IGRUA

Ground Training Department

BATCH : 1303 FINAL TEST (AIR NAV & RAD AIDS) 20 July, 2013
Dur:03:00
AIR NAVIGATION Max Marks: (60+40) 100
Note:- This Question Paper contains 84 questions. Question No 1 to 4 carry THREE
Marks each. Question No 5 to 12 carry TWO Marks each. Question No 13 to 84 carry
ONE mark each. Read the instructions given on the answer sheet provided very carefully
and strictly follow them.

Answer Question No 1 & 2 based upon the following Data:

For a flight from Station ‘A’ to Station ‘B’, Track 230 (T), W/V, 020/40, Normal TAS 190
Kt. Reduced TAS 160 kt (in the case of engine failure), Fuel on Board 2500 kgs and
reserve fuel is 400 kgs.
1. Considering the above details, if the distance to Point of Safe return for the above
Flight is 550 nm, what is the fuel consumption?
(i) 455 lbs/hr
(ii) 327 lbs/hr
(iii) 305 lbs/hr
(iv)672 lbs/h
2. For the above flight in the event of engine failure, critical Point is reached 35
minutes before Point of Safe Return. Calculate the stage length between station ‘A’ and
Station ‘B’:
(i) 705 nm
(ii) 805 nm
(iii) 905 nm
(iv)1069 nm
Answer Question no 3 & 4 based upon the following Data:

Given the following data relating to a flight from A to B :

Maximum take off weight 140,000 lbs
Weight, less fuel and payload 89,000 lbs
Mean TAS 330 kts
Distance A to B 1550 nm
Mean Fuel Consumption 3310 lbs/hr
Reserve Fuel Carried (assume unused) 5500 lbs
Maximum Landing Weight 121,000 lbs
Maximum zero fuel weight 52000 kg
3. The maximum payload which can be carried in still air is:
(i) 11340 Kgs (iii) 9000 Kgs
(ii) 10000 Kgs (iv) 8750 Kgs
4. The maximum payload which can be carried with a wind of - 40 kt on outbound leg
is:
(i) 12100 kg
(ii) 9000 kg
(iii) 11567 kg
 (iv) 12252 kg
5. An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is required to
reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. Assuming flight
conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to:
(a) 165 kt
(b) 169 kt
(c) 159 kt
(d) 174 kt
6. A flight from station ‘X’ (30ºN, 093ºW) to station ‘Y’ (30ºN, 132ºW) is to reach the
destination before the sunset. The Sun set time at the destination is 1930 Zone Time.
What is the latest LMT the flight from station ‘X’ should set course if the flight time is
three hours and thirty minutes:
(i) 1600 LMT
(ii) 1848 LMT
(iii) 1924 LMT
(iv) None of the above
7. An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 4º starboard drift and is making good a
track parallel to the centre line 130 (M) of airway, but 7 nm off to the right of the centre
line. The distance to go to the station is 75 NM. If the NDB is sited at the destination
station, what will the ADF indicate at this position.
(i) 358 (R)
(ii) 002 (R)
(iii) 356 (R)
(iv)None of the above
8. An aircraft is homing to a VOR, drift 10º Port , variation at VOR station is 3ºE and at
DR position 5ºE. Give the initial heading to maintain a radial of 094.
(i) 106 (M)
(ii) 104 (M)
(iii) 286 (M)
(iv)276 (M)
9. Using a rate of turn indicator with in which the gyro is rotating at more than the
calibrated operating rotation speed, the pilots execute an indicated rate one turn through
180°. The turn will take.
(i) More than 60 seconds (iii) Less then 60 seconds
(ii) 60 seconds (iv) More than 120 seconds
10. On Mercator chart if the scale at 52ºN is 1:3,500,000, what will be scale at 45ºN.
(Givens Sin 52°= 0.788, Cos 52°=0.616, Sec 52°=1.624, Cosec 52°=1.269
Cos 45°= 0.707, Sin 45°=0.707, Sec 45°=1.414, Cosec 45°=1.414)
(i) 1: 2,530,000
(ii) 1: 2,731,000
(iii) 1: 3,173,000
(iv) 1: 4,017,000
11. An aircraft flies along a parallel of latitude for 15 hrs 24 minutes at a ground speed of
540 kt and completes a Ch Long of 360°. Find out the parallel of latitude along which the
aircraft was flying:
(i) 67°21` N (ii) 74°56` N (iii) 67°21` N or S (iv) 74°56` N or S
12. During a compass swing the values for coefficients are as, A= -3, B= +1 and C=+2.
What will be the expected deviation on Hdg 135(C) in Northern Hemisphere:
(i) 06º easterly (iii) 04º westerly
(ii) 06º westerly (iv) 04º easterly
13. An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME facility and
to cross the station at FL135. If the mean ground speed during the descent s 396 kt, the minimum
rate of descent required is approximately?
