READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1–13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 below.

The Earth

(A) The Earth is the third planet from the Sun and it is the only planet known
to have life on it. The Earth formed around 4.5 billion years ago. It is one of
four rocky planets on the inside of the Solar System. The other three are
Mercury, Venus, and Mars.

(B) The large mass of the Sun makes the Earth move around it, just as the
mass of the Earth makes the Moon move around it. The Earth also turns
round in space, so different parts face the Sun at different times. The Earth
goes around the Sun once (one "year") for every 365¼ times it turns all the
way around (one "day").

(C) The Moon goes around the Earth about every 27⅓ days, and reflects light
from the Sun. As the Earth goes round the Sun at the same time, the
changing light of the Moon takes about 29½ days to go from dark to bright to
dark again. That is where the idea of "month" came from. However, now most
months have 30 or 31 days so they fit into one year.

(D) The Earth is the only planet in our Solar System that has a large amount
of liquid water. About 71% of the surface of the Earth is covered by oceans.
Because of this, it is sometimes called the "Blue Planet".

(E) Because of its water, the Earth is home to millions of species of plants and
animals. The things that live on Earth have changed its surface greatly. For
example, early cyanobacteria changed the air and gave it oxygen. The living
part of the Earth's surface is called the "biosphere".

(F) The Earth is part of the eight planets and many thousands of small bodies
that move around the Sun as its Solar System. The Solar System is moving
through the Orion Arm of the Milky Way Galaxy now, and will be for about the
next 10,000 years.
(G) The Earth is generally 150,000,000 kilometers or 93,000,000 miles away
from the Sun (this distance is named an "Astronomical Unit"). The Earth
moves along its way at an average speed of about 30 km or 19 mi a second.
The Earth turns all the way around about 365¼ times in the time it takes for
the Earth to go all the way around the Sun. To make up this extra bit of a day
every year, an additional day is used every four years. This is named a "leap
year".

(H) The Moon goes around the Earth at an average distance of 400,000

kilometers (250,000 mi). It is locked to Earth, so that it always has the same
half facing the Earth; the other half is called the "dark side of the Moon". It
takes about 27⅓ days for the Moon to go all the way around the Earth but,
because the Earth is moving around the Sun at the same time, it takes about
29½ days for the Moon to go from dark to bright to dark again. This is where
the word "month" came from, even though most months now have 30 or 31
days.

Questions 1–8

Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs A-H. Which paragraph contains the following

information?  Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 1–8 on your answer sheet.

1. Earth’s natural satellite 

2. Distance between Earth and Sun 

3. General information about Earth 

4. The Solar System 

5. Length of most moths 

6. Another name for Earth 

7. The living part of the Earth's surface 

8. The movements of Earth around the Sun 

Questions 9-13

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9. Apart from Earth, other rocky planets in our Solar Systems are Venus, Mars

and  .

10. Moon   from the Sun on Earth.

11. There are millions of   of plants and animals that inhabit Earth.

12. Now the Solar System is travelling through   .

13. The dark side of the Moon is the side, which   faces Earth.

ANSWERS

Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in

all answers.

Section 1

1. H
2. G
3. A
4. F
5. C
6. D
7. E
8. B
9. Mercury
10. Reflects light
11. Species
12. The Orion Arm
13. Never

EADING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-28. Read the texts below and answer
the following questions

1. The Vitamin Shoppe: 1,946 part-time openings.

The Vitamin Shoppe is a New Jersey-based retailer of nutritional
supplements. They also operate stores in Canada under the name "VitaPath".
The company provides approximately 8,000 different SKU's of supplements
through its retail stores and over 20,000 different SKU's of supplements
through its online retail websites.
Employee Review: "Good growth opportunities and stores opening all over
the US all year 'round. Company based out of NJ, so more progressive
policies on employment and benefits. Good vacation, health, and dental
benefits. Payment is above average. Good policies on customer service
interaction as well. Focus on Customer service vs. pushing products."

2. Chipotle: 1,553 part-time openings.

Chipotle is known for its use of organic meats throughout its more than 1,500
restaurants, which are located in 45 states. Since having been founded in
1993, the chain has since exploded and now counts some 37,000 employees.
It is a pioneer in the "fast casual" dining movement.

Employee Review: "The people I work with are awesome and the food is
good. It pays my bills and makes me laugh. The schedule is super flexible but
it's a lot of work. If you're looking for something easy and laid back, keep
looking."

