30/07/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 23 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Answer Key
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (2)
2. (3) 38. (3) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (4) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (1) 114. (4) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (1) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (2) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (3) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (1) 155. (1)
12. (3) 48. (4) 84. (4) 120. (4) 156. (3)
13. (4) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (2) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (1) 124. (3) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (1)
19. (4) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (1)
20. (2) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (2)
21. (3) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (2) 130. (4) 166. (3)
23. (1) 59. (4) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (1) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (4) 97. (1) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (4) 63. (2) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (4) 136. (2) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (4)
30. (3) 66. (4) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (3)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (2) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (4) 178. (1)
35. (1) 71. (2) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (2)

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Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
30/07/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test – 23 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (3) So T1 =T2 and u2 > u1
Surface area of cube = 6L2 = A 4. Answer (1)
1 Component of weight along the plane pulls the
Volume of cube = L3 = V ∴ L =V 3 block down.

=6 × (V )
1 2 2 This component = mgsinθ = 10 × g × sin37°
2
A =6 × L 3 =6V 3 ,
3
∆V = 100 × = 60 N
Given × 100 =
6% 5
V
Tension in string due to hanging block = T = 40 N
By error analysis
So tension is not balancing weight component.
∆A 2 ∆V
= ⋅ Friction force will act up preventing its motion
A 3 V down. Max. friction force which can act
∆A 2  ∆V  2 = µmgcos37°
∴ × 100 = ×  × 100  = × 6 = 4%
A 3  V  3
4
2. Answer (3) = 0.7 × 10 × 10 × = 56 N
5
Initially accelerated motion so velocity of object To balance the block a part of max. friction (state)
increases with time, so slope of s-t graph will
friction of 20 N will act upwards.
increase with time, it is upward parabola. Now as
retardation starts velocity is positive but 5. Answer (2)
decreasing with time. As velocity decreases slope
of, s-t graph will also decrease from time to time
till slope is zero, when object is at rest, so graph
is (3).
3. Answer (2)
Both objects are achieving same vertical heights,
so both have equal vertical components of
velocities. Also both will have equal time of flights
 2u sinθ  From diagram 2F = T
T = g  . As horizontal range of second
  T is pulling the weight upwards slowly. Work done
projectile is more it will have more horizontal by T in lifting weight through height h is
component of velocity although flight time is
same. W = force × displacement = T × h = 2 F × h = 2Fh

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
6. Answer (1) 9. Answer (3)
P=F⋅V R12 R22
I1ω1 = I2ω2 ⇒ = ∴ T2 = 6 hour
dv T1 T2
=
P mv ⋅
dt
10. Answer (1)
Pdt = mvdv

∫ Pdt = ∫ mvdv
mv 2
Pt =
2
v2 ∝ t
In terms of position
P = F ⋅ V = mav
dv 4S
=
P mv ⋅ v P1 – P0 =
dx 2R
2 4S
∫ Pdx = ∫ mv dv P2 – P1 =
R
mv 3
Px = 6S
3 ∴ P2 =
R
3Px
∴ v3 = 11. Answer (3)
m
K1T1 + K 2T2 + K 3T3
1 2 2 = Tj = 45º C
 2 K1 + K 2 + K 3
1 2 1  3Px  3  1  3P  3
KE =
= mv m  =  m   × x 3
2 2  m   2  m  12. Answer (3)
2 w = ∫ pdv
∴ KE ∝ x 3
7. Answer (3) pV −T0V −RT0 3RT0
= + 3T0 ∴ p
= +
R V0 V0 V
1  m1m2  2
=
Loss of KE urel (1 − e 2 )
2  m1 + m2  ∴ w = RT0 (3 ln 2 –1)
13. Answer (4)
1 m 3 27 mv 2
=× (9v 2 ) = T2
2 2 4 16 η = 1−
T1
8. Answer (1)
0.8 T2 2
1  K2  1.2 η = 1 − = 1 − (1 − η) ⇒ η = 62.5%
KE of rolling
= body mv 2  1 + 2  1.2 T1 3
2  R 
14. Answer (1)
1 1  K2 
Rotational KE= × I × ω2= mv 2  2  Lower block will move together when force acting
2 2 R  on it is less than or equal to maximum limiting
 K2  friction. Otherwise it will start slipping
 2 Friction of lower block fL = µm1g
(KE)Rot R  1
= =
(KE)Roll K2 2
1+ 2
R
K2
∴ =1
R2
∴ m2a ≤ µm1g a =ω2 × A
K=R
m2 × ω2A = µm1g Where A = max.
It is circular ring.
amplitude.

