RBI Phase 1 2023 - Memory Based Paper and Analysis Lyst8522

Dear Students,
It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document with detailed
explanations for the RBI Grade B 2023 – Phase 1 . This document has been meticulously to serve as
a valuable resource for candidates preparing for the RBI Grade B Officer Exam.
Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and types of questions
that may appear in their upcoming exam.
Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and principles have been
thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to practice answering questions but also helps
you understand the reasoning and logic behind each correct answer. Through explanations, you will
be able to reinforce your understanding, clarify any doubts, and develop a deeper grasp of the
subject matter.
We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this document proves to
be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success.
Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and relevance of the
questions, there can be some variations in the question language and options. Therefore, we
encourage you to use these questions as a reference point. This will help you acquire a
comprehensive understanding of the syllabus and increase your chances of success in the upcoming
RBI Grade B Officer Exam.
1 | Page
2 | Page
Dear Students,
It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document
with detailed explanations for the RBI Grade B 2023 – Phase 1 . This document
has been meticulously to serve as a valuable resource for candidates preparing
for the RBI Grade B Officer Exam.
Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and
types of questions that may appear in their upcoming exam.
Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and
principles have been thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to
practice answering questions but also helps you understand the reasoning and
logic behind each correct answer. Through explanations, you will be able to
reinforce your understanding, clarify any doubts, and develop a deeper grasp of
the subject matter.
We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this
document proves to be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success.
Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and
relevance of the questions, there can be some variations in the question language
and options. Therefore, we encourage you to use these questions as a reference
point. This will help you acquire a comprehensive understanding of the syllabus
and increase your chances of success in the upcoming RBI Grade B Officer Exam.
3 | Page
RBI Grade B 2023 - Recollected Questions
Section – General Awareness
Q1. Recently a declaration has been adopted by that aims to boost industry ties on defense
and renewable energy, in the face of growing competition from the other emerging countries,
The above-mentioned Atlantic Declaration, was signed between which two countries?
A. United States and United Kingdom

B. Australia & United Kingdom
C. France and United States
D. Australia and United Kingdom
E. Australia and France
Q2. United States will rejoin an organization in July, four years after it left it in 2019, alleging
that it was biased against Israel. The move to rejoin will face a vote by organisation’s member
states and is expected to pass easily. Which of the following organisation US is about to re-
join?
A. UNICEF
B. WHO
C. UNESCO
D. UNCTAD
E. SCO
Q3. What is the objective of the "Antardrishti Dashboard" which was launched recently by
RBI?
A. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of grievance redressal
mechanism.
B. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion.
C. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of reducing NPAs.
D. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of strengthening
financial system.
E. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of digital banking.
Q4. Recently, Indian-origin Climate Change researcher ______ has been picked for the Spinoza
Prize 2023, which is the highest scientific honour in Netherlands and has a prize money of
_______.
A. Sheo Kumar, 1.5 million euros

B. Rajkumar Upadhyay, 2.5 million euros
C. Joyeeta Gupta, 1.5 million euros
D. K Rajaraman, 3.5 million euros
E. Navtej Bal, 1.5 million euros
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Q5. Which country has achieved the gender parity according to the latest Global Gender Gap
Index?
A. Iceland
B. Finland
C. Denmark
D. Sweden
E. No one
Q6. Comptroller and Auditor General of India Girish Chandra Murmu has been re-elected as
the external auditor of ______ for a for a four-year term from____.
A. WHO, 2024 to 2027

B. UNICEF, 2023 to 2026
C. UNESCO, 2024 to 2027
D. WTO, 2023 to 2026
E. UNCTAD, 2024 to 2027
Q7. The tropical cyclones forming over different Ocean basins are named by the concerned
regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and regional Tropical Cyclone Warning
Centres (TCWCs). According to the 'List of North Indian Ocean Tropical Cyclone Names', what
is the name of the next cyclone after cyclone 'Biparjoy' and the name has been recommended
by which country?
A. Prahar, Bangladesh
B. Akhand, India
C. Tej, India
D. Bhanwar, Nepal
E. Prachand, Sri Lanka
Q8. Foreign Trade Policy (2023) is a policy document which is based on continuity of time-
tested schemes facilitating exports as well as a document which is nimble and responsive to
the requirements of trade. Which among the following is not part of the four key pillars of the
Foreign Trade Policy 2023 announced recently?
A. Incentive to Remission
B. Export promotion through collaboration - Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Missions
C. Ease of doing business, reduction in transaction cost and e-initiatives
D. Emerging Areas – E-Commerce Developing Districts as Export Hubs and streamlining
SCOMET policy
E. E-Governance
Q9. The Union government, in consultation with the RBI, fixes the inflation target for the
central bank every five years. The Upper Tolerance level of Inflation is ____________ and in
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case of breach of the upper tolerance for ___________ quarters the report has to be submitted
by RBI.
A. 4.0%, three consecutive quarters

B. 5.0%, two consecutive quarters
C. 6.0%, two consecutive quarters
D. 6.0%, three consecutive quarters
E. 5.0%, three consecutive quarters
Q10. As per the survey of professional forecasters (SPF) by RBI, the real gross domestic product
(GDP) growth forecast for 2023-24 has been retained at _____ , while it is expected to grow by
____ in 2024-25.
A. 5.7 per cent, 6.1 per cent

B. 5.9 per cent, 6.3 per cent
C. 6.0 per cent, 6.4 per cent
D. 6.1 per cent, 6.4 per cent
E. 6.2 per cent, 6.3 per cent
Q11. As per Annual Report of RBI, Commercial banks remained the largest holders of
government securities [including T-Bills and state government securities (SGSs)] accounting for
__________ as at end-March 2023.
A. 27.5%
B. 37.5%
C. 25.5%
D. 31.5%
E. 28.5%
Q12. Which of the following States are among the top 3 States with highest mangrove cover in
India?
1. West Bengal
2. Gujarat
3. Andaman Nicobar
4. Tamil Nadu
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 1 & 4
D. Only 3 & 4
E. 2, 3 & 4
Q13. Group of Twenty (G20) is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the
European Union. India holds the Presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022 to November
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30, 2023. Which of the following is not one of the guest countries invited in G20 summit under
India’s presidency?
A. Bangladesh
B. Phillipines
C. Mauritius
D. Netherlands
E. Nigeria
Q14. India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations?
A. SCO
B. ADB
C. World Trade Organisation
D. OECD
E. World Bank
Q15. As per RBI Annual Report 2022-23, India has remained among the fastest growing major
economies of the world, contributing more than ___________ to global growth on average
during the last five years.
A. 5.5%
B. 7.5%
C. 12%
D. 6.8%
E. 10.5%
Q16. As per the Financial Stability Report, SCBs’ gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio
continued its downtrend and fell to a __________ year low in 3.9% in March 2023 and the net
non-performing assets (NNPA) ratio declined to __________.
A. 8, 0.5%
B. 10, 1%
C. 13, 1.5%
D. 10, 1.5%
E. 8, 1%
Q17. Despite prolonged geopolitical tensions and slowing global trade, India’s merchandise
exports touched US$ 450.4 billion during 2022- 23, which is 6.7 per cent above the previous
year’s record level. Which sector contributed the largest share in the merchandise exports
from India?
A. Electronic Goods
B. Petroleum Products
C. Rice
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D. Organic and Inorganic Chemicals
E. Iron Ore
Q18. The core theme of the 2025 Payments Vision document is E-Payments for Everyone
______________.
A. E-Payments for Elder

B. Everywhere, Everytime
C. Everywhere, Everything
D. Everything, Everytime
E. Everyone, Everything
Q19. Which among the following ASEAN countries are also the members of BIMSTEC?
1.Thailand
2. Singapore
3. Myanmar
4. Indonesia
5. Vietnam
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 4 and 5
E. All of the above
Q20. There has been great excitement and a rush of positive sentiment among members of the
fintech community (digital lenders), regulated lenders, and investors about the recently (June
2023) released Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending which were
issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in
Digital Lending is not applicable on which of the following entities?
A. Payment Banks
B. Small Finance Banks
C. State Co-operative Banks
D. NBFC
E. Commercial Banks
Q21. The term of State Legislative Assemblies of which of the following State will not end till
Jan 2024?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
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C. Haryana
D. Chhattisgarh
E. Telangana
Q22. Which among the following small saving scheme will provide highest return in July-
September 2023?
A. Kisan Vikas Patra

B. National Savings Certificate (NSC)
C. Senior citizen savings Scheme
D. Sukanya Samriddhi
E. Monthly Income Scheme
Q23. HS Prannoy ended a six-year long title drought with a three-game win over China's Weng
Hong Yang in a pulsating men's singles finals at the Malaysia Masters. This title is known as
_________.
A. Super 1000 title

B. Super 500 title
C. Super 300 title
D. Super 200 title
E. Super 100 title
Q24. For the first time in India, the share price of a company crossed the Rs 1 lakh mark. With
this, __________ became the first stock in India to cross the Rs 1 lakh mark per share in intra-
day trade after its share jumped 1.07 per cent in early trade recently in June 2023.
A. Honeywell
B. MRF Ltd
C. Page Industries
D. 3M India
E. Shree Cement
Q25. With classification of UCBs into four tiers, the prudential exposure limits for UCBs to a
group of connected borrowers/parties will be how much of their tier-I capital?
A. ₹150 lakh
B. ₹120 lakh
C. ₹60 lakh
D. ₹50 lakh
E. ₹70 lakh
Q26. As per the recent (June 2023) data of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal
Trade (DPIIT), United Arab Emirates (UAE), with which India implemented a comprehensive
free trade agreement in May last year, has emerged as the fourth largest investor in India
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during 2022-23. Which among the following countries are among the top 3 sources of FDI into
India?
A. UAE, Mauritius, US
B. Netherlands, Mauritius, US
C. Singapore, Mauritius, US
D. Singapore, Netherlands, US
E. Singapore, Mauritius, Australia
Q27. India’s overall exports (Merchandise and Services combined) in April 2023 is estimated to
be USD 65.02 Billion, exhibiting a positive growth of 2.00 per cent over April 2022. Which one
of the following key sectors under merchandise exports exhibited highest positive growth in
April 2023 as compared to the same period last year (April 2022)?
A. Oil Meals
B. Electronic Goods
C. Ceramic Products & Glassware
D. Drugs & Pharmaceuticals
E. Cereal Preparations & Miscellaneous Processed Items
Q28. Which of the following States are among the top 3 destination States for FDI in India?
1. Maharashtra
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Delhi
5. Tamil Nadu
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 2, 4 and 5
E. 1, 2 and 3
Q29. Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya unveiled the 5th State Food Safety Index (SFSI), which evaluates
the performance of states and union territories across six different aspects of food safety.
Which one of the following are the top-3 states in the large state category of the State Food
Safety Index?
A. Kerala, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh

B. Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Punjab
C. Kerala, Punjab and Tamil Nadu
D. Haryana, Kerala and Telangana
E. Haryana, Punjab and Tamil Nadu
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Q30. Who has been recently appointed as the chair of B20 India which represents the entire
G20 business community?
A. Ajay Bhalla
B. Gautam Adani
C. N. Chandrasekaran
D. Ratan Tata
E. Ravneet Kaur
Q31. The headquarters of European Central Bank is located in ____and was established in
______.
A. London, 1998
B. Brusells, 2002
C. Paris, 2000
D. Rome, 1998
E. Frankfurt, 1998
Q32. Which of the following statements is true regarding Call Money, Notice Money and Term
Money?
A. Scheduled commercial banks (including Small Finance Banks) cannot set their own limits for
borrowing in call money and notice money markets, within the prescribed prudential limits
for inter-bank liabilities
B. Scheduled commercial banks (excluding Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits for
borrowing in call money and notice money markets, within the prescribed prudential limits
for inter-bank liabilities
C. Scheduled commercial banks (excluding Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits for
borrowing in call money only but not in notice money markets, within the prescribed
prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
D. Scheduled commercial banks (including Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits for
borrowing in call money only but not in notice money markets, within the prescribed
prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
E. None of the above
Q33. 50 years after the launch of Project Tiger on April 1, 1973, India's tiger population today
ranges from 2,500 to 3,000. When Project Tiger started, we had ___ tiger reserves. In 2023,
we have ___.
A. 9, 47
B. 9, 53
C. 9, 48
D. 9, 55
E. 9, 67
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Q34. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Sovereign Gold Bonds?
A. Investment limit per fiscal year is 4 kg for individuals and Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)
B. Investment limit per fiscal year is 20 Kg for Trusts and similar entities notified by the
Government from time to time
C. Bond is available both in demat and paper form
D. Total limit is excluding purchase from secondary market
E. Bond can be used as collateral for loans
Q35. Which among the following bank has launched corporate customer platform "fyn"?
A. Kotak Mahindra Bank
B. IndusInd Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. RBL Bank
E. Federal Bank
Q36. Which of the following is one of the Payment System Operator in India?
A. Clearing Corporation of India

B. National Payments Corporation of India
C. Scheduled Commercial Banks
D. All of the above
Q37. Recently, 40 years have been completed for the historic win of India in 1983 Cricket
World Cup final. India scored 183 runs batting first, what was the score of West Indies?
A. 128
B. 133
C. 110
D. 125
E. 140
Q38. The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Ayush, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal
flagged off the maiden International Cruise Vessel "_______", India’s first international cruise
vessel, from Chennai to _______.
A. MV Empress, Bangladesh
B. MV Ganga Vilas, Bhutan
C. MV Empress, Sri Lanka
D. MV Ganga Vilas, Sri Lanka
E. MV Emperor, Sri Lanka
Q39. Which of the following institutes celebrate their foundation day on 1st July?
A. Indian Space Research Organisation
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B. Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
C. Defence Research and Development Organisation
D. Border Roads Organisation
E. NITI Aayog
Q40. Brand Finance evaluates and values over 5,000 brands every year, across all sectors and
geographies. Get instant access to the world's largest brand database, including brand value,
brand strength, research and competitive ranking data.According to brand finance India,
which among the following is not among the top 5 Indian brands?
A. Tata
B. Infosys
C. HDFC Bank
D. LIC
E. Reliance
Q41. The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was approved by the MHRD and
launched by Honourable Minister of Human Resource Development on 29th September
2015.As per the NIRF's "India Rankings 2023", which one of the following has been matched
incorrectly:
1. Top performing University: IISc Bengaluru
2. Top performing College: ST Stephens
3. Top performing institute in Overall Category: IIT Madras
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q42. El Nino is a cyclical environmental condition that occurs across the Equatorial Pacific
Ocean and is triggered by natural interactions between the ocean and atmosphere with the
driving factors being the sea surface temperature, rainfall, air pressure, and atmospheric and
ocean circulations. It occurs when the surface water in the equatorial Pacific becomes warmer
than average and east winds blow weaker than normal. The phenomenon is similar to which
of the following climatic anomaly?
A. Indian Ocean Dipole
B. Mavven Oscillation
C. Madden Jullian Oscillation
D. Western Disturbances
E. Monsoon
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Q43. Which of the following is the mascots launched by RBI as a part of its financial Awareness
campaign?
A. Ms Money
B. Mr Money
C. Money Kumar
D. Mr Kumar
E. Money Raja
Q44. Which of the following is the initiative supported by NITI Aayog, aimed to finance 50,000
electric vehicles for MSMEs?
A. ELECTRO
B. EVOLVE
C. EVPURE
D. EVWORLD
E. EVNITI
Q45. World Bank has scrapped Ease of Doing Business and announced a new replacement
annual series which will reflect a more balanced and transparent approach toward evaluating
a country's business and investment climate. What is the name of the new replacement
annual series?
A. Ease Business
B. Business PRO
C. Easy Business
D. Business Ready
E. Business PORT
Q46. Food and Consumer Affairs Minister Piyush Goyal has announced that India will achieve
its target of ____ ethanol blending with petrol by ______ instead of 2030. He also maintained
that the maize crop will play an important role in implementation of the programme.
A. 20%, 2024
B. 25%, 2025
C. 20%, 2025
D. 30%, 2030
E. 25%, 2023
Q47. Recently, Union Minister of Road Transport and Highway has informed about the
ambitious India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway which connects Kolkata to Bangkok. It
belongs to which of which of the following organization?
A. BIMSTEC
B. ASEAN
C. SCO
D. G-7
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E. G20
Q48. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched three flagship schemes for urban revamp,
including smart cities and housing for all on 25th June 2015, ensuring better quality of life for
40% of the country’s population that either live in urban areas or dependent on them for
livelihood. Which one of the following are the 3-schemes launched?
1. Smart Cities Mission
2. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)
3. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 & 2
E. All 1, 2 and 3
Q49. According to the Union Budget 2023, Government has decided to continue the 50-year
interest free loan to state governments for one more year to spur ________ investment and,
with a significantly enhanced outlay of Rs 1.3 lakh crore, from ___________.
A. Capital, 2021-22
B. Capital, 2025-26
C. Capital, 2024-25
D. Capital, 2022-23
E. Capital, 2023-24
Q50. Which one of the following statements are correct with respect to the Mission for
Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) scheme?
1. It is Central Sector Scheme launched in 2015.
2. It provides financial assistance @35% of the project cost in general areas for setting up post
harvest management infrastructure.
3. It provides technical advice and administrative support to state governments/state
horticulture missions for the saffron mission.
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 2
D. Both 1 & 3
E. All 1, 2 & 3
Q51. Progress has been sluggish in six sectors under Production-Linked Incentive (PLI)
schemes. A detailed analysis is being conducted by relevant ministries. Which among the
following is not under non-performing sector of the scheme?
A. Information technology (IT) hardware
B. White Goods
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C. ACC Battery
D. Textile
E. Speciality Steel
Q52. Which one of the following states was among the top-3 states in terms of highest GST
revenues in June 2023?
1. Haryana
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Maharashtra
A. Only 2, 3 and 5
B. Only 1, 3 & 4
C. Only 1, 2 & 5
D. Only 3, 4 & 5
E. Only 2, 3 & 4
Q53. e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance
carrying any consignment of goods of value exceeding ______ as mandated by the
Government in terms of section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act read with rule 138 of
the rules framed thereunder.
A. Rs 50,000
B. Rs 40,000
C. Rs 65,000
D. Rs 1,00,000
E. Rs 75,000
Q54. Name the country that conferred its highest civilian honour to President Droupadi
Murmu- The Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star, the first Indian to receive this award.
A. Sudan
B. South Africa
C. Uganda
D. Suriname
E. Serbia
Q55. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, approved the
constitution and empowerment of an Inter Ministerial Committee (IMC) for facilitation of the
“World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector” by convergence of various
schemes of ministries. Which ministry does not belong to that group?
A. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
B. Ministry of Cooperation
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C. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
D. Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Q56. The Reserve Bank releases a quarterly house price index (HPI) based on transaction-level
data received from housing registration authorities in ten major cities. The cities are:
1. Bengaluru
2. Delhi
3. Jaipur
4. Kanpur
5. Kolkata
6. Mumbai
Remaining cities are :
A. Chandigarh, Kochi, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
B. Chennai, Shimla, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
C. Chennai, Kochi, Lucknow, Agra
D. Chennai, Surat, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
E. Chennai, Kochi, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
Q57. Which one of the following is/are the dimensions across which the states and districts
have been assessed under the Social Progress Index (SPI) for States and Districts made by the
Institute for Competitiveness and Social Progress Imperative?
1. Basic Human Needs