3. Advantage Sales & Marketing: 1,742 part-time openings.

Advantage Sales & Marketing provides outsourced sales, merchandising, and
marketing services to consumer goods and food product manufacturers and
suppliers. Owning more than 65 offices in the US and Canada, ASM does
merchandising for 1,200 clients -- including Johnson & Johnson, Mars,
Unilever, Energizer.

Employee Review: "Long lasting business, able to adapt to changes in

market. Well-thought out schedule, and flexible time off for both vacation and
illness."

4. Universal Protection Service: 1,219 part-time openings.

Universal Protection Service is one of the largest providers of security
services in the U.S. They offer an expansive range of security solutions for
airports, healthcare facilities, office buildings, and more.

Employee Review: "Good pay depending on where you work. Room for

advancement based on availability. Better company than any other I have
worked for in security."

5. PSA Healthcare: 1,295 part-time openings

PSA Healthcare, also known as Pediatric Services of America, provides
comprehensive home health services through a branch of office across the
United States. The company is headquartered in Atlanta, Ga.

Employee Review: "I love working one-on-one with the pediatric patient and
their families. You have the time needed to give great compassionate care!
Office staff and supervisors are very good with both employees and clients.
There is a lot of flexibility with staffing. I never received grief for requesting a
day off."

Questions 14-22

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 14–22 on your answer sheet.

14. Which offer has the most part-time openings?

      A   Chipotle

      B   PSA Healthcare

      C   The Vitamin Shoppe

      D   Advantage Sales & Marketing

15. Which of these companies operate both in USA and Canada?

      A   The Vitamin Shoppe and Advantage Sales & Marketing

      B   PSA Healthcare and Advantage Sales & Marketing

      C   Chipotle and PSA Healthcare

      D   PSA Healthcare and The Vitamin Shoppe

16. Review of which company says that it is the best security company he/she worked for?

      A   Chipotle

      B   The Vitamin Shoppe

      C   Universal Protection Service

      D   PSA Healthcare

17. Which company was founded in 1993?

      A   The Vitamin Shoppe

      B   Universal Protection Service

      C   PSA Healthcare

      D   Chipotle

18. Main office of which company is situated in Atlanta?

      A   The Vitamin Shoppe

      B   PSA Healthcare

      C   Chipotle

      D   Advantage Sales & Marketing

19. VitaPath is the other name of which company?

      A   PSA Healthcare

      B   Universal Protection Service

      C   The Vitamin Shoppe

      D   Advantage Sales & Marketing

20. Which review doesn’t mention a comfortable timetable?

      A   Chipotle

      B   Advantage Sales & Marketing

      C   The Vitamin Shoppe

      D   PSA Healthcare

21. Which company is described as a long lasting business?

      A   PSA Healthcare

      B   Advantage Sales & Marketing

      C   Universal Protection Service

      D   Chipotle

22. Organic meat is used by what company?

      A   Chipotle

      B   The Vitamin Shoppe

      C   Advantage Sales & Marketing

      D   None of them

Questions 23-28

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Section 2?

In boxes 23–28 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

23. The Vitamin Shoppe has an above average salary, according to the review.                   

24. Reviewer of the company Chipotle says that working there is both fun and earns enough

money.                                                   

25. Advantage Sales & Marketing owns 65 offices all over the world.                                      

26. Universal Protection Service offers various security services in the USA.                         

27. Reviewer of the PSA Healthcare praises its high wages.                                                 
28. None of the offers included an approximate salary in the description.                             

ANSWERS

Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in

all answers.

Section 2

14. C
15. A
16. C
17. D
18. B
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. True
24. True
25. False
26. True
27. Not Given
28. True

READING PASSAGE 3

Read the text below and answer Questions 29–40.

What to do in a fire?
Fire drills are a big part of being safe in school: They prepare you for what you
need to do in case of a fire. But what if there was a fire where you
live? Would you know what to do? Talking about fires can be scary because
no one likes to think about people getting hurt or their things getting burned.
But you can feel less worried if you are prepared.

It's a good idea for families to talk about what they would do to escape a fire.
Different families will have different strategies. Some kids live in one-story
houses and other kids live in tall buildings. You'll want to talk about escape
plans and escape routes, so let's start there.

Know Your Way Out

An escape plan can help every member of a family get out of a burning house.
The idea is to get outside quickly and safely. Smoke from a fire can make it
hard to see where things are, so it's important to learn and remember the
different ways out of your home. How many exits are there? How do you get
to them from your room? It's a good idea to have your family draw a map of
the escape plan.
It's possible one way out could be blocked by fire or smoke, so you'll want to
know where other ones are. And if you live in an apartment building, you'll
want to know the best way to the stairwell or other emergency exits.

