional antenna is
the best choice.
11. For a cellular system, if there are N cells and each cell is allocated k channel. What is the
total number of available radio channels, S?
a) S=k*N
b) S=k/N
c) S=N/k
d) S=kN
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 17
Answer: a
Explanation: If there is a cellular system with total of S duplex channels. Each cell is
allocated a group of k channels and there are total N cells in the system, S channels are
divide among N cells into unique and disjoint channel groups. Therefore, total number of
radio channel is the product of total number of cells in the system (N) and number of
channel allocated to each cell (k).
12. What is a cluster in a cellular system?
a) Group of frequencies
b) Group of cells
c) Group of subscribers
d) Group of mobile systems
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cluster is group of N cells. These cells use the complete set of frequency
available for the cellular system at that location.
13. What is a frequency reuse factor for N number of cells in a system?
a) N
b) N2
c) 2*N
d) 1/N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The frequency reuse factor is defined as 1 over the number of cells in the
cluster of the system (N). It is given by 1/N since each cell within a cluster is only assigned
1/N of the total available channels in the system.
14. Capacity of a cellular system is directly proportional to __________
a) Number of cells
b) Number of times a cluster is replicated
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c) Number of Base stations
d) Number of users
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The capacity of a cellular system is directly proportional to the number of
times a cluster is replicated in a fixed area. If the cluster size N is reduced while the cell size
is kept constant, more clusters are required to cover a given area, and hence more capacity
is achieved.
15. A spectrum of 30 MHz is allocated to a cellular system which uses two 25 KHz simplex
channels to provide full duplex voice channels. What is the number of channels available
per cell for 4 cell reuse factor?
a) 150 channels
b) 600 channels
c) 50 channels
d) 85 channels
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is not an objective for channel assignment strategies?
a) Efficient utilization of spectrum
b) Increase of capacity
c) Minimize the interference
d) Maximize the interference
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The objective of channel assignment strategy is to utilize the spectrum
efficiently. And for efficient utilization, a frequency reuse scheme consistent with the
objective of increasing capacity and minimizing interference is required.
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2. The choice of channel assignment strategy does not impact the performance of the
system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The choice of channel assignment strategy impacts the performance of the
system. Particularly as to how calls are managed, when a mobile user is handed off from
one cell to another.
3. In fixed channel assignment strategy, each cell is allocated a predetermined set of
_______
a) Voice channels
b) Control channels
c) Frequency
d) base stations
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a foxed channel strategy, each cell is allocated a predetermined set of voice
channels. Any call attempt within the cell can only be served by the unused channels in that
particular cell.
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4. What happen to a call in fixed channel strategy, if all the channels in a cell are occupied?
a) Queued
b) Cross talk
c) Blocked
d) Delayed
MOHD ZEESHAN 20
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As any call attempt within a cell can be served by unused channels in fixed
channel strategy. If all the channels in that cell are occupied, the call is blocked and
subscriber does not receive any service.
5. What is a borrowing strategy in fixed channel assignments?
a) Borrowing channels from neighbouring cell
b) Borrowing channels from neighbouring cluster
c) Borrowing channels from same cell
d) Borrowing channels from other base station in same cell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In borrowing strategy, a cell is allowed to borrow channels from a
neighbouring cell if all of its own channels are already occupied. The MSC supervises such
borrowing procedure and ensures that the borrowing of channel does not interfere with
any call in progress.
6. In dynamic channel assignment strategy, voice channels are allocated to different cells
permanently.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a dynamic channel strategy, voice channels are not allocated to different
cells permanently. Instead, serving base station requests a channel from MSC each time a
cell request is made.
7. In dynamic channel assignment strategy, base station requests channel from
____________
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a) MSC
b) Neighbouring cell
c) Neighbouring cluster
d) Neighbouring base station
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Each time a call request is made, the serving base station requests a channel
from the MSC. The switch then allocates a channel to the requested cell following an
algorithm that takes into account the likelihood of future blocking within the cell.
8. Dynamic channel assignment reduces the likelihood of blocking in comparison to fixed
channel assignment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic channel assignment reduces the likelihood of blocking. Accordingly,
the MSC only allocates a given frequency if that frequency is not presently in use in the cell
or any other cell which falls within the minimum restricted distance of frequency reuse.
9. RSSI stands for ________
a) Received Signal Strength Indicator
b) Restricted Signal Strength Indicator
c) Radio Signal Strength Indication
d) Restricted System Software Indicator
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: Received signal strength indicator (RSSI) is a measurement of the power
present in a received radio signal. RSSI is usually invisible to a user of a receiving device.
10. What is the drawback of dynamic channel assignment?
a) Decrease channel utilization
b) Increase probability of blocked call
c) Cross talk
d) Increase storage and computational load on system
View Answer
Answer: d
1. What is the condition for handoff?
a) A mobile moves into a different cell while in conversation
b) A mobile remains in the same cell while in conversation
c) A mobile moves to different cell when idle
d) A mobile remains in the same cell and is idle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Handoff occurs when a mobile moves into a different cell while a conversation
is in progress. The MSC automatically transfers the call to a new channel belonging to the
new base station.
2. Handoff does not require voice and control channel to be allocated to channels
associated with the new base station.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
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Explanation: Handoff operation involves identifying a new base station. It also requires that
the voice and control signal be allocated to channels associated with the new base station.
3. The time over which a call can be maintained within a cell without handoff is called
_________
a) Run time
b) Peak time
c) Dwell time
d) Cell time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The time over which a call is maintained within a cell without handoff is called
as dwell time. Dwell time vary depending on speed of user and type of radio coverage.
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4. Dwell time does not depend on which of the following factor?

a) Propagation
b) Interference
c) Distance between subscriber and base station
d) Mobile station
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Dwell time of a particular user is governed by a number of factors. They
include propagation, interference, distance between the subscriber and the base station,
and other time varying effects.
5. Which of the following is associated with the handoff in first generation analog cellular
systems?
a) Locator receiver
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b) MAHO
c) Cell dragging
d) Breathing cell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Locator receiver is a spare receiver in each base station. It is used to scan and
determine signal strengths of mobile users which are in neighbouring cells.
6. MAHO stands for ______
a) MSC assisted handoff
b) Mobile assisted handoff
c) Machine assisted handoff
d) Man assisted handoff
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MAHO stands for mobile assisted handoff. In 2G systems, handoff decisions
are mobile assisted. In MAHO, every mobile station measure the received power from
surrounding base station and continuously reports the results to serving base station.
7. A handoff is initiated when the power received from the base station of a neighbouring
cell falls behind the power received from the current base station by certain level.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MAHO measures the power received from the surrounding base station. And a
handoff is initiated when the power received from the base station of a neighbouring cell
begins to exceed the power received from current base station.
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8. What is the condition for intersystem interference?
a) Mobile moves from one cell to another cell
b) Mobile remains in the same cell
c) Mobile moves from one cellular system to another cellular system
d) Mobile remains in the same cluster
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An intersystem handoff is initiated when a mobile moves from one cellular
system to another during a course of a call. An MSC engages in an intersystem interference
when a mobile becomes weak in a given cell and MSC cannot find another cell to which call
can be transferred.
9. What is the disadvantage of guard channel?
a) Efficient utilization of spectrum
b) Cross talk
c) Near far effect
d) Reduce total carried traffic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Guard channel is a concept for handling priority in handoff. Here, a fraction of
the total available channels in a cell is reserved exclusively for handoff requests from
ongoing calls. This method has the disadvantage of reducing the total carried traffic, as
fewer channels are allocated to originating calls.
10. Which of the following priority handoff method decrease the probability of forced
termination of a call due to lack of available channels?
a) Queuing
b) Guard channel
c) Cell dragging
d) Near far effect
MOHD ZEESHAN 26
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Queuing of handoff requests is a method to decrease the probability of forced
termination of a call due to lack of available channels. Queuing of handoff is possible due to
the fact that there is a finite time interval between the time the received signal level drops
below the handoff threshold and the time the call is terminated.
11. Umbrella cell approach is possible by using _________
a) Antenna of same heights
b) Antenna of different heights
c) Different voice channels
d) Different control channels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Umbrella cell approach is possible by using different antenna heights and
different power levels. By using this approach, it is possible to provide large and small cells
which are co-located at a single location.
12. Cell dragging is a problem occur due to __________
a) Pedestrian users
b) Stationary users
c) High speed mobile systems
d) Base stations having same frequency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cell dragging is a practical handoff problem in microcell system. It results from
pedestrian users that provide a very strong signal to the base station.
13. What was the typical handoff time in first generation analog cellular systems?
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a) 1 second
b) 10 seconds
c) 1 minute
d) 10 milliseconds
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In first generation analog cellular system, the typical time to make a handoff
once the signal level is below the threshold, is about 10 seconds. This requires the value for
threshold to be 6 dB to 12 dB.
14. How much time it takes for handoff in digital cellular systems like GSM?
a) 1 second
b) 10 seconds
c) 1 minute
d) 10 milliseconds
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In digital cellular systems, the mobile assista with the handoff procedure by
determining the best candidate. Once the decision is made, it typically requires 1 to 2
seconds for handoff.
15. Soft handoff is also known as _________
a) MAHO
b) Hand over
c) Break before make
d) Make before break
View Answer
Answer: d
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1. The mechanism behind electromagnetic wave propagation cannot be attributed to
___________
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Scattering
d) Sectoring
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The mechanisms behind electromagnetic wave propagation are diverse. They
can be greatly attributed to reflection, diffraction and scattering. Due to multiple reflections
from various objects, the electromagnetic waves travel along different paths of varying
lengths.
2. The propagation model that estimates radio coverage of a transmitter is called
___________
a) Large scale propagation model
b) Small scale propagation model
c) Fading model
d) Okumura model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Large scale propagation model are useful in estimating the radio coverage area
of a transmitter. They can predict the mean signal strength for an arbitrary transmitter-
receiver (T-R) separation distance. They characterize signal strength over large T-R
separation distances.
3. Propagation model that characterize rapid fluctuation is called _________
a) Hata model
b) Fading model
c) Large scale propagation model
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d) Okumura model
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fading models characterize the rapid fluctuations of the received signal
strength over very short travel distance (a few wavelengths) or shot time durations (on the
order of seconds).
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4. Small scale propagation model is also known as _________

