Class 11 SCIENCE SAMPLE PAPER (2022-23) PDF

DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL , DURGAPUR
NOTICE
DPSDGR/2022-23/211 07.01.2023
Dear Parents
In pursuance of NEP 2020, CBSE has introduced competency based questions to acquire 21st century
skills.
Keeping this in mind, Final Examination Papers will have the questions based on competencies.
The sample papers uploaded in the portal will help the students to understand the concepts and design
of the question pattern.
We hope the Sample Papers will be practiced well by our students.
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Principal
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER (2022-23)
CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- ENGLISH CORE(301) Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
i) This question paper consists of _9_ pages and _10_questions.
ii) This question paper is divided into _3_ sections: -
iii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
Section A
Reading Skills 26 Marks
I. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: (10)
High–altitude climbing is still a very dangerous task despite the availability of oxygen
masks and other protective equipment which modern climbers take with them. These, of
course, are indispensable accessories of climbing, but more important than these is the
stamina of the climber which ultimately determines the success of his attempt.
Throughout his journey, death is his constant companion which he can keep at a distance
only with his superb presence of mind. He has to tread every inch of the ground with the
utmost care, for a false step may not only strike him a fatal blow but also bring disaster to
the whole expedition. That is why all expeditions invariably take with them local guides
who are experienced climbers and who have a thorough knowledge of the nature of the
terrain. Moreover, a huge amount of capital is needed for financing these expeditions, and
this is generally provided by governments or rich private organizations.
The primary objective of the mountaineering expedition is to get to the top of a high
mountain, which, in the past, has withstood all attempts to conquer it. But it should not be
presumed that the expedition is a complete failure if it does not reach its destination.
Sometimes operations are temporarily suspended because of bad weather, loss of some
valuable equipment, or the sudden death of a very important member of the party.
Every big expedition takes with it men who are interested in botany, geology & various
other branches of science, and these men carry with them equipment for recording their
observations concerning the weather, the terrain & different forms of life in higher
altitudes. Other scientists, explorers & expeditionists utilize the fruits of their
observations. Thus, every unsuccessful expedition contributes to the success of later
expeditions. The British Expedition led by colonel Hunt would have found their way to
Everest much more difficult had not earlier expeditions armed them with useful
knowledge about the death-dealing weather which they had to encounter in the vicinity of
the summit.
To ordinary people, mountaineering need not be a fearful journey in the land of
snowstorms, where the brave adventurer is always face to face with death. They can scale
less ambitious heights, rest their weary limbs under a quiet shelter and feast their eyes on
the distant landscape. In the company of friends, they can enjoy an outing near a waterfall
or cross into the next Valley with haversacks full of provisions dangling from their
shoulders. All those who can afford to go to a hill station should seek this innocent
pleasure, for it can be had without any risk to life or limb.
Answer the following questions (1x10=10)
i. What makes high altitude climbing a challenging task?
(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/ENGLISH CORE/ Page 1 of 9)

ii. In what way does a mountaineering expedition contribute to the wealth of Knowledge?
iii. How is an ordinary mountaineer’s experience different from that of a regular expedition?
a. All of these
b. They don’t have to worry much about finances
c. They don’t have to be face to face with death
d. They can savour the landscape from a distance
iv. Why is it advisable to listen to and follow the local guides?
v. How can an expedition not be a failure?
a. Temporarily suspending operations become a necessity at times
b. Recorded observations of incomplete expeditions still stand useful
c. Reaching the destination does not mark its success
d. All of these
vi. The recorded observations of mountaineers useful to others as
vii. What is the primary objective of a mountaineering expedition?
a. Climb up and down; alive
b. Unfurl your flag at the peak
c. Reach to the top
d. Experience nature in its vicinity
viii. How does every unsuccessful expedition contribute to the success of later expeditions ?
ix. Find the antonym of "opponent" in paragraph 1
a. Death b. Companion c. Guide d. Climber
x. Some of the failed expeditions helped Colonel Hunt by
xi. How can mountaineering not be a fearful journey?
a. They don’t have to reach the summit
b. They are assisted by best sherpas/local guides
c. They don’t have to scale the highest peaks
d. They are not allowed to scale the peaks
II. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: (8)
Here’s good news for tiger conservationists, tiger authorities and wildlife lovers celebrating
International Tiger Day. According to the latest census of 2018 released by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi on International Tiger Day, India is home to 2,967 tigers. What makes this figure
significant is that it is an increase by a third as compared to 2014 and more than double as
compared to 2006. The latest census also reveals the states with the highest tiger populations and
those with the lower ones, along with the economic value (Pegged between 4200 crore to 16000
crores annually) of tiger reserves in the country. See the given infographic.
The latest tiger census is very encouraging, and points to the successful strategies, methods and
techniques being adopted and pursued by wildlife authorities and wildlife conservationists to
protect the tiger.
The tiger census 2018 was taken after a painstaking 15 months’ work where the forest officials
surveyed 3,81,400 sq km of forested habitats. During the same period, they also installed 26,760
camera traps, with wildlife biologists going through 35 million images of wildlife. Of this
astounding number of images, 76,523 were those of tigers. It is estimated that almost 83% of the
entire tiger population was represented in these images.
The figures are certainly cause for enthusiasm, and a great deal of it was reflected in the address
by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on International Tiger Day. In it, he also stressed on the need
for striking a healthy balance between development and environment. Addressing this issue, he
went on to say, “There is a very old debate- development or environment. Both sides present
views as if they are mutually exclusive. In our policies, in our economics, we have to change the
conversation about conservation. I am confident that India will prosper both economically and
environmentally. India will build more roads and India will have cleaner rivers. India will have
better train connectivity and also greater tree coverage.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, attempt the questions :

i) Which of the following would be the most appropriate heading for the above passage?
a) The Return of the Cats b) The Roar of the Lion
c) The King Makes a Comeback d) The Roar is Back
ii) According to the 2018 survey, tick the statement which is true regarding the number of tigers
in each state.
a) Madhya Pradesh vies closely with Karnataka for the first place.
b) Uttarakhand trails behind Karnataka by 100 tigers.
c) The combined tiger population of Kerala and Tamil Nadu is less than that of Uttarakhand
d) Assam has more tigers as compared to Tamil Nadu.
iii) India achieved its target of doubling its tiger population years ahead of the target year that
shows
iv) The tiger population statistics of the world reveal that the tiger population of the top three
states of India that of the whole world.
v) Which ‘old debate’ is the Prime Minister referring to?
vi) According to the honourable PM, how can India develop both economically and
environmentally?
vii) The work by the forest officials has been called painstaking because
a) They worked for months
b) They had to instal several cameras
c) Surveyed several kilometres of the forest land
d) All of the above
viii) Explain: ‘we have to change the conversation about conservation’.
III. Read the following passage carefully: (8)

There is nothing more frustrating than when you sit down at your table to study with the
sincerest of intentions and instead of being able to finish the task at hand, you find your thoughts
wandering. However, there are certain techniques that you can use to enhance your
concentration. "Your concentration level depends on a number of factors," says Samuel Ghosh, a
social counsellor. "In order to develop your concentration span, it is necessary to examine
various facets of your physical and internal environment," she adds.
To begin with, one should attempt to create a physical environment that is conducive to focused
thought. Whether it is the radio, TV or your noisy neighbours, identify the factors that make it
difficult for you to focus. For instance, if you live in a very noisy neighbourhood, you could try
to plan your study hours in a nearby library.
She disagrees with the notion that people can concentrate or study in an environment with
distractions like a loud television, blaring music etc. "If you are distracted when you are
attempting to focus, your attention and retention powers do not work at optimum levels,"
cautions Ghosh. "Not more than two of your senses should be activated at the same time," she
adds. What that means is that music that sets your feet tapping is not the ideal accompaniment to
your books.
Also, do not place your study table or desk in front of a window. "While there is no cure for a
mind that wants to wander, one should try and provide as little stimulus as possible. Looking out
of a window when you are trying to concentrate will invariably send your mind on a tangent,"
says Ghosh. Emails and phones can be two of the biggest distractions of all. If you don’t check
email at the beginning of the day, then you’ll be able to spend the morning pursuing your own
agenda rather than reacting to everybody else’s agenda and text messages, phone calls, or alerts
interrupting your focus.
The second important thing, she says, is to establish goals for oneself or to choose an anchor
task, instead of setting a general target and then trying to accomplish what you can in a
haphazard fashion. Assign one (and only one) priority to each work day. Although you plan to
complete other tasks during the day, your priority task is the one non-negotiable thing that must
get done. The power of choosing one priority is that it naturally guides your behaviour by forcing
you to organize your life around that responsibility. It is very important to decide what you have
to finish in a given span of time. The human mind recognizes fixed goals and targets and
appreciates schedules more than random thoughts. Once your thoughts and goals are in line, a
focused system will follow.
She recommends that you divide your schedule into the study and recreation hours. When you
study, choose a mix of subjects that you enjoy and dislike and save the former for the last so that
you have something to look forward to. For instance, if you enjoy verbal skill tests more than
mathematical problems, then finish Maths first. Not only will you find yourself working harder,
but you will also have a sense of achievement when you wind up. Try not to sit for more than 40
minutes at a stretch. Take a very short break to make a cup of tea or listen to a song and sit down
again. Under no circumstances, should one sit for more than one and a half hours. Short breaks
build your concentration and refresh your mind. However, be careful not to overdo the
relaxation. It may have undesired effects.
In addition, manage your energy, not your time. If a task requires your full attention, then
schedule it for a time of day when you have the energy needed to focus. For example, let’s say
you like writing. So if you have noticed that your creative energy is highest in the morning and
that’s when you’re fresh, then that’s when you do your best writing. That’s when you make the
best strategic decisions about your business. So, what do you do? You schedule creative tasks for
the morning. All other business tasks are taken care of in the afternoon. This includes doing
interviews, responding to emails, phone calls and Skype chats, data analysis and number
crunching. Nearly every productivity strategy obsesses over managing your time better, but time
is useless if you don’t have the energy you need to complete the task you are working on.
More than anything else, do not get disheartened. Concentration is merely a matter of
disciplining the mind. It comes with practice and patience and does not take very long to become
a habit for life. Regardless of what strategy you use, just remember that anytime you find the
world distracting you, all you need to do is commit to one thing. In the beginning, you don’t
even have to succeed. You just need to get started.
1. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, make notes on it using headings and
sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary-minimum four) and a
format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. 5
2. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. 3
Section B
IV. Grammar 7 Marks
viii. Each of the following sentences in this exercise has an underlined word or phrase and 3
words and phrases are given after the sentence. If one of the given words or phrases make
the sentence grammatically correct select the word or phrase as your answer (1x3=3)
a. You are pardoned that you have confessed your crime.
i. because ii.so iii.when iv.no correction
b. I always pray before I go to bed.
i. after ii. till iii.that iv.no correction
c. The match is not over unless the last ball is bowled.
i. when ii. where iii. until iv. no correction
ii. Rearrange the following words or phrases to make meaningful sentences: (1 x 4 = 4)
a. the / on / forests / the / industry / oil / depends
b. give / to / armies / wars / forests / during / our / cover
c. do / get / the /forests / from / what / we / products?
d. he / my / letter / received / must have / by / now
V. Creative Writing Skills 16 Marks
1. Attempt any One of the questions in 50 words 3 Marks