2. Innovation
3. Foundations of Wellbeing
4. Opportunity
5. Foundations of Healthy life
A. Only 1, 3 and 4
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 2, 3 and 4
D. Only 1 and 2
E. Only 2 and 3
Q58. NASA's MAVEN mission has released some new, mind-blowing images captivating array
of ultraviolet views of the red planet. What does "V" stands for in MAVEN Mission?
A. Velocity
B. Vacuum
C. Volatile
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D. Valence
E. Vector
Q59. The Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) Code is a seven-digit code that is provided to the
registered banks by the RBI. The first three digits in the code identify the bank, while the
following four digits identify the bank branch. India’s Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) system
recently completed _________ since its inception.
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 50 years
D. 25 years
E. 75 years
Q60. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has fixed the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) size for
housing finance companies at _________. The housing finance companies (HFCs) holding a
Certificate of Registration (CoR) and having an NOF of less than ______ will be required to
achieve NOF of Rs 15 crore by March 31, 2022 and ________ by March 31, 2023.
A. Rs 5 crore
B. Rs 15 crore
C. Rs 25 crore
D. Rs 20 crore
E. Rs 35 crore
Q61. As per Foreign Trade Policy 2023, towns that produces goods worth at least ______ can
be recognized as towns of export excellence, based on their growth potential for exports.
A. Rs 850 Crore
B. Rs 750 Crore
C. Rs 650 Crore
D. Rs 550 Crore
E. Rs 450 Crore
Q62. NTPC Limited, India's largest power generation company, has climbed 52 positions to
secure the 433rd rank in Forbes' “The Global 2000” List for 2023. Which among the following
is/are not the parameters taken into account for determining Forbes 2000 ranking of the top
public companies in the world?
A. Goodwill
B. Sales
C. Profits
D. Assets
E. Market value
Q63. Recently (June 2023), Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), New Delhi has
signed a MoU with _______ Kisan to combine strengths and create synergy between the two
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organizations for guiding the farmers on scientific cultivation of different crops for optimum
yield and income.
A. Snapdeal
B. Meesho
C. Amazon
D. Flipkart
E. CRED
Q64. Recently, Sebi has proposed to tweak the definition of unpublished price sensitive
information (UPSI). It proposed changing the definition of UPSI as it currently stands and
bringing Regulation 30 of LODR, according to which the listed firms must notify stock
exchanges after the occurrence of any events or facts that are material. Which of the following
occurrences are included?
1. Any modification to securities
2. Revision to ratings
3. Initiation of CSR activities
4. Change in director
5. Fraud or default by promoters or key managerial people
A. Both 2 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4 and 5
C. Both 1 & 5
D. 3, 4 and 5
E. 1,2,4 and 5
Q65. As per data from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation released
under “Twenty Point Programme”, of the 14 parameters tracked quarterly, the Indian
Government achieved a more than ____ target completion ("very good") in six parameters.
A. 80%
B. 90%
C. 75%
D. 60%
E. 40%
Q66. Household financial savings refer to currency, bank deposits, debt

securities, mutual funds, pension funds, insurance, and investments in small savings schemes.
The total of these savings is referred to as gross household financial savings. Once financial
liabilities, including loans from banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), and housing
finance companies, are subtracted from gross savings, what remains is referred to as net
household financial savings. As per the RBI Annual Report 2022-23, which one of the following
Financial Saving of Household Sector has the highest share in 2021-22?
A. Deposits
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B. Currency
C. Shares and Debentures
D. Insurance Funds
E. Provident and Pension Funds
Q67. TRAI in its endeavor to curb menace of spams through Unsolicited Commercial
Communication (UCC) has taken various measures in recent past. Recently (June 2023), TRAI
has now issued a Direction to all the Access Providers to develop and deploy the DCA facility
for creating a unified platform and process to register customers consent digitally across all
service providers and Principal Entities. What does “DCA” stands for?
A. Digital Consent Acquisition

B. Data Consent Acquisition
C. Digital Content Acquisition
D. Data Content Acquisition
E. Digital Communication Acquisition
Q68. Taking forward digitization efforts announced in the Union Budget 2022-23, the Reserve
Bank introduced its Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) in phases during the year, with the
launch of pilots for Digital Rupee (e`) in ____________.
A. Wholesale segments only on December 1, 2022
B. Retail segments only November 1, 2022.
C. Wholesale and retail segments on December 1, 2022, and November 1, 2022 respectively.
D. Wholesale and retail segments on January 1, 2022, and December 1, 2022 respectively.
E. Wholesale and retail segments on November 1, 2022, and December 1, 2022 respectively.
Q69. As per the recent advance estimates of production of major crops for agricultural year
2022-23 released by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the production of which
one of the following crops did not increase from the previous year?
A. Jawar
B. Rice
C. Wheat
D. Bajra
E. Maize
Q70. Which of the following Scheduled Commercial Banks have recorded the highest number
of new branch additions in the financial year ended on 31st March 2023?
A. Yes Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Bank of Baroda
D. HDFC Bank
E. ICICI Bank
20 | Page
Q71. Under SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, Mutual Funds are permitted to charge
certain operating expenses for managing a mutual fund scheme. All such costs for running and
managing a mutual fund scheme are collectively referred to as ‘Total Expense Ratio’ (TER).
TER is calculated as a percentage of the Scheme’s average _________.
A. Net Asset Value (NAV)
B. Absolute Returns
C. Simple Annualised Return
D. Total Investments
E. Redemption Amount
Q72. Which among the following metal was not used to make the commemorative '75 Rupee
Coin' which was launched during the inauguration of new parliament?
A. Silver
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D. Gold
E. Zinc
Q73. As per IRDAI, which among the following is a criteria used to identify the Domestic
'Systemically Important Insurers?
A. Number of Branches
B. Market Share
C. Domestic and global interconnectedness
D. Public Sector
E. All of the above
Q74. Recently, the Prime Minister of India attended the 3rd summit of 3rd Summit of the
Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) held at which of the following locations?
A. Fiji
B. Papua New Guinea
C. Samoa
D. Solomon Islands
E. Niue
Q75. Recently, Indian security forces have been trained in _________ “Krav Maga” to counter
China's People Liberation Army (PLA) during patrolling along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
A. Russia
B. Caribbean Island
C. Israel
D. France
E. USA
21 | Page
Q76. The Centre has revised the threshold for GST e-invoicing, and has announced that it will
be mandatory for all businesses with annual turnover of over _____to move to e-invoicing for
business to business transaction under goods and services tax (GST) from _____.
A. Rs 2 crore, Rs 10 Crore
B. Rs 3.5 crore, Rs 10 Crore
C. Rs 5 crore, Rs 10 Crore
D. Rs 10 crore, Rs 20 Crore
E. Rs 15 crore, Rs 20 Crore
Q77. According to the Union Budget 2023-24, the highest surcharge rate in personal income
tax has been reduced from 37% to _____ in the new tax regime for income above ₹2 crore.
A. 15%
B. 36%
C. 17%
D. 25%
E. 30%
Q78. Which among the following player has courted controversy when he wrote “Kosovo is
the heart of Serbia, depicting the ethnic tensions flared in the Balkan nation?
A. Casper Ruud
B. Carlos Alcaraz
C. Novak Djokovic
D. Rafael Nadal
E. Andrey Rublev
Q79. Government of India through Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Ltd. (ISPRL) under
Phase–1 has setup Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) at three locations namely
Vishakhapatnam, Mangalore and ________.
A. Varanasi
B. Padur
C. Raipur
D. Kolkata
E. Ranchi
Q80. Which one of the following statements are correct regarding the PM KUSUM Scheme?
1. It seeks to increase the farmers income
2. The scheme comprises of 3- components.
3. It works towards decreasing the environmental pollution.
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
22 | Page
D. Both 1 & 2
E. All 1, 2 and 3

Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

Number Number Number Number
1 A 21 C 41 A 61 B
2 C 22 C 42 A 62 A
3 B 23 B 43 C 63 C
4 C 24 B 44 B 64 E
5 E 25 C 45 D 65 B
6 A 26 C 46 C 66 A
7 C 27 A 47 A 67 A
8 E 28 E 48 E 68 E
9 D 29 C 49 E 69 A
10 C 30 C 50 B 70 D
11 B 31 E 51 A 71 A
12 A 32 B 52 A 72 D
13 B 33 B 53 A 73 E
14 D 34 D 54 D 74 B
15 C 35 A 55 B 75 C
16 B 36 D 56 E 76 C
17 B 37 E 57 A 77 D
18 B 38 C 58 C 78 C
19 C 39 B 59 C 79 B
20 A 40 C 60 C 80 E
23 | Page
Explanations
Q.1) Explanation:
US President Joe Biden and UK Prime Minister Rishi Sunak agreed an “Atlantic declaration” to
strengthen economic ties between the two countries. The declaration aims to increase US-UK trade
in areas such as defence, nuclear materials and the critical minerals used in electric-car batteries.
Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – June 2023
24 | Page
Hence A is the correct answer.
Q.2) Explanation:
The United States had announced its intention to rejoin UNESCO in June 2023.
Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – July 2023
Hence C is the correct answer.
Q.3) Explanation:
The financial inclusion dashboard called 'Antardrishti' has been launched by the RBI. This dashboard
will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by
capturing all the relevant parameters.
25 | Page
Covered in EduTap Course: RBI NewsTap June 2023
Hence B is the correct answer.
Q.4) Explanation:
Climate Change researcher Joyeeta Gupta, professor of Environment and Development at the
University of Amsterdam, has been picked for the Spinoza Prize, the highest scientific honour in The
Netherlands. The 1.5 million euros Spinoza Prize, is sometimes referred to as the Dutch Nobel.
26 | Page
Q.5) Explanation:
Although no country has yet achieved full gender parity, Iceland is the most gender-equal country
in the world for the 14th consecutive year and the only one to have closed more than 90% of its
gender gap, according to the Global Gender Gap Index Rankings.
Hence E is the correct answer.
Q.6) Explanation:
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India Girish Chandra Murmu has been re-elected as
external auditor of the World Health Organization (WHO) for a four-year term from 2024 to 2027.
Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – May 2023
Q.7) Explanation:
Worldwide there are six regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and five regional
Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs) mandated for issuing advisories and naming of tropical
cyclones. India Meteorological Department is one of the six RSMCs to provide tropical cyclone and
storm surge advisories to 13 member countries under WMO/ESCAP Panel.
27 | Page
Q.8) Explanation:
Covered in EduTap Course: Foreign Trade Policy 2023 Document
Q.9) Explanation:
The Upper Tolerance level of Inflation is 6.0% and in case of breach of the upper tolerance for three
consecutive quarters the report has to be submitted by RBI.
Hence D is the correct answer.
Q.10) Explanation:
As per the survey of professional forecasters (SPF) by RBI, the real gross domestic product (GDP)
growth forecast for 2023-24 has been retained at 6.0 per cent, while it is expected to grow by 6.4
per cent in 2024-25.
28 | Page
Q.11) Explanation:
As per Annual Report of RBI, Commercial banks remained the largest holders of government
securities [including T-Bills and state government securities (SGSs)] accounting for 37.5% as at end-
March 2023.
Covered in EduTap Course: Summary of RBI Annual Report 2022 – 2023
29 | Page
Q.12) Explanation:
West Bengal, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu are the among the top 3 States with highest mangrove cover in
India.
Q.13) Explanation:
Under India's G20 Presidency, nine countries — Bangladesh, Egypt, Mauritius, Netherlands,
Nigeria, Oman, Singapore, Spain and the United Arab Emirates — have been invited to be the
“guest countries”.
Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – December 2022
30 | Page
Hence, Phillipines is the country which does not belongs to the above list of guest countries.
Q.14) Explanation:
India is the Member of SCO, ADB, WTO and the World Bank.
Following are the members of OECD:
From above list, it can be concluded that India is not the member of OECD.
Q.15) Explanation:
As per RBI Annual Report 2022-23, India has remained among the fastest growing major economies
of the world, contributing more than 12% to global growth on average during the last five years.
31 | Page
Q.16) Explanation:
As per the Financial Stability Report, SCBs’ gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio continued its
downtrend and fell to a 10 year low in 3.9% in March 2023 and the net non-performing assets
(NNPA) ratio declined to 1%.
32 | Page
Covered in EduTap Course: Summary of Financial Stability Report June 2023
Q.17) Explanation:
Q.18) Explanation:
The core theme of the 2025 Payments Vision document is '4Es' – E-Payments for Everyone,
Everywhere, Everytime.
33 | Page
Q.19) Explanation:
ASEAN countries:
BIMSTEC countries:
34 | Page
`
Q.20) Explanation:
35 | Page
Q.21) Explanation:
Before 2024 Lok Sabha election, 5 states to go on polls. Now as per political analysts, three assembly
elections could also take place alongside the Lok Sabha polls which will keep the political pot boiling.
After Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, and Mizoram would go to
polls this year.
Hence, Haryana is the state whose State Legislative Assembly’s term will not end till Jan 2024.
Link: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/before-2024-lok-sabha-election-5-states-that-go-on-
polls-mp-rajasthan-chhattisgarh-telangana-and-mizoram-11684112645718.html
Q.22) Explanation:
Covered in EduTap Course: Covered in SchemesTap - June 2023 - Second Section
36 | Page
37 | Page
Q.23) Explanation:
Star Indian shuttler HS Prannoy ended a six-year-long title drought with a three-game win over
China's Weng Hong Yang in a pulsating men's singles finals at the Malaysia Masters Super 500
tournament.
Above, the event name has been mentioned as “Malaysia Masters Super 500 tournament”.
Q.24) Explanation:
For the first time in India, the share price of a company crossed the Rs 1 lakh mark. With this, MRF
Ltd became the first stock in India to cross the Rs 1 lakh mark per share after its share jumped 1.07
per cent in early trade recently in June 2023.
Q.25) Explanation:
With classification of UCBs into four tiers, the prudential exposure limits for UCBs to a group of
connected borrowers/parties will be ₹60 lakh.
38 | Page
Q.26) Explanation:
The countries which are top-3 sources of FDI into India- Singapore, Mauritius, US
Covered in EduTap Course: Summary of RBI Annual Report 2022 – 2023
39 | Page
Q.27) Explanation:
India’s overall exports (Merchandise and Services combined) in April 2023 is estimated to be USD
65.02 Billion, exhibiting a positive growth of 2.00 per cent over April 2022.
Under merchandise exports, 11 of the 30 key sectors exhibited positive growth in April 2023 as
compared to the same period last year (April 2022). These include Oil Meals (95.14%), Electronic
Goods (26.49%), Rice (24.01%), Oil Seeds (18.01%), Ceramic Products & Glassware (17.21%), Spices
(14.44%), Drugs & Pharmaceuticals (10.45%), Fruits & Vegetables (9.96%), Tobacco (6.28%), Coffee
(4.17%) and Cereal Preparations & Miscellaneous Processed Items (2.03%).
Q.28) Explanation:
The top 3 destination States for FDI in India are- Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Gujarat
Q.29) Explanation:
The top-3 states in the large state category of the State Food Safety Index: Kerala, Punjab and
Tamil Nadu
40 | Page
Q.30) Explanation:
N. Chandrasekaran has been recently appointed as the chair of B20 India which represents the
entire G20 business community.
41 | Page
Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – December 2022
Q.31) Explanation:
The headquarters of European Union Bank is located in Frankfurt and was established in 1998.
Q.32) Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India has allowed banks to set their own limits for borrowing in call and notice
money markets. According to RBI, Scheduled commercial banks (excluding Small Finance Banks) can
set their own limits for borrowing in call money and notice money markets, within the prescribed
prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities.
42 | Page
Q.33) Explanation:
Tiger reserves increased from 9 in 1973 to 53 in present day.
Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – April 2023
43 | Page
Q.34) Explanation:
Covered in EduTap Course: Covered in SchemesTap - June 2023 - First Section
44 | Page
As, the above mentioned points shows that the options A, B, C and E are correct. So, the left option
(D) will be the answer.
Q.35) Explanation:
Private lender Kotak Mahindra Bank has launched Kotak fyn, a unified portal for corporate
customers to track their payments, collections, trade and other services related to their bank
accounts.
Q.36) Explanation:
Clearing Corporation of India, National Payments Corporation of India, Scheduled Commercial

Banks are the Payment System Operator in India.
45 | Page
Q.37) Explanation:
Year 2023 marked the 40th anniversary of a famous Indian victory at the Lord's Cricket Ground - a
victory where India beat cricketing giant West Indies in the final of the World Cup to lift its maiden
title, back in 1983. In the final match, the West Indies were bowled out for 140 runs in 52 overs,
falling short of India’s total by 43 runs.
Q.38) Explanation:
The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Ayush, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal
flagged off the maiden International Cruise Vessel "MV Empress", India’s first international cruise
vessel, from Chennai to Sri Lanka.
46 | Page
Q.39) Explanation:
National CA Day, also referred to Chartered Accountant Day, is celebrated on July 1 every year.
The day is dedicated to commemorating the establishment of the Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India (ICAI) in 1949 by an Act of Parliament in India.
Q.40) Explanation:
47 | Page
Q.41) Explanation:
48 | Page
Q.42) Explanation:
The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is an ocean-atmosphere interaction very similar to the El Nino
fluctuations in the Pacific Ocean, playing out, as the name shows, in the Indian Ocean. It is also a
much weaker system than El Nino, and thus has relatively limited impacts.
Q.43) Explanation:
India’s central bank – the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched another interesting Ad campaign
with 9XM. Part of the RBI Kehta Hai initiative, the campaign aims at creating awareness among the
common man about ‘RBI’s Ombudsman’ facility.
The latest campaign shows RBI’s popular mascot Money Kumar as a shayar who makes viewers
aware about the Bank’s services where aggrieved customers can file their complaints against any
irregularities or fraudulent transaction in banking sector.
49 | Page
Q.44) Explanation:
SIDBI, the principal financial institution for MSMEs in India, has launched mission EVOLVE (Electric
Vehicle Operations and Lending for Vibrant Ecosystem) in association with NITI Aayog, World Bank,
Korean-World Bank and Korean Economic Development Cooperation Fund (EDCF) to finance
MSMEs in the EV space. The mission aims to finance 50,000 EVs.
50 | Page
Q.45) Explanation:
The World Bank has announced a new methodology for assessing the business climate in up to 180
countries after embarrassing revelations of data irregularities and favoritism toward China forced it
to cancel the "Doing Business" rankings two years ago. The bank stated about the new replacement
annual series called "Business Ready" would be published in the spring of 2024.
Q.46) Explanation:
Target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol is to be achieved by 2025.
Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – April 2023
51 | Page
Q.47) Explanation:
As per recent announcement, around 70 per cent construction work on the ambitious India-
Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway has been completed. India, Thailand and Myanmar are
working on about 1,400-km-long highway that would link the country with Southeast Asia by land.
The trilateral highway project was first proposed and approved at a ministerial meeting of India,
Myanmar and Thailand in April 2002. The Kolkata-Bangkok highway would strengthen bilateral
economic connections and trade. The 2,800-kilometre-long highway is a Bay of Bengal Initiative
For Multi-Sectoral Technical & Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) project aimed at boosting
multilateral trade.
Q.48) Explanation:
Covered in EduTap Course: SMART Cities - Covered in SchemesTap- June 2023- 2nd Section
AMRUT - Covered in SchemeTap - January 2023 - First Section
52 | Page
PM-AWAS YOJANA - URBAN - Covered in SchemesTap - April 2023 - First Section
Q.49) Explanation:
According to the Union Budget 2023, Government has decided to continue the 50-year interest free
loan to state governments for one more year to spur Capital investment and, with a significantly
enhanced outlay of Rs 1.3 lakh crore, from 2023-24.
Covered in EduTap Course: Covered partially in SchemeTap - June 2023 - First Section
53 | Page
Q.50) Explanation:
Covered in EduTap Course: Covered in SchemeTap - January 2023 - First Section
Q.51) Explanation:
54 | Page
According to data collated by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT),
incentives have been given to PLI beneficiaries in eight of the 14 sectors — mobile manufacturing,
information technology (IT) hardware, pharmaceutical drug, bulk drug, medical device,
telecommunications, food product, and drone.
Progress has been sluggish for the remaining six sectors — steel, textile, battery, white goods,
solar photovoltaic, and automotive — and are yet to receive incentives.
Q.52) Explanation:
States which are among the top-3 states in terms of highest GST revenues in June 2023-
1. Maharashtra
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
Q.53) Explanation:
e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance carrying
any consignment of goods of value exceeding Rs 50,000 as mandated by the Government in terms
of section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act read with rule 138 of the rules framed thereunder.
Q.54) Explanation:
Suriname conferred its highest civilian honour to President Droupadi Murmu- The Grand Order of
the Chain of Yellow Star, the first Indian to receive this award.
55 | Page
Q.55) Explanation:
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the
constitution and empowerment of an Inter Ministerial Committee (IMC) for facilitation of the
“World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector” by convergence of various schemes of
the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
Distribution and Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
From the above we can conclude that Ministry of Cooperation does not belong to that group.
Q.56) Explanation:
56 | Page
The Reserve Bank of India releases a quarterly house price index (HPI) based on transaction-level
data received from housing registration authorities in ten major cities. The cities are Ahmedabad,
Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Jaipur, Kanpur, Kochi, Kolkata, Lucknow, and Mumbai.
Q.57) Explanation:
Social Progress Index (SPI) for States and Districts made by the Institute for Competitiveness and
Social Progress Imperative. SPI is a comprehensive tool that can serve as a holistic measure of a
country's social progress at the national and sub-national levels.
The index assesses states and districts based on 12 components across three critical dimensions
of social progress - Basic Human Needs, Foundations of Wellbeing, and Opportunity.
Q.58) Explanation:
NASA's Mars Atmosphere and Volatile Evolution (MAVEN) mission has released some new, mind-
blowing images which have left scientists astounded. The images showcase a captivating array of
ultraviolet views of the red planet, leaving it bathed in hues of purple.
Q.59) Explanation:
The Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) Code is a seven-digit code that is provided to the registered
banks by the RBI. The first three digits in the code identify the bank, while the following four digits
identify the bank branch. India’s Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) system recently completed 50 years
since its inception.
Q.60) Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has fixed the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) size for housing
finance companies at Rs 25 crore. The housing finance companies (HFCs) holding a Certificate of
Registration (CoR) and having an NOF of less than Rs 25 crore will be required to achieve NOF of Rs
15 crore by March 31, 2022 and Rs 25 crore by March 31, 2023,
Q.61) Explanation:
As per Foreign Trade Policy, towns that produces goods worth at least Rs 750 Crore can be
recognized as towns of export excellence, based on their growth potential for exports.
57 | Page
Q.62) Explanation:
NTPC Limited, India's largest power generation company, has climbed 52 positions to secure the
433rd rank in Forbes' “The Global 2000” List for 2023. “The Global 2000” List recognizes the world's
largest companies based on four key metrics: sales, profits, assets and market value.
Q.63) Explanation:
Recently (June 2023), Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), New Delhi has signed a MoU
with Amazon Kisan to combine strengths and create synergy between the two organizations for
guiding the farmers on scientific cultivation of different crops for optimum yield and income.
Q.64) Explanation:
To improve regulatory certainty and uniformity in compliance for listed companies in regards to the
identification of specific events as unpublished price sensitive information (UPSI), capital markets
regulator SEBI has proposed to modify the current definition of UPSI.
58 | Page
The regulator proposed changing the definition of UPSI as it currently stands and bringing
Regulation 30 of LODR (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) within it in its consultation
document.
According to LODR Regulation 30, listed firms must notify stock exchanges as soon as possible and
no later than 24 hours after the occurrence of any events or facts that are material. These
occurrences included the following:
• any modification to securities, revision to ratings, initiation of forensic audits, change in
director, and fraud or default by promoters or key managerial people.
From the above, we can conclude that statement 3 is incorrect.
Q.65) Explanation:
As per data from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation released under
“Twenty Point Programme”, of the 14 parameters tracked quarterly, the Indian Government
achieved a more than 90% target completion ("very good") in six parameters.
Q.66) Explanation:
Q.67) Explanation:
TRAI in its endeavor to curb menace of spams through Unsolicited Commercial Communication
(UCC) has taken various measures in recent past. Recently (June 2023), TRAI has now issued a
Direction to all the Access Providers to develop and deploy the Digital Consent Acquisition (DCA)
59 | Page
facility for creating a unified platform and process to register customers consent digitally across all
service providers and Principal Entities.
Q.68) Explanation:
Taking forward digitization efforts announced in the Union Budget 2022-23, the Reserve Bank
introduced its Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) in phases during the year, with the launch of
pilots for Digital Rupee (e) in Wholesale and retail segments on November 1, 2022, and December
1, 2022 respectively.
Covered in EduTap Course: RBI Annual Report 2022-23
60 | Page
Q.69) Explanation:
As per the recent advance estimates of production of major crops for agricultural year 2022-23
released by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare-
Crop Production in 2021-22 Third Advance Estimate

