Mining, Enviroment and Petroleum Geology-2

MINING GEOLOGY
1. The search for ores or other valuable minerals is termed as:
A) Mineral exploration
(B) Prospecting
(C) Exploitation
D) Mineral survey
2. The actual recovery of minerals from the earth in quantity is termed as
A) Mineral exploration
(B) Prospecting
(C) Exploitation
D) Mineral recovery
3. The stages foilowed in mining of mineral resources is:
(a) Prospecting-Exploration - Development - Exploitation
(B) Prospecting - Development - Exploration – Exploitation
(C) Exploration-Prospecting - Development - Exploitation
(D) Prospecting-Development - Exploitation - Exploration
4.The purpose of exploration include:
1. Determine if ore can be mined or leached

2. Determine ore reserves
3. Locate areas for infrastructure/operations
(A)1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
5. Which of the foilowing mineral deposit can be explored by using stratigraphical criteria?
1. Coal
2. Petroleum
3. Clay
(A) 1
(B) 2
(c) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
6. Which of the foilowing mineral deposit can be explored by using lithological criteria?
1. Diamond
2. Lead-Zinc
3. Gold
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
7. Which of the foilowing mineral deposit can not be found in the rocks of Proterozoic age?
(A) Lead-Zinc
(B) Coal
(C) Gold
(D) Rock Phosphate
8. The Magnetic method of prospecting depends on detecting the:
(A) Magnetic susceptibility of the ore body
(B) Chemical composition of the ores
(C) Structure of the ore deposits
(D) Anomalies in Earth's magnetic field
9. Positive gravity anomalies are often associated with:
(A) Deep ocean trenches
(B) Ore bodies beneath Earth's surface
(C) Large cavem system beneath Earth's surface
(D) All of these
10. In a 1:50,000 scale topographic map a distance of 0.25 cm represents?

(A) 1250 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 250 m
(D) 500 m
11. The purpose of drilling is:
1. Making holes for blasting
2. Sub-surface sample coilection to estimate quality and quantity of ore
3. Development of mine for drainage, slope stability etc.
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
12. The example of percussion drill is:
1. Churn drill
2. Auger drill
3. Jack hammer drill
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which type of drill machine is useful in soft unconsolidated material or weak peathered
rocks:
A) Auger drill
B) Jack hammer drill
(C) Diamond drill
(D) Both (A) and (C)
14. The geochemical prospecting is done by:
1. Soil samples
2. Stream sediments samples
3. Bedrock samples
(A)1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
15. Which of the foilowing method of exploration is more expensive (per square km wise)?
(A) Remote sensing - by using satellite imageries
(B) Geophysical survey
(c) Core Drilling
(D) Geological mapping

16 Which type of these drills are:
(A) Churn drill
(B) Jack hammer drill
(c) Auger drill
(D) Diamond drill
17. The drilling rig which is primarily powered by pressurized air is called:
(A) Mechanical drill
(B) Hydraulic drill
(C) Pneumatic drill
(D) Electric drill
18. Churn drill is a type of
(A) Percussion drilling
(B) Rotary drilling
(C) Jet drilling
(D) None of these

19. Diamond drilling is a type of
(A) Percussion drill
(B) Rotary drill
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Top hammer drill
20. The testing of an ore to determine the content of valuable materials is called:
(A) Grade
(B) Assay
(C) Content
(D) Quality
21. The amount of mineral contained in a piece of ore:
(A) Grade
(B) Assay
(C) Content
(D) Quality
22. Any process that improves the value of ore by removing waste is called:
(A) Quality control
(B) Ore improvement

(C) Beneficiation
(D) Concentration
23. A hole drilled into a material/rock for the purpose of explosive charge is:
(A) Bore hole
(B) Blast hole
(C) Primary hole
(D) Secondary hole
24. Which of the foilowing is an underground mining method using artificially suppor openings?
(A) Open stoping
(B) Shrinkage stoping
(C) Longwall mining
(D) Room and Piller mining
25. The horizontal entry up to an ore body is called:
(A) Bench
(B) Pir
(C) Adit
(D) Shaft
26. Which of the foilowing mineral is used in Oil-well drilling?
(A) Apatite
(B) Fluorite
(C) Asbestos
(D) Barite
27. Which of the foilowing is a path-finder element of Au?
(A) SO4
(B) Mo
(C) As
(D) Se
28. Long wall method is generally employed for:
(A) Iron-one mining
(B) Copper mining
(C) Coal mining
(D) Gypsum mining
29 Geiger Muller counter is commonly used for the exploration of:
(A) Bauxite deposit
(B) Pb-Zn deposit
(C) Uranium deposit

(D) Iron ore deposit
30. The feasibility report of a mine is based on:
(A) Measured reserves
(B) Indicated reserves
(C) Inferred reserves
(D) None of these
31. Which of the foilowing is more suitable for underground mining to reach at the ore bodies
situated at greater depths?
(A) Vertical shafts
(B) Inclined shafts
(C) Horizontal shafts
(D) None of these
32. Prop is
(A) A low explosive
(B) A high explosive
(C) A form of mine support
(D) A mining machine
33. An underground excavation made for storing ore in a mine is known as:
(A) Stope
(B) Ore-bin
(C) Chute
(D) Drift
34. Samples of copper ores are drawn from locations X1, X2 and X3 as shown in figure below.
The values of (% Cu) at sampling locations are given in brackets. The estimated grade at point
X0 using inverse distances weighting is___________ %.
(A) 1.8%
(B) 2.8%
(C) 1.2%
(D) 1.5%
35. A horizontal underground passageway that provides access to mining operations a typically
foilows along strike of an ore or rock formation is:
(A) Drive
(B) Adit
(C) Tunnel
(D) Cross cut
36. An underground coal mine that is accessed above water level is:
(A) Water table mine
(B) Low level mine
(C) Shaft mine
(D) Drift mine
37. A product containing a valuable mineral or metal and from which most of the waste
material has been removed is:
(A) Ore
(B) Run of Mine
(C) Lump
(D) Concentrate
38. Cylindrical sample of rock taken from the ground by diamond drilling for research purposes
is and exploration purposes
A) Drilling sample
B) Core Sample
C) Ore sample
(D) Both (A) and (B)
39. A coilection of specimens of ore taken more or less at random to examine the mineral
quality but not the monetary value of the ore is known as:
(A) Chip sampling

(B) Mug sampling
(C) Rough sampling
(D) Grab sampling
40. A grade level below which the material not "ore" and considered to be uneconomical to
mine and process:
(A) Low grade
(B) Economic grade
(C) Cut-off grade
(D) Mining grade
41. The rock on the upper side of a mineralized vein or ore deposit is:
(A) Upper level
(B) Hanging wall
(C) Top wall
(D) Upper wall
42. The material that remains after all metals considered economic have been removed from
the ore during milling is:
(A) Tailings
(B) Reject
(C) Waste
(D) Overburden
43. An underground vertical or inclined opening driven from an upper level downward is called:
(A) Winze
(B) Raise
(C) Drift
(D) UG hole
44. Vertical or subvertical connections between levels generally are driven from a lower level
upward is:
(A) Winze
(B) Raise
(C) Drift
(D) UG hole
45. Which of the foilowing underground mining method is "self-supported" method
1. Shrinkage stoping
2. Cut and Fill stoping
3. Sublevel stoping
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3
46. Which of the foilowing underground mining method is "supported method"
1. Shrinkage stoping
2. Cut and Fill stoping
3. Sublevel stoping
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3
47. A ramp in underground mine is a type of:
(A) Drift
(B) Shaft
(C) Cross cut
(D) Hole
48. The advantage of open pit mining is:
1. No problem of ventilation
2. Large scale mechanization is possible
3. Dangers and hazards are less in compare to underground mining
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
49. The disadvantage of open pit mining is:
(A) Working may affected by weather
(B) The method is uneconomic for working in deeper depth
(C) Large scale mechanization is not possible
50. The ratio of the volume of overburden (or waste material) required to be handled in order
to extract the ore or mineral is:
(A) Stripping ratio
(B) Mining ratio
(C) Ore ratio
(D) Cut of ratio
51. The road constructed in mining operation which is used for heavy or bulk transfer of
materials or mineral is called:
(A) Mine main road
(B) Primary road
(C) Haulage road road
(D) Ore
52. A horizontal underground passageway that provides access to mining operations and is
usually bored from the mining shaft at near right angles to the strike of a mineralized vein or
ore body is:
(A)Drift
(B) Cross-cut
(C) Drive
(D) Adit
53. Full form of UNFC is:
(A) United Nations Framework Classification
(B) United Nations Framework Clarification
(C)United Nations Final Classification
(D) United Nations Future Classification
54. In UNFC guidelines for stages of exploration of mineral resources, the "G4" axis code deals
with:
(A) Detailed Exploration
(B) General Exploration
(C) Prospecting
(D) Reconnaissance
55. In UNFC guidelines for stages of exploration mineral rese deals with: rces, the "G2" axis
code
(A) Detailed Exploration
(B) General Exploration

(C) Prospecting
(D) Recommence
36. In UNFC guidelines for stages of exploration mineral resources, the "F2" axis code deals
with:
(A) Geological study
(B) Mining study
(C)Pre-feasibility study
(D) Feasibility study
57. As per UNFC guidelines for mineral resources the detail geological mapping for exploration
should be done at:
(A) 1:50000 scale
(B) 1:25000 scale
(C) 1:10000 scale
(D) 1:1000 scale
58. Mineral resource estimates based on regional geological studies and mapping, airborne and
indirect methods, preliminary field inspections as well as geological inference and extrapolation
is:
(A) Prefeasibility Mineral Resource
(B) Reconnaissance Mineral Resource
(C) Indicated Mineral Resource
(D) Feasibility Mineral Resource

59. The part of mineral resource estimation for which tonnage, densities, shape, physical
characteristics, grade and mineral content can be estimated with a high confidence i.e. based
on detailed exploration is:
(A) Inferred Mineral Resource
(B) Indicated Mineral Resource
(C) Measured Mineral Resource
(D) Feasibility Mineral Resource
60. Economically mineable part of Measured Mineral Resource is:
(A) Probable Mineral Reserves
(B) Proved Mineral Reserves
(C) Viable Mineral Reserves
(D) Mineable Mineral Reserves
61. The highest category of resources under UNFC system will have the code:
(A) (111)
(B) (211)
(C) (122)
(D) (334)
62. The lowest category of resources under UNFC system will have the code:
(A) (111)
(B) (211)
(C) (122)
(D) (334)
63. India's National Geo-Chemical Mapping (NGCM) Programme was initiated in:
(A) 2001-02
(B) 2005-06
(C) 2010-11
(D) 2015-16
64. The total area to be covered under National Geo-Chemical Mapping (NGCM) Programme is:
(A) 5.28 million sq. km
(B) 4.28 million sq. km
C) 3.28 million sq. km
(D) 10.28 million sq. km
65 One unit cell for the sampling under National Geo-Chemical Mapping (NGCM) Programme is:
(A) 2 km x 2 km
(B) 1 km x 1 km
(C) 0.5 km x 0.5 km
(D) 2.5 km x 2.5 km

66. The data so generated from the National Geo-Chemical Mapping (NGCM) Programme will
be used in:
(A) Mineral exploration to target concealed mineralised bodies in soil cover areas
(B) Soil fertility assessment
(c) Establishing environmental baseline of geochemical parameters
(D) all of above
67. Property of drilling mud which keeps drilled cuttings in place when the mud is not in
circulation is known as:
(A) Specific gravity
(B) Thicksotropy
(C) Viscosity
(D) Adhesion
68. Computation of bore-hole volume prior to well cementation is done by using:
(A) SP log
(B) Sonic log
(C) Calliper log
(D) GR log.
69. When a rock sample is soaked in a solvent that imparts fluorescence to the solution is:
called:
(A) Neutral cut
(B) Positive cut

(C) Negative cut
(D) Normal cut
70. Sampling is done:
(A) Parallel to the strike of the ore body
(B) Across the strike of the ore body
(C) Diagonal to the strike of the ore body
(D) In any possible direction
71. The Baramulla tree (Cat stemma commune) is a valuable indicator for:
(A) Fe
(B) Cu-Mo
(C) U
(D) Mn-Fe
72. In a virgin area where copper is expected, which method is used to start prospecting:
(A) Geobotanical
(B) Geophysical
(C) Geochemical
(D) Drilling
73. Cable tool drill is a version of the:

(A) Hand drill
(B) Churn drill
(C) Empire drill
(D) Diamond drill
74. Biogeochemical method of exploration include the:
(A) Chemical analysis of elements in vegetation
(B) Chemical analysis of underlying soils
(C) Chemical analysis of elements in vegetation and its underlying soils
(D) Analysis of biological characters of the soil
75. Process by which mined land is returned to its original state or better is known
(A) Refurbishing
(B) Reclamation
(C) Revolution
(D) Renovation
Q.1: The battery of electrical cap lamps comprises:
a) Copper-iron cells.
b) Iron - Manganese cells.
c) Nickel-iron cells.
d) Nickel-cobalt cells.
Q.2: Props are:
a) Mining methods.
b) Support between roof and floor in mine.
c) Type of lamps used in mine.
d) Type of drilling method.
Q.3: High explosives containing:
a) Nitroglycerine.
b) Sodium nitrate.
c) Ammonium nitrate.
d) Charcoal sulphur.
Q.4: Blasting gelatine is made up of :
a) Nitroglycerine and ammonium nitrate.
b) Nitroglycerine and sodium nitrate.
c) Nitroglycerine and guncotton.

d) Nitroglycerine only.
Q.5: Which is a safety explosive:
a) Monobel
b) Stonobel
c) Blasting gelatine
d) Cardox.
Q.6: ANFO stands for:
a) Ammonium Nitrate For ore.
b) Ammonium Nitrate Fuel oil.
c) Ammonium Nitrogen Fuel oil.
d) Asiatic Native Fuel oil.
Q.7 The drill holes which are driven vertically and make the sides of the excavation described
as:
a) Easers.
b) Sumpers.
c) Dressers.
d) Hole directors.
Q.8: Snake holes are:
a) Vertically drilled holes.

b) More of less horizontally drilled holes at the foot of a high bench.
c) inclined drilling holes.
d) Vertically drilled holes with two lateral openings.
Q.9: Match the foilowing columns :
1. Carbon dioxide i) White damp.
2. Carbon monoxide. ii) Fire damp.
3. Methane iii) Black damp.
4. Hydrogen sulphide iv) Stink damp
a) 1-ii, 2-i,3-iv, 4-iii
b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
c) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
d) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.
Q.10: The mining terminology, exploitation or winning is :
a) The process of blasting.
b) The process of extracting the ore or economic mineral from the earth.
c) The process of ventilation.
d) The detailed mapping of the ore body.

Q.11: The openings in the mine, which serve as a means of entry is known as:
a) Shafts
b) Adits.
c) Cross cut.
d) Stope.
Q.12: A level drive made from the hill side to meet the lode or ore body occurring inside the hill
is known as:
a) Shaft
b) Cross cut
c) Adit
d) Drift
Q.13: A hortzontal tunnel parallel to the strike of the lode or vein is termed as:
a) Cross cut
b) Adit
c) Paise
d) Drive or drift.
Q.14: The width of the ore body which can be economically mined is:
a) Sloping width.
b) Assay width.
c) Actual width.
d) Grady width.
Q.15: Minimum metal percentage at which mining is profitable, is known as:
a) Average grade.
b) Cut off grade.
c) Mill grade.
d) Economical grade.
Q.16: Strip mining is a method of:
a) Underground mining.
b) Opencast mining with a high degree of mechanisation.
c) Horizon mining.
d) Longwall mining.
Q.17: Dritt mining is generally employed:
a) For the underground mining.
b) For coal mining.
c) in the exploitation of placers
d) In the exploitation of copper ore.
Q.18: Choose the most suitable answer for Gophering:
a) It is a opencast mining method.

b) It is a under ground mining method.
c) It is a mining method, which is used for coal winning.
d) It is a underground mining method used for small rich ore bodies.
Q.19: The mining methods adopted in Rakha copper mine :
a) Cut and fill method
b) Room and pillar method.
c) Post and pillar method.
d) All the above.
Q.20 Longwall method is generally employed for:
a) Copper ore mining.
b) Iron ore mining.
c) Coal mining.
d) Gypsum mining.
Q.21: Longwall method is :
a) Generally applicable to thin coal seams.
b) Applied to deep mining.
c) Applicable to thick coal seams.
d) Applied to very deep mining and thick coal seams.

Q.22 Horizon mining for coal winning is more suitable where :
a) The coal seams are horizontal.
b) The coal seams are highly disturbed.
c) The coal seams are slightly dipping.
d) The coal seams are found above the earth's surface.
Q.23: When the material coilected to represent a rock type, or a formation or an ore body in
the quantitative sense then it is termed as:
(A) Specimen.
b) Sample
c) Both specimen and sample can be used.
d) Quantitative specimen.
Q.24: Grab sampling consists in :
a) Picking pieces of ore at one place only.
b) Picking pieces of ore at random to make up a sample.
c) Picking pieces of coal only.
d) Picking pieces of ore in a grid fashion.
Q.25:Coning and quartering is :
a) A mining method employed in unconsolidated ground.
b) A mining method employed for the diamond mining.
c) A method employed for obtaining a laboratory sample from the field sample.
d) A cutting and filling method employed in underground mining.
Q.26: "Salting" of an ore is done :
a) By adding common salts.
b) By removing salt form the ore.
c) By mixing substances for increasing the values in the ore sample.
d) By mixing substances for lowering the values in the ore samples.
0.27: The channel sampling is generally done:
a) Parallel the ore body.
b) Oblique the ore body.
c) Across the ore body.
d) At any direction in the ore body.
Q.28: The purpose of the bulk sampling of the coal is:
a) To study the washability
b) To study the carbon content.
c) To study the method of formation.
d) For grading purpose.
Q.29: The spacing of the trenches, pits and boreholes depend on :
a) The length of the ore body.

b) The modes of occurrence of the
c) The depth of the deposits.
d) The outcrops of the deposits.
Q.30: Minimum stoping width" is the:
a) Average width of the ore body.
b) Minimum width of the ore body.
c) Minimum distance between two ore body.
d) Minimum width required for mining.
Q.31: The grade which is available from property after actual mining is:
a) Computed grade.
b) Effective grade.
c) Pun-of-mine grade.
d) Pit head grade.
Q.32: The ore reserves for which tonnage and grade are computed party from specific
measurements and partly from projection for a reasonable distance on geologic evidence is
known as
a) Proved or measured ore reserves
b) Probable or indicated ore reserves.
c) Possible or inferred ore reserves.
d) Actual ore reserves.

Q.33: In the polygon method or estimation of reserves, the average thickness of the deposit is
calculated by :
a) Volume of material - Area of influence.
Volume of material
b) Area of influence
c) Volume of material x Area of influence
Volume − assay Product

d) 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙
Q.34: Number of cubic feet per ton of the ore is known as:
a) Effective grade.
b) Run-of-mine grade.
c) Tonnage factor.
d) Assay value.
Q.35: The tonnage factor may be determined by the formula:
a) Tf = 62.5 x Sp.gr
62.5 x Sp.gr.
b) Tf = 2240
2240
c) Tf = 62.5 x Sp.gr
62.5 x Sp.gr.
d) Tf = 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑟𝑒
Q.36: Isopaches are:
a) Lines joining points of equal vertical thickness in a bed.

b) Lines joining points of equal true thickness in a bed.
c) Lines joining points of equal elevation.
d) Lines of equal pressure.
Q.37: The lines joining points or equal vertical thickness in a bed known as:
a) Isopaches.
b) Isothicks
c) Contours.
d) Isochores.
Q.38: The difference between crushing and grinding:
a) Crushing produces relatively coarse material while grinding produces fine material
b) In crushing procedure crusher jaws and roils do not touch each other, while in grinding
procedure the machine parts come into contact with each other.
c) Crushing operation is commonly intermittent while grinding is generally continous operation.
d) All the above.
Q.39: Classifiers are:
a) Used to mix the materils of different sizes.
b) Used to separate the materials of different sizes.
c) Substances, which are mixed during crushing process of the ore.
d) The parts of a grinding machine.