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Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

µm1g 2π 18. Answer (2)

A= 2
and ω =
m2ω T Along the direction of electric field, electric
potential falls. At points C and D potential is same
µm1gT 2 because line joining CD is ⊥ to electric field VC =
A=
m2 × 4π2 VD. Similarly line joining B to A is perpendicular to
electric field. Both are equipotential points.
15. Answer (1)
VB = VA
x = Acosωt
Particle starts from extreme position So, VB = VA but is greater than (VC = VD )
19. Answer (4)
Redrawn circuit

at t = 0, x0 = A
π
at time t =
6ω
C 4C
Ce = +C =
3 3
 π  20. Answer (2)
Position of particle = x= A cos  ω × 
 6ω  To calculate energy, pot. difference across
capacitor in steady state is calculated.
π 3A
cos  
= A= Redrawn circuit
6 2

3A  2 − 3 
Distance travelled =
A− = A
2  2 
Average speed
2− 3 
A
distance  2  (2 − 3 )A × 600
= = = E 2E
time t 2× π Current in circuit
= I =
R 3R
3 Aω R+
= (2 − 3 ) 2
π
Pot. difference across resistance R
16. Answer (4)
2E 2
∆f 1 ∆T Vab =I × R = × R = E
= 3R 3
f 2 T
This will be pot. difference across capacitor in
∆f 1 2  2
∴ =   1  2E 
400 2  100  steady state. Energy stored = ×C ×  
2  3 
∴ ∆f =4 Hz
2CE 2
17. Answer (4) =
9
y = 2Asinkx cosωt 21. Answer (3)
This is an equation of standing wave with µ Ir 2
maximum amplitude 2A B 2πr = 0 2
R
Maximum particle velocity
µ0Ir µ 0I
∴=
B =
vp = ω × amplitude = ω ×2A = 2ωA 2πR 2
8π