You want to sell your newly built flat. Draft a suitable advertisement to be published in the
classified columns of the ‘The Assam Tribune’ giving all necessary details. You are
Niranjan/Niranjana of Nabin Nagar, Guwahati.
OR
You are the General manager of a leading company. You need a Chartered Accountant for your
office. Draft an advertisement to be published in the Times of India, New Delhi, under the
classified columns.
2 Attempt any One of the questions in 50 words 3 Marks
Imagine that a career counselling session will be organised by Mr. P K. Puri, CEO of a
renowned start -up company, in Hotel Ashoka, New Delhi. Draft a poster in 50 words for the
same.
OR

Your school is going to organise a Diwali Mela. Design a poster in 50 words to inform the
students about it.
3. Attempt any One of the questions in 120-150 words 5 Marks

‘Rainwater harvesting is the only solution to water crisis in the present times.’ Write a speech in
120-150 words, you are Sujatha/ Ajith.
OR
After the rainy season is over, mosquitoes start breeding. They cause malaria, dengue,
chikungunya, etc. These diseases can sometimes prove to be fatal. As the Principal of your
school you have decided to deliver a speech on protection from mosquitoes. Write that speech.
4. Attempt any One of the questions in 120-150 words 5 Marks

Consumerism is increasing day by day. Luxuries of yesterday have become the necessities of
today. The result is that the more we want, the more miserable we become. Write a debate on
‘The only way to minimize human suffering and pain is to control our needs.’ You are
Navtej/Navita.
OR
Are celebs responsible for the products they endorse? Taking a cue from the headlines given
below and using your own ideas, write a debate speech for or against the topic.
‘Amitabh Bachchan steps back from promoting Pepsi after a school girl questions the health
impact of the drink.’

‘Brief ban on Maggi noodles causes trouble for its celebrity brand ambassadors’.
‘M.S. Dhoni quits as Amrapali brand ambassador after Twitter furore’
Section C
VI. Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context.
1 Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. 1x3=3
1A When did my childhood go?