Q.40: The function of coilectors in ore beneficiation is:
a) As a catalist.
B) To remove the water.
c) As a flotation regents.
d) To remove the impurities.
Q.41 : Pine Oil in ore beneficiation is used as a :
a) Coilector.
b) Frother.
c) Moslifers.
d) No use.
Q.42: To activate sphaterite, the activator is:
a) Sulphuric acid.
b) Sodium silicate.
c) Sodium sulphate.
d) Copper sulphate.
Q.43: For the depression of allicates and quartz in mineral beneficiation, the depressant....... is
used:
a) Sodium silicate.
b) Sulphuric acid.
c) Sodium sulphate.
d) Copper sulphate.
Q.44: The magnetic susceptibility of any mineral depends on
a) Its crystal structure.
b) Its chemical composition.
c) Its crystal structure and chemical composition.
d) Mode of lormation of the mineral
Q.45: The use to screen in ore beneficiation is:
a) To measure the grain sizes.
b) To size the crushed and ground material.
c) To separate the gangue minerals from ore.
d) To sort out the magnetic susceptible minerals.
Q.46: The specific gravity of the barytes is:
a) 4.8
b) 5.2
c) 5.4
d) 5.8
Q.47: Which of the foilowing method used, when the alze range of particles between minus 8
to plus 28 mesh:
a) Gavaty separation.
b) Heavy media separation.
c) Tabling.
d) Jigging.
Q.48: Tabling" method of separation is usually applied when the particle size range between:
a) Minus 10 to plus 100 mesh.
b) Minus 20 to plus 200 mesh.
c) Minus 28 to plus 200 mesh.
d) Minus 42 to plus 300 mesh.
Q.49: The most natural magnetic mineral is:
a) Hematite
b) Magnetite.
c) Ilmenite.
d) Franklinite.
Q.50: What is the maximum flotation pH of chalcopyrite :
a) 14.0
b) 13.8
c) 13.2
d) 11.8
Q.51: _________ is the process of agglomeration the fine particles by application of pressure:
a) Briquetting
b) Sintering
c) Pelletising.
d) Nodulising.
Q.52: Which of the foilowing methods of agglomeration involves two basic steps – balling and
firing ? :
a) Briquetting.
b) Sintering.
c) Pelletising.
d) Nodulising.
Q.53: Polygonal method of reserve estimation is used when :
a) Drill holes are equally spaced.
b) Drill holes occur in rectangular grid.
c) Drill holes are irregularly spaced.
d) Drill holes are considered to form.
Q.54: Isochores are lines joining the points of equal :
a) Thickness of an ore body measured by perpendicular drill holes.
b) Thickness of an ore body measured by inclined drill holes.
c) Thickness of an ore body measured by Vertical drill holes.

d) Depth of an ore body.
Q.55: Drift in mining terminology means:
a) The same as tunnel.
b) The same as adit
c) A horizontal tunnel parallel to the strike of the lode.
d) Opening from the shaft, passing through the country rock and reaches to the ore body.
Q.56: Cut off grade is:
a) The grade of ore ultimately fed to the beneficiation plant.
b) The grade of ore below which mining is uneconomical.
c) The grade of ore throughout the ore
d) Always the same as average grade.
Q.57: Salting of an ore is done:
a) By adding common salt.
b) By removing salt from the ore.
c) By mixing substances for increasing the values in the ore samples.
d) By mixing substances for lowering the values in the ore samples.
Q.58: Lines joining the points of equal elevation are known as:
a) Contours.
b) Isochones.
c) isopeths.
d) Stratum contours.
A. EXPLORATION METHODS
1. The outcrops of manganese deposits exhibit-_______ colour.
a) Black
b) Brown
c) Maroon
d) Waxy green
2. If an outcrop of a mineral deposit shows a prominent pinkish black colour it indicates the
presence of __________ deposits underneath.
a) Nickel
b) Uranium
c) Arsenic
d) Copper
3. A surface outcrop of limonite indicates the presence underneath of
a) Copper deposits only
b) Copper and some sulphide deposits
c) Copper and some oxide deposits
d) Oxides, Carbonates and Sulphides
4 The ochreous orange colour of limonite indicates the presence of
a) Galena
b) Molybdenite
c) Sphalerite
d) Bornite
5 The shapes of sulphide voids in certain leached outcrops are good indicators of the
characteristic predecessor mineral. Match the shape of the voids with their correct indicative
mineral deposit.
Shape of Voids Indicative mineral
A. Spear-shape 1. Rhodochrosite
B. Blades 2 Molybdenite
C. Plates 3. Arsenopyrite
D. Rhombs 4 Enargite
a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
b) A-3 B4 C2 D-1
c) A-4 B-3 C-I D-2
d) A-3 B-4 C-I D-2
6. As one moves from the Tropical zones towards the Polar regions, the concentration of
limestones
a) increases
b) decreases
c) first increases then decreases
d) first decreases then increases

7. Chloritic alteration of wall rocks is NOT a feature of
a) Clastic sedimentary rocks
b) Non-clastic sedimentary rocks
c) Acid igneous rocks
d) Metamorphic rocks
8. Extensive dolomitization is a characteristic feature of
a) molybdenum deposits
b) copper deposites
c) gold-silver deposits
d)lead-zinc deposits
9. Titanium-magnetite deposits are often
a) acid plutonic rocks
b)acid volcanic rocks
c) basic plutonic rocks
d) basic volcanic rocks
10. The Structure of Bombay High is
a) Doubly plunging anticline
b) doubly plunging syncline
c) Non-Plunging anticline
d) Non-Plunging syncline
11. The Bauxite deposits of Orissa are
a) positive topographic forms
b) negative topographic forms
c) structural elevations
d) tectonic deeps
12. Certain minerals show their oxidation products in the form of distinct "blooms that can be
spotted from air if in sufficiently high concentrations. Pink "blooms' are exhibited by
a) cobalt
b) vanadium
c) uranium
d) lead
13. Which of the foilowing minerals are most likely to occur together?
a) Va-Cu-Ni
b) Ni-Co-Au
c) Pb-Zn-Cu
d) VU-Fe
14. The Graphite deposits of Kalahandi, the Gamet deposits of Rajasthan and the Kyanite
deposits of Singhbhum are associated with
a) Igneous rocks
b) sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) all of above
15. Trenching involves
a) linear excavations
b) linear excavations in which one dimension is longer than the other
c) drilling wedge-shaped bore holes
d) digging even-sized pits
16. Drilling' is employed for
1) determining the stratigraphic rock sequence
2) locating and evaluating substances of economic value
3) extracting economically valuable
4) obtaining data for correlation
a) 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) all of the above are correct

17. Diamond drilling can be used to bore holes in
a) horizontal direction only
b) vertical direction only
c) horizontal and vertical directions
d) all directions
18. The most useful type of drilling for penetrating hard or abrasive ground is
a) Diamond drilling
b) Rotary drilling
c) Percussion drilling
d) Chum drilling
19. Which of the foilowing rotary drilling cannot assess?
a) Type of the rock
b) Mineralogy of a rock
c) Texture of a rock
d) All of the above
20. Which of the foilowing is a common method used for sampling of placer deposits?
a) Churn drilling
b) Auger drilling
c) Jet drilling
d) Rotary drilling
21. Chum drilling or cable-tool drilling is capable of drilling holes
a) horizontal directions only
b) vertical directions
c) inclined directions only
d) all of the above
22 Caliper logging is employed for determining
a) physical properties of rock formations
b) stratigraphic sequence of rock formations
c) variations in bore-hole diameters
d) porosity of reservoir fluids
23. The conductivity or rock formations can be measured by means
a) Electric logging
b) Induction logging
c) Sonic logging
d) Radiation logging
24. A Natural Gamma-ray log exhibits a "high response" from
a) shales
b) limestones
c) dolomite
d) coal
25. The Self-potential (SP) and Induced potential (IP) surveys to locate ore bodies are done by
a) Seismic Methods
b) magmatic method
c) Radiometric Methods
d) electromagnetic method
26. The average gravitational force of the earth is
a) 98cm/s2
b) 980cm/12
c) 9800 cm/s2
d) 980 cm/s
27. The value of Universal Gravitational Constant (G) in the S.I. units is
a) 6.67 x 10-8
b) 6.67 10-9
c) 6.67-10-10
d) 6.67 x 10-12
28. The difference between the observed and the predicted gravity values after applying all the
corrections is described as
a) Free-air anomaly
b) Free-air correction
c) Bouguer anomaly
d) Bouguer correction
29. Which of the foilowing is an example of "unstable" gravimeter?
a) Hartley gravimeter
b) Ising gravimeter
c) Worden gravimeter
d) Wright gravimeter
30. The gravity prospecting methods are useful in the exploration of oil and gas to determine
a) the thickness of sedimentary
b) the nature of trap rocks
c) the potential of oilfields
d) none of the above
31. Which of the foilowing is commonly used as a "drilling mud" in the exploration of oil and
gas?
a) Heavyspar
c) Flourspar
32. The total magnetic field strength is weakest at
a) O'latitude
b)30N − 30°S latitude
c) 90 latitude
d) 60 N-60 S latitudes
33. The unit used to express the Magnetic field strength in the M.K.S. system is called
a) Oersted
b) Tesla
c) Weber
d) Maxwell
34. Magnetic materials having extremely high magnetic susceptibility are
a) ferromagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) diamagnetic
d) Non-magnetic
35 Pick out the sequence of minerals that are arranged according to their increased magnetic
susceptibility values.
a) Quartz-Anhydrite Chromite Magnetite
b) Quartz-Chromite-Anhydrite Magnetite
c) Magnetite Quartz-Chromite-Anhydrite
d) Anhydrite-Quartz-Chromite Magnetite
36. The magnetism that is produced during the formation –bearing minerals at low
temperatures is called
a) Thermo-remnant magnetism
b) Depositional remnant magnetism
c) Viscous remnant magnetism
d) Chemical remnant magnetism
37. Detailed survey of oil and gas is done
a) Seismic reflection
b) Seismic refraction
c) Geomagnetic Methods
d) Electromagnetic Methods
38. 'Hodograph is by
a) an instrument used to record the time taken by a seismic wave travel from the point of
explosion to a seismograph
b) a curve plotted on graphs which depicts the time taken by a seismic to wave to travel from
the point of explosion to a seismograph
c) an instrument which records the intensity of earthquake shocks
d) a graph showing the variation of seismic velocities with depth

39. The "hodograph of a reflected wave is
a) hyperbolic
b) parabolic
c) rectilinear
d) curvilinear
40. Which of the foilowing geophysical methods of exploration is of particular significance in

defining oilfield traps such as anticlines and salt domes?
a) Seismic refraction
b) Geomagnetic Method
c) Electromagnetic Method
d) Gravity method
41. The presence of a well-defined "structural high" near Lunej in the Cambay basin has been
brought to light as a result of
a) Resistivity surveys
b) Bouguer Correction
c) Seismic Reflection Survey
d) Studying the thermo-remnant magnetism
42. The P-wave velocities are highest in
a) Air
b) Water
c) Sand
d) Granite
43. In terms of electric conductivity, granites can be described as
a) Good conductors
b) Bad conductors
c) Moderate conductors
d) Semi-conductors
44. Which of the foilowing has the least electrical resistivity?
a) Diamond
b) Sulphur
c) Clay
d) Anthracite
45. In the Resistivity Sounding method
a) the position of electrodes is fixed while that of the central point is changed
b) the position of electrodes is changed with respect to a fixed central point
c) the position of all electrodes is changed simultaneously
46. Electric Profiling Method is used to locate

a) Horizontal discontinuities
b) Vertical discontinuities
c) Both Horizontal and Vertical
d) None of the above
47. The 'Schlumberger Configuration’ is used in
a) Electric profiling
b) Magnetic profiling
c) Geomagnetic profiling
d) Seismic profiling
48. The Self-Potential or Spontaneous Polarization (SP) Method is most suitable for the
exploration of
a) sulphides
b) sulphates
c) oxides
d) carbonates
49.The boundaries of the Barakar rocks in the Kamthi Coal field of Maharashtra was delineated
using
a) Gravity surveys
b) Resistivity surveys
c) Seismic Reflection surveys

d) Geomagnetic surveys
50. Dispersion of elements is favoured by
i Low melting and boiling points
ii Odd atomic numbers and atomic weights
iii Very low atomic volumes
iv Strong polarization of ions in the lattice
a) I and III only
b) III and III only
c) I, II and IV only
d) All of the above
51. Elements which are found in the dispersed state generally have
a) very large ionic radii
b) very small ionic radii
c) very large or very small ionic radii
d) intermediate ionic radii
52. The primary geochemical environment is characterized by
a) high temperatures and low pressures
b) high temperatures and pressures
c) high temperatures and pressures and restricted circulation of fluids
d) high temperatures and pressures, restricted circulation of fluids and low free-oxygen content
53. Which of the foilowing pairs of elements do not commonly form an association?
a) K-Rb
b) Ca-Sr
c) Al-Si
d) Zr- Hf
54. In the mafic igneous rocks, the most common geochemical association is
a) Si-K-Na
b) Fe-Mg-Ti
c) Ag-Au-As
d) Zn-Pb-Ba-F-Sr
55. The common indicator elements in the Skarn deposits are
a) Cu-Mo
b) Pt-Cr-Ni
c) Mo-Zn-Cu
d) Au-Ag
56. In the uranium deposits of the sandstone type, the pathfinder is
a) Se
b) Cu
c) As
d) Zn
57. Syngenetic dispersion patterns are NOT formed due to
a) Igneous activity
b) Granitisation
c) Sedimentation
d) Hydrothermal solutions
58. Geochemical anomalies are termed as Significant' when
a) they are related to the ore deposits
b) they are unrelated to the ore deposits
c) confirm ore deposits
59. Significant anomalies' are characterized by
a) very high concentration of indicator elements
b) very high concentration of path finders
c) very low concentration of indicator elements
d) very low concentration of path finders
60. In stream-sediment sampling, the geochemical anomalies are noticed a

a) upstream of the deposit
b) downstream of the deposit
c) both upstream and downstream of the deposit
61. Mercury vapour sampling is used as a guide to
a)Metallic ore deposits
b) Non-metallic ore deposits
c) Sulphide ore deposits
d) Carbonate ore deposits
62. Match the foilowing and choose the correct answer
Vapour Mineral deposits
A. Mercury 1. Mercury deposits
B Carbondioxide 2 Uranium deposits
C. Radon 3. Skarn and Greisen
D. Fluorine
a) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-3
b) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
c) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
d) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

63. Geochemical soil anomalies are mostly due to
a) Hydrothermal accumulation
b) Heavy Mineral accumulation
c) Residual accumulation
d) Selective concentration
64 Match the foilowing and choose the correct answer.
Sample source Cause of Anomalies
A. Stream sediments 1. Selective concentration
B. Vegetation 2. Heavy mineral accumulation
C Marine sediments 3. Primary dispersion
D. Sea water 4. Secondary dispersion
a) A-I B-2 C-3 D-4
b) A-4 B-3C-2 D-1
c) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
65 Geobotanical prospecting involves

a) visual observation of plants as a guide to buried ore
b) chemical analysis of plant organs as a guide to buried ore
c) study of the distribution patterns of various plant species
d) study of the growth rates of plants in various mineralized zones
66. The plants which indicate the presence of groundwater are described as
a) Hydrophytes
b) Halophytes
c) Phreatophytes
d) Xerophytes
67. Halophytes are the plants that are indicative of
a) Saline deposits
b) Fresh water deposits
c) Hydrocarbons
d) Non-metallic ores
Plant Indicator D. Astragalus
A. Alfalfa Deposits
B. Salicornea 1. Groundwater
C. Calamine violet 2 Borate-rich saline deposits

3. Zinc 4. Selenium
a) A-2 B-I C-4 D-3
b) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-I
c) A-4 B-2 C-I D3
d) A-I B-2 C-3 D-4
69. "Ocimum homblal" is a universal plant indicator for
a) Copper
c) Iron
Plant indicator 1. Lead
A Gypsophilia patrini 2. Boron
B. Eriogonum inflatum 3. Gypsum
C. Salsola nitraria 4. Copper
Element
D. Erianthus gigantus
a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
b) A-3 B-4 C-I D-2

c) A-I B-3 C-2 D4
d) A-2 B-I C-3 D-4
71. Microfossils are characterised by
a) restricted geographical but wide-spread geological distribution
b) restricted geological but wide-spread geographical distribution
c) restricted geological and geographical distribution
d) wide-spread geological and geographical distribution
72 Thenatocoenose' is
a) the typical microfossil assemblage of Upper Cretaceous period
o) the typical microfossil assemblage of Lower Eocene period
c) the total fossil assemblage in a bed
d) the total fossil assemblage in a formation
73. Microfossils are useful in
I. Intra-basin correlation
II. Inter-continental correlation
III. Micro-zonation
IV. Reconstruction of Paleo-environments
a) I, II & IV are correct

b) II, III & IV are correct
c) I,II & III are correct
d) All of the above are correct
74. Which of the foilowing depicts the correct sequence of occurrence of microfossils as one
moves from the Littoral zone to the Abyssal Zone?
a) Diatoms -Ostracods- Foraminifers -Radiolarians
b) Diatoms-Foraminifers- Ostracods -Radiolarians
c) Foraminifers-Diatoms-Ostracods-Radiolarians
d) Radiolarians-Foraminifers-Diatoms-Ostracods
75. Indication about the Paleo-temperatures can be obtained by
a) studying the dextral/sinistral coiling ratios of some microfossils
b) drilling bore holes microfossil assemblages of different ages
c) calculating the abundance of fossil spores from different horizons
d) utilising the depth sensitivity of some foraminifers
76. Which one of the foilowing microfossils is typical of deep waters?
a) Elphidium
b) Globigerina
c) Ammonia
d) Nodosaria
77. The systematic micro-paleontological studies carried out by the ONGC in the Jaisalmer area
have revealed that a marine transgression started in the area in Paleocene and continued till
upper Middle Eocene. The beginning and end of this marine transgression is represented
respectively by the microfossils
a) Globorotalia and Globotruncana
b) Globorotalia and Globogerapsis
c) Globigerina and Nummulites
d) Nummulites and Nodosaria
78. Which of the foilowing instruments is NOT used in geochemical prospecting?
a) Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer
b) Emission Spectrograph
c) Flame Photometer
d) Optical Microscope
79. Gold prospecting in both geophysical and geochemical methods is most effectively done by
a) Electromagnetic surveys
b) Remote Sensing
c) Seismic Profiling
d) Soil analysis
80. Which sampling method is resorted to when the exposure of outcrops is scarce?
a) Bulk Sampling
b) Drilling
c) Trenching
d) Well-logging
81. A good stratigraphic guide for the prospecting of Pb-Zn ores in India is the presence of
a) Impure calcareous rocks
b) Ultramafic rocks
c) Ultra-metamorphosed rocks
d) Sheared and migmatised zones
82. Air-bome electromagnetic method is best suited for the prospecting of
a) Sulphide ores
b) Ferro-magnesian ores
c) native metals
d) Base metals
83. "DOVEMAP" is one of the activities undertaken by the Geological Survey of India (GSI). This
relates to
a) Extensive seismotectonic studies and consultancy services
b) Geochemical mapping for mineral targeting in concealed terrains
c) Development of Village Economy Through Mineral Appraisal programme
d) Geoenvironmental studies of Sedimentary basins
84. The Geological Mapping undertaken by GSI is on the scale of

a) 1:50,000
b) 1:65,000
c) 1:40,000
d) 1:25,000
85. So far, the Geological Survey of India has completed _______ of the systematic geological
mapping of the country.
a) 92.4%
b) 95.6%
c) 96.8%
d) 97.94%
86. Exploratory drilling for base metals and gold has been carried out by the Geological Survey
of India in Karimanahalli, Mata Dungri, Rudiyokhokhro and Rengatur sectors. Match these
sectors to the states to which they belong
Sector State
1. Karimanahalli A. Maharashtra
2 Mata Dungri B. Bihar
3. Rudiyo-Khokhro C. Rajasthan
4. Rengatur D. Kamataka
a) 1-D 2-C 3-B 4-A

b) 1-A 2-C 3-B 4-D
c) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D
d) 1-D 2-B 3-C 4-A
87. Multi-sensor airbome surveys were carried out by GSI over parts of Kotri lineament in the
states of Madhya Pradesh and Orissa to locate
a) kimberlite pipe zones
b) gold-bearing lodes
c) multi-mineral deposits of Pb, Zn and Cu
d) hydrocarbon-bearing limestones
88 The Puga Geothermal field is located in
a) Kinnaur district, Himachal Pradesh
b) Salbardi area, Madhya Pradesh
c) Chamoli district, U.P.
d) Ladakh district, J & K
89. During 1997-98 dinosaurian nests of megalalithids type and probable multiple tract sites
were discovered by the GSI in Maharashtra from the sediments of
a) Triassic age
b) Jurassic age
c) Cretaceous age
d) Permo-Carboniferous age
90. GSI was established in
a) 1831
b) 1851
c) 1947
d) 1952
(B) MINERAL PROCESSING, MINING GEOLOGY AND MINERAL ECONOMICS
1. Screening is an ore beneficiation process which takes advantage of the differences in the
a) Size of the particles
b) Cleavage or fractures of the particles
c) Specific gravity of the particles
d) Hardness of the particles
e) Volatility and solubility of the particles
2. Comminution is the process of

a) Size reduction
b) concentration of valuble
c) Liberation of valuable minerals from the gangue
d) Sorting of the particles
3. Sorting of grains is generally carried out by instruments called
a) jaw crushers
b) Cone crushers
d) Vibrating screens
c) Classifiers
4. Hydraulic classifiers sorts out materials according to
i. Size specification
ii. Specific gravity
iii. Share of the grains
a) (i) only
b) (i) and (ii) only
c) (i) and (iii) only
d) All of the above
5. Gravity separation is effective when the difference in the specific gravity of the valuable and
the gangue is
a) 1
b) <1
c) >1
6. In the sink-float process or the heavy media separation
a) the waste separates as float while the valuable as sink products
b) the valuable separates as float while the waste separates as sink products
c) the density of the medium is greater than that of the gangue and the valuables
7. Jigging is a type of gravity separation process that is applicable to the particles of the size
range
a) -34 to -8 mesh
b) -8 to +28 mesh
c) -28 to +200 mesh
8. In a Wilfley Table used for the gravity Separation of the ores, the heavier particles settle
down
a) in the direction of the motion of the table
b) in the direction of the Gravitational force
c) in the direction of the Resultant force

9. Which of the foilowing is the most successful method for chrome ore beneficiation?
a) Spiraling
b) Jigging
c) heavy – media separation
d) tabling
10. Arrange the minerals: Franklinite - Magnetite-Ilmenite - Hematite Pyrite in the increasing
order of their magnetic susceptibilities
a) Ilmenite Franklinite Pyrite Hematite Magnetite
b) Franklinite Pyrite<llmenite Hematite Magnetite
c) Pyrite<Hematite-Ilmenite<Franklinite<Magnetite
d) Pyrite Hematite Franklinite-Ilmenite Magnetite
11. Which of the foilowing is the most feebly magnetic among
a) Quartz
b) rutile
c) Magnesite
d) galena
12 Permanent magnets are used in
a) Low-intensity magnetic separators
b) High-intensity magnetic separators
c) Wet magnetic separators

13. ilmenite is separated from chromite by
a) Gravity separation
b) Magnetic separation
d) Froth flotation process
c) Electrostatic separation
14. Which of the foilowing floatable minerals possess hydrophobic surfaces?
i) Coal
ii) Graphite
iii) Sulphur
iv) Diamond
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
b) (i)(ii) and (iii) only
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
d) All of the above
15. The object of the froth flotation process is to make certain ore minerals
a) Hydrophobic
b) Hydrophilic
c) Either hydrophobic or hydrophilic
a) None of the above

16 Briquetting, sintering and pelletising are the methods of
a) Amalgamation
b) Agglomeration
c) Comminution
d) Froth flotation
17. Which of the foilowing is a process of agglomerating the fine particles by the application of
pressure?
a) Briquetting
b) Sintering
c) Pelletising
d) Nodulising
18. In the open-pit mining, the ratio of the waste rock mined to ore is known as the
a) Working ratio
b) Stripping ratio
c) Recovery ratio
19. A horizontal entry into an ore body is called
a) Adit
b) Shaft
c) Bench
d) Pit
20 Which of the foilowing are more suitable for underground mining of ore bodies situated at
great depths?
a) Horizontal shafts
b) Inclined shafts
c) Vertical shafts
21. Which of the foilowing is an underground mining method using artificially supported
openings?
a) Open stoping
b) Shrinkage opening
c) Room and pillar mining
d) Longwall mining
22 Breast stoping is employed for the working of
a) moderately thick horizontal or low-dipping ore bodies
b) very thick horizontal or low-dipping ore bodies
c) steeply dipping ore bodies with strong ore and strong wall
d) stratified or bedded deposits

