Q1-in extrinsic tooth discoloration:

- Fluorosis is a common cause F

- Stains can be removed by polishing T
- Food and soft drinks are a common cause T
- Antibacterial agents used in mouthwashes is a common cause T
- Whitening is an accepted treatment T

Q2-Factors leading to shade regression following tooth bleaching include:

- Bleaching agent used
- Bleaching technique used
- The type of discoloration being treated
- The duration of treatment
- Tooth rehydration T

Q3-when restoring a decayed mandibular second primary molar

- Achieve anesthesia with a mandibular block F
- Achieve anesthesia with a mental block F
- Anesthesia is rarely indicated F
- Infiltration produces the best anesthesia T
- Short acting anesthesia should be routinely used T

Q4-endodontics rotary nickel titanium instruments:

- Should be used with a light touch T
- May be indicated in moderately curved canals T
- Are used when lubrication of the canals is not required F
- Should not be used when the access cavity has been contaminated via an F
amalgam filling
- Requires a patent canal prior to use T

Q5-the lower head of the lateral pterygoid muscle:

- Is attached to the lateral surface of the medial pterygoid plate F
- Is innervated by nerve fibers whose cell bodies are located in the T
trigeminal ganglion
- Is active in protruding the mandible T
- Is attached to the neck of the mandible T
- Is derived from the second brachial pharyngeal arch F
Q6- regarding glass ionomer cements:
- Condensable metal reinforced glass. Ionomer cements have a higher T
flexural strength than nonmetal reinforced glass ionomer cements

- The main constitutes of the powder are silica and phosphonium salt F
- The setting reaction of conventional glass ionomer cements is an acid T
base reaction
- They may act as a fluoride reservoir to offer a clinical anti cariogenic T
effect
- Conventional glass Ionomer cements have a higher compressive F
strength than compomers

Q7-Oral mucosal lichen planus:

- Commonly presents as white plaques F
- Biologically shows a band of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the T
upper lamina propria
- Is a cell mediated immune reaction T
- Is found in about 90% of cases of skin lichen planus F
- Usually presents before skin lesions T
Is found in about 50% of cases of skin lichen planus

Q8-with respect to porcelain (ceramic) to metal bond:

- The bond can be greatly enhanced by applying of a silane coupling T
agent to the surface of the alloy
- The surface film of the oxides on the metal surface enhances the bond T
to the ceramic
- Sandblasting of the alloy surface with copper dioxide particles can F
enhance the bond to the ceramic
- The use of strong acids to clean the casting before placement of T
porcelain greatly enhances the bond with ceramic
- Tin plating of the metal surface can greatly improve the ceramic to
metal bond
Q9-Radiographic features usually indicative of a benign tumor Include:
- Corticated margin T
- Ill-defined margin F
- Irregular shape F
- Resorption of related structures T
- Displacement of adjacent structures F

Q10- signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

- Slurred speech T
- Loss of conciseness T
- Headache T
- Hunger T

Q11- Possible effects in enamel and dentine following tooth bleaching include:
- Enamel porosity T
- Demineralization of enamel T
- Increase in dentine microhardness F
- Increase in composite bond strength T
- Reduction in strength of enamel T

Q12- which of the following treatments are appropriate for a 7-year-old child with
chronic .. in the lower right primary second molar that involves the mesial marginal
ridge
extraction
pulpotomy
SSC
Porcelain crown
Composite restoration

Q13-mercury from dental amalgam:

- Is primary absorbed by the lungs during amalgam removal T
- Has been implicated in the pathogenesis of lichenoid reaction T
- Can cause Alzheimer’s disease T
- Is represent primarily in organic mercury
- Is bio transferred to mercury thiosulphate
Q14-post placement sensitivity in composite restorations may be because:
- Inadequate lining beneath the restoration T
- Moisture contamination during placement T
- Over-curing the restoration F
- Under-curing the restoration T
- Incorrect layering during placement T

Q15-a patient gives a history of rheumatic fever, which of the following procedure(s)
require(s) prophylactic antibiotic cover in accordance with the National Institute of
Clinical Health Excellence (NICE)
- Non-surgical periodontal treatment F
- Inferior dental block F
- Placement of three implant fixtures F
- Extraction of an impacted lower third molar tooth T
- In exceptional circumstances when the dentist has been advised by the T
patient’s cardiologist to offer antibiotic cover

Q16-Each of the following film faults on radiographs is listed with a correct cause:
Tree-like branching patterns – caused by static electricity T
Too light an image – caused by too long exposure time F
Too dark an image – caused by too long development time T
Lack of contrast in the image – caused by too long development time T
Black marks on the film – caused by contact with fixer before developer F

Light image due toà underexposure/ underdeveloped and excessive film-source

distance
Dark image due toà overexposure/ overdeveloped and insufficient film-source
distance
Black/Dark spotsà developer contacts film before processing
White/Light spots àfixer contacts film before processing

Q17- In bleeding disorders:

Christmas disease is more common during the winter months F
Von Willebrand’s disease is characterized by a prolonged bleeding time T
The condition may be the result of HIV infection T
Hemophilia A can be transmitted from father to son F
hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)(Osler–Weber–Rendu syndrome) T
can affect both males and females
Q18-Oral side effects of cigarette smoking include:
Increased susceptibility to periodontitis T
Lichen planus F
Diminished bone density T
Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis T
Exacerbation of recurrent aphthae F

Q19-regarding the general properties of dental materials:

During elastic deformations, the strain is proportional to the applied stress T
Materials that fracture without very much plastic deformation can be F
described as being ductile
Surface hardness is defined as the ability of the surface of the material to T
resist scratching or indentation
Strain is defined as the force applied per unit area of material F
Following elastic deformation, a material will return to its original shape when T
the applied force is removed

Stress is defined as the force applied per unit area of material

Strain is the amount of deformation experienced by the body in the direction of force
applied, divided by the initial dimensions of the body.
Materials that fracture without very much plastic deformation can be described as being
brittle
Ductile Fracture in the converse and involves large plastic deformation before
separation

Q20- Hypoglycemia:
Is treated with insulin F
Leads to a fall in heart rate in the early stages F
Is often associated with unappropriated mental state F
may occur as a complication of insulin dependent DM T
Is often rapid in onset than hyperglycemia T
Q21- burning mouth syndrome:
is a rare acute pain disorder F
Affects women more than 50 more than men T
Presents with absence of any clinical, pathological or laboratory findings T
Symptoms may include loss of taste T
Most treatment interventions are effective F

Q22-The following cystic lesions may develop in dentigerous relationship with teeth:
Gingival cyst of adults F
Radicular cyst F
Unicystic ameloblastoma F
Paradental cyst T
Lateral periodontal cyst F

Q23-A 65-year-old lifelong cigarette smoker who exhibits pitting ankle oedema and
central cyanosis becomes short of breath during dental treatment and develops a
wheeze. Appropriate supportive treatment includes:
Inject 200mg hydrocortisone IV T
Deliver 20% oxygen via face mask at 10L/min F
Provide 2 puffs of salbutamol inhaler via “spacer” device T
Give adrenaline 0.5mg of 1:1000 IV F
incline the patient and elevate the legs F

Q24- posterior crossbite in the permanent dentition can be treated by:

W appliance T
Posterior bite block F
Quad helix appliance T
Stress elastics T
Hyrax appliance T
W appliance, Quad helix and Hyrax appliance are all maxillary appliances used for
transverse expansion. Stress elastics can be used to treat a single tooth crossbite.