Was it the day I ceased to be eleven,
Was it the time I realised that Hell and Heaven,
Could not be found in Geography,
And therefore could not be,
a. How did the poet conclude that Hell and Heaven were imaginary places?
b.Choose the option that displays the same poetic device as used in the 3rd line of the
extract.
i. Speech is silver, but silence is gold
ii. The autumn leaves are a blanket on the ground
iii. The politician gave his deceptively honest opinion
iv. Be bold. Be brief. Be gone
c.What is the state of mind of the speaker ? (clue from the 1st line)
OR
1B. I cannot understand Myself,
why anger grows from grief.
We each put out an empty hand,
Longing for something to forgive.
a. Why does the poet say , ‘anger grows from grief’? Which grief is being talked about?
b. What do they yearn for?
c. What is the conclusion of the poem?
i Both father and son do not want to reconcile
ii Both father and son do not want to stay in the same house
iii Both father and son want to forgive each other
iv Both father and son continue to be strangers
2. Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given 1x3=3
2A. The Maratha army was facing Abdali’s troops on the field of Panipat. There was no great
disparity between the latter’s troops and the opposing forces. Their armour was comparable. So,
a lot depended on the leadership and the morale of the troops. The juncture at which Vishwasrao,
the son of and heir to the Peshwa, was killed proved to be the turning point. As history has it, his
uncle, Bhausaheb, rushed into the melee and was never seen again. Whether he was killed in
battle or survived is not known.
a. Which of the following facts can be in inferred from the above extract?
i. Vishwasrao was killed in the battle
ii. Bhausaheb was probably killed in the battle
iii. There was great disparity among the troops
iv. Both option A and C
b. Which factors was the war dependent on?
c. Which among the following is the incorrect meaning of the phrase ‘opposing forces’?
i. To counter
ii. to resist
iii. To be hostile
iv. In accordance with
OR
2B. Rajendra motioned him to silence and started pacing the room, obviously under great mental
strain. Finally, he turned around and said, "Professor Gaitonde, I will try to rationalise your
experience on the basis of two scientific theories as known today.Whether I succeed or not in
convincing you of the facts, only you can judge - for you have indeed passed through a
fantastic experience or, more correctly, a catastrophic experience!
a.Which of the following acts did Rajendra not try to do?
i. To convince Professor Gaitonde
ii. To judge Professor Gaitonde
iii. To rationalise Gaitonde's experiences
iv. Both (a) and (b)
b. Rajendra tried to rationalise Gaitonde's experience on the basis of .
c. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above extract?
i. Rajendra didn't believe Professor Gaitonde.
ii. Gaitonde believed and regarded Rajendra as a knowledgeable person.
iii. Gaitonde never considered Rajendra as a person with knowledge of science and history
iv. None of the above
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given 1x4=4
3A. MRS PEARSON: Here— steady, Mrs Pearson —if you had to live my life it wouldn’t be so
bad. You’d have more fun as me than you’ve had as you.
MRS FITZGERALD: Yes— but I don’t want to be anybody else...
MRS PEARSON: Now —stop worrying. It’s easier changing back —I can do it any time we
want...
a. Why does Mrs Pearson call herself Mrs Pearson? Is she speaking to herself in third
person?
b. Mrs Fitzgerald doesn’t want to be anybody else because-
i. She likes her life
ii. She is habituated to her life
iii. She is scared of any adventure
iv. She feels fun is a sin
c. What change is being talked about Mrs Pearson?
d. According to Mrs Pearson, fun like her would mean .
OR
3B. Andrew, abruptly recalled from the contemplation of his own affairs, told Morgan to wait.
He went into the house for his bag, then together they set out for Number 12 Blaina Terrace. The
night air was cool and deep with quiet mystery. Usually so perceptive, Andrew now felt dull and
listless. He had no premonition that this night call would prove unusual, still less that it would
influence his whole future in Blaenelly.
a. What does the given line tell us about Andrew?
i. His career had been unsuccessful so far.
ii. He was depressed and tired.
iii. His career had been monotonous.
iv. He was basically a dull and boring man.
b. What made Number 12 Blaina Terrace an important place for the Dr?
c. How had the night changed his future in Blaenelly?
d. ‘Contemplation’ means -to think about in order to arrive at a judgment or decision. What
was the affair that made him contemplate?
VII . Answer any TWO out of the following questions in about 40-50 words. (One from A
and one from B each.) (3x2=6)
A. Answer any One of the questions:
i. ‘Prepared as he was for many shocks, Professor Gaitonde had not expected this’.
What shocked him and what other shocks had he faced till then?
ii. After reaching the Forbes office , Gaitonde received a blow that was not expected yet
was a blow. Justify
B. Answer any One of the questions:
i. How is the condition of the tree in "The Laburnum Top" different in the end of the poem
from the time when readers first come across it?
ii. Explain 'barred face identity mask' with reference to the poem "The Laburnum Top".
VIII. Answer any ONE out of the following questions in about 40-50 words. (3x1=3)
i. Laissez faire refers to the practice of allowing people or institutions to act or behave
however they want, with little or no interference. How was it established in the Melon
City?
ii. Time - the destroyer is also time - the healer. Discuss the statement with reference to the
narrator in "The Address".
IX. Answer any ONE out of the following questions in about 120-150 words. (6x1=6)
i. ‘Fiction is often stranger than fact’. How has Jayant Narlikar proven this in his story?
ii. Age is one big reason for the natural gap between generations. However, the major
issue arrives due to the mental gap in terms of thinking pattern. Do you agree to this?
With reference to the poem Father to son , opine your views
x. Answer any ONE out of the following questions in about 120-150 words. (6x1=6)
i. Mother's Day is an occasion which is celebrated in various parts of the world to express
respect, honor, and love towards mothers. In spite of the message there are many mothers in
the world who are deprived of the basic respect in a family. How can you resonate the same
with the chapter Mother’s Day?
ii. Book /story titles are the first thing a potential reader sees. They generate interest and
intrigue readers without giving away too much plot. Do you think the chapter, ‘The Tale of
Melon City’ is successful in creating that interest ? How relevant is the title? Justify your
answer.
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SAMPLE PAPER, (2022-23)
CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- MATHEMATICS (041) Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
1.This question paper consists of 5 no. of pages and 38 questions.
2. This Question paper contains - five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is
compulsory. However, there are internal choices in some questions.
3. Section A has 18 MCQ’s and 02 Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
4. Section B has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA)-type questions of 2 marks each.
5. Section C has 6 Short Answer (SA)-type questions of 3 marks each.
6. Section D has 4 Long Answer (LA)-type questions of 5 marks each.
7. Section E has 3 source based/case based/passage based/integrated units of
assessment (4 marks each) with sub parts.
.
SECTION –A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
1. Two dice are thrown together. The probability that at least one will show its digit greater
than 3 is
(a (b) (c) (d)
2 R is a relation on N defined by . The domain of R is
(a){ } (b) { } (c) { } (d) { }
3. If ( ( ) for all non-zero x then ( =
(a) ( ) (b) ( ) (c) ( ) (d) none of these
4.
(a) (b) (c) 8 (d)
5. The mean deviation of the numbers 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 from the mean is
(a)25 (b)5 (c)1.2 (d) 0
6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of obtaining a total score 5 is
a (b) (c) (d) 1
7.The solution set of | | is
(a) ( (b) [ ] (c) [ ] (d) (
8. The number of words from the letters of the word BHARAT in which B and H will never
come together
(a) 360 (b240 (c) 120 (d) 60
9. If ( ( then C(18, r) =
(a) 4896 (b)-495 (c)1632 (d) 2448
10. The term without x in the expansion of ( is
(a) 495 (b)-495 (c)-7920 (d) 7920
11. The equation represents
(a) A point (b) a pair of straight lines (c) a circle of non-zero radius (d) An ellipse
12. The vertex of the parabola ( ( is
(a) (-a, -a) (b) (a, -a) (c) (-a, a) (d) (0, 0)
13. The eccentricity of the ellipse is
(CL-XI/Sample paper/2022-23/MATHEMATICS/Page 1 of 4)
√ √
(a) (b) (c) (d)
√ √
14. The length of latus rectum of the hyperbola =144 is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15. The ratio in which the line joining the points (a, b, c), (-a, -c, -b) is divided by the xy-plane is
(a) a:b (b) b:c (c) c:a (d) c:b
16. If ( then (
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) 2
17. If then
(a) y+1 (b) y-1 (c) y (d) 0
18. one card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that the card is a king or spade
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A) : The expansion of (1+x)n= C0+C1x+C2x2+…+Cnxn
Reason (R) : If x= −1, then the value of above expansion is zero.
20. Assertion (A): The coordinates of the point which divides the join of P(2, -1, 4) and Q(4, 3,
2) in the ratio 2:3 internally is ( , )
Reason (R): Distance between the two points(x, y, z) and (a, b, c) is
√( ( (
SECTION B
x2  2 x  1
21. Find the domain of the real function, f ( x)  2
x  7 x  12
OR
Find the domain and range of the real function, f(x) = x2
x y
22. Prove that  cos x  cos y    sin x  sin y   4sin 2
2 2
2
23. Evaluate: (
OR
Evaluate:
1
24. Prove that cos 200 cos 400 cos800 
8
x3  x
25. Solve: 1
x2
SECTION C
26. If P(22, r+1) : P(20, r+2), find r.
27. A group consists of 4 girls and 7 boys. In how many ways can a team of 5
members be selected if the team has at least 1 boy and a girl?
OR
There are 15 points in a plane out of which only 6 are in a straight line.
i) How many different straight lines can be made?
ii) How many triangles can be made?
28. If letters of the words MOTHER are written in all possible orders and are
arranged in dictionary order what is the rank of the word MOTHER?
OR
In how many ways can the letters of the word ASSASSINATION be arranged
so that all the S’s are together.
29. Find the coefficient of in the expansion of ( )
OR
Find the middle term in the expansion of ( )
30.Find the equation of the circle circumscribing the triangle formed by the lines x+y=6, 2x+y=4
and x+2y=5.
.
31. If ( and ( ( , find ( .
SECTION D
32. Find the term independent of x in the expansion of ( ) .
33. Find the equation of the parabola whose latus rectum is 4 units, axis is the line
3x  4 y  4  0 and the tangent at the vertex is the line 4 x  3 y  7  0 . Find also the
coordinates of the vertex of the parabola.
OR
Find the equation of the parabola with vertex (2, -3) and focus (0, 5).
34. Calculate the mean deviation from the median for the following distribution:
xi 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45
fi 7 3 8 5 6 8 4 9
OR
Find the variance and standard deviation for the following data:
65, 68, 58, 44, 48, 45, 60, 62, 60, 50.
35. Three coins are tossed once. Find the probability of getting:
i) all heads, ii) at least two heads, iii)at most two heads, iv)no heads, v)exactly one tail.
SECTION E
(This section comprises of 3 case- study/passage based questions of 4 marks each with two
subparts. First two case-study questions have three sub-parts (i),(ii),(iii)of marks 1,1,2
respectively. The third case study question has two sub-parts of 2 marks each.)
36. Case –Study -1 A state cricket authority has to choose a team of 11 members, to do it so the
authority asks 2 coaches of a government academy to select the team members that have
experience as well as the best performers in last 15 matches. They can make up a team of
11 cricketers amongst 15 possible candidates. In how many ways can the final eleven be selected
from 15 cricket players if:
(i) there is no restriction
(ii) one of then must be included
(iii) Two of them being leg spinners, one and only one leg spinner must be included?
OR
If there are 6 bowlers, 3 wicket-keepers, and 11 batsmen in all. Find the number of ways in
which a team of 4 bowlers, 2 wicket-keepers, and 5 batsmen can be chosen.
37. Case –Study -2: A circle S1 of radius 2 units lies in the first quadrant touches both the axes.
Another circle S2 with centre (6, 5) touches the circle S1 externally. Based on the above
information answer the following questions
.
(i) Find the centre of the circle S1
(ii) Find the equation of the circle S1
(iii)Find the radius of the circle S2
OR
Find the coordinates of the point of contact of the circles S1 and S2.
Case –Study 3:Let A, B be any wo (non-empty) sets and R be a relation from A to B, then
inverse of relation R defined by R-1 is a relation from B to A , that is
Also {( ( }, If { }, { } and a relation R
from A to B is defined as {( }
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Write the elements of R
(ii) Find Domain of
(iii) Find Co-domain of
OR
Range of
Sample paper, (2022-23)
CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- APPLIED MATHEMATICS (241) Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions :
1.This question paper consists of 4 no. of pages and 38 questions.
2. This Question paper contains - five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is
compulsory. However, there are internal choices in some questions.
3. Section A has 18 MCQ’s and 02 Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
4. Section B has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA)-type questions of 2 marks each.
5. Section C has 6 Short Answer (SA)-type questions of 3 marks each.
6. Section D has 4 Long Answer (LA)-type questions of 5 marks each.
7. Section E has 3 source based/case based/passage based/integrated units of
assessment (4 marks each) with sub parts.
SECTION –A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
1. is equal to :
(a) 2 (b) ( ) ( )
2. The locus of a point on which x = 0 is
(a) XY plane (b)YZ plane (c) ZX plane (d)None of these
3. Standard deviation of data 6,5,9,13,12,8 and 10 is
(a) √ ( ) ( )√ ( )
4. The distance of the point P (0,1,0) from the origin is
(a) 0 units (b)1 units (c) 2 units (d)5 units
5. If f(x) = x2+5x+2 , then f ‘ (0) is
(a) 0 (b)1 (c)2 (d)4
6. L is the foot of the perpendiculars drawn from a point (3,4,5) on X- axis. The
coordinates of L are
(a) (3,0,0) (b)(0,4,0) (c)(0,0,5) (d)None of these.
2 2
7. The centre of the circle 4x + 4y – 8x + 12y – 25 = 0 is
(a) (-2, 3) (b) (1, -3/2) (c) (-4, 6) (d) (4, -6)
8. In an ellipse, the distance between its foci is 6 and the minor axis is 8, then its
eccentricity is
(a) 1/2 (b)1/5 (c)3/5 (d)4/5
9. If a complex number z lies in the interior or on the boundary of a circle of radius 3 units
and centre (– 4, 0), the greatest value of |z +1| is
(a) 4 (b)6 (c)3 (d)10
( ) x
10. If [ ( – ) ] = 1, then
(a) x = 2n + 1, where n ∈ N (b) x = 4n, where n ∈ N
(c) x = 2n, where n ∈ N (d) x = 4n + 1, where n ∈ N
11. Differentiation of 2x is
(a) log2 (b)logx (c)2xlog2 (d)2xlogx
12. Which of the following probability is not possible?
(a). 0.1 (b). 0.01 ( c). 1. (d)10
(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/APPLIED MATHEMATICSPage 1 of 4)

13. The largest term in the expansion of (3+2x)50, when x = ⅕ is
(a) 6th term (b)7th term (c) 8th term (d) None of the above
14.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) None of these
15. Find the centre of the circle 2x2 + 2y2- x = 0
(a) (3,0) (b) (3,2) (c) (0,3) (d) None of these
16. The equation of the directrix of the parabola y2+4y+4x+2=0 is
(a)x = 1 (b)x = -1 (c)x = 3/2 (d)x = -3/2
17. If [x]2 – 5 [x] + 6 = 0, where [ . ] denotes the greatest integer function, then
(a) x ∈ [3, 4] (b) x ∈ (2, 3] (c) x ∈ [2, 3] (d) x ∈ [2, 4]
18. The domain and range of the function f given by f(x) = 2 – |x −5| is
(a) Domain = R+ , Range = ( – ∞, 1] (b) Domain = R, Range = ( – ∞, 2]
(c) Domain = R, Range = (– ∞, 2) (d) Domain = R+ , Range = (– ∞, 2]
ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS
In the questions 19 and 20, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): The domain of the function ( ) is [1,2]
Reason (R): log(2x-3)<1
√
20. Assertion (A): Roots of quadratic equation x2 + 3x + 5 is x =
√
Reason (R): if x2 – x +2 is a quadratic equation, then roots are
SECTION B
21. Find the angles between the lines √ x + y = 1 and x+ √ y = 1.
22. Find the probability of getting a sum of of at least 10 in rolling a dice twice.
23. Find the centre and radius of the circle x2+y2+6x-8y+4=0
24. Discuss the continuity of function [x-2] at x=5.
25. From a group of 2 boys and 3 girls, two children are selected. Find the sample space of
this experiment.
OR
If A and B are mutually exclusive events, P(A) = 0.35 and P(B) = 0.45, then find
P( )
SECTION – C
26. Find n , if the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to yhe fifth term from the end in
the expansion of ( √ )n is √
OR
Find the value of (a2 + √ )4 + (a2 - √ )4
( )( )
27. Find the derivative of with respect to x.
28. Find the probability of getting at least 2 heads in 3 successive toss of a coin.