Rice 1294.71 1355.42
Wheat 1077.42 1127.43
Jowar 41.51 39.90
Bajra 97.81 111.66
Maize 337.30 359.13
Q.70) Explanation:
HDFC Bank has recorded the highest number of new branch additions in the financial year ended
on 31st March 2023.
Q.71) Explanation:
Under SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, Mutual Funds are permitted to charge certain
operating expenses for managing a mutual fund scheme. All such costs for running and managing a
mutual fund scheme are collectively referred to as ‘Total Expense Ratio’ (TER). TER is calculated as
a percentage of the Scheme’s average Net Asset Value (NAV).
Q.72) Explanation:
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To mark the inauguration of the new Parliament building, Prime Minister Narendra Modi released
a commemorative coin of Rs 75 denomination. As per the Ministry of Finance notification, the
latest Rs 75 coin is circular in shape with a diameter of 44mm. The composition of the coin is of a
quaternary alloy — 50 per cent silver, 40 per cent copper, 5 per cent nickel and 5 per cent zinc.
Q.73) Explanation:
Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) refer to insurers of such size, market importance,
and domestic and global interconnectedness, whose distress or failure would cause a significant
dislocation in the domestic financial system. Therefore, the continued functioning of D-SIIs is critical
for the uninterrupted availability of insurance services to the national economy.
The criteria used to identify the Domestic 'Systemically Important Insurers are:
1. Number of Branches
2. Market Share
3. Domestic and global interconnectedness
4. Public Sector
Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine - April 2023
Q.74) Explanation:
Recently, the Prime Minister of India attended the 3rd summit of 3rd Summit of the Forum for India-
Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) held in Papua New Guinea.
62 | Page
Q.75) Explanation:
Recently, Indian security forces have been trained in Israel’s “Krav Maga” to counter China's People
Liberation Army (PLA) during patrolling along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
Q.76) Explanation:
The Centre has revised the threshold for GST e-invoicing, and has announced that it will be
mandatory for all businesses with annual turnover of over Rs 5 crore to move to e-invoicing for
business to business transaction under goods and services tax (GST) from Rs 10 Crore.
63 | Page
Q.77) Explanation:
According to the Union Budget 2023-24, the highest surcharge rate in personal income tax has been
reduced from 37% to 25% in the new tax regime for income above ₹2 crore.
Covered in EduTap Course: Union Budget 2023-24 Document
Q.78) Explanation:
Novak Djokovic courted controversy when he wrote “Kosovo is the heart of Serbia, depicting the
ethnic tensions flared in the Balkan nation.
64 | Page
Q.79) Explanation:
Government of India through Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Ltd. (ISPRL) under Phase –1 has
setup Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) at three locations namely Vishakhapatnam, Mangalore
and Padur.
Q.80) Explanation:
Covered in EduTap Course: SchemesTap- June 2023 - First Section
65 | Page
66 | Page
Section – Reasoning
Directions (Q81- 82): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by five
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts.
Q.81) Only a few bananas are oranges. No banana is mango. No grapes are oranges.
Conclusions:
[1] Some grapes can be mangoes
[2] All bananas can be oranges
[3] Some mangoes are not bananas
[4] Some grapes are bananas is a possibility
[5] Some oranges can be mangoes
Q.82) Some actors are dancers. Only a few dancers are singers. No singer is politician
Conclusions:
[1] Some politician being actors is a possibility
[2] Some dancers are not singers
[3] Some dancers are not politicians is not a possibility
[4] Some actors are singers
[5] Some actors are singers is a possibility
Directions (Q83-87): Answer the questions based on the information given below:
Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I were born on 18th of different months in the same year such
that no one was born in March, June and November. These persons belong to different places
among Solapur, Kanpur, Jaipur, Raipur, Jodhpur, Sultanpur, Udaipur, Nagpur and Firozpur.
B was born in a month with 31 days and three months before the person from Raipur. Three
persons were born between B and D, who is not the youngest. The person from Nagpur was born
immediately after the one from Kanpur. The person from Kanpur was not born in a month with
only 30 days. G is not from Sultanpur.
There is a gap of only one month between the birth of G and the one from Solapur. The person
from Jaipur is five months elder than G. F was born two months after D. Only one person was
born between F and E, who is from Solapur. H, who is from Udaipur, was born three months after
I, who is not the eldest. A is younger than C. Person from Jodhpur was born before the one from
Sultanpur.
Q.83) A is how many months older than H?

[1] Five
67 | Page
[2] Four
[3] Six
[4] Seven
[5] Eight
Q.84) Who among the following persons were born between C and the one from Udaipur?
I. Person from Jaipur

II. D
III. B
[1] Both II and III

[2] All I, II and III
[3] Both I and II
[4] Both I and III
[5] Only II
Q.85) The eldest person belongs to which place?
[1] Raipur
[2] Jodhpur
[3] Sultanpur
[4] Kanpur
[5] Firozpur
Q.86) ___ persons were born between the person who is born in October and the one from _____.
[1] Five, Nagpur

[2] Four, Jaipur
[3] Three, Raipur
[4] Six, Solapur
[5] None of these
Q.87) 3rd eldest person is ____ months older than _____.
[1] Three, D
[2] Five, H
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[3] Seven, G
[4] Four, F
[5] Six, B
Directions (Q88-89): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
@F52M$7KTR3C+8B!9DQ*G6WN
STEP 1 – Those numbers which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed
by an alphabet are written at the right end in descending order.
STEP 2 – After completing step 1, the alphabet which is immediately followed by a symbol are
written between 7th and 6th element from right end in alphabetical order from left to right.
Q.88) Which of the following element is 11 th to the right of the element which is 4th from the
right end in step 1?
[1] *
[2] Q
[3] G
[4] B
[5] 9
Q.89) How many alphabets are immediately followed or preceded by symbol in step 2?
[1] Four
[2] Two
[3] Five
[4] None
[5] Three
Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are kept one above the other. Each box contains different
items among Clothes, Bottles, Books, Watches, Combs, Pens, Mobiles, Shoes & Pencils. Number
of items in these boxes is different among 7, 12, 14, 18, 21, 23, 24, 30 and 27. The bottommost
box is numbered 1 and the topmost box is numbered 9.
Mobiles are kept in box 4. H is three boxes above the box with 24 items. G has 14 items and is one
of the four boxes above H. Third box from the top contains 2 nd highest number of items. There
are three boxes between G and the box with 18 items. Number of bottles is six more than number
of clothes. D is immediately below the box which contains clothes and neither of these boxes
contains more than 23 items. There are three boxes between the box, which contains bottles and
E, which contains books.
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Shoes are three boxes above B. A is immediately above F. Box, which contains Pens, is
immediately above I. C is three boxes above the box, which contains the lowest number of items.
Box with 23 items is immediately below the box, which contains watches. Number of pencils is
less than number of combs. Number of Books is not less than number of shoes.
Q.90) C is how many boxes above the box which contains 21 items?
[1] Four
[2] Five
[3] Two
[4] Six
[5] Three
Q.91) What is the sum of number of combs and pencils?
[1] 37
[2] 35
[3] 41
[4] 30
[5] 28
Q.92) Which among the following box is not between the box containing the lowest and highest
number of items?
I. D
II. A
III. Box containing 14 items.
[1] Both I and II
[2] Only I
[3] Both II and III
[4] Only III
[5] Only II
Q.93) What is the difference between the number of items in the topmost box and the number
of watches?
[1] 10
[2] 14
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[3] 16
[4] 12
[5] 18
Q.94) Which among the following boxes are kept between the box with 21 items and box
containing Pens?
[1] B
[2] C
[3] D
[4] E
[5] H
Directions (Q95-99): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Fourteen persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing seven persons in each row in such a
way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. Initially, in row 1, P, Q, R, S, T, U
and V are seated and all of them are facing towards the east and in row 2, A, B, C, D, E, F and G
are seated and all of them are facing towards the west. Therefore, in the given seating
arrangement each person sitting in row 1, is facing the persons sitting in row 2 and vice versa.
They play a game of throwing a dice. They interchange their initial position according to the game
rules which are as follows:
I. On throwing the dice, if odd number comes, then the person sitting 2 nd to the left of thrower
exchanges his seat with the person sitting opposite to the one, who sits immediate right of
thrower.
II. On throwing the dice, if even number comes, then the person sitting immediate right of the
thrower exchanges his seat with one, who sits opposite to the thrower.
Before Movement:
1. T sits fourth to the left of P. Either T or P sits at an extreme end of the row.
2. The one who faces P sits second to the left of F.
3. S sits exactly in the middle of the row. C and D are immediate neighbors of each other.
4. Number of persons sitting to the left of F is twice the number of persons sitting to the right
of F.
5. The one, who faces P sits to the immediate left of G and that person is neither C nor D.
6. Number of persons sit between P and R is same as the number of persons sit between T and
S.
7. T neither faces C nor D. No one sits between S and V.
8. At least two persons sit between G and E. R does not face B.
9. At most one person sit between S and Q.
10. U faces neither E nor C.
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11. A throws the dice and gets 4 after that F throws the dice and gets 3 and finally, V throws the
dice and gets 1.
Q.95) Who sits opposite to R after the movement?
[1] D
[2] A
[3] G
[4] F
[5] C
Q.96) Who sits 2nd to the right of G before the movement?
[1] A
[2] C
[3] F
[4] B
[5] D
Q.97) What is the position of T with respect to V after the movement?
[1] facing the one, who sits 2ndto the right of V
[2] 2nd to the right of V
[3] 2nd to the left of V
[4] facing the one, who sits immediate right of V
[5] immediate left
Q.98) How many persons sit between A and F before the movement?
[1] One
[2] Two
[3] Three
[4] More than three
[5] None
Q.99) Which of the following statement is true about B?
[1] B sits immediate right of T after the movement

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[2] B sits 4thto the left of Q after the movement
[3] B sits 4thto the right of A before the movement
[4] B sits opposite to V before the movement
[5] None
Directions (Q100-101: In the following question, two conclusions have been given followed by
five sets of possible statements. You have to take the given conclusions to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide for the given conclusions
logically follow from which of the given set of statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q.100) Conclusions:
1. Some gold are not silver.
2. Some gold are fabric.
Statements:
[1] All silver are fabric. No fabric is gold. Some gold are metal.
[2] Some silver are fabric. Some fabrics are gold. All gold are metal.
[3] No silver is fabric. All fabric are gold. Some gold are metal.
[4] All silver are fabric. Some fabric are metal. Some gold are metal.
[5] All fabric are silver. All silver are gold. All gold are metal.
Q.101) Conclusions:
1. Some hospitals are buildings is a possibility.
2. Some hostels are not houses.
Statements:
[1] All buildings are schools. All schools are hostels. No school is house. No hospital is hostel.
[2] Some buildings are schools. All Schools are hostels. No hospital is house. Some schools are
houses.
[3] All buildings are schools. All schools are hostels. No school is house. All hospitals are hostels.
[4] Some buildings are schools. No school is hostel. No hostel is hospital. Some hospitals are houses.
[5] None of these.
Q.102) Direction: In which of the following expressions V > Z, K < Y is definitely true?
[1] X => W > K => Z < Y <= U < V
[2] W <= T < V > G => I => Y > Z < K
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[3] T => C < V => A = Q => Z > Y > D > K
[4] D => E = G > V = F > K > Z < K < Q <= Y
[5] A => I => H = L < Z > K > V < J < Y
Q.103) Direction: In which of the following expression does the expression M => R is definitely
true
[1] X < R => T => P < N > B => M > U
[2] N > M > L = C => A = D > S = R
[3] L <= B > M > X => U <= A = O < R
[4] T > M = F => G = U => O <= R = S
[5] A > R <= B = L = P <= S = M < G
Q.104) The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read all the statements and give an answer.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table having eight seats such that
one of the seats is vacant. The vacant seat is to the immediate left of A’s seat. All are facing
towards the centre. How many people sit between G and F, when counted from the right of F?
Statement I: F sits second to the right of A and to the immediate left of D. One person sits between
D and G. B sits opposite to G. C and D are not sitting adjacent to each other.
Statement II: D sits third to right of A. B sits on the third seat to the left of A. One person sits
between E and F but neither E nor F sits adjacent to A. E and F are not adjacent to vacant seat.
[1] The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
[2] The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
[3] The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
[4] The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
[5] The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Q.105) The question given below can be answered using sentence given in only one of the options.
Find out the option which can be used to answer the question.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table such that four persons are
sitting in the corner of the table and four are sitting in the middle of the table. Also, the one, who
sits at the corner of the table faces away from the center and the one, who sits in the middle of
the table faces towards the table.
Who sits second to the right of C?

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[1] Only two persons sit between C and B when counted from the right of B. A is an immediate
neighbor of C and faces towards the center. E sits second to the right of A. B is second to the right
of E.
[2] C is an immediate neighbor of A. Person, who is immediate left of C, is sitting opposite to G. E

and F are immediate neighbors of each other. F is sitting at the corner of the table.
[3] A sits second to the right of E, who sits in the middle of the table. C is an immediate neighbor of
A. D sits second to the left of C. H is an immediate neighbor of D. G sits one of the corners. B sits
second to the right of A
[4] Only two persons sit between H and G, when counted from the left of H, who is an immediate
neighbor of D, who sits second to the left of C, who sits immediate right of E, who sits in the middle
of the table.
[5] None of the above
Q.106) The question given below consists of two statements I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
all the statements and give answer.
Six persons, Anu, Bill, Chand, Dia, Ema and Faiz, sit along the corners of a regular hexagonal table
and face towards the centre of the table. Who among the following sits immediate left of Faiz?
Statement I: Bill sits second to the right of Anu. Chand sits adjacent to Bill. Dia sits second to the
right of Chand. Ema does not sit adjacent to Anu.
Statement II: Ema sits adjacent to Dia. Chand sits adjacent to Bill. Dia sits second to the right of
Chand. Faiz sits adjacent to Bill. Ana does not sit adjacent to Chand.
[1] Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.
[2] Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement I alone is
[3] Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
[4] Data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
[5] Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Q.107) The question given below consists of two statements I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
all the statements and give answer.
Seven points, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are drawn on a rectangular piece of paper. What is the
direction of point W with respect to point U?
Statement I: Y is 3cm to the west of T. V is 6cm to the east of Y. U is 3cm to the south of T. W is
9cm to the east of Z. X is 6cm to the west of W. V is 5cm to the south of X.
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Statement II: Z is 6cm to the north of U. X is 3cm east of Z. V is 5cm south of X. Y is 6cm west of V.
T is the midpoint of Y and V. W, which is in east of X, is 13cm to the northeast of Y.
[1] Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement II alone is
[2] Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement I alone is
[3] Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
[4] Data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
[5] Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Directions (Q108-112): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
P, Q, R are three adjacent buildings. P is to the west of Q. Q is to the west of R. Each building has
different number of floors with the lowest floor numbered as 1, floor above it numbered 2 and
so on. The height of floors in each building is the same i.e. the same numbered floors are at equal
height from the ground. Only few of the floors of these buildings are taken and rest are vacant.
None of the buildings had more than 10 floors.
· D's floor number was twice as that of J's floor number.