23. Minerals in which a country has total inadequacy and depend upon foreign sources for its
needs are described as
a) Strategic minerals
b) Critical minerals
c) Essential minerals
d) Expendable minerals
24 Which of the foilowing minerals are strategic for India?
a) Tin, zinc, copper, chromium and graphite
b) Tin, sulphur, nickel, cobalt and silver
c) Petroleum, lead, zinc, copper and vanadium
d) Uranium, thorium, ilmenite, zircon and tungsten
25. Strategic and critical minerals that are mined only by the state and its agencies are called
a) A-Schedule minerals
b) B-Schedule minerals
c) C-schedule minerals
26.Which of the foilowing types of jigs are employed to treat coals below 1.2cm in size?
a) Harz jig
b) Baum jig
c) Feldspar jig
d) All of the above
27. Coilection is the process of
a) Sorting of minerals according to their grain size
b) Sorting of minerals according to their specific gravity
c) Changing the surface tension of a solvent
d) Producing a water-repellent coating on the mineral particles
28. Xanthates' and 'acrofloats' are the examples of
a) Coilectors
b) Frothers
c) Modifiers
d) Dispersants
29. Amines are
a) Cationic coilectors
b) Anionic coilectors
c) Oily coilectors
d) Frothers
30. Chemically the frothing agents are
a) Polar inorganic compounds

b) Non-polar inorganic compounds
c) Polar organic compounds
d) Non-polar organic compounds
31. Nodulising is the process of agglomeration involving
a) Application of pressure
b) Incipient fusion of particles
c) Roiling of particles to form small pellets
d) Partial fusion of particles at low temperatures
32. The term 'Liquidation grade' is applied to
a) a grade of an ore which is infested with gangue inpurity
b) a grade of an ore whose price is forced
c) a grade of an unworkable ore deposit
33. According to the Hoofer's classification of ore reserves, the term 'Possible Reserve' implies
a) a geologically identified ore body
b) a geologically presumed ore body
c) a tentatively calculated reserve
d) a suspected reserve
34. The ore reserves that are computed from evidence provided by pits, trenches and drill holes
are described as
a) Measured reserves
b) Indicated reserves
c) Inferred reserves
35. The feasibility report of a mine is based on
a) Measured reserves
b) Indicated reserves
c) Inferred reserves
36. According the classification of ore reserves adopted by the Geological Survey of India, the
C2 category denotes
a) Developed reserves
b) Proved reserves
c) Probable reserves
d) Possible reserves
37. Which of the foilowing statements is Incorrect?
a) India produces 89 minerals out of which 4 are fuel minerals, 11 are metallic, 52 are non-
metallic and 22 are minor minerals.
b) India ranks 3rd in production of coal & lignite and barytes

c) India is the world's largest producer of mica blocks and mica splitting
d) India has reached a self-sufficiency level of 55% in crude oil production.
38. At the 1996-97 level of production, the life span of the crude oil reserves in India is
estimated as
a) 10 years
b) 15 years
c) 20 years
d) 30 years
39. The GSI has to its credit geological mapping, covering an area of approximately
a) 3.146 million sq.km
b) 4.456 million sq.km
c) 7.289 million sq km
d) 13.862 million sq.
40. In Antarctica, India has completed geological cartography and thematic mapping of an area
of
a) 10,000 sq.km
b) 15,000 sq.km
c) 20,000 sq km
d) 25,000 sq.km
41. India's recoverable reserves of copper ore are of the order of
a) 4300 million tonnes
b) 7200 million tonnes
c) 650 million tonnes
d) 3.52 million tonnes
42. Arrange the foilowing in the increasing order of ore abundance in india.
a) Iron ore > Manganese ore > Magnesite > Chromite
b) Magnesite >Iron ore > Chromite > Manganese ore
c) Magnesite > Chromite > Iron ore > Manganese ore
d) Manganese ore > Chromite > Magnesite > Iron ore
43. The Department of Mines is NOT responsible for
a) coal
b) petroleum & natural gas
c) atomic minerals
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
44 The Old Bisanatham Mine is engaged in the mining of
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Uranium
45. Which of the foilowing is renowned for the mining of barytes in India?
a) Hutti Gold Mines Limited
b) Rajasthan State Mines and Minerals Limited
c) Andhra Pradesh Mining Development Corporation
d) National Mineral Development Corporation
46. The Yappamana Mine is famous for mining of
a) Diamonds
b) Copper
c) Silver
d) Gold
47. The Old Bisanatham and Chigargunta gold mines are located in India.
a) Kamataka
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Bihar
48. The Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM)is the principal government agency responsible for
a) the survey and exploration of all minerals, other than natural gas, petroleum, and atomic
minera
b) the assessment of geological and regional mineral resources of the country
c) compiling exploration data and mineral maps and for providing access to the latest
information is respect of mineral resources in the country
d) detailed exploration of various minerals/ores by drilling, and exploratory mining
49. The main constraint in Lead production in the country is
a) inadequacy of lead ore reserves
b) lack of proper machinery for drilling
c) inadequate technology
d) low tenor of the lead ores
50. The highest production of zinc in the country is from the smelter
a) Debari (Rajasthan)
b) Vizag (Andhra Pradesh)
c) Chanderiya (Rajasthan)
d) Tundoo (Bihar)
51. The role of Mineral Exploration Corporation Limited (MECL) can be best described as
a) Survey and Exploration
b) Regulation and Conservation
c) Mining and Processing

d) Export and Import
52 The Mines Act was promulgated in
a) 1950
b) 1952
c) 1957
d) 1964
53. The Minor minerals come under the purview of
a) The Mineral Concession Rules, 1960
b) The Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 1988
c) The Union Government
d) The State Governments
54. According to the First Schedule of the Mines and Minerals (regulation and development)
Act, 1957, which of the foilowing are NOT specified as "Atomic Minerals"?
a) Beryl and other beryllium-bearing
b) Lithium-bearing minerals.
c) Minerals of the "rare earths" group
d) Niobium-bearing minerals
e) None of the
PETROLEUM GEOLOGY
1. In Bombay Offshore, limestone has acted as a
(a) Source rock
(b) Cap rock
(c) Reservoir rock
(d) Both 'b' and 'c'
2. The porosity of commercial oil sand is usually in the range of
(a) 5-10%
(b) 10-25%
(c) 25-35%
(d) 30-40%
3. About half of the world's petroleum occurs in the
(a) Sandstone reservoir
(b) Carbonate reservoir
(c) Shale reservoir
(d) Evaporite reservoir
4. A type of interparticle porosity created by shattering effect of relatively large sedimentary

particles which prevent in filling pores space beneath them by finer clastic particle, is called
(a) Fenestral porosity
(b) Shelter porosity

(c) Moldic porosity
(d) Channel porosity
5. A carbonate reservoir rock having 10-15% porosity, is said to have
(a) Poor porosity
(b) Fair porosity
(c) Good porosity
(d) Very good porosity
6. Statistically, 87% of oil and gas reserves comes from
(a) Mesozoic rocks
(b) Tertiary rocks
(c) Palaeozoic rocks
(d) Mesozoic and Tertiary rocks
7. Palaeozoic rocks contain approximately …………………. of the gas reservoirs
(a) 60%
(b) 50%
(c) 30%
(d) 20%
8. Which of the foilowing rocks can not act as a cap rock

(a) Gypsum
(b) Shale
(c) Anhydrite
(d) None of the above
9. Significant hydrocarbon generation
(a) 50°F
(b) 100 F
(c) 150°F
(d) 300° F
10. Which of the foilowing is a solid or semi-solid petroleum
(a) Gilsonite
(b) Asphalt
(c) Albertite
(d) All of the above
11. A rock having…………. is most suitable reservoir for petroleum
(a) High porosity high permeability
(b) High porosity small permeability
(c) Small porosity small permeability
(d) Small porosity high permeability

12. Which of the foilowing forces does not play any role in the migration of oil
(a) Capilarity
(b) Buoyancy
(c) Gravity
13. The oil producing area of Cambay Basin is confined to
(a) Eocene series
(b) Oligocene series
(c) Miocene series
(d) Pliocene series.
14. The oil producing zone of Bombay High is in the confined to
(a) Miocene sandstone
(b) Miocene limestone
(c) Oligocene sandstone
(d) Oligocene limestone
15. Which of the foilowing petroleum deposits is not in Assam
(a) Nahorkatiya
(b) Digboi
(c) Mukum
(d) Ankaleswar
16. Kalol and Nawgam petroleum
(a) Maharshtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal
17. is associated with
(a) Surma series
(b) Tipam series
(c) Barail series
(d) Jaintia series
18. The Digboi oil field is located on
(a) Asymmetrical anticlines
(b) Normal faults
(c) Major thrust faults
(d) Both 'a' and 'c'
19. Which of the foilowing theories is related with the origin of petroleum
(a) Brthelot's alkaline-carbide theory
(b) Mendileef's carbide theory
(c) Cosmic theory
(d) Moissan's volcanic theory
(e) All of the above
20. Which of the foilowing is the richest oil deposits in India
(a) Digboi oil field
(b) Nahorkatiya oil field
(c) Bombay High
(d) Ankleshwar oil field
21. The oil deposits of Bombay High is estimated to be around
(a) 2 billion tones
(b) 4 million tones
(c) 3 billion tones
(d) 4 billion tones
22. Which of the foilowing is the most stable of all the petroleum hydrocarbons
(a) C₂H6
(b) CH4
(c) C3H8
(d) C4H10
23. Natural gas as it comes from the well is classified in the field as dry gas, lean gas, or wet gas
according to the
(a) Amount of natural gas liquid vapours it contains
(b) Temperature of the natural gas
(c) Pressure under which it retains in the reservoir
24. A natural gas containing less than 0.1 gallon natural gas liquid vapours per 1000 cubic feet is
referred as
(a) Wet gas
(b) Lean gas
(c) Dry gas
(d) Both 'a' and 'b'
25. The principal gaseous impurities in natural gas are
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbondioxide
(c) Hydrogen sulphide

26. Traps that are formed chiefly as a result of folding and faulting are called
(a) Stratigraphic traps
(b) Structural traps
(c) Combination traps
(d) Both 'b' and 'e'
27. Which of the foilowing traps are associated with unconformities
(a) Structural traps
(b) Combination traps
(c) Primary stratigraphic traps
(d) Secondary stratigraphic trans
28. The transformation of a primary petroleum-like organic material into petroleum begins with
its deposition in the sediments in a
(a) Oxidizing environment
(b) Reducing environment
(c) Both of the above
(d) Glacial environment
29. The pipe through which oil or gas or both are brought from the reservoir to the surface is
called
(a) Tuhing
(b) Surface pipe

(c) whilpstock
(d) Drill pipe
30. About 58% of petroleum is extracted from
(a) Palaeozoic rocks
(b) Mesozoic rocks
(c) Cenozoic rocks
(d) Precambrian rocks
31.Oil shales contain
(a) Solid hydrocarbon
(b) Gaseous hydrocarbon
(c) Liquid hydrocarbon
32. What thickness of cover rock is generally thought necessary to generate petroleum and
natural gas from organic material
(a) 1000 m
(b) 1500 m
(c) 3000 m
(d) 2000 m
33. The maximum amount of oil and gas (about 60%) found in
(a) Limestone
(b) Dolomite
(c) Quartzite
(d) Sandstone
34. Average oil s yield about
(a) 25 to 30 gal of petroleum per ton of shale
(b) 10 to 20 gal of petroleum per ton of shale
(c) 30 to 50 gal of petroleum per ton of shale
(d) 50 to 70 gal of petroleum per ton of shale
35. Which type of petroleum trap was most easily discovered in the early days of petroleum
exploration
(a) Salt domes
(b) Fault traps
(c) Anticlines
(d) Stratigraphic traps
36. The crude oil containing less than 1 % sulphur and density below 0.85, is classified as
(a) Paraffinic-napthenic crudes
(b) Paraffinic crudes
(c) Aromatic crudes
(d) Asphaltic crudes

37. Wellsite geologist detects the oil in the mud by..... under ultraviolet light
(a) Fluorescence
(b) Phosphorescence
(c) Thermoluminescence
38. Secondary migration of hydrocarbon takes place from
(a) Source rock to reservoir rock
(b) Reservoir rock to source rock.
(c) Reservoir rock to a trap
(d) Trap to the surface
39. The red sandstone in the immediate vicinity of most active acquires carbonate cement with
excess contents of
(a) Light isotopes of carbon and oxygen
(b) Heavy isotopes of carbon and oxygen
(c) Heavy isotope of carbon and light isotope of oxygen
(d) Light isotope of carbon and heavy isotope of oxygen
40. Which of the foilowing methods of recovery is applied for the recovery of high- viscosity
crude oil
(a) Miscible flooding
(b) Water flooding

(c) Fire flooding
(d) Steam flooding
41. .............Formed due to change in reservoir power and the periphery partly of the reservoir
is partly defined by edge water resulting from loss of permeability
(a) Convex trap reservoir
(b) Permeability trap reservoir
(c) Fault trap reservoir
(d) Piercement trap reservoir
42. About 90% of the stratigraphic oil traps are in
(a) Canada
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Russia
(d) Saudi Arabia
43. The "anticlinal theory" of trapment of oil and gas was put forward, in 1861, by
(a) E.B. Andrews
(b) Sterry Hunt
(c) A.L. Levorsen
(d) Both 'a' and 'b'
44. The "anticlinal" traps are classified as

(a) Concave traps
(b) Non-concave traps
(c) Convex traps
(d) Non-convex traps
45. Regarding oil production from oil pools, the "MER" stands for
(a) Minimum Economic Recovery
(b) Maximum Economic Recovery
(c) Minimum Efficient Recovery
(d) Maximum Efficient Rate
(e) Both 'b' and 'd'
46. Presence of... In some petroleums indicates that the temperature of such petroleums has
never exceeded 200 °C and this suggests that origin of petroleum is a low temperature
phenomenon
(a) Albertite
(b) Torbanite
(c) Porphyrins
(d) Bitumen
47. Some of the factors that may affect the interfacial tension between crude oil and reservoir
waters in petroleum reservoir are given below.
Choose the correct answer(s)
I. An increase temperature decreases the interfacial tension

II. An increase in pressure increases the interfacial tension
III. An increase in pressure decreases the interfacial tension
IV. A decrease in viscosity difference between oil and water decreases the interfacial
tension
(a) Only Il and III are correct
(b) Only I and III are correct
(c) Only I, III and IV are correct
(d) Only I is correct
48. In which of the foilowing sediments the capillary displacement pressure of water against oil
is highest
(a) Silt
(b) Sand
(c) Clay
(d) Granules
49. The secondary recovery of oil is done by
(a) Fire flooding
(b) Steam flooding
(c) Water flooding
50. Bottom-hole reservoir pressure can be derived by which of the foilowing?
(a) The amount of gas recorded on the chromatograph after pulling the drill-pipe out of the
hole and returning to bottom
(b) The amount of solid cuttings suspended in the drilling mud system
(c) Drill-stem test shut-in pressure measurements
(d) The diameter of the drill hole

ENVIRONMENT GEOLOGY
1. Which of the foilowing statement is not correct?
(A) The Earth is an open system in which there is a continuous recycling of earth material
(B) The Earth is a system with four parts i.e. Atmosphere, Hydrosphere, Lithosphere and Biosphere
(C) We are in the resource crisis due to overpopulation and growing demand society
(D) Our earth environment is being influenced by human activities
2. Which of the foilowing is not a part of physical environment?
(A) Atmosphere
(B) Pedosphere
(C) Lithosphere
(D) Plants
3. Natural Geohazards is:
1. Volcanic Eruptions
2. Avalanches
3. Failure of Dams
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
4. Which of the foilowing hazard is natural in character but influenced by human activities
(A) Subsidence in mining areas
(B) Tsunamis
(C) Landslides in Hilly areas
(D) Heavy Rainfall
5. Match Part-I with Part-II and find the correct combination:
Part-I Part-II
1. Wind i.floods
2. Heavy rains ii.Earthquake
3.Crustal movement iii.Hurricanes
4. Unstable slope iv.Landslide
(A) 1i-2ii-3iii-4iv
(B) 1ii-2iii-3iv-4i
(C) 1iii-2i-3ii-4iv
(D) 1iv-2iii-3ii-4i
6. The natural sources for the groundwater poilution are:
1. Minerals present in the rocks
2. Agricultural activities
3. Saltwater intrusion
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) I and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
7. Effects of groundwater poilution include:
1. Water born diseases
2. Contaminated agricultural and livestock products
3. Health problems due to high concentration of inorganic and heavy metals
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
8. Dental Fluorosis and Skeletal fluorosis are caused by the high concentration of_______ in
groundwater:
(A) Arsenic
(B) Fluoride
(C) Mercury
(D) Lead
9. Methemoglobinemia or blue-baby disease is caused by the high concentration______ in drinking

water:
(A) Arsenic
(B) Fluoride
(C) Nitrates
(D) Sulphates
10. As per the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) the maximum permissible limit of "Nitrates" in drinking
water is:
(A) 200 mg/l
(B) 150 mg/l
(C) 145 mg/l
(D) 45mg/l
11. As per the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) the maximum permissible limit of "Fluoride" in drinking
water is:
(A) 1.5 mg/1
(B) 2.5 mg/1
(C) 3.5 mg/1
(D) 100 mg/l
12.As per the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) the maximum permissible limit of "Lead" in drinking
water is:
(A) 1.0 mg/1
(B) 0.5 mg/1
(C) 0.3 mg/1
(D) 0.1 mg/l
13. The Water (Prevention and Control of Poilution) Act was passed in:
(A) 1956
(B) 1966
(C) 1974
(D) 1980
14. Temporary hardness of water is due to the:
(A) Bicarbonates of Cu and Mg
(B) Carbonates of Fe and Si
(C) Sulphates
(D) Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
15. Which of the foilowing type of water has least impurities?
(A) Atmospheric water
(B) Surface water
(C) Underground water
(D) Industrial water
16. Abiotic environment does not include:
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Soil
(D) Plants
17. Which of the foilowing is not considering as particulate poilutant?
(A) Smoke
(B) Dust particles
(C) Radiations

18. The primary air poilutant is:
(A) CO
(B) NO₂
(C) SO₂
(D) All the above
19. The secondary air poilutant is:
(A) CO
(B) Ozone
(C) HNO3
(D) Both (B) and (C)
20. The main sources of greenhouse gases due to human activity are:
1. Burning of fossil fuels
2. Deforestation leading to higher carbon dioxide concentrations in the air
3. Use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) I and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
21. Greenhouse gases which is present in very high quantity is:
(A) Propane
(B) Ethane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Methane
22. Exchange of outgoing and incoming radiations that keeps Earth warm is known as
(A) Greenhouse effect
(B) Radiation effect
(C) Infrared effect
(D) Ozone layer depletion
23. One which is not considered as naturally occurring greenhouse gas is:
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Ethane
24. Layer which saves life from harmful effects of 'UV' radiations is known as:
(A) Ozone layer
(B) Alpha layer
(C) Gamma layer
(D) Infrared layer
25. Burning of fossil fuels:
(A) Decrease greenhouse gases
(B) Increases greenhouse gases
(C) Increased level of oxygen

(D) Increased level of ethane
26. The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are:
(A) Water vapor
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) All the above
27. Chemical released by chlorofluorocarbons is:
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Chlorine
(D) Sodium chloride
28. Montreal protocol to reduce production of chlorofluorocarbons was assigned in
(A) 1985
(B) 1986
(C) 1987
(D) 1982
29. Air (Prevention and Control of Poilution) Act was implemented in:
(A) 1981
(B) 1971
(C) 1974
(D) 1984
30. Particulate Matter having size less than 10 µm is:
(A) RESP
(B) TSPM
(C) PM10
(D) SPM-10
31. As per the CPCB the ambient air quality standard for particulate matter less than 2.5𝜇m for the
industrial area is:
(A) 20 µg/m³
(B) 60 µg/m
(C) 100 µg/m
(D) 120 µg/m
32. The main poilutants emitted from cement industries include:
1. Particulate Matter
2. Sulphur Dioxide
3. Carbon monoxide
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
33. Which type of poilutant is mainly released by the explosives?
(A) CO
(B) CO₂
(C) NOx
(D) Methane
34. Adverse environmental impacts of coal mining include all of the foilowing except:
(A) Decreasing input of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere
(B) Acid mine drainage
(C) Permanently altered streams and ecosystems
(D) Subsidence and coilapse of the ground
35. In a typical coal mine area affected by acid mine drainage, which one of the foilowing acids will be
dominant?
(A) Nitric acid
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Hydrochloric acid
(D) Hydrofluoric acid
36. The three main factors that conspire to form ozone hole are:
(A) Tropospheric cloud, CFCs and sunlight
(B) Polar stratospheric cloud, H₂O and CO₂
(C) CFCS, H₂O and CO₂
(D) Polar stratospheric cloud, CFCs and sunlight
37. Which of the foilowing problems is not created by noise poilution?
(A) Diarrhea
(B) Hypertension
(C) Deafness
(D) Irritation
38. Decibels (dB) is a measurement unit of
(A) Dust poilution
(B) Air poilution
(C) Noise poilution
(D) Marine poilution
39. A noise level that increases and decreases rapidly is called:
(A) Impulsive Noise
(B) Intermittent Noise
(C) Continuous Noise
(D) Irregular Noise
40. Which of the foilowing disease is not related with the mineral dust poilution?
(A) Silicosis
(B) Asbestosis
(C) Flurosis
(D) Talcosis
41. Threshold level of hearing is:
(A) 0 dB
(B) 10 dB
(C) 40 dB
(D) 50 dB
42. The maximum limit of ambient air quality standards with respect of noise in day time for industrial
area is:
(A) 100 dB
(B) 95 dB
(C) 75 dB
(D) 50 dB
43. The danger limit value of______ dB above which the danger of hearing impairment and deafness
may result from an unprotected ear:
(A) 95 dB
(B) 90 dB
(C) 75 dB
(D) 65 dB
44. The noise generated by a pneumatic drill is around:
(A) 105 dB
(B) 80 dB
(C) 75 dB
(D) 145 dB
45. Which of the foilowing mining machinery produces the highest level of noise?
(A) Pneumatic Drill(B) Dumper

(C) Shovel
(D) Front-end Loader
46. The major component responsible for the "Acid rain" is:
(A) Sulfur dioxide
(B) Nitric oxides
(C) Water vapors
47. Corrosion of steel structures such as bridges, and weathering of stone buildings and statues are the
effects of
(A) Greenhouse
(B) Depletion of ozone layer
(C) Acid rain
(D) Climate change
48. The process by which certain chemicals, most notably persistent organic poilutants (POPs) are
transported from warmer to colder regions of the Earth is called:
(A) Global distillation
(B) Global dimming
(C) Global warming
(D) Bioremediation
49. A long-term rise in the average temperature of the Earth's climate system called:
(A) Global distillation
(B) Global dimming

