PW – AITS_NT-13

PHYSICS

1. Which one of the following statements is false: 6. The distance travelled by a particle in time t is
(A) Mass, speed and energy are scalars given by s = (2.5t2) m. Find the average speed of
(B) Momentum, force and torque are vectors the particle during time 0 to 5.0 s.

(C) Distance is a scalar while displacement is a (A) 25 m/s (B) 0 m/s

Vector (C) 6.5 m/s (D) 12.5 m/s

(D) A vector has only magnitude where as a scalar

has both magnitude and direction 7. A car start from rest and moving with constant
acceleration 5 m/sec2. The distance travelled in the
first 5 sec is x1 next 5 sec is x2 and last 5 sec is x3.
2. Figure shown the vectors a , b and c where R is
Then x1: x2: x3 is
the mid point of PQ. Then which of the following
(A) 1: 1: 1 (B) 5: 3: 1
is correct?
P (C) 1: 3: 5 (D) None of these

a R
c
8. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum
Q
horizontal distance of 100 m. How high above the
O
b ground can the cricketer throw the ball, with the
same speed?
(A) a + b = 2c (B) a + b = c
(A) 100 m (B) 50 m
(C) a – b = 2c (D) a – b = c
(C) 150 m (D) None of these

3. Vector sum of two forces of 10N and 6N cannot

be: 9. A stone is to be thrown so as to cover a horizontal
distance of 3 m. If the velocity of the projectile is 7
(A) 4 N (B) 8 N
m/s find the angle at which it must be thrown
(C) 12 N (D) 2 N
(A) 37° (B) 53°
4. Area of a parallelogram, whose diagonals are (C) 30° (D) 18.5°
3iˆ + ˆj – 2kˆ and ˆi – 3jˆ + 4kˆ will be:
10. A ball is thrown from the ground to clear a wall
(A) 99 (B) 75 3 m high at a distance of 6 m and falls 18 m away
(C) 105 (D) 100 from the wall, the angle of projection of ball is:-
3
(A) tan –1  
5. A particle goes from point A to point B, moving in 2
a semicircle of radius 1m in 1 second. Find the
2
magnitude of its average velocity. (B) tan –1  
3
1
1m (C) tan –1  
2
A O B
3
(A) 1 m/sec (B) 2 m/sec (D) tan –1  
4
(C) -1 m/sec (D) 0 m/sec
11. For shown projection from a tower, find the time 16. A uniform thick rope of length 5m is kept on
of flight. frictionless surface and a force of 5N is applied to
40 2 one of its end. Find tension in the rope at 1m from
45º
this end-
(A) 1N (B) 3N
(C) 4N (D) 5N
100m
17. A block is dragged on smooth plane with the help
of a rope which moves with velocity v. The
horizontal velocity of the block is:
(A) 1 sec (B) 5 sec
(C) 10 sec (D) 15 sec

12. A stone is dropped from a tower of height 80 m. At

the same instant another stone is thrown from the
foot of the tower with a speed of 40 m/s. When &
where the stones will cross each other. v
(A) v (B)
(A) 1 sec, 60 m (B) 1 sec, 30 m sin
(C) 2 sec, 30 m (D) 2 sec, 60 m v
(C) v sin  (D)
cos
13. You are on a frictionless horizontal plane. How
18. Length of a chain is L and coefficient of static
can you get off if no horizontal force is exerted by
friction is µ. Calculate the maximum length of the
pushing against the surface:
chain which can hang from the table without
(A) By jumping sliding.
(B) By spitting or sneezing L L
(A) (B)
(C) By rolling your body on the surface 1+  1− 
(D) By running on the plane
L L
(C) (D)
1−  1+ 
14. A force of 6N acts on a body at rest of mass 1 kg.
During this time, the body attains a velocity of 30 19. The static frictional force is -
m/s. The time for which the force acts on the body (A) Self adjustable
is- (B) Not self adjustable
(A) 10 seconds (B) 8 seconds (C) scalar quantity
(C) 7 seconds (D) 5 seconds (D) Equal to the limiting force

15. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible 20. A car is moving along a straight horizontal road
weight tightly at its ends so that it is horizontal. A with a speed v0. If the coefficient of friction
15 kg weight is attached to the rope at the mid between the tyres and the road is µ then the
point which now no longer remains horizontal. The shortest distance in which the car can be stopped
minimum tension required to completely straighten is-
the rope is: v 02 v0
(A) (B)
(A) 15 kg (B) 7.5 kg 2g g
(C) 5 kg (D) infinitely large v 
2
v0
(C)  0  (D)
 g  
21. The blocks A and B are arranged as shown in the 26. A 0.5 kg ball moves in a circle of radius 0.4 m at a
figure. The pulley is frictionless. The mass of A is speed of 4 ms–1. The centripetal force on the ball
10 kg. The coefficient of friction between block A is:-
and horizontal surface is 0.20. The minimum mass (A) 10 N (B) 20 N
of B to start the motion will be- (C) 40 N (D) 80 N
P
A