(i) 1650 ft/min.
(ii) 2400 ft/min
(iii) 1000 ft/min
(iv)1550 ft/min
14. A gyro is said to topple when its spin axis moves in the?
(i) Direction 90º removed in the direction of rotation
(ii) Neither, because its definition is not related to these axes.
(iii) Vertical Plane
(iv)Horizontal Plane
15. What is the value of the convergence factor ( n ) on a Mercator chart?
(i) Cos Mean Lat
(ii) Sin Standard Parellel
(iii) Cos Parellel of Origin
(iv) None of the above
16. A great circle track joins position A (59° S 171°W) and B (61° S 172°E). What is the difference
between the great circle track at A and B?
(i) It increases by 7°.
(ii) It decreases by 8°.
(iii) It increases by 6°.
(iv)It decreases by 9°.
17. How would you define Zone time in relation to UTC?
(i) It is local time.
(ii) It is based on local sunrise and sunset.
(iii) It is local mean time of the nearest meridian divisible by 15º.
(iv) It is local mean time adjusted to whole or half hours difference from UTC.
18. On 27th of February, at 55°S and 120°W the sunrise is at 0250 UTC. On the same day, at 55°N
and 175°W, the sunrise is at?
(i) 0630 UTC. (iii) 0743 UTC
(ii) 0243 UTC. (iv) None of the above
19. Civil Twilight occurs between?
(i) Sunrise and when center of the sun is 6º above the horizon.
(ii) Sunset and when the center of the sun is 6° below the horizon.
(iii) Sunset and when the upper limb of the sun is 6° below the horizon.
(iv) The times when the sun is between 6° and 12° below the horizon.
20. Given the following: Heading 060°(T), Magnetic variation 18° W , Drift angle 4° Starboard,
what is the TMG?
(i) 048°(T)
(ii) 044°(T)
(iii) 064°(T)
(iv)046°(T)
21 . Given: FL 350, Mach No. 0.84, OAT -35°C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of
sound (LSS)?
TAS LSS
(i) 460 kt, 575 kt.
(ii) 483 kt, 575 kt,
(iii) 460 kt, 557 kt.
 (iv) 505 kt 601 kt

22. If the TAS is increased in NIL wind condition, the effect on the PET position is to:
(i) always reduce the distance to the PET
(ii) always move it along the track further away from the mid point
(iii) position of the PET does not change
(iv) always increase the distance to the PET
23. Given that Ground Speed is 520 kt, Hdg (T) 090°, Drift angle 5° Starboard,
TAS 500 kt. SAT (static air temperature) -51°C. The W/V being experienced is?
(i) 325° / 60 kt (iii) 320/45
(ii) 320° / 60 kt. (iv) 340/50
24. 2. Air Position is:
(i) A position found two or more simultaneous VOR/ADF bearings in the Air
(ii) an estimated position with no allowance made for wind effect
(iii) a position found by plotting an aircraft’s true heading on a Navigation chart and
measuring off a distance proportional to the Ground Speed against time
(iv) a calculated position with due allowance made for possible wind effect.
25. An aircraft travels 3.5 Km in 47 seconds. What is its ground speed?
(i) 260 kt. (iii) 22.6 kts
(ii) 226 kt. (iv) 269 kts
26. An aircraft is at FL 290, TAS 481 kt at Mach 0.82 when the temperature deviation is ISA -7°C
(Consider no tropopause). The temperature deviation at FL 330 which would give the same TAS of
481 Kt at Mach 0.82 is :
(i) ISA +5°C (iii) ISA -1°C
(ii) ISA -5°C (iv) ISA - 8°C
27. When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Southern hemisphere, the compass card of a
direct reading magnetic compass will turn?
(i) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south.
(ii) Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north.
(iii) Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the nortth.
(iv) Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south.
28. An aircraft in the Northern Hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right. If the
initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should
read?
(i) Less than 060°.
(ii) More than 060°.
(iii) May be more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used.
(iv) Exactly 060°.
