343063

NEET Level Test (02-Apr-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Full Syllabus 8527521718
Botany - Section A 4 Consider the following statement (a-d) each with

one or two blanks.
1 Identify the labelings A, B, and C marked in the a. All solids that settle during primary treatment of
sewage forms____(i)____ and supernatant forms the
cloning vector pBR322. Choose the correct option:
____(ii)___.
b. Secondary treatment of sewage is also known as
___(iii)___ treatment.
c. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back
into the aeration tank to serve as the ___(iv)_____.
d. The sewage water is treated till ____(v)_____ is
reduced.
Which of the following option given the correct fill ups
for the respective blank numbers from (i) to (v) in the
statements?
1. (i) Primary sludge (iii) Flocs (v) Do
2. (ii) Effluent (iii) Biological (iv) Inoculum (v) BOD
3. (i) Primary sludge (iii) Flocs ( iv) Inoculm (v) DO
4. (i) Effluent (ii) Primary sludge (iii) Flocs (v) BOD
5 Mark the incorrect match

1. Biomagnification - Happens because a toxic substance
A B C can be easily excreted out by an organism
1. ori tetR Sal I 2. Eutrophication - Is natural aging of lake
3. Snow blindness - Due to high dose of UV-B
2. rop ampR Pst I 4. Montreal protocol - Was signed in 1987
3. ampR tetR EcoR I
6 Which of the following is not correct for
4. ori tetR Pvu I
imbibitions?
2 Consider the following statements: 1. Imbibition plays very important role in emergence of
seedling.
Ori is responsible for the copy number of the linked 2. In imbibition movement of solvent is against the
I:
DNA. gradient.
Transformation is a process through which a piece 3. Water potential gradient is essential for imbibition.
II:
of DNA is introduced into a host bacterium. 4. Affinity between liquid and solid is pre-requisite for
Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers of imbibitions.
III:
their genome within the bacterial cell.
Which of the above statements are true? 7 The process used in conversion of Pyruvate to
1. I and II only 2. I and III only Acetyl CoA is
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III 1. Oxidative dehydration
2. Oxidative decarboxylation
3 The law of Segregation is based on the fact that 3. Oxidative phosphorylation
4. Reductive phosphorylation.
1. The alleles do not show any blending
2. There is random fertilization The only type of pollination which brings
8
3. Gametes are pure for the trait
4. The zygotes are diploid genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma
is:
1. Cleistogamy
2. Chasmogamy
3. Geitonogamy
4. Xenogamy
Page: 1
9 Which of the following statements is TRUE? 13 Match List I with List II
1. Prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes. List I List II
2. Eukaryotes evolved before prokaryotes. I. Splitting of water during
3. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes evolved at approximately A. Boron
photosynthesis
the same time.
B. Manganese II. Synthesis of auxin
4. It is unclear whether prokaryotes or eukaryotes
evolved first C.
III. Component of nitrogenase
Molybdenum
10 Which of the following pairs is not correctly D. Zinc IV. Pollen germination
matched?
Mode of reproduction Example Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(a) Offset (i) Water hyacinth 2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(b) Rhizome (ii) Banana 3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(c) Binary fission (iii) Sargassum 4. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(d) Conidia (iv) Penicilium
1. a 14 Consider the following statements:
2. b Gymnosperms-
3. c I. Are plants in which the ovules remain exposed, both
4. d before and after fertilization.
II. Have male and female gametophytes that have
11 Match each item in Column I with one item in independent free-living existence.
Column II and chose your answer from the codes given III. Are heterosporous.
below: Which of the above statements are true?
Column I Column II 1. I and II only
(Type of secondary metabolite) (example) 2. I and III only
3. II and III only
I. Alkaloid 1. Abrin
4. I, II and III
II. Toxin 2. Morphine
III. Lectin 3. Vinblastin
IV. Drug 4. Concanavalin A
15 In case of protists sexual reproduction can be by
Codes 1. Cell fusion
I II III IV 2. Zygote formation
1. 1 2 3 4 3. Triple fusion
2. 2 1 4 3 4. Both 1 and 2
3. 2 1 3 4
4. 1 2 4 3 16 Choose wrong statement:
1. Ethylene induces flowering in mango tree
12 Select the odd one with respect to the continuous 2. Ethylene promotes senescence of plant organs
culture system: especially of leaves and flowers
1. Open system 3. Ethylene promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation
2. Batch-fermentation in deep water rice plants
3. Cells are maintained in log phase 4. Ethylene is the least used PGR in agriculture and
4. Larger biomass production than a system with an horticulture
initial limited amount of nutrients
17 Mark the incorrect statement (with respect to
humus)
1. Dark coloured amorphous substance
2. Highly resistant to microbial action
3. Reservoir of nutrients
4. Cannot be degraded further
Page: 2
18 Mark the Incorrect statement 22 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the 1. Only three top-carnivores are supported in an
body in cell-free systems ecosystem based on production of nearly 6 million
2. Reproduction and cellular organisation are the plants.
defining features of life forms 2. Pyramid of biomass shows a sharp increase in
3. Monocots and grasses represent taxa at different biomass at higher trophic levels.
levels 3. Pyramid of biomass is inverted if small standing crop
4. Separate taxonomic keys are required for each of phytoplankton supports large standing crop of
taxonomic category zooplankton.
4. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
19 The number of carbon atoms are 3 in all of the
following molecules except: 23 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate 1. Grana lamellae have both PSI and PS II.
2. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate 2. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and
3. Acetyl CoA PS II.
4. Pyruvic acid 3. Both ATP and NADPH+H+ are non-cyclic
synthesized during photophosphorylation.
20 Match the columns with respect to the process of 4. Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
translation: reductase.
Column I Column II
(a) UTR (i) Catalyst 24 Find the odd one out with respect to cylindrical
(b) rRNA (ii) Template meristems
(c) mRNA (iii) Reads the genetic code 1. Interfascicular cambium
2. Intrafascicular cambium
(d) tRNA (iv) For efficiency 3. Cork cambium
4. Shoot apical meristem
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 25 A : Yeast in involved in alcoholic fermentation.
2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) R : Yeast poison themselves to death when
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%.
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) In the follewing questions, a statement of assertion (A)
is followed by a statement of reason (R)
21 Which of the following is not a correct difference 1. If both Assertion & reason are true and the reason in
the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1).
between a C3 and a C4 plant? 2. If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
Feature C3 Plant C4 Plant not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark
Cell type in which Calvin Mesophyll Bundle (2).
1.
cycle takes place cells sheath cells 3. If Assertion is ture statement but Reason is false, then
Cell type in which the mark (3).
Bundle Mesophyll 4. If both Assertion and reason are false statments, then
2. initial carboxylation
sheath cells cells mark (4).
reaction occurs
Primary carbon dioxide
3. RuBP PEP 26 In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
acceptor
Number of carbons in the 1. ss DNA
4. primary carbon dioxide 5 3 2. ds DNA
fixation product 3. ds RNA
4. ss RNA
Page: 3
27 The water potential of pure water is 33 Which of the following statements regarding
1. Zero ecological succession is/are true?
2. Less than zero
3. More than zero but less than one The change in communities during ecological
4. More than one I. succession is orderly and sequential, parallel with
the changes in the physical environment.
28 Alexander van Humboldt observed that within a Secondary succession is faster than primary
II.
region, species richness: succession.
1. increases with increasing explored area Usually, lichens are pioneer species during primary
2. increases with increasing explored area but only up to III. xerarch succession.
a limit
3. decreases with increasing explored area
1. Only I
4. decreases with increasing explored area but only up to
a limit 2. Only II
3. Both I and III
29 Mark the incorrect statement: 4. I, II and III
1. By using Agrobacterium vectors nematode specific
genes were introduced into the host plant. 34 Who established that the behaviour of
2. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a chromosomes was parallel to the behaviour of gene :-
particular phase of growth. 1. Corners & tschermak.
3. C-peptide is not present in mature insulin and is 2. Sutton & Boveri.
removed during maturation into insulin. 3. T.H. Morgan.
4. All vectors naturally contains antibiotic-resistance 4. Klug & cumminis.
gene.
35 Which of the following changes occur when a
30 During DNA packaging in eukaryotic cells, Non bivalent passes from zygotene to pachytene stage?
Histone Chromosomal proteins: 1 A tetrad is changed into dyad
1. Are not required 2 A monad is changed into dyad
2. Are required from the beginning to the end of 3 A bivalent is changed into tetrad
packaging 4 A bivalent is changed into tetravalent
3. Are required only for earlier stages of packaging
4. Are required for higher level of packaging
Botany - Section B
31 Double fertilization is:
36 Consider the following statements:
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two
1. I. The roots hair are unicellular and arise from the region
different eggs
of maturation
2. Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei II. Terminal buds of stems may get modified to thorns.
3. Fusion of two male gametes with one egg III. Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and are
4. Syngamy and triple fusion arranged in an acropetal order.
Which of the above statements are true?
32 Filiform apparatus is a part of: 1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
synergids at the chalazal end of the female
1. 4. I, II and III
gametophyte
antipodals at the chalazal end of the female
2.
gametophyte
synergids at the micropylar end of the female
3.
gametophyte
antipodals at the micropylar end of the female
4.
gametophyte
Page: 4
37 Read the following statements: 40 Study the diagram given below and find out
A- Annual rings can be distinctly observed in plants incorrect statement related to this
growing in temperate regions
B- In temperate regions, the climatic conditions are not
uniform throughout the year
Choose the correct option:
1. Statement A is correct but statement B is wrong
2. Both the statement A and B are correct and statement
B is the correct explanation of statement A
3. Both the statements A and B are correct but statement
B is not the correct explanation of statement A
4. Both the statements A and B are incorrect
38 Identify the fungi which do not belong to the group