Safety Steps

If you're in a room with the door closed when the fire breaks out, you need to
take a few extra steps:

 Check to see if there's heat or smoke coming in the cracks around the
door. (You're checking to see if there's fire on the other side.)
 If you see smoke coming under the door — don't open the door!
 If you don't see smoke — touch the door. If the door is hot or very warm
— don't open the door!
 If you don't see smoke — and the door is not hot — then use your
fingers to lightly touch the doorknob. If the doorknob is hot or very
warm — don't open the door!

If the doorknob feels cool, and you can't see any smoke around the door, you
can open the door very carefully and slowly. When you open the door, if you
feel a burst of heat or smoke pours into the room, quickly shut the door and
make sure it is really closed. If there's no smoke or heat when you open the
door, go toward your escape route exit.

Questions 29-34

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 29-34 on your answer sheet.

29. While some might live in a tall buildings, others might live in a   .

30. Important thing is to talk with your kids about escape   and   .

31. Making a   is a good idea, it can help you escape.

32. If you live in an apartment, you have to know the way to the staircase or
other   .

33. You can only open the door if the   is not hot and you can’t see smoke around
the door.

34. You should immediately close the door, if smoke   into the room

Questions 35–39

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Section 3?

In boxes 35–39 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

 
35. It is important to have a strategy before escaping the fire.                                                 

36. You should mark different ways out of your home on the map.                                         

37. If you’re stuck in a room, and see smoke coming from the other room, you should open
the door and ran to the exit.                                                   

38. Hot door means you shouldn’t open it to escape.                                                 

39. If you open the door and everything seems fine, go straight to the exit.                             

Question 40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.

40. This article is mainly aimed at helping:

      A   Children

      B   Children and their parents

      C   Only parents

      D   Teachers at schools

ANSWERS

Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in

all answers.

Section 3
 29. One-story houses
30. Plans, routes
31. Map
32. Emergency exits
33. Doorknob
34. Pours
35. True
36. Not Given
37. False
38. True
39. True
40. B

Read Section 1 and answer Questions 1–14

EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

Revised July 2011

This applies to all persons on the school campus

In cases of emergency (e.g. fire), find the nearest teacher who will: send a
messenger at full speed to the Office OR inform the Office via phone ext. 99.

PROCEDURE FOR EVACUATION

1. Warning of an emergency evacuation will be marked by a number of short

bell rings. (In the event of a power failure, this may be a hand-held bell or
siren.)

2. All class work will cease immediately.

3. Students will leave their bags, books and other possessions where they
are.

4. Teachers will take the class rolls.

5. Classes will vacate the premises using the nearest staircase. If these stairs
are inaccessible, use the nearest alternative staircase. Do not use the lifts. Do
not run.

6. Each class, under the teacher’s supervision, will move in a brisk, orderly
fashion to the paved quadrangle area adjacent to the car park.

7. All support staff will do the same.

8. The Marshalling Supervisor, Ms Randall, will be wearing a red cap and she
will be waiting there with the master timetable and staff list in her possession.

9. Students assemble in the quad with their teacher at the time of evacuation.
The teacher will do a head count and check the roll.

10. Each teacher sends a student to the Supervisor to report whether all
students have been accounted for. After checking, students will sit down (in
the event of rain or wet pavement they may remain standing).

11. The Supervisor will inform the Office when all staff and students have
been accounted for.

12. All students, teaching staff and support personnel remain in the
evacuation area until the All Clear signal is given.

13. The All Clear will be a long bell ring or three blasts on the siren.

14. Students will return to class in an orderly manner under teacher guidance.

15. In the event of an emergency occurring during lunch or breaks, students

are to assemble in their home-room groups in the quad and await their home-
room teacher.

Questions 1-8

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1–8 on your answer sheet.

1. In an emergency, a teacher will either phone the office or  .

2. The signal for evacuation will normally be several  .

3. If possible, students should leave the building by the  .

4. They then walk quickly to the  .

5.   will join the teachers and students in the quad.