· J lived in building Q. Q had prime numbered floors and J lived on the floor that was 3 rd from the
top
· Not more than 3 flats were taken in building P
· F was exactly to the east of B
· B lived exactly above C but not in the same building
· C and F did not live in the same building
· A's floor number was thrice as that of C's floor number.
· A was exactly to the west of H
· H was not in building R
· C and G did not live in the same building
· G lived immediately below E
· B and E lived on consecutive floors of the same building
· I was exactly to the east of C
· I and E did not live in the same building
· B and G did not have the same floor number
· The number of floors in I's building was 3 less than that in building Q
1. Only one person lives on each floor

2. Exactly to the east or west does not mean immediate east or west, but on the same floor.
3. Immediately above or below implies that the person is not in the same building.
Q.108) How many floors were there in building P?
[1] 6
[2] 8
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[3] 5
[4] 10
[5] 9
Q.109) What was the floor number of F?
[1] 4
[2] 2
[3] 3
[4] 5
[5] 6
Q.110) Four of the following bears a similar relation and hence form a group, who among the
following is not a part of that group?
[1] B
[2] H
[3] E
[4] A
[5] J
Q.111) What was the difference between the number of floors in building Q and P?
[1] 5
[2] 2
[3] 1
[4] 4
[5] 3
Q.112) What was the difference between the floor numbers of H and F?
[1] 1
[2] 2
[3] 3
[4] 4
[5] 5
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Direction (Q113-117): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word arrangement machine given an input line of words rearranges them following a particular
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: random optimistic thrifty afraid predictable extravagant pompous humble brave
pessimistic
Step1: afraid random optimistic thrifty predictable extravagant pompous humble pessimistic
brave.
Step2: extravagant afraid random optimistic predictable pompous humble pessimistic brave
thrifty.
Step3: humble extravagant afraid random optimistic predictable pessimistic brave thrifty
pompous.
Step4: optimistic humble extravagant afraid random predictable brave thrifty pompous
pessimistic.
Step5: predictable optimistic humble extravagant afraid brave thrifty pompous pessimistic
random.
Step5 is the last step of the above input.
Input: jeopradize entrust safeguard withdraw anxiety lengthen secular abridge spiritual ease.
Q113) What will be the fourth step of the above input?
[1] jeopradize entrust abridge anxiety secular spiritual lengthen ease withdraw safeguard.
[2] jeopradize entrust anxiety abridge secular spiritual lengthen brave withdraw safeguard.
[3] jeopradize entrust anxiety abridge secular lengthen spiritual ease withdraw safeguard.
[4] jeopradize entrust anxiety abridge secular spiritual lengthen ease withdraw safeguard.
[5] jeopradize entrust anxiety afraid secular spiritual lengthen withdraw ease safeguard.
Q114) In step 5th of the rearrangement, if ‘anxiety’ is related to ‘entrust’ and ‘abridge ‘ in a certain
way. Which of the following would ‘withdraw’ be related to, following the same pattern?
[1] Lengthen and ease
[2] Ease and entrust
[3] Ease and safeguard
[4] Lengthen and safeguard
[5] None of these
Q115) Which of the following steps will be the last but one of the above input?
[1] IV
[2] V
[3] II
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[4] III
[5] None of these
Q116) Which of the following word is 4th to left of withdraw in step2
[1] Ease
[2] Jeopradize
[3] Anxiety
[4] Entrust
[5] Abridge
Q117) What is the position of secular from right end in last but one step?
[1] Fifth
[2] Seventh
[3] Fourth
[4] Sixth
[5] Third
There are 3 horizontally parallel rows, row 1, row 2 and row 3. Row 1 is to the north of row 2 and
row 2 is to the north of row 3. There are five persons sitting in each row and L is one of the persons
among them. In row 1, first three persons sitting from left to right are facing north and rest are
facing south. In row 3, first three persons sitting from left to right are facing north and rest are
facing south. In row 2, first two persons sitting from left to right are facing north and rest are
facing south. Last two persons from left end of row 1 face the first two persons from the left end
of row 2. Last three persons from left end of row 2 face first three persons from left end of row 3.
F, who is sitting 2nd to the right of Q, is sitting opposite to A. Three persons are sitting between A
and M. F is facing south. G is sitting 2nd to the right of C and both of them are facing the north. E
is sitting in the left of G. One person is sitting between E and N. B is sitting to the immediate left
of D, who is sitting opposite to O, who is not sitting adjacent to A. S and P are sitting opposite to
each other. Neither S nor P is sitting in row 1. R is not sitting adjacent to M.
Q.118) Find the odd one out?
[1] C
[2] O
[3] N
[4] F
[5] Q
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Q.119) How many persons are sitting in the left of S?
[1] 3
[2] 1
[3] 4
[4] 2
[5] None of these
Q.120) How many persons are sitting between Q and D?
[1] 2
[2] 3
[3] 1
[4] 4
[5] None of these
Q.121) _________ is sitting opposite to B.
[1] D
[2] N
[3] F
[4] Q
[5] None of these
Q.122) ______ is sitting in the middle of row 3.
[1] D
[2] G
[3] R
[4] Either (1) or (2)
[5] None of these
Q.123) In the question given below, a passage/statement is given followed by three statements
which may or may not strengthen/weaken the assertion made in the passage. Answer the
questions as per the individual direction given.
It's highly probable that 50 years from now, it is likely that the 2D internet we now all use will
seem laughably archaic. Not only will the internet likely exist behind a screen, but it is probable
that we will interact with it differently. We'll manipulate objects using augmented reality (AR),
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explore virtual-reality (VR) worlds, and meld the real and the digital in ways we can currently not
imagine.
Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument made in the above passage?
I. Truly immersive computing and augmented reality, at scale and accessible by billions of humans
in real time, will require a 1,000-times increase in computational efficiency from today's state of
the art.
II. Precipitated by the pandemic, we are transitioning away from the nine-to-five commute and
turning our backs on the traditional office setting, enabled by a newfound love of virtual
meetings.
III. One company not only let you see how its sunglasses look like on your face, it is also working
on using augmented reality to virtually show you how the world will look like through different
lenses.
[1] Only I and III
[2] Only II and III
[3] Only III
[4] Only I and II
Q.124) In the question below, a situation is given, followed by statements that may or may not
be possible reasons for the situation. Select the option that best describes the reason for the
situation in the question.
Situation: Drugs giant Pfizer has said it expects $15bn (≤11bn) of sales this year of the coronavirus
vaccine it developed with German firm BioNTech. The vaccine was one of the first to be
authorised for use by countries including the UK and the US.
I. In England, around 28 million eligible individuals are yet to be vaccinated - around two-thirds
of the population
II. Many countries around the world have been scrambling to vaccinate their populations in a bid
to save lives and aid economic recovery.
III. Within age groups, the NHS is trying to ensure that all people, regardless of deprivation,
geography, or ethnicity, have equal uptake of the vaccine.
[1] Only I
[2] Only II and III
[3] Only I and II
[4] Only III
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Q.125) In the question below, a situation is given, followed by statements that may or may not
be possible reasons for the situation. Select the option that best describes the reason for the
situation in the question.
Situation: The American Academy of Pediatrics, the American Academy of Child and Adolescent
Psychiatry, and the Children's Hospital Association declared a national emergency in child and
adolescent mental health in the fall of 2021. This may be a contributing factor to the increase in
school shooting incidents across the US.
I. During the past two decades more than 85% of school shootings in the US have been committed
by people younger than 25, and the majority by children under 18
II. According to National Alliance of Mental Illness, nearly 20% of high school students have
seriously contemplated suicide, and 9% have attempted suicide.
III. While in the past it was easier for adolescents to talk to a trusted adult in their extended family
during turbulent times as it was common for three generations of a family to live nearby, it has
become rare these days with the prevalence of nuclear families.
[1] Only I and II
[2] Only III
[3] Only II and III
[4] Only I and III
Q126) What may be the code for “Mentioned”?

[1] 9k*
[2] 9m*
[3] 8k*
[4] 6l?
[5] 9m#
Q127) What is the code for “Parenting”?
[1] 7g?
[2] 7r*
[3] 9g?
[4] 7g$
[5] None of these
Q128) Code ‘2x!’ is for which of the following words?
[1]Chronical
[2] Dormant
[3] Cool
[4] Calibri
[5] Charisma
Q129) How the word “Vikram” coded as?
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[1] 3n*
[2] 9n(
[3] 13m?
[4] 9n*
[5] 7k!
Q130) How the word “banking selection” be coded as
[1] 5n& 5l@
[2] 9k! 5l@
[3] 5m# 5k$
[4] 6a$ 9k!
[5] 4m# 6l%
Q.131) The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered
I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak'
argument.
Statement: Should over the top (OTT) platforms such as Whatsapp, Signal and Facebook be
required to obtain licences to operate in a country just like telecom companies both of which
provide services like voice calling, messaging and video calling?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because it will create a level playing field by making OTT platforms liable to pay taxes and
levies that telecom companies already do.
II. Yes, this will ensure OTT platforms' compliance with security requirements, lawful interception
and other regulatory obligations imposed on .
[1] Only argument I is strong
[2] Only argument II is strong
[3] Either I or II is strong
[4] Neither I nor II is strong
[5] Both I and II are strong
Q.132) The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered
I and II. You have to decide which of the argument is either a ‘strong’ argument or ‘weak’
argument or both or neither of them is ‘strong’ or ‘weak’.
Despite the popularity of economic liberal ideas and globalization, the increasing severity of
energy and environmental problems has raised many questions about the ability of markets to
solve these problems. Kyoto Agreement ultimately resulted in the creation of a market-based
system. The privatization of environmental problems has helped to reduce greenhouse gas
emissions while generating significant amounts of wealth.
Arguments:
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I. Yes, it is important to balance economic goals with environmental protection to ensure a
sustainable future for generations to come.
II. No, economic liberal ideas and globalisation directly help in conserving climate and thereby
there is no need to implement the market-based system.
Q.133) Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered
I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak'
argument.
Statement: Should the demand of exporters, who are facing liquidity challenges, for extending
GST (Goods and Services Tax) exemption on freight be met?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because GST on export freight is revenue-neutral as exporters can claim a refund after
making the payment, so extending the exemption will improve exporters' liquidity.
II. Yes, because GST on export freight is levied by the central government, which has the
discretionary powers to provide exemption from the tax.
Q.134) Read the following group of statements and identify the main conclusion in the argument.
Considering the rate at which these photo voltaic panels are being installed around the country,
India is expected to generate an enormous amount of waste over the next 20 years. In fact, India
is expected to become one of the top five leading photovoltaic waste producers worldwide by
2050. India should note that it doesn’t find itself caught unprepared against a new problem in the
future for two good reasons.
First, simply clubbing PV waste with other e-waste could lead to confusion. Secondly, the waste
generated from PV modules and their components is classified as ‘hazardous waste’ in India.
[1] Implementing e-waste management programs can be expensive and may require significant
financial resources.
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[2] E-waste management requires specialized equipment and technical expertise, which may not be
readily available in all areas.
[3] E-waste management often involves complex regulations and requirements that can be difficult
to navigate.
[4] India should formulate and implement provisions specific to PV waste treatment within the
ambit of the e-waste guidelines.
[5] Now is the right time for it to install clear policy directives, well-established recycling strategies,
and greater collaboration to tackle waste.
Q.135) In the question below, two statements (I) and (II) are given. These statements may be
either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of
these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide
which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.
I. Long forced to take a back seat to the arabica bean, robusta is now becoming the flavour of
note for the speciality coffee industry.
II. Everyone, from planters to roasters and coffee companies, is promoting robusta, looking at
new flavour extraction processes more suited to the bean's unique properties, trying to extract
complex flavours from the bean - unheard of even a couple of years ago.
[1] Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
[2] Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
[3] Both the statements I and II are independent causes
[4] Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
[5] Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
Q.136) In the question given below, a passage/statement is given followed by three statements
which may or may not strengthen/weaken the assertion made in the passage. Answer the
questions as per the individual direction given.
If every crevasse in your home is overflowing with objects you haven't used in more than five
years, it would be fairly safe to say you are a hoarder. And if the very thought of parting with
possessions you no longer need creates distress, you may have hoarding disorder. You are not
alone - most Indians are known for hoarding, a habit probably triggered by generations of making
do and not having enough.
Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument made in the above passage?
I. Collectors typically acquire possessions in an organised and targeted fashion whereas hoarders
acquire objects impulsively, with little active planning.
II. A typical Indian middle-class family has a room exclusively for holding all the big and small
items hidden by generations of family members.
85 | Page
III. Most Indians are constantly worrying about survival, prompting them to keep things in case
they are needed in the future.
[1] Only I and II
[2] Only II
[3] Only I and III
[4] Only II and III
Direction (Q137-140): Answer the following questions on the basis of the information given
below.
Eight people Alex, Ben, Charlie, Daniel, Peter, Quinin, Rachel, and Sophia are seated around a
circular table facing the centre. Some information about their relationships and position is given:
Sophia’s husband is sitting two seats to the right of Ben.
Quinn is seated two seats to the left of Daniel’s daughter.
Quinn is Rachel’s sister.
Sophis’s husband is not sitting next to Quinn.
There is one person between Quinn and Alex.
Similarly, there is one person between Peter and Sophia’s mother.
Alex is the father of Rachel. Charlie is not sitting next to Quinn.
Sophia’s mother is seated immediately to the right of Daniel, who is Sophia’s brother.
There is one person between Sophia and Rachel.
Peter is not sitting next to Rachel, who is the mother of charlie.
Q.137) Who is sitting second to the right of Ben?
[1] Rachel
[2] Alex
[3] Quinn
[4] Peter
[5] Sophia
Q.138) How many people are seated between Quinn and Alex?
[1] Three
[2] Four
[3] Two
[4] One
[5] None
Q.139) Who is the sister of Rachel?
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[1] Quinn
[2] Charlie
[3] Peter
[4] Sophia
[5] Ben
Q.1400) What is position of Peter’s grandmother with respect to Quinn?
[1] 2nd to the right
[2] 3rd to the right
[3] 3rd to the left
[4] 4th to the right
[5] 5th to the left

Answer Key
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

Number Number Number
81 2 101 3 121 2
82 4 102 4 122 3
83 2 103 5 123 2
84 3 104 5 124 5
85 4 105 4 125 2
86 1 106 2 126 1
87 1 107 3 127 3
88 3 108 4 128 5
89 1 109 3 129 2
90 1 110 4 130 3
91 4 111 5 131 5
92 3 112 3 132 1
93 4 113 4 133 1
94 1 114 3 134 4
95 3 115 1 135 5
96 1 116 5 136 4
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97 4 117 4 137 2
98 5 118 1 138 4
99 2 119 2 139 1
100 3 120 1 140 4

Explanations
Q81) Explanation:
1. Some grapes can be mango - true

2. All bananas can be oranges – false (only a few bananas is orange means some banana are oranges
and some banana are not oranges. So all bananas can never be orange)
3. Some mangoes are not bananas - true
4. Some grapes are banana is a possibility - true
5. Some oranges can be mango – true
Option 2 is the right answer.
88 | Page
Q82) Explanation:
1. Some politician being actor is a possibility - true

2. Some dancers are not singers - true
3. Some dancers are not politician is not a possibility - true
4. Some actors are singers - false
5. Some actors are singers is a possibility – true

Q83) Explanation:
As B is born in a month with 31 days and three months before the person from Raipur.
Three persons are born between B and D, who is not the youngest, so
Case I Case II Case III

Month Person Place Person Place Person Place
January B D
February
April Raipur
May B
July D B
August Raipur
September
October D (Raipur)
December
F is born two months after D, this is not possible in case III, so case III is rejected.
Only one person is born between F and E, who is from Solapur.
There is a gap of only one month between the birth of G and the one from Solapur.
G is not from Sultanpur.
Person from Jaipur is five months elder than G, so the person from Jaipur is either born in May or
in February.
Case I Case II
Month Person Place Person Place
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January B
February Jaipur
April Raipur
May Jaipur B
July D G xSultanpur
August Raipur
September F E Solapur
October G xSultanpur D
December E Solapur F
H from Udaipur is born three months after I, who is not the eldest, this is not possible in case II, so
case II is rejected.
A is younger than C, so A is born in April and C is born in February.
Person from Nagpur is born immediately after the one from Kanpur.
Person from Kanpur is not born in a month with only 30 days, so the person from Nagpur is born in
February and the one who is from Kanpur is born in January.
Person from Jodhpur is born before the one from Sultanpur, so the person from Jodhpur is born in
July and the one from Sultanpur is born in September and G is from Firozpur.
The final schedule table is given below:
Month Person Place

January B Kanpur
February C Nagpur
April A Raipur
May I Jaipur
July D Jodhpur
August H Udaipur
September F Sultanpur
October G Firozpur
December E Solapur
A is born in April and H is born in August, so A is four months older than H.
Q84) Explanation:

January B D
February
April Raipur
May B
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July D B
August Raipur
September
October D (Raipur)
December
in February.
Case I Case II
January B
February Jaipur
April Raipur
May Jaipur B
July D G xSultanpur
August Raipur
Month Person Place

January B Kanpur
February C Nagpur
April A Raipur
May I Jaipur
July D Jodhpur
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August H Udaipur
October G Firozpur
December E Solapur
Among the given options, both D and the person from Jaipur are born between C and the person
from Udaipur.
Q85) Explanation:

January B D
February
April Raipur
May B
July D B
August Raipur
September
October D (Raipur)
December
in February.
Case I Case II
January B
February Jaipur
April Raipur
May Jaipur B
July D G xSultanpur
August Raipur
92 | Page
Month Person Place

January B Kanpur
February C Nagpur
April A Raipur
May I Jaipur
July D Jodhpur
August H Udaipur
October G Firozpur
December E Solapur
B is the eldest person (i.e. born in January) and he is from Kanpur.
Q86) Explanation:

January B D
February
April Raipur
May B
July D B
August Raipur
September
October D (Raipur)
December
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in February.
Case I Case II
January B
February Jaipur
April Raipur
May Jaipur B
July D G xSultanpur
August Raipur
Month Person Place

January B Kanpur
February C Nagpur
April A Raipur
May I Jaipur
July D Jodhpur
August H Udaipur
October G Firozpur
December E Solapur
Five persons were born between the person who is born in October and the C, who is from Nagpur.
Q87) Explanation:
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January B D
February
April Raipur
May B
July D B
August Raipur
September
October D (Raipur)
December
in February.
Case I Case II
January B
February Jaipur
April Raipur
May Jaipur B
July D G xSultanpur
August Raipur
95 | Page
Month Person Place
January B Kanpur
February C Nagpur
April A Raipur
May I Jaipur
July D Jodhpur
August H Udaipur
October G Firozpur
December E Solapur
3rd eldest person i.e. A is three months elder than D.
Q88) Explanation:
Given series - @ F 5 2 M $ 7 K T R 3 C + 8 B ! 9 D Q * G 6 W N
Step 1 - @ F 5 2 M $ K T R 3 C + B ! D Q * G 6 W N 9 8 7
Step 2 - @ F 5 2 $ K T R 3 + ! D * G B C M Q 6 W N 9 8 7
R. end = 11th
R. end = 4th
R. end = 11 – 4 = 7th
G is 7th from the right end.
Q89) Explanation:
Given series - @ F 5 2 M $ 7 K T R 3 C + 8 B ! 9 D Q * G 6 W N
Step 1 - @ F 5 2 M $ K T R 3 C + B ! D Q * G 6 W N 9 8 7
Step 2 - @ F 5 2 $ K T R 3 + ! D * G B C M Q 6 W N 9 8 7
Four alphabets are immediately followed or preceded by symbol in step 2.
Q90) Explanation:
As mobiles are kept in box 4
H is three boxes above the box with 24 items.
Third box from the top contains 2nd highest number of items.
G has 14 items and is one of the four boxes above H, so
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9 G 14
8 G 14
7 27 27 27
6 G 14
5 H H H
4 Mobile Mobile Mobile
3
2 24 24 24
1
There are three boxes between G and the box with 18 items, this is not possible in case I, so case I
is rejected.
No. of bottles is six more than no. of clothes.
D is immediately below the box which contains clothes and neither of these boxes contains more
than 23 items.
There are three boxes between the box, which contains bottles and E, which contains books.
Case II Case III

9 G 14
8 G 14
7 Bottles 27 27
6 E Books
5 H Cloths 21 H Clothes 18
4 D Mobile 18 D Mobile
3 E Books
2 24 Bottles 24
1
Shoes are three boxes above B, this is not possible in case III, so case III is rejected, so shoes are kept
at the topmost box and B is box 6.
A is immediately above F, so A is box 2 and F is box 1.
Box, which contains Pens, is immediately above I, so I is box 7.
C is three boxes above the box, which contains lowest no. of items, so B contains 7 items.
Case II
9 C Shoes
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B 7
5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books
2 A 24
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1 F
Box with 23 items is immediately below the box, which contains watches, so box A contains watches
and F contains 23 items.
No. of pencils is less than no. of combs, so there are 7 pencils and 23 combs.
No. of Books is not less than no. of shoes, so there are 30 books and 12 shoes.
The final table is given below:
Case II
9 C Shoes 12
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B Pencils 7
5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books 30
2 A Watches 24
1 F Combs 23
C is four boxes above the box which contains 21 items.
Q91) Explanation:

9 14 G
8 G 14
7 27 27 27
6 G 14
5 H H H
3
2 24 24 24
1
is rejected.
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than 23 items.
Case II Case III