27. A 500kg car takes a round turn of radius 50m with

B a velocity of 36 km/hr. The centripetal force is :-

(A) 2 kg (B) 0.2 kg (A) 250 N (B) 1000 N

(C) 5 kg (D) 10 kg (C) 750 N (D) 1200 N

22. A insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very 28. Find work done by friction for displacement ‘S’?
slowly (see the figure). The coefficient of friction F
1
between the surface and the insect is . If the line m S
3
(A) K(mg + Fsin).S (B) –K(mg + Fsin).S
joining the centre of the hemispherical surface to
(C) K(mg – Fsin).S (D) –K(mg – Fsin).S
the insect makes an angle  with the vertical, the
maximum possible value of  is given: 1
29. The graph between E k and is (ER = kinetic
p

energy and p = momentum) –
(A) cot  = 3 (B) tan  = 3
Ek Ek
(C) sec  = 3 (D) cosec  = 3
(A) (B)
23. If the coefficient of friction of a plane inclined at
1/p 1/p
45° is 0.5, then acceleration of a body sliding
freely on it is (g = 9.8 m/s2)-
Ek Ek
(A) 4.9 m/s2 (B) 9.8 m/s2
(C) (D)
9.8 2 9.8 2
(C) m/s (D) m/s
2 2 2 1/p 1/p

24. If the speed and radius both are tripled for a body 30. Two cars approach each other on a straight road
moving on a circular path, then the new centripetal with velocities 10 m/s and 12 m/s respectively.
force will be: When they are 150 meters apart, both drivers apply
(A) Doubled of previous value their brakes and each car decelerates at 2 m/s2 until
(B) Equal to previous value they stops. How far apart will they be when both
(C) Triple of previous value come to a halt?

(D) One third of previous value (A) 25 m (B) 61 m

(C) 89 m (D) None of these
25. The radius of the circular path of a particle is
doubled but its frequency of rotation is kept 31. A 1.0 hp motor pumps out water from a well of depth
constant. If the initial centripetal force be F, then 20 m and fills a water tank of volume 2238 liters at a
the final value of centripetal force will be:- height of 10 m from the ground. The running time of
F the motor to fill the empty water tank is (g = 10ms–2)
(A) F (B) (C) 4F (D) 2F
2 (A) 5 minutes (B) 10 minutes
(C) 15 minutes (D) 20 minutes
32. A uniform metal disc of radius R is taken and out 37. A 1 Kg ball falls from a height of 25 cm and
R rebounds upto a height of 9 cm. The coefficient of
of it a disc of diameter is cut off from the end.
2 restitution is
The centre of mass of the remaining part will be : (A) 0.6 (B) 0.32
R (C) 0.40 (D) 0.56
(A) from the centre
10
R 38. A 5 kg body collides with another stationary body.
(B) from the centre After the collision, the bodies move in the same
15
R
direction with one-third of the velocity of the first
(C) from the centre body. The mass of the second body will be :
5
(A) 5 kg (B) 10 kg
R
(D) from the centre (C) 15 kg (D) 20 kg
20

33. Two objects of masses 200 gram and 500 gram 39. The bob (mass m) of a simple pendulum of length
L is held horizontal and then released. It collides
possess velocities 10iˆ m/s and 3iˆ + 5jˆ m/s
elastically with a block of equal mass lying on a
respectively. The velocity of their centre of mass in frictionless table. The kinetic energy of the block
m/s is :- will be :
5 (A) Zero (B) mgL
(A) 5iˆ – 25jˆ (B) ˆi – 25jˆ
7 (C) 2mgL (D) mgL/2
25 5
(C) 5iˆ + ˆj (D) 25iˆ – ˆj
7 7 40. If torque on a body is zero, then which is
conserved :
34. A bullet of mass m moving with a speed v strikes a
(A) Force
wooden block of mass M and gets embedded into
(B) Linear momentum
the block. The final speed is :
(C) Angular momentum
(D) Angular impulse

41. A force F = 2iˆ − 3kˆ acts on a particle at

(A)
M
v (B)
m
v r = 0.5jˆ − 2kˆ . The torque  acting on the
M+m M+m
particle relative to a point with co-ordinates (2.0
m v
(C) v (D) m, 0, –3.0 m) is:
M+m 2
(A) (−3.0iˆ − 4.5jˆ − k)
ˆ N−m
35. A nucleus of mass number A originally at rest,
(B) (3iˆ + 6jˆ − k)
ˆ N−m
emits alpha particle with speed v. The recoil speed
of the daughter nucleus is :- (C) (−20iˆ + 4.0jˆ + k)
ˆ N−m

(A)
4v
(B)
4v (D) (−1.5iˆ − 4.0jˆ − k)
ˆ N−m
A–4 A+4
v v
(C) (D) 42. Four particles each of mass m are placed at the
A–4 A+4
corners of a square of side length . The radius of
36. A body of mass 4m at rest explodes into three gyration of the system about an axis perpendicular
pieces. Two of the pieces each of mass m move to the square and passing through centre is :
with a speed v each in mutually perpendicular
directions. The total kinetic energy released is : (A) (B)
2 2
1
(A) mv 2 (B) mv2 (C)  (D) 2
2
3 5
(C) mv 2 (D) mv 2
2 2
43. The rotational kinetic energy of two bodies of 45. A ring takes time t1 and t2 for sliding down and
moments of inertia 9 kg-m2 and 1 kg-m2 are same. rolling down an inclined plane of length L
The ratio of their angular momentum is : respectively for reaching the bottom. The ratio of t1
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 3 and t2 is :
(C) 9 : 1 (D) 1 : 9 (A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
44. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius 'r' is
rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity . Four objects each of mass m, are kept
gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular
diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of the
ring will be :
M M
(A) (B)
4m M + 4m
(M + 4m)  (M + 4m) 
(C) (D)
M M + 4m
 CHEMISTRY