(C) Global warming
(D) Ozone depletion
50. When a body of water becomes overly enriched with minerals and nutrients which induce excessive
growth of algae, this process is called:
(A) Eutrophication
(B) Nutriant poilution
(C) Aquatic poilution
(D) Turbidity
51. Which of the foilowing is example of point source poilutant?
(A) Discharges from wastewater treatment plants
(B) Operational wastes from industries
(D) Sediments from construction
52. The Minamata disaster was the example of:
(A) Air poilution
(B) Methylmercury poisoning from industrial effluent
(C) Volcanic eruption
(D) Nuclear radiation
53. Chernobyl disaster was the example of:
(A) Air poilution
(B) Methylmercury poisoning from industrial effluent
(C) Volcanic eruption

(D) Nuclear radiation
54. Bhopal tragedy occurred on:
(A) December 2, 1984
(B) December 2, 1980
(C) December 12, 1984
(D) December 12, 1980
55. Which of the foilowing was responsible for the Bhopal disaster?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Methyl isocyanate
(C) Methyl mercury
(D) Nitrous oxide
56. Chasnala mining disaster was associated with:
(A) Iron mine
(B) Lead-Zinc min
(C) Coal mine
(D) Gold mine
57. The World Environment Day is celebrates on:
(A) 22 April
(B) 1 May
(C) 21 June
(D) 5 June
58. The World Earth Day is celebrates on:
(A) 22 April
(B) 1 May
(C) 21 June
(D) 5 June
59. A suspension of liquid or solid particles in a gas is called:
(A) Suspended particulate matter
(B) Dust
(C) Aerosol
(D) Airborne particulates
60. The process by which a compound is reduced in concentration over time, through adsorption,
degradation, dilution, or transformation is:
(A) Attenuation
(B) Assimilation.
(C) Corrosion
(D) Aeration
61. Any substance that can cause or contribute to the production of cancer is:
(A) Poilutant
(B) Carcinogen
(C) Deadly matter
(D) Contaminant
62. Wastewater-treated or untreated- that flows out of a treatment plant, sewer, or industrial outfall;
generally refers to wastes discharged into surface waters is:
(A) Poilution
(B) Emission
(C) Flocculation
(D) Effluent
63. Poilution discharged into the atmosphere from smokestacks, other vents, and surface areas of
commercial or industrial facilities, from residential chimneys; and from motor vehicle, locomotive, or
aircraft exhausts
(A) Sewage
(B) Emission
(C) Flocculation.
(D) Effluent
64. The process to evaluate a projects potential environmental risk and impacts in its area of influence
and identifies ways of improving project design and implementation by preventing, minimizing,
mitigating, or compensating for adverse environmental impacts and by enhancing positive impacts is
called:
(A) Environmental Audit
(B) Environmental Impact Report
(C) Environmental Impact Assessment
(D) Environmental Planning
65. An independent evaluation of a party's environmental compliance policies, practices, and controls is:
(A) Environmental Audit
(B) Environmental Impact Report

(C) Environmental Impact Assessment
(D) Environmental Planning
66. The process by which clumps of solids in water or sewage are made to increase in size by biological
or chemical action so that they can be separated from the water is:
(A) Filtration
(B) Flocculation
(C) Enrichment
(D) Dilution
67. National Green Tribunal (NGT) has been established in:
(A) 1995
(B) 2005
(C) 2010
(D) 2015
68. Majority of the poilutants in marine environment came from:
(A) Ships
(B) Rivers
(C) Atmosphere
69. With which of the foilowing, the Agenda 21' of Rio Summit, 1992 is related to?
(A) Sustainable development
(B) Combating the consequences of population
(C) Mitigation norms of Green House Gases (GHGs) emission.

(D) Technology transfer mechanism to developing countries for 'clean-energy production.
70. Which among the foilowing chronic lung disease commonly known as 'black lung disease, leads to
reduced life expectancy in coal-miners?
(A) Pneumoconiosis
(B) Progressive Massive Fibrosis
(C) Mesothelioma
(D) Coilier's Asthma
71. In Nitrogen Cycle, soil nitrates are transformed into free nitrogen by:
(A) Nitrifying bacteria
(B) Denitrifying bacteria
(C) Ammonifying bacteria
72. Which of the foilowing is not among the four coral reef regions of India identified the Government
for intensive conservation and management?
(A) Gulf of Mannar
(B) Gulf of Khambat
(C) Lakshadweep Islands
(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
73. The use of microorganism metabolism to remove poilutants such as oil spills in the water bodies is
known as:
(A) Biomagnification.
(B) Bioremediation
(C) Biomethanation
(D) Bioreduction
74. Which among the foilowing gas is used as reference to calculate "Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
(A) Carbon Dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Ozone
(D) Nitrogen Di-oxide
75. The process involved in EIA for identifying the key environmental issues and the Baseline analysis is
called:
(A) Screening
(B) Scoping
(C) Impact Analysis
(D) Decision making
76. The environmental problems associated with Pre-mining phase are:
1. Loss of agricultural and forest land
2. Displacement of local population
3. Noise poilution
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3
77. Acid Mine Drainage is associated with:
(A) Coal mines
(B) Base metal mines
(C) Rock phosphate mine
78. The main cause of air poilution in coal mines is:
(A) Massive use of explosives
(B) Vehicular emissions from dumpers/shovels
(C) Burning of coal seams and waste heaps
(D) None of the above
79. Illegal mining means:
1. Mining without proper permit or license
2. Mining of minerals outside the demarcated leased area
3. Unsystematic mining of minerals
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
80. The Goal of sustainable development in mining sector requires greater efforts towards:
1. Protection and improvement of the environment
2. Judicious use of minerals resources
3. Proper conservation practices

(A) 1
(B) 1 and 21
(C) I and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
81. A family of standards issued by ISO related to environmental management is known as:
(A) ISO 9000
(B) ISO 14000
(C) ISO 19011
(D) ISO 17021
82. Which of the foilowing ISO standard is related to measuring, quantifying, and reducing greenhouse
gas emissions:
(A) ISO 9000
(B) ISO 2009
(C) ISO 14064
(D) ISO 14001
83. The Environmental Protection Act came into force from:
(A) 1972
(B) 1976
(C) 1982
(D) 1986
84. Which of the foilowing serves as the nodal agency for the planning, promotion, making of
environment laws and their enforcement in India
(A) Central Poilution Control Board
(B) Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) of Government of India
(C) National Green Tribunal
(D) National Environmental Agency
85. The Mines Act came into force from:
(A) 1952
(B) 1972
(C) 1982
(D) 1992
86. Tsunamis are most likely to be generated when Richter scale magnitudes of earthquakes are:
(A)> 8 under oceans
(B)> 8 under continents
(C)>8 either under oceans or continents
(D)<8 either under oceans or continents
87. Which of the foilowing organization is responsible for the environmental in the mining areas?
(A) Mineral Exploration Corporation Limited (MECL)
(B) Geological Survey of India (GSI)
(C) National Environmental Agency
(D) Central/State Poilution Control Boards
88. Which of the foilowing state is facing the "Arsenic Problem" in groundwater?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) West Bengal
(C) Gujarat
(D) Punjab
89. Which of the foilowing state is facing the "Fluoride Problem" in groundwater?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Utarakhand
(D) Kerala
90. Nalgonda Technique is used for:
(A) Desalination
(B) Defluoridation
(C) Denitrification
(D) Deoxidation
91. The maximum size of fly ash is:
(A) 1μm
(B) 100μm
(C) 1000μm
(D) 10µm
92. SMOG is derived
(A) Smoke
(B) Fog
(D) Water vapors only
93. Which of the foilowing diseases are caused by the smog?
(i) Rickets
(ii) Throat Cancer
(iii) Skin Cancer
(iv) Breathing Problem
Options are:
(A) Both (i) and (ii)
(B) Both (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
94. Which of the foilowing is responsible for turning yellow Taj Mahal?
(A) Nitrogen dioxide
(B) Sulphur
(C) Chlorine
(D) Sulphur dioxide
95. Depletion of ozone layer causes, Which of the foilowing?
1. Cataract in eyes leading to blindness
2. Reduced productivity of forests
3. Lung infection
Select the correct answer from the foilowing codes:

(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
96. Chlorofluorocarbon is used in:
(A) Refrigerators
(B) Air conditioners
(C) Perfumes
(D) All the above
97. The foilowing cause alkalinity as well hardness in natural water:
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium bicarbonate
(C) Magnesium carbonate
(D) All of the above
98. The Total dissolved solids (TDS) in water can be reduced by the foilowing method:
(A) Distillation
(B) Reverse osmosis
(C) lon exchange
99. Permanent hardness of water is caused due to:
(A) Magnesium carbonate

(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Magnesium sulphate
100. The excess presence of which of the foilowing cause the teeth of children mottled and discoloured?
(A) Fluorides
(B) Chlorides
(C) Hardness
Coal and Petroleum Geology
0.182: Mark the correct statement:
(a) Framboidal pyrite contributes a great deal to the formation of pyritic sulphur in coal.
(b) In a coal seam sulphur increased form bottom to the top.
(c) In a sequence of coal seams the younger seam contains greater amount of sulphur than the
underlying older seam.
(d) All the above are correct.
Q.183: Requisity necessary for the blochemical changes to produce lignite from peat:
(a) Periodic wetness and dryness of the peat.
(b) A moderate degree of aeration.
(c) Preferably an alkaline (PH 8-8.5) and low acidic (PH 5-6) medium.
(d) All the above.

Q.184 Rank of coal means:
(a) The degree of maturation.
(b) The water content in the coal.
(c) The presence of SO2 in the coal
(d) None of these.
Q.185: Rank of coal can be determined by:
(a) Volatile matter yield of a density fraction or whole coal.
(b) Average reflactivity of the vitrinite/huminite macerals of a coal seam
(c) Chemical analysis of carbonification.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Q.186: The lignite deposits of Neyvell associated with the
(a) Lower part of Ranaghat formation.
(b) Upper part of the Cuddalore formation.
(c) Kankawati series.
(d) Rajamhendri sandstone.
9.187: The evolution from peat to anthracite is called coalification, which is a:
(a) Geological process.
(b) Chemical process.
(c) Geochemical process.
(d) Geophysical process.
Q.188: The coalification process is caused mainly by:

(a) Rise of temperature.
(b) Long Geological time.
(c) Rise of temperature and geological time.
(d) Constant temperature and greater depth.
Q.189: Sohagpur coal field is a remnant of the:
(a) Narmada Valley basin.
(b) Tapti valley basin.
(c) Son valley basin.
(d) Godavari valley basin.
Q.190: Which is the most prominent structural element in the sohagpur coal field:
(a) Chaila trust.
(b) Bamhani-chilpa fault.
(c) Murree thrust.
(d) Chaman fault.
Q.191: Desulphurtzation of coal can be done by:
(a) Bacteria.
(b) Chemicals.
(c) Physico-chemical means.
(d) All the above.
Q.192: India's known coal resources have been assessed to be about:
(a) 100 billion tones.

(b) 136 billion tones.
(c) 196 billion tones.
(d) 230 billion tones.
Q.193: The coal deposits of Rajmahal basin occur in the:
(a) Talchir formation.
(b) Barakar formation.
(c) Raniganj formation.
(d) Maharashtra formation.
Q.194: Most of the coal in the Gondwana is found in the:
(a) Damuda system.
(b) Talchir series.
(c) Maharashtra series.
(d) Jabalpur series.
Q.196: The Gondwana coals of India is of:
(a) in situ origin.
(b) Drift origin.
(c) Both In situ and Drift origin.
(d) Methanical origin.
Q.196: Mark the correct statement about the Barakar cools:
(a) Low moisture.
(b) Low volatile.

(c) High fix carbon.
(d) All the above.
Q.197: Raniganj coals are having:
(a) High moisture and Low volatile.
(b) Low moisture and Low
(c) High moisture and High volatile
(d) Low moisture and High volatile.
Q.198: The process of conversion of vegetable matter to coal involves:
(a) Concentration of oxygen and hydrogen.
(b) Loss of oxygen and carbon.
(c) Loss of oxygen and carbon and concentration of hydrogen.
(d) Loss of oxygen and hydrogen and concentration of carbon.
Q.199: "Brown coal" is another name of:
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite.
(c) Bituminous coal
(d) Anthracite coal.
Q.200: Choose the essential characters of cannel coal:
(a) It is tough and of uniform texture.
(b) It has no banded structure and essentially a drift deposit.
(c) It is Dull black in colour and does not soil the finger.
Q.201: Singareni coal field belongs to :
(a) Damodar valley rift zone.
(b) Mahanadi valley rift zone.
(c) Godavari valley rift zone.
(d) None of these.
Q.202: Match the foilowing:
1. Vitrain. I. Silky bands
2. Clarain. ii. Soft and soil the fingers.
3. Durain. iii. Brilliant glassy bands.
4. Fusain. iv. Dull bands
(a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.
(b) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
(c) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv. 4-i.
(d) 1-iv. 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
Q.203: Singarent coal mine la altuated in:
(a) Madhya Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra.
(c) Andhra Pradesh.
(d) Assam.
Q.204: Namchik coal field is situated in:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh.
(b) Assam.
(c) Himachal Pradesh.
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
Q.205: Parrot coal is a variety of:
(a) Peat.
(b) Lignite.
(c) Bituminous coal.
(d) Anthracite.
Q.206: The Neyvelll lignite deposits are of:
(a) Miocene age.
(b) Palaeocene age.
(c) Eocene age.
(d) Oligocene age.
Q.207: The best coking coal is mostly obtained from:
(a) Singrauli.
(b) Jharia.
(c) Singareni.
(d) Neyvelli.
Q.208: "Jhingurda coal seam" is the second thickest seam (133.47 m) in the world is found in:
(a) Raniganj coal field.
(b) Jharia coal field.
(c) Singerauli coal field.
(d) Singareni coal field.
Q.209: A rock mass series may be broken by forces of earth movements, causing faults. Some of these
faults often encountered in coal and mineral deposits, are they:
(a) All types of faults.
(b) Vertical faults and reverse faults only.
(c) Step faults and trough faults only. (d) None of the above.
Q.210: The removal of organic sulphur from a coal is extremely difficult by conventional methods, but it
has, however been found that it could be easily removed by:
(a) Chemical means.
(b) Bacterial means.
(c) Weathering.
(d) Water action.
Q.211: Nichahom and Jangalgall lignite deposits are located in:
(a) Rajasthan.
(b) Meghalaya.
(c) Assam.
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
0.212: Coal is a:
(a) Heterogeneous rock.
(b) Mineral
(c) Homogeneous rock.
(d) None of these.
Q.213: The Fixed carbon content of coal is determined by:
V.M.+ M
(a) x 100.
𝐴𝑠ℎ
(b) 100 -M+V.M. + Ash

𝐴𝑠ℎ+𝑉.𝑀
(c) 𝑀
𝐴𝑠ℎ+𝑀
(d) 𝑉.𝑀
Q.214 One of the best parameters for the determination of coal rank is:
(a) Ash content.
(b) Fixed carbon.
(c) Reflectance.
(d) Oxygen content.
Q.215: Sulphur exists in coal as:
(a) Pyritic form.
(b) Pyritic and sulphate forms.
(c) Pyritic and organic sulphur forms.
(d) Pyrite, sulphate and organic forms.
Q.216: Framboldal pyrite in coal is Indicator of:
(a) Marine origin.

(b) Continental fresh water origin.
(c) Oxidising environment.
(d) None of these.
0.217: The microscopic constituents of coal are:
(a) Minerals.
(b) Macerals.
(c) Kalar.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
0.218: Thickness coal seams in India are found at:
(a) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Bihar and Bengal.
(c) Orissa and Madhya Pradesh.
(d) Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Q.219: The major lignite deposits are found in:
(a) Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan.
(b) Jammu and Kashmir.
(c) Bihar and Orissa.
(d) Kamataka and Madhya Pradesh.
Q.220: All Tertiary coal generally has a:
(a) Low sulphur percentage.

(b) High sulphur percentage.
(c) High phosphorus percentage.
(d) High Nitrogen percentage.
Q.221: Lower Gondwanas are well known for their :
(a) Coal alone.
(b) Cyclothem alone.
(c) Coal and cyclothem both.
(d) Iron ore.
Q.222: The coke consists of:
(a) Fixed carbon.
(b) Ash
(c) Fixed carbon and ash
(d) Oxygen content.
Q.223: Kamthi sub-besin is mainly confined to the:
(a) Raniganj formation.
(b) Barakar formation.
(c) Talchir formation.
(d) Barren Measure formation.
Q.224: Fuel ratio in the coal is determined by:
(a) F.R. = 100- Fixed carbon + volatile matter.
volatile matter. Fixed carbon Volatile matter Fixed carbon

(b) F.R. = Fixed carbon – Volatile matter
Fixed carbon + volatile matter

(c) F.R. = 𝐹𝐼𝑋𝐸𝐷 𝐶𝐴𝑅𝐵𝑂𝑁
Fixed carbon
(d) F.R.= volatile matter
Q.225: Jharia is a:
(a) Double-walled graben.
(b) Single-walled graben.
(c) Square graben.
(d) Spherical graben.
0.226: Match the foilowing columna (Lignite depoalts):
1. Neyveli i. Eocene to paleocene.
2. Kutch. i. Eocene.
3. Palana. iii. Miocene.
4. Nichahom v. Plo-pleistocene.
(a) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv.
(b) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.
(c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
0.227: Nichahom lignite deposits of Kashmir are within the:
(a) Karewa formation.
b) Nagri stage.
c) Murree series.
(d) None of these.
Q.228: Which one is the youngest known lignite bearing horizon of the country :
(a) Neyveli.
(b) Kutch.
(c) Palana
(d) Nichahom.
Q.229: Lignite deposits of India have been estimated about:
(a) 2000 Million tones.
(b) 4000 Million tones.
(c) 8000 Million tones.
(d) 10,000 Million tones.
Q.230: The richness of a petroleum basin in general is a function of:
(a) Reservoir and Trap.
(b) Reservoir and Source.
(c) Reservoir, Trap and Source.
(d) Reservoir, Trap, Source and Migration.
Q.231: ONGC came into existence in the year:
(a) 1947.
(b) 1953
(c) 9156.
(d) 1960.
Q.232: Crude petroleum consists of a mixture of hydrocarbons :
(a) Solid and liquid.
(b) Liquid and gaseous.
(c) Solid and gaseous.
(d) Solid, liquid and gaseous.
Q.233: one as the most common gas the natural gas, associated with petroleum:
(a) Ethane.
(b) Methane.
(c) Acetelene.
(d) Hydrogen.
Q.234: Petroleum can occur in rocks of any geological age from:
(a) Precambrain to precent.
(b) Cambrian to pliocene.
(c) Carboniferous to Miocene.
(d) Triassic to Cretaceous.
Q.235: The most productive petroliferous strata in India are of:
(a) Jurassic to Miocene age.
(b) Triassic to cretaceous age.
(c) Permian to Miocene age.
(d) Pliocene to pleistocene age.

Q.236: Petroleum la generally found:
(a) At the troughs of synclines.
(b) At the crests of Aniticlines.
(c) In the limb area of the fold.
(d) In the horizontal beds.
Q.237: Petroleum and natural gases are of:
(a) Inorganic origin.
(b) Magnetic origin.
(c) Organic origin.
(d) Chemical origin.
Q.238: The oil occurrences In India support the view of the organic origin of petroleum from:
(a) Animals only.
(b) Vegetable matters only.
(c) Both animals and vegetable matters.
(d) Animals and magmatic gases.
Q.239: The action of bacterial during oil formation process is:
(a) The elimination of N₂ from the animal tissues.
(b) The addition of H₂ in process.
(c) The elimination of H2 from the plant tissues.
(d) None of these.
Q.240: Which of the foilowing are associated with Tertiary formations :

(a) Bauxite.
(b) Petroleum.
(c) Copper ores.
(d) Manganese ores.
Q.241: The specific gravity of petroleum ranges between:
(a) 0.6-0.8.
(b) 0.5-0.7.
(c) 0.8-0.98.
(d) 0.9-1.00.
Q.242: The Digboioil has a:
(a) High asphalt-content.
(b) High wax content.
(c) Low wax content.
(d) High paraffin content.
0.243: Mark the necessary conditions for formation of an oil pool:
(a) Migration and accumulation.
(b) Suitable reservoir and cap rocks.
(c) Suitable traps and retention.
(d) All the above conditions are necessary.
Q.244: The gravity causes the oil to migrate down-dip when :
(a) The water is present in pores of the rock.

(b) The water is absent in pores of the rocks.
(c) The specific gravity of oil is more than water.
(d) None of these.
0.245: Accumulation of oil takes place in :
(a) Porous rocks only.
(b) Permeable rocks only.
(c) Porous and permeable rocks only.
(d) Porous and impermeable rocks.
Q.246: The oil accumulation in the bottom of synclines is found in :
(a) The Digboi oil field.
(b) The Naharkatiya oil field.
(c) The Bombay High.
(d) This situation is unknown in India.
Q.247: Which type of unconformity a more effective as a stratigraphic oil-traps:
(a) Non-unconformity.
(b) Disconformity.
(c) Angular unconformity.
(d) None of these.
Q.248: Which is the oil-bearing formation in the Digboioil-fleid:
(a) Tipam sandstones of miocene age.
(b) Jenam stage of lower oligocene age.

(c) Dihing series of pleistocene age.
(d) Tipam sandstone of oligocene age.
Q.249: Rudrasagar oil-field is located in:
(a) Andhra Pradesh.
(b) Gujarat.
(c) Assam.
(d) Maharashtra.
Q.250: The oil-bearing formation in Barall series of oligocene age, belongs to :
(a) Digboi oil-field.
(b) Nahorkatiya oil-field.
(c) Cambay-basin.
(d) Bombay High.
Q.251: The oil-bearing rocks in Bombay thigh are:
(a) Sandstones of palaeocene age.
(b) Gravels of cambrian age.
(c) Gravels and Sandstones of oligocene age.
(d) Limestones of miocene age.
Q.252: Ankleshwar oil-field of Eocene age is located in:
(a) Gujarat.
(b) Assam.
(c) Andhra Pradesh.