29. A committee of 6 is to be chosen from 10 men and 7 women, so as to contain at least 3
men and 2 women . in how many ways different ways can this be done, if two particular
women refuse to serve on the same committee?
OR
If a, b, c, are in A.P and b,c,d, are in G.P and , , are in A.P, prove that a, c, e
are in G.P.
30. If a parabolic reflector is 20 cm in diameter and 5 cm deep, find the focus.
31. Find the equation of a circle passing through (2,0),(6,0) and (4,4).
SECTION – D
32. In a class of 60 students, 25 students play cricket and 20 students play tennis, and 10
students play both the games. Find the number of students who play neither ?
33. There are 15 points in plane out of which only 6 are in straight lime, then
(a) How many different straight lines can be made?
(b) How many triangles can be made?
OR
From 6 different novels and 3 different dictionaries, 4 novels and a dictionary is to be selected
and arranged in a row on the shelf so that the dictionary is always in the middle. Then find the
number of such arrangements.
34. Find the equation of a parabola with focus(3,0) and directrix 2x+3y-6=0.
35. The ratio of the A.M. and G.M. of two positive numbers a nad b is m:n. Show that a:b =
( √ ):( √ )
OR
If a is the A.M. of b and c and a is one AM and G1 and G2 are two geometric means
of two numbers b and c means are G1 and G2 then prove that (G1)3 + (G2)3 = 2abc
SECTION E
Case study based questions are compulsory.
36. The below picture are few natural examples of parabolic shape which is represented by
a quadratic polynomial. A parabolic arch is an arch in the shape of a parabola. In
structures, their curve represents an efficient method of load, and so can be found in
bridges and in architecture in a variety of forms.

i. If the roots of the quadratic polynomial are equal, where the discriminant D = b2 –
4ac, then
a) D > 0 b) D < 0 c) D ≥ 0 d) D = 0
ii. If α and 1/α are the zeroes of the qudratic polynomial 2x2 - x + 8k = 0 then k is
a) 4 b) ¼ c) -1/4 d) 2
Case –Study -2:
37. In a test, you either guesses or copies or knows the answer to a multiple choice
question with four choice. The probability that you make a guess is 1/3, you copies the
answer is 1/6. The probability that your answer is correct, given that you guess it, is 1/8
and also the probability that your answer is correct, given that you copied it, is 1/4.
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions.
(i) Find the probability that you knows the answer
(ii) Find the probability that your answer is correct given that you guess it
(iii)The probability that your answer is correct given that you knows the answer.
OR
The probability that you knows the answer given that you correctly answered it
38. An asana is a body posture, originally and still a general term for a sitting meditation pose,
and later extended in hatha yoga and modern yoga as exercise, to any type of pose or position,
adding reclining, standing, inverted, twisting, and balancing poses. In the figure, one can
observe that poses can be related to representation of quadratic polynomial.
i. The shape of the poses shown is

a) Spiral b) Ellipse c) Linear d)
Parabola
ii. The graph of parabola opens downwards, if _______
a) a is any real number. b) a = 0 c) a < 0 d) a
>0
iii). Find the focal distance of point (3.4) for the parabola y2= 16x.

Sample Paper (2022-23)
CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT-PHYSICS (042) Maximum Marks: 70
NAME: ___________________________ SEC: ______ ROLLNO. ______
(1) There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
(2) Section A contains fifteen questions of one mark each containing Multiple choice type
Questions, three Assertion-Reason type Question, Section B contains seven short
answer-type Questions of two mark each, Section C contains five questions of three
marks each containing short answer- type Questions, Section D contains three questions
of five marks each containing long answer-type Questions, Section E contains two case
based questions of four marks each.
(3) There is no overall choice. However, two internal choices have been provided in two
questions in Section B, two questions in Section C and all three questions in Section D.
You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions
(4) Use of calculators is not allowed.
(5) You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary:
C= 3x 108 ms-1 h= 6.63x10-34Js
e=1.6x10-19C µo=4πx10-7TmA-1
1/ (4π€o) = 9x10 Nm C
9 2 -2
Mass of electron me= 9.1x10-31 kg
Section - A
1. Which of the following laws of motion is related to inertia?

a) First law b) Second Law c) Third Law d) Fourth Law
2. The kinetic energy of a body is ‘K’. If one-fourth of its mass is removed and velocity
is doubled, the new kinetic energy will be
a) K b) 3K c) 4K d) 9K/4
3. What will be the value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth if
the radius of the earth suddenly decreases to 60% of its present value, keeping the
mass of the earth unchanged?
a) 9.81 m/s2 b) 5.89 m/s2 c) 16.35 m/s2 d) 27.25 m/s2
4. Which of the following options is correct?

a) A–yield point, B–elastic limit, C–fracture point,
D–Ultimate tensile strength
b) A–yield point, B–proportional limit, C–
Ultimate tensile strength, D–fracture point
c) A – proportional limit, B – yield point, C –
Ultimate tensile strength, D – fracture point
d) A – yield point, B – proportional limit, C –
fracture point, D – Ultimate tensile strength
(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/PHYSICS/Page 1 of 5)
5. Hooke’s law states that
a) stress is always proportional to strain
b) stress is proportional to strain before ultimate tensile strength
c) stress is proportional to strain under elastic limit
d) stress and strain are never directly proportional
6. Temperature is 300K. Convert it into ℉.
a) 47°F b) 80.6°F c) 27°F d) 16.6°F
7. First law of thermodynamics is based on?
a) Conservation of energy b) Conservation of mass
c) Conservation of momentum d) Conservation of work
8. A machine gun fires 360 bullets per minute. Each bullet has a mass of 5 grams and
travels at 600 m/s. What is the power of the gun? (Assume no loss of energy and
100% power transmission)
a) 300 W b) 600 W c) 900 W d) 1800 W
9. Laplace correction for speed of sound makes use of which of the following
processes?
a) Isothermal b) Adiabatic c) Isochoric d) Isobaric
10. Consider a sinusoidal wave travelling in the positive
x direction. What is the phase difference between
the two points shown in the diagram below?
a) 0 b) π c) π/2 d) 2π
11. A particle is performing a SHM. If its mass is doubled keeping the amplitude and
force constant the same, total energy will become how many times the initial value?
a) 2 b) ½ c) 4 d) 1
12. What is the ratio of specific heats for a monatomic gas?
a) 5/3 b) 5/2 c) 7/5 d) 9/5
13. How many degrees of freedom are there in a diatomic gas?

a) 2 b) 5 c) 3 d) 1
14. What is the unit of coefficient of viscosity?
a) Ns/m2 b) Nm/s c) Ns/m d) Nm/s2
15. Which of the following quantities have the same S.I. unit as that of modulus of
elasticity?
a) Energy per unit volume b) Force per unit length
c) Energy d) Change in length
For question numbers 16 – 18 two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false
(e) A is false and R is true
16. Assertion(A): An object can move with constant velocity if no net force acts on it.
Reason(R): No net force is needed to move an object with constant velocity.
17. Assertion(A): The velocity of sound increases with increase in humidity.
Reason(R): Velocity of sound does not depend upon the medium.
18. Assertion(A): When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened, a slight fog forms
around the opening.
Reason(R): Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes lowering of temperature and
condensation of water vapours.
Section - B
19. Define gravitational potential energy. Derive an expression of it.

20. Define kilowatt-hour. Convert it into Joule.
21. What do you mean by Bulk modulus? What is its SI unit?
OR
Distinguish between streamlined and turbulent flow.
22. On what factors does the thermal conductivity of a material depend?
23. What is meant by simple harmonic motion? Write down its characteristics.
OR
Distinguish between transverse and longitudinal wave with example.
24. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, how much would a body
weigh half way down to the centre of the earth if it weighed 250 N on the surface?
25. Two bodies at different temperatures T1 and T2, if brought in thermal contact do not
necessarily settle to the mean temperature (T1 + T2)/2. Explain.
Section – C
26. A liquid drop of diameter 4 mm breaks into 1000 droplets of equal size. Calculate the
resultant change in the surface energy. Surface tension of the liquid is 0.07 N/m.
27. Deduce the work done in the following
complete cycle.
28. Derive the adiabatic relations among Pressure (P) and volume (V).
OR
State and prove Bernoulli’s principle for the flow of non-viscous fluids.
29. Explain why-
(a) The angle of contact of mercury with glass is obtuse, while that of water with
glass is acute.
(c) Surface tension of antiseptic liquid is low.
(d) Water with detergent dissolved in it should have small angles of contact.
OR
A body tied to one end of a string is made to revolve in a verticle circle. Derive the
expression for velocity of the body and tension in the string at any point.
30. Define escape velocity. Obtain an expression for the escape velocity of a body from
the surface of earth.
Section - D
31. Define bulk modulus of elasticity. Give its dimension.