46. The de–Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball mass 53. When -particles are sent through a thin metal foil
60g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is most of them go straight through the foil because
Approximately
(A) -particles are more heavier than electrons
(A) 10−16 𝑚(B) 10−25 𝑚
(C) 10−33 𝑚(D) 10−31 𝑚 (B) -particles are positively charged
(C) Most part of atom is empty space
47. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass =
(D) -particles move with high velocity
9.1 × 10–31 kg) moving with a velocity 300 m/s.
Accurate upto 0.001 % will be
(h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js) 54. For a neutral unexcited atom, consider four
(A) 5.76 × 10–2 m (B) 1.92 × 10–2 m electrons identified by the quantum numbers n and 
(C) 3.84 × 10–2 m (D) 19.2 × 10–2 m
(i) n = 4,  = 1 (ii) n = 4,  = 0
+ –18 –1
48. Ionisation energy of He is 19.6 × 10 J atoms . (iii) n = 3,  = 2 (iv) n = 3,  = 1
The energy of first stationary state (n = 1) of Li+2 is
(A) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1 They can be placed in order of increasing energy
(B) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1 as
(C) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1 (A) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (B) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
(D) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1 (C) (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (i) (D) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii)

49. The ratio of energy of photons having wavelength 55. The potential energy of the electron present in the
2000Å & 4000Å respectively would be ground state of Li2+ ion is represented by :
1 3𝑒 2 3𝑒
(A) (B) 4 (A) + (B) −
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟
4
−3𝑒 2 −3𝑒 2
1 (C) + 4𝜋𝜀 2 (D)
(C) (D) 2 0𝑟 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟
2
56. Of the following reaction, only one is redox
50. The wavelength of radiation emitted, when a
reaction identify this reaction–
hydrogen atom electron fall from infinity to state 1,
(A) 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
would be–
(A) 91 nm (B) 192 nm (B) 2𝑆2 𝑂72− + 2𝐻2 𝑂 → 2𝑆𝑂4−2 + 4𝐻 +

(C) 406 nm
−8
(D) 9.1  10 nm (C) 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4 → 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
(D) 𝐶𝑢2 𝑆 + 2𝐹𝑒𝑂 → 2𝐶𝑢 + 2𝐹𝑒 + 𝑆𝑂2
51. For a d-electron, the orbital angular momentum is
h h 57. Which reaction indicates the oxidising behaviour
(A) 6 (B) 2
2 2 of H2SO4?
h 2h (A) 2𝑃𝐶𝑙5 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 2𝑃𝑂𝐶𝑙3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2
(C) (D)
2 2 (B) 2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
(C) 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙𝑂
52. An electron in an atom Jumps in such a way that
𝑥 (D) 2𝐻𝐼 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝐼2 + 𝑆𝑂2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
it’s kinetic energy changes from 𝑥 to 4. The
change in potential energy will be-
+3𝑥 −3𝑥 58. The number of mole of oxalate ions oxidized by
(A) (B)
2 8 one mole of 𝑀𝑛𝑂4– ion is –
+3𝑥 −3𝑥
(C) 4
(D) 4 (A) 1/5 (B) 2/5
(C) 5/2 (D) 5
59. The order of increasing O.N. of S in S8, 66. 12 lit. of H2 and 11.2 lit. of Cl2 are mixed and
S2𝑂8−2 , S2 𝑂3−2 , S4 𝑂6−2 is given below exploded. The composition by volume of mixture
(A) S8 < S2𝑂8−2 < S2 𝑂3−2 < S4 𝑂6−2 is–
(B) S2𝑂8−2 < S2 𝑂3−2 < S4 𝑂6−2 < S8 (A) 24 lit. of HCl (g)
(C) S2𝑂8−2 < S8 < S4 𝑂6−2 < S2 𝑂3−2 (B) 0.8 lit. Cl2 and 20.8 lit. HCl (g)
(D) S8 < S2𝑂3−2 < S4 𝑂6−2 < S2 𝑂8−2 (C) 0.8 lit. H2 and 22.4 lit. HCl (g)
(D) 22.4 lit. HCl (g)
60. Oxidation No. of Carbon in Carbon suboxide is –
67. 1.0 gm of a metal combines with 8.89 gms of
2 4
(A) + (B) + Bromine. Equivalent weight of metal is nearly :
3 3
(at.wt. of Br = 80)
4
(C) +4 (D) – (A) 8 (B) 9
3 (C) 10 (D) 7