6. Each class teacher will count up his or her students and mark  .

7. After the   , everyone may return to class.

8. If there is an emergency at lunchtime, students gather in the quad in   and wait
for their teacher.

Read the texts below and answer Questions 9–14

Community Education

 
 SHORT COURSES: BUSINESS

Business Basics
Gain foundation knowledge for employment in an accounts position with
bookkeeping and business basics through to intermediate level; suitable for
anyone requiring knowledge from the ground up.
Code B/ED011
16th or 24th April 9am–4pm
Cost $420

Bookkeeping
This course will provide students with a comprehensive understanding of
bookkeeping and a great deal of hands-on experience.
Code B/ED020
19th April 9am–2.30pm (one session only so advance bookings essential)
Cost $250

New Enterprise Module

Understand company structures, tax rates, deductions, employer obligations,
profit and loss statements, GST and budgeting for tax.
Code B/ED030
15th or 27th May 6pm–9pm
Cost $105

Social Networking – the Latest Marketing Tool

This broad overview gives you the opportunity to analyse what web
technologies are available and how they can benefit your organisation.
Code B/ED033
1st or 8th or 15th June 6pm–9pm
Cost $95

Communication
Take the fear out of talking to large gatherings of people. Gain the public-
speaking experience that will empower you with better communication skills
and confidence.
Code B/ED401
12th or 13th or 14th
July 6pm–9pm
Cost $90

 
Questions 9–14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 9–14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

9. Business Basics is appropriate for beginners.                                                 

10. Bookkeeping has no practical component.                                                 

11. Bookkeeping is intended for advanced students only.                                                 

12. The New Enterprise Module can help your business become more profitable.                

13. Social Networking focuses on a specific website to help your business succeed.            

14. The Communication class involves speaking in front of an audience. 

ANSWERS

Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in

all answers.

Section 1

1. Send a messenger
2. Short bell rings
3. Nearest staircase
4. Quadrangle
5. Support staff
6. The roll
7. All clear signal
8. Home-room groups
9. True
10. False
11. Not given
12. Not given
13. False
14. True

Read Section 2 and answer Questions 15–28

BENEFICIAL WORK PRACTICES FOR THE KEYBOARD

OPERATOR

(A) Sensible work practices are an important factor in the prevention of

muscular fatigue; discomfort or pain in the arms, neck, hands or back; or eye
strain which can be associated with constant or regular work at a keyboard
and visual display unit (VDU).

(B) It is vital that the employer pays attention to the physical setting such as
workplace design, the office environment, and placement of monitors as well
as the organisation of the work and individual work habits. Operators must be
able to recognise work-related health problems and be given the opportunity
to participate in the management of these. Operators should take note of and
follow the preventive measures outlined below.

(C) The typist must be comfortably accommodated in a chair that is adjustable

for height with a back rest that is also easily adjustable both for angle and
height. The back rest and sitting ledge (with a curved edge) should preferably
be cloth-covered to avoid excessive perspiration.

(D) When the keyboard operator is working from a paper file or manuscript, it

should be at the same distance from the eyes as the screen. The most
convenient position can be found by using some sort of holder. Individual
arrangement will vary according to whether the operator spends more time
looking at the VDU or the paper – whichever the eyes are focused on for the
majority of time should be put directly in front of the operator.

(E) While keying, it is advisable to have frequent but short pauses of around

thirty to sixty seconds to proofread. When doing this, relax your hands. After
you have been keying for sixty minutes, you should have a ten minute change
of activity. During this spell it is important that you do not remain seated but
stand up or walk around. This period could be profitably used to do filing or
collect and deliver documents.

(F) Generally, the best position for a VDU is at right angles to the window. If
this is not possible then glare from the window can be controlled by blinds,
curtains or movable screens. Keep the face of the VDU vertical to avoid glare
from overhead lighting.

(G) Unsatisfactory work practices or working conditions may result in aches or

pain.
Symptoms should be reported to your supervisor early on so that the cause of
the trouble can be corrected and the operator should seek medical attention.

Questions 15–21

The text on the next page has seven sections, A–G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings
 i. How can reflection problems be avoided?
ii. How long should I work without a break?
iii. What if I experience any problems?
iv. When is the best time to do filing chores?
v. What makes a good seat?
vi. What are the common health problems?
vii. What is the best kind of lighting to have?
viii. What are the roles of management and workers?
ix. Why does a VDU create eye fatigue?
x. Where should I place the documents?