Q25- Atheroma is associated with:

DM T
Sedentary lifestyle T
Persistent high blood estrogen T
Smoking T
hypertension T
Q26- regarding periodontal diagnosis:
A tooth with -3mm horizontal mobility but no vertical mobility can be F
classified as GRADE 1 mobile
A sextant containing a molar tooth with a GRADE 2 furcation should receive T
a code of asterisk ‘*’ when a BPE is completed
Vertical bitewings are the most appropriate radiographs for a patient T
receiving BPE scores of 3 in all posterior sextants
Pockets exhibiting bleeding are highly likely to experience further T
deepening
BOP/Bleeding indices tend to be lower in smokers than non-smokers T

Q27-Asthmatic attacks can be precipitated by:

Exercise T
antihistamines F
Chest infection T
heat F
House dust mite T
Q28- when preparing a tooth for class 2 (occluso-proximal) posterior composite
restoration:
Beveling is required for the occlusal surface F
Beveling is required for the interproximal surface T
Internal line angels should be rounded T
The gingival floor/Cavo surface margin should be extended apically to below T
the contact point
The vertical margins of the proximal box should be extended buccally and F
lingually to beyond the contact points
Q29-Pre-dentine:
Contains collagen T
Appears dark on radiograph (radiolucent) T
Becomes relatively narrow when dentine is being formed rapidly T
Contains glycomonoglycans T

Pre-dentine is not mineralized, Lies close to pulp chamber,

Q30- regarding osseo-integrated implants:
Implants can easily be placed by the time a female is 18 years old T
The ideal position of an implant should be at the level of the CEJ of the F
adjacent teeth
Heating bone to over 42 degrees Celsius for more than a minute will result in F
bone necrosis
In general, smooth surfaced implants integrate better than rough surface F
implants of the same material
Success rates are higher in the anterior maxilla than in the anterior mandible F

Q31-The buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve:

Is motor to the buccinator muscle F
Is a branch of the anterior trunk of the mandibular division of the trigeminal n. T
Passes behind the posterior border of the ascending ramus of the mandible F
Passes through the substance of the parotid gland F
Supplies sensation to gingival mucosa on the buccal aspect of the lower T
molars

Q32-bitewing radiographs should be taken every 12-24 months in respect to:

Primary dentition with high caries risk F
Primary dentition with low caries risk T
Permanent dentition with high caries risk F
Permanent dentition with low caries risk T
Mixed dentition with high caries risk F

Q33-Plain film radiographic images

Are two dimensional represents of three-dimensional objects T
are not affected by altering the exposure factors F
are not affected by the relative positions of the object x-ray beam & film F
can be affected by variables from chemical processing T
can be affected by the size of the patient F
Q34-Intrinsic tooth discoloration:
excessive intake of fluoride during tooth development is a common cause T
post eruption intrinsic discoloration may be caused by trauma to the tooth T
Some extrinsic tooth discoloration can become internalized through exposed F
dentine
caused by tetracycline stains that can be comparatively reverse by bleaching T
May not be caused by internal resorption T

Q35- regarding space maintenance for bilateral missing maxillary second primary molar:
a lingual arch can be placed F
a Nance space maintainer is the treatment of choice T
a single band and loop is indicated F
Inter-palatal arch will maintain space T
Removable partial denture could be made T

Q36- Features of heart failure include:

high blood pressure T
low exercise tolerance T
peripheral cyanosis T
progressive breathlessness T
systemic venous congression T

Q37- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis:

Is a common feature of ulcerative colitis F
commonly reflects a defect of cell mediated immunity T
usually warrants hematological investigations T
typically affect the dorsum of the tongue F
may arise an HIV disease T

Q38- Paracetamol
has both antipyretic and analgesic properties T
Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis F
has side effects which commonly includes hallucinations F
overdose should not be treated by gastric levage F
Is hepatotoxic if administered in high doses T
Q39- Regarding root carries:
it is more prevalent in patients with serous Xerostomia T
it is more prevalent in male patients T
may be effectively treated using a glass ionomer cement T
can be effectively managed using topical fluoride application T
it is closely related to the quantity of streptococcus mutants present locally F

Q40- Transient loss of consciousness syncope is associated with:

stroke Adams syndrome T
cardiac arrest T
acute psychological shock T
severe anemia T
prolonged standing T

Q41- Features of anaphylactic shock include:

a reaction that takes about 24 hours to develop fully F
release of histamine T
feeling of euphoria F
dysphonia T
hypotension T

Q42- On average the maxillary canines erupt at:

- 10 to 11 years
- 9 to 10 years
- 11 to 12 years
- 12 to 13 years
- 13 to 14 years
Q43- Which of the following impression
materials is designed as a non-elastic
impression material:

- Polyesther
- Zinc Oxide Euginol
- polysulphide
- alginate
- Addition cured silicon
Q44- Regarding alveolar osteitis (dry socket):
- It occurs most frequently following upper third molar surgery F
- It is usually present with wound pain 3 to 7 days post extraction T
- treatment includes socket irrigation only F
- antibiotic should always be prescribed F
- occurrence is greater than 15% for routine extractions F

Q45- Recording molar incisor hypo mineralization

birth trauma may be an etiological factor T
Material pyrexia may be an etiological factor F
there is normally a family history F
Infected teeth are more prone to carries than fluoridated enamel T
there's always symmetrical involvement of the first permanent molars F

Q46- Buccinator muscle receives its motor nerve supply from:

Maxillary division of the trigeminal n. F
Zygomatic branch of the facial n. F
Posterior superior branch of the facial n. F
The long buccal branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal n. F
The buccal branches of the facial n. T

Q47- Which one of the following removable partial denture major connectors is most
suitable for a patient with remaining spaced, mandibular anterior teeth and a lingual
sulcus with depth greater than 7 mm
- Continuous connector
- Dental plate
- Lingual plate
- Lingual bar
- Sublingual bar

Q48- Regarding aphthous ulcers:

Are not thought to be infectious T
there are no precipitating factors F
they never reoccur F
they can be permanently cured F
they are always long-term consequences F
Q49- Recording infra-occluded primary molars
Maxillary second primary molar is the most commonly affected tooth F
Mandibular second primary molar is the most commonly affected tooth F
Maxillary first primary molar is the most commonly affected tooth F
Mandibular first primary molar is the most commonly affected tooth T
Early recognition is not important F
Q50-Regarding Von-Willebrand disease:
It only affects males F
It is always an acquired condition F
It is the rarest of the bleeding disorders F
Females are carriers of the condition F
Both sexes are equally affected T
Von-Willebrand is one of the most common hereditary bleeding disorders. It is passed
down (inherited) and rarely acquired as a result of other medical conditions. It affects
both females and males 1:1 but most commonly diagnosed are females due to heavy
menstrual bleeding and heavy child birth bleeding. It is autosomal dominant and the
offspring cannot be a carrier.
Q51- Regarding tetracycline-stained teeth:
always present with enamel pitting F
is an extrinsic process F
normal color presentation is blue gray to orange between T
Usual color presentation is characteristically pink F
Vertical striations are always present F
Q52- The typical radiological appearance of a dentigerous cyst includes:
usually forms multiple satellite lesions F
well corticated T
presents with follicular enlargement of less than 2 mm F
Multiocular F
Arising from the apical area of an unerupted tooth F
Q53- Regarding pulp treatment of primary teeth:
Formocresol is used for single visit treatment of non-vital pulps F
Formocresol is used for multiple visit treatment of non-vital pulps F
Pulpectomy means the partial removal of the coronal and radicular pulp F
15% Ferric sulfate solution can be used for vital pulpotomies T
15% Ferric sulfate solution is useful for treatment of non-vital coronal F
pulps
Q54- A patient has Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) score 3 in their upper left and
lower left posterior sextants. But scores 2 everywhere else. The most appropriate
radiograph to be taken is:
A-Vertical bitewing
B-Horizontal bitewing
C-Occipito-mental view
D-Periapical
E-Orthopantograph (OPG)

Q55-Regarding spread of infection via the lymphatic system:

A-the submandibular nodes are the primary nodes for all the teeth and mucosal tissues
B-the submental nodes drain the maxillary incisors and associated tissues
C-the route of dental infection passing through the lymph nodes is unpredictable no
matter which teeth are involved
D-evaluation of the involved lymph nodes never determines the degree of regional
involvement of the infection process
E-the submental nodes empty into the submandibular nodes or directly into the deep
cervical nodes
Q56-The optimal height of ferrule above preparation margin is:
A-1.0mm
B-2.0mm
C-0.25mm
D-1.5mm
E-0.5mm

Q57-Regarding radicular cysts:

A-are the least common cysts lesions of the jaw
B- do not have a radiopaque margin
C-are more often reported in the mandible
D-the epithelial lining is derived from epithelial rest of Malassez in the PDL
E-are developmental in origin

Q58-which of the following muscles is associated with mouth opening (depressing the
mandible)
A-Temporalis
B-medial pterygoid
C-Digastric
D-Masseter
E-Buccinator
Q59-Regarding rectangular collimation in intra-oral radiography
A-This increases the radiation value
B-The aperture is the same size and shape in a size 1 periapical film
C-this offers. Little advantage over round collimation
D-use of. this does not allow the ALARP principle
E-Radiation dose to the patient is reduced when used

Q60-Evidence based research in periodontal disease indicates which of the following

statements is correct:
A-Surgical and no surgical management is the only totally effective method of
preventing the recurrence of periodontitis
B- Periodontitis is a curable disease process
C-Surgical therapy is more effective than non-surgical therapy in increasing attachment
levels for initial process of depths of up to 6mm
D-Periodontal treatment modalities support the concept of predicted outcomes for
determining tooth progress
E-Biofilm control is essential for the long-term prevention of recurrence of periodontitis

Q61-A competent adult is seeking treatment from the dentist. For informed consent to
be established, which of the following does the dentist NOT have to inform the patient
about?
A-The nature of the proposed treatment
B-The consequences of individual to accept the treatment offered by the dentist
C-the alternative treatment options
D-the main potential consequence of the proposed treatment
E-the effects of the proposed treatment

Q62-The optimal finish lines for a mandible zirconium posterior crown should be:
A-a well-defined feather edge margin
B-a well-defined shoulder + feather edge margin
C-a well-defined shoulder + chamfer margin
D-a well-defined chamfer margin
E-a well-defined shoulder margin
Q63-Regarding sodium hypochlorite as an irrigant:
A-is slow acting
B-is less effective than chlorhexidine
C-its high pH denatures proteins and impairs ideal cell conditions
D-is a recent addition to endodontic therapy
E-it has a narrow spectrum of action
Q64-the following antibacterial agents are bactericidal in their mode of action:
Amoxicillin
tetracycline
erythromycin
metronidazole
vancomycin

Q65- which of the following statements is correct regarding lichen planus?

A-It is an acute inflammatory mucocutaneous disease
B-the pathogenesis is well understood
C-occurs most frequently in the middle aged and elderly
D-most commonly affects adult males
E-it only affects the oral mucosa

Q66-the Adams clasp is designed to engage the undercuts present on the fully erupted
first permanent molar at the junctions of the mesial and distal surfaces with the buccal
of the tooth. The clasp is fabricated in:
A-soft 0.9mmSS wire
B-rigid 0.7mm SS wire
C-soft 0.5mm SS wire
D-0.7mm NiTi wire
E-0.9mm TMA wire

Q67-etiological factors of clefts of the lip and palate include:

antiepileptic drugs
steroids
Antimalarial drugs
folic acid supplements
smoking

Q68-The typical deciduous lower first molar:

has a transverse ridge on its occlusal surface T
has a prominent mesiobuccal bulge near the cervical margin T
erupts before the deciduous lower canine has erupted T
has a total of five cusps F
can have a tubercle of Carabelli F
Q69-Oral squamous cell carcinoma can manifest as:
upper motor neuron palsy F
cervical lymphadenopathy T
lingual fasciculation T
pathological fracture of the mandible F
External root resorption F

Q70-Histological features of dysplasia include:

hyperkeratosis F
nuclear pleomorphism T
pale staining nuclei F
basement membrane thickening T
abnormal mitotic figures T

Q71-A patient with irreversible xerostomia is particularly liable to develop:

dental caries T
oral candidiasis T
supragingival calculus T
subgingival calculus T
angular cheilitis T

Q72-The following can be used for bilateral space maintenance

single band and loop F
single lingual arch T
single transpalatal arch T
single Nance appliance T
single distal shoe F

Q73-Regarding posts in endodontically treated teeth:

Active posts are more retentive than passive posts T
Active posts are preferred to passive posts F
Tapered serrated posts are the most retentive design of passive posts F
Posts are not usually necessary in molar teeth T
Posts reinforce weakened endodontically treated teeth F
Q74-Burning mouth syndrome:
is a rare acute pain disorder F
affects women over 50 more commonly than men T
presents with absence of any clinical, pathological or laboratory findings T
symptoms may include loss of taste F
most treatment interventions are effective F

Q75-Resin- modified glass ionomer cements:

Can release fluoride T
Can be set using incident light wavelength 970nm F
Are more resistant to dissolution by saliva than conventional glass ionomer T
cements
Can be used as a fissure sealant F
Have inferior compressive strength in comparison to compomer T

Q76-Clinical records of a patient's treatment:

should be compiled contemporaneously T
can be destroyed as soon as the patient dies 8 years after patient's death F
should be kept for a minimum of 30 years F
should include the patient's up-to -date medical history T
must be handwritten or electronic T

Q77-Recurrence following enucleation is common with:

radicular cyst F
odontogenic keratocyst T
unicystic amelobastoma T
paradental cyst F
dentigerous cyst F

Q78-Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is

synthesized in mitochondria T
hydrolyzed by actin T
necessary for relaxation of skeletal muscle T
released from autonomic nerve terminals F
not formed in erythrocytes T
Q79-Lidocaine (lignocaine)
is very soluble in lipids T
Is metabolized locally by the enzyme pseudocholinesterase F
acts by reversibly blocking sodium channels in axons T
is a good example of an ester - type local anesthetic F
has a shorter duration of action than bupivacaine T

Q80-The clinical features of an upper motor neuron lesion of the facial nerve include:
diplopia F
inability to close the eye tightly F
loss of taste F
numbness of the cheek T
paralysis of the buccinator muscle T

Q81-Regarding perikymata:
they are vertical lines F
they can be reproduced in restorations using a coarse diamond bur F
they correspond to the incremental lines of Retzius T
they have a major influence on tooth surface texture T
they should be reproduced in all anterior restorations F

Q82-Macroglossia is associated with

sudden infant death syndrome (cot death) T
Hurler's syndrome T
anencephaly F
thyrotoxicosis F
Down's syndrome T

Q83-In respiratory failure

physical signs are a good guide to the severity of the condition T
episodes of agitated confusion should be treated with sedatives F
the clinical presentation can include headaches T
a general anaesthetic may have been the precipitating factor T
the patient is usually hypothermic T
Q84-Syncope or fainting is typically associated with:
loss of consciousness due to cerebral ischaemia T
tachycardia when consciousness is lost F
vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles F
result in cerebral damage if the patient is kept upright F
breath holding in children F

Q85-The following are benign odontogenic tumors

Unicystic ameloblastoma T
complex odontoma T
polymorphous odontogenic cyst F
giant cell (reparative) granuloma F
ameloblastic fibrosarcoma F

Q86-The following muscles and their motor innervations are correct

platysma muscle facial nerve T
the constrictor muscles of the pharynx - glossopharyngeal nerve F
temporalis muscle mandibular division of trigeminal nerve T
lateral rectus muscle oculomotor nerve F
styloglossus muscle- hypoglossal nerve T

Q87-The following structures develop from the first branchial arch

the lingula of the mandible T
the incus T
the styloid process F
part of the sphenoid bone T
the stapes F

Q88-The biting force generated while closing the mouth is usually greater
between incisors than between molars F
in patients with bruxism compared with non-bruxers T
when chewing hard foods than when chewing soft foods T
in patients wearing complete dentures F
on the side which patients habitually use for chewing T
Q89-Hyperventilation:
can be a hysterical response to stress T
can be relieved by giving oxygen F
may result in chest pain F
can be treated by re-breathing expired air T
is common in patients under 10 years of age F

Q90-In relation to the use of fluoride:

Fluoridated water ideally contains 0.2ppm F
Standard fluoride tooth paste contains less than 1000ppm fluoride F
Fluoride varnish has fluoride concentration of 2.2% T
Fluoride varnish is never potentially toxic to small child F
Daily rinse of NaF has concentration of 0.2% F

Q91-Excessive bleeding following an extraction may be a feature of:

pernicious anaemia
liver failure
a long -term vegetarian diet
renal failure
Ulcerative colitis

Q92-Cardiac output in the adult human is:

temporarily reduced on changing from the horizontal to the sitting position F
normally 3 liters/min at rest F
independent of the venous return
diminished in ventricular tachycardia
reduced in anaphylaxis T

Q93-When using Sodium Hypochlorite (NaOCl) as an irrigant in root canal treatments

cooling the solution increases its effectiveness F
lowering the concentration improves antimicrobial activity F
it should have a concentration of 10% to 16 % - 0.5% - 5.25% T
pain is caused if it is extruded beyond the apical constriction T
electronic estimates of root canal lengths (e.g., use of apex
locators) can be affected if the canal is not dry
Q94-Deciduous teeth:
commence resorbing as soon as they erupt F
have enamel which is more highly mineralized than the enamel of permanent teeth F
have more bulbous crowns than permanent teeth T
only resorb when they experience pressure from the erupting permanent successor F
have relatively larger pulp cavities than permanent teeth T

Q95-The following associations are correct:

leukoplakia increased incidence of malignancy T
hairy leukoplakia human papillomavirus (HPV) F
SCC rather carcinoma - high grade carcinoma F
locally invasive ameloblastoma - benign T
bullous pemphigoid subepidermal blister T

Q96-To correct a unilateral posterior crossbite in the mixed dentition

a quad helix appliance can be used T
a hyrax appliance can be used T
cross elastics may be the treatment of choice T
is of limited value due to of inevitable relapse F
may result in increased overbite T

Q97-Regarding alginate impression materials

chlorhexidine gluconate can be added to provide self-disinfection T
sodium lauryl sulphate is added to promote wetting of the material T
the setting time is controlled by adding sodium phosphate T
they can usually be stored for up to 10 days in a damp sealed bag without F
significant shrinkage
the best way to reduce the setting time is to increase the temperature of the water T

Q98-Regarding porcelain veneers:

these are always less successful in teeth which have pre-existing restorations T
veneers
involving incisal edge overlap are more successful than those without T
preparations should be kept in enamel where possible T
a deep shoulder is the ideal finishing line F
those cemented with polycarboxylate cements show the greatest success rates F
Q99-Oral lichen planus:
may arise unilaterally T
always has cellular atypia F
contains areas of acantholysis Acantholysis F
is a feature of graft versus host disease T
usually resolves within 2years – 12-18 months

Q100-4-year-old child has had trauma to his deciduous upper right central incisor tooth.
active treatment is usually required if this tooth
Was avulsed and has been kept in fluoride mouthwash by the parent F
Was avulsed and has been kept in milk by the parent F
Has been intruded with the crown displaced labially T
Has been intruded with the crown displaced palatal and is interfering F
with the occlusion
Bas been extruded T

