DGCA General Navigation June 2023

1) To double the range of primary radar power must be increased by factor

a) 4 b)8 c)16

2) An aircraft is parked on a field in hanger with DRMC showing 90degree and

drift rate is 8degree/h the reading in a/c will :
a) 3.5 degree increase b) 3.5 degree decrease c) 4 degree increase

3) Aircraft is said to be “Neutrally stable” if the center of gravity is

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a) forward limit b) Aft limit c) Center of the axis

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4) ILS and GNSS to be written in flight plan in
a) L N 2) I G 3) L G

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5) An aircraft reached flightpath in 35 mins travelled 157 Nm if the TAS is (don’t
remember). If the tail wind of 60kts the distance reached in that time is (this
question was repeated )
a) 192NM B)150 AC
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6) The endurance in flight plan is
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a) fuel on board b) fuel on board – reserve c) fuel required for flight

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AT

7) Coefficient of Fore and Aft of aircraft magnetism (don’t remember the exact
sentence)
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a) P b) Q c) R
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8) Runway slope should be concerned

a) +1.25% b) -1.25% c) +1.25% but should be less than 2%
A
ST

9) The length of the clearway should be

a) ¼ of the runway b) ½ of the runway
SA

10) At night position has to be reported to ATC distance 750NM from ground
station what frequency to be used
a) 17296 KHz b) 123.9MHz c) 5649 KHz

11) How many feet you have to climb to reach FL075 departure aerodrome
elevation = 1500ft QNH = 1023hpa Temp = ISA (1hpa = 30ft)
a) 7800ft b) 6300ft c) 6600ft
12) the shape of holding pattern is
a) Circular b) Race track c) Rectangular

13) An a/c is flying an indicated altitude of 16000ft the OAT = -16C

a) 14200 b) 15200 c) 18600

14) Sune rise and sunset are given in air almanac in

a) UTC b) GMT c) LMT

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15), 16) mass and balance holding was given in unit/hr ( Question was incomplete
)

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17) EM wave consist of
a) electric wave altering magnetic wave b) electric wave perpendicular to

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magnetic wave

18) Standby Artificial horizon

a) Independent power supply b) Contain its own gyro c) only works in
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emergency
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19) Gimble error is caused by

AT

20) If center of gravity is forward limit the a/c will

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a) benefit from reduced drag due to increase in aoa

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b) required more trim elevation which will increase the fuel consuption
c) required less power consumption for a given airspeed
A

21) find maximum trafic load

ST

22)the 5h30mins time in long

SA

a) 85”30” b) 82”30” c) 70”30”

23) if total force of the earth’s field at a point is T and the horizontal and vertical
component H and Z, the value of the H id found by the formula:
a) H = T sin dip b) H = T cos dip c) H = Z tan dip

24) At a constant Mach decent Cas will

a) Increase b) decrease c) remain constant
25) If pitot line become block during climb ASI reading will
a) Increase b) decrease c) Remain constant

26) Tcrs 040 wind speed is 75kts Tas, GS ( don’t remember )

wdirection of wind gives best WCA
a) 145 b) 130

27) What is the minimum control speed with critical engine out (in takeoff

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configuration )

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with critical engine out
A) Vmca B) Vmb C) Vmca and Vmcg

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28) At a given altitude the hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with
a)Static pressure b) Aircraft attitude c) time pass at this altitude

29, 30, 31, 32 direct CX3 questions

33) Still air range question

AC
N
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34) GNSS is
a) Inclined to earth axis b) Inclined to earths equator
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AT

35) Compass swing is done to

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a) Incline true north pole to magnetic north

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b) Incline magnetic north to compass north

36) OBS is set to 300 with to flying indicating , heading is 320 3 dot fly left what
A

does CDI indicate if the flight turned in to reciprocal track

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a) from , 3 dot fly right b) to, 3 dot fly right c) to 3 dot fly left
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37) GPS satellite orbits every

a) 24 hrs b) 12hrs c) 18hrs

38) 39) ADF intercept question

40) 2.5% gradient GS given find ROD

41) 42) find the range of VOR using 1.25 sqrt formula
43) if A/c is overloaded then
a) take off distance increases climb performance increases
b) take off distance decreases climb performance increase
c) take off distance increases climb performace decreases