9 G 14
8 G 14
7 Bottles 27 27
6 E Books
3 E Books
2 24 Bottles 24
1
Case II
9 C Shoes
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B 7
5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books
2 A 24
1 F
Case II
9 C Shoes 12
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B Pencils 7
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5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books 30
2 A Watches 24
1 F Combs 23
Number of combs is 23 and number of pencils is 07.
Sum = (23 + 7) = 30.
Q92) Explanation:

9 14 G
8 G 14
7 27 27 27
6 G 14
5 H H H
3
2 24 24 24
1
is rejected.
than 23 items.
Case II Case III

9 G 14
8 G 14
7 Bottles 27 27
6 E Books
3 E Books
2 24 Bottles 24
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1
Case II
9 C Shoes
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B 7
5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books
2 A 24
1 F
Case II
9 C Shoes 12
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B Pencils 7
5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books 30
2 A Watches 24
1 F Combs 23
A and the box containing 14 items are not between the box containing the lowest and highest
number of items.
Q93) Explanation:
101 | Page

9 G 14
8 G 14
7 27 27 27
6 G 14
5 H H H
3
2 24 24 24
1
is rejected.
than 23 items.
Case II Case III

9 G 14
8 G 14
7 Bottles 27 27
6 E Books
3 E Books
2 24 Bottles 24
1
Case II
9 C Shoes
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B 7
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5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books
2 A 24
1 F
Case II
9 C Shoes 12
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B Pencils 7
5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books 30
2 A Watches 24
1 F Combs 23
The topmost box contains 12 items and there are 24 watches.
Difference = (24 – 12) = 12.
Q94) Explanation:

9 14 G
8 G 14
7 27 27 27
6 G 14
5 H H H
3
2 24 24 24
1
103 | Page
is rejected.
than 23 items.
Case II Case III

9 G 14
8 G 14
7 Bottles 27 27
6 E Books
3 E Books
2 24 Bottles 24
1
Case II
9 C Shoes
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B 7
5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books
2 A 24
1 F
104 | Page
Case II
9 C Shoes 12
8 G Pens 14
7 I Bottles 27
6 B Pencils 7
5 H Cloths 21
4 D Mobile 18
3 E Books 30
2 A Watches 24
1 F Combs 23
Among the given options, B is kept between the box with 21 items and the box containing Pens.
Q95) Explanation:
Start with T and P as one of them is sitting at the extreme end and T sits 4 th to the left of P.
The one who faces P sits second to the left of F. S sits exactly in the middle of the row.
So, we have 2 possible cases i.e., either T or P sits at the extreme end.
Case I: When T sits at the extreme end:
Case II: When P sits at the extreme end:
105 | Page
Number of persons sitting to the left of F is twice the number of persons sitting to the right of F. The
one who faces P sits to the immediate left of G and that person is neither C nor D. Number of persons
sit between P and R is same as the number of persons sit between T and S.
So, case II is rejected as number of persons sitting to the left is twice than the number of persons
sitting to the right of F.
Now, 2 persons are sitting between T and S so, 2 persons are sitting P and R which means R must
be sitting to the left of P.
T neither faces C nor D. No one sit between S and V. At least two persons sit between G and E. R
does not face B. At most one person sit between S and Q. U neither faces E nor C.
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Now, E either sits to the left or right of G. Also, Q must be sitting 2 nd to the right of S as at most one
person sits between them. Now, we have left with one place in row 1 i.e., immediate right of Q so,
U must be sitting immediate right of Q.
Now, If U sits immediate right of Q which means E must be sitting to the right of G as U neither face
E nor C.
The final arrangement before the movement is as follows:
Now, A throws the dice and gets 4 which means R exchanges his seat with E.
107 | Page
F throws the dice and gets 3 which means B exchanges his seat with E.
Finally, V throws the dice and gets 1 which means T exchanges his seat with G.
The final figure after the movement is as follows:
108 | Page
G sits opposite to R after the movement.
Q96) Explanation:
109 | Page
Now, E either sits to the left or right of G. Also, Q must be sitting 2nd to the right of S as at most one
E nor C.
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Now, A throws the dice and gets 4 which means R exchange his seat with E.
111 | Page
A sits 2nd to the right of G before the movement.
Q97) Explanation:
112 | Page
113 | Page
E nor C.
114 | Page
115 | Page
T is facing the one, who sits immediate right of V after the movement.
Q98) Explanation:
116 | Page
117 | Page
E nor C.
118 | Page
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A and F are immediate neighbors of each other.
Q99) Explanation:
120 | Page
E nor C.
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122 | Page
B sits 4thto the left of Q after the movement.
Q100) Explanation:
Some gold are not silver – this conclusion is true. The part of gold which is the part of fabric can
never be the part of silver.
Some gold are fabric – this conclusion is true.
123 | Page
Q101) Explanation:
Some hospitals are building is a possibility – this conclusion is true. Hospitals and Buildings have no
definite relation with each other so possibility is true.
Some hostels are not house – this conclusion is true. The part of hostel which is the part of school
can never be part of house.
Q102) Explanation:
In order to ensure the statement that holds V > Z and K < Y definitely true, we have to check all the
options one by one
1. V > Z True
K<Y False (opposite sign between K and Y)
2. V > Z True
3. V > Z False (V => Z)
K<Y True
4. V > Z True
K<Y True
5. V > Z False (Z > V)
124 | Page
Q103) Explanation:
In order to ensure the statement that holds M >= R definitely true, we have to check all the options
one by one
1. M => R False (opposite sign between M and R)
2. M => R False (M > R)
3. M => R False (opposite between M and R)
4. M => R False (opposite sign between M and R)
5. M => R True (R <= M)
option 5 is the right answer.
Q104) Explanation:
Data in both statements I and II together are not necessary to answer the question i.e.,
From statement I:
F sits second to the right of A and to the immediate left of D. One person sits between D and G. B
sits opposite to G. C and D are not sitting adjacent to each other. So, we have,
So, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement II:
D sits third to right of A. B sits on the third seat to the left of A. One person sits between E and F but
neither E nor F sits adjacent to A. E and F are not adjacent to vacant seat. So, we have,
125 | Page
So, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement I and II we get,
Q105) Explanation:
Only two persons sit between C and B when counted from the right of B. A is an immediate neighbor
of C and faces towards the center. E sits second to the right of A. B is second to the right of E.
We don’t have the information regarding the one, who sits second to the right of C.
From option (b): C is an immediate neighbor of A. Person, who is immediate left of C is sitting
opposite to G. E and F are immediate neighbors of each other. F is sitting at the corner of the table.
Further we can’t fix anyone, so, option b is not sufficient to answer.
From option (c): A sits second to the right of E, who sits in the middle of the table. C is an immediate
neighbor of A. D sits second to the left of C. H is an immediate neighbor of D. G sits one of the
corners. B sits second to the right of A
126 | Page
So, G either sits immediate left or right of E so, option c also not sufficient to answer.
From option (d): Only two persons sit between H and G when counted from the left of H, who sits
immediate right of D, who sits second to the left of C, who sits immediate right of E, who sits in the
middle of the table.
So, clearly G sits second to the right of C.
Q106) Explanation:
From statement I, Bill sits second to the right of Anu. Chand sits adjacent to Bill. Dia sits second to
the right of Dia. Ema does not sit adjacent to Anu.
Case 1:
127 | Page
Case 2:
Either Anu or Ema sits immediate left of Faiz
From statement II, Ema sits adjacent to Dia. Chand sits adjacent to Bill. Dia sits second to the right
of Chand. Faiz sits adjacent to Bill. Ana does not sit adjacent to Chand.
Anu sits immediate left of Faiz.
So, data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement I alone is
Q107) Explanation:
From statement I, Y is 3cm to the west of T. V is 6cm to the east of Y. U is 3cm to the south of T. W
is 9cm to the east of Z. X is 6cm to the west of W. V is 5cm to the south of X.
The following arrangement can be drawn from the given statements:
128 | Page
So, W is to the northeast of U.
From statement II, Z is 6cm to the north of U. X is 3cm east of Z. V is 5cm south of X. Y is 6cm west
of V. T is the midpoint of Y and V. W, which is in east of X, is 13cm to the northeast of Y.
The following arrangement can be drawn from the given statements:
So, W is to the northeast of U.
So, data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Q108) Explanation:
· B lived exactly above C but not in the same building.
B F
Or
129 | Page
B F
Or
B F
I was exactly to the east of C. Thus, 3rdarrangement becomes invalid.
· I and E did not live in the same building.
Case 1:
G B F
C I
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
G/ /G
Case 2:
B G F
C I
Case 2a:
B F
130 | Page
E C I
G/ G/
· J lived in building Q. Q had prime numbered floors and J lived on the floor that was 3rdfrom the top
Building Q Building R (I’s building) J’s floor D’s floor

3 Invalid 1 2
5 2 3 6
7 4 5 10
The 2ndcase of above chart is invalid as in every possible case made above building R has at least 3
floors.
As there cannot be more than 10 floors, D's floor will be the topmost floor, thus, building P had 10
floors.

7 4 5 10
· H was not in building R. Thus, A was in building P and H was in building Q.
· A's floor number was thrice as that of C's floor number. A's floor number can be 3 or 6. 9 is not
possible as H will not be placed in that case
131 | Page
· I was exactly to the east of C. C was on floor 1 or 2 as seen from above.
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
Case 2a:
B F
E C I
Combining the 2 diagrams:
132 | Page
· Not more than 3 flats were taken in building P. Thus, 2ndarrangement becomes invalid.
The final arrangement will be as follows
There were 10 floors in building P
Q109) Explanation:
B F
Or
133 | Page
B F
Or
B F
· I was exactly to the east of C. Thus, 3rd arrangement becomes invalid.
Case 1:
G B F
C I
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
G/ /G
Case 2:
B G F
C I
Case 2a:
B F
134 | Page
E C I
G/ G/
top

3 Invalid 1 2
5 2 3 6
7 4 5 10
The 2nd case of above chart is invalid as in every possible case made above building R has at least 3
floors.
floors.

7 4 5 10
135 | Page
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
Case 2a:
B F
E C I
136 | Page
· Not more than 3 flats were taken in building P. Thus, 2nd arrangement becomes invalid.
F lived on floor 3
Q110) Explanation:
B F
Or
137 | Page
B F
Or
B F
Case 1:
G B F
C I
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
G/ /G
Case 2:
B G F
C I
Case 2a:
B F
138 | Page
E C I
G/ G/
top

3 Invalid 1 2
5 2 3 6
7 4 5 10
floors.
floors.

7 4 5 10
139 | Page
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
Case 2a:
B F
E C I
140 | Page
Apart from A others lived in building Q
Q111) Explanation:
B F
Or
141 | Page
B F
Or
B F
Case 1:
G B F
C I
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
G/ /G
Case 2:
B G F
C I
Case 2a:
B F
142 | Page
E C I
G/ G/
top

3 Invalid 1 2
5 2 3 6
7 4 5 10
floors.
floors.

7 4 5 10
143 | Page
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
Case 2a:
B F
E C I
144 | Page
Building P had 10 floors and Q had 7 floors
Q112) Explanation:
B F
Or
145 | Page
B F
Or
B F
Case 1:
G B F
C I
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
G/ /G
Case 2:
B G F
C I
Case 2a:
B F
146 | Page
E C I
G/ G/
top

3 Invalid 1 2
5 2 3 6
7 4 5 10
floors.
floors.

7 4 5 10
147 | Page
Case 1a:
B F
C E I
Case 2a:
B F
E C I
148 | Page
H lived on floor 6 and F lived on floor 3
Q113) Explanation:
How words are arranged in the final step: Words get arranged alphabetically from the middle. First
word is at fifth position and opposite of this word is at sixth position. Next word is at fourth position
and opposite of this word is at seventh position and so on.
In first step, one word is getting arranged from left side alphabetically and opposite word is getting
arranged from right side. In each further steps, same procedure is followed as in the first step and
words arranged in previous step are shifting one place to their right and opposite words are shifting
one place to their left alphabetically.
Step1: abridge jeopradize entrust safeguard withdraw anxiety secular spiritual ease lengthen.
Step2: anxiety abridge jeopradize entrust safeguard withdraw secular spiritual lengthen ease.
149 | Page
Step3: entrust anxiety abridge jeopradize safeguard secular spiritual lengthen ease withdraw.
Step4: jeopradize entrust anxiety abridge secular spiritual lengthen ease withdraw safeguard.
Step5: secular jeopradize entrust anxiety abridge lengthen ease withdraw safeguard spiritual
Q114) Explanation:
Q115) Explanation:
150 | Page
Q116) Explanation:
Q117) Explanation:
Secular is 6th from right end
151 | Page
Q118) Explanation:
Detailed solution:
F, who is sitting 2nd to the right of Q, is sitting opposite to A.
No one is sitting in the left of A.
Three persons are sitting between A and M.
F is facing south.
G is sitting 2nd to the right of C and both of them are facing the north.
E is sitting in the left of G.
One person is sitting between E and N.
Case 1: When Q is sitting 2nd from the left end in row 1. B is sitting to the immediate left of D, who
is sitting opposite to O, who is not sitting adjacent to A, so this case is not possible.
S and P are sitting opposite to each other.
Case 2: When Q is sitting at the left end of row 2. Neither S nor P is sitting in row 1, so this case is
not possible.
R is not sitting adjacent to M.
152 | Page
Case 3: When Q is sitting at the right end of row 2.
The final arrangement is as follows:
All of them are facing south, except C.
Q119) Explanation:
F is facing south.
153 | Page
not possible.
One person is sitting in the left of S.
Q120) Explanation:
F is facing south.
154 | Page
not possible.
Two persons are sitting between Q and D.

155 | Page
Q121) Explanation:
F is facing south.
not possible.
156 | Page
N is sitting opposite to B.
Q122) Explanation:
F is facing south.
not possible.
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R is sitting in the middle of row 3.
Q123) Explanation:
The situation tells us how, in the future, we will manipulate objects using AR and explore VR worlds.
This would combine the real and digital worlds. II and III strengthen the given argument by talking
about different ways in which augmented is helping blend digital and virtual worlds: II talks about
the shift from office commute to virtual meetings, necessitated by the pandemic; III talks about a
company using augmented reality to show how sunglasses look on one's face and how the world
would look like through different lenses.
Q124) Explanation:
The passage tells us that Drug manufacturing company Pfizer anticipates a significant number of
vaccine sales. All of the statements can be possible reasons for the situation described in the
passage. I states that about two-thirds of England's population is yet to be vaccinated, which can be
a reason for the increase in sales of the vaccines. II states that many countries have been competing
to vaccinate their populations, which can also be a reason for the increase in the sales of vaccines.
III tells us about the initiative of the NHS to ensure equal uptake of vaccine regardless of categories,
which can be a reason as well.
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Q125) Explanation:
The situation tells us how some organisations have declared a national adolescent mental health
emergency, and how this may be behind a rise in the number of school shooting incidents in the US.
III tells us how adolescents are not able to talk to a trusted adult as people now live in nuclear
families, which makes it difficult for adolescents to consult a trusted adult. It may be a possible
reason behind the worsening mental health among adolescents.
I and II are incorrect as they provide possible effects of the worsening adolescent mental health.
Q126) Explanation:
Play – 9x?
Symbol – according to first letter of the word
C-!
B-$
S-#
H-&
K-%
O-@
M-*
P-?
Number logic – difference in place values of first and last letter
In ‘Play’ – first letter is P and place of P is 16 and last letter is y and place of y is 25
Difference = 25 – 16 = 9
Letter logic – opposite of 3rd letter from left end minus 2
In ‘Play’ – third letter from left end is A and opposite of A is Z and place value of Z is 26. 26 – 2 = 24.
Place value of X is 24.
So, code for Play is 9x?
Mentioned – 9k*
Q127) Explanation:
Play – 9x?
C-!
B-$
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S-#
H-&
K-%
O-@
M-*
P-?
Parenting – 9g?
Q128) Explanation:
Play – 9x?
C-!
B-$
S-#
H-&
K-%
O-@
M-*
P-?
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Charisma – 2x!
Option 5 is the right answer
Q129) Explanation:
Play – 9x?
C-!
B-$
S-#
H-&
K-%
O-@
M-*
P-?
Vikram – 9n(
Q130) Explanation:
Play – 9x?
C-!
B-$
S-#
H-&
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K-%
O-@
M-*
P-?
Banking selection – 5k$ 5m#
Q131) Explanation:
The statement talks about whether OTT platforms should be required to obtain licences to operate
in a country. I is a strong argument as it supports the statement by talking about creating a level
playing field since telecom companies have to pay taxes and charges to provide these services. II is
also a strong argument as it tells us how licensing will make sure that OTT platforms follow security
requirements.
Q132) Explanation:
Argument I supports the main idea presented in the passage by acknowledging the importance of
balancing economic goals with environmental protection for ensuring a sustainable future. It
acknowledges the need to address environmental problems while pursuing economic growth.
On the other hand, argument II is weak because it contradicts the main idea presented in the
passage. The passage argues that economic liberal ideas and globalization have raised questions
about the ability of markets to solve energy and environmental problems. Therefore, the argument
that economic liberal ideas and globalization help in conserving climate and there is no need to
implement market-based solutions is not valid and weak.
Q133) Explanation:
The statement talks about extending GST exemption on export freight. I is a strong argument as it
tells us how extending the exemption will not hurt government revenues while addressing
exporters' liquidity concerns.
II is not a strong argument as it only mentions that the central government has the right to decide
on providing exemptions from GST. It does not provide a reason supporting the extension of
exemption.
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Q134) Explanation:
The passage discusses the issue of generating a massive amount of photovoltaic waste in India due
to the increasing installation of photovoltaic panels. The author argues that India needs to be
prepared for this new problem, and two reasons are given for this. Firstly, clubbing PV waste with
other e-waste could lead to confusion, and secondly, the waste generated from PV modules and
their components is classified as ‘hazardous waste’ in India.
Therefore, the main conclusion of the argument is that India should formulate and implement
provisions specific to PV waste treatment within the ambit of the e-waste guidelines, which is stated
in option D.
Q135) Explanation:
I talks about the robusta bean, which lived in the shadow of the arabica bean, gaining popularity in
the speciality coffee industry. II tells us how everyone is suddenly developing techniques to extract
flavour from the robusta bean, which was not common a few years ago. Reasons such as increasing
cost of the arabica bean or its limited availability could be behind this. Both I and II are effects of
some common cause.
Q136) Explanation:
The passage argues that most Indians are known for hoarding, which is triggered by generations of
struggling to survive. II tells us how a typical Indian family has a room exclusively for hoarding things.
It would strengthen the above argument. III tells us how most Indians are worried about survival
and therefore keep things for the future. It will also strengthen the above argument.
I is incorrect as it talks about the difference between collectors and hoarders and neither
strengthens nor weakens the above argument.
Q137) Explanation:
Alex is the father of Rachel.
Rachel is mother of Charlie.
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Sophia has a husband, a mother and a brother (Daniel).
Sophia is married to Alex.
Therefore, the final family diagram
From the above information, we get the arrangement
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Alex is 2nd right of Ben
Q138) Explanation:
165 | Page
One person is seated between Quinn and Alex
Q139) Explanation:
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Quinn is the sister of Rachel.
Q140) Explanation:

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Peter’s grandmother (Ben) is 4th to the right with respect to Quinn.
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Section – English
Directions (141-147): Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the available
information.
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 has rightfully identified 21st century skills as fundamental
to developing creators. Critical thinking and problem solving, communication and collaboration,
creativity and innovation, flexibility and adaptability, initiative and self- direction, social and cross-
cultural interactions, and productivity and accountability all strengthen the individuals’ abilities at
the workplace.
Relying on traditional literacy and numeracy alone will not suffice and tends to marginalize
differently abled learners. Educators could consider a design-based approach where students
concentrate on a subject for two-three weeks to examine how it can be applied in the real world.
But does our current classroom and content-heavy syllabus enable deep work? Also, how do we
retrain teachers who have been trained in traditional systems? They know terms like
‘constructivism’ but do not know how it should be used in a classroom that is focused on exams
rather than learning. And how ready are our future educators?
In a semester-long study that used Wikipedia as a pedagogical tool for teacher training, 65 pre-
service (B.Ed) teachers were asked to improve the pages on Wikipedia related to educational
concepts. Excluding a few, the content created by most participants was either sent back to them
or deleted by neutral editors of
Wikipedia. The content, it was found, was plagiarised, did not provide citations, lacked basic writing
and grammar skills, etc. After three iterative cycles that were emotionally intense, the teachers
were able to contribute content to over 75 Wikipedia articles in English and over 50 articles in
Kannada, Tamil, Telugu, Hindi, Malayalam, Gujarati, Assamese and Punjabi. All the content was
related to educational technology. The critical feedback from various Wikipedia editors was crucial
because it was unbiased. This feedback forced the learners to re-evaluate their skills. This shows
that constant engagement, an emotional connection, and immersive learning are important parts
of education. EdTech apps can deliver content that caters to multiple learning styles, learning curves
and pace of learning. The pandemic has shown that traditional teacher and brick-and-mortar
schools may become obsolete if radical pedagogical changes do not follow.
Q141.Which of the following measures has been suggested in the given passage for improvement
of the education system?
A. Educators will have to find ways to minimize their engagement strategies while integrating
technology into their approach.
B. Both (a) and (c)
C. Educators can use a method in which students focus on a topic for a few weeks to see how it
might be used in actuality.
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D. An individual must be motivated enough to remain immersed in a specific activity to be creative
and happy.
E. All are correct.