A solid sphere of radius 10 cm is subjected ta a uniform pressure 5x108 N/m2.
Determine the consequent change in volume. Bulk modulus of the material of sphere
is equal to 3.14 ×1011 N/m2
OR
Explain how does a body attain a terminal velocity when it is dropped from rest in a
viscous medium. Derive an expression for the terminal velocity of a small spherical
body falling through a viscous medium.
32. Define coefficient of linear expansion (α). Find its relation with coefficient of
superficial expansion (β). If volume of a metal changes by 0.12 % when it is heated
through 200C, what is the coefficient of linear expansion?
OR
State first law of thermodynamics. Derive expression for the work done during the
adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas.
33. On the basis of kinetic theory derive an expression for the pressure exerted by an
ideal gas. Using the law of equipartition of energy obtain a relation between degree
of freedom f and specific heat ratio γ of a polyatomic gas.
OR
Write Newton’s formula for speed of sound in a gas. Why and what correction was
applied by Laplace in this formula?
Section - E
34. Earth satellites are objects which revolve around the earth. Their motion is very
similar to the motion of planets around the Sun and hence Kepler’s laws of planetary
motion are equally applicable to them. In particular, their orbits around the earth are
circular or elliptic. Moon is the only natural satellite of the earth with a near circular
orbit with a time period of approximately 27.3 days which is also roughly equal to
the rotational period of the moon about its own axis.
a) Define escape velocity.
b) What is the value of escape velocity of earth?
c) Why moon don’t Have any atmosphere?
OR
Two objects of masses 5kg and 10 kg separated by distance 10m. What is
gravitational force between them?
35. When a system (such as a simple pendulum or a block attached to a spring) is
displaced from its equilibrium position and released, it oscillates with its natural
frequency ω, and the oscillations are called free oscillations. All free oscillations
eventually die out because of the damping forces. However, an external agency can
maintain these oscillations. These are called forced or driven oscillations. We
consider the case when the external force is itself periodic, with a frequency we
called the driven frequency. The most important fact of forced periodic oscillations is
that the system oscillates not with its natural frequency ω, but at the frequency ωd of
the external agency; the free oscillations die out due to damping.
a) What is free oscillation?
b) What is forced oscillations?
c) What is resonance?
OR
Define frequency of periodic motion. How it is related to time period?
***************
CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- CHEMISTRY (043) Maximum Marks:70
NAME: ___________________________SEC: ______ ROLL NO.______
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) This question paper consists of 7 no. of pages and 35 questions.
b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed
SECTION-A
Q1 N2(g) +3H2(g) ⇌2NH3(g)
In the above reaction, if kp =1.44× 10-5 at 500ºC, kc is
(a) 1.44× 10-5/(0.08 ×773)2 (b) 1.44× 10 -5/(0.08 ×773)-2
-5
(c) 1.44× 10 /(0.08 ×500) (d) 1.44× 10-5/(8.31 ×773)-2
Q2 IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCHO
(a) 3,3- dimethyl propanal
(b) 2,2-dimethyl propanal
(c) 2-dimethyl propanal
(d) 2-methyl butanal
Q3 The hybridization of the central atom in I3-
(a) sp3d (b) sp3d3 (c) sp3d2 (d) dsp2
Q4 Intra-molecular hydrogen bond exists in
(a) ortho- nitrophenol (b) ethyl alcohol (c) water (d) diethyl ether
Q5 Which of the following molecule is not an exception to the octet rule?
(a) BF3 (b) CO2 (c) IF7 (d) PF5
Q6 The element with positive electron gain enthalpy is
(a) hydrogen (b) sodium (c) oxygen (d) none
Q7 In the given bonds which one is most ionic
(a) Cs -Cl (b) Al –Cl (c) C -Cl (d) H -Cl
Q8 The boiling point of p-nitrophenol is higher than that of o-nitrophenol because
(a) NO2 group at p-position behave in a different way from that at o-position.
(b) intra-molecular hydrogen bonding exists in p-nitrophenol
(c) there is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in p-nitrophenol
(d) p-nitrophenol has a higher molecular weight than o-nitrophenol.
Q9 According to VSEPR theory, the geometry of a covalent molecule depends upon
(a) the number of bond pairs of electrons
(b) the number of lone pairs of electrons
(c) the number of electron pairs present in the outer shell of the central atom
(d) All the above.
(CL-XI / SAMPLE PAPER / 2022-23/ CHEMISTRY / /Page 1 of 6)

Q10 Which of the correct increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
(a) IF7 < IF5 < CIF3 < XeF2
(b) IF7 < XeF2 < CIF2 < IF5
(c) IF7 < CIF3 < XeF2 < IF5
(d) IF7 < XeF2 < IF5 < CIF3
Q11 Which of the following reaction is not correct?
(a) Propene + HCl → 2-chloropropane
(b) Propene + HBr → 1-bromopropane
(c) Propene + HCl → 2-chloropropane
(d) Propene + HBr → 1-bromopropane
Q12 The reaction, 3Fe (s) + 4H2O ⇌ Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 is reversible if it carried out
(a) At constant pressure
(b) At constant temperature
(c) In an open vessel
(d) In a closed vessel
Q13 Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature because
(a) Equilibrium is maintained rapidly
(b) The concentration of reactants and products become the same at equilibrium
(c) The concentration of reactants and products are constant but different
(d) Both forward and backward reactions occur at all times with the same speed.
Q14 In a reaction the rate of reaction is proportional to its active mass, this statement is
known as:
(a) Law of mass action
(b) Le- Chatelier principle
(c) Faraday law of electrolysis
(d) Law of constant proportion
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion
and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of
the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If the Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(e) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q15 Assertion (A): The equilibrium constant is fixed and is the characteristic of any given
chemical reaction at a specified temperature.
Reason (R): The composition of the final equilibrium mixture at a particular
temperature depends upon the starting amount of reactants.
Q16 Assertion (A): The endothermic reactions are favored at lower temperatures and the
exothermic reactions are favored at a higher temperature.
Reason (R): When a system in equilibrium is disturbed by changing the temperature,
it will tend to adjust itself so as to overcome the effect of change.
Q17 Assertion (A): A catalyst does not influence the values of the equilibrium constant.
Reason (R): Catalysts influence the rate of both forward and backward reactions
equally.
Q 18 Assertion (A): Kp = Kc for all reactions.
Reason (R): At constant temperature, the pressure of the gas is proportional to its
concentration.
SECTION-B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
Q19 (i) Arrange the following in the decreasing order acidic strength: (a) CH3-CH2-COOH
(b) ClCH2-CH2-COOH (c) CH3-CHCl-COOH.
(ii) Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their basic strength in vapour
phase: (a) Me-NH2, (b) NH3, (c) Et-NH2.
Q20 Draw the resonating structures of Benzyl carbocation
OR
Draw the resonating structures of phenoxide ion.
Q21 Give the products of the following reactions:
(a) But 2 yne + (Na/LiqNH3) →
(b) Propene is treated with cold and dilute KMnO4
OR
Give the complete reaction mechanisms of any one of the following:
(a) Acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol
(b) Acid-catalysed hydration of ethene.
Q22 Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling points with proper
explanation: (a) 2-methyl pentane (b) 2,3 dimethyl butane (c) 2,2 dimethyl butane.
Q23 (i) In a process, 701J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by
the system. What is the change in internal energy for the process?
(ii) Out of diamond and graphite, which has greater entropy?
Q24 Give reasons:
(i) Cyclohexylamine is more basic than Aniline.
(ii) Nucleophiles are lewis bases.
Q25 Write IUPAC names of the following compounds:
SECTION-C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
Q26 (i) One mole of symmetrical alkene upon ozonolysis gives 2 moles of an aldehyde
having the molecular mass 44u. Predict the alkene.
(ii) What are electrophiles? Give two examples.
Q27 (i) In the alkane, CH3CH2-C(CH3)2-CH2-CH(CH3)2, identify 1°, 2°, 3° carbon atoms
and give the number of H-atoms bonded to each one of these.
(ii) What is Lindlar’s catalyst? Give its use.
Q28 If the density of methanol is 0.793kg/l, what is its volume needed for making 2.5 lit of
its 0.25M solution.