of other fungi among the following
1. Sac-fungi
2. Puffballs
3. Mushrooms
4. Bracket Fungi
39 Root pressure develops due to

1. active absorption
2. low osmotic potential in soil
3. passive absorption 1. It has macrophylls
4. increase in transpiration 2. It is heterosporous
3. Its gametophyte is independent
4. It lacks vascular tissue
41 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): The growth of multicellular organism is
due to mitosis
Reason (R) Mitosis is also called as equational division
and it offers genetic stability
In the light of the above statements choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
1. (A) is correct but (R is not correct
2. (A) is not correct but R is correct
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
42 Find the incorrect statement:

1. Plastids found in plant cells and in euglenoids.
2. Golgi apparatus is site of formation of glycoproteins
and glycolipids.
3. Nucleus during interphase has highly extended and
elaborate nucleoprotein fibers.
4. Centriole Microtubular organization is referred to as
the 9 + 2 and it forms basal body of cilia and flagella.
Page: 5
43 The Floral Diagram represents which one of the 46 Which one of the following is most appropriately
following families? defined -
1. Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is
benefited whereas the other is unaffected
2. Predator is an organism that catches and kills other
organism for food.
3. Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the
body of other organism and may kill it.
4. Host is an organism which provides food to another
organism.
47 What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance

into ovule?
1. it helps in the entry of pollen tube into the synergid
it prevents the entry of more than one pollen tube into
2.
1. Fabaceae the embryo sac
2. Brassicaceae 3. it brings about opening of the pollen tube
3. Solanaceae 4. it guides pollen tube from the synergid to the egg
4. Liliaceae
44 Consider the following statements (A-D) about 48 A : Breaking of seed dormancy by giving cold
organic farming : treatment to seedling in presence of air is vernalisation.
A. Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton B : Vernalisation increases vegetative growth period to
B. Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost bring early flowering.
C. Does not use pesticides and urea 1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
D. Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark(1).
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
1. (A) and (B) only not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark
2. (B), (C) and (D) (2).
3. (C) and (D) only 3. If Assertion is true statement but reason is false, then
4. (B) and (C) only mark (3).
4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statements,
45 Consider the following statements: then mark (4).
I. Nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin
II. The nucleolus is separated from the rest of the 49 Which one of the following structures is haploid in
nucleoplasm by a membrane its ploidy level?
III. The nucleolus is produced from and associated with 1. Primary Endospore Nucleus
a specific nucleolar organizing region of certain 2. Microspore Mother cell
chromosomes 3. Protonemal cell of a moss
IV. The nucleolus is the site of rRNA synthesis. 4. Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I, II, III and IV 50 C4 and CAM plants have many similarities, like
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV 1. Secondary CO2 fixation by Rubisco
4. II, III and IV 2. Scotoactive stomata
3. Primary CO2 fixation by PEPCase in bundle sheath
4. Presence of Kranz anatomy
Page: 6
Zoology - Section A 55 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II