Q142.Which of the following were not among the shortcomings in the content provided by the
teachers for the first time?
A. Copying was found in the content.
B. They just stated the obvious facts.
C. There were no references in the material.
D. Basic grammar and writing abilities were lacking in the text.
E. None is incorrect.
Q143.The author is in line with-
A. Children have lost all personal contact with their social group due to the pandemic.
B. The field of education is not evolving over time, with contemporary methods not able to find
place in the classroom in a traditional setup.
C. Over-reliance on technology comes at a cost.
D. Education requires continual involvement, emotional connection, and deep learning.

E. None of these.
Q144.Which of the following ironies has been mentioned in the given passage?
A. The disruptive nature of digital tools has thrown up interesting challenges to the traditional
education system.
B. Teachers are familiar with concepts like "constructivism," but are unsure how to use it in the
classroom.
C. Parents are forced to rely upon technology to provide their children constant gratification to
keep them engaged.
D. Both (a) and (b)
E. None of these.
Q145.Which of the following is not among the qualities that can support an individual to develop
his abilities at the workplace?
A. Teamwork and interaction
B. Interactions on a social and cross-cultural level
C. Versatility and flexibility
D. Problem-solving and critical thinking
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E. None is incorrect.
Q146.Which of the following words is the synonym of “intense”, as highlighted in the given
passage?
A. Catalytic
B. Impactful
C. Vehement
D. Holistic
E. None of these
Q147.Which of the following words is the antonym of “obsolete”, as highlighted in the given
passage?
A. Contemporary
B. Archaic
C. Bygone
D. Superannuated E. None of these.
Directions (148-151): In each of the questions given below four words are highlighted which may
or may not be in their proper place. You are required to interchange these words in order to form
meaningfully correct sentences.
Q148.The motto (a) of the US state of New Hampshire is “Live Free or Die”. Appropriately enough,
NH is currently the only US state offering legal certification (b) for flying cars. But while such a
vehicle sounds like a technology (c) of science fiction, it could soon become perfectly
normal figment (d).
A. a-c
B. c-d
C. b-d
D. a-b
E. No interchange required
Q149.The withdrawal (a) down of tensions between Assam and Mizoram, at least at the leadership
(b) level, with the respective (c) governments announcing the drawing (d) of FIRs against the Chief
Minister of Assam and a Rajya Sabha MP from Mizoram, among other steps, comes as a great relief.
A. a-d
B. b-d
C. a-c and b-d
D. a-b and c-d
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Q150.A day after taking the bold decision to scrap (a) all retrospective tax demands and refund
money collected, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the move shows his government's consistency
(b) to providing businesses stability of investment climate (c) and policy commitment (d).
A. a-c
B. b-d
C. a-c and b-d
D. a-b and c-d
Q151.Happy at a permanent commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region
and Adjoining Areas for better coordination, research, regulations(a), and resolution of problems
surrounding (b) the air quality index, experts are also wary (c)of the fact that mere identification
(d)would not help in the long run.
A. a-c
B. b-d
C. a-d
D. b-c
Directions (152-156): Which of the following phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) can replace the phrase
in bold so as to make the statement correct grammatically and contextually? If the statement
does not need any correction then mark option E as your answer.
Q152.England cruised for a second successive victory at the ICC Twenty20 World Cup, defeating
Bangladesh by eight wickets.
A. cruises on a second successive victory
B. cruised to a second successive victory

C. cruise to a second successive victory
D. crushed to a second successive victory
E. no replacement required
Q153.The Delhi Disaster Management Authority has issued orders permit schools to reopen, after
a gap of 19 months, for students from nursery to Class XII from November 1.
A. issued orders permitting schools to reopening B. issued orders permitting schools to reopen
C. issue orders permitting schools to reopen
D. issuing orders permitting schools to reopen E. no replacement required
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Q154.With limited water resources and increasing water demand, it becomes imperatively to
strategize to the sustained use of water in various sectors.
A. imperial to strategize for the sustained use of water

B. imperative to strategize for the sustained use of water
C. imperative to strategize for the sustainable use of water
D. prior to strategize for the sustained use of water
Q155.Scientists have identified a compound that shows potentially in easing the symptoms of
COVID-19 infection in laboratory and animals.
A. show potential in easing the symptoms

B. shows potential to easing the symptoms
C. shows potential in easing the symptoms
D. showed potential in easy the symptoms
Q156.The Indian team had defeat hosts England by 36 runs to lift the T20 Physically Disabled Cricket
Series in August last year.
A. Indian team has being defeated hosts
B. Indian team was defeated hosts
C . Indian team had defeated hosts
D . Indian team had have defeated hosts E. No correction required
Directions (157-161): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A)But, Mr. Austin’s trip preceded an unannounced stop in Kabul where the U.S. is undertaking a
major review of its troop’s pull-out schedule and peace plan.
(B) The timing of U.S. Secretary of Defense Lloyd Austin’s visit to New Delhi over the weekend was
significant for many reasons.
(C) As a result, all three areas: bilateral ties, the Indo-Pacific and Afghanistan came up for discussion
during talks.
(D)Also, the visit, just after the first ever Quad leaders’ summit, confirms the U.S.’s focus on greater
maritime cooperation in the Indo-Pacific.
(E) Finally, Mr. Austin was careful not to make any direct reference to Beijing or about the LAC
dispute, which New Delhi considers a bilateral issue.
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(F) As the first senior ranking official of the Biden administration to meet with the Modi government,
his visit this early in the new President’s tenure indicates the place India holds.
Q157.Which of the following statements does not form a part of a coherent paragraph, after
rearranging the given statements?
A. B
B. F
C. C
D. D
E. None is coherent.
Q158.Which of the following pair of statements will appear in similar sequence after
rearrangement, as given in the option?
A. A-E
B. C-D
C. B-F
D. D-E
E. A-F
Q159.Which of the following is the SECOND statement after rearrangement?
A. B
B. C
C. F
D. A
E. E
Q160.Which of the following is the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
A. D
B. A
C. F
D. E
E. C
Q161.Which of the following is the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?
A. F
B. C
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C. B
D. A
E. E
Directions (162-166): In each of the following questions, a sentence has been divided into five
parts out of which one part is erroneous. You are required to choose the option which is
grammatically or contextually incorrect.
Q162.Union Home Minister Amit Shah conducted an (a)/ aerial survey of rain-ravaged areas (b)/ of
Uttarakhand to assessing the (c)/ damage which the state government (d)/ has pegged at Rs 7,000
crore.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
Q163.As much as 150 Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) (a)/ which were upgraded by (b)/ Tata
Technologies Limited under (c)/ Karnataka's UDYOGA program are set (d)/ to be inaugurated in two
weeks.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
Q164.Excessive rainfall has thrown (a)/ normal life out of gear in Uttarakhand. (b)/ Torrential rainfall
and floods (c)/ have lead to food scarcity (d)/ and lack of transportation.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
Q165.The Madhya Pradesh Police arrested (a)/ four people, including (b)/ a professional Kabaddi
player, (c)/ for their alleged (d)/ involving in arms trafficking.(e)
A. a
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B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
Q166.Addressing the nation, (a)/ Prime Minister Narendra Modi said (b)/ India's vaccination
programme (c)/ were science-born, (d)/ science- driven and science-based.(e)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. D
E. e
Directions (167-170): Given below is a highlighted word followed by 4 sentences. You need to
understand whether the sentences are using the word correctly or not. Mark the incorrect
sentence with the incorrect word usage as your answer.
Q167.Adamant
A. The doctors at Apollo hospital had been absolutely adamant that Meena’s grandmother was not
going to get better.
B. Raani is so adamant in her political beliefs that no one can change her mind!
C. Kunal is a very sweet, amiable and adamant boy.
D. Unemployed youths of this country are adamant about finding a suitable job.
A. Only B
B. Only A
C. Only D
D. Only C
E. All are correct
Q168.Enervate
A. The lecture on calculus was enervating to the new students.
B. If you are idle then it will definitely enervate your progress towards success.
C. The energy drink enervated him to such an extent that he ran faster than the others.
D. The long journey from Kolkata to Bhubaneswar is quite enervating.
A. Only A
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B. Only B
C. Only C
D. Only D
E. All are correct
Q169.Ubiquitous
A. Digital payments are becoming increasingly ubiquitous.

B. Greenery is becoming ubiquitous in urbanized towns.
C. The presence of these men is slowly becoming ubiquitous.
D. Raghu’s ubiquitous influence is always felt by his family.
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. Only D
E. All are correct
Q170.Negligent
A. Piangshuk is quite punctual and negligent when it comes to official works.

B. I was utterly shocked to find out how negligent Arun had been during these years.
C. Please do not be negligent in your work else you will suffer.
D. Pulak seems quite negligent about his health.
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. Only D
E. All are correct
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Answer Key
Section – English

141 C 151 C 161 B
142 B 152 B 162 C
143 D 153 B 163 A
144 B 154 B 164 D
145 E 155 C 165 E
146 C 156 C 166 D
147 A 157 E 167 D
148 B 158 C 168 C
149 A 159 C 169 B
150 B 160 A 190 A

Explanations
Section – English
Q141. Answer: C
Refer to the first paragraph- “Educators could consider a design-based approach where students
concentrate on a subject for two-three weeks to examine how it can be applied in the real world.”
Referring to the quoted text, we can infer that the statement given in option (c) is the correct answer
choice.
Q142. Answer: B
Refer to the third paragraph- “Excluding a few, the content created by most participants was either
sent back to them or deleted by neutral editors of Wikipedia. The content, it was found, was
179 | Page
plagiarised, did not provide citations, lacked basic writing and grammar skills, etc.” Here, among the
given options, only (b) does not find any reference. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q143. Answer: D
Refer to the third paragraph- “The critical feedback from various Wikipedia editors was crucial
because it was unbiased. This feedback forced the learners to re-evaluate their skills.
This shows that constant engagement, an emotional connection, and immersive learning are
important parts of education.” Referring to the quoted text, we can infer that the statement given
in option (d) is the correct answer choice.
Q144. Answer: B
Refer to the second paragraph- “They know terms like ‘constructivism’ but do not know how it
should be used in a classroom that is focused on exams rather than learning.” Referring to the
quoted text, we can infer that the statement given in option (b) is the correct answer choice.
Q145. Answer: E
Refer to the first paragraph- “Critical thinking and problem solving, communication and
collaboration, creativity and innovation, flexibility and adaptability, initiative and self-direction,
social and cross-cultural interactions, and productivity and accountability all strengthen the
individuals’ abilities at the workplace.” All the given qualities can support an individual to develop
his abilities at the workplace. Hence, option (e) is correct.
Q146. Answer: C
Among the given words, ‘intense’ is synonymous with ‘vehement’. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Intense- having or showing strong feelings or opinions; extremely earnest or serious.
Vehement- showing strong feelings; forceful, passionate, or intense.
Holistic- characterized by the belief that the parts of something are intimately interconnected and
explicable only by reference to the whole.
Impactful- having a major impact or effect. Catalytic- relating to or involving the action of a catalyst.
Q147. Answer: A
Among the given words, ‘contemporary’ is the antonym of ‘obsolete’. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Contemporary-belonging to or occurring in the present.
Obsolete- no longer produced or used; out of date.
(Synonyms- Archaic, Bygone, Superannuated)

Q148. Answer: B
Option B, c-d, “figment” and “technology” need to be interchanged to make the sentence
contextually and grammatically correct.
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Q149. Answer: A
Option A, a-d, “withdrawal” and “drawing” need to be interchanged to make the sentence
Q150. Answer: B
Option B, b-d, “commitment” and “consistency” need to be interchanged to make the sentence
Q151. Answer: C
Option C, a-d, “regulation” and “identification” need to be interchanged to make the sentence
Q152. Answer: B
; ‘cruised to a second successive victory’ Here, ‘cruise’ depicts to proceed to something. The correct
phrase will be ‘cruise to’. So the correct answer is B.
Q153. Answer: B
; ‘issued orders permitting schools to reopen’ ‘Has’ is followed by past participle form of verb.
‘Permitting’ is used as a gerund.
Q154. Answer: B
; ‘imperative to strategize for the sustained use of water’
Imperative means important or essential while imperial means royal.
Sustainable means continuous. It is contextually incorrect.
Prior to – until, before

According to the context, it is important to make strategy to encourage limited use of water.
Q155. Answer: C
; ‘shows potential in easing the symptoms’ Here, ‘potential’ acts as a noun and preposition ‘in’ will
be followed by present participle. The correct answer is option C.
Q156. Answer: C
The sentence is in past perfect tense as the Indian team had defeated the England team in the last
year. Thus, options A and B are incorrect. In case of option D, ‘India’ must be replaced with ‘Indian’
as it is used as an adjective. The only correct statement is option
C. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
Q157. Answer: E
Among the given sentences, (B) is the first sentence after rearrangement as it sets the theme of all
other sentences which are based on Mr. Austin’s visit to India. Further, it will be followed by (F) for
which the hint can be drawn from ‘his visit this early’. Statement (D) will follow (F) because the hint
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for this will be drawn from sentence (C), which mentions the sequence of areas. The statement (F)
indicates the bilateral ties; (F) indicates the Indo-Pacific and finally (A) hints towards the Afghanistan
issue. To conclude the passage (E) will be placed at last which mentions ‘finally’ indicating towards
the concluding statement. Therefore, the correct sequence will be BFDACE. Hence, option (e) is the
most suitable answer choice.
Q158. Answer: C
the concluding statement. Therefore, the correct sequence will be BFDACE. Hence, option (c) is the
Q159. Answer: C
the concluding statement. Therefore, the correct sequence will be BFDACE. Hence, option (c) is the
Q160. Answer: A
the concluding statement. Therefore, the correct sequence will be BFDACE. Hence, option (a) is the
Q161. Answer: B
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the concluding statement. Therefore, the correct sequence will be BFDACE. Hence, option (b) is the
Q162. Answer: C
Out of the five given parts, part (c) has a grammatical error. Usage of (ASSESSING) is incorrect
because here to+V1 structure will be followed. So “assess” will be the correct word. Correction- “of
Uttarakhand to assess the”
Hence option C is the correct answer.
Q163. Answer: A
Out of the five given parts, part (a) has a grammatical error. Usage of (MUCH) is incorrect because
for countable nouns we always use ‘many’. So “many” will be the correct word. Correction- “As
many as 150 Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs)”
Hence option A is the correct answer.
Q164. Answer: D
Out of the five given parts, part (d) has a grammatical error. Usage of (have lead) is incorrect because
“have” is followed by V3 and the third form of lead will be led. So “led” will be the correct word.
Correction- “have led to food scarcity”

Hence option D is the correct answer.
Q165. Answer: E
Out of the five given parts, part (e) has a grammatical error. Usage of verb (involving) is incorrect.
(involving) will be replaced by the noun (involvement)
Correction- “involvement in arms trafficking”
Hence option E is the correct answer.
Q166. Answer: D
Out of the five given parts, part (d) has a grammatical error. Usage of (were) is incorrect. Vaccination
programme is singular so the verb that will be used is also singular. So “was” will be the correct
word.
Correction- “was science-born”
Hence option D is the correct answer.
Q167. Answer: D
Adamant means refusing to be persuaded or to change one's mind.
If we look at the sentences given here, we can easily understand that in sentence C the context does
not quite match with the word adamant.
We need a word which has a positive sense. So, it is incorrectly used here.
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Therefore, the correct answer is option D.
Q168. Answer: C
Solution: Enervate means (lacking) or drained of energy or vitality. In sentence C it gives just the
opposite sense of enervate and hence is incorrect.
Therefore, in the given question the correct answer is option C.
Q169. Answer: B
Ubiquitous means present, appearing, or found everywhere.
In statement B, the word ‘scarce’ could have been used. The context and sense is completely
opposite.
Therefore, in the given question the correct answer is option B.

Q170. Answer: A
Negligent means failing to take proper care over something.
In the very first question we can see that there is a clear contradiction of senses. A person cannot
be punctual as well as negligent both. Hence we can understand that it is incorrectly used here.
Therefore, in the given question the correct answer is option A.
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Section – Quant
Q.171) Given below are 3 equations I, II and III where 'a' and 'b' are the roots of equation I where
(a < b) and 'c' and’d’ are roots of equation II where (c < d). On this basis, solve for equation III and
find the relationship between 'z' and 'k' given that k = 11
I. 3x(x - 12) + 72 = x²- 11x – 5
II. 5y(y - 3) - 64 = y(3y - 2) – 19
III. (z + 2a - d)² = 169
[1] z > k
[2] z < k
[3] z = k or the relationship cannot be established
[4] z ≥ k
[5] z ≤ k
Q.172) Given below are three equations i.e. 'I', 'II' and 'III'. If roots of the equation 'I' are 'p' and
'q', respectively such that p > q while the roots of the equation 'II' are 'm' and 'n' respectively such
that m > n, then find the value of 'K'.
I. 2x²- 6(x + 4) = 3x + 11
II. 2y²- 12(y - 4) = 7y + 6
III. (15m/2) - 8q = 9p - 4n + K²
[1] 11
[2] 4
[3] 7
[4] 9
[5] 14
Q.173) The series given below contains a missing number 'P'. Find the value of 'P' and determine
which among the given three statement(s) is/are true.
74, 290, 241, 753, 672, 'P', 1551
I: The nearest perfect square number to 'P' is 1600
II: 'P' is divisible by 11

185 | Page
III: (P + 28) is a multiple of 50.
[1] Only I
[2] Only II
[3] Only I and II
[4] Only II and III

[5] Only III
Q.174) Given below are two number series I and II where the missing numbers in series I and II
are 'P' and 'Q', respectively. Find the value of 'P' and 'Q' and find which among the given options
gives the correct value of (P - Q).
I: 5000, 4000, 3000, 2100, P, 819
II: 4, 6, 15, 56, Q, 1644
[1] 1120
[2] 1090
[3] 980
[4] 1240
[5] 1050
Q.175) Given below are two number series I and II where the missing numbers in series 'I' and 'II'
are 'P' and 'Q', respectively. Find the value of 'P' and 'Q' and find which among the given options
gives the L.C.M of 'P' and 'Q'.
I: 77, 106, 48, P, 19, 164
II: 141, 98, Q, 63, 71, 96
[1] 1080
[2] 1200
[3] 724
[4] 960
[5] 1440
Q176-180) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A survey was conducted among certain number of players who played games in at-least one of
the levels i.e. National and International. Players who played only at national level played in at
least one of the three trophies i.e. Ranji, Duleep and Irani while the players who played only at
International level played in at least one of the two leagues i.e. CPL and BBL.
186 | Page
Out of total number of players, 10% had played at both levels and the number of players who
played only at national level is 250 more than number of players who played only at international
level. 24% of players who played only at national level had played only Ranji which was 200 less
than players who played only in CPL. Number of players who played in all three trophies i.e. Ranji,
Duleep and Irani is 144 and is 52% less than number of players who played only Ranji. Ratio of
number of players who played only in BBL to number of players who played in both Ranji and
Irani but not in Duleep is 25:(p + 3). Number of people who played only at national level but not
played Irani trophy is 630. (2p - 0.8)% of number of players who played only at national level had
played only in Irani trophy. The number of players who played only at international level and
played only in CPL was (p + 10) % of total number of players. (2p + 1.6)% of players who played at
national level had played in both Ranji and Duleep trophy. Number of players who played both
Ranji and Duleep but not Irani trophy was 125% more than number of players who played both
Irani and Duleep but not Ranji.
Q.176) Number of players who played exactly in one trophy is:
[1] 650
[2] 620
[3] 690
[4] 720
[5] 740
Q.177) Number of players who played only in BBL is how much percent of total number of players
who played at the international level?
[1] 40%
[2] 30%
[3] 24%
[4] 50%
[5] 45%
Q.178) Ratio of number of players who played in both Ranji and Irani trophy but not in Duleep
trophy to number of players who played in both Irani and Duleep trophy but not in Ranji trophy
is:
[1] 10: 9
[2] 15: 14
[3] 29: 20
[4] 39: 20
[5] None of these
187 | Page
Q.179) Total number of players who played in CPL is:
[1] 300
[2] 500
[3] 700
[4] 750
[5] 450
Q.180) Difference between number of players who played in all three trophies and number of
players who played in both leagues is:
[1] 6p - 6
[2] 5p - 6
[3] 3p² - 25p + 6
[4] 5p² - 45p + 12