61. In the reaction, 68. An organic compound contain 10% nitrogen by

2S2O32– + I2 ⎯→ S4O62– + 2I–, the eq. wt. of S2O32– mass its minimum molecular mass is
is equal to its : (A) 560 (B) 140
(A) Mol. wt. (C) 280 (D) 5600
(B) Mol. wt./2
(C) 2 x Mol. wt. 69. Equal masses of O2, H2 & CH4 are taken in a
(D) Mol. wt./6 container. The respective mole ratio of these
gasses in container is
62. Which of the following example does not represent (A) 1 : 16 : 2
disproportionation - (B) 10 : 1 : 2
(A) MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O (C) 1 : 2 : 16
(B) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2 (D) 16 : 2 : 1
(C) 4KClO3 → 3KClO4 + KCl
(D) 3Cl2 + 6NaOH → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O 70. The moles of O2 required for reacting with 6.8 gm
of ammonia
63. Choose the set of coefficients that correctly 4NH3 + 5O2 ⎯→ 4NO + 6H2O is
balances the following equation : (A) 5 (B) 2.5
xCr2O72– + yH+ + z e– → a Cr+3 + bH2O (C) 1 (D) 0.5
x y z a b
71. Given that the abundances of isotopes Fe54, Fe56
(A) 2 14 6 2 7
and Fe57 are 5%, 90% and 5% respectively, the
(B) 1 14 6 2 7
average atomic mass of Fe is
(C) 2 7 6 2 7
(A) 55.85 (B) 55.95
(D) 2 7 6 1 7
(C) 55.75 (D) 56.05

64. The empirical formula of a compound of molecular

72. The correct decreasing order of atomic size among
mass 120 is CH2O. The molecular formula of the
compound is : the following species is :
(A) C2H4O2 (B) C4H8O4 Ar, K+, Cl-, S2-, Ca2+
(C) C3H6O3 (D) all of these (A) Ca2+ > K+ > Ar > Cl- > S2-
(B) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl- > Ar > S2-
65. Which of the following contains the least number
of molecules ? (C) S2- > Cl- > Ar > K+ > Ca2+
(A) 4.4 gm CO2 (B) 3.4 gm NH3 (D) S2- > Ar > Cl- > Ca2+ > K+
(C) 1.6 gm CH4 (D) 3.2 gm SO2
73. The incorrect statement among the following is : 79. Correct order of atomic size is -
(A) the IE1 of Al is less than IE1 of Mg (A) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(B) the IE2 of Mg is less than IE2 of Na (B) C < Si < Sn < Ge < Pb
(C) the IE1 of Na is less than IE1 of Mg (C) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(D) the IE3 of Mg is less than IE3 of Al (D) C < Pb < Ge < Sn < Si

74. Electronic configuration of valence shell of four

80. Incorrect statement is:-
elements A, B, C and D are ?
(A) Atomic size  Zeff
(A) ns2, np2 (B) ns2, np3
2 4 (B) Atomic size  Negative charge
(C) ns , np (D) ns2, np5
1
Arrange them in increasing order of IE1: (C) Atomic size 
(A) D < C < B < A Bond order
(B) A < C < B < D (D) Atomic size  screening effect
(C) B < A < D < C
(D) A < B < C < D
81. The shapes of 𝑃𝐶𝑙4+ , 𝑃𝐶𝑙4− and AsCl5 are
respectively:
75. Which one of the following arrangement
(A) Square planar, tetrahedral and see-saw
represents incorrect order?
(B) Tetrahedral, see-saw and trigonal bipyramidal
(A) O < S < F < Cl : electron gain enthalpy
(C) Tetrahedral, square planar and pentagonal
(B) Al < Mg < P < S : order of I.E1
bipyramidal
(C) O2- < F– < Na+ < Mg2+ : order of ZEffective
(D) Trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and square
(D) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2- : order of size
pyramidal

76. Which of the following does not represent the

82. When the molecules N2, N2O and N2O4 are
correct order of the properties indicated?
arranged in order of decreasing N–N bond length,
(A) F > Cl > Br > I (EN)
which order is correct?
(B) Sc3+ > Ti2+ > Cr1+ > Mn (size)
(A) N2O4, N2O, N2 (B) N2, N2O, N2O4
(C) S > Se > Te > O (EA)
(C) N2O, N2, N2O4 (D) N2, N2O4,N2O
(D) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Cu2+ (unpaired electron)
83. Which of the following order is correct?
77. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO3 the correct + + +
(A) 𝐿𝑖(𝑎𝑞) > 𝑁𝑎(𝑎𝑞) > 𝐾(𝑎𝑞) ; Ionic mobility
oerder of acidic strength is : + + +
(B) 𝐿𝑖(𝑎𝑞) < 𝑁𝑎(𝑎𝑞) < 𝐾(𝑎𝑞) ; Hydrated size
(A) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO3 < P2O3
− − −
(B) SiO2 < SO3 < Al2O3 < P2O3 (C) 𝐹(𝑎𝑞) > 𝐶𝑙(𝑎𝑞) > 𝐵𝑟(𝑎𝑞) ; Hydrated size
− − −
(C) SO3 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3 (D) 𝐹(𝑎𝑞) > 𝐶𝑙(𝑎𝑞) > 𝐵𝑟(𝑎𝑞) ; Ionic mobility
(D) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO3
84. Which of the following order is correct against the
78. Which of these compound is amphoteric? mentioned property?
(P) Al(OH)3 (Q) Ba(OH)2 (R) Zn(OH)2 (A) 𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝑁𝐻3 > 𝑁𝐹3 (dipole moment)
(A) P only (B) 𝑂22− > 𝑂2 > 𝑂2+ (bond order)
(B) Q only (C) 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 < 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐵𝐹3 (bond angle)
(C) P and R only (D) 𝐴𝑙𝐹3 > 𝑀𝑔𝐹2 > 𝑁𝑎𝐹 (Ionic character)
(D) Q and R only
85. During change of O2 to 𝑂2− ion, the electron adds 88. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the
on which one of the following orbitals? correct option from the given codes.
(A) * orbital Column-I Column-II
(B)  orbital Molecule (Shape of molecule)
(C) * orbital (A) NH3 (p) Bent
(D)  orbital (B) SO2 (q) Trigonal pyramidal
(C) SF4 (r) T-shape
86. Which among the given pairs do not have the same (D) ClF3 (s) See-Saw
bond order? (A) A – (q); B – (p); C – (r); D – (s)
(A) 𝐹2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑂22− (B) A – (q); B – (p); C – (s); D – (r)
(B) 𝑁2+ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑂2+ (C) A – (p); B – (s); C – (r); D – (q)
(C) C2 and O2 (D) A – (p); B – (r); C – (q); D – (s)
(D) F2 and Be2
89. Which is the correct decreasing order of covalent
87. The strength of bonds by 2s – 2s, 2p – 2p and 2p – nature?
2s overlapping has the order:- (A) SiCl4 > AlCl3 > ZnCl2 > CaCl2 > MgCl2
(A) s – s > p – p > s – p (B) SiCl4 > AlCl3 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > ZnCl2
(B) s – s > p – s > p – p (C) ZnCl2 > SiCl4 > AlCl3 > MgCl2 > CaCl2
(C) p – p > s – p > s – s (D) SiCl4 > AlCl3 > ZnCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2
(D) p – p > s – s > p – s
90. The geometry with respect to the central atom of
the following molecules are-
N(SiH3)3 Me3N (SiH3)3P
(A) Planar, Pyramidal, Planar
(B) Planar, Pyramidal, Pyramidal
(C) Pyramidal, Pyramidal, Pyramidal
(D) Pyramidal, Planar, Pyramidal
 BIOLOGY