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
22. Answer (4) 27. Answer (4)
1 1 1 28. Answer (2)
− = ∴ v 0 = 6 cm
v 0 u0 f0 50
= 2.5 mA
1 1 1 20
− = ∴ ue =−5 cm
v e ue fe 200 − 50
= 30 mA
5
∴ L = 6 + 5 = 11 cm
I0 = 30 – 2.5
23. Answer (1)
= 27.5 mA
d cos r sin i 2 29. Answer (1)
d′ = and µ = ∴ cos r =
cos i sin r 3
1 1
24. Answer (2) I = MR 2 = πR 2t ρR 2
2 2
When light is incident at polarizing angle. The
IY
reflected ray and refracted rays are mutually ∴ = 64
IX
perpendicular.
25. Answer (2) 30. Answer (3)
Instantaneous current I = 2 + 4sinωt πωA = ω2A ∴ω=π
T T 2π
2 2 ∴ =
T = 2s
∫ I dt ∫ (2 + 4 sin ωt ) ω
2 0 0
=
IRMS =T
dt KE has double frequency and half time period.
T
∫ dt So KE time period is 1 s.
0
31. Answer (3)
T
2 80 − 60
∫ (4 + 16 sin ωt + 8 sin ωt )dt
10
= (70 − T )K
0
=
T 60 − 40
= [50 − (T − 5)]K ∴ T = 25ºC
T T T 15
2
∫ 4dt + ∫ 16 sin ωtdt + ∫ 8 sin ωtdt
32. Answer (2)
0 0 0
=
T (n1 + n2 )R
= n1Cv + n2Cv
T γm − 1
4T + 16 × +0
= 2 0.4 + 1.2 5 1.2 × 3 11
T or = 0.4 × + ∴ γ mix =
γm − 1 2 2 7
2
IRMS = 4 + 8 = 12
33. Answer (3)
=
IRMS 12 2 3( A)
= 34. Answer (2)
T C = 1.25 m
2 T
Remember ∫ sin ωtdt =
2 Second overtone of closed organ pipe is its fifth
0
v
T harmonic n= 5 ×
4 C
∫ sin ωtdt =
0
0 Second harmonic of open organ pipe is
26. Answer (4) v
n′= 2 × Both unison means same frequency
hc 4 O
= φ+k
6000
2 ×V V
∴ = 5×
hc 2O 4 C
= φ + 2k
4000
4
∴ φ =1.03 eV ∴ O =× 1.25 =
1.00 m
5
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Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
35. Answer (1)
When both joined by conducting wire both reach
at common potential. Then redistribution of
charge takes place.
Final charge on first
C1 C2
q1′ = × QT , q2′ = QT
C1 + C2 C1 + C2 ∴ Resistance per unit length
For sphere : C1= 4πε0R1 pot. drop R × I  R  1
= =  ×
C2 = 4πε0R2 length     20

R 1
R1  0.1  −6 20   ×
=
q1′
∴ = =
QT   × (1800) × 10    20
R1 + R2  0.1 + 0.2 
R Ω
= 600 µC ∴ = 20 × 20 = 400
 m
 R2  38. Answer (3)
q2′ 
=  QT 1200 µ C
=
 R1 + R2  Total length of wire = 2πRnl
From first sphere 300 µC charge flown to bigger L = µ0n2Al = µ0n2πR2l
sphere.
4πLl
36. Answer (2) ∴ Length =
µ0
39. Answer (2)
I 1 E02
= ε0
2C 2 2

Power consumed by 8Ω resistance is 8W 2I 2P P

∴=
E0 = =
C ε0 Cε0 4πR 2 2πCε0R 2
∴ P= (I2 )2 × 8
= 8
40. Answer (4)
∴ I2 = 1 A
Bar magnets behave like a dipole. For magnetic
For parallel circuits I1(2 + 4) = I2 (4 + 8) dipole magnetic force of one dipole on another,
when they are placed end to end or kept parallel
12
I1 =I2 × =1× 2 =2 A 1
6 to each other F ∝ 4 , r is their separation
r
Now current through 2Ω resistance is 2 A
k k
P2= (I1)2 × R= (2)2 × (2)= 8 W =F =4
, F′
r (2r )4
37. Answer (2)
F′ 1
Total potential fall on potentiometer wire is ∴ =
F 16
uniform. EMF of 10 volt is balanced over 50 cm.
F
v 10 ∴ F′ =
Potential gradient of wire K= = = 20 volt/m 16
 0.5
41. Answer (2)
Total potential drop on wire = 20 × 2.5 = 50
When object is at infinity its image by a convex
volt….(i) lens is formed at its focus.
By KVL potential fall on 3 kΩ resistance ∴ Focal length of lens F1 = 20 cm
200 = 50 + v′ ∴ v′ = 150 v When a similar type of lens is put in contact, for
v′ 150 1 object at infinity image is formed at 10 cm from
Current in circuit
= = = A combination. So combined focal length F = 10 cm
R ′ 3000 20

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

1 1 1 44. Answer (4)

= +
F F1 F2 45. Answer (2)

