1

NP1 BULONGS
1. Identify the patient. Compare the information with the eMAR/MAR. The patient should be identifed using
at least two of the following methods (The Joint Commission, 2018):
• Check the name on the patient’s identifcation band.
• Check the identifcation number on the patient’s identifcation band.
• Check the birth date on the patient’s identifcation band.
• Ask the patient to state his or her name and birth date, based on facility policy.

2. Your unit is reviewing national sentinel event alerts medication and preparing recommendations for the unit. Which
strategy would help reduce medication errors?
i. Utilized only oral syringes to administer oral medication
ii. Eliminate the pediatric satellite pharmacy
iii. Increase the steps in the medical administration procedure
iv. Limit the size of I.V. fluids bags that can be hung on small children
v. Reduce the available concentrations or dose-strengths of high alert medications
a. 1, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 3, 4, 5

3. GARBAGE BAG COLOR CODING

*GREEN → biodegradable
*BLACK → Nonbiodegradable
*YELLOW → INFECTIOUS and pathological wastes (human tissue)
*ORANGE → Radioactive wastes
*RED → SHARPS (syringe, ampules, broken glasses, etc)

NP2 BULONGS
4. The patient asked what is the term for signs such as breast changes, urinary frequency, fatigue, morning sickness and
amenorrhea?
A. Probable signs
B. Presumptive signs
C. Possible signs
D. Positive signs

5. The patient asked what causes newborn babies with total absence of extremities. The nurse answered that the cause for
Amelia is intake of which of the following medications during pregnancy:
A. Anti-emetics
B. Antibiotics
C. Analgesics
D. Antidiarrheals
Rationale: Thalidomide (Contergan) was used to treat morning sickness during pregnancy. But it was found to cause disabilities in
the babies born to those taking the drug.

***Thalidomide is used today for the treatment of myeloma (a type of cancer that starts in the bone marrow) and also for the
treatment of Hansen's disease (once known as leprosy).

**MOA: Thalidomide and IMiDs inhibit the production of interleukin (IL)-6, which is a growth factor for the proliferation of
myeloma cells. In addition, they activate apoptotic pathways through caspase 8-mediated cell death.
Reference: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/16344099/

6. The patient complained that every morning, she becomes nauseated and oftentimes, she would vomit excessively. “What
could be the cause of this,” she asked? The nurse’s answer is: “It is due to increase level of ________.”
A. Heart burn
B. Estrogen
C. LH
D. Progesterone
Rationale: Progesterone causes relaxation of smooth muscles leading to Heart burn, hyperemesis, constipation, etc. Estrogen is
responsible for SECRETIONS such as breastmilk, hypersalivation, leukocytosis, etc.

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7. The nurse advised a 3-month pregnant patient named Apple, to report to her physician which of the following MOST
important sign, if ever she will suffer from it?
A. Cough
B. Vaginal bleeding
C. Headache
D. Strong fetal movement
Rationale: Any evidence of vaginal bleeding throughout the pregnancy period is considered dangerous. Option D will only be felt on
the 4th (multi) or 5th month (primi).

8. Which of the following is NOT included among the outcomes of folic acid deficiency to the baby? *
A. Cleft lip
B. Cleft palate
C. Neural tube defect
D. Fractures of all types
Rationale: The two most common neural tube defects are spina bifida and anencephaly.
Prevention: 400mcg daily dose of Folic Acid
References:
https://www.cdc.gov/ncbddd/birthdefects/facts-about-neural-tube-defects.html https://innovationdistrict.childrensnational.org/oral-
clefts-may-stem-from-a-shared-genetic-cause-as-neural-tube-defects/

9. A woman in labor is at risk for abruptio placenta. Which of the following assessments would MOST convince you and the
pregnant woman to believe that this has happened? *
A. Painless vaginal bleeding and downward trend of BP.
B. An increased blood pressure and scanty urination.
C. Pain at the lower quadrant and increased pulse rate.
D. Sharp fundal pain and discomfort between contractions.