(d) Tripura
Q.253: Most of the Tertiary crude oils in Indian sedimentary basins contain:
(a) 18 𝛼 (H) oleanane
(b) C29 sterane.
(c) Aspidoceras
(d) Indotrigonia.
Q.254: Which Tertiary crude oils field indicate absence of typical deltaic depositional setting of Tertiary
source-reservoir complexes:
(a) Digboi field.
(b) Moran field.
(c) Boambay High.
(d) North Cambay basin.
Q.255: The Early Cambrain oil is found in:
(a) Cambay basin.
(b) Nagpur-Bikaner Basin.
(c) Bombay offshore area.
(d) None of these.
Q.256: IPEDB stands for:
(a) Indian petroleum Exploration Depth Borehole.
(b) Integrated petroleum Exploration Database.
(c) Indian petroleum Exploration Depth Borehok.

Q.257: Which is the petroleum producing giant field in India:
(a) Bombay High.
(b) Digboi field.
(c) ankleshwar field.
(d) North Cambay Basin.
Q.258: The grain packing and dominance of quartz wacke facies in a oil reservoir suggest:
(a) Poor reservoir facies.
(b) Good reservoir facies.
(c) Normal reservoir facies.
(d) None of these.
Q.259: The composite Bombay offshore Basin consist of:
(a) Surat depression only.
(b) Saurashtra basin only.
(c) Surat depression and saurashtra basin.
(d) Surat depression, Saurashtra basin and shelf margin basin.
Q.260: Stratabound uranium mineralisation of Cuddapah basin hosted in:
(a) Granitic rocks.
(b) Carbonate rocks of vempalle formation.
(c) Shale rocks of cheyair series.
(d) Quartite rocks of Nallamalai series.
0.261: Coffinite is a ore of:

(a) Gold
(b) Platinum
(c) Uranium
(d) Silver
Q.262: Boltwoodite is a:
(a) Uranyl silicate.
(b) Hydrated alkali uranyl silicate.
(c) Uranium silicate.
(d) Uranium carbonate.
Q.263: Boltwoodite is reported for the first time in India from:
(a) Mica pegmatites of sankara mines of Nellore.
(b) Jaduguda mines, Bihar.
(c) Proterozoic rocks of Brijranigad, Tehri district (U.P.).
(d) Surguja district (M.P.).
Q.264: Domlaslat deposit of Meghalaya is famous for :
(a) Uranium deposits
(b) Coal deposits.
(c) Gold deposits.
(d) Iron deposits.
Q.265: Uranium deposits of Domlasiet are hosted in the:
(a) Upper Langpar shale of cretaceous age.

(b) Lower Mahadek sandstone of upper cretaceous age.
(c) Nerinea limestone of cretaceous age.
(d) katrol sandstone of Jurassic age.
Q.266: Uranium minerals are generally associated with:
(a) Chemical water.
(b) Iron ores.
(c) Organic matter.
(d) Calcareous rocks
Q.267: Jaduguda uranium mineralisation is largely in the:
(a) Disseminated form.
(b) Bedded
(c) Vein form
(d) Residual from
Q.258: Jadugude uranium deposits are located in:
(a) Orissa.
(b) West Bengal.
(c) Rajasthan.
(d) Bihar.
Q.259: Umra uranium deposits, Rajasthan are hosted in:
(a) Granites.
(b) Shales.
(c) Limestones.
(d) Quartrites.
Q.270: Proterozoic is marked by the first appearance of:
(a) Uranium-gold bearing conglomerate.
(b) Development of bended iron formation.
(c) Sediments-hosted Pb-zn-cu deposits.
(d) All the above.
271: War use of phosphorous is in the:
(a) Manufacture of incendiary bombs.
(b) Tracer bullets.
(c) Smoke screens.
(d) All the above.
Q.272: An elevation of a mineral deposit to determine if profitable mining is plausible, is known as:
(a) Armo process
(b) Feasibility study.
(c) Detailed study.
(d) Estimation.
Q.273: Strategic, critical and essential terminology of minerals is from which point of view:
(a) Geological.
(b) Geographical.
(c) Origin
(d) Milatory.
Q.274: The position of Graphite in India is:
(a) Essential.
(b) Critical.
(c) Strategic.
(d) None of these.
Q.275: Mineral in which a country is deficient in supply position, but known occurrences are such that
they can be worked as a war time measure, irrespective of the cost, is known as:
(a) Strategic
(b) Critical
(c) Essential.
(d) Accesasry.
Mining, petroleum, environment
geology 510
1. Neyveli lignite deposits are of
Select one:
a. Oligocene age
b. Eocene age
c. Miocene age
d. Palaeocene age
2. A mass of snow, ice and rocks falling rapidly down a mountainside called
Select one:
a. Glacier
b. Avalanche
c. Kames
d. Moraine
3. Environmental legislation in India is controlled by
Select one:
a. MOEF
b. MOES
c. DGMS
d. DGM
4. Frequent landslides commonly occurs in
Select one:
a. Aravallis
b. Himalayas
c. Vindhyans
d. Sahyadris
5. The specific gravity of petroleum ranges between
Select one:
a. 1.0-1.8
b. 1.9-2.5
c. 0.8-0.98
d. 0.6-0.8
6. Mining method applied at Rajpura dariba mine of Hindustan Zinc Limited is
Select one:
a. Brest stoping
b. Sublevel stoping
c. Cut and fill stoping
d. Shrinkage stoping
7. Which one is the youngest known lignite bearing horizon of the country
Select one:
a. Kachchh
b. Palana
c. Nichahom
d. Neyveli
8. Pitchblende is a type of
Select one:
a. Renewable earth resources
b. Non-renewable earth resources
c. Neutral earth resources
d. None of the above
9. Mining machinery best suited for limestone having flat strata is
Select one:
a. Dozer
b. Drag line
c. Surface miners
d. Bucket wheel excavator
10. Width of bench between toe of one bench to crest of next bench on same level is
Select one:
a. Spacing
b. Ramp
c. Burden
d. Berm
11. Where you found maximum wind mills in Gujrat?
Select one:
a. Palanpur
b. Amreli
c. Junagadh
d. Kachchh
12. Jharia is a
Select one:
a. Double-walled graben
b. Spherical graben
c. Single-walled graben
d. Square graben
13. The evolution from peat to anthracite is called coalification, which is a
Select one:
a. Geological process
b. Chemical process
c. Geochemical process
d. Geophysical process
14. Backfilling of the decoaled area by river sand is called
Select one:
a. Goaf
b. Drift
c. Stowing
d. Stables
15. Which one of the following is a catastrophic hazard
Select one:
a. Mining
b. Flood
c. Heat wave
d. Covid-19
16. The correct sequence of encountering oil in a drill well is
Select one:
a. Gas-water-oil
b. Water-gas-oil
c. Gas-oil-water
d. Oil-water-gas
17. Which of the following is a by product of crude oil?
Select one:
a. Petrol
b. Perfumes
c. Wax
d. All of the above
18. The oil-bearing rocks in Bombay High are
Select one:
a. Limestone of Miocene age
b. Gravel of Oligocene age
c. Gravels of Cambrian age
d. Sandstones of Palaeocene age
19. Which basin is a part of Cambay gulf?
Select one:
a. Digboi basin
b. Badmer basin
c. Cachar basin
d. Pranhita basin
20. The microscopic constituents of coal are
Select one:
a. Kalar
b. Macerals
c. Minerals
d. None of these
21. "Brown coal" is another name of

Select one:
a. Anthracite
b. Peat
c. Bituminous
d. Lignite
22. Deforestation is one of the environmental impact of
Select one:
a. Mining
b. Earthquakes
c. Volcanism
23. The lines joining points of equal vertical thickness in a bed called
Select one:
a. Contours
b. Isopatches
c. Isothicks
d. Isochores
24. "Smarskite" is an ore of
Select one:
a. Thorium
b. Uranium
c. Cobalt
d. Osmium
25.Hydroelectricity is maximum produced by
Select one:
a. Germany
b. Newzeland
c. India
d. France
26.Minimum metal percentage at which mining is profitable is known as
Select one:
a. Mill grade
b. Economical grade
c. Cutoff grade
d. Average grade
27.Uranium deposits of Jaduguda are of
Select one:
a. Metamorphic origin
b. Hydrothermal origin
c. Sedimentary origin
d. Magmatic origin
28.Type of drilling method where maximum limit of depth is 150 m, known as
Select one:
a. Large diameter drilling
b. Diamond drilling
c. Reverse circulation rotary drilling
d. Percussion drilling
29. Nuclear waste can be dumped at
Select one:
a. Rivers
b. Glaciers
c. Sub-surface strata
30. Drilling carried out at an interval of 1 to 2 km grid during exploration phase of
Select one:
a. Reconnaissance Geology
b. Exploration Geology
c. Definitive Geology
d. Development Geology
31.The Department of Mines is not responsible for
Select one:
a. Atomic minerals
b. Coal
c. Petroleum and natural gas
d. All of the above
32. The richness of petroleum basin in general is a function of
Select one:
a. Reservoir and source
b. Reservoir, trap, source and migration
c. Reservoir, trap and source
d. Reservoir and trap
33. Petroleum generation and migration are part of
Select one:
a. Facies analysis
b. Oil exploration
c. Geological modelling
d. All of above
34. The Gandhar field in Gujarat is famous for the occurrence of
Select one:
a. Gas only
b. Oil only
c. Both oil and gas
d. None of these
35. Which geophysical method is best suitable for oil exploration?
Select one:
a. Gravity survey
b. Seismic survey
c. Air-borne survey
d. None of these
36. Which type of unconformity is more effective as a stratigraphic oil-traps
Select one:
a. Angular unconformity
b. Non-conformity
c. Disconformity
d. None of these
37. Which one of the following is the renewable earth resources?
Select one:
a. Wind
b. Natural gas
c. Petroleum
d. Coal
38. Steeply inclined coal seams are usually mined by
Select one:
a. Horizon mining
b. Longwall advancing mining
c. Bord and pillar mining
d. Longwall retreating mining
39. Desulphurization of coal can be done by
Select one:
a. Chemicals
b. Physico-chemical means
c. Bacteria
d. All the above
40. In the open-pit mining, the ratio of the waste rock mined to ore is known as
Select one:
a. Recovery ratio
b. Stripping ratio
c. Working ratio
d. Bench ratio
41. Early Cambrian oil is found in
Select one:
a. Mehsana basin
b. Cambay basin
c. Bombay offshore area

d. None of thes
42. Coal seams are often found to be associated with
Select one:
a. China clays
b. Fire clays
c. Pottery clays
d. Bentonites
43. Moving front part of the mine working is known as
Select one:
a. Tunnel
b. Adit
c. Face
d. Shaft
44. Maximum biodiversity is found at
Select one:
a. Nilgiri forest
b. Sahara desert
c. Thar desert
d. Amazon rain forest
45. Bituminous coal is reported from

Select one:
a. Patan
b. Than
c. Bharuch
d. All the above

1. A body of oil and gas or both occurring in a separate reservoir under a single
pressure system is described as
a) pool
b) field
c) province
d) region
2. Which of the following represents "solid petroleum"?
a) Tar
b) Asphalt
c) Wax
e) All of the above
3. In situ deposits of petroleum formed by heavier residues as a result of the

evaporation of lighter fractions are known as
a) Inspisatted deposits
b) Bitumen exudates
c) Tar Sands
d) Vein bitumins
4. Ozokerite is an example of
a) Oil shale
b) Tar sand
c) Mineral wax
d) Coal
5. The correct sequence of encountering oil in a drill well is
a) gas-oil-water
b) water-gas-oil
c) gas-water-oil
d) oil-water-gas
6. The number of sedimentary basins in India is
a) 15
b) 22
c) 27
d) 33
7. Match the following and choose the correct answer.
Basin A. Cambay Basin

B. Bombay High 1. Onshore and offshore
C. Krishna-Godavari Basin 2. Onshore
D. Bengal Basin 3. Offshore
Types
a) A-2 B-3 C-3 D-1
b) A-2 B-3 C-I D-1
c) A-3 B-3 C-2 D-1
d) A-2 B-I C-I D-2
Basin Structure
A. Bombay High 1. Doubly plunging anticline
B. Cambay Basin 2 Elongated structural dome
C. Assam Shelf 3. Folded asymmetrical anticlines
D. Tripura-Cachar Basin 4. Anticline
a) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
b) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-I
c) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
d) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4

9 The Digboi oil field is associated with the Tippam Sandstones, which are of
a) Eocene age
b) Miocene age
c) Oligocene age
d) Pliocene age
10. In India oil was struck for the first time in limestones at
a) Ankleshwar
b) Kaikalur
c) Ravva
d) Bombay High
11. The Gandhar field in Gujarat is famous for the occurrence of
a) oil only
b) gas only
c) both oil and gas
12. The reservoir rocks at the Bombay High are predominantly
a) biomicrites
b) biosparites
c) oosparites
d) oomicrites
13. According to the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), the "low risk-high
return" sedimentary basins of India are classified under
a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Category IV
14. Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?
a) Krishna-Godavari Basin...Kaikalur
b) Cauvery Basin..... Narimanam
c) Bombay High..... Heera & Panna
d) Cambay Basin.... Razole
15. Cambay Shale, the oil-producing horizon of the Gandhar onland field, is of
_____ age.
a) Eocene
b) Miocene
c) Oligocene
d) Pleistocene
16. The theory that primarily owes the origin of petroleum to reactions between
alkali metals and carbondioxide at high temperatures was postulated by
a) Sebatiers and Sederen (1902)
b) Berthelot (1917)
c) Byasson (1871)
17. The Sausar & Sakoli Series is associated with the deposition of
a) diamonds
b) lead and copper
c) manganese
d) iron
18. The Karewa formation in the Kashmir valley is renowned for its ____________
deposits.
a) Gypsum
b) Barytes
c) Lignite
d) Ochre
19. In Khetri and Singhbhum, copper mainly occurs as
a) Cuprite
b) Chalcopyrite
c) Chalcocite
d) Covellite
20. Kalahandi in the state of Orissa is famous for its deposits of
a) Bauxite
b) Gypsum
c) Galena
d) Diamonds
21. In the Khetri Copper Belt the main ore minerals are
a) Chalcopyrite-pyrite-pyrrhotite
b) Chalcopyrite-pyrite-borite
c) Chalcopyrite-cuprite-sphalerite
d) Sphalerite-chalcocite-malachite
22. The bornite-chalcopyrite deposits of Bhilwara region in Rajasthan are of origin

in rajasthan are of _______origin.
a) Epithermal
b) Mesothermal
c) Hypothermal
d) Telethermal
23. The main ore mineral in the Mailaram Copper Belt of the Khamman district in
Andhra Pradesh is
a) Chalcopyrite
b) Cuprite
c) Bornite
d) Chalcocite
24. Drilling of major copper deposits encounter various zones. The Zone of
Oxidation consists of oxidation consists of
a) a crust of limonite
b) soluble salts of copper removed in solution
c) minerals like malachite, azurite, chrysocolla
d) minerals like covellite, bomite, tetrahedrite and chalcocite
25. The Nallamalai Group of rocks of the Cuddapah Supergroup is characterized

by mineralisation of
a) Copper
b) Lead
c) Copper and lead
d) Copper, lead and tin
26. The gold-quartz mineralization of the KGF took place during

a) Dharwar orogeny
b) Dharwar geosynclinal period
c) Eastern Ghat orogeny
d) Cuddapah geosynclinal period
27. The Indian gold deposits are of origin
a) Epithermal
b) Mesothermal
c) Hypothermal
d) Xenothermal
28. The Champion Lode of the KGF is composed of
a) Au-Quartz veins
b) Au-Quartz sulphide veins
c) Massive replacement deposits
d) Fissure veins
29. Given below are some or the well-known gold occurrences of the world.
Match these with their proper mode of their occurrence
Gold occurrences C. Bendigo (Australia)
A. Witwatersand (S. Africa) D. Homestake (S. Dakota)
B. Kalgoorlie (Australia) Kinds of deposits

1. Magmatic deposit 3. Fissure veins
2. Saddle Reefs 4. Replacement lode
a) A-1 B-2C-3D-4
b) A-4B-3 C-2D-1
c) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
d) A-4B-1 C-2D-3
30. The paragenetic sequence of gold formation in the Kolar Golf Field (KGF) is
a) Sulphide formation recrystallization of silicates intrusion of quartz

crystallization of gold
b) Sulphide formation intrusion of quartz recrystallization of silicates

c) Sulphide formation recrystallization of silicates crystallization of gold-intrusion

or quartz
d) Intrusion of quartz recrystallization of silicates sulphide formation

31. Which of the following minerals are associated with the gold deposits of
Kolar?
(iPyrite
(ii) Pyrrhotite
(iii) Arsenopyrite
(iv) Galena
a) (i) only
b) (i) and (ii) only
c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
d) all of the above
32. Match the following and choose the correct answer
A. Chennabhavi mines (A.P.)
B. Ghatsila 1. Copper
C. Bawdin mines (Burma) 2 Lead
D. Jaduguda 3. Uranium Gold
a) A-4B-1C-2D-3
b) A-4B-2C-ID-3
c) A-I B-4C-2D-3
d). A-1 B-3C-4D-2
33. A typical bauxite deposit has
a) a laterite capping and lithomarge base
b) a lithomarge capping and laterite base
c) a limonite capping and laterite base

34. Bauxite occurs as
(i) Blanket deposits
(ii) Interstratified deposits
(iii) Pocket deposits
(iv) Transported deposits
a) (i) and (ii) only
b) (i) and (iii) only
d) all of the above
35. Bauxite of detrital origin occur at
a) Katni (M.P.)
b) Kolaba (Maharashtra)
c) Kutch (Gujarat)
d) Kalahandi (Orissa)
36. In the Karst regions bauxite deposits occur as
a) Blanket deposits
b) Interstratified deposits
c) Pocket deposits
d) Transported deposits
37. The East Coast bauxite extends between
a) the Cauvery and the Godavari basins
b) the Cauvery and the Mahanadi basins
c) the Godavari and the Mahanadi basins
d) the Godavari and the Damodar basins
38. Most or the domestic bauxite deposits occurring along the sea coasts are
composed of
a) bohemite
b) diaspore
c) gibbsite
d) a mixture of diaspore and gibbsite
39. The average thickness of the East Coast bauxite is
a) 2m
b) 4.5m
c) 55m
d) 8.5m
40. Banded manganese ores are generally
a) Epigenetic
b) Syngenetic
c) both epigenetic and syngenetic
d) Paragenetic
41. The manganese deposits of Andhra Pradesh occur in association with
a) Gondites
b) Kodurites
c) Charnockites
d) Lateroid concentrations
42. The manganese deposits of Kalahandi and Koraput regions are associated with
a) Archaen gondites
b) Precambrian iron ore series sandstones
c) Dharwarian meta sediments
d) Vindhyan
43. The hardest among the following manganese minerals is
a) Braunite
b) Cryptomelanc
c) Psilomelane
d) Pyrolusite
44. The mineral ‘Hausmonite' is chemically represented

a) Mn406
b) Mn3O4
c) Mn204
d) Mn203
45. Kudremukh in Karnataka is famous for
a) Copper deposits
b) hematite deposits
c) Magnetite deposits
d) iimenite deposits
46. The purest form of iron is
a) Native iron
b) pig iron
c) Wrought iron
d) Ilmenite deposits
47. The Bailadila iron ores are associated with
a) Banded hematite quartzites
b) Banded hematite
c) Hematite schists
d) archean gneisses
48. iron deposited in lakes mainly due to
a) magmatic concentration
b) mechanical concentration
c) residual concentration
d) none of these
49. malachite has formula
a) cuCO3 2Cu(OH)2
B) cuCO3 Cu(OH)2
c)2 cuCO3 Cu(OH)2
d) 2cuCO3 2Cu(OH)2
50. Atacamite' is an ore mineral of
a) Copper
b) Lead
c) Zinc
d) Tungsten
e) Tin
51. In the Agnigundala mineralized belt of Andhra Pradesh, the mineralization of