a) Fading model
b) Micro scale propagation model
c) Okumura model
d) Hata model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Small scale propagation model is also called fading model. Fading model
characterize the rapid fluctuations of the received signal strength over very short distance
of a few wavelengths or short time duration. The propagation models are used to estimate
the performance of wireless channels.
5. Free space propagation model is to predict ______
a) Received signal strength
b) Transmitted power
c) Gain of transmitter
d) Gain of receiver
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: Free space propagation model predicts the received signal strength when
there is an unobstructed line of sight path between transmitter and receiver. It assumes the
ideal propagation condition that the environment is empty between the transmitter and
receiver.
6. Which of the following do not undergo free space propagation?
a) Satellite communication system
b) Microwave line of sight radio links
c) Wireless line of sight radio links
d) Wired telephone systems
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: EM signals when traveling through wireless channels experience fading effects
due to various effects. But in some cases the transmission is with no obstruction and direct
line of sight such as in satellite communication, microwave and wireless line of sight radio
links.
7. The free space model predicts that received signal decays as a function of _________
a) Gain of transmitter antenna
b) T-R separation
c) Power of transmitter antenna
d) Effective aperture of the antenna
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As with most large scale radio wave propagation models, the free space model
predicts that received signal decays as a function of the T-R separation distance raised to
some power. Often it is given as a function of negative square root of the distance.
8. Relation between gain and effective aperture is given by ______
a) G=(4πAe)/λ2
b) G=(4π λ2)/Ae
MOHD ZEESHAN 31
c) G=4πAe
d) G=Ae/λ2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gain of the antenna is proportional to effective aperture area. Therefore,
antennas with large effective apertures are high gain antennas and have small angular
beam widths. Most of their power is radiated in a narrow beam in one direction, and little
in other directions.
9. Relation between wavelength and carrier frequency is _________
a) λ=c/f
b) λ=c*f
c) λ=f/c
d) λ=1/f
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wavelength is inversely proportional to carrier frequency. For electromagnetic
radiation in free space, wavelength is a ratio of speed of light (c) and carrier frequency (f).
Speed of light is 3*108 m/s. The unit for wavelength is meters.
10. Which of the following antenna radiates power with unit gain uniformly in all
directions?
a) Directional antenna
b) Dipole antenna
c) Isotropic antenna
d) Loop antenna
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 32
Explanation: Isotropic antenna radiates the power with unit gain uniformly in all directions.
It is an ideal antenna. From practical point of view, there is no actual isotropic antenna. But,
an isotropic antenna is often used as a reference antenna for the antenna gain.
11. EIRP is abbreviated as __________
a) Effective isotropic radiated power
b) Effective isotropic radio power
c) Effective and immediate radiated power
d) Effective and immediate ratio of power
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: EIRP stands for Effective Isotropic Radiated Power. It is the amount of power
that a theoretical isotropic antenna would emit to produce the peak power density
observed in the direction of maximum antenna gain. EIRP also takes into account the losses
in transmission line and connectors and includes the gain of the antenna.
12. Path loss in free space model is defined as difference of ________
a) Effective transmitted power and gain
b) Effective received power and distance between T-R
c) Gain and received power
d) Effective transmitter power and receiver power
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: I Path loss is defined as difference of effective transmitter power and receiver
power. Free-space path loss is the loss in signal strength of an electromagnetic wave that
would result from a line-of-sight path through free space, with no obstacles nearby to cause
reflection or diffraction.
13. Far field region is also known as _________
a) Near field region
b) Fraunhofer region
MOHD ZEESHAN 33
c) Erlang region
d) Fresnel region
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The far field is the region far from the antenna. In this region, the radiation
pattern does not change shape with distance. Also, this region is dominated by radiated
fields, with the E- and H-fields orthogonal to each other and the direction of propagation as
with plane waves.
14. Fraunhofer distance is given by _____
a) 2D2/λ
b) 2D/λ
c) D/λ
d) 2D/λ2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fraunhofer distance, also known as far field distance is inversely proportional
to wavelength. It depends on the largest physical dimension of the antennal (D). This
distance basically denotes the boundary between far field and near field region.
15. Which of the following is called an ideal antenna?
a) Dipole antenna
b) Directional antenna
c) Isotropic antenna
d) Loop antenna
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 34
1. Which of the following mechanism do not impact propagation in mobile communication
system?
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Scattering
d) Refraction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reflection, diffraction and scattering are the three basic propagation
mechanism which impact propagation in mobile communication system. Large scale
propagation model and small scale fading and multipath propagation are described by the
physics of reflection, diffraction and scattering.
2. What is the dimension of object as compared to wavelength of propagating wave when
reflection occurs?
a) Large
b) Small
c) Same
d) Very small
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reflection occurs when a propagating electromagnetic wave impinges upon an
object which has very large dimensions when compared to the wavelength of the
propagation wave. Reflection occurs from the surface of the Earth and from buildings and
walls.
3. When does the wave propagating from one medium to another gets partially reflection
and partially transmitted?
a) Both mediums have same electrical properties
b) Both mediums have different electrical properties
MOHD ZEESHAN 35
c) Both mediums have same magnetic properties
d) Both mediums have different magnetic properties
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a radio wave propagating in one medium impinges upon another
medium having different electrical properties. The wave is partially reflected and partially
transmitted.
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4. What is the case of reflection, in course of second medium being a perfect dielectric?
a) Loss of energy during absorption
b) Total energy reflected back to first medium
c) No loss of energy in absorption
d) Total energy transmitted into second medium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the plane wave is incident on a perfect dielectric, part of the energy is
transmitted into the second medium and part of the energy is reflected back into the first
medium. There is no loss of energy in absorption.
5. What is the case of reflection, in course of second medium being a perfect conductor?
a) Loss of energy during absorption
b) Total energy reflected back to first medium
c) Partly transmission and reflection
d) Total energy transmitted into second medium
View Answer
Answer: b
MOHD ZEESHAN 36
Explanation: If the second medium is perfect conductor, then all incident energy is reflected
back into the second medium. There is no loss of energy during absorption.
6. Which of the following relates the incident and reflected & transmitted wave?
a) Fresnel transmission coefficient
b) Scattering coefficient
c) Diffraction coefficients
d) Fresnel reflection coefficient
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The electric field intensity of the reflected and transmitted waves may be
related to the incident waves in the medium of origin through the Fresnel reflection
coefficient. It is equal to the ratio of the amplitude of the reflected wave to the incident
wave, with each expressed as phasors.
7. Reflection coefficient is not a function of __________
a) Material property
b) Diffraction loss
c) Wave polarization
d) Angle of incidence
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The reflection coefficient is a function of the material properties, and generally
depends upon the wave polarization, angle of incidence and frequency of propagating
waves. It is a parameter that describes how much of an electromagnetic wave is reflected
by an impedance discontinuity in the transmission medium.
8. Polarized wave can be mathematically represented as sum of ________
a) Four orthogonal components
b) Two spatially adjacent components
c) Two spatially orthogonal components
MOHD ZEESHAN 37
d) Six orthogonal components
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A polarized wave may be mathematically represented as sum of two spatially
orthogonal components. For an arbitrary polarization, super position may be used to
compute the reflected fields from a reflecting surface.
9. The plane of incidence contains only incident rays.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The plane of incidence is defined as the plane containing the incident,
reflected and transmitted waves. The incident light is polarized with its electric field
perpendicular to the plane containing the incident, reflected, and refracted rays.
10. Permittivity and conductivity are insensitive to ______ for a good conductor.
a) Operating frequency
b) Polarization density
c) Electric field
d) Property of material
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The terms permittivity and conductivity are insensitive to operating frequency
when the material is a good conductor. In the case of conductors, it is evident that electric
field inside a conductor is zero. That is because free charges reside only on the surface of
conductor and not inside.
11. Velocity of electromagnetic wave can be given by _______
a) 1/√(μ∈)
MOHD ZEESHAN 38
b) μ/∈
c) 1/(μ∈)
d) μ∈
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a medium with permittivity, ∈ and permeability, μ the velocity of
electromagnetic wave is given by 1/√(μ∈). It is also known as phase velocity. The velocity of
light is given by 3*108 m/s.
12. The boundary condition at the surface of incidence obeys ________
a) Kepler’s law
b) Gauss law
c) Faraday law
d) Snell’s law
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Snell’s law is also known as Snell–Descartes law or the law of refraction. It
gives a formula to describe the relationship between the angles of incidence and refraction,
when referring to light or other waves passing through a boundary between two different
isotropic media, such as water, glass, or air.
13. The angle at which no reflection occurs in the medium of origin is called _________
a) Azimuth angle
b) Elevation angle
c) Brewster angle
d) Inclination angle
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 39
1. Empirical approach is based on fitting curve or analytical expressions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The empirical approach is based on fitting curves or analytical expressions that
recreate a set of measured data. This has the advantage of implicitly taking into account all
propagation factors, both known and unknown through actual field measurements.
2. Which of the following is not a practical path loss estimation technique?
a) Log distance path loss model
b) Log normal shadowing
c) Determination of percentage of coverage area
d) Hata model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Log normal shadowing, log distance path loss model and determination of
percentage of coverage area are practical pat loss estimation techniques. Hata model is
only valid for exterior environment.
3. Average received signal power decreases __________ with distance.
a) Exponentially
b) Logarithmically
c) Two times
d) Four times
View Answer
Answer: b
MOHD ZEESHAN 40
Explanation: Both theoretical and measurement based propagation models indicate that
average received signal power decreases logarithmically with distance. It is valid for both
outdoor and indoor channels.
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4. What does path loss exponent indicates?

a) Rate at which path loss decreases with distance
b) Rate at which path loss increases with distance
c) Rate at which path loss decreases with power density
d) Rate at which path loss increases with power density
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The average large scale path loss for an arbitrary T-R separation is expressed
as a function of distance by using a path loss exponent, n. It indicates the rate at which the
path loss increases with distance.
5. The reference distance should not be in the far field of the antenna.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is important to select a free space reference distance that is appropriate for
the propagation environment. The reference distance should always be in the far field of
the antenna so that near field effects do not alter the reference path loss.
6. Which distribution describes the shadowing effect?
a) Log normal distribution
b) Nakagami distribution
c) Cauchy distribution
MOHD ZEESHAN 41
d) Rayleigh distribution
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Log normal distribution describes the random shadowing effects. It occurs
over a large number of measurement locations which have the same T-R separation, but
have different clutter on the propagation path.
7. Log normal shadowing is a phenomenon that occurs with same T-R separation having
same level clutter on the propagation path.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Log normal shadowing occurs over a large number of measurement locations
which have the same T-R separation, but have different levels of clutter on the propagation
path. It follows log normal distribution.
8. Log normal shadowing implies that measured signal levels at specific T-R separation have
______ distribution when signal levels have values in dB units.
a) Rayleigh
b) Gamma
c) Gaussian
d) Nakagami
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Log normal shadowing implies that measured signal levels at a specific T-R
separation have Gaussian (Normal) distribution. It is about the distance dependent mean of
4.68 where the signal levels have values in dB units.
9. A link budget is accounting of all __________
MOHD ZEESHAN 42
a) Gain and losses from the transmitter
b) Power transmitted by transmitter
c) Power received by receiver
d) Power transmitted and received
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A link budget is accounting of all of the gains and losses from the transmitter,
through the medium (free space, cable, waveguide, etc.) to the receiver in a
telecommunication system. It accounts for the attenuation of the transmitted signal due to
propagation, as well as the antenna gains and miscellaneous losses.
10. Antenna’s efficiency is given by the ratio of __________
a) Losses
b) Physical aperture to effective aperture
c) Signal power to noise power
d) Effective aperture to physical aperture
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following is not a statistical models for multipath fading channels?
a) Clarke’s model for flat fading
b) Saleh and Valenzuela indoor statistical model
c) Two ray Rayleigh fading model
d) Faraday model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Several multipath models have been suggested to explain the observed
statistical nature of a mobile channel. Clarke’s model for flat fading, Saleh and Valenzuela
MOHD ZEESHAN 43
indoor statistical model, two ray Rayleigh fading model are some of the statistical model for
multipath fading channels.
2. Who presented the first statistical model for multipath fading channel?
a) Ossana
b) Rayleigh
c) Newton
d) Faraday
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The first statistical model was presented by Ossana. It was based on
interference of wave incident and reflected from the flat sides of randomly located
buildings. Ossana model predicts flat fading power spectra that were in agreement with
measurements in suburban areas.
3. Clarke’s model assumes a horizontal polarized antenna.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clarke developed a model where the statistical characteristics of the
electromagnetic fields of the received signal at the mobile are deduced from scattering.
Clarke’s model assumes a fixed transmitter with a vertically polarized antenna.
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4. A wave that is incident on mobile does not undergo Doppler shift.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 44
Answer: b
Explanation: Every wave that is incident on the mobile undergoes a Doppler shift. It is due
to the motion of the receiver and it arrives at the receiver at the same time. Therefore,
there is no excess delay due to multipath for any of the waves.
5. Which of the following is an important statistics of a Rayleigh fading useful for designing
error control codes and diversity schemes?
a) Mobile speed
b) Doppler frequency
c) Level crossing rate (LCR)
d) Power density
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The level crossing rate (LCR) and average fade duration of a Rayleigh fading
signal are important statistics. They are useful for designing error control codes and
diversity schemes to be used in mobile communication.
6. The level crossing rate (LCR) is defined as expected rate at which _______ fading
envelope crosses a specified level.
a) Rayleigh
b) Saleh
c) Vanezuela
d) Faraday
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The LCR is defined as the expected rate at which the Rayleigh fading envelop is
normalized to the local rms signal level. And it crosses a specified level in a positive going
direction.
7. Level crossing rate is a function of _______
MOHD ZEESHAN 45
a) Power transmitted by base station
b) Power density of receiver
c) Mobile speed
d) Bit error rate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The level crossing rate is a function of mobile speed. Because, it is possible to
relate the time rate of change of the received signal of the signal level and velocity of the
mobile.
8. Clarke’s model considers the multipath time delay.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clarke’s model and the statistics for Rayleigh fading are for flat fading
conditions. They do not consider multipath time delay.
9. Saleh and Venezuela reported the results of ______ propagation measurements.
a) Indoor
b) Outdoor
c) Air
d) High frequency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Saleh and Venezuela reported the results of indoor propagation
measurements. The measurements were made between two vertically polarized
omnidirectional antennas located on the same floor of a medium sized office building.
MOHD ZEESHAN 46
10. Saleh and Venezuela show that indoor channel is _______ time varying.
a) Not
b) Very slow
c) Fast
d) Very fast
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The results obtained by Saleh and Venezuela shows that the indoor channel is
quasi static or very slow time varying. It shows that the statistics of the channel impulse
response are independent of transmitting and receiving antenna polarization.
11. What is the full form of SIRCIM?
a) Simulation of Indoor Radio Channel Impulse response Model
b) Statistical Indoor Radio Channel for Impulse Model
c) Statistical Impulse Radio Channel for Indoor Model
d) Simulation of Impulse Radio Channel for Indoor Model
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following distribution is used for describing statistical time varying nature of
received envelope of multipath component?
a) Log normal distribution
b) Levy distribution
c) Rayleigh distribution
d) Gaussian distribution
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 47
Explanation: Rayleigh distribution is the most common distribution for statistical modelling.
It is used to describe the statistical time varying nature of the received envelope of a flat
fading signal. It also describes the envelope of an individual multipath component.
2. Envelope of the sum of two quadrature Gaussian noise signal obeys _________
distribution.
a) Rayleigh
b) Inverse Gaussian
c) Nakagami
d) Gamma
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is well known that the envelope of the sum of two quadrature Gaussian
noise signal obeys Rayleigh distribution. This fading distribution could be applied to any
scenario where there is no line of sight path between transmitter and receiver antennas.
3. For a Rayleigh fading signal, mean and median differ by _______
a) 2 dB
b) 10 dB
c) 0.55 dB
d) 100 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The mean and median differ by only 0.55 dB in a Rayleigh fading signal. The
differences between the rms values and the other two values are higher.
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4. It is easy to compare different fading distributions using mean values instead of median
values.
a) True
MOHD ZEESHAN 48
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By using median values instead of mean values, it is easy to compare different
fading distributions which may have widely varying means. Median is used in practice since
fading data is measured in the field and a particular distribution cannot be assumed.
5. For a nonfading signal component present, the small scale fading envelope distribution is
____________
a) Rayleigh
b) Gaussian
c) Log normal
d) Ricean
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The small scale fading envelope is Ricean when there is a dominant stationary
(nonfading) signal component, such as line of sight propagation path. In such a situation,
random multipath components arriving at different angles are superimposed on a
stationary dominant signal.
6. Ricean distribution degenerates to ________ distribution when the dominant component
fades away.
a) Log normal
b) Gamma
c) Rayleigh
d) Gaussian
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 49
Explanation: Ricean distribution degenerates to Rayleigh distribution when the dominant
component fades away. As the dominant signal becomes weaker, the composite signal
resembles a noise signal which has an envelope that is Rayleigh.
7. The envelope of a bandpass noise is __________
a) Uniformly distributed
b) Rayleigh
c) Ricean
d) Gaussian
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The envelope of only bandpass noise is Rayleigh distribution. Rayleigh
distribution is a continuous probability density function for positive random variables.
8. The envelope of a sinusoid plus bandpass noise has __________
a) Uniformly distributed
b) Rayleigh
c) Ricean
d) Gaussian
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The envelope of a sinusoid plus bandpass noise has Ricean distribution. In
probability theory, Ricean distribution is the probability distribution which has magnitude
of a circular bivariate normal random variable with potentially non-zero mean.
9. What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavelengths of the
carrier?
a) Rayleigh fading
b) Ricean fading
c) Wavelength fading
MOHD ZEESHAN 50
d) Slow fading
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Slow fading does not vary quickly with the frequency. It originates due to
effect of mobility. Slow fading is the result of signal path change due to shadowing and
obstructions such as tree or buildings etc.
10. Which of the reception problems below that is not due to multipath?
a) Delayed spreading
b) Rayleigh fading
c) Random Doppler shift
d) Slow fading
View Answer
Answer: d
1. The term heterodyning refers to
a) Frequency conversion
b) Frequency mixing
c) Frequency conversion & mixing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The method heterodyning means frequency conversion and mixing and this
results in a spectral shift.
2. The causes for error performance degradation in communication systems are
a) Interference
b) Electrical noise
MOHD ZEESHAN 51
c) Effect of filtering
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main causes of error performance degradation are interference electrical
noise effect of filtering and also due to the surroundings.
3. Thermal noise in the communication system due to thermal electrons
a) Can be eliminated
b) Cannot be eliminated
c) Can be avoided upto some extent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal noise which cannot be eliminated is caused by the motion of thermal
electrons causes degradation in system.
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4. White noise has _______ power spectral density.