and choose your answer from the codes given below:
51 Select the incorrect statement from the following. Cockroach anatomy Features
1. Poultry includes chicken, ducks and turkeys but not A. Tests a. 6th - 7th abdominal segments
geese. B. Mushroom gland b. 4th - 6th abdominal segments
2. Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl used for food
or for their eggs. C. Ovaries c. 2nd - 6th abdominal segments
3. Selection of disease free and suitable breeds are D. Spermathecae d. 6th abdominal segment
important components of poultry farm management.
4. Bird flu virus drastically affected egg and chicken
A B C D
consumption.
1. c a b d
52 Identify the incorrectly matched pair: 2. c b a d
Medulla 3. b a c d
1. Gastric secretions 4. d b a c
oblongata
2. Hypothalamus Control of body temperature
3. Limbic system Behaviour 56 Different blood groups are due to:
Purely sensory areas in the 1. Specific antigens on the surface of WBCs
4. Association areas 2. Specific antibodies on the surface of RBCs
cerebrum
3. Specific antigens on the surface of RBCs
4. Specific type of haemoglobin in RBCs
53 Consider the following statements:
Biolistics or gene gun can be used to introduce 57 Choose the incorrect statement:
I:
genes in both plant and animal cells. 1. Cyclostomes have an elongated body bearing 6-15
Agrobacterium tumefaciens does not naturally pairs of gill slits for respiration.
II:
infect Monocots. 2. Endoskeleton of sawfish is formed by cartilage.
Liposomes are used in gene therapy for cystic 3. Air bladder in bony fishes regulates buoyancy.
III:
fibrosis. 4. Stinging capsule present in cnidocytes is also called a
Which of the above statements are true? cnidoblast
1. I and II only 2. I and III only
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III 58 Which of the following statements is/are true?
The resting axonal membrane is relatively more
54 How many of the given factors affect the health of a I: permeable to potassium ions and nearly impermeable
person? to sodium ions.
(a) Lifestyle Sodium potassium pump transports 3 Na+ outwards
II:
(b) Infections for 2 K+ into the cell.
(c) Genetic disorders
(d) Social interaction 1. Only I
Select the correct option: 2. Only II
1. Two 3. Both I and II
2. Three
3. One 4. Neither I nor II
4. Four
Page: 7
59 Arrange the following acts in their chronological 64 The given age pyramids labelled by A and B for
sequence in which they were passed in India [earliest to human population represent
latest]:

I: Air [Prevention and Control of Pollution] Act
II: Environment [Protection] Act
III: Water [Prevention and Control of Pollution] Act
1. II, III, I

2. III, I, II 1. (A) Positive population, (B) Stable population
3. II, I, III 2. (A) Stable population, (B) Declining population
4. I, II, III 3. (A) Stable population, (B) Expanding population
4. (A) Growing population, (B) Declining population
60 How many of the following structures given in the
box below are included in renal tubules? 65 The oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve will
Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, PCT, Loop of Henle, show a right shift in case of:
DCT, Collecting duct 1. high pCO2
1. Four 2. high pO2
2. Five 3. low pCO2
3. Three
4. Two 4. less H+ concentration
61 In contrast to Annelids, the Platyhelminths show: 66 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II
1. Absence of body cavity and select the correct match from the codes given below:
2. Presence of pseudocoel Extinct animal Country/continent
3. Radial symmetry A Stellar’s sea cow P Australia
4. Bilateral symmetry B Thylacine Q Russia
C Quagga R Mauritius
62 The depolarization of the axonal membrane is due D Dodo S Africa
to:
1. Influx of sodium ions
A B C D
2. Efflux of sodium ions
3. Influx of potassium ions 1. P Q R S
4. Efflux of the potassium ions 2. Q P S R
3 R S P Q
63 Which of the following statement is true? 4. S R Q P
1. Cardiac output of an athlete is much lower than that
of an ordinary man. 67 Which one of the following most accurately
2. In each minute a single cardiac cycle is performed. describes the structure of a human haemoglobin
3. ECG are of no clinical diagnostic significance. molecule that can bind four oxygen molecules to form
4. Cardiac cycle includes Auricular systole, ventricular oxyhaemoglobin?
systole, and joint diastole/complete diastole. 1. It has a primary, tertiary and quaternary structure only.
2. It has a primary, secondary and tertiary structure only.
3. It has a primary and secondary structure only.
4. It has a primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
structure.
Page: 8
68 Read the following statements and choose the 71 Identify the correct statement:
option which correctly states each statement as true (T)
or false (F). In spermiogenesis, spermatids are formed, while in
(a) In experiments similar to Miler's experiment 1. spermiation, spermatozoa are formed.
scientists observed the formation of sugars, nitrogen Spermatogonia are diploid and primary
bases, pigment, and fats. 2.
spermatocytes are haploid.
(b) Life appeared 500 million years after the formation
Testes descend into the scrotum after birth but before
of the universe. 3.
puberty while ovaries do not descend at all.
(c) Evolutionary biology is the study of the history of
life forms on earth. The Infundibulum of fallopian tube possesses
4. fimbriae while fertilization occurs in the ampulla of
(a) (b) (c)
the fallopian tube.
1. F F T
2. F T T 72 Choose the mismatch from the following:
3. T F T
1. Moist surface of buccal cavity Compound epithelium
4. T T T
2. Biceps Smooth muscles

3. Blood Fluid connective tissue
69 Identify the incorrect statement regarding 4. Bronchioles Ciliated epithelium
thalassemia: MALT (Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
73
There is reduced synthesis of one of the globin constitutes:
1. 1. 25 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body
chains.
2. 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body
2. It is an autosome-linked dominant blood disease.
3. 75 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body
Alpha thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked 4. 90 percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body
3.
genes on chromosome 16.
Beta thalassemia is controlled by a single gene on 74 Select the correct statement:
4.
chromosome 11. 1. Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles.
2. Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric
70 The coxal bone in the human skeleton: pressure during inspiration.
3. Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less
is a part of the pectoral girdle, has a glenoid cavity than intrapulmonary pressure.
1.
that articulates with the head of the femur. 4. Expiration is initiated due to the contraction of the
is a part of the pelvic girdle, has an acetabulum that diaphragm.
2.
articulates with the head of the humerus.
is a part of the pelvic girdle and is formed by the 75 If a female individual is with small round head,
3. furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm
fusion of three bones.
is a part of pectoral girdle and is formed by the fusion with characteristic palm crease. Also the physical,
4. psychomotor and mental development is retarded. The
of three bones.
karyotype analysis of such an individual will show :
1. 47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes
2. 45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes
3. 47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes
4. Trisomy of chromosome 21
76 Which of the following does not play any role in

calcium balance in the human body?
1. Vitamin-D
2. Parathyroid hormone
3. Thyrocalcitonin
4. Thymosin
Page: 9
77 Match List I with List II: 80 Consider the following statements about adaptations
List I List II that help organisms to survive and reproduce in their
A. Homologous I. Convergent evolution habitats:

B. Paralogous II. Speciation
The kangaroo rat can meet all its water requirements
C. Analogous III. Gene duplication I.
through internal fat oxidation.
D. Orthologous IV. Divergent evolution
Many desert plants have a thick cuticle, sunken
Choose the correct answer from the options given II. stomata, and CAM pathway to protect themselves
below: from herbivory.
1. A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
Mammals from colder climates generally have
2. A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
III. shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This is
3. A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
known as Allen’s Rule.
4. A-(III), B-(I), C-(II), D-(IV)
Some species of desert lizards are capable of
78 Which hormone influences water absorption in the IV. burrowing into the soil to hide and escape from the
above-ground heat.
collecting tubules of the kidney?
1. Renin At higher altitudes, the body compensates for low
2. Angiotensin oxygen availability by decreasing red blood cells
V.
3. Aldosterone production, increasing the binding affinity of
4. Vasopressin haemoglobin and by decreasing breathing rate.