Pb-Cu-Zn is reported from
a) Vaimpalli limestones
b) Nagri quartzites
c) Tadpatri shales
d) Cumbum phyllites
52. which one of following is NOT a lead mineral ?
a) galena
b) anglesite
c) sphalerite
d) cerrusite
53. The Indian lead deposits chiefly occur as
a) Fissure fillings
b) Breccia deposits
c) Replacement lode deposits
d) Sedimentary deposits
54. In the Zawar region of Rajasthan the country rocks for lead and zinc
mineralization are the
a) Quartzites
b) Phyllites
c) Carbonates
d) Schists
55. In the Zawar region, the principal ore minerals of lead are
a) galena and sphalerite
b) galena and pyrrhotite
c) galena and arsenopyrite
d) pyrrhotite and sphalerite
56. Which of the following is a carbonate ore mineral of lead?
a) Galena
b) Cerrusite
c) Anglesite
d) Sphalerite
57. Which of the following does NOT contain lead?
a) Chrome yellow
b) Chrome Red
c) Lithophone
d) Pewter
58. Type Metal, Solder and Pewter are the alloys of lead with other minerals
Which of the following depicts the correct order of increasing lead content in
these alloys?
a) Type metal >Solder>Pewter
b) Type metal > Pewter>Solder
c) Solder>Pewter > Type metal
d) Pewter>Type metal >Solder
59. Which of the following is NOT an ore mineral of zinc?
a) Franklinite
b) Smithsonite
c) Hemimorphite
d) Calamine
e) None of the above
Place Deposits
A. Goramahisani (Orissa) 1. Old workings of copper
B. Kalva-Gani (Andhra Pradesh) 2. Iron
C. Pitchli (Bihar) 3. Chrysotile asbestos
D. Khemaru (Rajasthan) 4. Pitchblende

a) A-1 B-2C-3 D-4
b) A-4B-2C-3D-1
c) A-2B-1C-3D-4
d) A-2B-1C4D-3
61. Solder is an alloy of
a) Lead and zinc
b) Lead and tin
c) Lead, zine and tin
d) Lead, zinc and antimony
62. Brass consists of
a) Cu-80% Zn-20%
b) Cu-20% Zn-80%
c) Cu-80% Zn-10% Sn-10%
d) Cu-70% Zn-20% Sn-10%
63. Electrum' is a/an
a) Natural alloy of gold and sliver
b) Natural alloy of mercury with non-metallic minerals

c) Alloy of mercury and gold
d None of the above
64. The Chemical composition of chromite is
a) Cr2O3
b) Cr2O4
c) 2FeO.Cr2O3
d) FeCr2O4
65. The ratio of FeO:Cr203 in chromite is
a) 84:16
b) 65:35
c) 40:60
d) 68:32
66. The principal mineral constituent of drilling mud is
a) Bauxite
b) Barytes
c) Beryl
d) Corundum
67. Chemically barytes is composed of

a) Ba0-65.7% SO2-34.3%
b) Ba0-55% SO, -45%
¢) BaO12%SO2-28%
d) Ba0-80% SO2-20%
68. Lithophone is a white pigment composed of
a) PbSO4+ ZnSO4
b) ZnSO4+BaSO4
c) ZnS+BaSO4
d) PbS+BaSO4
A. Mangampeta (A P.) 1. Cement
B. Lapsa Baru (Bihar) 2 Bauxite
C. Churk (U.P.) 3. Barytes
D. Salem Agency Tracts (A.P.) 4. Kyanite
a) A-3B-1C-4D-2
b) A-2B- 4C-ID-3
c) A-2B-IC 4D-3
d) A-3B4C-1D-2
70. In India, Ruby mica occurs in

a) Bihar
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Rajasthan
d) Tamil Nadu
71. The main source of commercial ruby mica in the Bihar Schist belt
a) Pegmatites occurring within granites
b) Pegmatites found within schists
c) Pegmatites occurring in shear zones
d) Pegmatites occurring within metamorphic
72 Which of the following is a hydrous mica?
a) Muscovite
b) Illite
c) Montmorillonite
d) Kaolinite
73. The Gypsum deposits of Tiruchirapalli (TN.) are of _____ age
a) Cretaceous
b) Eocene
c) Miocene
d) Pliocene
74. Plaster of Paris' is represented as
a) CaSO4. H2O
c) 2CaSO4 2H20
b) 2CaSO4 2H20
d) CaSO4 ½ H20
75. Gypsum changes to Plaster of Paris' by losing
a) 1/4
b) 1/2
c) 2/3
d) 3/4
76. Thorium is extracted from Monazite, which is a complex
a) Sulphate
b) Silicate
c) Phosphate
d) Carbonate
77. 'Smarskite' is an ore mineral or
a) Uranium
b) Thorium
c) Cobalt
d) Osmium
78. Uranium deposits of Jaduguda are of
a) Magmatic origin
b) Sedimentary origin
c) Metamorphic origin
d) Hydrothermal origin
79. Which of the following is matched correctly?
a) Pitchblende
b) Uraninite
c) Camotite
d) Torbamnite
80. In the Singhbhum Shear Zone (Copper Belt Thrust) there is a definite sequence
of mineralization of iron, copper and uranium. The correct Sequence of
mineralization is
a) Fe->Cu->U
b) Cu->U ->Fe
c) U->Fe-> Cu
d) Cu-> Fe-> U
A. Chalk Hills (T.N.) 1. Uranium
B. Araku Valley (A.P.) 2 Coal
C. Ranjit Valley (Sikkim) 3. Bauxite
D. Bhuj Formation (Gujarat) 4. Magnesite
a) A-4B-3C-1 D-2
b) A-4B-2C-1 D-3
c) A-4B-1C-2D-3
d) A-3B-2C-ID-4
82. The Gollapilli beds of Andhra Pradesh are famous for
a) Layered bands of magnesite-bearing rocks
b) Sandstone type of uranium deposits
c) Sedimentary type or uranium deposits
d) Placer deposits of gold
83. The cement made from magnesite is called
a) Puzzolona cement
b) Portland cement
c) Sorrel cement
d) Dolomitic cement
84. Nickel ores are found in
a) Singhbhum (Bihar)
b) Guntur (A.P.)
c) Kheonjhar (Orissa)
d) Khetri (Rajasthan)
85 Which of the following is an ore of tungsten?
a) Scheelite
b) Tungstenite
c) Wolframite
d) Hubnerite
86. Which of the following is associated with the discovery of tungsten by the GSI
in the early 90s?
a) Agucha (Rajasthan)
b) thar desert ( Rajasthan)
c) Sironi (Rajasthan)
d) tuen sang (Nagaland )
87. Uranium is mostly obtained from

a) Acid igneous rocks
b) Basic igneous rocks
c) Sedimentary rocks
d) Metamorphic rocks
88 Which of the following is the most persistent of elements?
a) Silver
b) Cobalt
c) Gold
d) Nickel
89. Which of the following elements is used as a pathfind for gold?
a) Arsenic
b) platinum
c) Antimony
d) mercury
90. Gold deposits range in age from
a) Precambrian-Lower Tertiary
b) Cambrian-Lower Tertiary
c) Precambrian-Jurassic
d) Precambrian-Recent
91. Which of the following is NOT a silver mineral?
a) Polybasite
b) Pyrargyrite
c) Proustite
92. In India, silver is found in small quantities along with the deposits of
a) Gold
b) Lead
c) Zinc
d) Gold, lead and zinc
93. Which of the following is generally NOT used in the smelting of aluminum
ores?
a) Bohemite
b) Gibbsite
c) Cryolite
d) Diaspore
94 Which of the following asbestos minerals is NOT abundant in India?
a) Chrysotile
b) amosite
c) Actinolite
d) crocidolite
95. Corundum occurs in association with
a) Norites
b) Peridotites
c) Nepheline syenites
d) Syenites
96. Ochres are generally composed of
a) Laterite and pyrite
b) Kaolin and manganese oxides
c) Hematite and manganese oxides
d) Magnetite pyrite and limonite
97. The Sehota deposit in Khetri (Rajasthan) is famous for
a) Copper
b) lead- zinc
c) Realgar
d) porrhotite
98. Orpiment is chemically represented as
a) AsS
b) As2S1
c) Fe.As.S
d) Sb₂S1
99. Graphite of workable quantities can be extracted from
a) Khondalites
b) Chamockites
c) Gondites
d) Kodurites
100. Magmatic magnetic deposits usually occur in association
a) Anorthosites
b) Dunites
c) Syenites
d) Peridotites
101. At a temperature of 1020°C sphalerite inverts to
a) Anglesite
b) Pentlandite
c) Wurtzite
d) Pyrrhotite
102. Which one of the following is used as a sound insulator?
a) Muscovite
b) Vermiculite
c) Steatite
d) Biotite
103. The main raw material for ceramic industry is
a) Silica
b) Clay
c) Gypsum
d) Terracotta
104. "Bleaching clays" are
a) Fire clays
b) Bentonites
c) China clays
d) Fuller's earth
105. Coal seams are often found to be associated with
a) China clays
b) Fire clays
c) Pottery clays
d) Bentonites
106. China clay deposits of economic significance are associated with
a) Talchir formation
b) Karharbari formation
c) Barakar formation
d) Ranigunj formation
107. Which of the following is a Tertiary coal field?
a) Korba (M.P.)
b) Jharia (Bihar)
c) Godavari (A.P.)
d) Palana (Rajasthan)
108. The semi-coking coal product found in the Godavari valley is called
a) Petzite
b) kolsite
c) Cannel coal
d) torbanite
109. Miocene coal fields are found in
a) Antartica
b) Russia
c) China
d) India
110. In India, the main coal-forming epoch was
a) Carboniferous
b) Permian
c) Tertiary
d) Cretaceous
111. In which of the following places coal is associated with Numulitic limestones?
a) Rajasthan
b) Spiti Valley
c) Jammu & Kashmir
d) West Bengal
112. ‘Black lignite' is the name given
a) Cannel coal
b) Anthracite
c) Bituminous coal
d) Sub-bituminous coal
113. The world's largest producer of lignite is
a) Nevyeli
b) German
c) Russia
d) Scandinavia
114. The age of the Neyvelli Lignite deposits
a) Cretaceous
b) Eocene
c) Miocene
d) Oligocene
e) Pleistocene
115. Apart from Neyveli, lignite is also found is
a) Palana (Rajasthan)
b) Kothagudem (A.P.)
c) Rant Valley (Sikkim)
d) Lapsa Baru, (Bihar)

116. Petroleum is found in rocks ranging in age from
a) Lower Tertiary to Recent
b) Paleocene to Pleistocene
c) Cretaceous to Miocene
d) Precambrian to Pleistocene
117. The most common reservoir rocks for petroleum are
a) Limestones
b) Sandstones
c) Shale
d) Conglomerates
118 Which of the following statements about Bombay High is correct?
i. It is a regional uplift
ii. Oil has been struck in limestones for the first time in India
iii. Oil is found in formations younger than Miocene for the first time
iv. It contributes over 2/3 rd of the needs of the Country
a) (i) and (ii) only
b) (i) and (iii) only
d) All of the above

119. The specific gravity of petroleum is
a) 1.0
b) 1.7
c) 0.7
d) 0.07
120. The largest onland oil and gas field in India is
a) Bombay High
b) Daman
c) Gandhar
d) Ankleshwar
121. In the Krishna-Godavari basin oil is accumulated in
a) Stratigraphic traps
b) Structural traps
c) Combination traps
122. Which one of the following is NOT an oil refinery?
a) Barauni (Bihar)
b) Kurnool (A.P)
c) Noonannati (Assam)
d) none of above
123. The most dominant constituent of the underwater polymetallic nodules is
a) Ni
b) co
c) Fe
d) Mn
e) Mo
124. Malanjkhand is famous for
a) the first open-cast mine in India
b) the biggest open-cast mine in India
c) the first sponge iron plant in India
d) Hot springs and geysers
125. India's first sponge iron plant is located at
a) Kothagudem (A.P.)
b) Kurnool (A.P.)
c) Salem (T.N.)
d) Bolangir (Orissa)
126. The parent rocks from which the asbestos deposits originate are generally
very rich in
a) Olivine
b) Pyroxenes
c) Feldspars
d) Silica
127. Which of the following is an asbestos belonging to the serprntine group?
a) Crocidolite
b) Chrysotile
c) Amosite
d) Actinolite
128. The topmost producer of asbestos in the country is
a) Bihar
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Orissa
d) Rajasthan
e) Andhra Pradesh
129. Uranium deposits are found in
a) Epicontinental environments
b) Marine environments
c) Coastal environments
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
130. Which of the following is NOT a carbonate ore mineral?
a) Bornite
b) Cerrusite
c) Smithsonite
d) Witherite
131. Which of the following is NOT a siliceous abrasive?
a) Quartzite
b) Novaculite
c) Tripoli
d) Rouge
132. Which of the following is NOT associated with the occurrence of manganese?
a) Jhunjhuna
b) Midnapur
c) Banswara
d) Mayurbhanj
133. Koduritic manganese ores are characteristically developed in
a) Balaghat-Nagpur belt
b) Singhbhum-Keonjhar belt
c) Eastern Ghats
d) Mysore-South Bombay
134. Which of the following constituent is present in Kodurites but not in

Gondites?
a) Quartz
b) Potash feldspar
c) Manganese garnet
d) Manganese pyroxene
135. In the Zawar area of Rajasthan, the mineralization took place in the rocks
belonging to
a) Aravalli system
b) Delhi group
c) Post-Delhi group
d) Paleocene rocks
136 In India, gold deposits are associated with rocks of

a) Archean age
b) Proterozoic age
c) Cambrian age
d) Mesozoic age
A. Hausmaunite 1 Zn
B. Hemimorphite 2 Mn
C. Tetrahedrite 3. Cu
D. Anglesite 4. Ag
5. Pb
a) A-2B-1 C-3D-4
b) A-1 B-2C-3 D-S
c) A-2B-IC-4D-3
d) A-2B-1C-3 D-5
138. Which of the following affords an example or low-lying bauxite deposits?
a) East-Coast bauxite
b) Kolaba and Kolhapur (Maharashtra)
c) Shahdol-Bilaspur-Durg (M.P.)
d) Katni (M.P.)
139. The bauxite deposits of Madhya Pradesh and Bihar are composed of
a) monohydrates only
b) trihydrates only
c) a mixture or monohydrates and trihydrates
140 A large part of the East-Coast Bauxite is formed due to
a) Sub-aerial weathering and decomposition of Deccan traps
b) Weathering of Khondalites
c) Weathering of Charnockites
d) Decomposition of Vindhyan sandstones and quartzites
141. The East-Coast Bauxite differs from the other bauxite occurrences country in
the one or more of the following respects
1) Greater average thickness of deposits
2) Large size of individual deposits
3) Occurrence at much higher elevations
4) Composition is entirely gibbsitic
a) I and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 4 are correct
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct
142. The East-Coast Bauxite covers the states of
a) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
b) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa
c) Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Tamil Nadu
d) Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Kerala
143. The Chromite deposits of Andhra Pradesh are associated with
a) Quartzites
b) Enstatite-Peridotites
c) Serpentinized ultrabasic charnockites
d) Khondalites
144. The coal seams formed by in situ origin are characterized by
a) the presence of coal beds
b) the presence of coal beds of wide aerial extent
c) the presence of coal beds of uniform thickness and wide aerial extent
d) the presence of partings in the coal seams

145. The 'Clinton type' of ironstones are
a) Hematite-chamosite-siderite rocks
b) Limonite-chamosite-siderite rocks
c) Magnetite-chamosite-siderite rocks
d) Banded magnetite-hematite quartzites
146. ‘Carbanados' are
a) massive deposits of Cannel coal
b) thick successions or graphite
c) jet black variety of industrial diamond
d) abrasives made of siliceous carbide
147. Which of the following ore minerals is the chief source of thorium in the
world?
a) Thorianite
b) Allanite
c) Pitchblende
d) Monazite
148. Which of following is used in making the "gypsum plate" for petrological
microscopes?
a) Selenite
b) Satinspar
c) Alabastar
d) Anhydrite
149. Which of the following is used as a "barium meal" while taking x-rays for
detecting tumors and growths in the stomach and intestines?
a) barium sulphide
b) barium chlorite
c) arsenic sulphide
d) lead dioxide
150. The first cement factory was built in India in 1904 at
a) Ranchi
b) Chennai
c) Hazaribagh
d) Ahmedabad
151. Who among the following is considered as the 'Father of Economic Geology’
?
a) Georgius Agricola
b) Descartes
c)Nicolaus Steno
d) Von Oppel
152. All ore deposits that are directly crystallized from magma are termed as
a) Magmatic segregation deposits
b) Contact metamorphic deposits
c) Pegmatites
d) Pyroxomatic deposits
153. Syngenetic deposits are crystallized
a) before the host rocks
b) after the host rocks
c) simultaneously with host rocks
d) any of the above
154. Which of the following is an endogenetic deposit?
a) Oxidation and Supergene sulphide enrichment
b) Residual concentration deposits
c) Sedimentation deposits
d) Fumarolic deposits
155. Sublimation is a process in which compounds are formed by
a) Mixing of mineralizing solutions

b) Hydrothermal alteration at high pressures and temperatures
c) Volatilization and redeposition from vapour at LP-LT
d) All of the above
156. The process of formation of deposits from channels at or near the surface is
described as
a) Epigenetic
b) Syngenetic
c) Paragenetic
157. The deposits formed at the end of magmatic differentiation are termed
as
a) Orthote deposits
b) Orthomagmatic deposits
c) Metasomatic deposits
d) Hydrothermal deposits
158. If gangue minerals such as chalcedony and adularia are found association
with the hydrothermal ores, then the ores are of
a) Hypothermal type
b) Mesothermal type
c) Epithermal type
d) Xenothermal type
159. The optimum temperature range for the formation of hypothermal deposits
is
a) 300-600°C
b) 300-450°C
c) 200-300°C
d) 50-200°C
160. The disseminated or "porphyry" copper deposits are of
a) Hypothermal origin
b) Mesothermal origin
c) Epithermal origin
d) Telethermal origin
161. Which of the following deposits are most abundant rocks?
a) Epithermal
b) Mesothermal
c) Hypothermal
d) Xenothermal
162. Bonanzas of native gold and electrum are generally deposited under
a) Epithermal conditions
b) Mesothermal conditions
c) Hypothermal conditions
d) Telethermal conditions
163. The telethermal deposits are generally
a) Syngenetic Epigenetic
b) Diagenetic
c) epigenetic
d) Any of the above
164. The mineralogy of telethermal deposits is similar to that of
a) Xenothermal deposits
b)Epithermal deposits
c) Mesothermal deposits
d) Hypothermal deposits
165. The Xenothermal' deposits are formed under the conditions of
a) HP-HT
b) HP-LT
c) LP- HT
d) LP-LT
166. Closely spaced parallel fractures which are filled with mineral matter are
described as
a) Composite veins
b) Linked veins
c) Branched veins
d) Sheeted veins
167. A vertical dyke showing transverse veins is known as
a) Stockwork
b) Saddle reef
c) Ladder vein
d) Vug
168. Veins that are essentially parallel to one another but dipping in different
directions are referred to as
a) Parallel veins
b) Linked veins
c) Cognate veins
d) Radial veins
169. Deposits that result from the mineralization in the openings along anticlines
are called
a) Shear zone deposits
b) Stockworks
c) Fahlbands
d) Saddle reefs
170. Gash veins are
a) horizontal or gently inclined cave deposits
b) large fracture zones composed of several parallel
c) mineralized portions of shear dikes
d) mineralized vertical solution joints in carbonate country works
171. Zoning around a nucleus by rhythmic precipitation of mineral matter results

in a/an
a) Colloform texture
b) Intergrowth texture
c) Spherulitic texture
d) Mimetic texture
172. Pseudomorphs are very common in-deposits.

a) Replacement
b) Cavity filling
c) Fissure filling
d) Metasomatic
173. The 'Sideronitic texture' consists of crystals that exhibit
a) perfect cleavage planes
b) fractures with broken corners
c) a number of well-developed faces
d) all of the above
174. Sideronitic texture is typically associated with
a) Hydrothermal deposits
b) Contact metasomatic deposits
c) Late magmatic deposits
d) Early magmatic deposits
175. Placer deposits are formed as a result of
a) Residual liquid segregation
b) Residual concentration
c) Mechanical concentration
d) All of the above

176. A placer deposit formed at the site of the destruction of the primary source
rock is called
a) Acolian placer
b) Alluvial placer
c) Elluvial placer
d) Colluvial placer
177. Placer gold deposits are mostly
a) Alluvial
b) Elluvial
c) Pluvial
d) Colluvial
178. Important placer deposits of monazite and ilmenite occur along
a) The East Coast of India
b) The West Coast of India
c) The East and the West coasts of India
179. Hydrotherial replacement process controls
a) Oxidation
b) Metasomatism
c) Supergene enrichment
d) All of the above
180. If an ore body undergoing oxidation and supergene enrichment lies in

limestone country rocks, then
a) Enrichment is complete
b) Enrichment is partial
c) Enrichment does not take place
d) any of the above
181. If the colour of the gossan is black, it indicates the presence of
a) Iron
b) Manganese
c) Copper
d) Graphite
182. Filter pressing movements are usually seen in
a) Immiscible liquid injected deposits
b) Residual liquid injected deposits
c) Immiscible liquid seggregated deposits
d) Residual liquid seggregated deposits

183. The best example or magmatic seggregated ores is
a) Bauxite deposits
b) Iron deposits
c) Chromium deposits
d) Phosphate deposits
184. According to the Schrumann's series, which or the following solubility?
a) Hg
b) Ag
c) Mn
d) Cu
185. Pegmatites are
a) massive mineral deposits of sedimentary origin
b) huge outcrops of fine-grained volcano-plutonic rocks
c) very coarse-grained igneous or metamorphic rocks
d) bonanzas of gold and silver
186. In a complex Pegmatite, the zone that is richest in economic minerals is
a) Border zone
b) Wall zone
c) Intermediate zone
d) Core zone
187. Which of the following deposits are commonly associated with fumaroles?
a) Sulphides
b) Phosphates
c) Carbonates
d) Oxides
188. A rich streak of ore, especially of gold and silver is termed as
a) Protore
b) Vug
c) Bonanza
d) Ore shoot
189. The mineral that responds to a change in the environment by the process of
molecular exchange is
a) Chalocite
b) Covellite
c) Cassiterite
d) Diamond
190. Tactite is a/an
a) Complex carbonate rock
b) Complex silicate rock
c) Iron meteorite
d) Stony meteorite
191. The surface expression of a major copper deposit underneath is given by a

crust of
a) Limonite
b) Malachite
c) Covellite
d) Chalcocite
192. Itabinite, jaspilite and specularite are types of
a) Banded iron formations
b) Iron stones
c) Precious metals
d) Precious stones
193. The great bulk of Banded iron formations (BIFs) was laid down during the
time interval of
a) 3500-2600 ma
b) 2600-1800 ma
c) 1800-950 ma
d) 950-570 ma
194. Which of the following types of BIF's are economically most important?
a) Oxide facies
b) Carbonate facies
c) Silicate facies
d) Sulphide facies
195. The Algoma type of BIFs was the most characteristic of
a) Orogenic Mountain belts
b) Proterozoic geosynclines
c) Archaen greenstone belts
d) Upper Jurassic lava flows
196. According to Lindgren's classification of ore deposits, the pegmatite deposits

can be described as
a) deposits formed by chemical processes in a magma by differentia tion

moderate to high pressures and high temperatures
b) deposits formed by chemical processes in bodies of rocks without introduction

of foreign substances
c) deposits of huge size formed by mechanical processes

d) direct magmatic deposits formed at low temperatures and low moderate
pressures
197. Who introduced the term 'Xenothermal' to Lindgren's classification of ore

deposits?
a) Graton (1933)
b) Buddington (1935)
c) Bateman (1942)
d) Stanton (1972)
198. Water that is trapped in sediments at the time of their deposition known as
a) Meteoric water
b) Juvenile water
c) Connate Water
d) Mine water
199. Which of the following does not represent exogenetic mineral deposits?
a) Residual deposits
b) Sedimentary deposits
c) Oxidised and secondary enriched deposits
d) Fumerolic deposits
200. The 'Pyrosomatic deposits are formed by
a) metamorphic processes
b) residual alteration
c) contact metasomatism
d) pneumatolytic alteration
201. Mineral deposits formed in which of the following suites are difficult to be
recognised by temperature-pressure criteria owing to mixing of HT and LT mineral
suites
a) Hypothermal
b) Mesothermal
c) Epithermal
d) Telethermal
e) Xenothermal
202 Match the following and choose the correct answer.
Type of deposit Example
A. Magmatic deposits 1. Sulphur deposits of Chile
B. Fumerolic deposits 2 Uranium-vanadium deposits

ofColarado, USA
C. Residual deposits
3. Kyanite deposits of Singhbhum
D. Telethermal deposits
4. Diamond deposits of Majhagawan,
M.P.
a) A-4B-IC-3D-2
b) A-2B-IC-3 D-4
c) A-I B-4C-3 D-2
d) A-4B-1C-2D-3
203. The Early Magmatic Deposits can be formed by
I. Simple crystallization without concentration.
II. Segregation of early formed crystals
III. Injection of the minerals formed elsewhere by differentiation
a) I is correct
b) I & II are correct
c) II & III are correct
d) I, II & III are correct
204. The diamond deposits of Wajrakarur in the Anantapur district of Andhra

