IE & IFS Marathon 1, 2023

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1. The National Planning Committee, set up in 1938 by the Indian

National Congress, defined planning in India as _______________.
(a) Planning is the technical coordination of consumption, production,
investment, trade, and income distribution based on social
objectives.
(b) Planning is the development of making major financial results by
the administration.
(c) Planning is the division of capitals to different financial sectors.
(d) None of these.
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2. ____________ are not physical structures and are categorized as soft
infrastructure.
(a) Marine source
(b) Financial institutions
(c) Aquatic stock
(d) Water supply
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3. Choose the correct statement with respect to the key contrast
between sectoral planning and spatial planning.
(i) Sectoral planning is concerned with the development of a specific
economic sector, while spatial planning is focused on the organization
and distribution of land use and infrastructure in a particular
geographical area.
(ii) Sectoral planning focuses on the distribution of people and
activities, while spatial planning focuses on the development of the
economy.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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4. The National Development Council (NDC), which approves the
Planning Commission's plans for implementation, is chaired by
___________.
(a) The Mayor of Municipality
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Home Minister
(d) None of these
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5. The cornerstone of a more equitable globalisation is _____________.
(a) Providing extreme assistances to industrialized nations
(b) Promoting rivalry amongst countries
(c) Addressing the wants and needs of all people
(d) All of the above
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6. The RBI's report on Currency and Finance 2021-22 suggests that
India will take more than _________ years to convalesce from the losses
instigated by the COVID-19 pandemic.
(a) 12 years
(b) 13 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 9 years
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7. Which of the product that pleases the necessities for being a Geffen
good among the options given below?
(a) Potatoes.
(b) Smart Phone.
(c) Laptop
(d) Luxury House.
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8. The IS curve represents the combinations of __________ levels that
generate equilibrium in the goods market.
(a) Interest rate and speculation
(b) interest rates and output
(c) Revenue and speculation
(d) None of these
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9. Choose the correct statement with respect to the Liquidity Preference
Theory.
(i) Central banks can use monetary policy to influence the money
supply and thus interest rates
(ii) Central banks can control interest rates by monitoring inflation
prospects
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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10. ____________ policy was introduced in 1998 as part of the financial
sector reforms on the recommendation of the Committee on Banking
Sector Reforms
(a) Refinance Services
(b) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
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11. What do you mean by primary deficit with respect to fiscal policy?
(a) It is the variance among income shortage and attention
expenditures
(b) It is the change among principal shortfall and interest payments
(c) It is the difference between fiscal deficit and interest payments
(d) None of these
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12. The objective of the committee headed by Dr Nachiket Mor was
__________.
(a) To propose measures for achieving financial inclusion.
(b) To increase admittance to financial amenities for high-income
families.
(c) To endorse setting up of only Payments Banks.
(d) None of these
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13. If the price elasticity of demand for a product is -0.6 and the price
of the product is increased by 20%, what will be the change in quantity
demanded?
(a) 12
(b) -12
(c) -6
(d) 6
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14. what are the shortcomings of relying solely on GDP as an indicator
of economic well-being, when evaluating regional economic disparities
in a country?
(a) A few developed states contribute the most to the country's GDP,
while a majority of less developed state economies contribute very
little.
(b) There is no provincial difference in a nation's GDP
(c) GDP is a good pointer of provincial difference in a nation
(d) None of these
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15. ________ have the functionality of the National Common Mobility
Card (NCMC), which enables low-value contactless payments (like
transit, toll, parking, retail) using offline technology.
(a) UPI
(b) RuPay
(c) RTGS
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16. Choose the incorrect option with respect to horizontal FDI
(a) It is frequently used to decrease manufacture costs and growth
market share.
(b) It includes capitalizing in the same trade abroad as the firm
functions in at home.
(c) It involves investing in a different industry abroad than the firm
operates in at home.
(d) None of these
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17. Choose the incorrect option with respect to the functioning of
Payment Banks
(i) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
(ii) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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18. __________ of RBI is entrusted with the general superintendence and
direction of the Reserve Bank of India under Section 7 of the RBI Act,
1934.
(a) Chief Board of Managements
(b) Governor
(c) State Government
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19. As per the RBI Act, 1934, _________ assets fall under the purview of
the Issue Department's balance sheet.
(i) Only gold bullion
(ii) Gold coin, gold bullion, foreign securities, rupee coins, and rupee
securities
(a) Only (ii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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20. As per __________ of the RBI Act, every bank included in the 2nd
Schedule of the Act shall maintain with RBI an average daily balance.
(a) Section 42
(b) Section 40
(c) Section 38
(d) Section 44
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21. ___________ acts as a coordinator in planning for rural credit and the
operations of credit institutions purveying rural credit at the district
level.
(a) SBI
(b) SEBI
(c) RBI
(d) NABARD
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22. RBI does not produce coins in denominations of ___________.
(a) 25 paise
(b) 5 rupee
(c) 1 rupee
(d) Both a and b
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23. MFIs in India can be categorized under which types according to
legal forms?
(a) Non-profit
(b) For-profit
(c) Mutual Benefit
(d) All of these
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24. The spectrum of maturity for financial instruments within the
money market is ___________
(a) 1 year to 7 years
(b) 6 months to 6 years
(c) Overnight to one year
(d) None of these
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25. According to regulatory specifications, _______________ entities are
authorized to purchase a Certificate of Deposit.
(a) Only persons
(b) Only banks and protection establishments
(c) Individuals and corporations
(d) None of these
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26. Objectives of the development of a robust corporate bond market
are _________.
(a) To reduce funding costs for corporates and others by eliminating
agency and disintermediation costs.
(b) To decrease the figure of stockholders in the market to surge
constancy.
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
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27. _____________ are financial instruments which are eligible for retail
investors to purchase through RBI Retail Direct Scheme (RDS).
(a) Shares and Mutual Funds
(b) Government of India Treasury Bills, Government of India dated
securities, Sovereign Gold Bonds, and State Development Loans.
(c) Fixed Deposits and Shares
(d) None of these
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28. The maximum credit "leverage" (margin) in the Forex market is
normally equal to __________.
(a) 1:700
(b) 1:400
(c) 1:900
(d) 1:100
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29. A clearing union can be defined as ___________.
(i) A multilateral payments arrangement that periodically offsets the
debits and credits accumulated by each member against the other
members in the process of trade and other transactions.
(ii) A payment prearrangement that is completely used for worldwide
capital markets
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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30. How the operational strategy of merchant banks is different from
the commercial banks?
(i) Merchant Banks are mostly sponsors, whereas Commercial Banks
are project analysts
(ii) Merchant Banks are management oriented, whereas Commercial
Banks are assets oriented
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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31. _________________ on leases, defines a lease as an agreement
whereby the lessor conveys to the lessee in return for a payment or a
series of payments the right to use an asset for an agreed period of
time.
(a) Indian Accounting Standard 29
(b) Indian Accounting Standard 13
(c) Indian Accounting Standard 17
(d) Indian Accounting Standard 19
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32. Choose the correct option with respect to venture capital
investments.
(i) High-risk investments made for short-term goals
(ii) High-risk investments made for long-term goals
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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33. According to which Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872,
bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another person for
some purpose upon a contract.
(a) Section 142
(b) Section 146
(c) Section 143
(d) Section 147
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34. Which of the following is not the essential components of a pension
system?
(a) Reliable collection of contributions
(b) Securing financial management
(c) Production of financial statements
(d) None of these
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35. Choose the correct option.
(a) Banks are allowed to hold equity in financial services companies as
well as companies not engaged in financial services activities, subject to
Prudential limits
(b) Banks are allowed to hold equity in financial services companies as
well as companies not engaged in financial services activities, subject to
limits specified under Section 19(2) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
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36. The government addressed the developmental issues through
____________ by setting targets and ensuring the allocation of funds for
the development of various sectors.
(a) One year plan
(b) Two-year plan
(c) Five years plan
(d) Nine years plan
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37. As per the NITI Aayog's SDG India Index ___________ is an area
where India has not made significant progress.
(a) Health
(b) Infrastructure
(c) Energy
(d) None of these
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38. Fiscal authorities have responded by ______________ in response to
the economic slowdown caused by the COVID-19 pandemic in India.
(a) greater support to vulnerable groups
(b) implementing flexible fiscal policies
(c) both a & b
(d) None of these
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39. _______________ is not deemed to be a cause of non-performing
assets (NPAs).
(i) Improved asset quality
(ii) stalled/stressed projects
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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40. Within the framework of the Indradhanush Plan, which sought to
restructure public sector banks (PSBs), what does the fourth component
"D" in the acronym ABCDEFG stand for?
(a) De-stressing
(b) Development
(c) Digitalization
(d) Decentral
7 pronged plan includes appointments, Banks board bureau, capitalisation, de-stressing,