a) Constant
b) Variable
c) Constant & Variable
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The AWGN has constant power spectral density.
MOHD ZEESHAN 52
5. Which are called as hard decisions?
a) Estimates of message symbol with error correcting codes
b) Estimates of message symbol without error correcting codes
c) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If error correcting codes are not present, the detector output consists of
estimates of the message symbol which is also called as hard decisions.
6. The filter which is used to recover the pulse with less ISI is called as
a) Matched filter
b) Correlator
c) Matched filter & Correlator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The optimum filter used to recover the pulse with best possible signal to noise
ratio and less or no ISI is called as correlator or matched filter.
7. The composite equalizing filter is the combination of
a) Receiving and equalizing filter
b) Transmitting and equalizing filter
c) Amplifier and equalizing filter
View Answer
Answer: a
MOHD ZEESHAN 53
Explanation: The functions of both receiving and equalizing filter can be performed by only
the equalizing filter alone. Thus equalizing filter is the combination of equalizing and
receiving filter.
8. The sample from the demodulation process consists of sample which is _______ to
energy of the received symbol and _____ to noise.
a) Directly and inversely proportional
b) Inversely and directly proportional
c) Both directly proportional
d) Both inversely proportional
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The output symbol of the sampler consists of sample which is directly
proportional to the energy of the received signal and inversely proportional to the noise.
9. The average noise power of white noise is
a) 0
b) Infinity
c) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: White noise is a idealized process with two sided spectral density equal to
constant N0/2 and frequencies varying from minus infinity to plus infinity. Thus the average
noise power is infinity.
10. The channel may be affected by
a) Thermal noise
b) Interference from other signals
c) Thermal noise & Interference from other signals
MOHD ZEESHAN 54
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A channel can be modelled as a linear filter with additional noise. The noise
comes from thermal noise source and also from interference from other signals.
11. Channels display multi-path due to
a) Scattering
b) Time delayed reflections
c) Diffraction
View Answer
Answer: d
UNIT-2
1. Vocoders analyse the speech signals at ______
a) Transmitter
b) Receiver
c) Channel
d) IF Filter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vocoders are a class of speech coding systems. They analyse the speech signal
at the transmitter. And then transmit the parameters derived from the analysis.
2. Vocoders __________ the voice at the receiver.
a) Analyse
MOHD ZEESHAN 55
b) Synthesize
c) Modulate
d) Evaluate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vocoders synthesize the voice at the receiver. All vocoder systems attempt to
model the speech generation process as a dynamic system and try to quantify certain
physical constraints of the system.
3. Vocoders are simple than the waveform coders.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vocoders are much more complex than the waveform coders. They can
achieve very high economy in transmission bit rate but are less robust.
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4. Which of the following is not a vocoding system?

a) Linear predictive coder
b) Channel vocoder
c) Waveform coder
d) Formant vocoder
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 56
Explanation: Waveform coder is not a vocoding system. LPC (linear predictive coding) is the
most popular vocoding system. Other vocoding systems are channel vocoder, formant
vocoder, cepstrum vocoder etc.
5. Which of the following pronunciations lead to voiced sound?
a) ‘f’
b) ‘s’
c) ‘sh’
d) ‘m’
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Voiced sounds are ‘m’, ‘n’ and ‘v’ pronounciations. They are a result of
quasiperiodic vibrations of the vocal chord.
6. Speech signal can be categorised in _____ and ______
a) Voiced, unvoiced
b) Active, passive
c) Direct, indirect
d) Balanced, unbalanced
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speech signal is of two types, voiced and unvoiced. Voiced sound is a result of
quasiperiodic vibrations of the vocal chord. Unvoiced signals are fricatives produced by
turbulent air flow through a constriction.
7. Channel vocoders are the time domain vocoders.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 57
Answer: b
Explanation: Channel vocoders are frequency domain vocoders. They determine the
envelope of the speech signal for a number of frequency bands and then sample, encode
and multiplex these samples with the encoded outputs of the other filters.
8. ________ is often called the formant of the speech signal.
a) Pitch frequency
b) Voice pitch
c) Pole frequency
d) Central frequency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The pole frequencies correspond to the resonant frequencies of the vocal
tract. They are often called the formants of the speech signal. For adult speakers, the
formants are centered around 500 Hz, 1500 Hz, 2500 Hz and 3500 Hz.
9. Formant vocoders use large number of control signals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Formant vocoders use fewer control signals. Therefore, formant vocoders can
operate at lower bit rates than the channel vocoder. Instead of transmitting the power
spectrum envelope, formant vocoders attempt to transmit the position of peaks of spectral
envelope.
10. Cepstrum vocoder uses __________
a) Wavelet transform
b) Inverse wavelet transform
c) Cosine transform
d) Inverse Fourier transform
MOHD ZEESHAN 58
View Answer
Answer: d
1. The transmission bandwidth of spread spectrum techniques is equal to the minimum
required signal bandwidth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spread spectrum techniques employ a transmission bandwidth that is several
orders of magnitude greater than the minimum required signal bandwidth. On the other
hand, primary objective of all the modulation schemes is to minimize the required
transmission bandwidth.
2. Why spread spectrum technique is inefficient for a single user?
a) Large transmission bandwidth
b) Small transmission bandwidth
c) Fixed transmission bandwidth
d) Fixed null bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spread spectrum systems are bandwidth inefficient for single users. But in
spread spectrum systems, many users can simultaneously use the same bandwidth without
significantly interfering with one another. It is one of the advantages of spread spectrum.
3. Which of the following is not a property of spread spectrum techniques?
a) Interference rejection capability
b) Multipath fading
c) Frequency planning elimination
MOHD ZEESHAN 59
d) Multiple user, multiple access interface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistance to multipath fading is one of the fundamental reasons for
considering spread spectrum systems for wireless communication. Since spread spectrum
signals have uniform energy over a very large bandwidth, at any given time only a small
portion of the spectrum will undergo fading.
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4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of PN sequence?

a) Nearly equal number of 0s and1s
b) Low correlation between shifted version of sequence
c) Non deterministic
d) Low cross-correlation between any two sequences
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pseudo-Noise sequences are deterministic in nature. Certain characteristics of
PN sequence are nearly equal number of 0s and 1s, very low correlation between shifted
versions of the sequence, very low cross correlation between any two sequences.
5. PN sequence can be generated using sequential logic circuits.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PN sequence is usually generated using sequential logic circuits. When the
feedback logic consists of exclusive OR gates, the shift register is called a linear PN
sequence generator.
MOHD ZEESHAN 60
6. The period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot exceed
_____ symbols.
a) 2m
b) m
c) 2m
d) 2m-1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are exactly 2m-1 non-zero states for an m stage feedback shift register.
Thus, the period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot
exceed 2m-1.
7. DSSS system spreads the baseband signal by ________ the baseband pulses with a
pseudo noise sequence.
a) Adding
b) Subtracting
c) Multiplying
d) Dividing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A direct sequence spread spectrum (DS-SS) system spreads the baseband data
by directly multiplying the baseband data pulses with a pseudo noise sequence. And the
pseudo noise sequence is produced by a pseudo noise code generator.
8. Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission _______
a) Signal
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) Amplitude
MOHD ZEESHAN 61
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission frequency. A
frequency hopping signal is regarded as a sequence of modulated data bursts with time
varying, pseudo random carrier frequencies.
9. What is the set of possible carrier frequencies in FH-SS?
a) Hopset
b) Hop
c) Chips
d) Symbols
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The set of possible carrier frequencies in FH-SS is called hopset. Hopping
occurs of a frequency band that includes a number of channels. Each channel is defined as a
spectral region with central frequency in the hopset.
10. The bandwidth of the channel used in the hopset is called _________
a) Hopping bandwidth
b) Total hopping bandwidth
c) Instantaneous bandwidth
d) 3 dB bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The bandwidth of a channel used in the hopset is called the instantaneous
bandwidth. And the bandwidth of the spectrum over which the hopping occurs is called
total hopping bandwidth.
11. The processing gain of FH systems is given by ratio of _______
MOHD ZEESHAN 62
a) Hopping bandwidth and hopping period
b) Instantaneous bandwidth and hopping duration
c) 3 dB bandwidth and bit rate
d) Total hopping bandwidth and instantaneous bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The processing gain of frequency hopping (FH) systems is given by Bss/B. Here,
Bss and B denote the total hopping bandwidth and instantaneous bandwidth respectively.
12. FH systems do not have collisions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is possible to have collisions in an FH system where an undesired user
transmits in the same channel at the same time as the desired user. Whenever an
undesired signal occupies a particular hopping channel in FH, the noise and interference in
the channel are translated in frequency.
13. In fast frequency hopping, hopping rate is less than the information symbol rate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. DS/BPSK includes
a) Despreading
b) Demodulation
c) Despreading & Demodulation
MOHD ZEESHAN 63
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DS/BPSK is a two step precess which includes despreading and demodulation.
2. In direct sequence process which step is performed first?
a) De-spreading
b) Demodulation
c) Despreading & Demodulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In direct sequence process, De-spreading correlator is followed by a
modulator.
3. The processing gain is given as
a) Wss/R
b) R/Wss
c) Wss/2R
d) R/2Wss
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The processing gain is given by the ratio of the minimum bandwidth of the
data to data rate.
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4. Chip is defined as
MOHD ZEESHAN 64
a) Shortest uninterrupted waveform
b) Largest uninterrupted waveform
c) Shortest diversion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A chip is defined as the shortest uninterrupted waveform in the system.
5. Processing gain is given as
a) Wss/R
b) Rch/R
c) Wss/R & Rch/R
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Processing gain is given as both as the ratio of the minimum bandwidth of the
data to data rate and also the by the ratio of code chip rate and data rate as minimum
bandwidth is approximately equal to code chip rate.
6. Which modulation scheme is preferred for direct sequence spread spectrum process?
a) BPSK
b) QPSK
c) BPSK & QPSK
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 65
Explanation: Both the modulation scheme BPSK and QPSK can be used for direct sequence
spread spectrum process.
7. The frequency hopping system uses ______ modulation scheme.
a) FSK
b) BPSK
c) MFSK
d) MPSK
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The frequency hopping spread spectrum system uses M-ary frequency shift
keying modulation scheme.
8. The minimum spacing between consecutive hop positions gives the
a) Minimum number of chips necessary
b) Maximum number of chips necessary
c) Chip rate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum spacing between consecutive hop positions given the minimum
number of chips necessary in the frequency word.
9. Which system allows larger processing gain?
a) Direct sequence
b) Frequency hopping
c) Direct sequence & Frequency hopping
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 66
Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum system allows greater processing gain
than direct sequence spread spectrum technique.
10. In which technique is phase coherence hard to maintain?
a) Direct sequence
b) Frequency hopping
c) Direct sequence & Frequency hopping
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In frequency hopping spread spectrum phase coherence is hard to maintain
from hop to hop.
11. Which type of demodulator is used in the frequency hopping technique?
a) Coherent
b) Non coherent
c) Coherent & Non coherent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As it is difficult to maintain phase coherence, non coherent demodulator is
used.
12. Robustness gives the inability of a signal to withstand the impairments.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 67
Answer: b
Explanation: Robustness gives the ability of a signal to withstand the impairments such as
noise, jamming etc.
13. Chips are the
a) Repeated symbols
b) Non repeated symbols
c) Smallest length symbols
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The repeated symbols are called as chips.
14. Slow frequency hopping is
a) Several hops per modulation
b) Several modulations per hop
c) Several symbols per modulation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Slow frequency hopping is several modulation per frequency hop.
15. Fast frequency hopping is
a) Several modulations per hop
b) Several modulations per symbol
c) Several symbols per modulation
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 68
Answer: d
Explanation: Fast frequency hopping is several frequency hops per modulation.
16. Which duration is shorter?
a) Hop duration
b) Symbol duration
c) Chip duration
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Pseudorandom signal ________ predicted.
a) Can be
b) Cannot be
c) maybe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Random signals cannot be predicted whereas pseudorandom sequence can be
predicted.
2. The properties used for pseudorandom sequence are
a) Balance
b) Run
c) Correlation
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 69
Answer: d
Explanation: The three basic properties that can be applied for pseudorandom sequence
are balance, run and correlation properties.
3. The shift register needs to be controlled by clock pulses.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The shift register operation is controlled by clock pulses.
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4. A linear feedback shift register consists of