Pradesh are an example of
a) Early magmatic dissemination deposits
b) Early magmatic segregation deposits
c) Early magmatic injection deposits
d) Residual liquid segregation deposits
205. A "Cockade ore" is formed when

a) the breccia fragments are surrounded by crusts
b) the ore is arranged in successive layers
c) fissure fillings are composed of alternate bands of quartz and al tered country
rocks
d) small crystals are developed haphazardly within cavities
206. Mineralized portions of shear zones that are formed as a result of cavity
filling or metasomatic replacement are described as
a) Lodes
b) Stockworks
c) Fahlbands
d) Saddle Reefs
207. A thin layer of clayey material that commonly lines the fissure vein deposits
is described as
a) Gouge or Selvage
b) Vug or druse
c) En echelon lense
d) Gallery
208. The term 'Leptothermal' was introduced by L.C.Graton to describe t

hydrothermal deposits which grade from
a) Hypothermal->Mesothermal
c) Epithermal-> Telethermal
b) Mesothermal->Epithermal
d) Telethermal->Xenothermal
209. Colloform textures are typically exhibited by
a) Hypothermal deposits
b) Mesothermal deposits
c) Epithermal deposits
d) Telethermal deposits
210. An ore mineralogy comprising of minerals like polybasite, stepnanite,

pearcite, pyrargyrite, proustite, petzite, slyvite, calavarite, etc is most likely to be
formed under
a) Hypothermal conditions
b) Mesothermal conditions
c) Epithermal conditions
d) Telethermal conditions
211. Which of the following are the deepest of all the hydrothermal deposits?
a) Hypothermal deposits
b) Mesothermal deposits
c) Epithermal deposits
d) Telethermal deposits
212. The chemical equation: ZnS+CuSO4 → CuS+ZnSO4 is an illustration of
a) Replacement
b) Cavity Filling
c) Deuteric alteration
d) Pneumatolytic alteration
213. Which of the following is true of a "massive" deposit?
I. It results due to the entire replacement of the host or country rock.
II. These deposits end abruptly against the host or country rock.
III. They generally preserve the structure and texture of the original rock.
IV. They vary in size and are extremely irregular in form.
a) only I is correct
b) only I & II are correct
c) only 1, II & III are correct
d) all of the above are correct
214. Which of the following rocks are most suitable for the formation of
replacement deposits?
a) Limestones
b) Sandstones
c) Quartzites
d) Granites
Mineral deposit Associated Rocks
A. Platinum 1. Anorthosites
B. Chromium 2 Norites and Peridotites
C. Titanomagnetite 3. Gabbros
D. Diamonds 4. Syenites
5. Kimberlites
a) A-1 B-2C-3D-5
b) A-2 B-1 C-4D-5
c) A-4B-2 C-3D-5
d) A-2B-1 C-3D-5
216. The "Porphyry" Copper deposits of USA are a result of deposition at
a) divergent plate boundaries
b) convergent plate boundaries
c) cratonic rift systems
d) cratonic basins
217. Accumulation of ore minerals like pyrrhotite, chalcopyrite and pentlande at
the bottom of the magma chamber indicate that the mineral deposits have
originated by
a) Early Magmatic Dissemination
b) Late Magmatic Residual Liquid Segregation
c) Late Magmatic Residual Liquid Injection
d) Immiscible Liquid Segregation
218 The Sideronitic texture is generally associated with deposits formed by
a) Early Magmatic Dissemination
b) Late Magmatic Residual Liquid Segregation
c) Late Magmatic Residual Liquid Injection
d) Immiscible Liquid Segregation
219. The Banded Magnetite Quartzite deposits of Salem district in Tamil Nadu
have resulted from
a) Hydrothermal processes
b) Magmatic processes
c) Contact Metasomatism
d) Residual Concentration
e) Sedimentation
220. Gossans are good indicators of the form and size of the underlying ore
minerals. Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?
Colour of Gossans Possible Presence of
a) Yellow or brown or red Iron ………. Iron
b) Green or blue ......... Copper
c) Waxy green …………Silver
d) Dark green ......... Manganese
221. The correct sequence of mineralization of uranium at Jaduguda Singhjhum

district of Bihar is
a) Apatite Magnetite-Copper-Uranium
b) Magnetite Apatite-Copper-Uranium
c) Uranium CopperàMagnetite-Apatite
d) Apatite Magnetite-Uranium-Copper
222. Which of the following is NOT an example of sandstone type of Uranium
deposit?
a) Mahadek Formation, Meghalaya
b) Mottur Beds, Madhya Pradesh
c) Bhuj Formation, Gujarat
d) Badam Pahar, Orissa

223. Which of the following is neither a paint nor a pigment?
a) Lithophone
b) White Lea
c) Chrome Red
d) Plaster of Paris
224. 'Spiegeleisen' is an alloy of
a) Magnesium
b) Manganese
c) Arsenic
d) Thorium
225 Choose the incorrect pair from the following
a) Azurite-copper
b) Anglesite-lead
c) Goethite-iron
d) Rhodonite-manganese
e) Saxonite-chromium
226. In which of the following places in Assam, oil has been discovered in 1998.
a) Mohanbari
b) North Balijan
c)South Kathaloni
d) All of the above
227. During 1997-98 Oil has been discovered in Deohal, Bhogpara, Shalmari and
Jeraipathar structures in the Lakadong- Therria region in Assam.
These structures are of
a) Eocene age
b) Oligocene age
c) Miocene age
d) Pliocene age
228. In the recent years Oil India Limited (OIL) is redirecting its exploratory efforts
towards prospects in
a) Deeper Paleocene and lower Eocene
b) Lower Eocene and Upper Miocene
c) Lower Eocene to Upper Oligocene
d) Pleistocene to Recent
229. The actual gold extracted in India during 1997-98 was
a) 446.29 kg
b) 514.1 kg
c) 688.24 kg
d) 937.92 kg
230. The per capita consumption of copper metal in India is about
a) 0.21 kg
b) 1.0kg
c) 5.6 kg
d) 13.14kg
231. Which country has the highest per capita consumption of copper (13.14 kg)
in the world
a) United States
b) France
c) Japan
d) Germany
232 Copper represents-------- of the total ore resources in India.
a) 58.7%
b) 42.9%
c) 33.3%
d) 25%
233. Which of the following is the most widely consumed metal in the world?
a) Iron
b) Aluminum
c) Zinc
d) Copper
234. In which of the following countries, the consumption of zinc is highest in the
world?
a) Japan
b) Korea
c) China
d) USA
235. In India the consumption of zinc is highest in
a) Die-castings
b) Alloys
c) Galvanising
d) Batteries
236. A major multi-metal world-class deposit of zinc, lead and metals had been
discovered in
a) Chicholi in Durg district of Madhya Pradesh
b) Rampura-Agucha belt in Bhilwara district of Rajasthan
c) Jhani and Bareonata in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh
d) Histau in Hazaribagh district of Bihar
237. The Oil India Limited (OIL) was started to develop the oil fields in
a) Nahorkatia
b) Moran
c) Ankleshwar
d) Bombay High
238. The Anandapur-Bhukia block in the Banswara district of Rajasthan is

associated with the recent discovery of
a) Coal Bed
b) Gold ore
c) Diamond pipes
d) Clay deposits
239. The Anumpalle kimberlite is located in
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Rajasthan
c) Bihar
d) karnataka
Place/Block
a) South Sindeswar district, Rajasthan Mineral Deposit

Ridge Block, Rajsamand
1. Diamonds
b) B. Mundayur block, Attapady
2 Pt+Pd+Au
valley, Kerala
3. Gold ores
C. Boula-Nuasahi prospect, Sukinda
belt, Orissa
D. Dibbasanipalle kimberlite, 4. Pb+Zn

Anantpur district, Andhra Pradesh
a) A-1B-2C-3D-4
b) A-4B-2C-3D-I
c) A-4B-3C-2D-1
d) A-1B-3C-2 D-4
241. Oil was first struck in India in
a) 1866
b) 1882
c) 1889
d) 1893
242. With a view to accelerate exploration efforts for oil and gas, GOI has
formulated an accelerated exploration programme (APEX). The main components
of the APEX programme are:
i. Deep water exploration
ii. Frontier area exploration
iii. National seismic survey programme
iv) Acquisition of foreign acreages/equity oil
a) i& ii are correct
b) ii, iii & iv are correct
c) i, iii & iv are correct
d) All of the above are correct
243. The giant oil field of Ankleshwar' was discovered by the ONGC in
a) 1956
b) 1958
c) 1960
d) 1963
Q.1: In nature, the metallic ore deposits generally occur as :
(a) Oxides
(b) Sulphides.
(c) Carbonates.
(d) Chlorides.
Q.2: Bauxite is an aggregate of:
(a) Gibbsite and Diaspore.
(b) Gibbsite and Bohemite.
(c) Diaspore and Bohemite.
(d) Gibbsite, Diaspore and Bohemite.
Q.3: Bauxite is a:
(a) Alternation product.
(b) Replacement product.
(c) Metamorphic product.
(d) Magmatic product.
Q.4: Lithomorage is a:
(a) Black clay.
(b) White or yellowish clay interlaminated with yellow ochres.
(c) Yellow ochre formed by magmatic processes.

(d) Clay bed sandswitched between two lava flows.
Q.5: Match the following:
1. Bauxite deposits of central and i. Khondalites.

Western India.
2. Bauxite deposits of Andhra

i. Detrital origin.
Pradesh & Orissa
ii. Deccan trap.
3. Bauxite deposits of Tamil Nadu.
iv. Charnokite.
4. Bauxite deposits of Katni(M.P.).
(a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.
(b) 1iii-, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i.
(c) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
(d) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i
0.6: Calcined bauxite is mainly used for the production of:
(a) Aluminium metal
(b) High alumina cement.
(c) High alumina refractory bricks.
(d) None of these.

Q.7: Amarkantak deposits of M.P. are associated with:
(a) Iron.
(b) Bauxite.
(c) Copper.
d) Manganese.
Q.8: The largest known deposits of bauxite in India is, located in:
(a) Amarkantak area of M.P.
(b) Bokanur Navige ridge of Karnataka.
(c) Lohardaga area of Bihar.
(d) None of these.
Q.9: Largest producer of Bauxite In India is:
(a) Madhya pradesh.
(b) Bihar.
(c) Karnatak.
(d) Maharashtra.
Q.10: The bauxite deposits occurring along the sea coast are mostly:
(a) Gibbsite.
(b) Boehmite
(c) Diaspore.
(d) Kaolinite.
Q.11: Chromite is closely associated with:
(a) Acidic rocks.
(b) Basic rocks.
(c) Sub-basic rocks.
(d) Ultrabasic rocks.
Q.12: Which state is the largest producer of chromite:
(a) Maharashtra.
(b) Orissa.
(c) Andhra Pradesh.
(d) Bihar.
Q.13: Sukinda chromite mine is situated in:
(a) Bihar.
(b) Maharashtra.
(c) Orissa
(d) Karnataka.
Q.14: Chromite belongs to which mineral group:

(a) Olivine.
(b) Spinal
(c) Pyroxene
(d) Garnet
Q.15: The chemical formula of chromite is Feo.Cr₂O3; containing……….Cr2O3 and

- .... FeO :
(a) 58% and 42% respectively.
(b) 62% and 38% respectively.
(c) 68% and 32% respectively.
(d) 72% and 28% respectively.
Q.16: Mark the odd one, regarding occurrence of bauxite deposits:
(a) Peridolite rock.
(b) Dunite rock.
(c) Norite rock.
(d) Granite rock.
Q.17: Largest depoalts of chromite in Jammu and Kashmir occurring in :
(a) Dunite intrusions.
(b) Norite rocks,
(c) Serpentines rocks.

(d) Gabbro rocks.
Q.18: Chromite deposits are product of segregation during:
(a) Early magmatic crystallisation.
(b) Late magmatic crystallisation.
(c) Residual liquid segregation.
(d) Contact metasomatism.
. Q.19: Malachite and Azurite are:
(a) Sulphides
(b) Carbonates.
(c) Oxides.
(d) Hydroxides.
Q.20: What is the chemical formula of chrysocolla:
(a) Cu₂O.
(b) CuFeS₂
(c) CuSiOS H₂O.
(d) CuS.
Q.21: The copper deposits following stratigraphic beds is:
(a) Malanjakhand copper deposits
(b) Khetri copper deposits.
(c) Rakha copper deposits.
(d) Mosabani copper deposits.
0.22: The mineralisation in Khetri copper belt has taken place in the :
(a) Granites and Gneisses rocks.
(b) Calcareous rocks.
(c) Shales and Sandstones rocks.
(d) Phyllites. schists and slates rocks.
0.23: The singhbhum copper belt extends between:
(a) Duarapuram and Bahragora.
(b) Duarapuram and Kharswan.
(c) Kharswan and seraikella.
(d) Rakha and Mosabani.
0.24: Copper mineralisation in Khetri area belongs to :
(a) Ajabgarh series.
(b) Alwar series.
(c) Railo series.

(d) Kaimur series.
Q.25: Mark the correct statement about Mosabani copper deposits:
(a) The sulphide assemblage of Mosabani situated within singhbhum shear
(b) Quartz-chlorite-Biotite Schist is the major host rock.
(c) Chalcopyrite, pyrite and pyrrhotite constitute the main ore mineral.
(d) All are correct.
Q.26: In malanjkhand the copper minerlisation has taken place in :
(a) Fractured quartz reefs
(b) Calcareous veins.
(c) Shear zones of pegmatite.
(d) All the above.
Q.27: When copper is alloyed with tin it is known as:
(a) Brass.
(b) Bronze.
(c) Type- metal.
(d) Golden metal.
Q.28: Oldest and deepest copper mine in India is:
(a) Malanjkhand.
(b) Khetri.
(c) Mosabani.
(d) Agnigundala.
Q.29: Which is the open cast copper mine in India:
(a) Khetri.
(b) Mosabani.
(c) Rakha.
(d) Malanjkhand.
Q.30: Malachite and Azurite often indicate the:
(a) Presence of Iron ore deposits below the surface.
(b) Presence of enriched sulphide below the surface.
(c) Presence of green and the blue coloured rocks below the surface.
(d) Magmatic origin of the copper ores.
Q.31: Copper deposits of Andhra Pradesh is associated with:
(a) Quartrite
(b) Dolomites
(c) Calcareous quartzite.
(d) Calcareous shales.

Q.32: The auriferous lodes of Kolar gold field is contained in:
(a) Fractures of granitic rock
(b) Shear zones in the area
(c) Quartz reefs traversing the Dharwar rocks.
(d) Minor faults in Dharwarian rocks
Q.33: The origin of Kolar gold deposits is:
(a) Hydrothermal
(b) Early magmatic.
(c) Late magmatic.
(d) Melasomatism.
Q.34: Gold is being produced in India mainly from:
(a) The gold deposits of chittor district and Ramarigi in Anantpur district of A.P.
(b) The gold-bearing belt of Wynad goldfield in Gudalur taluk of Nilgiri distt. of
Tamil
(c) The lode deposits of greenstone belts of Kolar,
(d) The singhbhum and shear zone of Bihar.
Q.35: Kolar Gold Flelds (KGF) are in the:
(a) High grade terrain.
(b) Low grade terrain.

(c) Both high and low grades terrains.
(d) Sedimentary terrain.
Q.36: Purity of gold is expressed by:
(a) The ratio 1000 Au/Au+ Ag.
(b) The ratio 100 Au/Au+ Ag.
(c) The ratio 100 Au/Au
(d) The ratio 1000 Au/Ag
Q.37: What is the total reef length in Kolar-gold-bearing belt:
(a) 6 Km.
(b) 12 Km.
(c) 18 Km.
(d) 26 Km.
0.38: Gadag gold belt is situated in:
(a) Kerala
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh.
(d) Karnataka.
0.39: Archaean is characterised by:

(a) Copper and manganese ore deposits.
(b) Uranium deposits.
(c) Simple ores of gold, chromium, nickle and copper.
(d) Presence of gold, copper and coal.
1. Magnetite. i. FeO- Fe₂O3.
2. Hematite ii. Fe₂O3.
3. Limonite. iii. Fe₂O3 n H₂O.
4. Siderite. iv. FeCO3
(a) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4iii
(b) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
(c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(d) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i.
Q.41: Mark the correct statement regarding commercial name of siderite:
(a) Spathic.
(b) Black band.
(c) Clay-ironstone.
(d) All the above are commercial name of siderite.

Q.42: Limonite is also known as:
(a) Red ore.
(b) Brown ore
(c) Black ore.
(d) Dust ore.
Q.43: Iron ore deposits of Kudremukh (kerale) are of:
(a) Sedimentary origin.
(b) Magmatic origin.
(c) Replacement origin.
(d) Residual origin.
Q.44: Hogbomite' is:
(a) An oxide of Fe and mg.
(b) An oxide of Fe, Mg. Al and Ti
(c) A hydroxide of Fe and Ni
(d) A carbonate of Fe, Ca, and Al.
Q.45: Banded Iron Formation of Kudremukh (Kerala) belongs to :
(a) The sargur Group.
(b) The Bababudan Group.
(c) The chitradurga group.

(d) The Ranibonnur group.
Q.46: Donimalal Iron ore deposits are located in:
(a) Shimoga group.
(b) Chitradurga group.
(c) Ranibennur group.
(d) Sandur schist belt.
Q.47: Mark the correct statement about the iron-ores of Karnataka :
(a) The primary source for the iron ores is the Banded Iron Formation (BIF).
(b) The BIF belongs to the Archaean.
(c) The BIF belongs to the proterozoic
Q.48: The source of allica and iron oxide In Archaean time was mainly:
(a) Biogenic.
(b) Volcanogenic.
(c) Almospheric.
(d) All the above.
Q.49: Which state has the largest proved reserves of magnetic ore:
(a) Madhya pradesh

(b) Bihar.
(c) Karnataka.
(d) Andhra pradesh
Q: , Q.50: In Kamataka BIF occurs in four district settings, the order of their
appearance from bottom upwards are:
(a) Sargur, chitradurga, Bababudan and Ranibennur.
(b) Bababadan, Chitradurga, Sargur and Ranibennur.
(c) Sargur, Bababudan, chitradurg and Ranibennur.
(d) Sargur, Ranibennur, Chitradurg and Bababudan
Q.51: Which Iron ore le chiefly mined at the Kudremukh mines:
(a) Haematite.
(b)Magnetite
(c) Siderite.
(d) Dust ore.
Q.52: Visveswaraya Iron and steel plant is located at: :
(a) Donimalai
(b) Kudremukh
(c) Vijayanagar.
(d) Bhadravathi
Q.53: Scordite is:
(a) Hydrated Iron Arsenate.
(b) Iron silicate
(c) Copper carbonate.
(d) Zinc carbonate
Q.54: Iron sulphide minerals are often Indicators of the
(a) Geochemical conditions under which they formed.
b) Depositional environments.
(c) Transportation agencies.
Q. 55 Mark rk the correct statements about Pyrite and Marcasite:
(a) "they are the most common and widespread iron sulphide minerals.
(b) They are associated with organic matter rich sediments and sedimentary
rocks.
(c) They are indicative of anaerobic sulphidic diagenesis.
Q.56: Which is the correct statement about Pyrite:
(a) It has a wide range of thermal stability upto 743°C.

(b) It is formed in marine depositional environments.
(c) It deposits under neutral to alkaline conditions.
Q.57: Canga" is:
(a) Another name of bog-iron.
(b) Mn deposit of sedimentary origin of Orissa.
(c) A Brizillian term given to iron ore formed by cementation of hematite into a
hard iron ore conglomerate.
(d) None of these.
Q.58: Chamosite and Thuringite are:
(a) Iron-carbonates minerals.
(b) Iron-silicates minerals.
(c) Iron-sulphide minerals
(d) Iron-oxide minerals.
Q.59: Noamundi Iron-mines are situated in:
(a) Madhya Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra.
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa.
Q.60: Iron ore deposits of Goa are mainly of:
(a) Magnetite type
(b) Hematite type
(c) Blue dust
(d) Both magnetite and hematite types.
Q.61: Rampura-Agucha (Rajasthan) lead-zinc deposits are located in the
(a) Budelkhand Gneiss
(b) Gangpur series.
(c) Sakol series
(d) Bhilwara bett .
0.62: Which is the richest Lead-Zinc deposits in India, known so far:
(a) Agnigundala deposits.
(b) Ambamata deposits
(c) Rampura-Aguncha deposits.
(d) Sargipalli deposits.
. Q.63: Match the following:

1. Sphalerite i. PbCO3
2. Cerussite. ii. ZnCO3.
3. Anglesite. ii. PbS.
4. Smithsonite. iv. PbSO4
(a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-lv. 4 ii
(b) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i
(c) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-4\i, 4-lv.
(d) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i
Q.64: The following figure represents the copper belt of:
(a) Khetri.
(b) Malanjkhand.
(c) Singhbhum.
(d) Aganigundala
Q.65: Pb-Zn mineralisation in Zawar belt of Rajasthan occurs at :
(a) Mochia Magra
(b) Barai Magra
(c) Zawar Malai hills.
(d) All the above.

0.66: The pb-zn mineralisation in zawar belt is largely confined to the :
(a) Schist rocks
(b) Quartite rocks
(c) Dolomite rocks
(d) Slate rocks
Q.67: Ambamata-Devi deposits are associated with:
(a) Iron ores
(b) Manganese ores.
(c) Copper ores.
(d) Lead-zinc ores
Q.68: Chemical composition of the magnesite is:
(a) MgCO3
(b) Mg(OH)2
(c) MgAl₂O4
(d) MgSO4
Q.69: Magnesite deposits in Chalk hills of Salem district. Tamilnadu are:
(a) Replacement deposits.
(b) Bedded deposits.
(c) The product of aleration of ultrabasic rocks

(d) None of these.
0.70: The chemical formula MgO represents:
(a) Magnesite.
(b) Periclase.
(c) Serpentine.
(d) Carnalite.
Q.71: The term First Generation Mine Site (FGMS)" is related with the:
(a) India's Mn-nodule mine site in the central Indian ocean.
(b) Gold mine site of Kolar.
(c) Diamond mining of panna.
(d) Mining sites situated on the top of the mountains.
1. Pyrolusite. i. Mn2O3 2H₂O.
2. Hausmanite. ii. Mn2O3
3. Braunite. iii. MnO4.
4. Pailomelane. iv. MnO2
(a) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i.
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-lv.
(c) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i.