empowerment, framework of accountability and governance reforms (ABCDEFG)
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41. . As per ____________ the ultimate purpose or objective of Economics
is to promote well-being or welfare.
(a) Prof. Alfred Marshall
(b) Prof. Albert Marshall
(c) Prof. John Marshall
(d) Prof. Ushman Marshall
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42. ____________ are influenced by the behaviour of commercial banks.
(i) Excess reserves maintained by banks
(ii) Currency to deposit ratio
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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43. Which of the following best explain the relationship between Cash
Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)?
(i) An increase in CRR and SLR will increase interest rates
(ii) The relationship between CRR, SLR and interest rates is not direct.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) None of these
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44. _____________ is a component of revenue receipts as defined in the
capital receipts.
(a) Extra and returns
(b) Market borrowings
(c) Levy revenue
(d) None of these
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45. The first 'Presidency Bank'—the Bank of Calcutta was established in
Calcutta on June 2, 1806 with a capital of __________.
(a) Rs. 25 lakhs
(b) Rs. 35 lakhs
(c) Rs. 45 lakhs
(d) Rs. 50 lakhs
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JAIIB CAIIB BABA

1. The National Planning Committee, set up in 1938 by the Indian

7 pronged plan includes appointments, Banks board bureau, capitalisation, de-stressing,

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