Q101-The buccinator muscle

helps to retract the mandible F
arises from the lateral surface of both jaws opposite the molar teeth T
is in continuity with the superior constrictor muscle at the T
pterygomandibular raphe
derives its motor innervation from the buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve F
is in continuity with the orbicularis oris anteriorly T

Q102-When restoring a decayed mandibular second primary molar

achieve anaesthesia with a mandibular block T
achieve anaesthesia with & mental block F
anaesthesia is rarely indicated F
infiltration produces the best anaesthesia F
short acting anaesthetics should be routinely used T

Q103-Anxiety in a dental patient can manifest as:

sweating T
aggressive behavior T
constriction of the pupils (Dilating) F
talkativeness T
bradycardia F
Q104-It would be appropriate to use fissure sealants:
on the permanent molars of a child with high-caries risks T
on the permanent premolars of a child with high caries experience T
only within the first 36 months of the eruption of the tooth in question F
on deciduous molar teeth of a child with extensive caries in his deciduous teeth F
on a 6-year-old child who has a significant mental disability T

Q105-Shade evaluation prior to and following tooth bleaching is: -

more accurate when recorded in the morning rather than in the afternoon F
can be affected by light conditions T
is most reliable predictable after the patient has had a cup of coffee F
in general best recorded photographically T
affected by the patients ' perception of colour T

Q106-Which of the following drug (s) has / have drug - induced gingival overgrowth as a
side effect?
phenytoin T
amoxycillin F
cyclosporin T
nisoldipine T
valproic acid T

Q107-In the control of cross - infection in the dental surgery:

all staff should be vaccinated against hepatitis virus F
high volume aspiration is effective in reducing aerosols T
non - responders to the hepatitis B vaccine should receive prophylactic T
beta - globulin in the event of a needle stick injury
known high - risk patients should be referred to specialist units for F
treatment
operating gloves should be worn T
Q108-A benign tumour may cause morbidity by:
pressure on adjacent structures T
hyperfunction T
metastases F
obstruction T
tumour haemorrhage F

Q109-By the sixth week of intrauterine life:

the nasal capsule has formed
the primary epithelial band has developed T
the two halves of the secondary palate have fused
the mandible has begun to ossify
the temporomandibular joint has begun to develop

Q110-The cephalosporins are a group of antimicrobial agents that

act by interfering with bacterial cell-wall synthesis T
are widely used in treating dental infections F
safely given to patients who are allergic to penicillin F
with have a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity T
are associated with intrinsic staining of dentine F

Q111-Retention in complete denture fabrication is achieved by

peripheral seal around the denture T
adhesive forces between the saliva and both T
the denture base and the oral mucosa
cohesive forces with saliva F
lingualised denture occlusion F
a freeway space of 3mm F

Q112-Oversedation with nitrous oxide:

is more likely in patients accustomed to
drug or alcohol abuse
may precipitate a panic attack F
may precipitate epileptiform convulsions F
may cause mouth closing during treatment
can be reversed by naloxone T
Q113-Regarding non - carious tooth surface loss:
intrinsic erosion often affects the labial surfaces of maxillary teeth F
extrinsic erosion often affects the palatal surfaces of maxillary teeth F
abrasion can result in cervical notches along the affected teeth T
abfraction is caused by differential stress along the cevical margins as a T
result of the flexure of the teeth
attrition usually causes smooth wear facets T

Q114-Regarding removable partial denture design

Kennedy Class 1 has a unilateral free - end saddle F
saddle support for a mandibular free -end saddle comes from the buccal shelf only F
rest seats should be placed adjacent to bounded saddles T
major connectors should be rigid T
clasp effectiveness is determined by the amount it deflects during withdrawal from T
an undercut

Q115- The amount of corrosion in an amalgam restoration is reduced by:

substituting gallium for mercury F
the presence of palladium in the alloy T
polishing the restoration T
reducing the amount of copper in the alloy F
the presence of in the alloy F

Q116-Haemoglobin
is a protein T
is synthesized in mature erythrocytes F
binds oxygen reversibly T
is a buffer T
transports carbon dioxide T

Q117-Effective tooth bleaching is:

dependent on the bleaching agent used F
unrelated to the age of the patient F
affected by the dose/strength of the bleaching agent used T
affected by the duration and number of bleaching sessions T
unaffected by the severity of the tooth discoloration F
Q118- The following are independent risk factors for the development of malignant
tumors of the oral cavity:
alcohol consumption
human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
treponema pallium (syphilis) infection
exposure to sunlight

Q119-To establish clinical negligence, which of the following criteria must be met:
the dentist must owe a duty of care to the patient T
the duty of care has been breached T
the patient must have suffered direct financial loss
the breach of duty of care has resulted in foreseeable damage T
the breach of duty of care has resulted in unforeseen damage

Q120-Oral mucosal lesions associated with the wearing of dentures include:

denture stomatitis T
xerostomia F
angular cheilitis T
aphthous ulcers F
denture induced hyperplasia T

Q121-Regarding composite resin:

the polymerization contraction of the resin
phase alone, Bis-GMA is of the order 21%
the polymerization contraction of most
composite resin materials is of the order of 5%
the average filler size in a microfilled F
composite is 0.02
a macrofilled resin produces a better surface F
luster when polished when compared to a
microfilled resin
filler particles are usually radiolucent F
Q122-In acute anaphylaxis:
penicillin may be a precipitant T
features include facial swelling and respiratory distress T
the first line drug of choice is glucagon F
oxygen should be given T
if adrenaline is given, the intra -venous route is best F

Q123-Paracetamol:
is equally effective as an analgesic and an F
anti-inflammatory agent
has side-effects which commonly include F
gastric bleeding
has a half-life of 8 hours 1.5-2.5 hours
is absorbed from the small intestine T
causes constriction of the pupils F

Q124-In dental radiology, a periapical radiolucency is characteristically produced by:

an apical granuloma T
ankylosis F
an immature cementoma T
hypercementosis F
condensing osteitis F

Q125- The following are developmental cysts:

Radicular cyst F
globulomaxillary cyst T
unicystic ameloblastoma F
lateral periodontal cyst T
paradental cyst F
Q126-Intraoral squamous cell carcinomas:

commonly develop in a site of clinical erythoplakia T

are typically well-differentiated F
have pain as an early clinical feature F
have the lateral border of tongue as a common site for small T
symptomless lesions
frequently arise from the superficial parts of salivary gland ducts F
Q127- The defining features of class III incisor classification:

Proclined incisors F
Reduced overjet T
Incompetent lips F
The lower edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper central F
incisors
The lips are incompetent F

Q128-The following factors are contraindications to the provision of a metal ceramic

crown on a particular tooth:

mild and intermittent parafunctional activities F

periapical radiolucency F
burning mouth syndrome F
severe and frequent parafunctional activities T
generalised periodontal disease T