OR
(a) Which solution is more concentrated 1M or 1m ? Why?
(b) Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating Manganese-dioxide (MnO2) with
aqueous HCl according to the reaction,
MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
How many grams of HCl react with 5gm of MnO2 ? (At.mass of Mn=55u)
Q29 Balance following equations by ion electron method:
(i) P4 (s) + OH-  PH3 + H2PO2- (Basic medium )
(ii) Cr2O72- + SO2  Cr3+ + SO42- (Acidic medium )
Q30 (a) A mixture of 1.57 mol of N2, 1.92 mol of H2 and 8.13 mol of NH3 is introduced
into a 20 L reaction vessel at 500 K. At this temperature, the equilibrium constant
Kc for the reaction
Is this reaction at equilibrium? If not, what is the direction of net reaction?
(b) Assuming complete dissociation, calculate the pH of the following solutions:
(a) 0.003 M HCl (b) 0.005 M NaOH
OR
Hydrogen gas is obtained from the natural gas by partial oxidation with steam as per
the following endothermic reaction:
Write the expression for Kp for the above reaction

How will the value of Kp and composition of equilibrium mixture be affected by:
(i) increasing the pressure, (ii) increasing the temperature, (iii) using a catalyst?
SECTION-D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Q31 Read the passage and answer the following question:
The existing large number of organic compounds and their ever-increasing numbers
have made it necessary to classify them on the basis of their structures. Organic
compounds are broadly classified as open-chain compounds which are also called
aliphatic compounds. Aliphatic compounds further classified as homocyclic and
heterocyclic compounds. Aromatic compounds are special types of compounds.
Alicyclic compounds, aromatic compounds may also have heteroatom in the ring.
Such compounds are called heterocyclic aromatic compounds. Organic compounds
can also be classified on the basis of functional groups, into families or homologous
series. The members of a homologous series can be represented by general molecular
formula and the successive members differ from each other in molecular formula by a
–CH2 unit.
(a)Which alkene out of But 2-ene and But-1-ene readily reacts with Br2 and CS2 and
why?
(b) Propanal and Pentan -3- one are the products of ozonolysis of an alkene. Predict
the alkene with its IUPAC name.
OR
Carry out the following organic conversions:
(a) Ethene to Ethyne
(b) Propene to Propan-2-ol
(c) 2-Butene to Ethanal
(d) Benzoic acid to Benzene

Q32 Read the passage and answer the following question:
Hydrocarbons are of different types. Depending upon the types of carbon-carbon
bonds present, they can be classified into three main categories – (i) saturated (ii)
unsaturated and (iii) aromatic hydrocarbons. Saturated hydrocarbons contain carbon-
carbon and carbon-hydrogen single bonds. If different carbon atoms are joined
together to form open chain of carbon atoms with single bonds, they are termed as
alkanes. On the other hand, if carbon atoms form a closed chain or a ring, they are
termed as cycloalkanes. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain carbon-carbon multiple
bonds – double bonds, triple bonds or both. Aromatic hydrocarbons are a special type
of cyclic compounds. You can construct a large number of models of such molecules
of both types (open chain and close chain) keeping in mind that carbon is tetravalent
and hydrogen is monovalent. For making models of alkanes, you can use toothpicks
for bonds and plasticine balls for atoms. For alkenes, alkynes and aromatic
hydrocarbons, spring models can be constructed.
Carry out the following organic conversions:
(a) But 2- ene to Ethanal
(b) Propene to 1 bromopropane
(c) Propane to Ethane
(d) Ethane to Ethyne
OR
Write short notes on:
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Fridel Craft’s alkylation reaction
(c) Unimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction
(d) Halogenation of Alkanes.
SECTION-E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions
have an internal choice.
Q33 Write short notes on (with examples and equations ):
(a) Satzeff’s rule (b) Markonikoff’s rule (c) Kharasch effect (d) Hydride shift
(e) Ring expansion.
OR
Explain:
(a) β-elimination reaction.
(b) Which of the two: O2NCH2CH2O– or CH3CH2O– is expected to be more stable
and why?
(c) Classify the following reactions in one of the reaction type studied in this unit.
(i) CH3CH2Br + HS– →CH3CH2SH + Br–
(b) (CH3)2C=CH2 + HCl → (CH3)2CCl-CH3
(c) CH3CH2Br + HO– →CH2=CH2 + H2O + Br–
Q34 (a) Although geometries of NH3 and H2O molecules are distorted tetrahedral, bond
angle in water is less than that of ammonia. Explain.
(b) Define electronegativity. How does it differ from electron gain enthalpy?
(c) Describe the change in hybridisation (if any) of the Al atom in the following
reaction. AlCl3 + Cl– →AlCl4 - .
OR
(a) Considering X-axis as the intemuclear axis which out of the following will not
form a sigma bond and why? (a) 1s and 1s (b) 1s and 2px (c) 2py and 2py (d) 1s and
2s.

(b) Describe the hybridisation in case of PCl5. Why are the axial bonds longer as
compared to equatorial bonds?
(c) Define dipole moment. The dipole moment of BF3 is zero. Why?
Q35 An organic compound A with molecular formula C4H9Br on treatment with alcoholic
KOH gave two isomeric products B and C with the molecular formula C 4H8. On
ozonolysis B gave only one product CH3CHO while C gave two different products.
Identify A, B and C and write reactions with necessary steps.
*********************************

CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- BIOLOGY (CODE 044) Maximum Marks: 70
NAME: ___________________________ SEC: ______ ROLL NO.______
(i)All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks
each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based
questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn
SECTION-A
Q1 The growth curve of any organism is
(a) hyperbolic
(b) sigmoid
(c) parabolic
(d) L shaped
Q2 Match column1 with column II and choose the correct option:
COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2
A Bulliform cells 1. Single layered
B Guard cells 2.waxy layer
C Cuticle 3.Empty colourless cells
D Epidermis 4. Stomata
(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (b) A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2

(c ) A-2,B-3,C-4,D-1 (d) A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2
Q3 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its taxonomic category?
(a) Housefly—Musca, the order.
(b) Tiger---Panthera, the species.
(c) Wheat--- Poales, the class
(d) Mango—Sapindales, the order.
(CL-XI/Block Test – II/2022-23/BIOLOGY/Sample/Page 1 of 6)

Q4
The androecium shown above is

(a) Monadelphous as in china rose
(b) Monadelphous as in bean.
(c) Diadelphous as in bean.
(d) Diadelphous as in chinarose.
Q5 In EMP pathway one molecule of Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate splits into

(a) Two molecules of phosphoglycerate
(b) Two molecules of Pyruvate
(c) One molecule of phosphoglyceraldehyde and one of dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(d) Two molecules of dihydroxyacetone phosphate
Q6 The pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene is called

(a) synapse
(b) crossing over
(c) synapsis.
(d) terminalization
Q7 The receptor sites for neuro transmitters are present on?
(a) presynaptic membrane

(b) synaptic vesicle
(c) postsynaptic membrane
(d) tip of dendrites
Q8 Identify the incorrect statement with reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis:
(a) light saturation for photosynthesis occurs at 10 percent of full sunlight.
(b) tomato can be grown in a greenhouse in CO2 enriched condition for higher yield
(c) Increase in atmospheric CO2 concentration up to0.05% can enhance the rate of
carbon dioxide fixation.
(d) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced rate of photosynthesis
while C4 plants have a lower optimum temperature for photosynthesis .
Q9 The ureters in a female frog opens into

(a) Bidders canal
(b) urinary bladder
(c) cloaca.

(d) urethra
Q10 The QRS complex is a standard ECG represents

(a) repolarization of ventricles
(b) depolarization of ventricles
(c) repolarization of atria
(d) depolarization of atria
Q11 Haemoglobin transports carbon dioxide in the form of

(a) carboxyhemoglobin
(b) carbonic acid
(c) carbonates
(d) carbaminohemoglobin
Q12 To promote growth of lateral branches

(a) axillary buds are removed (b) terminal buds are removed
(c) auxin is applied to tips of branches (d) auxin is applied to tips of branches
Q13 Note: In the following given questions from 13 to 16, a statement of assertion followed
by a statement of reasoning is given .Choose the correct answer out of the following
choices.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.
(E) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
Assertion: Members of Annelids show true metameric segmentation.

Reason: In Annelids ,the body is divided both externally and internally into segments
with a serial repetition of atleast some organs.
Q14 Assertion: The flowers of guava and cucumber are epigynous.

Reason: In the flowers of guava and cucumber the ovary is above all other whorls and
is superior.
Q15 Assertion: The vascular bundles of dicot stem are called open vascular bundles.
Reason: The vascular bundles of dicot stems have xylem and Phloem situated along the
same radius.
Q16 Assertion: Mitochondria are known as powerhouse of cells.
Reason: Mitochondria produce ATP, the energy currency of the cells by oxidation of food.
SECTION-B
Q17 Why starch is stained blue with Iodine but cellulose does not though they are both
polymers of Glucose?
Q18 Write any four similarities between reptiles and amphibians.
Q19 Why does CO2 diffuse into the blood vessels in the tissues but diffuse out of blood
vessels into the alveoli in the lungs?
Q20 (a)Name the specialized cells where Nitrogen fixation occurs in the trichomes of certain
cyanobacteria.
(b) Write two examples of cyanobacteria where such cells are present.
Q21 Frogs are not seen during extreme summer and cold winter conditions. Give reason.
OR
Frogs are dioecious and dimorphic. Write two features in which male frog can be
distinguished from female frog externally?
SECTION-C
Q22 How do fats enter respiratory pathway?

Q23. Explain why axoplasm of a resting axon negatively charged?
Q24 Study the diagram given below and answer the following questions
(i) What are true ribs?

(ii) How many of them are present in human rib cage?
(iii) Mention the number of bones present in our rib cage.
OR
Mention three types of joints found in human body .Which of these play a significant
role in locomotion?
Q25 (a) Name the stage of cell division when:
(i) chromosomes commence their poleward movement.
(ii) nucleolus and nuclear membrane disappear.
(b) What is G0(quiescent) stage of cell cycle?
Q26 (a)Name the four types of organic molecules found in acid insoluble fraction.
(b)Alanine and Glycine differ in one substituent on α Carbon.
What are the other common substituents?
OR
(a) How does a nucleotide differ from a nucleoside? Give examples.
(b) Name two aromatic amino acids.
Q27 Draw the floral diagram of the family of which Petunia alba
Q28 Scientists have succeeded in recovering healthy sugarcane plants from a diseased one.
(i)Name the part of the plant used as explant by scientists.
(ii)Describe the procedure the scientists followed by recover the healthy parts.
(iii)Name the technology used for crop improvement.