[5] None of these
Q.181-185) Directions: Following is the data regarding the revenue and expenditure of 4
companies in 2018 and in 2017. All figures are in Rs crore.
Profit = Revenue – Expenditure
Percentage profit = (Profit/Expenditure)*100%
2017 2018
Revenue Expenditure Revenue Expenditure
Mckinsey 5800 5300 6000 5000
BCG 6000 5400 5600 4800
Bain 5000 4800 5400 4800
ATK 4800 4000 5000 4000
Q.181) Which company in which year has seen the maximum percentage profit?
[1] ATK in 2017

[2] BCG in 2017
[3] Bain in 2018
[4] ATK in 2018
188 | Page
[5] Mckinsey in 2018
Q.182) Which company has seen the maximum percentage increase in profit from 2017 to 2018?
[1] Mckinsey
[2] BCG
[3] Bain
[4] ATK
[5] 2 companies have the same percentage increase
Q.183) What is the sum of the numerical values of the percentage profit of Mckinsey in 2018 and
Bain in 2018?
[1] 27.5
[2] 25
[3] 32.5
[4] 38
[5] 45
Q.184) What is the ratio of the numerical values of the percentage profit of Mckinsey in 2017 to
BCG in 2017?
[1] 45: 53
[2] 41: 51
[3] 47: 61
[4] 38: 65
[5] 33: 61
Q.185) For all 4 companies combined, what is the percentage (approximately) increase in the sum
of their profits from 2017 to 2018?
[1] 48%
[2] 62%
[3] 44%
[4] 55%
[5] 72%
Q.186-190) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Five different schools of a district participated in multiple tournaments during a year. Each school
won some gold, silver and bronze medals. The pie chart given below shows the percentage
189 | Page
distribution of number of gold medals won by each school out of total gold medals won by all
schools together.
(x-4)%
24%
A
B
C
(x+5)% D
16.50%
E
18.50%
The table chart given below shows the difference between number of gold and number of silver
medals, won by each school and percentage of number of bronze medals won by each school as
percentage of number of silver medals won by that school.
School Difference between number of gold Percentage of number of bronze

and number of silver medals won medals won by each school as
percentage of number of silver
medals won
A 116 84%
B 186 78%
C 104 (3.5x+1)%
D 120 75%
E 144 4x%
Note: Total number of medals won by school 'E' were 86 more than that by school 'D'.
Q.186) Find the sum of number of bronze medals won by schools 'A' and 'C' together.
[1] 816
[2] 664
190 | Page
[3] 704
[4] 752
[5] None of these
Q.187) Find the ratio between number of bronze medals won by school 'E' and sum of number of
gold medals won by schools 'B' and 'C' together, respectively.
[1] 3: 5
[2] 4: 7
[3] 2: 5
[4] 5: 7
[5] None of these
Q.188) Find the average number of medals won by schools 'C' and 'D' together.
[1] 925
[2] 890
[3] 915
[4] 935
[5] None of these
Q.189) Find the difference between number of silver medals won by school 'A' and school 'D'.
[1] 12x - 45
[2] 8x + 45
[3] 9x + 20
[4] 12.5x - 15
[5] 11x
Q.190) If number of silver medals won by school 'B' were 'm' and number of gold medals won by
school 'D' were 'n', then find the value of 3(m - n).
[1] 150
[2] 250
[3] 175
[4] 225
[5] 200
191 | Page
Q.191) The question consists of two statements numbered “I and II” given below it. You have to
decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
A shopkeeper sold an article. Find the selling price of the article.
Statement-I: The selling price of article is 45% more than the cost price of article. Marked price of
article is 10% more than the selling price, and the amount of discount offered is Rs. 870.
Statement-II: Profit made by the shopkeeper is 45%. Had the article was sold for Rs. 300 more,
the shopkeeper would have earned 50% profit.
[1] The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
[2] The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
[3] The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
[4] The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
[5] The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Q.192) The question consists of four statements numbered "I, II, III and IV" given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in any of the statement(s) alone is/are sufficient to
answer the question.
There are only three people in a family i.e. father, mother and a child. If present ages of father
and mother are in the ratio 10:9, respectively, then find the present age of the child.
Statement I: Ten years hence from now, the age of child will be 56% less than that of the father.
Statement II: Present age of child is 70% less than that of the father and 24 years less than that of
the mother.
Statement III: Six years ago from now, the age of mother was 5 times the age of child. Six years
hence from now, the age of father will be 28 years more than that of child.
Statement IV: Difference between present age of mother and father is 4 years and difference
between present age of child and mother is 24 years.
[1] Only I
[2] Only II
[3] Only I, II and III

[4] Only II, III and IV
[5] Only I and II
192 | Page
Q.193) Harry, Ron and Cedrick started a business with an investment in the ratio of 14: 15: 20.
After 5 months, Harry invested an additional amount which was 2/5th of the initial investment of
Ron. 3 months after that, Ron increased his investment by an amount which was 1/4 th of Cedrick’s
initial investment and Cedrick increased his investment by an amount which was 2/3 rd of Ron’s
initial investment. After one year of business, the difference between the profit share of Ron and
Harry was what percent of that between Ron and Cedrick?
[1] 13.33%
[2] 6.67%
[3] 16.67%
[4] 8.33%
[5] 12.5%
Q.194-196) Directions: In the question, two Quantities I and II are given. You have to solve both
the Quantity to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and Quantity-II and choose the
correct option.
Q.194) The speed of boat 'B' in still water is 8 km/h more than that of boat 'A'. The ratio of
downstream speed of boat 'A' to upstream speed of boat 'B' is 9:8. The ratio of upstream speed
of boat 'A' to downstream speed of boat 'B' is 6:11. (Both the boats are travelling in the same
stream)
Quantity-I: Find the sum of distance travelled by boat 'A' in downstream in 125 minutes and
distance travelled by boat 'B' in upstream in 75 minutes.
Quantity-II: Speed of Boat 'C' in still water is 50 km/h. Find the sum of distance travelled by boats
'A', 'B' and 'C' together while travelling in upstream for 1 hour. Boat 'C' is also travelling in the
same stream.
[1] Quantity-I > Quantity-II
[2] Quantity-I < Quantity-II

[3] Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
[4] Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
[5] Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II
Q.195) Quantity-I: The selling price of an article when it is marked 36% above its cost price and
sold after a discount of Rs. 140 is Rs. 'P' and the selling price of the same article when it is marked
28% above its cost price and sold after a discount of Rs. 120 is Rs. 'Q'. If P : Q = 19:18, then find
the cost price of the article.
Quantity-II: The compound interest received on investing Rs. 10,500 for 2 years at 'y%' p.a.,
compounded annually is Rs. 2,205. Find the compound interest received on investing Rs. 4,800 at
a rate of (y + 5) % p.a., compounded annually for 2 years.
193 | Page
[1] Quantity-I > Quantity-II
[2] Quantity-I < Quantity-II
[3] Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
[4] Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
[5] Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II
Q.196) Which of the following pair of symbols will define the relation between Quantity I and
Quantity II and between Quantity II and Quantity III respectively?
A. =
B. >
C. <
D. ≥
E. ≤
F. # (relation cannot be established)
'p', 'q' and 'r' are three distinct positive roots of the given equation such that 'p' > 'q' > 'r'.
x³- 9x²+ 23x - 15 = 0
Quantity I: Find the value of '8p'.
Quantity II: Find the value of (q + 40).
Quantity III: Find the value of (r X 20).
[1] C, B
[2] B, C
[3] A, B
[4] B, A
[5] C, A
Q.197) Arjun and Rajiv deposited Rs. 8400 and Rs. _____ in scheme A at 20% and at 10% per
annum compound interest compounded annually, respectively. Also, Arjun and Rajiv deposited
Rs. ____ and Rs. 3700 in scheme B at 15% and at 24% per annum simple interest, respectively.
Sum of interest earned by both from both schemes together after 2 years is Rs. ____.
The values given in which of the following options will fill the blanks in the same order in which
is it given to make the statement true:
194 | Page
I. 7200, 4120, 8220
II. 9600, 3640, 8540
III. 8000, 5400, 8772
[1] Only I
[2] Only II
[3] Only III
[4] Only II and III
[5] Only I and III
Q.198) A man fell down from his boat at point 'A' which was 64 km away in downstream from a
rescue boat which started travelling immediately for his rescue. Till the time, the rescue boat
reached point 'A', the man travelled with help of stream only. As soon as the boat reached the
point 'A', the man started swimming towards the boat such that his speed in still water is 5 km/h
and the boat rescued him after 48 minutes after it reached point 'A'. The speed of the stream is
60% of that of the rescue boat in still water. Find the total distance covered by the rescue boat in
the time it meets the man.
[1] 88 km
[2] 108 km
[3] 96 km
[4] 124 km
[5] 120 km
Q.199) Paper A is in the form of a square of side 130mm. Four quadrants of diameter 14mm is cut
from the four corners of the square. Paper B is in the form of a rectangle whose one side is 150mm
and this side is 20% more than the shorter side. Two semicircles of diameter equal to the smaller
side of the rectangle is cut from both the edges of the rectangle. By what percent is the remaining
area of paper B more or less than that of paper A?
[1] 61.3% more

[2] 52.3% more
[3] 61.3% less
[4] 52.3% less
[5] None of these

Q.200) A natural number, N, is divisible by at most two distinct divisors of 12. What will the HCF
of all possible values of N be?
[1] 2
195 | Page
[2] 1
[3] 0
[4] 3
[5] 4

Answer Key
Section – Quants

171 5 181 4 191 3
172 2 182 3 192 4
173 4 183 3 193 5
174 2 184 1 194 1
175 1 185 2 195 2
176 3 186 3 196 1
177 3 187 2 197 5
178 4 188 4 198 3
179 3 189 5 199 3
180 3 190 1 200 2

Explanations
Section – Quants
Q.171) Solution – 5
Detailed solution:
From I:
3x(x - 12) + 72 = x²- 11x – 5
Or, 3x²- 36x + 72 – x²+ 11x + 5 = 0
Or, 2x²- 25x + 77 = 0

Or, 2x²- 14x - 11x + 77 = 0
196 | Page
Or, 2x(x - 7)-11(x - 7) = 0
Or, (2x - 11) (x - 7) = 0
So, x = 5.5 or 7
So, a = 5.5 and b = 7
From II:
5y(y - 3) - 64 = y(3y - 2) – 19
Or, 5y²- 15y - 64 = 3y²- 2y – 19
Or, 5y²- 3y²- 15y + 2y - 64 + 19 = 0
Or, 2y²- 13y - 45 = 0
Or, 2y²- 18y + 5y - 45 = 0
Or, 2y(y - 9) + 5(y - 9) = 0

Or, (2y + 5) (y - 9) = 0
So, y = -(5/2) = -2.5 or 9
So, c = -2.5 and d = 9
From III:
(z + 2a - d)² = 169
Or, (z + 2 X 5.5 - 9)² = 169
Or, (z + 2)² = 169
Or, z + 2 = ±13
So, z = 11 or -15
‘z’ Relation ‘k’
11 = 11
-15 < 11
Therefore, z ≤ k
Detailed solution:
From I:
2x²- 6(x + 4) = 3x + 11
Or, 2x²- 6x - 24 - 3x - 11 = 0
197 | Page
Or, 2x²- 9x - 35 = 0
Or, 2x²- 14x + 5x - 35 = 0
Or, 2x(x - 7) + 5(x - 7) = 0
Or, (2x + 5)(x - 7) = 0
So, x = -2.5 or 7
So, p = 7 and q = -2.5

From II:
2y²- 12(y - 4) = 7y + 6
Or, 2y²- 12y + 48 - 7y - 6 = 0
Or, 2y²- 19y + 42 = 0
Or, 2y²- 12y - 7y + 42 = 0

Or, 2y(y - 6) - 7(y - 6) = 0
Or, (2y - 7)(y - 6) = 0
So, y = 3.5 or 6
So, m = 6 and n = 3.5
From III:
(15m/2) - 8q = 9p - 4n + K²
Or, {(15 X 6)/2} - 8 X (-2.5) = 9 X 7 - 4 X 3.5 + K²
Or, 45 + 20 = 63 - 14 + K²
Or, 65 = 49 + K²
So, K = ±4
Detailed solution:
The given number series follows the pattern of alternate addition and subtraction of cubes and
squares, respectively.
74 + 6³ = 290
290 – 7² = 241
241 + 8³ = 753
753 – 9² = 672
672 + 10³ = 1672
198 | Page
1672 – 11² = 1551
So, 'P' = 1672.
For I:
Nearest perfect square number of 1672, is 41² = 1681
So, statement I is false.
For II:
1672 ÷ 11 = 152
So, statement II is true.
For III:
P + 28 = 1672 + 28 = 1700
Since, 1700 = 34 X 50
So, statement III is true.
Detailed solution:
For series I:
5000 X 0.8 = 4000

4000 X 0.75 = 3000
3000 X 0.7 = 2100
2100 X 0.65 = 1365
1365 X 0.6 = 819
Therefore the value of the missing number 'P' is 1365

For series II:
(4 X 2) - 2 = 6
(6 X 3) - 3 = 15
(15 X 4) - 4 = 56
(56 X 5) - 5 = 275
(56 X 5) - 5 = 275
(275 X 6) - 6 = 1644
The value of the missing number 'Q' is 275
So, P - Q = 1365 - 275 = 1090
199 | Page
Detailed solution:
For series I:
77 + 29 X 1 = 106
106 - 29 X 2 = 48
48 + 29 X 3 = 135
135 - 29 X 4 = 19
19 + 29 X 5 = 164
So, the value of 'P' is 135
For series II:
Therefore, the value of 'Q' is 72.

L.C.M of 'P' and 'Q' = L.C.M of 135 and 72 = 1080
Detailed solution:
Let total number of players be 100x
Number of players who had played at both levels = 0.10 × 100x = 10x
Number of players who played only at national level = (90x + 250)/2 = 45x + 125
Number of players who played only at international level = 45x – 125

Number of players who played only in Ranji = 0.24 (45x + 125)
So, 0.24(45x + 125) = 144/0.48 = 300
So, x = 25
Total number of players = 100x = 100 × 25 = 2500
Number of players who had played at both levels = 10x = 10 × 25 = 250

Number of players who played only at national level = 45x + 125 = 45 × 25 + 125 = 1250
Number of players who played only at international level = 45x - 125 = 45 × 25 - 125 = 1000
200 | Page
Number of players who played only in Ranji = 300
Number of players who played only in CPL = 300 + 200 = 500
So, p + 10 = 500/2500 x 100 = 20
So, p = 10
Let number of players who played only in BBL = 25y
So, number of players who played in both Ranji and Irani but not Duleep = (10 + 3) x y = 13y
Number of players who played in Irani trophy = 1250 - 630 = 620
Number of players who played only in Irani trophy = (2p - 0.8)% of 1250 = 0.192 × 1250 = 240
Number of players who played in both Ranji and Duleep trophy = (2p + 1.6)% of (1250 + 250) =
0.216 × 1500 = 324
Number of players who played in both Ranji and Duleep trophy but not Irani trophy = 324 - 144 =
180
Number of players who played in both Irani and Duleep trophy but not Ranji trophy = 180/2.25 =
80
So, 13y + 144 + 80 + 240 = 620
Or, 13y = 156

So, number of players who played in both Ranji and Irani but not Duleep = 13y = 156 Also, y =
156/13 = 12
So, number of players who played only in BBL = 25y = 25 × 12 = 300
Number of players who played in both BBL and CPL = 1000 - 300 - 500 = 200
Number of people who played in BBL = 300 + 200 = 500
Number of players who played only in Duleep trophy = 630 – 180 – 300 = 150
201 | Page
National
International
1250 25 1000
0
Ranji 180 Duleep
150 BBL
300
144
80
156 300
240
Number of players of played exactly in one trophy = 300 + 150 + 240 =690
Detailed solution:

So, 0.24(45x + 125) = 144/0.48 = 300
So, x = 25
202 | Page
So, p + 10 = 500/2500 x 100 = 20

So, p = 10
0.216 × 1500 = 324
180
80
So, 13y + 144 + 80 + 240 = 620
Or, 13y = 156
156/13 = 12
203 | Page
National
International
1250 25 1000
0
Ranji 180 Duleep
150 BBL
300
144
80
156 300
240
Desired percentage = 300/1250 × 100 = 24%

Detailed solution:
So, 0.24(45x + 125) = 144/0.48 = 300
So, x = 25
204 | Page

So, p + 10 = 500/2500 x 100 = 20
So, p = 10

Number of players who played only in Irani trophy = (2p - 0.8) % of 1250 = 0.192 × 1250 = 240
Number of players who played in both Ranji and Duleep trophy = (2p + 1.6) % of (1250 + 250) =
0.216 × 1500 = 324
180
80
So, 13y + 144 + 80 + 240 = 620
Or, 13y = 156
156/13 = 12

205 | Page
National
International
1250 25 1000
0
Ranji 180 Duleep
150 BBL
300
144
80
156 300
240
Desired ratio = 156:80 = 39:20

Detailed solution:
So, 0.24(45x + 125) = 144/0.48 = 300
So, x = 25
206 | Page

So, p + 10 = 500/2500 x 100 = 20
So, p = 10

0.216 × 1500 = 324
180
80
So, 13y + 144 + 80 + 240 = 620
Or, 13y = 156
156/13 = 12

207 | Page
National
International
1250 25 1000
0
Ranji 180 Duleep
150 BBL
300
144
80
156 300
240
The total number of players who played in CPL = 500 + 200 = 700
Detailed solution:
So, 0.24(45x + 125) = 144/0.48 = 300
So, x = 25
208 | Page

So, p + 10 = 500/2500 x 100 = 20
So, p = 10

0.216 × 1500 = 324
180
80
So, 13y + 144 + 80 + 240 = 620
Or, 13y = 156
156/13 = 12

209 | Page
National
International
1250 25 1000
0
Ranji 180 Duleep
150 BBL
300
144
80
156 300
240
Desired difference = 200 – 144 = 56 = 3p2 – 25p + 6

Detailed solution:
2017 2018
Profit Percentage profit Profit Percentage profit
Mckinsey 5800-5300 = (500/5300)*100% 6000-5000 = (1000/5000)*100%

500 = 9(23/53)% 1000 = 20%
210 | Page
BCG 6000-5400 = (600/5400)*100% 5600-4800 = (800/4800)*100%
600 = 11(1/9)% 800 = 16(2/3)%
Bain 5000-4800 = (200/4800)*100% 5400-4800 = (600/4800)*100%

200 = 4(1/6)% 600 = 12.5%
ATK 4800-4000 = (800/4000)*100% 5000-4000 = (1000/4000)*100%

800 = 20% 1000 = 25%
As we see from the table, the maximum percentage profit is earned by ATK in 2018, a percentage
profit of 25%
Detailed solution:
2017 2018
Mckinsey 5800-5300 = (500/5300)*100% 6000-5000 = (1000/5000)*100%