1 1 1 β = 50
= +
10 20 F2 ∆Ic
= 50
∆Ib
∴ F2 = 20 cm
1
=
P2 = 5(D)
0.2
42. Answer (3)
When it is introduced in upper beam, it increases
path difference, central maxima will shift to
position where both beams will have zero path Voltage gain of transistor
difference. So lower beam has to travel more out put voltage Ic × Rc  Ic 
path in air to have equal optical path. =
Av = = × Rg
Input voltage Ib × Rb  Ib 
It will shift upwards towards first beam.
For n number of fringe shift 5
= 50 × = 250
1
nλ = (µ – 1)t
vo
(µ − 1)t (1.5 − 1) × 2 × 10−6 = 250
=n = = 2 vi
λ 500 × 10−9
∴ vo = 250 × 0.01 = 2.5 v
43. Answer (2)
In transistor as CE configuration input and output
 1 1  1 1
R 2 −= RZ 2  2 −  ∴Z=2 are always 180° out of phase
1 ∞  2 ∞
∴ Voltage across collector = – 2.5 volt

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2) 49. Answer (4)
∆
2KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 ...(i) For A2B3, Ksp = 108 S5

4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 ...(ii) 50. Answer (4)

Ca(HCO3)2 ⇒ Temporary hardness
From equation (i) and (ii)
3 mole of O2 ≡ 6 mole of KMnO4 ≡ 4 mole of Al MgCl2, CaSO4, CaCl2 ⇒ Permanent hardness

∴ 0.1 mole of Al ≡ 0.15 mole of KMnO4 51. Answer (2)

B2O3 forms metaborate of metal
= 0.15 × 158 = 23.7 g
52. Answer (3)
47. Answer (4)
r ∝ n2
n 12 25 n 1 5 v 2
= , = =
n 22 64 n 2 8 v 1 53. Answer (1)
48. Answer (4)
 Carbon atom having one double bond is sp2 is aromatic
hybridised.
 Ione pair of N and O are in resonance 54. Answer (4)
therefore hybridization of N and O in the Among the ketones, only methyl ketones can give
given molecule is sp2. iodoform reaction.

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Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
55. Answer (2)

56. Answer (3) 64. Answer (4)

NO2 does not cause green house effect. In Cannizzaro reaction, two molecules of
57. Answer (1) aldehyde are involved along with two OH ion at
higher conc. of NaOH.
PA = P°AχA ⇒ 2
P A= × 100 = 40 mm Hg 65. Answer (3)
5

3
PB= × 300 = 180 mm Hg
5
Mole fraction in vapour phase 66. Answer (4)
40 40 2 Nylon-6 is made of one type of repeating unit and
YA
= = =
40 + 180 220 11 it is formed by the elimination of H2O molecule.
58. Answer (2) 67. Answer (3)
D2O contains 10 neutrons
Ered = –0.059 × pH

= –0.059 × 4 ∴ No. of moles = 10 = 1

20 2
= –0.0236 V
No. of electrons = 10 × N A × 1 =
5 NA
59. Answer (4) 2

63.5 63.5
68. Answer (4)
=z = Melting points of Hg, Br2, Cs and Ga are below
2F 2 × 96500
35°.
63.5 × 9.65 × 1000
m
= zit
= 69. Answer (1)
2 × 9650
O 2–
2 has more no. of antibonding electrons
= 3.175 g
70. Answer (3)
60. Answer (1)
At high pressure
It is a first order reaction as P(V – nb) = nRT
2.303 5 ⇒ PV – 2Pb = 2RT
=K = log 0.023
10 4
⇒ PV = 2(RT + Pb)
which is constant throughout. 71. Answer (2)
61. Answer (4) 1
H2 + O 2 → H2O is the correct equation of
Ag2S is concentrated by leaching with NaCN. 2
∆fH(H2O)
62. Answer (1)
72. Answer (3)
Zn, Cu and Fe on reaction with hot concentrated
HNO3 give metal nitrate and NO2 gas. CH 3COO –  [H + ]
Ka =  
63. Answer (2) [CH 3COOH]