a) Feedback path
b) Modulo 2 adder
c) Four stage register
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A linear feedback shift register consists of four stage register for storage and
shifting, modulo 2 adder and feedback path.
5. If the initial pulse of 1000 is fed to shift register, after how many clock pulses does the
sequence repeat?
a) 15
b) 16
c) 14
d) 17
MOHD ZEESHAN 70
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the initial pulse 1000 is given to shift register, the foregoing sequence
repeats after 15 clock pulses.
6. The sequences produced by shift register depends on
a) Number of stages
b) Feedback tap connections
c) Initial conditions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sequences produced by shift register depends on the number of stages,
the feedback tap connections and initial conditions.
7. For maximal length sequence, the sequence repetition clock pulses p is given by
a) 2n + 1
b) 2n -1
c) 2n
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For maximal length sequence, produced by n stage linear feedback shift
register the sequence repetition clock pulses p is given by 2n -1 .
8. For any cyclic shift, the auto-correlation function is equal to
a) 1/p
b) -1/p
MOHD ZEESHAN 71
c) –p
d) p
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For any cyclic shift the auto-correlation function is equal to -1/p.
9. Which method is better?
a) To share same bandwidth
b) To share different bandwidth
c) To share same & different bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the jammer noise shares the same bandwidth, the result could be
destructive.
10. Pulse jammer consists of
a) Pulse modulated excess band noise
b) Pulse modulated band-limited noise
c) Pulse width modulated excess band noise
d) Pulse width modulated band-limited noise
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pulse jammer consists of pulse modulated band-limited noise.
11. Which are the design options for anti jam communicator?
a) Time diversity
b) Frequency diversity
MOHD ZEESHAN 72
c) Special discrimination
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The design options for anti-jam communicator are time diversity, frequency
diversity and special discrimination.
12. The ratio (J/S)reqd gives the measure of
a) Vulnerability to interference
b) Invulnerability to interference
c) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio (J/S)reqd gives the measure of how invulnerable the system is to
interference.
13. The system should have
a) Larger (J/S)reqd
b) Greater system’s noise rejection capability
c) Larger (J/S)reqd & Greater system’s noise rejection capability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The system will be efficient if it has greater (J/S)reqd and larger system’s noise
rejection capability.
14. The broadband jammer jams the entire
MOHD ZEESHAN 73
a) W
b) Wss
c) W & Wss
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The broadband jammer or wide-band jammer is the one which jams the entire
Wss with its fixed power.
15. To increase error probability, the processing gain should be
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Exponentially increased
d) Exponentially decreased
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a system, to increase the error probability the processing gain should be
increased.
16. Which jamming method produces greater degradation?
a) Broadband jamming
b) Partial jamming
c) Broadband & Partial jamming
View Answer
Answer: b
MOHD ZEESHAN 74
Explanation: Greater degradation is possible more with partial jamming than broadband
jamming.
17. The jammer which monitors a communicator’s signal is known as
a) Frequency follower jammers
b) Repeat back jammers
c) Frequency follower & Repeat back jammers
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Diversity requires a training sequence.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike equalization, diversity requires no training overhead since a training
sequence is not required by the transmitter. Diversity is a powerful communication receiver
technique that provides wireless link improvement at a relatively low cost.
2. Diversity decisions are made by ____________
a) Receiver
b) Transmitter
c) Channel
d) Adaptive algorithms
View Answer
Answer: a
MOHD ZEESHAN 75
Explanation: In virtually all applications, diversity decisions are made by the receiver and
are unknown to the transmitter. Diversity exploits the random nature of radio propagation
by finding independent signal paths for communication.
3. Small scale fades are characterized by ____________ amplitude fluctuations.
a) Large
b) Small
c) Rapid
d) Slow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Small scale fades are characterized by deep and rapid fluctuations. They occur
as the mobile system moves over distances of just a few wavelengths. These fades are
caused by multiple reflections from the surrounding in the vicinity of the mobile.
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4. ____________ is used to prevent deep fade for rapidly varying channel.

a) Modulation
b) Demodulation
c) Macroscopic diversity technique
d) Microscopic diversity technique
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In order to prevent deep fades from occurring, microscopic diversity
techniques can exploit the rapidly changing signal. By selecting the best signal at all times, a
receiver can mitigate small scale fading effects.
5. Large scale fading can be mitigated with the help of _________
a) Modulation
MOHD ZEESHAN 76
b) Demodulation
c) Macroscopic diversity technique
d) Microscopic diversity technique
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Large scale fading is mitigated with macroscopic diversity techniques. It is
done by selecting a base station which is not shadowed when others are, the mobile can
improve substantially the average signal to noise ratio.
6. Space diversity s also known as ________
a) Antenna diversity
b) Time diversity
c) Frequency diversity
d) Polarization diversity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Space diversity is also known as antenna diversity. It is one of the popular
forms of diversity used in wireless communications. Signals received from the spatially
separated antenna on the mobile would have essentially uncorrelated envelopes for
antenna separation.
7. Which of the following is not a category of space diversity technique?
a) Selection diversity
b) Time diversity
c) Feedback diversity
d) Equal gain diversity
View Answer
Answer: b
MOHD ZEESHAN 77
Explanation: Space diversity reception methods can be classified into four categories. They
are selection diversity, feedback diversity, maximal ratio combining and equal gain
diversity.
8. In selection diversity, the gain of each diversity branch provides different SNR.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Selection diversity uses m demodulators to provide m diversity branches. Their
gain is adjusted to provide the same average SNR for each branch.
9. Polarization diversity uses the ________ as the diversity element.
a) Modulation index
b) Carrier frequency
c) Reflection coefficient
d) Coherence time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Decorrelation of the signal in each polarization is caused by multiple
reflections in the channel between mobile and base station antenna. Reflection coefficient
for each polarization is different, which results in different amplitudes and phases for each
reflection.
10. Which of the factor does not determine the correlation coefficient?
a) Polarization angle
b) Cross polarization discrimination
c) Offset angle from the main beam direction
d) Coherence time
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 78
Answer: d
Explanation: The correlation coefficient is determined by three factors, polarization angle,
offset angle from the main beam direction of the diversity antenna, and the cross
polarization discrimination. The correlation coefficient generally becomes higher as offset
angle becomes large.
11. Frequency diversity is implemented by transmitting information on more than one
___________
a) Carrier frequency
b) Amplitude
c) Phase
d) Modulation scheme
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency diversity is implemented by transmitting information on more than
one carrier frequency. Frequency diversity is often employed in microwave line of sight
links which carry several channels in frequency division multiplex mode.
12. Frequency diversity uses ________ as a diversity element.
a) Correlation coefficient
b) Coherence time
c) Coherence bandwidth
d) SNR
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rationale behind the frequency diversity is that frequencies separated by
more than the coherence bandwidth of the channel will be uncorrelated. Thus, they will not
experience the same fade.
13. Frequency diversity is good for low traffic conditions.
MOHD ZEESHAN 79
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency diversity is not good for low traffic conditions. This technique has a
disadvantage that it not only requires spare bandwidth but also requires that there be as
many receivers as there are channels used for frequency diversity. However, for critical
traffic, the expense may be justified.
14. Time diversity repeatedly transmits information at time spacings that exceed
___________
a) Coherence bandwidth
b) Dwell time
c) Run time
d) Coherence time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Time diversity repeatedly transmits information at time spacings that exceed
coherence time of the channel. Thus, multiple repetitions of the signal will be received with
independent fading conditions, thereby providing for diversity.
15. In maximal ratio combining, the output SNR is equal to __________
a) Mean of all individual SNRs
b) Maximum of all SNRs
c) Sum of individual SNR
d) Minimum of all SNRs
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 80
1. MIMO stands for _______
a) Many input many output
b) Multiple input multiple output
c) Major input minor output
d) Minor input minor output
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MIMO stands for Multiple Input and Multiple Output. It refers to the
technology where there are multiple antennas at the base station and multiple antennas at
the mobile device.
2. In MIMO, which factor has the greatest influence on data rates?
a) The size of antenna
b) The height of the antenna
c) The number of transmit antennas
d) The area of receive antennas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By increasing the number of receiving and transmitting antennas, it is possible
to linearly increase the throughput of the channel with every pair of antennas added to the
system.
3. MIMO was initially developed in the year __________
a) 1980
b) 1990
c) 1980
d) 1975
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 81
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the initial development in the year 1990, MIMO Wireless
Communications have become integral part of the most forthcoming commercial and next
generation wireless data communication systems.
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4. MIMO is a smart antenna technology.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MIMO is one of several forms of smart antenna technology, the others being
MISO (multiple input, single output) and SIMO (single input, multiple output). It is an
antenna technology for wireless communications in which multiple antennas are used at
both the source and the destination.
5. MIMO technology makes advantage of a natural radio wave phenomenon called
_________
a) Reflection
b) Multipath
c) Refraction
d) Diffraction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MIMO technology makes use of multipath phenomenon to maximize
transmission by receiving bounced signals from obstructions. Multipath is a phenomenon in
wave propagation.
6. Which of the following technology does not use MIMO?
a) 4G
MOHD ZEESHAN 82
b) Wifi
c) WiMax
d) AMPS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MIMO is used in mobile radio telephone standards such as recent 3GPP and
3GPP2. In 3GPP, High-Speed Packet Access plus (HSPA+) and Long Term Evolution (LTE)
standards take MIMO into account. Moreover, MIMO is also used in Wifi and WiMax.
7. MIMO means both transmitter and receiver have multiple antennas.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MIMO provides a way of utilising the multiple signal paths that exist between
a transmitter and receiver to significantly improve the data throughput available on a given
channel with its defined bandwidth. It uses multiple antennas at the transmitter and
receiver along with some complex digital signal processing.
8. _______ is a technique of transmit diversity used in UMTSS third-generation cellular
systems.
a) STTD
b) SM
c) Collaborative Uplink MIMO
d) MU-MIMO
View Answer
Answer: a
MOHD ZEESHAN 83
Explanation: Space Time Transmit Diversity (STTD) is a technique of transmit diversity used
in UMTSS third-generation cellular systems. Space Time Transmit Diversity is optional in the
UTRANN air interface, but compulsory for user equipment.
9. _______ is a transmission method used in MIMO wireless communications to transmit
encoded data signals independently.
a) STTD
b) SM
d) MU-MIMO
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spatial multiplexing is a transmission method used in MIMO wireless
communications to transmit encoded data signals independently and separately (so-called
streams) from each of the multiple transmit antennas.
10. _______ is an additional open-loop MIMO technique considered by the WiMAX
vendors.
a) STTD
b) SM
d) MU-MIMO
View Answer
Answer: c
UNIT-3
1. Which of the following is not used to improve received signal quality over small scale
times and distance?
a) Modulation
b) Equalization
MOHD ZEESHAN 84
c) Diversity
d) Channel coding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Equalization, diversity and channel coding are the three techniques which are
used to improve received signal quality and link performance over small scale times and
distance. But, the approach, cost, complexity and effectiveness varies in wireless
communication system.
2. Equalization is used to compensate __________
a) Peak signal to noise ratio
b) Intersymbol interference
c) Channel fading
d) Noises present in the signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Equalization compensate the intersymbol interference (ISI) created by
multipath within time dispersive channels. An equalizer within a receiver compensates for
the average range of the expected channel amplitude and delay characteristics.
3. Training and tracking are the operating modes of _________
a) Diversity techniques
b) Channel coding techniques
c) Equalization techniques
d) Demodulation techniques
View Answer
Answer: c
MOHD ZEESHAN 85
Explanation: General operating modes of an adaptive equalizer includes training and
tracking. A known fixed length training sequence is sent by the transmitter so that the
receiver’s equalizer may adapt to a proper setting for minimum bit error rate detection.
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4. An equalizer is said to be converged when it is properly _______

a) Trained
b) Tracked
c) Installed
d) Used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When an equalizer has been properly trained, it is said to have converged.
Equalizers are commonly used in digital communication systems where user data is
segmented into short time blocks or time slots.
5. Time for convergence of an equalizer is not a function of _______
a) Equalizer algorithm
b) Equalizer structure
c) Time rate of change of multipath radio channel
d) Transmitter characteristics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The timespan over which an equalizer converges is a function of the equalizer
algorithm, the equalizer structure and the time rate of change of the multipath radio
channel. Equalizers require proper retraining in order to maintain effective ISI cancellation.
6. Equalizer is usually implemented in __________
a) Transmitter
MOHD ZEESHAN 86
b) Baseband or at IF in a receiver
c) Radio channel
d) Modulator stage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An equalizer is implemented at baseband or at IF in a receiver. Since the
baseband complex envelope expression can be used to represent bandpass waveform, the
channel response, the demodulated signal and adaptive equalizer algorithm are usually
simulated and implemented at baseband.
7. Equalizer is ________ of the channel.
a) Opposite
b) Same characteristics
c) Inverse filter
d) Add on
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An equalizer is actually an inverse filter of the channel. The goal of
equalization is to satisfy that the combination of the transmitter, channel and receiver be
an all pass channel.
8. ______ controls the adaptive algorithm in an equalizer.
a) Error signal
b) Transmitted signal
c) Received signal
d) Channel impulse response
View Answer
Answer: a
MOHD ZEESHAN 87
Explanation: The adaptive algorithm is controlled by the error signal. The error signal is
derived by comparing the output of the equalizer and some signal which is either an exact
scaled replica of the transmitted signal or represents a property of transmitted signal.
9. The adaptive algorithms in equalizer that do not require training sequence are called
________
a) Linear adaptive algorithms
b) Blind algorithms
c) Non-linear adaptive algorithms
d) Spatially adaptive algorithms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Blind algorithms exploit the characteristics of the transmitted signal and do
not require training sequence. These type of algorithm are able to acquire equalization
through property restoral techniques of transmitted signal.
10. Which of the following is a blind algorithm?
a) Linear adaptive algorithms
b) Constant modulus algorithm
c) Non-linear adaptive algorithms
d) Spatially adaptive algorithms
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Equalization techniques can be categorised into _______ and ______ techniques.
a) Linear, non linear
b) Active, passive
c) Direct, indirect
d) Slow, fast
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 88
Answer: a
Explanation: Equalization techniques can be classified into linear and non linear techniques.
These categories are determined from how the output of an adaptive equalizer is used for
subsequent control of the equalizer.
2. Equalization is linear if an analog signal is fed back to change the subsequent outputs of
the equalizer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the analog signal is not used in the feedback path to adapt the equalizer, the
equalization is linear. On the other hand, if it is fed back to change the subsequent outputs
of the equalizer, the equalization is non-linear.
3. In the context of equalizers, LTE stands for ________
a) Long transversal equalizer
b) Least time-varying equalizer
c) Linear transversal equalizer
d) Linear time-varying equalizer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most common equalizer structure used for equalization is linear transveral
equalizer (LTE). It is made up of tapped delay lines, with the tappings speed a symbol period
apart.
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4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of FIR filter?