79 Consider the two surgical procedures given below 1. Only I, II and V are correct
and choose the correct statement: 2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only I, II and III are correct
4. Only II, IV and V are correct
81 The phylum with exclusively marine animals is:

1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Ctenophora
4. Platyhelminthes
82 Which one of the following statements about

second messengers is correct?
1. A is a more difficult procedure than B. 1. These are secondary metabolites produced by plants
2. The reversibility of A is good but that of B is very in response to an infection.
poor. 2. These are molecules generated during secondary steps
3. A will make the male impotent and B will make the of hormone signaling.
female infertile. 3. These are signaling molecules generated during
4. Both A and B can be called sterilization procedures. secondary infections in animals.
4. These are proteins which help digest the secondary
metabolites from plants.
Page: 10
83 Match List I with List II: 87 Mark the incorrectly matched pair regarding the
List I List II structure with its location and functions:-
A. Wuchererua bancrofti I. Pneumonia Otolith Located in the utriculus and sacculus,
1.
B. Trichophyton rubrum II. Malaria organs and is related to static equilibrium
C. Plasmodium vivax III. Filariasis Located on the basilar membrane and
Organ of
2. contains hair cells that act as auditory
D. Haemophilus influenzae IV. Ringworm Corti
receptors
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Located on the temporal lobe where sight
below: Visual
3. impulses are analyzed and the retinal
1. A - (IV); B - (III); C - (II); D - (I) cortex area
image is recognised.
2. A - (III); B - (IV); C - (II); D - (I)
3. A - (III); B - (II); C - (IV); D - (I) Located in the middle ear cavity and
Ear
4. A - (IV); B - (III); C - (I); D - (II) 4. increase the efficiency of transmission of
ossicles
sound waves to the inner ear.
84 Match items in column-I with those in column-II
and choose the correct option: 88 Which of the following scientist is responsible for
Column -I Column-II the synthesis of protein in a cell-free system?
1. Har Gobind Khorana
a. Saheli (i) Used only in females
2. Marshall Nirenberg
b. Norplant (ii) Hormone-releasing IUD 3. Severo Ochoa
c. Condom (iii) Non-steroidal oral pills 4. Frederic Sanger
d. Progestasert (iv) Used by both males and females
89 Which cell of the sperm lineage undergoes the
1. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) reduction division during spermatogenesis?
2. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 1. Spermatogonium
3. a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) 2. Primary spermatocyte
4. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 3. Secondary spermatocyte
4. Spermatid
85 Which of the following endocrine glands is under
the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus? 90 Match each item in Column I with one item in
1. Pineal Column II and choose your answer from the codes given
2. Thymus below :
3. Posterior pitutary Column I Column II
4. Adrenal medulla Original establishment of
I. Influx of sodium 1.
RMP
Zoology - Section B II.
Efflux of
2. Repolarization
potassium
86 Consider the given statements carefully. III. Na+/K+ pump 3. Depolarization
(a) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of
nitrogenous wastes and osmoregulation in Periplaneta. IV. Ca++ 4. Plateau in cardiac muscles
(b) Flame cells are the excretory structure in Planaria as
well as rotifers. Codes :
(c) Each kidney of an adult human measures 0.1 to 0.12 I II III IV
meters in width. 1. 3 2 4 1
(d) Kidneys are situated between the level of the last 2. 2 1 4 3
thoracic and fourth lumbar vertebra.
3. 2 1 3 4
Select the option with correct statements only:
1. (a), (b), (c), and (d) 4. 3 2 1 4
2. (a) and (b)
3. (a), (c), and (d)
4. (a), (b), and (c)
Page: 11
91 After blood flow is artificially reduced at one 95 Which of the following is not correct for “Snips”?
kidney, you would expect that kidney to secrete more of 1. There are 1.4 million locations in human genome.
the hormone known as: 2. Where single base differences occur.
1. erythropoietin 3. They shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics
2. angiotensinogen and evolution.
3. renin 4. It promises to revolutionise the processes of finding
4. antidiuretic hormone chromosomal locations for disease associated
sequences.
92 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
1. Microvilli increase the surface area of the small 96 Normal activities of the human heart are regulated:
intestine for the absorption of nutrients. 1. Intrinsically
2. Enzymes located on the brush border finish the 2. By the autonomic nervous system
digestion of chyme. 3. By the brain stem
3. Absorption is an active process in the small intestine. 4. By the diencephalon
4. Sugars and amino acids cross columnar epithelial cells
to enter the lacteal. 97 Which of the following drugs are not misused by
sportspersons?
93 Assertion: Bell shape age pyramid confirms a stable 1. Narcotic analgesics
population. 2. Anabolic steroids
Reason: The proportion of individuals in reproductive 3. Diacetylmorphine
age-group is greater than the individuals in pre- 4. Diuretics
reproductive age-group.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is 98 The testes descend into the scrotum during foetal
the correct explanation of the assertion life. Undescended testes are associated with reduced
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is
fertility. Which of the following, if true, will explain
not the correct explanation of the assertion normal fertility in descended testes?
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false About 80% of undescended testes descend by the first
1.
year of life.
94 Choose the correct option for the given below Most such cases are actually anorchia – an absence of
figures. 2.
testes.
The temperature of the testes in the scrotum is at least
3.
a few degrees cooler than in the abdomen.
There is a high rate of anomalies of the epididymis in
4.
boys with undescended testes.
99 Which of the following is required for the breaking

of cross-bridge during muscle contraction?
1. ATP and Ca++
1. Peritrichous bacteria 2. ADP and Ca++
2. They do not contain both RNA and DNA 3. Only Ca++
3. Presence of non-cellulosic cell wall 4. ATP only
4. Presence of cyclosis
Page: 12
100 Consider the two statements: 102 Consider the reaction,

I. Gastric juice in human adults does not contain rennin.
II. Human adults cannot digest milk protein.
1. Both I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Chemistry - Section A Major product is:

101 Which of the following is the strongest acid?
1. 2. 1. 2.
3. 4.
3. 4.
103 In the structure of Co2(CO)8, X is the number of

Co-Co bonds and Y is the number of Co-CO terminal
bonds. The value of X +Y is-
1. 8
2. 6
3. 10
4. 7
104 The half-life for the first-order decomposition of

compound 'X' is 126 minutes, the hours required for
90% decomposition of 'X' is:
1. 6.97
2. 69.7
3. 418
4. 41.8
Page: 13
105 The product(s) formed from the following reaction 109 Which one of the following is NOT an example of
is/are heterogeneous equilibrium?