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 Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

(0.1α )(0.1α + 0.1) 83. Answer (4)

10 –5 =
0.1– 0.1α In Sandmeyer reaction aryl halides are formed
(chlorides and Bromides) from aryl diazonium
(0.1α )(0.1) salts using copper salts as a reagent.
10 –5 =
(0.1) 84. Answer (4)
α = 10–4
73. Answer (4)

74. Answer (3)

Concentrated solution of alkali metals in liquid
ammonia changes from blue colour to bronze
colour.
75. Answer (2)
Highest number of resonating structures.
76. Answer (2)
Due to double bond character between C – Cl 85. Answer (3)
bond, chlorobenzene does not undergo Intermediate is : CCl2
elimination reaction with alc. KOH. 86. Answer (3)
77. Answer (3)
Classical smog is a mixture of smoke, fog and
Sulphur dioxide.
78. Answer (1)
87. Answer (1)

Area of circles 88. Answer (1)

=P.F. × 100
Area of hexagon
79. Answer (1)
Gold sol is negatively charged.
80. Answer (4)
Metals Co Ni Cu Zn
89. Answer (1)
E°M2+ /M (V) –0.28 –0.25 +0.34 –0.76

81. Answer (4)

Interchange of ligands between cationic and
anionic entities of different metal ions present in a
complex leads to coordination isomerism.
At C–1 acetal is present
82. Answer (4)
90. Answer (3)
Electronic configuration ⇒ t 32ge g2 Cationic detergent contains a carbon chain and
ammonium ion.

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Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