10. A woman, 33 weeks pregnant, with preterm rupture of membranes had blood work ordered daily. Which laboratory report
would be MOST important to read daily?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Red blood cell count
C. Sodium and potassium levels
D. White blood cell count

11. An 18 –year –old delivers an 8 –pound baby after 10 hours of labor. In the post-partal period, which of the following
would be a PRIORITY concern to assess for by the nurse?
A. Endometritis
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Bleeding
D. Amniotic Embolus

12. Chief function of progesterone → Prepares the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum
*Progesterone is also responsible for RELAXATION of smooth muscles causing → heartburn (due to relaxation of cardiac
sphincter), constipation (due to relaxation of GI musculature)
13. Estrogen → responsible for SECRETIONS during pregnancy (hypersalivation, COLOSTRUM production, Leukorrhea)

SITUATION: The nurse provides health education to a group of adolescents about pelvicinflammatory disease. (PID).
14. The nurse explains that prevention of PID in adolescents is important due to which of the
following reasons. PID ________:
A. Can have devastating effects on the reproductive tract of affected adolescents
B. Is easily prevented by compliance to any form of contraception
C. Can cause life-threating defects in infants born to affected adolescents.
D. Is easily prevented by proper personal hygiene
***PID can lead to permanent scarring of fallopian tubes (leading to ectopic pregnancy) and uterus (leading to habitual abortion)

15. The nurse explains to the group of adolescents that the most common cause of PID is _______:
A. Tuberculosis bacilli
B. Gonorrhea
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
***Sexually Transmitted Diseases are the most common cause of PID. Contraceptives such as IUD use can also be a factor.

16. The nurse further explains that PID presents the following signs and symptoms, which the adolescent should be aware of:
A. A hard painless, red and defined lesion on the genital area
B. Small vesicles on the genital area with itching
C. Lower abdominal pain and urinary tract infection
D. Cervical discharge with redness and edema

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17. Which of the following statements is true when teaching adolescents about gonorrhea?
A. Gonorrhea may be contracted through contact with a contaminated toilet seat.
B. The infectious agent for gonorrhea is Neisseria gonorrheae.
C. Gonorrhea is most often treated by multidose of administration of penicillin.
D. Treatment of sexual partners is an essential part of treatment.
*Option A → Gonorrhea (Gleet) is a sexually transmitted disease
*Option C → DOC for Gonorrhea is CEFTRIAXONE
*Option D → 60 days after sexual contact patient needs to be treated. There’s no need to inform partner.

18. The nurse further explains to the adolescents that gonorrhea is highly infectious and it ____:
A. Is limited to the external genitalia
B. Can lead to sterility
C. Is easily treated
D. Occurs rarely among adolescents

SITUATION: A mother with the diagnosis of AIDS states that she has been caring for her baby even though she has not been
feeling well.
19. What important information should the nurse determine?
a. is she has kissed the baby
b. if the baby is breastfeeding
c. when the baby last received antibiotics
d. how long she has been caring for the baby

20. The nurse is planning to provide discharge teaching to the family of a client with AIDS. Which statement should the nurse
include in the teaching plan?
a. “Wash the dishes in hot soap as you usually do.”
b. “Let the dishes soak in hot water overnight before washing.”
c. “You should boil the client’s dishes for 30 minutes after use.”
d. “have the client eat from paper plates so they can be discharged.”

21. During an AIDS education class a client states, “Vaseline works great when I use condoms.” Which conclusions about the
client’s knowledge of condom use can the nurse draw this statement?
a. an understanding of safer sex
b. an ability to assume self-responsibility
c. ignorance concerning correct condom use
d. ignorance concerning the transmission of HIV

22. The client with AIDS is experiencing nausea and vomiting. The Nurse would make which of the following dietary
alterations for this client to enhance nutritional intake?
a. Avoid dairy products and red meat
b. Plan large nutritious meals
c. Add spices to food to enhance flavour
d. Serve foods while they are warm

23. The Physician orders a Paracentesis. How should the nurse instruct the client to prepare for the procedure?
a. void before the procedure
b. a laxative the evening before the procedure
c. nothing by mouth for 8 hours before the procedure
d. a low soapsuds enema the morning of the procedure

24. While assessing a newborn with cleft lip, the nurse should be alerted on which of the following that will MOST likely be
compromised?
A. Locomotion
B. Respiratory status
C. GI function
D. Sucking ability