a) Many zeroes
MOHD ZEESHAN 89
b) Poles only at z=0
c) Transfer function is a polynomial of z-1
d) Many poles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Finite impulse response filter (FIR) has many zeroes but poles only at z=0. The
transfer function of the filter is a polynomial of z-1. It is also referred to as transversal filter.
5. Which of the following is not an advantage of lattice equalizer?
a) Simple structure
b) Numerical stability
c) Faster convergence
d) Dynamic assignment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The structure of lattice equalizer is more complicated than a linear transversal
equalizer. But, numerical stability and faster convergence are two advantage of laatic
equalizer. Also, its unique structure allows dynamic assignment of the most effective length
of lattice equalizer.
6. Non-linear equalizers are used in applications where channel distortion is not severe.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-linear equalizers are used in applications where the channel distortion is
too severe for a linear equalizer to handle. They are most commonly used in practical
wireless communication.
MOHD ZEESHAN 90
7. Which of the following is not a non-linear equalization technique?
a) Decision feedback equalization
b) Maximum likelihood symbol detection
c) Minimum square error detection
d) Maximum likelihood sequence detection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Decision feedback equalization, maximum likelihood symbol detection and
maximum likelihood sequence detection offers non-linear equalization. They offer
improvements over linear equalization techniques and are used in most 2G and 3G systems.
8. For a distorted channel, LTE performance is superior to DFE.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LTE is well behaved when the channel spectrum is comparatively flat. But if the
channel is severely distorted or exhibits null in the spectrum, the performance of LTE
deteriorates and MSE of DFE is better than LTE.
9. Which of the following does not hold true for MLSE?
a) Minimizes probability of sequence error
b) Require knowledge of channel characteristics
c) Requires the statistical distribution of noise
d) Operates on continuous time signal
View Answer
Answer: d
MOHD ZEESHAN 91
Explanation: Matched filter operates on the continuous time signal, whereas maximum
likelihood sequence estimation (MLSE) equalizer and channel estimator rely on discretized
samples. MLSE is optimal in the sense that it minimizes the probability of sequence error.
10. MLSE decodes each received signal by itself.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Which of the following factor could not determine the performance of algorithm?
a) Structural properties
b) Rate of convergence
c) Computational complexity
d) Numerical properties
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The performance of an algorithm is determined by various factors. These
factors are rate of convergence, computational complexity and numerical properties. The
performance of algorithm does not depend on structural properties.
2. Rate of convergence is defined by __________ of algorithm.
a) Time span
b) Number of iterations
c) Accuracy
d) Complexity
View Answer
Answer: b
MOHD ZEESHAN 92
Explanation: Rate of convergence is required as number of iterations required for the
algorithm to converge close enough to the optimum solution. It enables the algorithm to
track statistical variations when operating in non stationary environment.
3. Computational complexity is a measure of ________
a) Time
b) Number of iterations
c) Number of operations
d) Accuracy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Computational complexity is the number of operations required to make one
complete iteration of the algorithm. It helps in comparing the performance with other
algorithms.
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4. Choice of equalizer structure and its algorithm is not dependent on ________

a) Cost of computing platform
b) Power budget
c) Radio propagation characteristics
d) Statistical distribution of transmitted power
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of the computing platform, the power budget and the radio
propagation characteristics dominate the choice of an equalizer structure and its algorithm.
Battery drain at the subscriber unit is also a paramount consideration.
5. Coherence time is dependent on the choice of the algorithm and corresponding rate of
convergence.
a) True
MOHD ZEESHAN 93
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The choice of algorithm and its corresponding rate of convergence depends on
the channel data rate and coherence time. The speed of the mobile unit determines the
channel fading rate and the Doppler spread, which is directly related to coherence time of
the channel.
6. Which of the following is not an algorithm for equalizer?
a) Zero forcing algorithm
b) Least mean square algorithm
c) Recursive least square algorithm
d) Mean square error algorithm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Three classic equalizer algorithm are zero forcing (ZF) algorithm, least mean
squares (LMS) algorithm and recursive least squares (RLS) algorithm. They offer
fundamental insight into algorithm design and operation.
7. Which of the following is a drawback of zero forcing algorithm?
a) Long training sequence
b) Amplification of noise
c) Not suitable for static channels
d) Non zero ISI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The zero forcing algorithm has the disadvantage that the inverse filter may
excessively amplify noise at frequencies where the folded channel spectrum has high
attenuation.
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8. Zero forcing algorithm performs well for wireless links.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ZF is not often used in wireless links as it neglects the effect of noise
altogether. However, it performs well for static channels with high SNR, such as local wired
telephone links.
9. LMS equalizer minimizes __________
a) Computational complexity
b) Cost
c) Mean square error
d) Power density of output signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LMS equalizer is a robust equalizer. It is used to minimize mean square error
(MSE) between the desired equalizer output and the actual equalizer output.
10. For N symbol inputs, LMS algorithm requires ______ operations per iterations.
a) 2N
b) N+1
c) 2N+1
d) N2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The LMS algorithm is the simplest algorithm. For N symbol inputs, it requires
only 2N+1 operations per iteration.
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11. Stochastic gradient algorithm is also called ________
a) Zero forcing algorithm
b) Least mean square algorithm
c) Recursive least square algorithm
d) Mean square error algorithm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimization of the MSE is carried out recursively, and it can be
performed by the use of stochastic gradient algorithm. This more commonly called the least
mean square (LMS) algorithm.
12. Convergence rate of LMS is fast.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The convergence rate of the LMS algorithm is slow. It is slow due to the fact
that it uses only one parameter i.e. step size that control the adaptation rate.
13. Which of the following does not hold true for RLS algorithms?
a) Complex
b) Adaptive signal processing
c) Slow convergence rate
d) Powerful
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Recursive least square (RLS) algorithm uses fast convergence rate as opposed
to LMS algorithms. They are powerful, albeit complex, adaptive signal processing
techniques which significantly improves the convergence of adaptive equalizer.
14. Which of the following algorithm uses simple programming?
a) LMS Gradient DFE
b) FTF algorithm
c) Fast Kalman DFE
d) Gradient Lattice DFE
View Answer
Answer: a
1. In CDMA spread spectrum systems, chip rate is less than the bandwidth of the channel.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In CDMA spread spectrum systems, the chip rate is typically much greater than
the flat fading bandwidth of the channel. Whereas conventional modulation techniques
require an equalizer to undo intersymbol interference between adjacent channels.
2. A RAKE receiver collects the __________ versions of the original signal.
a) Time shifted
b) Amplitude shifted
c) Frequency shifted
d) Phase shifted
View Answer
Answer: a
MOHD ZEESHAN 97
Explanation: RAKE receiver attempts to collect the time shifted versions of the original
signal. It is due to the fact that there is useful information present in the multipath
components.
3. RAKE receiver uses separate _________ to provide the time shifted version of the signal.
a) IF receiver
b) Equalizer
c) Correlation receiver
d) Channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RAKE receiver uses separate correlation receivers to provide the time shifted
version of the original signal for each of the multipath signal. CDMA receivers combine
these time shifted versions of the original signal to transmission in order to improve the
signal to noise ratio of the receiver.
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4. Each correlation receiver in RAKE receiver is adjusted in ____________

a) Frequency shift
b) Amplitude change
c) Phase shift
d) Time delay
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Each correlation receiver may be adjusted in time delay, so that a
microprocessor controller can cause different correlation receivers to search in different
time windows for significant multipath.
5. The range of time delays that a particular correlator can search is called ________
a) Search window
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b) Sliding window
c) Time span
d) Dwell time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The range of time delays that a particular correlator an search is called a
search window. RAKE receiver attempts to collect the time shifted version of the original
signal by providing a separate correlation receiver for each of the multipath signal.
6. RAKE receiver is used for _______ technique.
a) CDMA
b) TDMA
c) FDMA
d) OFDM
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAKE receiver is essentially a diversity receiver which is used specifically for
CDMA. It uses the fact that the multipath components are practically uncorrelated from
one another when their relative propagation delays exceed a chip period.
7. A RAKE receiver uses __________ to separately detect the M strongest signals.
a) Single correlator
b) Multiple correlator
c) Single IF receiver
d) Multiple IF receivers
View Answer
Answer: b
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Explanation: A RAKE receiver uses multiple correlators to separately detect the M strongest
multipath components. Demodulation and bit decisions are then based on the weighted
ouputs of the M correlators.
8. In a RAKE receiver, if the output from one correlator is corrupted by fading, all the other
correlator’s output are also corrupted.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a RAKE receiver, if the output from one correlator is corrupted by fading,
the others may not be. And the corrupted signal may be discounted through weighting
process.
9. A RAKE receiver uses __________
a) Equalization
b) Channel coding
c) Diversity
d) Encryption
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RAKE receiver is a diversity receiver. Diversity is provided by the fact that the
multipath components are practically uncorrelated from one another when their relative
propagation delays exceed chip period.
10. Interleaving is used to obtain ___________ diversity.
a) Time
b) Frequency
c) Polarization
d) Antenna
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 100
Answer: a
1. Frequency division multiple access (FDMA) assigns ______ channels to _______ users.
a) Individual, individual
b) Many, individual
c) Individual, many
d) Many, many
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency division multiple access (FDMA) assigns individual channels to
individual users. Each user is allocated a unique frequency band or channel. These channels
are assigned on demand to users who request service.
2. During the period of call, other users can share the same channel in FDMA.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In FDMA systems, no other user can share the same channel during the period
of call. In FDD systems, the users are assigned a channel as a pair of frequencies; one is
used for the forward channel while the other frequency is used for the reverse channel.
3. The FDMA channel carries ____________ phone circuit at a time.
a) Ten
b) Two
c) One
d) Several
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: The FDMA channel carries one phone circuit at a time. Each individual band or
channel is wide enough to accommodate the signal spectra of the transmissions to be
propagated.
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4. If the FDMA channel is not in use, it can be used by other users.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If an FDMA channel is not in use, it sits idle and cannot be used by other users
to increase or share capacity. It is essentially a wasted resource.
5. The bandwidth of FDMA channel is ______
a) Wide
b) Narrow
c) Large
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bandwidth of FDMA channels is relatively narrow as each channel
supports only one circuit per carrier. That is, FDMA is usually implemented in narrow band
systems.
6. The symbol time in FDMA systems is _________ thus intersymbol interference is ______
a) Large, high
b) Small, low
c) Small, high
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d) Large, low
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The symbol time of a narrowband signal is large as compared to the average
delay spread. This implies that the amount of intersymbol interference is low and, thus,
little or no equalization is required in FDMA narrowband systems.
7. Due to _________ transmission scheme __________ bits are needed for overhead in
FDMA systems.
a) Continuous, few
b) Discontinuous, few
c) Continuous, many
d) Discontinuous, many
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Since FDMA is a continuous transmission scheme, fewer bits are needed for
overhead purposes (such as synchronization and framing bits) as compared to TDMA.
8. Which of the following is not true for FDMA systems as compared to TDMA systems?
a) Low complexity
b) Lower cell site system cost
c) Tight RF filtering
d) Narrow bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FDMA systems have higher cell site system costs as compared to TDMA
systems. It is due to single channel per carrier design, and the need to use costly bandpass
filters to eliminate spurious radiation at the base station.
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9. __________ is undesired RF radiation.
a) Intermodulation frequency
b) Intermediate frequency
c) Instantaneous frequency
d) Instrumental frequency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Intermodulation (IM) frequency is undesired RF radiation which can interfere
with other channels in the FDMA systems. The nonlinearities cause signal spreading in the
frequency domain and generate IM frequency.
10. __________ is based on FDMA/FDD.
a) GSM
b) W-CDMA
c) Cordless telephone
d) AMPS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first US analog cellular system, the Advanced Mobile Phone System
(AMPS) is based on FDMA/FDD. A single user occupies a single channel while the call is in
progress.
11. In US AMPS, 416 channels are allocated to various operators with 10 kHz guard band
and channel between them is 30 kHz. What is the spectrum allocation given to each
operator?
a) 12.5 kHz
b) 30 kHz
c) 12.5 MHz
d) 30 MHz
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View Answer
Answer: c
1. TDMA systems transmit in a continuous way.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDMA systems transmit data in a buffer and burst method. Thus, the
transmission for any user is not continuous.
2. Preamble contains __________
a) Address
b) Data
c) Guard bits
d) Trail bits
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TDMA frame is made up of a preamble, an information message and the trail
bits. In a TDMA frame, the preamble contains the address and synchronization information
that both the base station and the subscribers use to identify each other.
3. __________ are utilized to allow synchronization of the receivers between different slots
and frames.
a) Preamble
b) Data
c) Guard bits
d) Trail bits
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 105
Answer: c
Explanation: Guard times are utilized to allow synchronization of the receivers between
different slots and frames. TDMA/FDD systems intentionally induce several time slots of
delay between the forward and reverse time slots for a particular user.
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4. Which of the following is not true for TDMA?