BOTANY
91. Answer (3) 103. Answer (3)
Reproduction is synonymous with growth in Cytokinins help to overcome the apical
unicellular organisms. Reproduction is absent in dominance. Auxins promote it.
some organisms such as male drone of bee and 104. Answer (2)
mule.
Chromosome component in the person affected
92. Answer (4) from Klinefelter’s syndrome will be
Arthropoda are animals and angiosperms are 44 + XXY.
plants. These taxa have least number of common
105. Answer (3)
characteristics.
During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to
93. Answer (2)
promotor region and uses substrate as
Protista are unicellular eukaryotes nucleoside phosphate to polymerise in template
94. Answer (2) dependent manner.
Majority of the red algae are marine with greater 106. Answer (3)
concentrations found in the warmer areas. When effluent is passed into secondary settling
95. Answer (2) tank flocs are sedimented.
Pea family has vexillary type of aestivation i.e. 107. Answer (4)
with unequal sized petals.
Geometric growth is also known as exponential
96. Answer (2) growth and curve is J-shaped.
This type is exarch condition while in stem 108. Answer (3)
endarch condition is found. Collenchyma tissue
Climax community is more stable and shows
lacks intercellular space
niche specialization. Xerarch succession leads to
97. Answer (1) mesic conditions.
80 S ribosomes are found in cytoplasm of 109. Answer (3)
eukaryotes while 70 S are found in prokaryotes
and organelles such as chloroplast and Pollination is a broadly utilitarian ecosystem
mitochondria service.
98. Answer (2) 110. Answer (3)
G1 S MI M II Ozone is beneficial when present in stratosphere.
− 111. Answer (4)
80 pg 160 pg 80 pg 40 pg
(2C) (4C) (2C) (1C) Homo sapiens and Panthera leo are species.
99. Answer (1) 112. Answer (1)
cell present in hypertonic solution leads to The prime source of taxonomic studies of various
plasmolysis in plant cell. species of plants, animals and other organisms is
100. Answer (4) collection of actual specimen
The bacteria get modified into rod-shaped 113. Answer (4)
bacteroids and cause inner cortical and pericycle Thermoacidophiles are chemoautotrophs.
cells to divide. Division and growth of cortical and 114. Answer (4)
pericycle cells lead to nodule formation.
Pteridophytes are vascular cryptogams.
101. Answer (3)
115. Answer (3)
Malic acid (4C) → Pyruvate (3C) (in Bundle
sheath cell) Embryo sac of flowering plants is 7 celled and 8
nuclei structure.
PEP (3C) → Malic acid (Mesophyll)
116. Answer (3)
102. Answer (2)
In Cassia, imbricate aestivation is found.
During reduction of one NAD+, 2 redox
equivalents are removed from respiratory 117. Answer (3)
substrate. Vascular cambium is a secondary meristem.
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
118. Answer (3) 128. Answer (1)
Lysosomes has acid hydrolases enzymes. Genotype ratio of dihybrid test cross is
119. Answer (1) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1
Meiocytes → 2n = 24 For TTYY – 1/16
Number of bivalents = Number of haploid set of For ttyy – 1/16
chromosomes. 129. Answer (4)
Each bivalent is tetrad with four chromatids. Each strand will have 9 phosphodiester bonds
120. Answer (4) thus total 18 bonds in dsDNA.
In a plasmolysed cell DPD is very high and 130. Answer (4)
pressure potential is negative. The ‘Evil Quartet’ is responsible for biodiversity
121. Answer (2) loss while ex-situ conservation is a conservation
Hexokinase catalyzes the glucose to glucose-6- strategy
phosphate conversion. 131. Answer (4)
122. Answer (2) Cyclosporin A is produced by a fungus
PS-I will be functional and cyclic phosphorylation Trichoderma
occurs. 132. Answer (1)
123. Answer (3) Detritivores break down detritus into smaller
Both statements are correct. particles by a process known as fragmentation.
124. Answer (3) 133. Answer (1)
Henbane and sugar beet plant are LDPs and Pyramid of number is spindle-shaped for single
require the long days for flowering tree.
125. Answer (1) Tree → Fruigivorous birds → Carnivorous birds
Zygote undergoes a period of rest-before (T1 ) (T2 ) (T3 )
germination and forms the thick walled zygospore
in sexual life cycle of organism such as algae and
fungi.
126. Answer (3)
In cereals such as rice and wheat pollen grains 134. Answer (4)
maintain viability only up to 30 minutes. Anthropogenic extinction is 100 to 1000 times
127. Answer (4) higher than background extinction.
Embryo sac - gametophyte (N) 135. Answer (3)
Polar nuclei – below the egg apparatus towards CFCs releases Cl– atom which depletes O3 in
chalazal end. stratosphere.

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (2) the gene is dominant or recessive. Cleft palate
Level of organisation is can be both due to deficiency of folic acid or due
to trisomy of chromosome number 13.
Cellular level → Tissue level → Organ level →
139. Answer (4)
Organ system
During the follicular phase, the secretion of
137. Answer (4) gonadotropins will decrease gradually due to
Repeated activation of muscles can lead to negative feedback control of estrogen.
accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic 140. Answer (2)
breakdown of glycogen. We amplify the desired gene to be detected with
138. Answer (4) PCR. Now we take single stranded copy of the
Physician cannot test the foetus for eye colour by DNA of the gene, combine it with radioactive
amniocentesis; as we cannot determine whether isotopes called probe used for screening.