29. A large commercial jet takes off from Srinagar ( Elevation 5000’) , and sets course at 2000’
AAL and climbs to FL 330 at a constant power setting. The mean climb Altitude for calculation of
TAS/Ground Speed will be:
(i) 24500 feet
(ii) 15500 feet
(iii) 20500 feet
(iv) 25500 feet
30. How is “Hotizontality” achieved in a Direct Reading Compass ?
(i) Using a pendulous suspension system for the magnetic assembly.
(ii) Using the lowest possible viscosity liquid in the compass.
(iii) Using short powerful magnets.
(iv) Positioning the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping wires.
31. Dip will be “Zero” at the?
(i) At any place on the Magnetic equator.
(ii) At any place on the Geographic Equator.
(iii) Along any Isoclinal line.
(iv) Along the Agonic Line.
32. In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
(i) March and September. (iii) November and February
(ii) June and December. (iv) January and July.
33. When the declination of the sun is 15ºS and is increasing, as the days pass, for an observer at
Lucknow, with the passage of time the sun will rise ……(I)……… and set ……(II)…… on
consecutive days:
(I) (II)
(i) Rise earlier Set later
(ii) Rise earlier Set earlier
(iii) Rise later Set earlier
(iv) Rise later Set later.
34. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure
probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the
indicated airspeed?
(i) Increases steadily.
(ii) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
(iii) Decreases steadily
(iv) Increases abruptly towards VNE.
35. The vertical speed indicator gives the correct rate of climb/descent under varying
altitude/temperature/pressure conditions because:
(i) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor is used.
(ii) Bi-metallic strip is used to compensate for any errors.
(iii) Both capillary and orifice are used in the metering unit.
(iv) A second calibrated port is used at higher altitudes.
36. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?
(i) Under read. (iii) show the actual height above ground
(ii) Be just as correct as before. (iv) over read
37. The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple
pressure altimeter is the use of?
(i) A sub-scale logarithmic function.
(ii) An induction pick-off device.
(iii) More effective temperature compensating leaf springs.
(iv) Combination of counters/pointers
38. Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?
(i) To overcome friction. (iii) To overcome hysterisis.
(ii) To overcome inertia. (iv) To Reduce lag
39. During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an
indication of the true.
(i) Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at that time.
(ii) Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
(iii) Altitude of the aircraft.
(iv) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at that time.
 40. If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?
(i) The VSI indication will be too high when descending.
(ii) The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating.
(iii) The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.
(iv) The VSI indication will be unaffected
41. For any given wind speed, the Drift Angle is maximum when the relative wind angle is 90
degrees. The relative wind angle is the angle between:
(i) Heading True and Wind Direction
(ii) Heading Magnetic and Wind Direction
(iii) Track True and Wind Direction
(iv) Track Magnetic and Wind Direction
42. The relative bearing of an NDB passing to the right of the aircraft is “030º(R)” at 1310 hrs and
changes to “060º(R)” by 1315 hrs. If the ground speed is 210 kts, what is the distance of the beacon
from the aircraft at 1315 hrs?
(i) 15 NM (iii) 22 NM
(ii) 17.5 NM (iv) None of these
43. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is?
(i) Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
(ii) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
(iii) Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
(iv) Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
44. With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the
same?
(i) Calibrated airspeed. (iii) True Airspeed
(ii) Ground speed. (iv) Equivalent Airspeed

RADIO AIDS
45. What is a hertz?
(i) the wavelength in cycles per second
(ii) a frequency of one cycle per second
(iii) the wavelength corresponding to one cycle per second
(iv) the frequency in cycles per second
46. What happens in practical terms to the layers of the ionosphere at night?
(i) The D layer thickens and the E layer rises
(ii) The D layer thins and the E layer rises
(iii) The E layer thickens and the D layer rises
(iv) The E layer thins and the D layer rises
47. If the transmission power of a signal sent by both surface wave and sky wave is
doubled, what will happen to the dead space?
(i) Nothing
(ii) The dead space will reduce from both ends
(iii) The dead space will reduce as skip distance reduces
(iv) The dead space will reduce from the transmission end
48. At what maximum range would a VHF signal transmitted from an aircraft flying
at 14000 ft be received by another aircraft flying at 9000 ft
(i) 190km (iii) 267 km
(ii) 212km (iv) 494 km
49. Which of the following are all factors affecting the range of an ADF?
(i) Night effect, loop alignment, static interference
(ii) Transmission power, static interference, type of emission
(iii) Frequency, transmission power, night effect
(iv) Transmission Power,Terrain attenuation, frequency, loop alignment
50. An aircraft is heading 240 (M). The RBI indicates 030. What is the magnetic bearing of the
aircraft from the NDB?