15. Section A 

16. Section B 

17. Section C 

18. Section D 

19. Section E 

20. Section F 

21. Section G 

Workplace dismissals
Before the dismissal

If an employer wants to dismiss an employee, there is a process to be

followed.
Instances of minor misconduct and poor performance must first be addressed
through some preliminary steps.
Firstly, you should be given an improvement note. This will explain the
problem, outline any necessary changes and offer some assistance in
correcting the situation. Then, if your employer does not think your
performance has improved, you may be given a written warning. The last step
is called a final written warning which will inform you that you will be dismissed
unless there are improvements in performance. If there is no improvement,
your employer can begin the dismissal procedure.
The dismissal procedure begins with a letter from the employer setting out the
charges made against the employee. The employee will be invited to a
meeting to discuss these accusations. If the employee denies the charges, he
is given the opportunity to appear at a formal appeal hearing in front of a
different manager. After this, a decision is made as to whether the employee
will be let go or not.

Dismissals

Of the various types of dismissal, a fair dismissal is the best kind if an

employer wants an employee out of the workplace. A fair dismissal is legally
and contractually strong and it means all the necessary procedures have been
correctly followed. In cases where an employee’s misconduct has been very
serious, however, an employer may not have to follow all of these procedures.
If the employer can prove that the employee’s behaviour was illegal,
dangerous or severely wrong, the employee can be dismissed immediately: a
procedure known as summary dismissal.
Sometimes a dismissal is not considered to have taken place fairly. One of
these types is wrongful dismissal and involves a breach of contract by the
employer. This could involve dismissing an employee without notice or without
following proper disciplinary and dismissal procedures. Another type, unfair
dismissal, is when an employee is sacked without good cause.
There is another kind of dismissal, known as constructive dismissal, which is
slightly peculiar because the employee is not actually openly dismissed by the
employer. In this case the employee is forced into resigning by an employer
who tries to make significant changes to the original contract. This could
mean an employee might have to work night shifts after originally signing on
for day work, or he could be made to work in dangerous conditions.
 

Questions 22 and 23

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22–23 on your answer sheet.

22. If an employee receives a   , this means he will lose his job if his work does
not get better.

23. If an employee does not accept the reasons for his dismissal, a   can be
arranged.

Questions 24–28

Look at the following descriptions (Questions 24–28) and the list of terms in the box below.

Match each description with the correct term A–E.

Write the appropriate letter A–E in boxes 24–28 on your answer sheet.

24. An employee is asked to leave work straight away because he has done something

really bad.

25. An employee is pressured to leave his job unless he accepts conditions that are very

different from those agreed to in the beginning.

26. An employer gets rid of an employee without keeping to conditions in the contract.

27. The reason for an employee’s dismissal is not considered good enough.

28. The reasons for an employee’s dismissal are acceptable by law and the terms of the

employment contract.

A Fair dismissal

B Summary dismissal

C Unfair dismissal

D Wrongful dismissal

E Constructive dismissal

ANSWERS

Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in

all answers.

Section 2

15. vi
16. viii
17. v
18. x
19. ii
20. i
21. iii
22. Final written warning
23. Formal appeal hearing
24. B
25. E
26. D
27. C
28. A
Read Section 3 and answer Questions 29–40

CALISTHENICS

The world’s oldest form of resistance training

(A) From the very first caveman to scale a tree or hang from a cliff face, to the
mighty armies of the Greco-Roman empires and the gymnasiums of modern
American high schools, calisthenics has endured and thrived because of its
simplicity and utility. Unlike strength training which involves weights, machines
or resistance bands, calisthenics uses only the body’s own weight for physical
development.

(B) Calisthenics enters the historical record at around 480 B.C., with

Herodotus’ account of the Battle of Thermopolylae. Herodotus reported that,
prior to the battle, the god-king Xerxes sent a scout party to spy on his
Spartan enemies. The scouts informed Xerxes that the Spartans, under the
leadership of King Leonidas, were practicing some kind of bizarre,
synchronised movements akin to a tribal dance. Xerxes was greatly amused.
His own army was comprised of over 120,000 men, while the Spartans had
just
300. Leonidas was informed that he must retreat or face annihilation. The
Spartans did not retreat, however, and in the ensuing battle they managed to
hold Xerxes’ enormous army at bay for some time until reinforcements
arrived. It turns out their tribal dance was not a superstitious ritual but a form
of calisthenics by which they were building awe-inspiring physical strength
and endurance.