Q129-Regarding dentine - bonding agents:

they provide a micromechanical bond to dentine T

they provide a chemical bond to dentine T
Secondary dentine bonding agents are most F
effective when the dentine is completely dry
fourth generation dentine bonding agents contain T
separate etch, prime and bond components
the hybrid layer in dentine should always be F
removed prior to the application of the dentine
bonding agent

Q130-Acute leukemia:
may present with gingival bleeding T
may affect the granular leucocytes T
is commonly associated with purpura T
is associated with a tendency to anaemia T
tends to affect older patients to
Q131-Salivary gland stones may be:
asymptomatic T
treated with lithotripsy T
associated with hyperparathyroidism F
related to alcohol intake T
diagnosed with ultrasound T

Q132- Regarding gingival aesthetics:

Botox is a possible treatment option for excess gingival display T
in spontaneous smiling 4mm of gingival margin should be visible F
1-2mm normal upper lip length for females is 25 mm F
the gingival level of the maxillary lateral incisors should be lower T
than that of the central incisors
the gingival level of the maxillary canines should be higher than T
the central incisors

Q133- Regarding the Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE)

periapical radiographs should be taken for sextants scoring "2” F
for a sextant to qualify for scoring, it must contain at least one F
functional tooth
the World Health Organization Probe 621 is used T
in relation to the probe used, a color - coded area extends from T
3.5 to 5.5 mm from its tip
code " 3 " is given to the sextant if the color -coded area F
disappears completely into the periodontal pocket

Q134-Instability of a complete upper denture can be due to

uneven compressibility of the supporting tissues T
poorly contoured polished surface T T
establishment of a peripheral seal F
occlusal error T
psychological problems T
Q135-Aciclovir is an antiviral drug which:
inhibits viral DNA synthesis T
is effective against herpes simplex infection T
100-200 5 times when prescribed systemically for herpes zoster infection F
800 mg, is given five times per day
accumulates in cells infected with Coxsackie virus F
inhibits viral reverse transcriptase F

Q136-Regarding GIC
-condemnable Metal reinforced GIC have higher flexural strength than F
nonmetal reinforced GIC
-the main constituents of the powder are silica and phosphonium salt F
-the setting reaction of conventional GIC is an acid base reaction T
-they may act as a fluoride reservoir to offer a clinical anti-cariogenic effect T
Conventional GIC have higher compressive strength than compomers F

Q137-Asthma:
is an allergic reaction to an inhaled allergen T
is affected by stress T
can be treated by the use of salbutamol inhaler T
results in difficulty in inhaling air F
attacks are more common in children than adults T

Q138-The statement that patients can function adequately with shortened dental
arches is correct when reasonable function & stability is provided by:
- A minimum of 9 pairs of opposing teeth
- A minimum of 8 pairs of opposing teeth
- A minimum of 6 pairs of opposing teeth
- A minimum of 7 pairs of opposing teeth
- A minimum of 10 pairs of opposing teeth

Q139- Which one of the following compounds is generally recommended for etching
enamel restorative dentistry:
- Maleic acid
- Ethylene Diamine Tetra-acetic Acid (EDTA)
- Tartaric acid
- Phosphoric acid
- Polyacrylic acids
Q140-Trigeminal neuralgia:
- best treated by Carbamazepine
- Occurs in 20% of patients with multiple sclerosis
- When treated by micro-vascular decompression surgery is associated with 5 %
mortality
- Has a peak onset in the seventh and eight decades of life
- Requires radiological imaging to establish the diagnosis

Q141-Which of the following is not a feature of hyperthyroidism:

- Tremor
- Sweating
- Palpitations
- Exophthalmos
- Weight gain

Q142-Which of the following statements concerning recurrent aphthous ulcers is not

true
- Stress may be a precipitating factor
- They occur in women more than in men
- They may occur at any age, but usually first appear between the ages of 12-35
- They usually appear on non- keratinized oral mucosa
- show ard caused by exposure to EBV

Q143-In a new complete denture, the presence of which of the following features would
suggest a lack of freeway space?
- Clicking noise in the TMJ
- Cheek biting
- Palatal ulceration
- Clicking noise in the TMJ into during flashing

Q144-In relation to Molar Incisor Hypo mineralization (MIH) which of the following is not
included in the differential diagnosis?
- Enamel hypoplasia
- Dentinogonesis imperfecta
- Dental caries
- Amelogenesis imperfecta
- Fluorosis
Q145- Regarding alveolar osteitis (dry socket)
- Classically the pain commences 10 days post operatively
- The treatment of choice is the antibiotic therapy
- Pain is likely to be caused by irritation of nerve endings in the exposed bone with
debris and necrotic food lodged in the socket
- Rarely occurs following extractions of lower third molar teeth
- Has a reported incidence of 25% following routine extractions

Q146-Following the successful administration of an ID block only for the extraction of a

lower molar the patient complains of pain during the procedure. Which of the following
nerves is the most likely cause of the pain perception?
- the mental
- the marginal mandibular
- the facial
- the lingual
- the long buccal

Q147-The changes in tooth position & occlusal stability following the extraction of a
molar tooth are:
- The sequelae of loss of a molar tooth occur rapidly
- Always necessitate provision of a fixed prosthesis to prevent posterior tooth
movement
- Following loss of posterior occlusal stability, any damaging effects are found
most by increased loading on the anterior teeth Predictable
- Changes in tooth position always constitute a loss of occlusal stability

Q148- Which of the following is TRUE concerning flowable composite resins?

- reduces post -operative sensitivity when used as a liner
- None of the above
- Reduced filer content reduces viscosity to allow flow
- its compressive strength is much greater than hybrid composite resins
- In the presence of periodontal health, evidence support the link between
Increased loading and loss of periodontal attachment
Q149-The following party has a definitive right to access a competent adult patient's
dental records:
- the Dental Council
- the parent’s father
- the patient's dentist
- the patient's spouse

Q150-Dental Bleaching what amount of hydrogen peroxide does16% Carbamide

peroxide break down to?
- 2 to 3%
- 4 to 5%
- 7 to 8%
- 9 to 10%
- 5 to 6%

Q151-The Adams clasp is designed to engage the undercuts present on a fully erupted
first permanent molar at the junction of the mesial and distal surfaces with the buccal
aspect of the tooth.
The crib is usually 0.9mm TMA wire
Hard 0.7mm stainless steel wire
Soft 0.5mm stainless steel wire
Soft 0.9mm stainless steel wire
0.7 mm NiTi wire

Q152-The two most important attachments which can be used with a dental surveyor
are:
- Analyzing rod and undercut gauge
- Trimming knife and undercut gauge
- Graphite marker and trimming knife T
- Mounting plate and facebow
- Analyzing rod and graphite marker

Q153-Regarding the Trigeminal Nerve:

- Taste fibers supply the posterior third of the tongue
- The motor division supplies the muscles of facial expression emerges from the
cranium the stylomastoid foramen
- The motor division supplies the muscles of mastication
- This is the Seventh Cranial Nerve
Q154-Which of the following is not the characteristic pain encountered in irreversible
pulpitis?
- Pulsating
- Mild
- Throbbing
- Boring
- Dull

Q155-Which of the following statements is true?