(i) 030' (iii) 2100
(ii) 090 0
(iv) 2700
51. How can a pilot reduce the effect of coastal refraction when flying over the sea?
(i) By flying at high altitude and using NDBs well inland
(ii) By flying at low altitude and using NDBs well inland
(iii) By flying at high altitude and using NDBs close to the coast
(iv) By flying at low altitude and using NDBs close to the coast
52. An aircraft's VOR is tuned to a station. When 025 is selected on the OBS , deviation bar
becomes central and the TO/ FROM indicator indicates TO. What radial is the aircraft on?
(i) 025°(T) (iii) 205° (M)
(ii) 025°(M) (iv) 205° (T)
53. In question above, if the ADF is tuned to an NDB co-located with VOR and the RBI
indicates a constant 011 on ADF, what Hdg is the aircraft maintaining?
(i) 025°(M) (iii) 205° (M)
(ii) 014° (M) (iv) 039° (M)
54. A procedure turn involves an original track, a turn away for a certain period, and a final
track. If the original track is 090º, what is the correct procedure for that procedure turn?
(i) Turn on to 0600 for 1 min, then reverse on to 270º
(ii) Turn on to 0450 for 1 min, then reverse on to 2700
(iii) Turn on to 0600 for 75 sec, then reverse on to 2700 .
(iv) Turn on to 0450 for 75 sec, then reverse on to 2700
55. If the RMI indicates a VOR radial of 150°, what is the bearing of the aircraft from
the station, if the variation at the aircraft is 4°W and at the station 2°W?
(i) 148°(M)
(ii) 150°(M)
(iii) 152°(M)
(iv) 154°(M)
56. Which frequency bands are transmitted by ILS equipment?
(i) Glideslope on VHF, localiser on VHF
(ii) Glideslope on VHF, localiser on UHF
(iii) Glideslope on UHF, localiser on VHF
(iv) Glideslope on UHF, localiser on UHF
57. An lLS Cat I allows approaches with the following criteria:
(i) Decision height below 30 m, an appropriate RVR?
(ii) Decision height not below 30 m, RVR 350 m?
(iii) Decision height not below 60 m, RVR 350 m?
(iv) Decision height not below 60 m, RVR 550 m?
58. The outer marker of an ILS system emits:
(i) Blue flashes synchronised with audio dashes?
(ii) White flashes synchronised with audio dashes?
(iii) Blue flashes synchronised with audio dots?
(iv) White flashes synchronised with audio dots?
59. An ILS glideslope signal may be received within the following :
(i) 8° either side of the centreline, out to 25 nm?
(ii) 8° either side of the centreline, out to 10 nm?
(iii) 10° either side of the centreline, out to 25 nm?
(iv) 10° either side of the centreline, out to 10 nm?
60. A radar transmission has a pulse width of 2 microseconds. What is its minimum resolution
distance in range?
(i) 3km (iii) 300 m
(ii) 600m (iv) 150 m
61. What maximum detection range would you expect from a radar transmission with a PRF of
1 kHz?
(i) 15km
(ii) 30km
(iii) 150km
(iv) 300km
62. A ground radar with a frequency of 10 GHz would be used for:
(i) Terminal area control and surveillance
(ii) Airways monitoring
(iii) PAR/SMC Radar
(iv) Weather monitoring Radar
63. An aircraft Hdg 017(T) has a small island showing on AWR at 45 nm range on the 060 left azimuth
line. To obtain a fix from this information ,you should plot:
(i) QTE 060º and range 45 nm from center of the Island
(ii) QTE 077º and range 45 nm from center of the Island
(iii) QTE 317º and range 45 nm from center of the Island
(iv) QTE 137º and range 45 nm from center of the Island
64. Airborne Doppler equipment is most likely to unlock over:
(i) calm sea (iii) a desert surface
(ii) mountainous terrain (iv) a shallow layer of stratus clouds
65. The protected range for an NDB is valid:
(i) at all times (iii) only during the day
(ii) only at night (iv) only over the sea
66. Which of the following forms of fix is most likely to provide the most accurate input to a
R-NAV system:
(i) A DME range and VOR radial from the same station
(ii) 2 DME ranges from different stations
(iii) 2 VOR radials from different stations
(iv) 2 ADF bearings from different beacons
67. What do the sensors of an INS measure?
(i) Acceleration
(ii) The horizontal component of the earth’s rotation.