SECTION-D
Q29 Read the following and answer three questions from 29(i) to 29(iii) given below:
Revathi and her friends had gone on an educational trip to Darjeeling . They observed
that many local people had swelling on their neck . Please help Revathi to find out the
solution to the following questions.
(i) Which probable disease are these local people suffering from?
(ii) What is the cause of the disease? How does it affect pregnant individual?
OR
Name the hormones referred to as T3 and T4 respectively.
(iii) What is exophthalmic goitre?
Q30 Read the following and answer three questions from 30(i) to 30(iii) given below:
Zoology teacher was teaching diversity in animal kingdoms. After discussing the
characteristics of invertebrates and vertebrates including their classes, he decided to take
a feed back of his lesson. Try to help the students to answer the following questions
related to the figures of animals shown by the teacher.
(i) Identify the animals with –

(a) two chambered heart (b)three chambered heart (c) four chambered heart.
(ii) Which animal shows external fertilization?
(iii) How does B differ from C in external morphology?
OR
Select one animal who shows ---indirect and direct development.
SECTION-E
Q31 Which pentose phosphate fixes CO2 in a C3 plant. Explain Calvin cycle in such plants.
OR
Explain non cyclic photophosphorylation in plants. Why is this process so called?

Q32 (a) Name any two heterosporous pteridophytes.
(b) Write the four classes of division Pteridophyta .Give example of each.
OR
Give a comparative account of the mode of reproduction in Bryophytes ,Pteridophytes
and Gymnosperms.
Q33 Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane? Describe the fluid mosaic
model of plasma membrane with the help of a labelled diagram.
OR
Describe the ultra-structure of centrosome with the help of diagram. How does it
participate in cell division? Name the stages.
**************************

CLASS- XI
Time: 2 Hours SUBJECT- PAINTING (Code-049) Maximum Marks: 30
NAME: ___________________________SEC: ______ ROLL NO.______
• Section – A
Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 1 mark)
• Section – B
Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 2 marks)
• Section – C
Attempt any two Questions ( Each Questions will carry 6 marks)
Answer the following questions
SECTION - A 8X1=8
Select the right answer from the given options:
Q1.
(A) Dancing Girl is a sculpture which is made of

i) Bronze
ii) Terracotta
iii) Sand Stone
iv) Lime Stone
(B) In which medium Ajanta paintings are made

i) Pastel
ii) Water colour
iii) Oil
iv) Acrylic
(C) Ajanta discovered in

i) 1917
ii) 1971
iii) 1817
iv) 1917
(D) Male Torso found from Harappa made of which materials?

i) Sand Stone
ii) Polished red lime stone
iii) Granite
iv) Lime Stone
(E) During which dynasty Sarnath Line Capital created?

i) Ashok
ii) Bindusa
iii) Akbar
iv) Krishna Chandra
(CL-XI/Unit Test – II/2022-23/PAINTING/Page 1 of 2)

(F) The cave of Bhimbetka were discovered by eminent archeologist named
i) V S Wakankar
ii) Anderson
ii) Rakhal Das Banerjee
iv) Daya Ram Sahini
(G) Which one of the following found from Mohenjo-Daro

i) Dancing Girl
ii) Male Torso
iii) Nataraja
iv) Trimurti
(H) Elephanta cave made during which dynasty?

i) Ganga
ii) Kushanu
iii) Maurya
iv) Rastrakuta
SECTION – B 2 X 5 = 10
(Short answer type questions)

Answer for this question is expected in around 100 words
Q2.Explain distinct characteristic of Lion capital.

OR
Lion Capital divided into how many parts? Write their names.
Q3. Bodhisattva Head made during which period ? It is in which style?

OR
Write a example of Gandhara Style and where it is collection?
Q4 How many caves are found in Bhimbetka and how many are decorated with paintings? Described the
painting roaring animal.
OR
Painted Earthenware (Jar) found from which city of Indus Valley Civilization.
Q5.Trimurti sculpture made during which period and writes the names of three different faces.
Q6.Explain the hands posture of lord shiva in the Nataraja sculpture.
OR
What are the differences between Gandhar style of art and Mathura style of art?
SECTION – C
Attempt any two questions from the given options
(Long answer type question) 6 X 2 = 12
Answer for this question is expected in around 200 words
Q7.
(A) How is the Lion Capital important to us? Explain its characteristics.
(B) Explain the lost-wax process.
(C) Explain the panel Descent of Ganga.

CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048) Maximum Marks: 70
1) The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
2) Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions.
All questions are compulsory.
3) Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer
types and should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4) Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and
should not exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5) Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. All
questions are compulsory
6) Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and
should not exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.
SECTION A
Q1.Yoga word has been derived from Sanskrit word. 1

a) Yuj b) Yug
c) Yog d) Yoj
Q2. .……. Is the study of human behavior? 1

a) Sociology b) Physiology
c) Psychology d) None of these
Q3. Study of motion is known as 1

a) Kinesiology b) Biomechanics
c) Physiology d) Anatomy
Q4. Weight of the Heart in human is 1

a) 200gms b) 400gms
c) 200-260gms d) 300gms
Q5. …… is the basic form of preparation of a sportsperson 1

a) Gym training b) Body training
c) Sports training d) None of these
Q6. Training should be done 1

a) At intervals b) On regular basis
c) Continuously without rest d) None of these
Q7. Blood doping increase 1

a) Speed b) slower
c) Endurance d) None of these
Q8. The term extension refers to 1

a) Bending b) Turning
c Twisting d) Straightening
(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/PE/Page 1 of 4)
Q9. Sports Psychology means 1
a) Study of players behavior b) Study of individuals
c) Study of inner mind d) The study of mind
Q10. Components of fitness do not include 1

a) Agility b) Speed
c) Strength d) Reaction time
Q11. Which one of the following is not a type of health? 1

a) Emotional b) Social health
c) Mental health d) Political health
Q12. Who is father of yoga? 1

a) Brahma b) Patanjali
c) Shiva d) Baba ram dev
Q13. What is the main aim of physical education? 1

a) Physical development b) Social development
c) Mental development d) All round development
Q14. VAR technology stands for 1

a) Value –at Risk b) Visual audio recording
c) Video assistance Referee d) Video assistance recording
Q15. Match the following 1

I Speech therapist 1 Exercise based learning
II Physical education teacher 2 Treat the affected with injury
III Occupational therapist 3 Self-care skill
IV Physiotherapist 4 Improve speech abilities
Code
I II III IV
A 4 2 3 1
B 4 1 3 2
C 3 4 1 2
D 2 1 3 4
Q16. First modern Olympics were held at 1

a) Athens b) Paris
c) London d) Antwerp
Q17. Disability is caused by 1

a) Heredity b) Accidents
c) Balanced diet d) both A and B
Q18. What is IOC 1

a) International Olympiad committee b) India Olympic committee
c) International Olympic committee d) Indian Olympia committee
SECTION B
Q19. What is the function of skeletal system? 2

Q20. Discuss the problem of Adolescence. 2
Q21. Define sports training .Write in brief about concept of training. 2
Q22. Explain the functions of Heart. 2
Q23. What do you mean by Test, Measurement, and Evaluation? 2
Q24. What is kinesiology? 2
SECTION C
Q25. What is the role of school counselor for students with special needs? Discuss in 3
brief.
Q26. Discuss the any three components of fitness. 3
Q27. What do you mean by Sports Journalism? 3
Q28. Write down the definitions of psychology and sports psychology. 3
Q29. Write any six importance of Anatomy and physiology. 3
Q30. Write a short note on the Olympic flag. 3
SECTION D
Q31. Identify the career option in field of physical education and write their. Names 4
A. B.
C. D.
Q32. Given below are two statement labelled as assertion (A) and Reason(R)Assertion 4
(A) Flexion and extension are type of movement.
Reason (R) All the movements are done in plane and axis.
In the context of above two statement which one of the ahead given isCorrect
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q33. Create a flow chart of the objectives of Physical Education 4
SECTION E
Q34. Define Yoga .Explain its importance in daily life. 5

Q35. What is joint? Write in details about various types of joints in the human skeletal 5
System.
Q36. Define doping and explain the type of doping. 5
Q37. What is Biomechanics? How its helps to promote sports and games? 5
CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- COMPUTER SC. (083) Maximum Marks: 70
NAME: ___________________________ SEC: ______ ROLL NO.______
1. This question paper contains two parts A and B. Each part is compulsory.
2. Both Part A and Part B have choices.
3. Part-A has 18 Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
4. Part -B is Descriptive Paper.
5. Part- B has four sections
a. Section-I has 07 Very Short Answer Type Questions carrying 02 marks each.
b. Section-II has 05 Short Answer Type Questions carrying 03 marks each.
c. Section-III has 03 Long Short Answer Type Questions carrying 05 marks each.
d. Section-IV has 02 Questions carrying 04 marks each.
6. All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only
Question Part-A Marks

No. Select the most appropriate option out of the options given for each
question. Each question carries 1 mark.
1. Find all valid identifiers from the following 1
(i)a_b
(ii) none
(iii)5result
(iv) True
2. Which of the following are not valid string in Python? 1
(i)“Hello”
(ii)‘Hello’
(iii)“Hello’
(iv) {Hello}
3. Python code can run on a variety of platforms, it means Python is a 1
_____ language.
(i) Independed
(ii) Graphical
(iii) Cross-platform
(iv) all the above
4. Which of the following are valid operator in Python: 1
(i) */
(ii) is
(iii) ^
(iv) like
5. When the following code runs, how many times is the line x=x*2 1
executed ?
X=1
while(X<10):
X=X*2
(i) 9
(ii) 2
(CL-XI/2022-23/SAMPLE PAPER/COMPUTER SC./Page 1 of 6)