25. The mother asks the head nurse why the pediatrician recommended that closure of the palate should be done before he
is 6 months old. She asked Nurse Hannah to answer her. Which of the following is Nurse Hannah’s APPROPRIATE
response? *
A. “After age 2, surgery is very frightening and should be avoided if possible.”
B. “The eruption of the 2-year molars often complicates the surgical procedure.”
C. “Surgery should be performed before the child starts to use faulty speech patterns.”
D. “As he gets older the palate gets wider and more difficult to repair.”
***Post-op plan of care: collaboration and referral of the patient with cleft palate to SPEECH THERAPIST

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26. The head nurse continued to ask Nurse Hannah, “A cleft lip predispose an infant to infections PRIMARILY because of
which of the following reasons?”
A. Waste products that accumulate along the defect.
B. Inadequate circulation in the defective area.
C. Deficient nutrition from ineffective feeding.
D. Mouth breathing that dries the oropharyngeal mucous membranes.

27. Which of the following is the number ONE consideration in the care of an infant after the surgical repair of a cleft lip?
A. Preventing the infant from crying
B. Feeding the infant with a spoon for 2 days after surgery
C. Placing the infant in a semi-sitting position
D. Keeping the infant NPO for 1 day after surgery.
***Condition of the patient needs immediate notification of the surgeon by the nurse that will warrant suspension of cleft lip/palate
surgery → NASOPHARYNGITIS

28. A pedia patient will be taking phenytoin (Dilantin) regularly for seizure control. Which of the following will be the MOST
important teaching to patient’s family?
A. Administer acetaminophen to promote sleep.
B. Serve a diet that is high in iron
C. Maintain good oral hygiene and dental care
D. Omit medication if the child is seizure free.

29. Dosage, when giving medicine to pediatric patients, varies according to:
1. Size (Weight)
2. Surface area
3. Age of child
4. Height
See Nomogram, Young’s Rule, Fried’s Rule, Clark’s rule in pediatric dose calculation

***The possibility of error is greater in the giving of medication to children than to adults.

30. Coarctation of the Aorta Hallmark → Hypertension and diminished pulses in lower extremities
31. Importance of play during infancy → COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT
32. You have a newly admitted patient with bulging fontanels, setting-sun eyes, and lethargy. Which of the following doctor’s
orders would you question → LUMBAR PUNCTURE
33. Bacterial Meningitis → DROPLET precaution

PALMER BULONGS
34. As a means to solve any crisis or scarcity in any health care systems, providing an equitable distribution of resources is
based on what bio ethical principle → JUSTICE
35. 5S audit identifies how well you are implementing Kaizen (continuous improvement) 5S meaning → Sort, Straighten,
Shine, Standardize, Sustain
36. The main benefits of Gantt Charts are: easy to schedule the tasks, easy to understand, clear and visual representation of
time frames.
37. 5 Features of GANTT CHART (NDD-HR)
Task NAME
Task DURATION
DEPENDENCIES
Task HIERARCHY
RESOURCE names/roles

38. What element distinguishes a true experimental research from a quasi-experimental research → Lack of random
assignment of subject to group (experimental or control)
39. A requirement of informed consent is voluntariness. It means, freedom of choice without the following conditions,
EXCEPT → CONSEQUENCES

40. A male psychiatric nurse receives a call asking whether a certain person has been a patient in the facility. How should the
nurse respond? Nurse_______________.
a. States that he is unable to give any information to the caller
b. Asks the caller why the information is being sought

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c. Suggests to the caller to speak to Mr X’s doctor

d. States that Mr X has been at the facility but gives no further information

SITUATION: Ms. Historia is a nurse supervisor of three departments in hospital X. She attends an orientation seminar on charting
and hospital records management.