(iii) Velocity
(iv) Precession.
68. Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system
(INS) in the NAV MODE gives:
(i) Vehicle longitude
(ii) Distance east/west.
(iii) Distance north/south.
(iv) Velocity east/west.
69. The operating frequency range of a radio altimeter is?
(i) 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.
(ii) 5 GHz
(iii) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
(iv) 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.
70. The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on?
(i) Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
(ii) A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation,
(iii) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
(iv) Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave
71. An aircraft if following the ILS glide path of 3.25° at an aerodrome where the outer marker is 4.5
nm from the ILS touchdown point. The aircraft’s ground speed is 140 kt. The height of the aircraft at
the marker should be __________ft and the rate of descent to maintain the glide path should be
Ft/min :
(i) 1660 ft 1010 ft/min.
(ii) 1540 ft 980 ft/min.
(iii) 1530 ft 790 ft/min.
(iv) 1480 ft 770 ft/min.
72. . The radio altimeter determines aircraft height by.
(i) Measuring the time interval between outgoing and incoming signals
(ii) Comparing the frequencies of the outgoing and the incoming signals
(iii) Phase comparing the incoming and the outgoing signals
(iv) Using pulse technique
73. What is the consecant square beam of an AWR used for?
(i) To measure cloud height accurately
(ii) To avoid strong close range ground returns swamping the MAP picture
(iii) To give more detail at ranges over 60 NM
(iv) Re move weather returns from the MAP picture
74. To comply with TCAS Resolution Advisory deviation from assigned flight path:
(i) Is not allowed without ATC approval
(ii) Is done only enough to comply with magnitude and duration of the RA.
(iii) May be continued after the RA has ended
(iv) All the above are correct
75. In EGPWS, mode 1 provides alerts for
(i) Predictive wind shear
(ii) Excessive bank angle
(iii) Excessive descent rate with respect to height above ground level
(iv) Insufficient terrain clearance with respect to phase of flight configuration and speed
76. If the aircraft DME indicator reads 7 nm and aircraft is flying at 24000 ft PA. What is the surface
range from the station?
(i) 7.0 nm
(ii) 5.0 nm
(iii) 6 nm
(iv) none of the above
77. If a DME is paired with an ILS where will the indicated range be correct?
(i) In all directions up to 20 nm
(ii) Within the localizer catchment area
(iii) In all directions up to 10 nm
(iv) Along the runway centre line in both directions upto 20 nm
78. How does a GPS receiver determine from which satellite it is receiving the signal.
(i) Each satellite uses its own frequency
(ii) The signals are sent on the same frequency and coded
(iii) Each satellite sends its signals at different times
(iv) The signals are sent on different frequencies and coded
79. Minimums for an ILS cat II approach with all components operative, normally establish a DH with
a height above threshold of:
(i) 100 ft (iii) 200 ft
(ii) 400 ft (iv) 800 ft
80. Magnetic Heading 030, RMI 030. What heading would you steer to make a 45° intercept of
magnetic course 055 to the NDB? What would the RMI indicate at the point of interception:
Heading RMI indication
(i) 020 040
(ii) 010 045
(iii) 010 040
(iv) 020 045
81. The purpose of the mode ‘C’ encoder in an airborne SSR transponder is to provide:
(i) pressure altitude
(ii) altitude information
(iii) height information
(iv) true altitude
82. Once the flight path of the intruder no longer conflicts with “Collision Area” the RA is
discontinued. How is this annunciated in the cockpit.
(i) The aural announcement ‘ALL CLEAR’
(ii) The intruder symbol changes to green
(iii) The aural announcement ‘CLEAR OF CONFLICT’ and the intruder no longer
appears as a solid red square
(iv) Contact ATC configuring that the conflict is over
83. The terrain data base in the EGPWS provides:
(i) higher resolution grids for airport areas
(ii) lower resolution grids for airport areas
(iii) similar resolution grids for all areas
(iv) lower resolution grids for plains areas
84. Mode 4 provides alerts for
(i) predictive wind shear
(ii) excessive bank angle
(iii) excessive descent rate with respect to height above ground level
(iv) insufficient terrain clearance with respect to phase of flight, configuration and speed.