(iii) 5
(iv) 10
6. Given the string s1=”python programming” 1
Write the output of:
s1[::-1]
(a) programming python
(b) python
(c) gnimmargorp nohtyp
(d) gnimmargorpnohtyp
7. Which of the following functions will return the total number of 1
characters in a string?
(i) len()
(ii) count()
(iii) index()
(iv) find()
8. Give output: 1
T=(1,2,3,4)
print(T*2+(5))
(a) ((1,2,3,4),(1,2,3,4),5)
(b) ((1,2,3,4,1,2,3,4),5)
(c) (1,2,3,4,1,2,3,4,5)
(d) Error
9. What will be the output of above Python code? 1
str1="6/4" print("str1")
(i) 1
(ii) 6/4
(iii) 1.5
(iv) str1
10. Which of the following is a valid escape sequence? 1
(a) ‘\d’
(b) ‘\p’
(c) ‘\m’
(d) ‘\a’
11. Which of the following can add a list of elements to a list? 1
(i) append()
(ii) extend()
(iii) add()
(iv) none of these
12. Identify the valid declaration of R1: 1
R1={‘one’:100,’Two’:2000}
(i) List
(ii) Tuple
(iii) Dictionary
(iv) Set
13. In Python, how are arguments passed? 1

(a) pass byvalue
(b) pass byreference
(c) It gives options to user to choose
(d) Both a and b
14. Which of the following is a nested if statement? 1
(a) if inside if’s body

(b) if inside elif’s body
(c) if inside else’s body
(d) All of the above
15. Which of the following is not a type of cyber criminals? 1
(i) Unauthorized account access
(ii) Email spoofing and spamming
(iii) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
(iv) Report vulnerability in any system
16. Many people create videos on YouTube by using content from other’s 1
videos. Infer which
Intellectual Property Right is being violated in this case?
a. Copyright Infringement b. Trademark
c. Copyright d. Patent
Q17 and 18 are ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions.
Make the correct choice as
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is True but R is False
d. A is False but R is True
17. Assertion(A) : Dictionary is a mapping data type. 1
Reason(R) : it is an ordered collection of key value pairs.
18. Assertion(A) : Logical errors are hard to find. 1
Reason(R) : Logical error produces an undesired output without abrupt
termination of the execution of the program.
Part-B
Section-I
19. Predict the output of following code snippet: 2
(i) x,y=20,60 (ii) a,b=12,13
y, x, y=x,y-10,x+10 c,b=a*2,a/2
print(x,y) print(a, b,c)
20. Do the following conversions: 2
i. (11011.101)2=( )8
ii. (A73)16=( )2
or
Differentiate between compiler and interpreter
21. Rewrite the following code in python after removing all syntax error(s). 2
Underline each correction done in the code:
A=input(“Enter the number”)
B=input(“Enter the number”)
If(A>B)
print(“A is big”)
Else if(B>A)
print(“B is big”)
else
Print(“Both are equal”)
22. Write the output of the following: 2
T1=(1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)
print(T1)
print(T1*2)
print(len(T1)*3)
print(T1+(5))

23. Write the appropriate Boolean expression for the Logic circuit given 2
below:
24. Predict the output of the following code: 2

a=msp44@gmail.com
s=” ”
for i in a:
if i.isalpha():
s=s+i.upper()
elif i.isdigit():
s=s+”33”
else:
s=s+”@”
print(s)
25. What possible outputs(s) are expected to be displayed on screen at the 2
time of execution of the program from the following code? Also specify
the maximum values that can be assigned to each of the variables Lower
and Upper.
(i) 10#40#70# (ii) 30#40#50#

(iii) 50#60#70# (iv) 40#50#70#
Section-II
26. Consider the following string mySubject: 3
mySubject = “Computer Science”
What will be the output of the following string operations:
(a) print(mySubject[0:len(mySubject)])
(b) print(mySubject[-7:-1])
(c) print(mySubject[::2])
27. Discuss different types of errors with suitable example. 3
28. Consumer={“C001”:{“name”: “Amit Sharma”, “units”:500}, “C002”:{ 3
“name”: “Neha Anand”, “units”:350}, “C003” :{“name”: “Aditya
Kumar”, “units”:750}}
Write a python program to calculate electricity bill of listed consumers
in the given dictionary Consumer.
Unit tariff :
100 RS. 1.20 per unit
200 RS. 2 per unit
300 RS. 3 per unit
29. Write one significant differences between:- 3
(a) sorted() functions and List.sort() method.
(b) List.append() and List.extend() method.
(c) pop() and remove() method of lists.
30. In “Code Gladiators” event, cash prize of Rs.25000/- awarded to the 3
following winners:-
Winners_Nm=[“Amit Sharma”, “Neha Singh”, “Ajay Vashisht”]

Create a dictionary, where name of winners will be key, whereas, name
of event and cash prize in the form of dictionary will be values.
Section-III
31. Write a program in Python that accepts Grade and salary of a user and 5
calculates bonus on the basis of following condition:
AnIncome Taxrate (%)
>=600000 8
>=300000 and 600000 6
>150000 and < 300000 2
<150000 0
32. Program to find prime numbers between 2 to 50 using nested for loops. 5
33. Answer the following questions: 5
(a) It is an internet service for sending written messages electronically
from one computer to another. Write the service name.
(b) As a citizen of India, what advise you should give to others for e-
waste disposal?
(c) Ravi received a mail form IRS department (as shown). On clicking “
ClickHere” ,he was taken to a site designed to imitate an official-looking
website, such as IRS.gov. He uploaded some important information on
it.
Identify the cyber crime being discussed in the above scenario.
(d) Mention type of software for which license fee is payable after some
time limit.
(e) Posing as someone else online and using his/her personal/financial
information shopping online or posting something is a common type of
cyber crime these days.
What are such types of cyber crimes collectively called?
Section-IV
34. The school offers wireless facility (wifi) to the Computer Science
students of Class XI. For communication, the network security staff of
the school have a registered URL schoolwifi.edu. On 17 September

2017, the following email was mass distributed to all the Computer
Science students of Class XI. The email claimed that the password of the
students was about to expire. Instructions were given to go to URL to
renew their password within 24 hours.
(a) Do you find any discrepancy in this email? 1

(b) What will happen if the student will click on the given URL? 1
(c) Is the email an example of cyber-crime? If yes, then specify which 1
type of cyber-crime is it. Justify your answer
(d) Whether this is example of Identity theft? 1
35. Suggest appropriate functions for the following tasks:
(a) To check whether all letters of the string are in capital letters. 1
(b) To remove all white space from the beginning of a string. 1
(c) To check whether the string contains digits. 1
(d) To convert the first letter of a string to upper case. 1

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DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL , DURGAPUR

We hope the Sample Papers will be practiced well by our students.

(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/ENGLISH CORE/ Page 1 of 9)

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, attempt the questions :

III. Read the following passage carefully: (8)

V. Creative Writing Skills 16 Marks

1. Attempt any One of the questions in 50 words 3 Marks

2 Attempt any One of the questions in 50 words 3 Marks

(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/ENGLISH CORE/ Page 5 of 9)

3. Attempt any One of the questions in 120-150 words 5 Marks

4. Attempt any One of the questions in 120-150 words 5 Marks

(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/ENGLISH CORE/ Page 6 of 9)

1 Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. 1x3=3

1A When did my childhood go?

3. Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given 1x4=4

(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/ENGLISH CORE/ Page 9 of 9)

ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS

(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/APPLIED MATHEMATICSPage 1 of 4)

Find the value of (a2 + √ )4 + (a2 - √ )4

(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/APPLIED MATHEMATICSPage 2 of 4)

(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/APPLIED MATHEMATICSPage 3 of 4)

i. The shape of the poses shown is

(CL-XI/Sample Paper/2022-23/APPLIED MATHEMATICSPage 4 of 4)

1. Which of the following laws of motion is related to inertia?

4. Which of the following options is correct?

13. How many degrees of freedom are there in a diatomic gas?

19. Define gravitational potential energy. Derive an expression of it.

31. Define bulk modulus of elasticity. Give its dimension.

(CL-XI / SAMPLE PAPER / 2022-23/ CHEMISTRY / /Page 1 of 6)

(CL-XI / SAMPLE PAPER / 2022-23/ CHEMISTRY / /Page 3 of 6)

Write the expression for Kp for the above reaction

(CL-XI / SAMPLE PAPER / 2022-23/ CHEMISTRY / /Page 4 of 6)

(CL-XI / SAMPLE PAPER / 2022-23/ CHEMISTRY / /Page 5 of 6)

(CL-XI / SAMPLE PAPER / 2022-23/ CHEMISTRY / /Page 6 of 6)

Q2 Match column1 with column II and choose the correct option:

(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (b) A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2

(CL-XI/Block Test – II/2022-23/BIOLOGY/Sample/Page 1 of 6)

The androecium shown above is

Q5 In EMP pathway one molecule of Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate splits into

Q6 The pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene is called

Q7 The receptor sites for neuro transmitters are present on?

(a) presynaptic membrane

Q9 The ureters in a female frog opens into

(CL-XI/Block Test – II/2022-23/BIOLOGY/Sample/Page 2 of 6)

Q10 The QRS complex is a standard ECG represents

Q11 Haemoglobin transports carbon dioxide in the form of

Q12 To promote growth of lateral branches

Assertion: Members of Annelids show true metameric segmentation.

Q14 Assertion: The flowers of guava and cucumber are epigynous.

Q22 How do fats enter respiratory pathway?

(i) What are true ribs?

(CL-XI/Block Test – II/2022-23/BIOLOGY/Sample/Page 4 of 6)

(iii) What is exophthalmic goitre?

(i) Identify the animals with –

Explain non cyclic photophosphorylation in plants. Why is this process so called?

(CL-XI/Block Test – II/2022-23/BIOLOGY/Sample/Page 5 of 6)

(CL-XI/Block Test – II/2022-23/BIOLOGY/Sample/Page 6 of 6)

Answer the following questions

(A) Dancing Girl is a sculpture which is made of