Equilibrium between water vapour and liquid water
1.
in a closed container
Equilibrium attained during acid catalysed hydrolysis
2.
1. RCOOH only of ethyl acetate
2. RCH2COOH only Equilibrium between solid Ca(OH)2 and its saturated
3.
solution
3. Equilibrium attained on heating solid CaCO3 in a
4.
closed container
4. RCOOH and RCH2COOH
110 For a given cell in which 0.1 molar solution has
resistance and
20 Ω molar conductivity
106 In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system 0.154 × 10 −3
mol .
S cm
2 −1
and 394 J of work is done by the system. What is the The value of the cell constant is :
change in internal energy for the process? 1. 3.08 × 10 cm −7 −1
1. 307 J
2. 30.8 × 10 cm −7 −1
2. 1095 J
3. 0.308 × 10 cm −9 −1
3. –307 J
4. –1095 J 4. 4.08 × 10 cm −6 −1
The correct IUPAC name of Ethylidenechloride is:

107 Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of α-D- 111
glucose having: 1. 1,2-Dichloroethane
2. 1,1-Dichloroethane
3. 1,2-Dichloroethene
1. C1-C4 and C1-C2 glycosidic linkage only.
4. 1,1-Dichloroethene
2. C1-C6 glycosidic linkage only.
3. C1-C4 and C1-C6 glycosidic linkage only. 112
4. C1-C2 and C1-C6 glycosidic linkage only. Decrease in free energy causes a
Assertion (A):
spontaneous reaction.
108 Match the compounds with their uses/properties. Spontaneous reactions are invariably
Reason (R):
exothermic reactions.
Column I Column II
Na2CO3 · Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(A) (P) deliquescent 1.
10H2O explanation of (A).
Used for preparing a freezing Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(B) CaCl2 (Q) 2.
mixture explanation of (A).
anhydrous 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
(C) CaSO (R) Washing soda 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
4
(D) NaCl (S) Dead burnt plaster
113 If radius of second Bohr orbit of the H e ion is
+

Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li 2+
ion?
1. Q P S R
1. 158.7 Å
2. R P S Q 2. 158.7 pm
3. P Q S R 3. 15.87 pm
4. R S Q P 4. 1.587 pm
Page: 14
114 The bond X is made by the overlap of which type 117 Match List I with List II
of hybridized orbitals? List I List II
Structural Formula Name
A.
I. Catechol
1. sp and sp3 B.

2. sp and sp2
3. sp2 and sp3
4. none of these
II. Resorcinol
115 Identify Z in the following reaction sequence
C.
1. CH COOH 3
2. CH M gl 3
3. CH COCl 3
III. Hydroquinone
4. ClCH COOH 2
116 Consider the following reactions:

D.
MnO
−
4
+ e
−
→ MnO
2−
4
;E
∘
= +0.56 V

−
F2 + 2e
−
→ 2 F ;E
∘
= +2.87 V
IV. o-Cresol
Co
3+
+ e
−
→ Co
2+
;E
∘
= +1.81 V
= −0.26 V
3+ − 2+ ∘
V + e → V ;E
Select the correct option for increasing the order of

reducing power: Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. V < MnO < Co < F
2+ 2−
4
below:
2+ −
2. MnO < V < Co < F

2− 2+ 1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
2+ −
4
2. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3. F < Co < MnO < V
− 2+ 2−
4
2+
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

4. Co < F < MnO < V
2+ − 2−
4
2+
4. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Page: 15
118 122 For the reaction:

[Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 on heating, removes Fe3O4 (s) + Al (s) → Fe (s) + Al2O3 (s)
Assertion (A):
water molecule and becomes colorless. The correct statement(s) in the equation is(are):
In the absence of ligand, crystal field a. Stoichiometric coefficient of Fe is 9.
splitting does not occur and hence the b. Aluminium is oxidized
Reason (R):
substance is colorless. c. Ferrous ferric oxide (Fe3O4) is oxidize

Aluminium is reduced.
d.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
1. a, c
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 2. a, b
2.
explanation of (A). 3. b, c
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 4. c, d
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
123 The element used for welding metals with high
melting points is:
119 Match List-I with List-II : 1. Cl2
List-I List-II 2. H2
(Molecules) (Shape) 3. Ne
(a) NH3 (i) Square pyramidal 4. He
(b) ClF3 (ii) Trigonal bipyramidal
124 The most reactive among the following is-
(c) PCl5 (iii) Trigonal pyramidal 1. Cl 2
(d) BrF5 (iv) T-shape 2. Br 2
Choose the correct answer from the options given 3. I 2
below: 4. ICI
(a) (b) (c) (d)
125 The haloalkane that has the least reactivity with
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
aqueous KOH is:
2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 1. 2.
120 The boiling point (in °C) of 0.1 molal aqueous of

CuSO4·5H2O at 1 bar is closest to: 3. 4.
[Given: Ebullioscopic (molal boiling point elevation)
constant of water, kb=0.512 K Kg mol-1]
1. 100.36
2. 99.64
3. 100.10
3. 99.90
121 Compound that is used for the production of UF6

in the enrichment of 235U is:
1. ICl3
2. BrF5
3. ClF5
4. ClF3
Page: 16
126 Incorrect statements among the following are: 131 Match the following graphs of an ideal gas with
their coordinates.
A. BeSO4 and MgSO4 are insoluble in water. Graphical representation X and Y coordinates
B. Magnesium is the central metal atom in chlorophyll. A.
C. Pb4+ acts as an oxidizing agent.
1. pV vs V
The study of only emission, not absorption spectra is
D.
referred to as spectroscopy.
E. Diborane is prepared by treating BF3 with LiAlH4
B.
below: 2. p vs V
1. B and E only
2. B, C and E only
3. A and D only C.
4. B and D only
3. p vs
1
127 In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KM nO 4

V
oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation

state of manganese in this reaction is from
Codes
1. +6 to +5
A B C
2. +7 to +4
1. 2 3 1
3. +6 to +4
2. 1 2 3
4. +7 to +3
3. 3 2 1
21 4. 1 3 1
128 From 440 mg of CO2, 10 molecules are
removed. The moles of CO2 remaining is 132 The first ionization potential of Mg, Al, P, and S
1. 8.34 X 10-3 follows the order of:
2. 0.88 x 10-3 1. Mg < Al < P < S
3. 8. 45 X 10-2 2. Al < Mg < P < S
3. Al < Mg < S < P
4. 8.81 X 103 4. Mg < Al < S < P
129 The most paramagnetic species is: 133 A mixture of 1 mol of benzene and 1 mol of
1. O+
2 nitrobenzene is reacted with 1 mol of acetyl chloride in

2. C2 the presence of AlCl3. The major product(s) is/are:
3. B2
1. acetophenone
4. N2
2. 3-nitroacetophenone
3. 1:1 mixture of acetophenone and 3-nitroacetophenone
130 The most stable carbanion is 4. 1,3-diacetyl benzene
1. 2. 134 The solubility product of BaSO in water is