41. One of the characteristics of charting is BREVITY. Which of the following examples of charting shows this characteristic?
a. Nurse brought the patient to OR via stretcher at 10:15
b. Patient left for surgery via stretcher at 10:15 am
c. To surgery via stretcher at 10:15am
d. Patient brought by the nurse to OR via stretcher at 10:15 accompanied by “bantay”

42. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for late entry in charting?
a. Nurse’s initials above the time
b. May be made if something has been forgotten
c. Circle it and write “late entry”
d. Reason for the late entry

43. There is a blank space after your last entry in your charting. You will:
a. Draw a double line after your last entry
b. Sign your full name after your last entry
c. Draw a horizontal line through the center of an empty line
d. Draw a perpendicular line across the empty space

44. Which of the following should the nurse’s notes focus on?
a. Immediate past and present
b. The present only
c. The future
d. The recent past

45. Which of the following sample charting would show the characteristics of ACCURACY?
a. Intake from 700-1000mL: 80mL of coffee; 240mL of orange juice; 500mL of water
b. Patient on forced fluid but refused to take it most of the time
c. Patient on forced fluids observed
d. Given fluid at frequent intervals but takes only a few sips

46. Ms. Historia understands that good client care relies on good record keeping. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of
hospital record keeping?
a. Records provide evidence of a hospital’s accountability.
b. Records are a key source of data for medical research or statistical reports.
c. Records provide data on health information system.
d. Records provide personal information on the physicians and nurses caring for the clients.

47. Ms. Historia is aware that when a client is readmitted to a hospital, the client’s file is
retrieved from the _______________.
a. physician’s file
b. civil service file
c. master patient index file
d. hospital library record file

48. Ms. Historia is aware that when a client is discharged or dies, the following details should be entered in the client’s record
which is the_______________.
a. Final diagnosis
b. Outcomes classification
c. Educational attainment
d. Religion

49. The following statements are true about patients and hospital records EXCEPT:
a. Confidential records must be protected against loss, damage, unauthorized access, modification and disclosure
b. Patients have the right to confidential treatment of information they provide to health professional
c. Health records are the property of community where the patient is treated
d. Hospital records maybe released without the patient’s consent when required in investigation for serious criminal offenses
***The OWNER of the CHART is the HOSPITAL
***The OWNER of INFO in the chart is the PATIENT. Therefore, patient can BORROW his/her own chart.

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50. EXPERIMENTAL Research Design → involves INTERVENTION and BLINDING

***Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT, True experimental design) → Gold standard of research evidence
***Ultimate Goal of Nsg Research → to improve HEALTHCARE/PATIENT outcomes and healthcare delivery

51. Which of the following statements is LEAST descriptive of a QUALItative design?

a. Researchers become involved
b. Gather data from one collection strategy
c. It is flexible and elastic
d. Strives for understanding of the whole strategy

NP 3 & 4 BULONGS
52. Analgesic of choice for Acute Pancreatitis → MORPHINE SO4 (Or Opioids with larger therapeutic width)
From literature study it appeared that all opioids have a spasmogenic effect on the sphincter of Oddi. Drawbacks of the use of
meperidine compared with other opiods are myoclonias, tremors and convulsions due to accumulation of the metabolite
norpethidine, and hypotension, tachycardia and erythema due to release of more histamine from mast cells.
Reference: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/10774293/

53. Latanoprost (Xalatan) → Decreases the intraocular pressure in the affected eye

SITUATION: You are a staff nurse in the Eye Unit of the hospital. In the regular Quality Circle meeting one of the matters discussed
was the increasing complaints of patients who underwent eye surgery in relation to instillation of eye drops. The case of Maureen
who has cataract surgery was presented as a frame of reference in the reviewing the procedure on eye drops instillation.

54. Which of the following is the rationale for instilling eye drops to patients who had eye surgery?
A. To help control the intra-ocular pressure.
B. To dilate the patient’s pupils
C. To treat an eye infection
D. To constrict the patient’s pupils

55. You have observed presence of drainage in Maureen’s eyes. Which of the following eye solutions would you use in
cleaning her eyes?
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Normal saline solution
C. Mineral water
D. Soapsuds solutions

56. In instilling the eye drops you have to tilt the back Maureen’s head slightly. Which of the following is the rationale for this
nursing action?
A. To prevent any spill from the eye during the procedure
B. To keep any debris away from the lacrimal duct.
C. To facilitate the procedure.
D. To reach the conjunctival sac easily.