91. Root pressure provides : 98. Identify the following process and choose the
(A) Pulling action for rise of water correct option
(B) Help of maintain continuous chains of water
molecules in the xylem
(C) Push for rise of water in small plants
(D) Both (B) and (C)

92. Carefully read the following :

Cell A w = –12 (A) Simple diffusion
(B) Facilitated diffusion
Cell B = s = – 9, p = 9 (C) Osmosis
Cell C = OP = 15, TP = 13 (D) Plasmolysis
If three cells are interconnected then what will be
the direction of water movement ? 99. When the external solution is more ….A…., it is
A B called ……B…… solution. Here ‘A’ and ‘B’ are
C C (A) A – dilute; B – hypertonic
(B) A – concentrated; B – hypotonic
(A) B (B) A
(C) A – dilute; B – isotonic
B (D) A – concentrated; B – hypertonic
A
(C) C (D) A B C 100. A portion of transverse section of root is shown in
the diagram. Identify A-H in the given diagram
and choose the correct option.
93. Removal of sugars from phloem to sink cells is
(A) Active process and called loading
(B) Passive process and called unloading
(C) Active process and called unloading
(D) Passive process and called loading

94. Highest water potential is seen in

(A) 1m salt solution (A) A – Apoplastic path; B – Symplastic path; C –
(B) 1m glucose solution Endodermis; D – Phloem; E – Cortex; F –
(C) Pure water Casparian strip; G – Pericycle; H – Xylem
(D) Impure water. (B) A – Symplastic path; B – Apoplastic path; C –
Xylem; D – Phloem; E – Endodermis; F –
Cortex; G – Casparian strip; H – Pericycle
95. Water moves from :
(C) A – Symplastic path; B – Apoplastic path; C –
(A) High DPD to low DPD
Endodermis; D – Xylem; E – Cortex; F –
(B) Low DP to High DP
Casparian strip; G – Pericycle; H – Phloem
(C) Less negative  to more negative  (D) A – Apoplastic path; B – Symplastic path; C –
(D) High OP to low OP Endodermis; D – Cortex; E – Casparian strip;
F – Xylem; G – Phloem; H – Stele
96. For a fully turgid cell -
(A) w = s (B) w = 0 101. Kranz anatomy is the feature of :
(C) w = s + p (D) w = p (A) C4 plants only
(B) C3 and CAM plants
97. Stomatal movement is not affected by (C) C4 and CAM plants
(A) Temperature (B) Light (D) CAM plants only
(C) CO2 conc. (D) O2 conc.
102. In the diagrammatic representation of the Hatch 105. Match the following :-
and Slack pathway identify the correct labeling :

(A) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

(B) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(C) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(D) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

106. Primary electron acceptor for P700 is:

(A) Plastocyanin
(B) Plastoquinone
(C) Pheophytin
(D) FRS

(A) A = CO2, B=Phosphoenol Pyruvate, C = C3 107. A first action spectrum of photosynthesis was
acid, D = C4 acid described on the basis of experiment performed by
T. W. Engelmann on _________ algae.
(B) A = Phosphoenol pyruvate, B = C4 acid, C =
(A) Green
CO2, D-C3 acid (B) Red
(C) A = Phosphoenol pyruvate, B = C3 acid, C-C3 (C) Brown
(D) All of these
acid, D = CO2,
(D) A = CO2, B = C4 acid, C- Phosphoenol 108. Where does light reaction occur in chloroplast?
pyruvate, D = C3 acid (A) Membrane system (grana)
(B) Thylakoids
(C) Both (A) and (B)
103. Moll's half leaf experiment is used to prove that :- (D) Stroma
(A) CO2 is required for photosynthesis
(B) Light is essential for photosynthesis 109. Water splitting complex associated with PS II is
situated?
(C) O2 is released during photosynthesis
(A) Inner side of chloroplast outer membrane
(D) H2O is required for photosynthesis
(B) Inner side of thylakoid membrane
(C) Outer side of thylakoid membrane
104. Which of the following technique is used to (D) Inner side of chloroplast outer membrane
separate leaf pigments ?
110. Photorespiration takes place in
(A) Chemiosmotic technique
(A) Chloroplast, mitochondria
(B) Gel electrophoresis
(B) Mitochondria, peroxisome
(C) Paper chromatography (C) Chloroplasts, peroxisome, mitochondria
(D) Autoradiography (D) Chloroplasts, cytoplasm, mitochondria
111. In the given representation of Krebs cycle. 117. Identify the figure and choose the incorrect option.
Identify A, B, C and D. :