44) Frequency of ADF is

45) the 13box of flight plan departure time should be

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a) off block time b) T/o time

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46) When does aphelion occure
a) June b) Dec c) Jan

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47) you are homing to VOR and will descent from 7500 QNH to be 1000AMSL by
6NM DME. Your ground speed is 156 kts and ROD will be 800FPM at what range
from the VOR do you commence the decent
a) 30.2NM b) 27.1NM c) 15NM AC
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48) similar to 47Q
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49)In flight Plan speed should be written as

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AT

a) N0480 b) N00048 c) N048

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50) Quadrantal error associated with A/C ADF equipment are caused by
AV

a) Signal bending by a/c metalic surface

b) skywave/ ground wave contamination
c) signal bending cause by electrical component
A
ST

51) Coastal error at its worst for an a/c at low level

a) beacon inland 90 b) Becon inland at an acute angle to coast c) beacon close
SA

to coast

52) Which of the following give least performance

a) increase humidity, decrease altitude, increase temperature
b) increase humidity, increase altitude, increase temperature

53) During a VFR flight at a navigation check point the remaing usable fuel is 60
usgal. The reserve fuel is 12 usgal. According to the flight plan the remaining flight
time is 1h 35mins. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible
for the rest of the trip.
A) 30.3usgal/hr b) 33usgal/hr c) 37.9 us gal/hr

54)radio altimeter are accurate wittin height range of

a) 0-500ft b) 50 to 2700ft c) 0 to 2500ft

55) V1 should be minimum of

a) Vmcg b) Vmbe c) Vef

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56) what is shape of Mercator graticule
a) square b) rectangular

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57) ADF bearing by the day within the published range should be accurate within
maximum error of

AC
a) +/- 5 b) +/- 2 c) +/- 10

58) Defination of deviation

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59) Find TCP, 60) find Dpnr
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60) error of the DGI are

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AT

1) earth rate
2) transport wander
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3) annual movement of pole

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4) mechanical problem
a) 2,3,4
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b)1,2,3
c) 1,2,4
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61) servo altimeter is more accurate due to

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a) multiple pointer b) electro magnetic pick off c) logarithm scale

62) An a/c heading 140M bears 320T from a VOR variation 10E the bearing
selection on the OBS should make the VOR/ILS deviation indicator show
a) 120 b) 130 c) 320

63) At latitude XN the spacing of meridian 1 degree apart represent Xcm (don’t
remember) what is the scale at given latitude
64) similar question as 63Q

65) The TACAS gives RA advisory in

a) quickly and steadily descent or climb
b) quickly and steadily increase GS or DEcrease
c) quickly and steadily turn left or right

66)An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16000ft the OAT is –16C what is

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true altitude?
a) 14200 b) 15200 c) 18600

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67)What is the approximate circumference of the earth ?
a)5400nm b) 11800nm c) 21600nm

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68) An a/c on Hdg 340M with ADF reading 190 degree, what will be the indication

AC
by RMI
a)Pointer reads 170 & tail reads 350
b) pointer reads 350 & tail reads 170
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c) point reads 150 & tail reads 330
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69) A/C on heading 300M. OBS window indicates 300degree VOR CDI shows
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3Dots deflection to the left & To/from indicates TO. A/C is now turned onto HDG
AT

120 degree. OBS setting remains unchanged. What will the CDI indicate in this
position?
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AV

A) CDI will show 3 dots deflection to the right

B) To will change to indicate FROM
C) There will be no change in VOR CDI Indications
A
ST

70) During climb after take off from contaminated R/W, if the total pressure probe
od ASI is block, the indicated airspeed will
a) decrease abruptly to zero b) Increase steadily c) Decrease steadily
SA

71) The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is :
a) pulse repetition interval b) pulse width c) pulse repetition frequency

72) An INS/IRS data base is valid for

a) 7 days b) 28days c) depends upon operational requirement
73) A direct mercator chart projection is :
a) cylindrical, perspective & conformal
b) conical, non-perspective & conformal
c) cylindrical, non-perspective & conformal

74) how many codes are available in mode ‘A’ of SSR?

A)7777 b)4069 c) 4096

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AC
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I AT
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A
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