4
1.5 × 10 . The molar solubility of BaSO in 0.1 M

−9
4
solution of Ba(NO3)2 in-
3. 4. 1. 2.0 × 10 −8
M
2. 0.5 × 10 −8
M
3. 1.5 × 10 −8
M
4. 1.0 × 10 −8
M
Page: 17
135 Ozone depletion over Antarctica is due to the 139 Consider the following reaction sequence,
1. Formation of chlorine nitrate(ClONO2)
2. Formation of HCl
Formation of HOCl and Cl2, which is converted back
3.
into reactive Cl atoms Incorrect statement about B is:
4. None of the above 1. Degree of unsaturation is 5
2. It reduces Tollens’ reagent
3 It forms CHI3 on reaction with I2/NaOH
Chemistry - Section B 4. It forms ketal on reaction with excess methanol in
presence of dry HCl gas
136 The violet colored complex formed in the
Lassaigne test is: 140 A sol of hydrated ferric oxide is prepared by
1. Na4[Fe(CN)6NOS] adding F eCl to an excess of hot water is:
3
2. Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
3. K4[Fe(CN)6] Positively charged due to the adsorption of H
+
1.
4. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 ions.
Negatively charged due to the adsorption of OH
−
2.
137 Match the polymers in Column I with their ions.
examples given in Column II: Positively charged due to the adsorption of F e
3+
3.
ions.
Column I Column II Positively charged due to the adsorption of F e
2+
4.
A. Elastomer I. Bakelite ions.
B. Fibres II. Buna -S
141 Analgesics are used to treat
C. Thermoplastic polymers III. Polystyrene
1. vomiting in pregnancy
D. Thermosetting polymers IV. Nylon-6,6
2. pain in sports injuries
3. rash on body due to allergies
Choose the correct answer from the options given 4. fever in typhoid infection
below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 142 The rate constant of a reaction is 3 x 10-3 mol-2
2. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II,
3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III L2s-1. Hence, the order is
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 1. 1
2. Zero
138 The incorrect statement regarding ammonia is: 3. 2
4. 3
1. Ammonia is a colorless gas with a pungent odor.
2. Ammonia is used for the manufacture of nitric acid.
As a weak base, it precipitates the hydroxides of
3.
many metals from their salt solutions.
The ammonia molecule is trigonal planar with the
4.
nitrogen atom at the apex.
Page: 18
143 Match List-I with List-II : 146 The vapor pressure of benzene and toluene at 298
List-I List-II K are 76 and 22 mm Hg. An ideal solution is formed by
(Defects) (shown by) mixing 23.4 g of benzene and 64.4 g of toluene. The
(a) Frenkel (i) non-ionic solids and density of mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase is:
defect the solid decreases.
1. 0.70
(b) Schottky (ii) non-ionic solids and density of
2. 0.60
defect the solid increases.
3. 0.50
(c) Vacancy (iii) ionic solids and density of the solid 4. 0.40
defect decreases.
(d) Interstitial (iv) ionic solids and the density of the 147 Identify the major product 'C' in a given reaction
defect solid remains constant. sequence
below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1. But-2-ene
2. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 2. But-1-ene
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 3. Pent-2-ene
4. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 4. Isobutene
144 148 To make a solution of pH = 12, the amount of

NaOH dissolved in one litre of the solution should be:
Limestone is added as a flux to oxidize Si 1. 0.1 g
Statement
and P in the blast furnace for the extraction 2. 0.2 g
I:
of iron. 3. 0.4 g
The given below reaction is a step in the 4. 1.2 g
Statement extraction of iron that occurs at a high
II: temperature (900-1500K) in a blast furnace. 149 SnCl2 dissolves in a solution containing Cl- ions to
3Fe2 O3 + CO ⟶ 2Fe3 O4 + CO2
form [SnCl3]-. What would be the geometry(shape) of

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. [SnCl3]- ?
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 1. Trigonal planar
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 2. T-shaped
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 3. Trigonal pyramidal
4. Tetrahedral
145 The strongest oxidizing agent among the following
150 Which one of the following statements is
is:
incorrect?
1. Ti3+
Greater the stability constant of a complex greater its
2. Cr3+ 1.
stability.
3. Fe3+ Hardness of water is estimated by simple titration
4. Mn3+ 2. with Na EDTA
2
The metal-carbon bond in metal carbonyls possesses
3.
both σ and π characters.
Chelate complexes have low stability than similar
4.
complexes containing unidentate ligands.
Page: 19
Physics - Section A 154 During the propagation of the electromagnetic

wave in a medium:
151 Given below are two statements:
electric energy density is double the magnetic energy
Davisson-Germer's experiment 1.
Statement I: density.
establishes the wave nature of electrons.
electric energy density is half the magnetic energy
If electrons have a wave nature, they can 2.
Statement II: density.
interfere and show diffraction.
electric energy density is equal to magnetic energy
3.
density.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
the electric energy density & magnetic energy density
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 4.
are not related to each other.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. 155 An object of mass 50 g just floats in a liquid of
density 2.5 g/ml. When the object is placed in a liquid of
152 In double slit experiment using light of wavelength density 2.0 g/ml, it sinks to the bottom of the container.
628 nm, the angular width of a fringe formed on the What is the force that the object exerts on the bottom of
screen is 0.1 . The separation between the slits will be:
∘
the container? (g = 10 m/s2 = 10 N/kg)

(π = 3.14 ) 1. 0.1 N
1. 3.6 × 10 m
−5
2. 0.4 N
2. 3.6 × 10 m
−4
3. 10 N
3. 3.6 × 10 cm
−5
4. 40 N
4. 3.6 × 10 cm
−4
156 A neutral spherical copper particle has a radius of

153 The string and pulley are ideal and there is no 10 nm (1 nm = 10 m). It gets charged by applying the
−9
friction anywhere. If the block A is moving down at voltage slowly adding one electron at a time. Then the
2 m/s with the string taut, the rate at which work is done graph of the total charge on the particle vs the applied
on the 2 kg block B is: voltage would look like:

1. 2.
3. 4.
1. 80 W
2. 40 W
3. 20 W
4. 0 W
Page: 20
157 A reversible engine converts one-sixth of the heat 161 The universal property of all substances is:
input into work. When the temperature of the sink is 1. diamagnetism only
reduced by 62 C, the efficiency of the engine is
∘
2. ferromagnetism only
doubled. The temperatures of the source and sink are:
3. paramagnetism only
1. 90 C, 37 C
∘ ∘
2. 99 C, 37 C
∘ ∘ 4. both paramagnetism and diamagnetism
3. 80 C, 37 C
∘ ∘
4. 95 C, 37 C
∘ ∘
162 A source vibrating at 1.80 kHz moves with a speed
of 33 m/s towards a fixed observer, the speed of sound
158 A cylinder rolls up an inclined plane, reaches some in air being 330 m/s. The frequency of sound received
height, and then rolls down (without slipping throughout by the observer is:
these motions). The directions of the frictional force 1. 1.90 kHz
acting on the cylinder are: 2. 1.62 kHz
up the incline while ascending and down the incline 3. 2.00 kHz
1. 4. 1.60 kHz
while descending.
2. up the incline while ascending as well as descending.
163 The radius of the innermost electron orbit in
down the incline while ascending and up the incline
3. hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10 −11
m. What is the radius of
while descending.
the third orbit?
down the incline while ascending as well as
4. 1. 11.3 × 10 m
−11
descending.
2. 12.9 × 10 m
−11
159 A glass slab of refractive index 1.47 disappears in 3. 15.9 × 10 m