- Caries diagnosis made radiographically fully assesses cavity activity
- Caries diagnosis is confirmed by "sticky fissures”
- Caries diagnosis made radiographically fully assesses caries activity
- Caries diagnosis is made by careful clinical - visual examination of clean dry teeth
- Caries diagnosis in enamel necessitates immediate operative intervention

Q156-Regarding the Salivary Glands

- They receive both parasympathetic and sympathetic nerve supply
- The composition of saliva is a constant Salivary secretion is unaffected by
increased blood flow to the glands
- Salivary flow is unaffected by circadian rhythm
- Serous cells produce a viscous rich secretion

Q157- The most likely cause of discomfort shortly following the cementation of a
crown would be:
- Premature occlusal contact
- Periodontal disease
- Improper choice of material for crown fabrication
- Under preparation of the tooth
- Over preparation of the tooth

Q158-Calcification of the maxillary lateral incisor generally commences at about:

- 18 months
- 72 months
- 6 months
- 24 months
- 3 months
Q159-The antibiotic treatment of choice for ANUG is:
- Erythromycin
- Metronidazole 200mg 3/day
- Ampicillin
- Cephalosporin
- Tetracycline

Q160-The average dimension of the biological width has been shown to be:
- 0.04mm
- 3.04mm
- 2.04 mm
- 1.04mm
- 4.04mm

Q161-Denture stability is defined as:

- Resistance to displacement away from basal tissues

- Resistance to displacement towards underlying structures
- Resistance to displacement by functional horizontal on rotational stresses
- Resisting forces of dislodgement along the path of placement
- Resisting forces of dislodgement along the path of withdrawal

Q162-The combined width of the deciduous canine, first molar and second molar teeth
is greater than that of their permanent successors. The difference in widths is called the
leeway space. In general, this is of:

- in the maxilla and 0.5 to 1 mm in the mandible

- 3 to 4mm in the maxilla and 2 to 3mm in the mandible
- 1 to 1.5mm in the maxilla and 2 to 2.5mm in the mandible
- 2 to 3mm in the maxilla and 3 to 4mm in the mandible
- 2 to 2.5mm in the maxilla and 1 to 1.5mm in the mandible
Q163- Regarding the clinical signs and symptoms of internal root resorption:

- When related to the cervical /coronal part of the tooth present as a pinkish hue
- Are always present
- When related to the apical mid third of the root are usually diagnosed clinically
- Are symptomatic in most cases

Q164-Which of the following leads to gingival deformity and may require gingivoplasty
to eliminate the defects?

- Acute candidiasis
- Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
- Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
- Erosive lichen planus
- Desquamative gingivitis

Q165- The most appropriate guide to the length of the post in a cast post crown
restoration is
- At least three quarter of the length of the crown to be restored
- 3 mm less than the endodontic working length
- Half of the root length
- At least equal to the length of the crown to be restored
- Two third of the root length

Q166-The ideal properties of luting cement include:

- Mechanical strength
- Wear resistance
- solubility
- High film thickness
- Viscosity

Q167-Which of the following conditions is not required by a patient to establish a case

of clinical negligence against his dentist?

- Reasonable damage
- Foreseeable damage
- The existence of a duty of care
- Breach of duty of care
- Unforeseen damage
Q168-During the recording of the jaw relationship for complete denture
fabrication:

the occlusal surface of the upper occlusal rim is made parallel to the T
Frankfort Plane
insuficient lip support exaggerates the naso-labial groove T
the incisal edge of the horizontal component of the occlusal rim should T
be parallel to the inter-pupillary line (a line joining the pupils of the eye)
the average free way space is 8-10mm F
when the condyles are in the most retruded position in the fossae the F
jaws move in a simple hinge manner

Q169-Before undertaking the surgical removal of a tooth from a patient who has
had a renal transplant you should:

arrange for the patient to be admitted to hospital F

obtain informed consent T
increase Fluid intake of the patient
check the International Normalized Ratio (I.N.R.) F
use only an adrenaline Free local anaesthetic F

Q170-Reflex responses to hypotension include:

tachycardia F
vasoconstriction T
increased renin secretion F
increased sodium excretion F
increased aldosterone secretion T

Q171-Polishing of a recently placed large amalgam restoration causes:

a reduction in the compressive strength T

delayed expansion F
increased creep T
drawing of the retained mercury to the surface T
severe pupal reactions F
Q172-Enamel microabrasion can be used to treat discolouration of teeth caused by the
following condition(s):

amelogenesis imperfecta F
dentinogenesis imperfecta F
Fluorosis T
tetracycline staining F
Early caries lesion T

Q173- Xerostomia:

symptoms are more common than signs T

is a common adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants T
may re5lect Type Il diabetes T
predisposes to aggressive periodontitis T
may be a feature of pilocarpine therapy T

Q174- A typical patient with type I diabetes mellitus has increased:

- susceptibility to periodontal disease

- saliva production
incidence of geographic tongue
- incidence of burning mouth syndrome
- incidence of cervical caries

Q175-Mucous extravasation Cyst:

never occurs on the tongue in children T

arises following traumatic rupture of a salivary duct T
is lined by epithelium F
will recur unless the affected gland is removed T
may develop into a cystic tumour if left untreated F

Q176-In a six-month old child

the anterior fontanelle is usually closed T

the sphenoid and the occipital bone are fused F
the maxillary sinus is radiographically visible T
the crown of the deciduous central incisor is complete
the incisal edge of the permanent lateral incisor is mineralized F
Q177-Trigeminal neuralgia:

- characteristically wakens the patient from their sleep

- has a peak incidence of onset in the second and third decades of life
- should be treated with carbamazepine as the first option for medication
- s associated with generalised body spasms
- is rarely precipitated by a depressive illness

Q178- Independent prognostic indicators of oral squamous cell carcinoma include:

duration of symptoms T
the size of the primary tumour T
high grade dysplasia affecting adjacent mucosa T
the presence of metastasis to cervical lymph nodes T
advanced periodontal disease at presentation F
Q179- Regarding non carious tooth surface loss:

it is a physiological process occurring throughout the life of a patient. T

dentinogenesis imperfect may result in extensive tooth wear due to F
abfraction.
cupped out concavities along the occlusal surfaces are seen in patients with F
severe abrasion.
erosion from an intrinsic source is normally observed on the palatal aspects T
of the upper anterior teeth.
the most common cause of attrition is parafunctional activity such as bruxism. T
Q180- According to good practice, when undertaking treatment using sedation:

the patient should be monitored for at least 2 hours following treatment a T

chaperone must be present
the patient should be accompanied by a responsible adult T
the patient should sign a discharge form before being discharged T
drugs must be available for resuscitation T