500 = 9(23/53)% 1000 = 20%
BCG 6000-5400 = (600/5400)*100% 5600-4800 = (800/4800)*100% =

600 = 11(1/9)% 800 16(2/3)%
Bain 5000-4800 = (200/4800)*100% 5400-4800 = (600/4800)*100% =

200 = 4(1/6)% 600 12.5%
ATK 4800-4000 = (800/4000)*100% 5000-4000 = (1000/4000)*100%

800 = 20% 1000 = 25%
As we see from the table, the profit of Bain becomes Rs 600 crore from Rs 200 crore, a percentage
increase of 200%
Detailed solution:
2017 2018
211 | Page
Mckinsey 5800-5300 = (500/5300)*100% 6000-5000 = (1000/5000)*100%
500 = 9(23/53)% 1000 = 20%
BCG 6000-5400 = (600/5400)*100% 5600-4800 = (800/4800)*100% =

600 = 11(1/9)% 800 16(2/3)%
Bain 5000-4800 = (200/4800)*100% 5400-4800 = (600/4800)*100% =

200 = 4(1/6)% 600 12.5%
ATK 4800-4000 = (800/4000)*100% 5000-4000 = (1000/4000)*100%

800 = 20% 1000 = 25%
Required sum = 20 + 12.5 = 32.5
Detailed solution:
2017 2018
Mckinsey 5800-5300 = (500/5300)*100% 6000-5000 = (1000/5000)*100%

500 = 9(23/53)% 1000 = 20%
BCG 6000-5400 = (600/5400)*100% 5600-4800 = (800/4800)*100% =

600 = 11(1/9)% 800 16(2/3)%
Bain 5000-4800 = (200/4800)*100% 5400-4800 = (600/4800)*100% =

200 = 4(1/6)% 600 12.5%
ATK 4800-4000 = (800/4000)*100% 5000-4000 = (1000/4000)*100%

800 = 20% 1000 = 25%
Required ratio = 9(23/53) : 11(1/9) = 500/53 : 100/9 = 45:53

Detailed solution:
2017 2018
212 | Page
Mckinsey 5800-5300 = (500/5300)*100% 6000-5000 = (1000/5000)*100%
500 = 9(23/53)% 1000 = 20%
BCG 6000-5400 = (600/5400)*100% 5600-4800 = (800/4800)*100% =

600 = 11(1/9)% 800 16(2/3)%
Bain 5000-4800 = (200/4800)*100% 5400-4800 = (600/4800)*100% =

200 = 4(1/6)% 600 12.5%
ATK 4800-4000 = (800/4000)*100% 5000-4000 = (1000/4000)*100%

800 = 20% 1000 = 25%
Profit in 2017 = 500 + 600 + 200 + 800 = Rs 2100 crore
Profit in 2018 = 1000 + 800 + 600 + 1000 = Rs 3400 crore

Required percentage = ((3400 - 2100)/2100)*100% ≈ 62%
Detailed solution:
ATQ;
24 + 16.5 + 18.5 + x + 5 + x - 4 = 100

Or, 2x = 40
So, x = 20
So, percentage of gold medals won by school 'D' out of total gold medals won by all 5 schools
together = 25%
And, that by school 'E' = 20 - 4 = 16%
Similarly,
Percentage of number of bronze medals won as percentage of number of silver medals won by
school 'C' = 3.5 X 20 + 1 = 71%
school 'E' = 4 X 20 = 80%
Let total number of gold medals won by all five schools together be '400y'.
So, number of gold medals won by school 'D' = 400y X 0.25 = '100y'
Number of silver medals won by school 'D' = 100y + 120 (Case 'P') or 100y - 120 (Case 'Q')
Number of gold medals won by school 'E' = 400y X 0.16 = 64y
For case 'P':
213 | Page
Number of bronze medals won by school 'D' = (100y + 120) X 0.75 = 75y + 90
Case P (i):
Number of silver medals won by school 'E' = 64y + 144
So, number of bronze medals won by school 'E' = (64y + 144) X 0.8 = 51.2y + 115.2
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86

Or, 95.8y = -36.8 (Since 'y' is a positive integer, we may discard this case).
Case P (ii):
Number of silver medals won by school 'E' = 64y – 144
So, number of bronze medals won by school 'E' = (64y - 144) X 0.8 = 51.2y - 115.2
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = - 555.2 (Since 'y' is a positive integer, we may discard this case)
Case Q:
Number of bronze medals won by school 'D' = (100y - 120) X 0.75 = 75y – 90
Case Q (i):
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = 383.2

So, y = 4
Case Q (ii):
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = 135.2
So, y ~ 1.41 (Since 'y' is not an integer, we may discard this case)
So, y = 4
214 | Page
So, total number of gold medals won by all five schools together = 4 X 400 = 1600
For school 'A':
Total number of gold medals won by the school = 1600 X 0.24 = 384
Number of silver medals won by the school = 384 + 116 = 500 or 384 - 116 = 268
When number of silver medals won = 268, then number of bronze medals won = 268 X 0.84 =
225.12 (Since number of medals won must be an integer, this case can be discarded)
So, number of silver medals won by school 'A' = 500
And, number of bronze medals won by the school = 500 X 0.84 = 420
Similarly,
School Number of gold Number of Number of Total number of

medals won silver medals bronze medal medals won
won won
A 384 500 420 1304
B 264 450 351 1065
C 296 400 284 980
D 400 280 210 890
E 256 400 320 976
Total 1600 2030 1585 5215
Required sum = 420 + 284 = 704

Detailed solution:
ATQ;
24 + 16.5 + 18.5 + x + 5 + x - 4 = 100
Or, 2x = 40
So, x = 20
together = 25%
Similarly,
school 'C' = 3.5 X 20 + 1 = 71%
215 | Page
school 'E' = 4 X 20 = 80%
For case 'P':
Case P (i):
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86

Case P (ii):
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86
Case Q:
Case Q (i):
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = 383.2

So, y = 4
Case Q (ii):
216 | Page
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = 135.2
So, y = 4
For school 'A':
Similarly,

won won
A 384 500 420 1304
B 264 450 351 1065
C 296 400 284 980
D 400 280 210 890
E 256 400 320 976
Total 1600 2030 1585 5215
Required ratio = 320:(264 + 296) = 320:560 = 4:7
Detailed solution:
ATQ;
24 + 16.5 + 18.5 + x + 5 + x - 4 = 100
Or, 2x = 40
217 | Page
So, x = 20
together = 25%
Similarly,
school 'C' = 3.5 X 20 + 1 = 71%
school 'E' = 4 X 20 = 80%
For case 'P':
Case P (i):
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86
Case P (ii):
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86

Case Q:
Case Q (i):

218 | Page
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = 383.2
So, y = 4
Case Q (ii):
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = 135.2

So, y = 4
For school 'A':
Similarly,

won won
A 384 500 420 1304
B 264 450 351 1065
C 296 400 284 980
D 400 280 210 890
E 256 400 320 976
Total 1600 2030 1585 5215
219 | Page
Required average = {(980 + 890)/2} = 935
Detailed solution:
ATQ;
24 + 16.5 + 18.5 + x + 5 + x - 4 = 100
Or, 2x = 40
So, x = 20
together = 25%
Similarly,
school 'C' = 3.5 X 20 + 1 = 71%
school 'E' = 4 X 20 = 80%
For case 'P':
Case P (i):
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86

Case P (ii):
ATQ;
220 | Page
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86
Case Q:
Case Q (i):

ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = 383.2
So, y = 4
Case Q (ii):
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86

Or, 95.8y = 135.2
So, y = 4
For school 'A':

Similarly,

won won
221 | Page
A 384 500 420 1304
B 264 450 351 1065
C 296 400 284 980
D 400 280 210 890
E 256 400 320 976
Total 1600 2030 1585 5215
Required difference = 500 - 280 = 220
Detailed solution:
ATQ;
24 + 16.5 + 18.5 + x + 5 + x - 4 = 100
Or, 2x = 40
So, x = 20
together = 25%
Similarly,
school 'C' = 3.5 X 20 + 1 = 71%
school 'E' = 4 X 20 = 80%
For case 'P':
Case P (i):
222 | Page
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86
Case P (ii):
ATQ;
100y + 75y + 90 + 100y + 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86
Case Q:
Case Q (i):
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y + 144 + 51.2y + 115.2 – 86

Or, 95.8y = 383.2
So, y = 4
Case Q (ii):
ATQ;
100y + 75y - 90 + 100y - 120 = 64y + 64y - 144 + 51.2y - 115.2 – 86
Or, 95.8y = 135.2
So, y = 4
For school 'A':
223 | Page

Similarly,

won won
A 384 500 420 1304
B 264 450 351 1065
C 296 400 284 980
D 400 280 210 890
E 256 400 320 976
Total 1600 2030 1585 5215
ATQ;
m = 450
And, n = 400
so, required value = (450 - 400) X 3 = 150
Detailed solution:
Statement-I:
Let the cost price of the article be Rs. ‘x’.

Selling price of the article = Rs. 1.45x
Marked price of the article = 1.1 × 1.45x = Rs. 1.595x
Now, 1.595x – 1.45x = 870
0.145x = 870
x = 6000
So, the selling price of the article = 1.45 × 6000 = Rs. 8700
So, statement-I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement-II:
Let the cost price of the article be Rs. ‘x’.
224 | Page
1.5x – 1.45x = 300
0.05x = 300
x = 6000
So, the selling price of the article = 1.45 × 6000 = Rs. 8700
So, statement-II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Detailed solution:
Let the present ages of mother and father be '9x' years and '10x' years, respectively.
Statement I:
Let the present age of child be 'y' years.
According to the statement:

(10x + 10) X 0.44 = y
Or, 4.4x + 4.4 = y
Since, there are two variables and only one equation, it is impossible to find the unique values.
So, data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II:
Present age of child = 10x X 0.3 = '3x' years
3x + 24 = 9x
Or, 6x = 24
So, x = 4
So, present age of child = 3x = 3 X 4 = 12 years
So, data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement III:
Present age of the child = (10x - 28) years
Six years ago from now, age of the child = (10x - 28 - 6) = (10x - 34) years
9x - 6 = 5 (10x - 34)
Or, 9x - 6 = 50x – 170
41x = 164
225 | Page
So, x = 4
So, present age of child = 10x - 28 = 10 X 4 - 28 = 12 years
So, data in statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement IV:
10x - 9x = 4
Or, x = 4
So, present age of mother = 9 X 4 = 36 years
So, present age of child = 36 - 24 = 12 years
So, data in statement IV alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Detailed solution:
14: 15: 20
Ratio of the time investment of Harry: Ron: Cedrick
15×2 20 15×2
= 14 × 5 + (14 + ) × 7: 15 × 8 + (15 + ) × 4: 20 × 8 + (20 + )×4
5 4 3
= 210: 200: 280

(210−200)
𝑅𝑒𝑞𝑑% = (280−200) × 100 = 12.5%
Detailed solution:
Let the speed of boat 'A' in still water = 'x' km/h
Then, speed of boat 'B' in still water = (x + 8) km/h
Let the speed of the stream = 'y' km/h

Upstream speed of boat 'A' = (x - y) km/h
Downstream speed of boat 'A' = (x + y) km/h
Upstream speed of boat 'B' = (x + 8 - y) km/h
Downstream speed of boat 'B' = (x + 8 + y) km/h
According to the statement,

(x + y) : (x + 8 - y) = 9:8
Or, 8x + 8y = 9x - 9y + 72
226 | Page
Or, 17y = x + 72 - [equation I]
Also, according to the statement,
(x - y) : (x + 8 + y) = 6:11
Or, 11x - 11y = 6x + 48 + 6y
Or, 5x = 17y + 48
Or, 17y = 5x - 48 - [equation II]

Equating equations (I) and (II)
So, x + 72 = 5x – 48
Or, 120 = 4x
So, x = (120/4) = 30
Therefore, speed of boat 'A' and boat 'B' in still water is 30 km/h and 38 km/h, respectively
So, y = (5 X 30 - 48) ÷ 17 = 102 ÷ 17 = 6
So, upstream and downstream speed of boat 'A' is 24 km/h and 36 km/h respectively
Upstream and downstream speed of boat 'B' is 32 km/h and 44 km/h.
Quantity I:
Distance travelled by boat 'A' in downstream in 125 minutes = 36 X (125/60) = 75 km

Distance travelled by boat 'B' in upstream in 75 minutes = 32 X (75/60) = 40 km
So, Quantity I = 75 + 40 = 115 km
Quantity II:
Upstream speed of boat 'C' = 50 - 6 = 44 km/h
Distance travelled by boat 'A' and boat 'B' in upstream in 1 hour is 24 km and 32 km, respectively.
Speed of boat 'C' in upstream = 50 - 6 = 44 km/h
Distance travelled by boat 'C' in upstream in 1 hour = 44 km
So, Quantity II = 24 + 32 + 44 = 100 km
Therefore, quantity I > quantity II
Detailed solution:
Quantity I:
Let the cost price of the article = Rs. '100x'
Then, P = 100x X 1.36 - 140 = Rs. (136x - 140)
227 | Page
And, Q = 100x X 1.28 - 120 = Rs. (128x - 120)
According to the question,
(136x - 140) : (128x - 120) = 19:18
Or, 2448x - 2520 = 2432x – 2280
Or, 16x = 240
So, x = (240/16) = 15
Therefore, cost price of the article = 15 X 100 = Rs. 1,500
So, quantity I = Rs. 1,500
Quantity II:
Compound interest received on investing Rs. 10,500
= 10500 X {1 + (y/100)} ² - 10500 = 2205

Or, 10500 X {1 + (y/100)} ² = 10500 + 2205 = 12705
So, {1 + (y/100)} ² = 12705 ÷ 10500 = 1.21
So, {(100 + y)/100} = √1.21 = 1.1
So, 100 + y = 110
So, y = 110 - 100 = 10

Therefore, (y + 5) % = 15%
Compound interest received on investing Rs. 4800 = 4800 X {1 + (15/100)} ² - 4800
= 4800 X 1.15² - 4800
= 6348 - 4800 = Rs. 1,548
So, Quantity II = Rs. 1,548

Therefore, quantity I < quantity II
Detailed solution:
x³- 9x²+ 23x - 15 = 0
Or, x X (x²- 9x + 23) = 15

Or, x X (x²- 9x + 23) = 15 X 1
So, let x = 1
So, 1 X (1²- 9 X 1 + 23) = 15
Or, 1 - 9 + 23 = 15
228 | Page
Or, 15 = 15
Since, LHS = RHS, x = 1
So, we can divide the given equation by (x - 1).
On dividing the given equation by (x - 1), we have;
(x³- 9x²+ 23x - 15) = (x - 1) (x²- 8x + 15)
Or, x²- 8x + 15 = 0
Or, x²- 5x - 3x + 15 = 0
Or, x(x - 5) - 3(x - 5) = 0
Or, (x - 5) (x - 3) = 0
So, x = 5 or x = 3
Since, p > q > r So, p = 5, q = 3 and r = 1

Quantity I:
Required value = 8 X 5 = 40
So, Quantity I = 40
Quantity II:
Required value = 3 + 40 = 43
So, Quantity II = 43
Quantity III:
Required value = 1 X 20 = 20
So, Quantity III = 20
So, Quantity I < Quantity II > Quantity III

Detailed solution:
Let, amount deposited by Rajiv in scheme A and Arjun in scheme B be Rs. x and Rs. y, respectively.
Interest earned by Arjun from scheme A = 8400 × {(1.2)² – 1} = Rs. 3696
Interest earned by Rajiv from scheme A = x × {(1.)² – 1} = Rs. 0.21x

Interest earned by Arjun from scheme B = y × 0.15 × 2 = Rs. 0.3y
Interest earned by Rajiv from scheme B = 3700 × 0.24 × 2 = Rs. 1776
So, sum of interest earned by both of them = 3696 + 0.21x + 0.3y + 1776 = Rs. ‘5472 + 0.21x + 0.3y’
From option I:
229 | Page
Sum of interest = ‘5472 + 0.21x + 0.3y’ = 5472 + 0.21 × 7200 + 0.3 × 4120 = 5472 + 1512 + 1236 =
Rs. 8220
So, option I can be the answer.

From option II:
Rs. 8580
So, option II cannot be the answer.
From option III:
Rs. 8772
So, option III can be the answer.

Detailed solution:
Let the speed of the rescue boat = '10x' km/h
Then, speed of the stream = 10x X 0.6 = '6x' km/h
So, downstream speed of the boat = 10x + 6x = '16x' km/h

So, time taken by the boat to reach the point where the man fell = (64/16x) = (4/x) hours
So, distance travelled by the man who fell in (4/x) hours = (4/x) X 6x = 24 km
Now, distance between the boat and the man = 24 km
Relative speed of the boat w.r.t the man = 16x + (5 - 6x) = (10x + 5) km/h
According to the question,

{24/(10x + 5)} = (48/60) = 0.8
Or, 24 = 8x + 4
So, x = (20/8) = 2.5
So, downstream speed of the boat = 16 X 2.5 = 40 km/h
So, total distance covered by the boat = 64 + 0.8 X 40 = 64 + 32 = 96 km

Detailed solution:
For paper A:
Area = Area of square - 4*Area of quadrant.
Radius = 14/2 = 7mm

230 | Page
Required area = (130*130) - area of circle of radius 7mm
Required area = 16900 - 22/7 *7*7
Area = 16746 m²
For paper B:
Length of paper= 150mm
Breadth of paper = 150/1.2 = 125mm

Radius of semi circle = 125/2 = 62.5mm
Remaining area = 150*125 - 62.5*62.5*22/7
= 18750 - 12276.8
= 6473.2
Required percentage = (16746-6473.2)*100/16746

= 61.3% less
Detailed solution:
All divisors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 12 itself.
Now, if N is divisible by 12, then it is automatically divisible by all other divisors. So, it cannot be
divisible by at most two divisors.
So, N is not divisible by 12.
Similarly, N cannot be divisible by 6 or 4.
In other perspective, N can ONLY be divisible by the prime factors of 12.
So, N can be divisible by 2 or 3 but not by both.
N can be 1 also.
So, possible values of N can be 1, 2a, and 3b where a and b are natural numbers.
So, the HCF of 1, 2a, and 3b is 1.
Hence, option 2 is correct.
231 | Page

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Dear Students,

A. United States and United Kingdom

A. Sheo Kumar, 1.5 million euros

A. WHO, 2024 to 2027

A. 4.0%, three consecutive quarters

A. 5.7 per cent, 6.1 per cent

Q14. India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations?

A. E-Payments for Elder

A. Kisan Vikas Patra

A. Super 1000 title

A. Kerala, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh

A. Clearing Corporation of India

1. Basic Human Needs

Q66. Household financial savings refer to currency, bank deposits, debt

A. Digital Consent Acquisition

RBI Grade B 2023 - Recollected Questions

Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – June 2023

Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – July 2023

Hence C is the correct answer.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – June 2023

Hence E is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – May 2023

Hence A is the correct answer.

Hence C is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: Foreign Trade Policy 2023 Document

Hence E is the correct answer.

Hence D is the correct answer.

Hence C is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: Summary of RBI Annual Report 2022 – 2023

Hence A is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – December 2022

Hence B is the correct answer.

Following are the members of OECD:

Hence D is the correct answer.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: RBI NewsTap June 2023

Hence C is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: Covered in SchemesTap - June 2023 - Second Section

Hence B is the correct answer.

Hence B is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: Summary of RBI Annual Report 2022 – 2023

Hence A is the correct answer.

Hence E is the correct answer.

Hence C is the correct answer.

Hence E is the correct answer.

Tiger reserves increased from 9 in 1973 to 53 in present day.

Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – April 2023

Covered in EduTap Course: Covered in SchemesTap - June 2023 - First Section

Hence D is the correct answer.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Clearing Corporation of India, National Payments Corporation of India, Scheduled Commercial

Hence E is the correct answer.

Hence C is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – June 2023

Hence B is the correct answer.

Hence A is the correct answer.

Covered in EduTap Course: CurrentTap Magazine – June 2023

Q.87) 3rd eldest person is months older than _.