(A) A is an integral membrane protein

(B) B is an peripheral protein complex
(C) Proton activate the catalytic site present in A
(D) For each ATP production 2H+ passes through
complex down the electrochemical proton
gradient

118. Which of the following mineral can remobilized in

(A) A-OAA, B-Acetyl CoA, C- CO2, D--
plants?
ketoglutaric acid
(A) Calcium (B) Boron
(B) A-OAA, B-Acetyl CoA, C- CoA, D--
(C) Iron (D) Magnesium
ketoglutaric acid
(C) A- Acetyl CoA, B-OAA, C- CoA, D-CO 119. Choose the incorrect match:
(D) A- Acetyl CoA, B--ketoglutaric acid, C-
(A) NH3 → NO3− Nitrification
CO2, D- CoA
(B) N2 → NH3 – Biological N2 fixation
112. Which of the following is not a respiratory
(C) NO2− → NO3− – Nitrococcus
substrate?
(A) Organic acid (B) Protein (D) NO3− → NH4+ – Nitrate reduction
(C) Nucleic acid (D) Lipid
120. In nitrogen fixation
113. How many molecules of ATP are produced in each
turn of Krebs cycle through ETS ? (A) NH3 is changed to NO3−
(A) 12 (B) 24 (B) N2 is changed to NH3
(C) 11 (D) 9 (C) N2 is changed to NO3−
114. O2 required for respiration in roots is received from (D) NO2− is changed to NO3−
(A) Leaves
(B) Stem
(C) Leaves and stem 121. How many ATP are used per N2 fixation?
(D) Soil (A) 8 ATP (B) 16 ATP
(C) 4 ATP (D) 32 ATP
115. Respiration is regarded as amphibolic pathway
because 122. What is most suitable for nitrogen transport in
(A) Both polar and non-polar molecules involved
plants?
(B) Both catabolism and anabolism involved
(A) NH3 (B) Amides
(C) Both aerobic and anaerobic process involved
(C) Amino acids (D) Nitrites
(D) All of the above
123. Essential elements are
116. The TCA cycle starts with the (A) necessary for the growth but not for
(A) oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate reproduction
(B) Condensation of acetyl group with OAA and (B) Not specific and replaceable by any other
water element
(C) Entry of pyruvate inside mitochondria (C) Involved in the metabolism of plant body.
(D) Oxidative decarboxylation of acetyl CoA
 (D) required in large quantity. (D) Glucose synthetase
124. Hydroponics has been successfully employed as a
technique for the commercial production of 132. What is the correct sequence of electron acceptors
(A) Cereals in ATP synthesis is
(B) Pulses (A) Cyt a, a3, b, c
(C) Timber plants
(D) Seed-less cucumber, tomato and lettuce. (B) Cyt b, c, a, a3

125. Leghaemoglobin is a (C) Cyt c, b, a, a3

(A) O2 scavenger in BGA
(D) Cyt b, c, a3, a
(B) O2 scavenger in Rhizobium
(C) O2 scavenger in Legumes 133. R.Q. (respiratory quotient) is defined as
(D) O2 scavenger in Frankia
(A) Volume of CO2 evolved = Volume of O2
126. Soil less culture helps in knowing.
(A) Toxicity caused by an element consumed
(B) Deficiency symptoms caused by an elements.
Volume of O2 consumed
(C) Essentiality of an element (B) Volume of CO2 evolved
(D) All of the above.
Volume of CO2 evolved
127. The casparian strips of endodermis is made up of (C)
Volume of O2 consumed
which material? Volume of O2 evolved
(A) suberin (B) cellulose (D) Volume of CO2 consumed
(C) Chitin (D) Lignin.
134. On the lower surface of leaf have more number of
128. In an experiment a plasmolysed cell can be
stomata in a:
deplasmolysed by placing it in
(A) Isotonic solution (A) Dorsiventral leaf (B) Isobilateral leaf
(B) Hypertonic solution
(C) Saturated solution (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(D) Pure water or hypotonic solution
135. Which form of sugar transported through phloem
129. In CAM plants stomata
is:
(A) Are always open
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(B) Open during the day and close at night
(C) Sucrose (D) Ribose
(C) Open during night and close during the day
(D) Never open
136. Fill in the blanks:
130. In plants carbon and most of their oxygen obtained
from I. The __A__ is made of a single thin layer of
(A) Water in the soil flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
(B) Minerals in the soil II. The __B__ is composed of single layer of cells
(C) CO2 in the atmosphere and functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts
(D) All of the above and tubes.
131. Enzyme which are responsible to converts glucose (A) A-Squamous epithelium, B-Cuboidal
to glucose 6–phosphate is epithelium
(A) Phosphorylase
(B) A-Columnar epithelium, B-Squamous
(B) Glucose–6–phosphatase epithelium