Q190- The salivary Flow rate is reduced in subjects who are:

dehydrated T
nauseated F
asleep T
pregnant T
blind F
191) In hypovolaemic shock:

- the central venous pressure is normal F

- the extremities are pale and cold T
- intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) should be given there is tissue alkalosis T
- bleeding may not be a cause F

192) Lidocaine (lignocaine):

- can be safely given in a far higher dose to a patient than prilocaine F

- is insoluble in lipids F
- is classi5ied as an amide-type local anaesthetic T
- is a vasodilator when administered as a plain solution without a vasoconstrictor T
- given topically is absorbed more readily through non-keratinised mucosa than
through keratinised mucosa. T

193) Early loss of a second primary molar:

- can result in mesial drift of the 5irst permanent molar T

- does not result in space loss F
- can be treated with a distal shoe appliance T
- can result in impaction of the permanent canine F
- can be treated in the mixed dentition T

194) A mesiodens can be associated with:

- a maxillary midline diastema T

- root resorption T
- unicystic amelobastoma F
- paradental cyst F
- Gardner syndrome T

195) Manifestations of anaphylactic shock include:

- laryngeal oedema T
- constricted pupils F
- hypotension T
- lymphadenopathy F
- vomiting F
-
196) Metronidazole:

- is metabolised in the liver T

- is the treatment of choice for necrotising ulcerative gingivitis T
- potentates the action of warfarin F
- acts by interfering with bacterial cell-wall synthesis T?
- Is effective against aerobic organisms F

197) Warfarin:

- is a coagulant F
- is an antagonist of Vitamin K T
- increases INR T
- is effective within 1 hour F
- has its maximum effect normally in 36 hours F

198) During dental development:

- enamel in the permanent dentition is fully formed within a period of 3 years after the
commencement of amelogenesis. F
- the mesiodistal length of the upper 5irst premolar is greater than that of its deciduous
predecessor. F
- the eruption rate is within the range 0.25 - 0.5 mm/month F
- the roots of permanent teeth are fully formed within 3 years after eruption T the
buccolingual width of the deciduous lower second molar is greater than that of its
permanent successor T

199) In extrinsic tooth discolouration:

- fluorosis is a common cause T

- stains can be removed by polishing T
- food and soft drinks are a common cause T
- antibacterial agents used in mouthwashes are a common cause T
- tooth whitening is an accepted treatment T

200) The correct management of an anaphylactic reaction should include administering:

- salbutamol T
- adrenaline T
- oxygen T
- temazepam F
- noradrenaline T?
201) Regarding dentine bonding agents:

- they provide a micromechanical bond to dentine T

- they provide a chemical bond to dentine F
- dentine bonding agents are most effective when the dentine is completely dry F
- fourth generation dentine bonding agents contain separate etch, prime and bond
components. F
- the hybrid layer in dentine should always be removed prior to the application of the dentine
bonding agent F

202) Regarding clinical audit:

- clinical audit is part of clinical governance. T

- each audit cycle must be reviewed yearly. T
- it is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes
through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of
change. T
- clinical audit comes under the clinical governance umbrella. T
- the standard required for a clinical audit should be the ideal standard for the procedure
involved. T

203) Iron deficiency anemia predisposes to:

- intraoral candida infection T

- oral lichenoid reactions F
- secondary postoperative haemorrhage T
- wound dehiscence
- xerostomia F

204) Physiological responses to hypoglycemia include secretion of:

- adrenaline T
- cortisol F ( SLOWER RELEASE)
- insulin F
- glucagon T
- growth hormone F ( SLOWER RELEASE)

205) A single permanent incisor in anterior crossbite can be treated with:

- tongue blade therapy T

- reverse incline plane T
- normal incline plane F
- Hawley appliance with 5inger spring F
206) Regarding the biologic width:

- it represents the area of attachment of the periodontal soft tissues to the tooth
- it consists of supracrestal connective tissue and sulcular epithelium F
- it has an average dimension of 2.04mm T
- encroachment on to the biologic width is unassociated with attachment loss
- ideal crown margins should be placed 1.5-2.0mm subgingivally F

207) Regarding aggressive periodontitis:

- it has a slow rate of progression F

- it can be inherited F
- the localised form affects the molar teeth only F
- the generalised form usually occurs in patients under the age of 30 years F
- it occurs with greater prevalence in Caucasians when compared to African Americans

208) Following trauma to the deciduous dentition, the following is/are common side-effects to
the permanent successor teeth:

- delayed eruption T
- amelogenesis imperfecta F
- dentinogenesis imperfecta F
- dens invaginatus F
- enamel hypoplasia F

209) Fibrous epulis:

- only occurs on the gum T

- is a benign odontogenic tumour F
- is usually painless T
- may displace adjacent teeth F
- is occasionally a manifestation of hyperparathyroidism F

210) To establish a tort of negligence:

- a legal duty of care must be established T

- the wrongdoing does not have to be foreseeable F
- a duty of care must have been compromised F
- the patient must have suffered as a result of the dentists act or omission T
- the patient musthave suffered a direct 5inancial loss F
210) Regarding the maxillary sinus:

- it is present at birth T
- the ostium opens into the inferior meatus of the lateral wall of the nose F
- it receives its nerve supply exclusively from the superior alveolar nerves F
- the lymphatic drainage goes to the submandibular nodes T
- its venous drainage goes to the pterygoid plexus T

211) Codeine:

- binds to opioid receptors in the central nervous system T

- is particularly effective in relieving post-operative pain after dental surgery T
- use carries a high risk of dependence or addiction T
- can be safely combined with aspirin F
- has side-effects which commonly include diarrhoea F

212) The pharyngeal (branchial) arches that contribute to the skin of the human face include:

- arch 1 T
- arch 2 T
- arch 3 F
- arch 4 F
- arch 5 F

213) The facial artery:

- supplies blood to the palatine tonsil F

- is closely related to the facial vein
- is separated from the submandibular gland by mylohyoid muscle anastomoses with
branches of the internal carotid artery F
- crosses the inferior border of the mandible at its angle F

214)Regarding cracked tooth syndrome:

- the patient has pain on the tooth when biting on it F

- it is common in unrestored/ intact teeth F
- the patient has pain on the tooth when releasing the bite T
- transillumination reveals that light passes straight through the tooth but a periapical
- radiolucency is noted on the corresponding radiograph F
- applying a copper ring/ orthodontic band to the tooth reduces the symptoms T