−11
4. 47.7 × 10 −11
m
a trough of liquid. The refractive index of the liquid will
be:
164 A flask contains argon and oxygen in the ratio of
1. 1.47/√2
3 : 2 in mass and the mixture is kept at 27 C. The ratio
∘
2. 1.47√2 of their average kinetic energy per molecule respectively

3. 1.47 will be:
4. 1.0 1. 3 : 2
2. 9 : 4
160 A straight horizontal wire AB of length l falls from 3. 2 : 3
rest under gravity. A uniform horizontal magnetic field 4. 1 : 1
B acts perpendicular to the plane of motion of AB, as
shown. The induced EMF across AB, E, is proportional 165 If the volume of an ideal gas is doubled,
to: isothermally, the final pressure is 1 atm. If the process
were adiabatic, the pressure would have been:
1. 1 atm
2. 0.5 atm
3. less than 1 atm
4. greater than 1 atm
166 A pair of stars has angular separation of (one

′
1
minute of arc) from earth. It is viewed with a telescope

whose objective has focal length of 100 cm and an
1. B eyepiece a focal length of 1 cm. The stars will appear
2. l with angular separation of:
3. time, t 1. 1.67 ∘
4. all of the above 2. 1.87 ∘
3. 1.99 ∘
4. 2.41 ∘
Page: 21
167 The output of the circuit given in the diagram is: 172 A spring having a spring constant of 1200 N-m-1 is
mounted on a horizontal table. A mass of 3 kg is
attached to the free and of the spring. The mass is then
pulled sideways to a distance of 2 cm and released. The
maximum speed of the mass is:

1. A AND B
2. A OR B
3. A
4. B
168 The angle of a prism is θ. If the angle of minimum 1. 0.8 ms-1

deviation is D = (π − 2θ), then the refractive index of
m 2. 0.4 ms-1
the prism may be written as: 3. 0.2 ms-1
1. μ = tan(θ/2) 4. 1.2 ms-1
2. μ = tan(θ)
3. μ = cot(θ) 173 Two point charges A and B of same charge having
4. μ = cot(θ/2) magnitude of momentum P and P respectively are
1 2
moving in a plane containing a uniform magnetic field

169 A constant force F→ given, F→ = 2î − ^j + 5k^ N perpendicular to the plane. Then:
acts on a body to move it along the x-axis. The work
done by the force to move it by 2 m along the x-axis will
be:
1. 12 J
2. 16 J
3. 0 J
4. 4 J
170 The capacitance of a system of concentric

conducting spherical shells is 2 μF. If the radii of both
the shells are doubled, then the capacitance of the
system will be:
1. 8 μF 1. P > P
1 2
2. 4 μF 2. P < P

1 2
3. 1 μF 3. P = P
1 2
4. 0.5 μF 4. none of these
171 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10 Hz

14
is produced by a laser. The energy of a photon of the

light beam will be: (Take h = 6.63 × 10 J-s)
−34
1. 3.98 × 10 J
−16
2. 3.98 × 10 J
−17
3. 3.98 × 10 J
−18
4. 3.98 × 10 −19
J
Page: 22
174 The potential difference between points A and B ( 178 Consider a soap film on a square frame of wire of
VB − VA ) in the figure ( if R = 0.7 Ω ) is: area (5 × 5) cm2 . If the area of soap film is increased to

(6 × 6) cm2 . The work done in the process will be:
(The surface tension of the soap film is 4 × 10
−2
N-m–
1)
1. 22 × 10 −6
J
2. 44 × 10 −6
J
3. 88 × 10 −6
J
1. 3 V
2. 15 V 4. 172 × 10 −6
J
3. −5.1 V
4. 5.1 V 179 A capacitor is in series with a resistor of 30 Ω and
is connected to a 220 V ac line. The reactance of this
175 Two spheres A and
of same material having capacitor is 30 Ω. What is the phase angle between the
B
radius 8 cm and 4 cm are maintained at temperature current and the supply voltage?
127 C and 527 C respectively. The ratio of energy
∘ ∘ 1. −30 ∘
radiated by A and B is: 2. −45 ∘
1. 1 : 4 3. −60 ∘
2. 3 : 1 4. 90 ∘
3. 1 : 2
4. 6 : 1 180 Three protons each of mass m and charge e are
held at rest at the corner of an equilateral triangle of side
176 The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to a. The electrostatic potential energy of the system will
that in helium gas, at 300 K is: be: (where k = )

1
4πε0
1. √2/7 2
1.
ke
2. √1/7 ε0 a
2
2.
3ke
3. √3/5 a
2
3.
3ke
4. √6/5 a
2
4.
ke
177 The depletion width of a p − n junction depends a

2
on which of the following parameters given below?

181 If the length of a wire is made double and the
a. temperature
radius is halved of its respective values. Then, Young’s
b. type of semiconductor material modulus of the material of the wire will:
c. doping concentration
d. biasing of junction 1. remains the same.
2. become 8 times its initial value.
1. (a), (b), (c)
3. become th of its initial value.
1
2. (b), (c), (d) 4
4. become 4 times its initial value.

3. (a), (c), (d)
4. (a), (b), (c), (d)
Page: 23
182 Two masses m and m are hanging on the sides

1 2
Physics - Section B
of smooth and light pulley. The system is released to
move. If m > m then acceleration of the centre of
1 2
186 Given below are two statements:
mass of the system constituted by m and m is:
1 2
The acceleration of a body down a
Assertion (A): rough inclined plane is greater than the
acceleration due to gravity.
The body is able to slide on an inclined
plane only when its acceleration is
Reason (R):
greater than the acceleration due to
gravity.

1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
m1 −m2
1. ( m1 +m2
)g 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
m1 −m2
2
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
2. ( m1 +m2
) g
3. g 187 Expression for the average radius of a nucleus and

4. zero hence the radius of a given hypothetical nucleus 64
X
27
will respectively be: [Given that R = 1.1 fm]

183 The electrical circuit used to get smooth dc output 1
0
1. R = R A , 8.8 fm 2
from a rectifier circuit is called: 0

1
1. logic gate 2. R = R A , 4.4 fm

0
3
2. amplifier
1
3.R = R A , 3.3 fm
0
3
3. filter 1
4. oscillator 4. R = R A , 2.2 fm