(d) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.
Q.73: Chemical formule of the Rhodochrosite is:
(a) Mn2O3 2H2O.
(b) MnCO3.
(c) MnSiO3
(d) Mn₂O3.
Q.74: The proterozolc Mn-deposits of India :
(a) They are not associated with Iron-Formation and Black shales.
(b) They were all deposited in shallow-water basin margins.
(c) They are associated with Iron-Formation only.
(d) (a) and (b) are correct.
Q.75: The Mn-ore deposits of M.P. and Maharashtra are associated with:
(a) Gondite rocks.
(b) Kodurites rocks.
(c) Lateritic formation.
(d) Khondalite rocks.
Q.76: The Mn-ore depoalts of M.P. and Maharashtra are confined to the:
(a) Chorbaoli formation.
(b) Lohangi formation.
(c) Mansar formation.
(d) Bichua formation.
Q.77: Mark the correct statement regarding Kodurites:
(a) It is a hybrid rock.
(b) It was formed by assimilation of Mn-bearing rock material with igneous

magma.
(c) These are formed in Andhra Pradesh and adjacent parts of Orissa.
(d) All are correct.
0.78: Mn-ore of chemical grade should have:
(a) 90-95% of Mn.
(b) 82-87% of Mn.
(c) 74-78% of Mn.
(d) 60-63% of Mn.
Q.79: Manganese is used in:
(a) Manufacture of Ferro-alloy metals.
(b) Chemical and glass industries.
(c) Paints and pigments industries.

(d) All the above.
Q.80: The manganese ore deposits of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are:
(a) Residual deposits.
(b) Replacement deposits.
(c) Sedimentary deposits.
(d) Sedimentary deposits followed by metamorphism.
0.81: The function of manganese in the glass melt is:
(a) As a purifier
(b) To neutralise the effect of iron which imparts a greenish tint
(c) To get solid glass.
(d) All the above
Q.82: The major elements in Mn-nodules are:
(a) Fe and Mn
(b) Fe, Mn and Ni
(c) Fe, Mn, Ni and Cu
(d) Fe, Mn, Ni, Cu and Co.
0.83: Molybdenum is obtained from:

(a) Molybdenite
(b) Wulfenite
(c) Ferromolybdite.
(d) All the above.
Q.84: Molybdenum steels are used in:
(a) Aircraft
(b) Automobiles
(c) Oil machinery
(d) All the above.
Q.85: What is the chemical composition of Argentite:
(a) AgaS.
(b) AgCl
(c) Ag3SbS3.
(d) Ag3AsS3
Q.86 Silver mineralisation with minor amount of Cu, Pb and Zn near Bharak of
Bhilwara district Rajasthan occurs in:
(a) Schists
(b) Granitos
(c) Siliceous dolomite

(d) Calcareous sandstone.
Q.87: Wolframite is a ore of:
(a) Vanadium
(b) Cobalt.
(c) Antimony.
(d) Tungsten.
Q.88: Wolframite minerlisation of Nagaur and Palll district of Rajasthan are

associated with:
(a) Binota shales.
(b) Sewariya granite plutons.
(c) Closepet granites
(d) None of these.
0.89: Antimony mineralisation in Chamoll in Uttar Pradesh is:
(a) Occuring in precambrian (chail) rocks.
(b) The mineralisation is of synsedimentary and Hydrothermal types.
(c) Associated with copper and Iron ores.
0.90: Mark the correct statement about Platinum Group Minerals (PGM):
(a) PGM occur as immiscible segregation in early magmatic stage and are locked
up in silicates
(b) They are primarily localised in ultramific-mafic rocks.
(c) Hydrothermal activity plays a significant role in the concentration of platinum

group elements
(d) All are correct
Q.91: The Platinum Group Minerals are commonly associated with:
(a) Chromium ore deposits
(b) Chromium and Nickel ore deposits
(c) Chromium, Nickel and Copper ore deposits
(d) Nickel, Iron and Copper ore deposits
0.92: Asbestos of the amphibole group are:
(a) Amosite and Actinolite
(b) Amosite, Actinolite and Chrysolite
(c) Anthophyllite, Crocidolite, Tremolite and Chrysolite.
(d) Amosite, Actinolite, Anthophilite, Crocidolite and Tremolite.
Q.93: Chrysolite is commercially referred as:
(a) Blue asbestos.
(b) White asbestos.

(c) Black asbestos
(d) Green asbestos
Q.94: Chrysollte asbestos result from the:
(a) Magmatic liquid
(D) Alteration of serpentine.
(c) Alteration of olivine to serpentine.
(d) Hydrothermal solutions.
Q.95: Asbestos is usually associated with:
(a) Acidic rocks.
(b) Acidic and basic rocks.
(c) Basic rocks
(d) Basic and Ultrabasic rocks.
0.96: Asbestos of serpentine group is:
(a) Amosite
(b) Actinosite
(c) Chrysolite
(d) Tremolite.
0.97: Blue asbestos is another name of:

(a) Amosite.
(b) Tremolite.
(c) Anthophyllite
(d) Crocidolite
0.98: Most useful varieties of the asbestos are:
(a) Chrysolite, Amosite and Crocidolite.
(b) Chrysolite and Actinolite.
(c) Amosite, Actinolite and Tremolite.
(d) Actinolite, Anthophyllite and Tremolite
0.99: Heavy spar is the name given to :
(a) Fluorspar
(b) Baryte
(c) Cryolite
(d) Diatomite
Q.100: Chemical formula of withertte is:
(a) BaSo4
(b) BaO
(c) BaCo3
(d) BaS
Q.101: Mangampet deposit in cuddapah district (A.P.) is associated with:
(a) Fluspar
(b) Baryte.
(c) China clay.
(d) Bauxite.
Q.102: Mangampet baryte deposit in cuddapah district (A.P.) are found in:
(a) Gulcheru quartzite,
(b) Venpalle limestone.
(c) Nagri quartzite.
(d) Pullampet slate.
Q.103: Chrysolite asbestos of cuddapah district (A.P.) is found in:
(a) Srisailam quartzites.
(b) Kolamnala sheles.
(c) Contact of a bed of cuddapah limestones with a dolerite still.
(d) Tadpatri shales.
Q.104: Which metal is also known as white gold:
(a) Gold.
(b) Silver.
(c) Tungsten.
(d) Platinum
Q.105: Bharat Ratna' medal is made up of:
(a) Gold.
(b) Platinum.
(c) Silver.
(d) Diamond.
Q.106: In India most of the baryte occurrences/deposits are of:
(a) Vein type.
(b) Stringer type.
(c) Fissure type.
(d) Bedded type
Q.107: Baryte deposits in Andhra Pradesh are:
(a) Mangampeta deposits in the cuddapah district.
(b) Brahmanakutukuru deposits in the Kurnool district.
(c) Vinjamuru deposits in the Nellore district.
(d) All the above.

Q.108: Baryte deposits of Vinjamuru area in the Nellore schist belt of Southern
India is of
(a) Bacteriogenic origin.
(b) Volcanogenic origin
(c) Evaporite origin.
(d) Hydrothermal origin,
Q.109: Baryte deposits of Mangampeta (A.P.) are of:
(a) Evaporite origin.
(b) Bacteriogenic origin.
(c) Volcanogenic origin.
(d) Magmatic origin.
Q.110: Baryte may be used as:
(a) Drilling mud.
(b) Raw-material for the manufacture of lithopone.
(c) Preparation of chemicals,
(d) All the above.
Q.111: Choose the correct statement about graphite:
(a) It crystallises in a hexagonal system.
(b) It has good conductivity of heat and electricity. .

(c) It has a high refractoriness.
Q.112: Crystallisation of graphite in a rock is related to the:
(a) Temperature.
(b) Temperature and pressure.
(c) Temperature, pressure and oxygen fugacite (102).
(d) None of these.
Q.113: Graphite can be formed by:
(a) Organic matter trapped in the sediments
(b) Precipitation from carbonic fluids derived by magmatic processes.
C ) The decarbonation of carbonate rocks
(d) All the above.
0.114: Most of the graphite deposits in Orissa are found in the
(a) Granitic rocks
b)Khondalite rocks
e) Gordite rocks
d) Charnockite rocks.
0.115: Which state is the major source of graphite in India:

(a) Kamataka
B) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
d) Orissa
0.116: In nuclear reaction, pure graphite is used as:
(a) Catalyst
(b) Insulating material
(c) Moderator.
d) Frother
Q.117: What is the chemical formula of Gypsum:
(a) CaSoe 2H2O
b) CaSo
(c) CaCos
(d) CaSo4 4H2O
0.118: Fibrous or silky variety of gypsum is known as:
(a) Selenite
(b) Alabaster.
(c) Satinspar
(d) Amosite.
Q.119: Which state is the leading producer of gypsum:
(a) Rajasthan.
(b) Tamil Nadu.
(c) Gujart
(d) Uttar Pradesh.
Q.120: Plaster of Paris" is formed from:
a) Calcite.
b) Gypsum.
c) Rock salt
(d) Chalk
Q.121: Deposits of gypsum are of:
(a) Sedimentary origin.
b) Marine evaporite origin.
(c) Hydrothermal origin.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.122: Gypsum deposits in Tamil Nadu are associated with:
(a) Calcareous rocks in permian sequence
(b) Sandstone in Jurassic sequence

(c) Shales in cretaceous sequence
(d) Slates in Triassic sequence.
1. Muscovite. i. sodic mica
2. Paragonite ii. magnesium mica
3. Lepidolite iii. potassium mica
4. Phologopite iv. lithium mica
(a) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-lv, 4-iii.
(b) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
(c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
Q.124: Zinnwaldite is a:
(a) Sodium mica
(b) Iron mica.
(c) Lithium mica
(d) Lithium iron mica.
Q.125: In Indie, mice occurs in:
(a) Bihar mica be
(b) Nellore mica belt.

(c) Rajasthan mica bett
(d) All the above
Q.126: Which state is the largest producer of block mica:
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Madhya Pradesh.
(d) Maharashtra
0.127: Bihar mica belt is... long and ... wide:
(a) 100 Kms and 25 Kms.
(b) 125 Kms and 10 Kms.
(c) 150 Kms and 32 Kms.
(d) 200 Km and 75 Kms.
Q.128: Choose the correct statement regarding various mica belts in India:
a)in Nellore mica belt the host rocks are an archaean schistose complex in which
sheets, lenses and masses of pegmatites are frequently present
(b) In Rajasthan mica belt the mica pegmattes occur as intrusives in the graisses
and schists
(c) in Bihar mica belt, the mica is found in pegmatites which usually strike and dip
parallel with the enclosing schists and greisse of Archaean age
(d) All the above statement are comect.

Q.129: Red and Yellow ochre in Jammu and Kashmir is associated with:
(a) Shale rock
(b) Phyllite rock of vakrita system.
(c) Truemaline bearing gneiss rock
(d) Black graphite- bearing slate occur in the salkhala system.
0.130: Vermiculite is an alteration product of:
(a) Felspars
(b) Mica
(c) Calcite
(d) kyanite
0.131: Vermiculite generally occur associated with:
(a) Volcanic rocks.
(b) Granitic rocks
(c) Felsic rocks
(d) Ultrabasic rocks.
Q.132: Vermiculite mineralisation in Baroda district, Gujarat, is associated with:
(a) Pegmatite veins.
(b) Dolomitic marble.

(c) Intrusive calcite vein into grante
(d) Instrusive quartz tourmaline veins into biotite schist of Archaean age.
Q.133: Scott smith has classified the majhgawan diamond pipe rock as:
(a) Kimberlite.
(b) Lamproite.
(c) Diorite.
(d) Dunite
Q.134: Recent absolute age of Majhgawan diamond pipe estimated is:
(a) 1044-1067 Ma.
(b) 1510-1600 Ma
(c) 900-1000 Ma
(d) 720-810 Ma
Q.135: Who was discovered the Majhgawan diamond pipe:
(a) Scott smith (1850).
(b) B.Sahni (1910).
(c) Capt. Franklin (1827)
(d) A.B.Wynne (1902).
0.136: Majhgawan Kimberlite pipe introduced into the:

(a) Bhander limestone.
(b) Rewa sandstone.
(c) Kaimur sandstone.
(d) Semri shale.
0.137: Kimberlites of south and central Indla occur in the
(a) Archaean period only.
(b) Archaean and early proterozoic period.
(c) Late proterozoic period only.
(d) Permian period.
Q.138: All the known diamondiferous kimberhites in India are confined to the
(a) Mobile areas
(b) Cratonic areas
(c) Mountain building areas
Q.139: Non-diamondiferous kimberites are associated with:
(a) Cratonic areas
(b) Stable plateform areas.
(c) Mobile areas.

Q.140: Hot spot theory mainly supports the origin of the:
(a) Pegmatite
(b)Coal
(c) Petroleum.
(d) Kimberlite
Q.141: Deobhog mine, Ralpur (M.P.) is associated with:
(a) Gold.
(b) Copper ore.
(c) Iron ore
(d) Diamond.
Q.142: Garlband-Mainpur area of Ralpur district (M.P.) have the potential zonesin
respect of possible occurrence of:
(a) Copper.
(b) Gold.
(c) Diamond.
(d) Coal
: Q.143: Diamond deposits are found in:
(a) Baster area

(b) Singhbhum area.
(c) Kolar area.
(d) Panna area.
Q.144: Diamond is a best gem stone because of its :
(a) High refractive index.
(b) Lusture.
(c) High hardness.
(d) All the above.
. Q.145: In Panna diamond belt, diamond is recovered from:
(a) Kimberite pipes.
(b) Conglomerate beds.
(c) Gravel deposits
(d) All the above.
0.146: Wajrakarur-Lattavaram belt (A.P.) is associated with:
(a) Gold
(b) Diamond
(c) Copper
(d) Manganese
0.147: Ruby and Sapphire are the gem variety of:
(a) Quartz.
(b) Topaz.
(c) Corundum,
(d) Diamond.
Q.148: Blue coloured gem variety of corundum is:
(a) Ruby.
b) Sapphire
(c) Opal
(d) None of these
9.149: Emerald is a green variety of:
(a) Corundum.
(b) Topaz
(c) Kyanite
(d) Beryl.
Q.150: Chrysoberyl is a:
(a) Compound of beryllium and aluminium oxides
(b) Variety of Ruby.
(c) Compound of barium and aluminium silicates.

(d) Variety of corundum.
Q.151: Deep emerald-green variety is known as:
(a) Jadeite
(b) Sang-e-yeshm..
(c) Alexandrite.
(d) Aquamarine.
Q.152: The transparent red variety of zircon le known as:
(a) Aquamarine.
(b) Hyacinth.
(c) Rubelite.
(d) Amethyst
Q.153: Indicolite is a:
(a) Black variety of zircon.
(b) Red variety of Tourmaline.
(c) Green variety of Tourmaline
(d) Transparent blue variety of chrysoberyl
Q.154: Aventureine is a variety of:
(a) Gamet.
(b) Feldspar.
(c) Calcite.
(d) Beryl.
Q.155: Lapsa Buru deposit (in Kharswan, Bihar) are famous for:
(a) kyanite
(b) Bauxite
(c) Iron ore
(d) Magnesite
Q.156: Keynite deposit of Lapsa Buru, Bihar occurs in association with:
(a) Calcareous rocks.
(b) Topaz-bearing rocks.
(c) Quartz rocka.
(d) Gamnet-bearing rocks .
Q.157: Chemical composition of kyanite:
(a) Al2SO3 SIO₂
(b) Al2O3 SIO₂
(c) Al2SO3 2H2O
(d) Al2O3 SiO₂ 2H₂O

Q.158: The most important occurrence of siliminite:
(a) Khasi Hills (Assam).
(b) Nongston area (Meghalaya).
(c) Pipra area (Madhya Pradesh).
(d) All the above
Q.159: Kyanite has the hardness along the length 4-5 and across t-7, due to this
property it is sometimes known as: :
(a) Diaspore.
(B) Disthene
(c) Dicatite.
(d) Diatomite
Q.160 Andalusite converts at temperature between 1380 and 1410°C into:
(a) Kaolinite
(b)illite
(c) Mulite
(d) Muscovite.
Q.161: Rewa sillimanite is:
(a) Reddish in colour.

(b) Greenish in colou
(c) Brown in colour
(d) Black in colour.
Q.162: Neutral refractory minerals are:
(a) Chromite and graphite
(b) Kyanite and sillimanite
(c) Magnesite and dolomite
(d) Silica and fireclay .
0.163: Underground mining for talc is done at Dause, which is situated in:
(a) Tamil Nadu.
(b) Rasjasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh.
Q.164: High-grade natural abrasives are:
(a) Diamond and corundum.
(b) Diamond, emery and gamet.
(c) Corundum, emery and gamet.
(d) Diamond, corundum, emery and gamet.

Q.165: The chief raw material of ceramic Industry is:
(a) Silt
(b) Clay
(c) Kyanite
(d) Quartz
Q: Q.166: Kaolin is also known as:
(a) China clay.
(b) Ball clay.
(c) Fire clay.
(d) Fuller's earth.
Q.167: Terracotta is a/n:
(a) Grey coloured variety of ball clay. .
(b) Type of terra-rosa.
(c) Impure, buff or brown coloured variety of china clay.
(d) White, soft and earthy variety of fuller's earth
Q.168: Multani mattee is:
(a) China clay.
(b) Ball clay.
(c) Terracotta
(d) Fuller's earth.
: Q.169: The variety of plastic clay known as:
(a) Terra cotta
b) Fuller's clay.
(c) Bentonite.
(d) Ball clay.
Q.170: The essential basic raw material for manufacture of glass is:
(a) Feldspar
(b) Quartz
(c) Feldspar and Quartz
(d) Quartz and Mica.
Q.171: Aluminium in common glass may be permitted upto:
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 10 %
Q.172: The principal mineral source of fertilizer industry is/are:
(a) Gypsum .
(b) Pyrite
(c) Rock phosphates
(d) All the above
Q.173: Jhamarkotre phosphorite depoalts are located in:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Gujrat
(d) Rajasthan.
Q.174: Mark the correct statement about the phosphorite deposits of Jhabua
district (M.P.):
(a) It is a sedimentary-stromatolite type deposits
(b) occurs within the procambrain metasediments.
(c) It belongs to the Aravalli supergroup
Q.175: Hirapur phosportte deposits are found associated both with chert and
dolomite rock,are in:
(a) Gujrat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan.
(d) Uttar Pradesh.
Q.176: Apatite deposits of singhbhum occur in the form of veins and lenses in the:
(a) Granulose rocks.
(b) Gneissose rocks
(c) Schistose rocks.
(d) Granitic rocks
Q.177: Choose the correct statement regarding Kaladungar phosphorite

occurrence of Jalsalmer district (Rajasthan):
(a) It represents the Jaisalmer-Baisalmer-Baisakhi transition zone.
(b) It belongs to middle to upper Jurassic age
(c) The phosphoritic nodules are sporadically distributed in marts
Q.178: Deposits of phosphorite and the polymetallic nodules in the Indian ocean
are:
(a) Tomrigenous deposits
(b) Blogeneous deposits.
(c) Authigenic deposits.
(d) None of these.

Q.179: The blogenous deposits include:
(a) Beach deposits.
(b) Oozes, Coral and shell deposits
ic) Phosphorite and polymetallic deposits
(d) All the above .
0.180: The chief raw material of the cement Industry is:
(a) Sand
(b) clay
(c) Limestone
(d) Quartz
0.181 During the coalification process, from peat to anthracite, about.... of

methane per ton of coal is generated:
(a) 3000 ft ³
(b) 6000 ft ³
(c) 8000 ft ³
(d) 9000 ft ³
0.182: Mark the correct statement:
(a) Framboidal pyrite contributes a great deal to the formation of pyritic sulphur
in coal.
(b) In a coal seam sulphur increased form bottom to the top.
(c) in a sequence of coal seams the younger saam contains greater amount of
sulphur than the underlying older seam.
(d) All the above are correct. .
: Q.183: Requisity necessary for the blochemical changes to produce lignite from
past:
(a) Periodic wetness and dryness of the peat
(b) A moderate degree of aeration
(c) Preferably an alkaline (PH 8-8.5) and low acidic (PH 5-6) medium.
(d) All the above.
Q.184: Rank of coal means:
(a) The degree of maturation.
(b) The water content in the coal
(c) The presence of SO₂ in the coal
(d) None of these.
Q.185: Rank of coal can be determined by:
(a) Volatile matter yield of a density fraction or whole coal
(b) Average reflactivity of the vitrinite/huminite macerals of a coal seam
(c) Chemical analysis of carbonification.


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MINING GEOLOGY

1. The search for ores or other valuable minerals is termed as:

2. The actual recovery of minerals from the earth in quantity is termed as

3. The stages foilowed in mining of mineral resources is:

(a) Prospecting-Exploration - Development - Exploitation

(B) Prospecting - Development - Exploration – Exploitation

(C) Exploration-Prospecting - Development - Exploitation

(D) Prospecting-Development - Exploitation - Exploration

4.The purpose of exploration include:

1. Determine if ore can be mined or leached

3. Locate areas for infrastructure/operations

(D) 1,2 and 3

(D) 1,2 and 3

(D) 1,2 and 3

(D) Rock Phosphate

8. The Magnetic method of prospecting depends on detecting the:

(A) Magnetic susceptibility of the ore body

(B) Chemical composition of the ores

(C) Structure of the ore deposits

(D) Anomalies in Earth's magnetic field

9. Positive gravity anomalies are often associated with:

(A) Deep ocean trenches

(B) Ore bodies beneath Earth's surface

(C) Large cavem system beneath Earth's surface

(D) All of these

10. In a 1:50,000 scale topographic map a distance of 0.25 cm represents?

11. The purpose of drilling is:

1. Making holes for blasting

2. Sub-surface sample coilection to estimate quality and quantity of ore

3. Development of mine for drainage, slope stability etc.

12. The example of percussion drill is:

3. Jack hammer drill

B) Jack hammer drill

(C) Diamond drill

(D) Both (A) and (C)

14. The geochemical prospecting is done by:

2. Stream sediments samples

(A) Remote sensing - by using satellite imageries

(B) Geophysical survey

(c) Core Drilling

(D) Geological mapping

(A) Churn drill

(B) Jack hammer drill

(c) Auger drill

(D) Diamond drill

(A) Mechanical drill

(B) Hydraulic drill

(C) Pneumatic drill

(D) Electric drill

18. Churn drill is a type of

(A) Percussion drilling

(B) Rotary drilling

(C) Jet drilling

(D) None of these

(A) Percussion drill

(B) Rotary drill

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Top hammer drill

21. The amount of mineral contained in a piece of ore:

(A) Quality control