a) Single carrier frequency for single user
b) Discontinuous data transmission
c) No requirement of duplexers
d) High transmission rates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TDMA share a single carrier frequency with several users, where each user
makes use of non-overlapping time slots. The number of time slots per frame depends on
several factors, such as modulation technique, available bandwidth etc.
5. Because of _______ transmissions in TDMA, the handoff process in __________
a) Continuous, complex
b) Continuous, simple
c) Discontinuous, complex
d) Discontinuous, simple
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Because of discontinuous transmissions in TDMA, the handoff process is much
simpler for a subscriber unit, since it is able to listen for other base stations during idle time
slots.
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6. __________ synchronization overhead is required in TDMA due to _______ transmission.
a) High, burst
b) High, continuous
c) Low, burst
d) No, burst
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High synchronization overhead is required in TDMA systems because of burst
transmissions. TDMA transmissions are slotted, and this requires the receivers to be
synchronized for each data burst.
7. TDMA allocates a single time per frame to different users.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDMA has an advantage that it can allocate different numbers of time slots per
frame to different users. Thus, bandwidth can be supplied on demand to different users by
concatenating or reassigning time slots based on priority.
8. ___________ of TDMA system is a measure of the percentage of transmitted data that
contains information as opposed to providing overhead for the access scheme.
a) Efficiency
b) Figure of merit
c) Signal to noise ratio
d) Mean
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: Efficiency of TDMA system is a measure of the percentage of transmitted data
that contains information as opposed to providing overhead for the access scheme. The
frame efficiency is the percentage of bits per frame which contain transmitted data.
9. A TDMA system uses 25 MHz for the forward link, which is broken into radio channels of
200 kHz. If 8 speech channels are supported on a single radio channel, how many
simultaneous users can be accommodated?
a) 25
b) 200
c) 1600
d) 1000
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For a TDMA system that uses 25 MHz for the forward link, which is broken into
radio channels of 200 kHz. If 8 speech channels are supported on a single radio channel,
1000 simultaneous users can be accommodated as N = (25 MHz)/(200 kHz/8).
10. What is the time duration of a bit if data is transmitted at 270.833 kbps in the channel?
a) 270.833 s
b) 3 μs
c) 3.692 μs
d) 3.692 s
View Answer
Answer: c
1. OFDMA stands for ________
a) omnidirectional frequency division multiple access
b) orthogonal frequency duplex multiple access
c) orthogonal frequency divider multiple access
d) orthogonal frequency division multiple access
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View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) is a multi-user version
of the popular orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) digital modulation
scheme. Multiple access is achieved in OFDMA by assigning subsets of subcarriers to
individual users.
2. Why is a cyclic prefix required in an OFDMA?
a) To ensure symbol time is an integer number
b) To help overcome multipath and ISI
c) To maintain orthogonality
d) To make OFDMA scalable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Use of cyclic prefix is a key element of enabling the OFDM signal to operate
reliably. The cyclic prefix acts as a buffer region or guard interval to protect the OFDM
signals from intersymbol interference.
3. What does the DC subcarrier indicate?
a) Identity of the cell
b) Antenna configuration
c) Center of OFDM channel
d) Format of data channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All the subcarriers of an OFDM symbol do not carry useful data. In OFDM and
OFDMA PHY layers, the DC subcarrier is the subcarrier whose frequency is equal to the RF
centre frequency of the transmitting station.
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MOHD ZEESHAN 109
4. What processing step combines multiple OFDM subcarriers into a single signal for
transmission?
a) FFT
b) IFFT
c) RF combining
d) Channel mapping
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IFFT combines multiple OFDM subcarriers into a single signal for transmission.
These transforms are important from the OFDM perspective because they can be viewed as
mapping digitally modulated input data (data symbols) onto orthogonal subcarriers.
5. Which property of OFDMA system allows adjacent subcarriers to be used without
interference?
a) Orthogonality
b) Orthodoxy
c) Octagonality
d) Originality
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Orthogonality of sub-carriers simply means their correlation is zero.
Orthogonality in OFDMA system allows adjacent subcarriers to be used without
interference.
6. In OFDMA, what is the relationship between the subcarrier spacing f and symbol time t?
a) f=t
b) f=1/2t
c) f=1/t
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d) no relation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In OFDMA, the relationship between the subcarrier spacing f and symbol time
t is f=1/t. They are inversely proportional.
7. OFDM is a technique for 3G mobile communication.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: OFDM has developed into a popular scheme for wideband digital
communication, used in applications such as digital television and audio broadcasting, DSL
internet access, wireless networks, power line networks, and 4G mobile communications.
8. OFDM uses complex equalizers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ODMA does not use complex equalizers. In OFDM, the equalizer only has to
multiply each detected sub-carrier (each Fourier coefficient) in each OFDM symbol by a
constant complex number, or a rarely changed value.
9. When we divide band of Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) into sub
bands, it diminishes effects of __________
a) noise
b) collision
c) interference
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d) signals absence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: OFDM uses the same bandwidth to deliver roughly the same data rate as a
single carrier modulation by introducing multiple lower-bandwidth channels. Each of the
lower-bandwidth channels has a lower rate, and by combining them together, the original
rate is achieved.
10. Common data rates of IEEE 802.11 OFDM are ____________
a) 18 Mbps
b) 200 Mbps
c) 50 Mbps
d) 54 Mbps
View Answer
Answer: a
UNIT-4
1. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation
and network level architecture?
a) GSM
b) AMPS
c) CDMA
d) IS-54
View Answer
Answer: a
MOHD ZEESHAN 112

Explanation: GSM was the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation and
level architectures and services. It is the world’s most popular 2G technology. It was
developed to solve the fragmentation problems of the first cellular systems in Europe.
2. Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________
a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the mid-1980s GSM was called by the name Groupe special mobile. In 1992,
GSM changed its name to Global System for Mobile Communication for marketing reasons.
3. Who sets the standards of GSM?
a) ITU
b) AT & T
c) ETSI
d) USDC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The setting of standards for GSM is under the aegis of the European Technical
Standards Institute (ETSI). GSM task was to specify a common mobile communication
system for Europe in the 900 MHZ band.
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4. Which of the following does not come under the teleservices of GSM?
a) Standard mobile telephony
b) Mobile originated traffic
MOHD ZEESHAN 113

c) Base originated traffic
d) Packet switched traffic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GSM services follow ISDN guidelines and are classified as either teleservices or
data services. Teleservices include standard mobile telephony and mobile originated or
base originated traffic.
5. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?
a) Emergency calling
b) Packet switched protocols
c) Call diversion
d) Standard mobile telephony
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Supplementary ISDN services are digital in nature. They include call diversion,
closed user groups, and caller identification, and are not available in analog mobile
networks. Supplementary services also include short messaging service (SMS).
6. Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber’s
identification number in GSM?
a) Register
b) Flip flop
c) SIM
d) SMS
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: SIM (subscriber identity module) is a memory device that stores information
such as the subscriber’s identification number, the networks and countries where the
subscriber is entitled to service, privacy keys, and other user specific information.
7. Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio
transmission?
a) SIM
b) On the air privacy
c) SMS
d) Packet switched traffic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The on the air privacy feature of GSM makes impossible to eavesdrop on a
GSM radio transmission. The privacy is made possible by encrypting the digital bit stream
sent by a GSM transmitter, according to a specific secret cryptographic key that is known
only to the cellular carrier.
8. Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) Channel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The GSM architecture consists of three major interconnected subsystems that
interact between themselves and with the users through certain network interfaces. The
subsystems are BSS (Base Station Subsystem), NSS (Network and Switching Subsystem) and
OSS (Operation Support Subsystem).
9. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between mobile station
and MSC?
a) BSS
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b) NSS
c) OSS
d) BSC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The BSS provides and manages radio transmission paths between the mobile
stations and the Mobile Switching Center (MSC). It also manages the radio interface
between the mobile stations and all other subsystems of GSM.
10. ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NSS (Network and Switching Subsystem) manages the switching functions of
the system. It allows the MSCs to communicate with other networks such as PSTN and
ISDN.
11. __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC
View Answer
Answer: c
1. __________ carries digitally encoded user data.
MOHD ZEESHAN 116
a) Traffic channels
b) Control channels
c) Signalling channels
d) Forward channels
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Traffic channels carry digitally encoded user speech or user data. It has
identical functions and formats on both the forward and reverse links.
2. ____________ carries signalling and synchronizing commands.
a) Traffic channels
b) Control channels
c) Signalling channels
d) Forward channels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Control channels carry signalling and synchronizing commands between the
base station and mobile station. Certain types of control channels are defined for just the
forward or reverse link.
3. Which of the following is not a control channel of GSM?
a) BCH
b) CCCH
c) DCCH
d) TCH
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: There are three main control channels in the GSM system. These are the
broadcast channel (BCH), the common control channel (CCCH) and the dedicated control
channel (DCCH). Each control channel consists of several logical channels.
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4. Which of the following is the forward control channel that is used to broadcast
information?
a) BCCH
b) CCCH
c) DCCH
d) TCH
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The broadcast control channel (BCCH) is a forward channel that is used to
broadcast information such as cell and network identity, and operating characteristics of
the cell.
5. Which of the following channel does not come under CCCH?
a) PCH
b) RACH
c) DCCH
d) AGCH
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CCCH consists of three different channels. They are paging channel (PCH),
which is a forward link channel, the random access channel (RACH) which is a reverse link
channel, and the access grant channel (AGCH) which is a forward link channel.
6. Which of the following channel provides paging signals from base station to all mobiles in
the cell?
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a) RACH
b) AGCH
c) DCCH
d) PCH
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The PCH provides paging signals from the base station to all mobiles in the cell.
It notifies a specific mobile of an incoming call which originates from the PSTN.
7. ___________ is a reverse link channel used by a subscriber unit to acknowledge.
a) RACH
b) AGCH
c) DCCH
d) PCH
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The RACH (Random Access Channel) is a reverse link channel used by a
subscriber unit to acknowledge a page from the PCH. It is also used by mobiles to originate
a call.
8. Which of the following channel is used by base station to provide forward link
communication to mobile?
a) RACH
b) AGCH
c) DCCH
d) PCH
View Answer
Answer: b
MOHD ZEESHAN 119
Explanation: The AGCH (Access Grant Channel) is used by the base station to provide
forward link communication to the mobile. It carries data which instructs the mobile to
operate in a particular physical channel with particular dedicated control channel.
9. Which of the following burst is used to broadcast the frequency and time synchronization
control messages?
a) FCCH and SCH
b) TCH and DCCH
c) RACH and TCH
d) FCCH and DCCH
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FCCH and SCH burst are used to broadcast the frequency and time
synchronization control messages. They are used in TS0 of specific frames.
10. Which of the following burst is used to access service from any base station?
a) TCH
b) RACH
c) SCH
d) FCCH
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Each user transmits a burst of data during the time slot assigned to it. The
RACH burst is used by all mobiles to access service from any base station, and dummy burst
is used as filter information for unused timeslots on forward link.
11. Group of superframes in GSM is called multiframe.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
MOHD ZEESHAN 120

Answer: b
1. Which of the following has no backward compatibility with 3G Cdma2000?
a) IS-95
b) GPRS
c) IS-95A
d) IS-95B
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 3G Cdma2000 is based on the original IS-95 and IS-95A CDMA standards, as
well as the 2.5G IS-95B air interface. While upgrading, Cdma2000 maintains backward
compatibility with existing IS-95, IS-95A and IS-95B equipments. Thus, Cdma2000 allow
wireless carriers to introduce a family of new high data rate Internet access capabilities
within existing systems.
2. 2G and 2.5G CDMA operators may selectively introduce 3G capabilities at each cell
without changing entire base stations and reallocate spectrums.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cdma2000 does not require change in entire base station or additional RF
equipment. All the changes are made in software or in baseband hardware.
3. Which of the following the first 3G CDMA air interface?
a) IS-95
b) IS-95B
c) Cdma2000 1xRTT
d) CdmaOne
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cdma2000 1xRTT is the first 3G air interface. Here, RTT stands for Radio
Transmission Technology and 1x indicates that the bandwidth is one times that of the
original CdmaOne channel. It is modulated on a single carrier.
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4. Within ITU IMT-2000 body, Cdma2000 1xRTT is also known as ____________