0
6
An object is thrown vertically upwards with

184 A flywheel, rotating about its axis, has moment of 188
inertia 0.16 kg-m2. Its angular momentum decreases velocity of 60 ms-1. After time of 7 s, its height above
ground is:
from 3.2 kg- m2/s to 0.8 kg-m2/s in 1.2 s. The average
torque acting on the flywheel is: (Take g = 10 ms-2)
1. 2 N-m 1. 245 m
2. 3.2 N-m 2. 175 m
3. 1.6 N-m 3. 305 m
4. 0.5 N-m 4. 60 m
→
185 A ring of mass of 10 kg and diameter of 0.4 m is 189 When a periodic force F acts on a particle,
1
rotated about its axis. If it makes 2100 revolutions per the particle oscillates according to the equation
x = A sin ωt. Under the effect of another periodic force
minute, then its angular momentum will be:
→
F , the particle oscillates according to the equation
1. 44 kg m s
2 −1
2
). The amplitude of oscillation when

π
2 −1 y = B sin(ωt +
2. 88 kg m s 2
→ →
the force (F + F ) acts are:
3. 4.4 kg m s
2 −1
1 2
1. A + B
4. 0.4 kg m s
2 −1
2. √A 2
+ B
2
√A2 +B2
3.
2
4. √AB
Page: 24
190 Given below are two statements: 192 A long straight wire of radius R carries a
The trajectory of the projectile is uniformly distributed current i. The variation of
Assertion (A): magnetic field B from the axis of the wire is correctly
quadratic in y and linear in x.
y component of trajectory is
presented by the graph?
Reason (R):
independent of x-component

1. 1. 2.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
191 Four identical bulbs A, B, C and D are connected 3. 4.

in a circuit as shown in the figure. Now whenever any
bulb fails, then it cannot conduct current through it.
Then which of the following statements is/are true?

193 An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. Now a force of
→ 2^ ^
F = 6t i + 4t j is applied on the object then the
velocity of an object at t = 3 s is:
1. 18î + 3^j
2. 18î + 6^j
3. 3î + 18^j
4. 18î + 4^j
194 Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform

i. brightness of bulb C is highest. density, its acceleration due to gravity acting on a body:
ii. if A fails, B will not glow. 1. increases with increasing altitude.
iii. if C fails, brightness of bulb D increases. 2. increases with increasing depth.
3. is independent of the mass of the earth.
1. (i) only 4. is independent of the mass of the body.
2. (ii) only
3. (i) and (ii) only
4. (ii) and (iii) only
Page: 25
195 A gravitational field is present in a region and a 197 A boat crosses a river that has straight, parallel
mass is shifted from A to B through different paths as sides. In still water, the boat has a maximum speed of
shown. If W , W and W represent the work done by 4.0 m/s at maximum power. The boat is aimed at a point
1 2 3
the gravitational force along their respective paths, then: directly across the river from its starting point. The river
flows at a constant speed of 3.0 m/s parallel to its
sides. What is the speed of the boat as measured by a
person stationary on the bank, and what is the angle at
which the boat travels, measured from a line at 90 to ∘
the bank?
(The boat travels at maximum power throughout its
journey.)

1. speed of boat = 5.0 m/s ; angle = cos −1 4.0
( )
5.0
1. W 1 = W2 = W3 2. speed of boat = 7.0 m/s ; angle = cos −1

(
3.0
7.0
)
2. W 1 > W2 > W3
3. speed of boat = 7.0 m/s ; angle = cos

4.0
3. W 1 > W3 > W2
−1
(
7.0
)
4. W 1 < W2 < W3

4. speed of boat = 5.0 m/s ; angle = cos −1 3.0
( )
5.0
196 Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II 198 The ratio of coulomb's electrostatic force to the
A. torque I. N-m s-1 gravitational force between an electron and a proton
separated by some distance is 2.4 × 10 . The ratio of
39
B. stress II. J-kg-1

the proportionality constant, K = to the
1
C. latent Heat III. N-m 4πε0
gravitational constant G is nearly:

D. power IV. N-m-2 (Given that the charge of the proton and electron
each = 1.6 × 10 , the mass
−19
of the
electron = 9.11 × 10 kg, the mass of the
−31
below:
proton = 1.67 × 10 kg): −27
1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

1. 10 20
2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

2. 10 30
3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

3. 10 40
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 4. 10
199 The dynamic resistance of a diode is given by

R =
i(mA)
26
Ω, where i is the diode current.
If the current through the diode increases,
Statement I:
then the dynamic resistance decreases.
If the temperature of the diode is
Statement II: increased, with the potential difference
fixed, the dynamic resistance decreases.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
Page: 26
200 Working of the induction furnace is based on the

principle of:
1. heating effect of current
2. eddy's current effect
3. mutual induction
4. self-induction
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NEET Level Test (02-Apr-23) Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Botany - Section A 4 Consider the following statement (a-d) each with

5 Mark the incorrect match

18 Mark the Incorrect statement 22 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

38 Identify the fungi which do not belong to the group

39 Root pressure develops due to

41 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as

42 Find the incorrect statement:

47 What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance

Zoology - Section A 55 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II

1. II, III, I

76 Which of the following does not play any role in

81 The phylum with exclusively marine animals is:

82 Which one of the following statements about

99 Which of the following is required for the breaking

100 Consider the two statements: 102 Consider the reaction,

Chemistry - Section A Major product is:

103 In the structure of Co2(CO)8, X is the number of

104 The half-life for the first-order decomposition of

The correct IUPAC name of Ethylidenechloride is:

1. sp and sp3 B.

116 Consider the following reactions:

Select the correct option for increasing the order of

2. MnO < V < Co < F

3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

118 122 For the reaction:

(d) BrF5 (iv) T-shape 2. Br 2

Choose the correct answer from the options given 3. I 2

120 The boiling point (in °C) of 0.1 molal aqueous of

121 Compound that is used for the production of UF6

127 In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KM nO 4

oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation

2 nitrobenzene is reacted with 1 mol of acetyl chloride in

1. 2. 134 The solubility product of BaSO in water is

1.5 × 10 . The molar solubility of BaSO in 0.1 M

144 148 To make a solution of pH = 12, the amount of

form [SnCl3]-. What would be the geometry(shape) of

Physics - Section A 154 During the propagation of the electromagnetic

the container? (g = 10 m/s2 = 10 N/kg)

156 A neutral spherical copper particle has a radius of

159 A glass slab of refractive index 1.47 disappears in 3. 15.9 × 10 m

2. 1.47√2 of their average kinetic energy per molecule respectively

166 A pair of stars has angular separation of (one

minute of arc) from earth. It is viewed with a telescope

4. all of the above 2. 1.87 ∘

168 The angle of a prism is θ. If the angle of minimum 1. 0.8 ms-1

moving in a plane containing a uniform magnetic field

170 The capacitance of a system of concentric

2. 4 μF 2. P < P

4. 0.5 μF 4. none of these

171 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10 Hz

is produced by a laser. The energy of a photon of the

radiated by A and B is: 2. −45 ∘

that in helium gas, at 300 K is: be: (where k = )

177 The depletion width of a p − n junction depends a

on which of the following parameters given below?

2. (b), (c), (d) 4

4. become 4 times its initial value.

182 Two masses m and m are hanging on the sides

3. g 187 Expression for the average radius of a nucleus and