(C) The Greeks took calisthenics seriously not only as a form of military

discipline and strength, but also as an artistic expression of movement and an
aesthetically ideal physique. Indeed, the term calisthenics itself is derived from
the Greek words for beauty and strength. We know from historical records and
images from pottery, mosaics and sculptures of the period that the ancient
Olympians took calisthenics training seriously.
They were greatly admired – and still are, today – for their combination of
athleticism and physical beauty. You may have heard a friend whimsically
sigh and mention that someone ‘has the body of a Greek god’. This
expression has travelled through centuries
and continents, and the source of this envy and admiration is the calisthenics
method.
(D) Calisthenics experienced its second golden age in the 1800s. This century
saw the birth of gymnastics, an organised sport that uses a range of bars,
rings, vaulting horses and balancing beams to display physical prowess. This
period is also when the phenomena of strongmen developed. These were
people of astounding physical strength and development who forged nomadic
careers by demonstrating outlandish feats of strength to stunned populations.
Most of these men trained using hand balancing and horizontal bars, as
modern weight machines had not yet been invented.

(E) In the 1950s, Angelo Siciliano – who went by the stage name Charles
Atlas – was crowned “The World’s Most Perfectly Developed Man”. Atlas’s
own approach stemmed from traditional calisthenics, and through a series of
mail order comic books he taught these methods to hundreds of thousands of
children and young adults through the 1960s and 1970s. But Atlas was the
last of a dying breed. The tides were turning, fitness methods were drifting
away from calisthenics, and no widely-regarded proponent of the method
would ever succeed him.   

(F) In the 1960s and 1970s calisthenics and the goal of functional strength
combined with physical beauty was replaced by an emphasis on huge
muscles at any cost. This became the sport of body building. Although body
building’s pioneers were drawn from the calisthenics tradition, the sole goal
soon became an increase in muscle size. Body building icons, people such as
Arnold Schwarzenegger and Sergio Oliva, were called mass monsters
because of their imposing physiques. Physical development of this nature was
only attainable through the use of anabolic steroids, synthetic hormones which
boosted muscle development while harming overall health. These body
builders also relied on free weights and machines, which allowed them to
target and bloat the size of individual muscles rather than develop a naturally
proportioned body.
Calisthenics, with its emphasis on physical beauty and a balance in
proportions, had little to offer the mass monsters.

(G) In this “bigger is better” climate, calisthenics was relegated to groups

perceived to be vulnerable, such as women, people recuperating from injuries
and school students.
Although some of the strongest and most physically developed human beings
ever to have lived acquired their abilities through the use of sophisticated
calisthenics, a great deal of this knowledge was discarded and the method
was reduced to nothing more than an easily accessible and readily available
activity. Those who mastered the rudimentary skills of calisthenics could
expect to graduate to weight training rather than advanced calisthenics.

(H) In recent years, however, fitness trends have been shifting back toward
the use of calisthenics. Bodybuilding approaches that promote excessive
muscle development frequently lead to joint pain, injuries, unbalanced
physiques and weak cardiovascular health. As a result, many of the newest
and most popular gyms and programmes emphasize calisthenics-based
methods instead. Modern practices often combine elements from a number of
related traditions such as yoga, Pilates, kettle-ball training, gymnastics and
traditional Greco-Roman calisthenics. Many people are keen to recover the
original Greek vision of physical beauty and strength and harmony of the
mind-body connection.

Questions 29-35

The text has eight paragraphs, A–H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes, 29–35 on your answer sheet.

29. The origin of the word ‘calisthenics’. 

30. The last popular supporter of calisthenics. 

31. The first use of calisthenics as a training method. 

32. A multidisciplinary approach to all-round health and strength. 

33. Reasons for the survival of calisthenics throughout the ages. 

34. The use of a medical substance to increase muscle mass and strength. 

35. A reference to travelling showmen who displayed their strength for

audiences. 

QUESTIONS 36–40
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36–40 on your answer sheet.

During the sixties and seventies, attaining huge muscles became more important
than (36)   or having an attractive-looking body. The first people to take up this
new sport of body building had a background in calisthenics but the most famous
practitioners became known as (37)   on account of the impressive size of their
muscles. Drugs and mechanical devices were used to develop individual muscles to a
monstrous size. Calisthenics then became the domain of ‘weaker’ people: females, children
and those recovering from (38)  . Much of the advanced knowledge about
calisthenics was lost and the method was subsequently downgraded to the status of a
simple, user-friendly activity. Once a person became skilled at this, he would progress
to (39)  . Currently a revival of calisthenics is under way as extreme muscle
building can harm the body leaving it sore, out of balance, and in poor (40)  .

ANSWERS

Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in

all answers.

Section 3

29. C
30. E
31. B
32. H
33. A
34. F
35. D
36. Functional strength
37. Mass monsters
38. Injuries
39. Weight training
40. Cardiovascular health