a) Cdma2000 1xEV-DO
b) Cdma2000 1xEV-DV
c) IS-95B
d) G3G-MC-CDMA-1X
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cdma2000 1xRTT is also known as G3G-MC-CDMA-1X. The initials MC stand
for multicarrier. RTT stand for Radio Transmission Technology, a language suggested by
IMT-2000 body. Usually, MC and RTT are omitted for convenience.
5. How many users are supported by Cdma2000 1X in comparison to 2G CDMA standard?
a) Half
b) Twice
c) Six times
d) Ten times
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cdma2000 support up to twice as many users as the 2G CDMA standard. It
also provides the two times the standby time for longer lasting battery life.
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6. Cdma2000 works in TDD mode only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cdma2000 works in both FDD and TDD mode. Cdma2000 developed for wide
area cellular coverage uses FDD. And TDD is used by Cdma2000 for indoor cordless type
applications.
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Cdma2000?
a) Adaptable baseband signalling rates
b) Adaptable baseband chipping rates
c) Multicarrier technologies
d) OFDMA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cdma2000 does not use OFDMA technique. OFDMA is used by 4G networks.
Cdma2000 uses rapidly adaptable baseband signalling rates and chipping rates for each
user. It also provides multi-level keying within same framework.
8. Cdma2000 1xEV was developed by ________
a) Motorola
b) AT&T Laboratories
c) Qualcomm
d) NTT
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Cdma2000 is an evolutionary advancement for CDMA. It was developed by
Qualcomm Inc. It is a proprietary high data rate (HDR) packet standard that can be
overlaid upon existing IS-95, IS-95B and Cdma2000 networks.
9. How is bandwidth increased in Cdma2000?
a) Clubbing adjacent radio channels
b) Changing the hardware of base stations
c) Change of spectrum
d) Change of RF equipment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The increase in the bandwidth is achieved through clubbing the adjacent
radio channels of CdmaOne and using multicarrier technologies. For example, Cdma2000
3xRTT uses these technologies by combining three adjacent 1.25 MHz bandwidth of
CdmaOne channels.
10. What are the two options provided by Cdma2000 1xEV?
a) Cdma2000 1xRTT. Cdma2000 3xRTT
b) Cdma2000 1xEV-DO, Cdma2000 1xEV-DV
c) Cdma2000 1xEV-DT, Cdma2000 1xEV-DO
d) Cdma2000 1xRTT, Cdma2000 1xEV-DV
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cdma2000 1xEV is an evolutionary upgrade for Cdma2000. It provides two
options, for accessing only data (Cdma2000 1xEV-DO) and for both data & voice
(Cdma2000 1xEV-DV).
11. Which of the following is not backward compatible with Cdma2000?
a) Cdma2000 1xRTT
b) Cdma2000 3xRTT
c) Cdma2000 1xEV-DO
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d) Cdma2000 1xEV-DT
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 3G network?
a) Communication over VoIP
b) Unparalleled network capacity
c) Multi-megabit Internet access
d) LTE based network
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multi-megabit Internet access, communication using Voice over internet
Protocol (VoIP), voice activated calls, unparalleled network capacity are some of the
characteristics of 3G network. 3G systems promise unparalleled wireless access which is not
possible in 2G systems. LTE (Long term Evolution) is a standard of 4G systems.
2. What is the term used by ITU for a set of global standards of 3G systems?
a) IMT 2000
b) GSM
c) CDMA
d) EDGE
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: International Telecommunications Union (ITU) used the term IMT-2000 in
1998. It is used for a set of global standards for third generation (3G) mobile telecoms
services and equipment.
3. Which of the following leads to evolution of 3G networks in CDMA systems?
a) IS-95
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b) IS-95B
c) CdmaOne
d) Cdma2000
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 3G evolution of CDMA system leads to cdma2000. It is based on the
fundamentals of IS-95 and IS-95B. IS-95 is a 2G standard for CDMA systems. IS-95B is a
CDMA system for 2.5G networks.
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4. Which of the following leads to the 3G evolution of GSM, IS-136 and PDC systems?
a) W-CDMA
b) GPRS
c) EDGE
d) HSCSD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 3G evolution for GSM, IS-136 and PDC systems leads to W-CDMA
(Wideband CDMA). It is based on the network fundamentals of GSM, as well as merged
versions of GSM and IS-136 through EDGE. GPRS, EDGE and HSCSD are 2.5G networks.
5. What is 3GPP?
a) Project based on W-CDMA
b) Project based on cdma2000
c) Project based on 2G standards
d) Project based on 2.5G standards
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: 3GPP is a 3G Partnership Project for Wideband CDMA standards based on
backward compatibility with GSM and IS-136. The project was established in December
1998. Its initial scope was to make a globally applicable third generation mobile phone
system.
6. What is 3GPP2?
a) Project based on W-CDMA
b) Project based on cdma2000
c) Project based on 2G standards
d) Project based on 2.5G standards
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 3GPP2 is a 3G Partnership Project for Cdma2000 standards based on backward
compatibility with earlier CdmaOne 2G CDMA technology. It was initiated by IMT-2000 to
cover high speed, broadband and Internet Protocol (IP) based mobile systems. It mainly
focuses on North American and Asian regions.
7. Which of the following is not a standard of 3G?
a) UMTS
b) Cdma2000
c) TD-SCDMA
d) LTE
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: UMTS (Universal Mobile Telecommunication System), TD-SCDMA (Time
Division Synchronous Code Division Multiple Access), Cdma2000 are the standards defined
for 3G networks. LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a 4G standard for high speed wireless
communication.
8. Which of the following 3G standard is used in Japan?
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a) Cdma2000
b) TD-SCDMA
c) UMTS
d) UTRA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Japan uses UMTS (W-CDMA) standard for its 3G network. The standards used
are UMTS 800, UMTS 900, UMTS 1500, UMTS 1700 and UMTS 2100. They are standardized
by ARIB (Association of Radio industries and Business).
9. What does the number 2000 in IMT-2000 signifies?
a) Year
b) Number of subscribers per cell
c) Number of cells
d) Area (Km)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) defined the third generation
(3G) of mobile telephony standards, IMT-2000 to facilitate growth, increase bandwidth, and
support more diverse applications. The number 2000 in IMT-2000 indicates the start of the
system (year 2000) and the spectrum used (around 2000 MHz).
10. Which of the following is not an application of third generation network?
a) Global Positioning System (GPS)
b) Video conferencing
c) Mobile TV
d) Downloading rate upto 1 Gbps
View Answer
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Answer: d
1. What is the full form of UMTS?
a) Universal Mobile Telephone System
b) Ubiquitous Mobile Telephone System
c) Ubiquitous Mobile Telemetry System
d) Universal Machine Telemedicine System
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UMTS (Universal Mobile Telephone System) is a visionary air interface
standard that was introduced in 1996. European carriers, manufacturers, and government
regulators collectively developed the early version of UMTS as an open air interface
standard for third generation wireless telecommunication.
3. UMTS use which multiple access technique?
a) CDMA
b) TDMA
c) FDMA
d) SDMA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Although UMTS is designed to operate on evolved GSM core networks, it uses
code division multiple access (CDMA) for its air interface. The majority of the 3G systems in
operation employ CDMA, while the rest use TDMA. CDMA allows various users to share a
channel at the same time, while TDMA allows users to share the same channel by chopping
it into different time slots.
3. UMTS does not has backward compatibility with ____________
a) GSM
b) IS-136
c) IS-95
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d) GPRS
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: UMTS assures backward compatibility with the second generation GSM, IS-136
and PDC TDMA technologies. It is also compatible with all 2.5G TDMA techniques like GPRS
and EDGE. But it does not provide compatibility to CDMA technologies of 2G and 2.5 G. IS-
95 is a CDMA standard of 2G.
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4. UMTS is also known as _____________

a) IS-95
b) GPRS
c) CdmaOne
d) W-CDMA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: UMTS uses Wideband CDMA (W-CDMA) to carry the radio transmissions.
Therefore, it is also referred as W-CDMA. W-CDMA offers greater spectral efficiency and
bandwidth to mobile network operators.
5. What is the chip rate of W-CDMA?
a) 1.2288 Mcps
b) 3.84 Mcps
c) 270.833 Ksps
d) 100 Mcps
View Answer
Answer: b
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Explanation: W-CDMA uses a chip rate of 3.84 Mcps. Chip rate is the product of symbol rate
and spreading factor. If the symbol rate is 960 Kbps and spreading factor is 4 for W-CDMA,
then the chip rate is 3.84 Mcps. The chip rate for Cdma2000 and GSM are 1.2288 Mcps and
27.0833 Ksps respectively.
6. W-CDMA works in FDD mode only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: W-CDMA works in both FDD and TDD mode. W-CDMA developed for wide
area cellular coverage uses FDD. And TDD is used by W-CDMA for indoor cordless type
applications.
7. How much packet data rate per user is supported by W-CDMA if the user is stationary?
a) 2.048 Kbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 2.048 Mbps
d) 1 Gbps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the user is stationary, W-CDMA supports packet data rates upto 2.048Mbps
per user. Thus, it allows high quality data, multimedia, streaming audio video and broadcast
type services to consumers. Future version of WCDMA will support stationary user data
rates in excess of 8Mbps.
8. What is the minimum spectrum allocation required by W-CDMA?
a) 5 MHz
b) 20MHz
c) 1.25 MHz
d) 200 KHz
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: W-CDMA/UMTS requires a minimum spectrum allocation of 5 MHz. Using this
bandwidth, it has the capacity to carry over 100 simultaneous voice calls. It is able to carry
data at speeds up to 2 Mbps in its original format. 20 MHz is the bandwidth defined for LTE.
CdmaOne uses a bandwidth of 1.25 MHz. GSM’s bandwidth is 200 KHz.
9. W-CDMA requires a complete change of RF equipment at each base station.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: W-CDMA is designed to provide backward compatibility and interoperability
for all GSM, IS-136/PDC, GPRS and EDGE equipment. But due to a wider air interface
bandwidth of W-CDMA, it requires a complete change of RF-equipment at each base
station.
10. How much increase in spectral efficiency is provided by W-CDMA in comparison to
GSM?
a) Two times
b) Three times
c) No increase
d) Six times
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which UE category supports 64 QAM on the uplink?
a) Only category 5
b) Only category 4
c) Only category 3
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d) Category 3,4 and 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Category information is used to allow the eNB to communicate effectively with
all the UEs connected to it. The UE-category defines a combined uplink and downlink
capability. Only UE category 5 supports 64 QAM on the uplink.
2. What type of handovers is supported by LTE?
a) Hard handover only
b) Soft handover only
c) Hard and soft handover
d) Hard, soft and softest handover
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LTE supports only hard handover. It does not receive data from two
frequencies at the same time because switching between different carrier frequencies is
very fast so soft handover is not required.
3. What is the minimum amount of RF spectrum needed for an FDD LTE radio channel?
a) 1.4 MHz
b) 2.8 MHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 20 MHz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In telecommunication, Long-Term Evolution (LTE) is a standard for high-speed
wireless communication for mobile devices and data terminals, based on the GSM/EDGE
and UMTS/HSPA technologies. The minimum amount of RF spectrum needed for an FDD
LTE radio channel is 2.8 MHz.
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4. Which organization is responsible for developing LTE standards?

a) UMTS
b) 3GPP
c) 3GPP2
d) ISO
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) is a collaboration between
groups of telecommunications standards associations, known as the Organizational
Partners. LTE (Long Term Evolution) introduced in 3GPP R8, is the access part of the Evolved
Packet System (EPS).
5. Which channel indicates the number of symbols used by the PDCCH?
a) PHICH
b) PDCCH
c) PBCH
d) PCFICH
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PCFIH channel indicates the number of symbols used by the PDCCH. The actual
number of OFDM symbols occupied in any given subframe is indicated in the PCFICH
(Physical Control Format Indicator Channel), which is located in the first OFDM symbol of
each subframe.
6. How often can resources be allocated to the UE?
a) Every symbol
b) Every slot
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c) Every subframe
d) Every frame
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Resources can be located to the UE every subframe. CCE Index is the CCE
number at which the control channel data (PDCCH) is allocated. Normally this index
changes for each subframe, i.e. even the same PDCCH data (e.g, a PDCCH for the same UE)
allocated in each subframe changes subframe by subframe.
7. What is the largest channel bandwidth a UE is required to support in LTE?
a) 10 MHz
b) 20 MHz
c) 1.4 MHz
d) 5 MHz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The LTE format was first proposed by NTT DoCoMo of Japan and has been
adopted as the international standard. LTE-Advanced accommodates the geographically
available spectrum for channels above 20 MHz.
8. In LTE, what is the benefit of PAPR reduction in the uplink?
a) Improved uplink coverage
b) Lower UE power consumption
c) Reduced equalizer complexity
d) Improved uplink coverage, lower UE power consumption and reduced equalizer
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: PAPR is the relation between the maximum power of a sample in a given
OFDM transmit symbol divided by the average power of that OFDM symbol. PAPR
reduction in the uplink leads to improved uplink coverage, lower UE power consumption
and reduced equalizer complexity.
9. Which RLC mode adds the least amount of delay to user traffic?
a) Unacknowledged mode (UM)
b) Acknowledged mode (AM)
c) Low latency mode (LM)
d) Transparent mode (TM)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The transparent mode entity in RLC does not add any overhead to the upper
layer SDUs. The entity just transmits the SDUs coming from upper layer to MAC.
10. How much bandwidth is required to transmit the primary and secondary
synchronization signals?
a) 1.08 MHz
b) 1.4 MHz
c) 930 kHz
d) 20 MHz
View Answer
Answer: a
1. The satellite that is used as a relay to extend communication distance is called as
__________
a) Relay satellites
b) Communication satellites
c) Repeater satellites
d) Geosynchronous satellites
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View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Communication satellites are not originators of information to be transmitted.
If a transmitting station cannot communicate directly with one or more receiving stations
because of line-of-sight restrictions, a satellite can be used. The transmitting station sends
the information to the satellite, which in turn re-transmits it to the receiving stations.
2. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______
a) Relay
b) Repeater
c) Transponder
d) Duplexer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a
transponder. The basic functions of a transponder are amplification and frequency
translation. The reason for frequency translation is that the transponder cannot transmit
and receive on the same frequency.
3. The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The original signal being transmitted from the earth station to the satellite is
called the uplink, and the re-transmitted signal from the satellite to the receiving stations is
called the downlink. Usually, the downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency. A
typical uplink frequency is 6 GHz, and a common downlink frequency is 4 GHz.
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4. What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite?
a) More number of operating channel
b) Better reception
c) More gain
d) Redundancy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To be economically feasible, a satellite must be capable of handling several
channels. As a result, most satellites contain multiple transponders, each operating at a
different frequency. Each transponder represents an individual communication channel.
5. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a) More bandwidth
b) More spectrum space
c) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
d) Economically viable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: VHF, UHF, and microwave signals penetrate the ionosphere with little or no
attenuation and are not refracted to earth. Lower frequencies undergo total internal
refraction and get reflected back to earth.
6. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication?
a) Lesser attenuation
b) Less power requirements
c) More bandwidth
d) Overcrowding
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: Most new communication satellites will operate in the Ku band. This upward
shift in frequency is happening because the C band is overcrowded. Many communication
satellites are in orbit now, most of them operating in the C band. However, there is some
difficulty with interference because of the heavy usage. The only way this interference will
be minimized is to shift all future satellite communication to higher frequencies.
7. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?
a) MF
b) Ku
c) X
d) C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MF is a lower frequency band than Ku, C and X bands and does not lie in the
microwave spectrum. Microwaves are used for satellite communication since the lower
bands get reflected by the ionosphere.
8. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary
transmission and has a bandwidth of 36MHz?
a) 32Mpbs
b) 72Mpbs
c) 36Mpbs
d) 12Mpbs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For binary transmission, the maximum theoretical data rate or channel
capacity C for a given bandwidth B is C = 2B = 2(36) =72Mpbs.
9. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out?
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a) Reduce traffic load
b) More gain
c) High speed
d) Error detection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: at times there is more traffic than there are transponders to handle it. For that
reason, numerous techniques have been developed to effectively increase the bandwidth
and signal-carrying capacity of the satellite. Two of these techniques are known as
frequency reuse and spatial isolation.
10. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the frequency reuse technique two systems use the same frequency,
although operating on exactly the same frequencies, they are isolated from each other by
the use of special antenna techniques. For example, a vertically polarized antenna will not
respond to a horizontally polarized signal and vice versa. Or a left-hand circularly polarized
(LHCP) antenna will not respond to a right-hand circularly polarized (RHCP) signal and vice
versa.
11. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite
into smaller segments?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
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d) Modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By using narrow beam or spot beam antennas, the area on the earth covered
by the satellite can be divided up into smaller segments. Earth stations in each segment
may actually use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths of the
antennas, there is no interference between adjacent segments.
12. Spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) depends on satellite location and not frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
UNIT-5
1. An interconnected collection of piconet is called ___________
a) scatternet
b) micronet
c) mininet
d) multinet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of a bluetooth system having a master node and upto
seven active slave nodes. A collection of piconets is called scatternet and a slave node of a
piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet.
2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.
a) 63
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b) 127
c) 255
d) 511
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A slave node in a piconet can be instructed by the master node to go into
parked mode. Then the slave node enters the parked mode in which the node is not
disconnected from the network but is inactive unless the master wakes it up.
3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________
a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area
network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It operates on 2.45 GHz frequency
band for transmission.
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4. Bluetooth uses __________