(C) Hexokinase (C) A-Simple epithelium, B-Compound epithelium

(D) A- Squamous epithelium, B-Simple epithelium
137. Find out how many statements are correct 141. In the anatomy of cockroach, a ring of __A__
regarding given figure. present at the junction of foregut and midgut are
known as __B__.
(A) A : 2-4 open tubules, B : Hepatic caecae
(B) A : 4-8 blind tubules, B : Intestinal caecae
(C) A : 3-5 blind tubules, B : Gastric caecae
(D) A : 6-8 blind tubules, B : Gastric caecae

142. Select the correct statement regarding morphology

of cockroach?
A. Made of more than one layer
(A) The first pair of wings arises from metathorax
B. Their nuclei are located at the base (B) The abdomen in both males and females
C. help in secretion and absorption consists of 12 segments
D. They cover the dry surface of skin, moist (C) Head lies posteriorly at right angles to the
surface of buccal cavity and pharynx longitudinal body axis
(A) Four (B) Three (D) In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of
(C) Two (D) One anal cerci
143. In cockroaches, the respiratory system consists of
138. Cartilage, which is a specialized connective tissue: a network of trachea that open outside through
(A) Is present in the tip of nose and middle ear __A__ pairs of small holes called spiracles present
joints on __B__ side of the body.
(B) Has solid and pliable intercellular material (A) A-9, B-Dorsal (B) A-9, B-Dorsoventral
(C) Cells of this tissue are enclosed in small (C) A-10, B-Ventral (D) A-10, B-Lateral
cavities 144. Which of the following features can be used to
(D) All the above statements are correct distinguish male cockroach from the female
cockroach?
(A) Presence of anal cerci in female cockroach
139. Which of the following cell junction is not
(B) Presence of anal styles in male cockroach
correctly described?
(C) Absence of anal style in male cockroach
(A) Gap junction: Communicate between cells by
(D) Absence of anal cerci in male cockroach
connecting the cytoplasm
(B) Adhering junction: Perform cementing to keep
neighboring cells together 145. Read the following statements and answer the
question.
(C) Tight junction: Help to allow substances from
A. It is made up of more than one layer (multi-
leaking across a tissue
layered) of cells
(D) Gap junction: help in rapid transfer of ions
B. It has a limited role in secretion and absorption
C. They cover inner lining of ducts of salivary
140. The word anatomy conventionally is used for the: glands and of pancreatic ducts
(A) Study of morphology of internal organs Which of the following characteristics of tissue is
(B) Study of external appearance of the organs being described by the above statements?
(C) Study of internal and external appearance of (A) Squamous epithelium
body parts (B) Columnar epithelium
(D) None of these (C) Ciliated epithelium
(D) Compound epithelium
146. Which of the following statement is correct 152. Select the incorrect statement from below options:
regarding bone. (A) Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme of stomach
A. Intercellular material of bone is pliable and (B) Salivary amylase starts protein digestion in the
resists compression mouth
B. Matrix of bone is rich in calcium salt and free (C) The bile helps in digestion by breaking fat into
from collagen fibres tiny droplets
C. The bone marrow in some bones is the site of (D) Taste buds for bitter taste are located on upper
production of blood cells surface in posterior part of our tongue
D. It is a type of specialized connective tissue
(A) A, B and C (B) C and D 153. Saliva is mainly produced by three pairs of
(C) A and D only (D) All of these salivary glands, which are situated:
(A) Above the tongue
147. What will happen if finger shaped folds of small (B) Just outside the buccal cavity
intestine get absent? (C) Inside the buccal cavity
(A) Absorption surface area increases (D) In the upper jaw
(B) Absorption of nutrients get affected
(C) Digestion of nutrients get affected
154. The undigested and unabsorbed substances called
(D) All of the above
faeces enters into the __A__ through __B__.
148. In human ___________ teeth, are monophyodont (A) A-ileum of large intestine, B-Pyloric sphincter
teeth. (B) A-caecum of small intestine, B-Gastro-
(A) All premolars and last molar oesophageal sphincter
(B) Last premolars and all molars (C) A-caecum of large intestine, B-Ileo-caecal
(C) All premolars and molars valve
(D) All canines, premolars and molars (D) A-caecum of large intestine, B-Sphincter of
Oddi
149. If gall bladder in human is surgically removed, it
will lead to:
155. Common bile duct (CBD) is formed by -
(A) Increase acidity in stomach
(A) the union of a duct from gall bladder and
(B) Jaundice
(C) Decreased digestion of fat pancreatic duct
(D) Decreased digestion of protein (B) the union of right and left hepatic ducts (ducts
from liver)
150. Choose the correct statement regarding 'Trypsin'. (C) the union of a duct from gall bladder and
(A) It digests protein in Jejunum in acidic medium hepatic ducts
(B) It digests protein in stomach in acidic medium (D) the union of a pancreatic duct and duct from
(C) It digests protein in duodenum in acidic medium liver
(D) It digests protein in duodenum in alkaline
156. What will happen if secretion of chief cells of
medium
gastric glands is blocked?
151. If goblet cells of mucosa layer of gut are non- (A) Gastric juice is deficient of pepsinogen
functional this will adversely affect: (B) Gastric juice is deficient of mucus
(A) Absorption of vitamin B12 (C) Deficiency of HCl lead to non-conversion of
(B) Protein digestion in intestine inactive pepsinogen into active pepsin
(C) Secretion of saliva from the salivary gland (D) Enterokinase will not be release from
(D) Smooth movement of food passes down the duodenal mucosa
intestine
157. Which of the following option correctly describe 162. Which of the following statement is incorrect:
the function of enterokinase? (A) Mammalian lungs are solid and spongy
(A) Converts casein into paracasein (B) Air enters into the lungs because chest
(B) Converts pepsinogen into pepsin expands
(C) Converts trypsinogen into trypsin (C) In embryo stage breathing and residual air is
absent
(D) Stimulation of the gastric glands to secrete
(D) Residual volume is expelled only by forceful
gastric juices
expiration
158. Match the columns and find out the correct
163. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused
combination:
mainly by cigarette Smoking.
A. Oxyntic cells i. Mucosa of stomach
(A) Emphysema (B) Asthma
B. Bile salts ii. Curdling of milk (C) Fibrosis (D) Silicosis
C. Gastric glands iii. Fats emulsification
164. In the mechanism of breathing, during inspiration:
D. Renin iv. Hydrochloric acid
(A) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(A) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-i relax
(B) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii (B) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
(C) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i relax
(D) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (C) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
contract
159. When partial pressure of CO2 (PCO2) rises, the
(D) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin at 37°C
contract
will:
(A) Shift towards right 165. Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the respiratory surface
(B) Shift towards left occurs through :
(C) Become irregular (A) Passive transport
(D) Remain unchanged (B) Active transport
(C) Osmosis
160. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs called alveoli. (D) Diffusion/simple diffusion
Which do not collapse even in forceful expiration,
because of : 166. The maximum volume of air a person can breath
(A) Inspiratory Reserve Volume in after a forced expiration is :
(A) TV + ERV (B) TV + IRV
(B) Tidal Volume
(C) TV + ERV + IRV (D) ERV + RV
(C) Expiratory Reserve Volume
167. Dissociation of oxygen from the oxy-haemoglobin
(D) Residual Volume in tissues caused by:
161. Match the following and mark the correct option. (A) Low oxygen concentration and high CO2
Animal Respiratory system concentration
(A) Earthworm (i) Moist cuticle (B) High O2 concentration
(B) Arthropods (ii) Gills (C) Low CO2 concentration
(C) Fishes (iii) Lungs (D) Lesser H+ concentration
(D) Birds/reptiles (iv) Trachea 168. A chemo sensitive area is situated adjacent to
respiratory rhythm centre, which is highly
(A) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
sensitive to_____ and ________ions.
(B) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(A) O2, H+ (B) CO2, OH–
(C) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(C) CO2, H+ (D) CO2, O2
(D) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
169. Which of the following statement is correct for 175. The small oval depression found on inter auricular
RBCs? septum in adult human is termed as:
(A) Most abundant cell of blood (A) Foramen ovale
(B) They are destroyed in the liver (Graveyard) (B) Fossa ovalis
(C) Enucleated RBCs are found in all mammals (C) Foramen of monro
(D) They are biconvex in shape (D) Foramen of magnum
170. Which of the following statement is incorrect
regarding human heart? 176. Bundle of His is a network of :
(A) Mesodermally derived and situated behind (A) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart
the lungs walls
(B) Four chambered and slightly tilted to the left (B) Muscle fibres found only in the inter
(C) Protected by pericardium, enclosing the ventricular septum
pericardial fluid (C) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(D) Clenched fist size (D) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart

171. Which of the following is not related to Joint 177. A vein differs from an artery in having:
diastole? (A) Valves to control flow of blood
(A) Semilunar valves are opened (B) Narrow lumen
(B) All four chambers of Heart are in a relaxed (C) Muscular wall
state (D) Pigmented wall to give dark blood
(C) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open
(D) Ventricles receive blood from atria 178. During ventricular systole:
(A) Semilunar valves are closed
172. Megakaryocytes helps in formation of blood (B) About 30 percent blood is pumped into aorta
platelets. These megakaryocytes are found in:- from ventricles.
(A) Blood (B) Lymph (C) Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are closed
(C) Bone marrow (D) Thymus (D) Ventricular pressure declines

173. Find the correct statement regarding 'Hepatic 179. Serum is :

portal system' (A) Blood - Blood cells
(A) A unique vascular connection exists between (B) Plasma - Fibrinogen
the digestive tract and liver (C) Blood - Plasma
(B) Hepatic portal vein carries blood from (D) Blood - RBC
intestine to the liver
(C) Collects venous blood from Stomach, Small 180. Match the columns and find out the correct
intestine, Colon, Spleen and delivers it to the combination:
liver via portal vein A. Thrombocytes i. Phagocytosis
(D) All of these B. AV node ii. Right atrium
C. Neutrophils iii. Interatrial septum
174. Systemic heart is correctly described as:
D. SA node iv. Cell fragments
(A) The heart that contracts under stimulation
(A) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
from nervous system
(B) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(B) Left atrium and left ventricle in higher
(C) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
vertebrates
(D) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(C) Entire heart in lower vertebrates
(D) The two ventricles together in humans