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Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
141. Answer (4) 153. Answer (4)
1 Random mating does not bring about change in
Affinity of haemoglobin for oxgyen ∝ value.
P50 gene frequency.
If P50 value decreases, the affinity of hemoglobin 154. Answer (3)
for oxygen increases and the curve will shift The main function of compound epithelium is to
towards left. provide protection against chemical and
142. Answer (4) mechanical stresses.
DCT is concerned with conditional reabsorption of 155. Answer (1)
water and Na+.
Carps are freshwater fishes.
143. Answer (2)
156. Answer (3)
HIV infects the cells with CD4 receptors, they are
Mast cells and basophils have similar functions.
macrophages and Helper T cells. It depletes
helper T cells but not macrophages. 157. Answer (4)
144. Answer (3) Alkaloids – Morphine
In our body, there are genes called c-ono/cellular Lectins – Concanavalin A
oncogenes; they code for normal body growth Drugs – Vinblastin
and development, but if their expression becomes
uncontrolled, they will be called oncogenes. 158. Answer (3)
Mutations in tumor-suppressor genes can also Lyases catalyse breakdown of covalent bond in
lead to cancer. absence of water with the removal of group,
145. Answer (2) forming double bond.
Australopithecus is considered as connecting link 159. Answer (2)
between Apes and Man.
Pneumonia bacteria grow better at 37°C rather
146. Answer (3) than at 33°C, hence they attack alveoli rather
Bats are mammals and their most unique than upper respiratory tract.
character is presence of mammary glands. Birds
160. Answer (1)
are oviparous.
Homology is based on divergent evolution. Both
147. Answer (3)
the mentioned structures arise from stem.
GIFT : Transfer of an ovum from the donor
female into the fallopian tube of another female, 161. Answer (3)
who cannot produce ova but can provide a Intercalated discs at some fusion points allow the
suitable environment for fertilisation and further cells to contract as a unit.
development.
162. Answer (1)
148. Answer (4)
Adenylate cyclase is an enzyme which converts
Adenine and guanine are purines.
ATP into c-AMP
149. Answer (2)
163. Answer (1)
Marasmus occurs due to simultaneous deficiency
of proteins and calories. Proteins coded by cryIAc and cryIIAb control
cotton bollworm.
150. Answer (2)
164. Answer (2)
Pepsin is present in stomach and trypsin and
chymotrypsin will work in small intestine. This process of evolution of different species in a
151. Answer (2) given geographical area starting from a point and
Cockroach is protostomic with schizocoelom type literally radiating to other areas of geography is
of the development of the coelom. called adaptive radiation.
152. Answer (4) 165. Answer (3)
Ventral nervous system is present in non Such hormone analogues are employed in
chordates controlled breeding experiments like MOET.

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
166. Answer (3) 173. Answer (4)
Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid Atrial depolarization leads to atrial systole.
organs where origin, maturation and proliferation 174. Answer (2)
of lymphocytes will occur. Tonsils are secondary
In muscular dystrophy, the protein dystrophin is
lymphoid organs, they are sites for interaction of
not produced.
lymphocytes with antigen.
175. Answer (3)
167. Answer (4)
A pair of spermathecae are present in the female.
Upstreaming process includes all the steps from
sterilisation of the bioreactor, preparation of the 176. Answer (3)
medium, till the completion of biosynthetic Ascidia is urochordate, a chordate. It is
pathway. Downstream processing includes all the non-vertebrate chordate.
steps after completion of biosynthetic pathway 177. Answer (2)
i.e. isolation and purification of product.
Vasopressin/ADH, is responsible for facultative/
168. Answer (2) conditional reabsorption of water in DCT and
Rosie produced human protein enriched milk (2.4 collecting duct.
gms per litre) 178. Answer (1)
169. Answer (2) Zona glomerulosa secretes mineralocorticoids;
After the entry of sperm, completion of meiosis of mainly aldosterone.
oocyte takes place as the sperm donates its 179. Answer (4)
centriole to the oocyte.
Direct methods of gene transfer are vectorless. Ti
170. Answer (3) plasmid is used as vector.
ERV + TV + IRV = Vital capacity 180. Answer (2)
171. Answer (2) A is the chemical structure of Morphine.
Catecholamines are adrenaline and noradrenaline. B is poppy plant / Papaver somniferum
172. Answer (4) C : Leaves of Cannabis sativa
Parathyroid tetany is caused due to hypopara- D : Flowering branch of Datura. Datura has
thyroidism hallucinogenic properties.

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Edition: 2020-21