a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum is a method of transmitting radio signals
by rapidly changing the carrier frequency and is controlled by the codes known to the
sender and receiver only.
5. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth
connection is called _________
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring
d) bluescoping
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a
bluetooth connection is called Bluesnarfing. It is done through exploiting the vulnerabilities
of the Bluetooth device to steal the transmitted information.
6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?
a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video
c) a bluetooth profile for security
d) a bluetooth profile for file management
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A2DP stands for Advanced Audio Distribution Profile is a transfer standard use
to transmit high definition audio through Bluetooth. It is mainly used in Bluetooth speakers
and wireless headphones.
7. In a piconet, one master device ________
a) can not be slave
b) can be slave in another piconet
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c) can be slave in the same piconet
d) can be master in another piconet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a scatternet, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet
that is part of the scatternet. The scatternet uses this property to connect many piconets
together to create a larger network.
8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bluetooth operates on 2.45 GHz frequency ISM band for transmission. It is
used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10
meters.
9. Bluetooth supports _______
a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) multipoint to point connection
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: In Bluetooth, each slave node communicates with the master of the piconet
independently i.e. each master-slave connection is independent. The slave is not allowed to
communicate with other slaves directly.
10. A scatternet can have maximum __________
a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets
View Answer
Answer: a
1. WiMAX stands for ___________
a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) wireless internet maximum communication
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WiMAX or worldwide interoperability for microwave access is a set of wireless
communication standards. It provides support for multiple physical layer (PHY) and Media
Access Control (MAC) options. It is based on IEEE 802.16 standards.
2. WiMAX provides ________
a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
d) no communication
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: WiMax was developed to provide wireless broadband access to buildings. It
can also be used to connect WLAN hotspots to the Internet. It is based on IEEE 802.16
standards.
3. WiMAX uses the _________
a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WiMAX physical layer uses orthogonal frequency division multiplexing as it
provides simplified reception in multipath and allows WiMAX to operate in NLOS
conditions.
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4. Which of the following modulation schemes is supported by WiMAX?

a) binary phase shift keying modulation
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
c) quadrature amplitude modulation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: WiMAX supports a variety of modulation schemes such as binary phase shift
keying modulation, quadrature phase shift keying modulation, and quadrature amplitude
modulation and allows for the scheme to change on a burst-by-burst basis per link,
depending on channel conditions.
5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface between ___________
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a) higher transport layers and physical layer
b) application layer and network layer
c) data link layer and network layer
d) session layer and application layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WiMAX provides support for multiple physical layer (PHY) on the physical layer
and Media Access Control (MAC) options for higher layers to provide wireless broadband
access to buildings.
6. For encryption, WiMAX supports _______
a) advanced encryption standard
b) triple data encryption standard
c) advanced encryption standard and triple data encryption standard
d) double data encryption standard
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Both advanced encryption standard and triple data encryption standard are
block cipher techniques and are popularly used in WiMAX and other applications for secure
encryption.
7. WiMAX provides _______
a) VoIP services
b) IPTV services
c) Both VoIP and IPTV services
d) no IPTV services
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: IPTV can be transmitted over WiMAX, and relies on packet-switching to offer
reliable delivery. VoIP can be operated over a WiMax network with no special hardware or
software.
8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as _________
a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
c) gateway
d) switch stations
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Subscriber stations in WiMAX are transceivers (transmitter and receivers).
They are used to convert radio signals into digital signals that can be routed to and from
communication devices. There is a variety of types of WiMAX subscriber stations like
portable PCMCIA cards and fixed stations that provide service to multiple users.
9. WiMAX is mostly used for __________
a) local area network
b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
d) wide area network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WiMAX provides Wi-Fi connectivity within the home or business for computers
and smartphones. WiMAX network operators typically provide a WiMAX Subscriber Unit to
do so. The subscriber unit is used to connect to the metropolitan WiMAX network.
10. Which of the following frequencies is not used in WiMAX for communication?
a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
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d) 3.5 GHz
View Answer
Answer: b
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1. _________ also known as impulse or zero-carrier radio technology.
a) Ultra wideband technology
b) Femtocell technology
c) Multicasting
d) Multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultra-wideband (UWB) technology is also known as impulse or zero-carrier
radio technology. It appears to be one of the most promising wireless radio communication
technologies of recent time.
2. UWB operates across narrow bandwidth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike conventional radio systems, which operate within a relatively narrow
bandwidth, the UWB radio system operates across a wide range of the frequency spectrum
by transmitting a series of extremely narrow (10–1000 per second) and low-power pulses.
3. The basic element in DSC–UWB technology is the monocycle wavelet.
a) True
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b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic element in TM–UWB technology is the monocycle wavelet. Typically,
wavelet pulse widths are between 0.2 and 1.5 nanoseconds, corresponding to center
frequencies between 600 MHz and 5 GHz.
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4. In TM–UWB, the system uses a modulation technique called _______

a) Pulse width modulation
b) Pulse code modulation
c) Pulse position modulation
d) Pulse amplitude modulation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In TM–UWB, the system uses a modulation technique called pulse position
modulation. The TM–UWB transmitter emits ultra-short monocycle wavelets with tightly
controlled pulse-to-pulse intervals, which are varied on a pulse-by-pulse basis in accordance
with an information signal and a channel code.
5. DSC-UWB uses _________
a) Pulse width modulation
b) Pulse code modulation
c) Pulse position modulation
d) Direct sequence modulation
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: In DSC-UWB, the signal is spread by direct sequence modulating a wavelet
pulse trains at duty cycles approaching that of a sine wave carrier. The spectrum spreading,
channelization, and modulation are provided by a PN (pseudo noise) sequence, and the
chipping rate is maintained as some fraction of the carrier center frequency.
6. The coherent interaction of signals in UWB arriving by many paths causes ____________
a) Ricean fading
b) Nakagami fading
c) Rayleigh fading
d) Multicast fading
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The coherent interaction of signals arriving by many paths causes the Rayleigh
or multipath fading in RF communications. Inside buildings, when continuous sine waves
are transmitted wherein the channels exhibit multipath differential delays in the
nanosecond range, the multipath fading occurs naturally.
7. UWB technology supports low bit rate and low speed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: UWB technology is appropriate for the high-performance wireless home
network, which mandates support for large bit rate (50 Mbps), high-speed, affordable
connectivity between devices, and simultaneous data transmission from multiple devices,
and full-motion video capability.
8. Which of the following is not true for UWB?
a) Large spectrum
b) Lower price
c) Pulse data
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d) Large interference
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The combination of a larger spectrum, lower power, and pulsed data means
that UWB causes less interference than narrowband radio designs while yielding low
probability of detection and excellent multipath immunity.
9. UWB systems are very complex, since they use radio frequency/intermediate frequency
conversion stages.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: UWB systems are much less complex, since they do not use any radio
frequency/intermediate frequency (RF/IF) conversion stages, local oscillators, mixers, and
other expensive surface acoustic wave (SAW) filters common to traditional radio
technologies.
10. Which of the following is a drawback of UWB technology?
a) Not appropriate for WAN
b) Power limited
c) Small spectrum
d) Limited jitter requirements
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which type of cell provides the best level of service for average subscribers?
a) Acceptance cell
b) Barred cell
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c) Reserved cell
d) Suitable cell
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A suitable cell is a cell on which the UE may camp on to obtain normal service.
The UE shall have a valid USIM and such a cell shall fulfil all the following requirements. It
provides the best level of service for average subscribers.
2. With the normal cyclic prefix, how many symbols are contained in 1 frame?
a) 7
b) 140
c) 12
d) 40
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two different type of Cyclic Prefix. One is normal Cyclic Prefix and
the other is ‘Extended Cyclic Prefix’ which is longer than the Normal Cyclic Prefix. Normal
cyclic prefix contains 140 symbols in 1 frame.
3. What is the PBCH scrambled with?
a) Current frame number
b) Physical cell ID
c) UE’s CRNTI
d) Not scrambled
View Answer
Answer: b
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Explanation: The PBCH is scrambled prior to modulation with a cell-specific sequence that
depends on the cells’ identity. In contrast to the synchronization signals, the PBCH is
transmitted on the 72 reserved subcarriers, which are QPSK-modulated.
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4. What is the length of the shortest possible PDCCH in bits?

a) 144
b) 288
c) 72
d) 576
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: PDCCH is a physical channel that carries downlink control information (DCI).
Shortest possible PDCCH is 72 bits.
5. What is the average uploading speed of 4G LTE network?
a) 1-3 Gbps
b) 2-5 Gbps
c) 1-3 Mbps
d) 2-5 Mbps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Verizon 4G LTE wireless broadband is 10 times faster than 3G able to handle
download speeds between 5 and 12 Mbps (Megabits per second) and upload speeds
between 2 and 5 Mbps.
6. Which of the following is not a part of the characteristic of 4G network?
a) Multirate management
b) Fully converged services
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c) Software dependency
d) Diverse user devices
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 4G is the fourth generation of broadband cellular network technology,
succeeding 3G. Its characteristics include fully converged services, software dependency
and diverse user devices.
7. What does SGSN stands for?
a) Serving GPRS Support Node
b) Supporting GGSN Support Node
c) Supporting GPRS Support Node
d) Supporting Gateway Support Node
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Serving GPRS Support Node (SGSN) is a main component of the GPRS
network, which handles all packet switched data within the network, e.g. the mobility
management and authentication of the users. The SGSN performs the same functions as
the MSC for voice traffic.
8. What location management feature is supported by 4G?
a) Concatenated Location Registration
b) Concurrent Location Register
c) Concatenated Management
d) Collated Location Registration
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: 4G supports concatenated location registration. Concatenated location
registration reports to the network that they are concatenated to a common object.
9. In 2007 ____________ announced its plan to transmit its network to 4G standard LTE
with joint efforts of Vodafone group.
a) Verizon Wireless
b) AirTouch
c) Netflix
d) V Cast
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 2007, Verizon announced plans to develop and deploy its fourth generation
mobile broadband network using LTE, the technology developed within the Third
Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) standards organization.
10. Hybrid ARQ is part of the ____________ layer.
a) PDCP
b) RLC
c) MAC
d) PHY
Answer: c
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WIRELESS MOBILE COMMUNICATION MCQs

4. Which of the following is a fully digital cordless system?

4. What is the function of FVC (Forward Voice Channel)?

4. What is frequency reuse?

4. Dwell time does not depend on which of the following factor?

4. Small scale propagation model is also known as _________

4. What does path loss exponent indicates?

4. A wave that is incident on mobile does not undergo Doppler shift.

4. White noise has _______ power spectral density.

4. Which of the following is not a vocoding system?

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of PN sequence?

4. A linear feedback shift register consists of

4. ____________ is used to prevent deep fade for rapidly varying channel.

4. MIMO is a smart antenna technology.

4. An equalizer is said to be converged when it is properly _______

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of FIR filter?

4. Choice of equalizer structure and its algorithm is not dependent on ________

4. Each correlation receiver in RAKE receiver is adjusted in ____________

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4. If the FDMA channel is not in use, it can be used by other users.

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4. Which of the following is not true for TDMA?

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4. Within ITU IMT-2000 body, Cdma2000 1xRTT is also known as ____________

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4. UMTS is also known as _____________

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4. Which organization is responsible for developing LTE standards?

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4. Bluetooth uses __________

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4. Which of the following modulation schemes is supported by WiMAX?

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