57. You accidentally touch Maureen’s eyelid during eye drop instillation causing her to blink. What should have you done to
prevent this from occurring?
A. Touch the inner side of the medicine cap
B. Tilt back Claudia’s head slightly
C. Hold the dropper close to the eye but do not allow the medication to fall into the cornea.
D. Have Claudia look up and focus on something

58. You cannot open Maureen’s eyes due to dried crust. Which of the following actions would you do?
A. Apply the eye drops the next day
B. Apply eye ointment to soften the crust
C. Instill eye drops
D. Place a warm wet wash cloth over her eyes for at least three minutes

59. CT-SCAN is the confirmatory test for STROKE, to differentiate whether ischemic or hemorrhagic in nature
60. ISCHEMIC stroke treatment
a.
Anticoagulants (Heparin, Warfarin) → prevents NEW clot formation
b.
Thrombolytics (UroKINASE, StreptoKINASE, Alteplase) → dissolves EXISTING clot
*Alteplase is aka Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA)
61. HEMORRHAGIC stroke Treatment → ANTIFIBRINOLYTICS (Tranexamic acid, Aminocaproic acid)

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62. OXYGEN is administered for stroke patients to lessen cerebral HYPOXIA and Respiratory Acidosis
*4 minutes after severe cerebral hypoxia, irreversible BRAIN DAMAGE occurs
*Respiratory ACIDOSIS causes cerebral vasoDILATION which aggravates increased ICP
63. CONTRAlateral deficit → affected body part is OPPOSITE the site of brain lesion
64. IPSIlateral deficit → affected body part is in the SAME side of brain lesion
65. ISHIHARA Test → confirmatory test for COLOR BLINDNESS

SITUATION: A 60 year old male is admitted to the oncology unit. According to the client, he felt a growth during a routine digital
prostate examination. He complains of pain on urination and frequent urination.

66. The nurse understands that the function of the prostate gland is primarily to ______;
A. Regulate the acidity and alkalinity environment for proper sperm development.
B. Produce a secretion that aids the nourishment and passage of sperm.
C. Secrete a hormone that stimulates the production and maturation of sperm.
D. Store undeveloped sperm before ejaculation.
Rationale: The prostate's primary function is to produce the fluid that nourishes and transports sperm (seminal fluid).
*Option A → Semen
Option C → Anterior Pituitary
Option D → Epididymis
Reference: https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/prostate-cancer/multimedia/prostate-gland/img-20006060

67. The nurse analyzes the laboratory values and notes that the serum phosphate level is elevated. This finding indicates
which of the following:
A. It confirms the diagnosis of prostate cancer.
B. The progression or regression of prostate cancer.
C. The likelihood of metastasis to the bones.
D. There are complications associated with cancer.

68. The nurse knows that hormone therapy is the mode of treatment for a client with prostate
cancer. The goal of this form of treatment is to ______:
A. Limit the amount of circulating androgens.
B. Increase prostaglandin level.
C. Increase the amount of circulating androgens.
D. Increase testosterone level.

69. The nurse writes a nursing diagnosis of Fear and Anxiety secondary to the diagnosis of prostate cancer. Which of the
following interventions would be BEST for the nurse?
A. Encourage the client to keep his feelings to himself so his family will not be affected.
B. Establish a nurse patient therapeutic relationship.
C. Advise the client to have a positive outlook relationship.
D. Provide spiritual support to the client.

SITUATION: Health care personnel including nurses are part of a team trained to respond to disasters that may occur in the
community. The following questions relate to disaster preparedness.
70. In disaster preparedness, which of the following is a responsibility of the nurse? The nurse _____;
A. Assists in assigning tasks to members of the emergency response team.
B. Serves as an advocate of the victim of disaster.
C. Assumes a leadership role in the command center.
D. Assists with triage and emergency health care needs of the injured or those involved in the disaster.

71. A disaster preparedness plan is a formal plan of action for coordinating the response of a health care personnel, local
government unit and other trained personnel in the event of a disaster. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE
about disaster?
A. Disasters involve inter agencies working together.
B. Disaster are natural events that causes destruction and devastation.
C. Disasters can be controlled.
D. Disasters result from human-made errors.

72. Which of the following concepts BEST describes reverse triage?

A. Test first responders on their skill in triage classifications.
B. Save scarce resource for future use.
C. Do the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
D. Save the ones injured who are in the most critical condition.
*** In REVERSE (military) TRIAGE, the priority is the LEAST injured (GREEN tag)

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Options BCD are true for ORDINARY triage in which the priority are people with the highest chances of survival requiring the least
amount of resources (RED tag)

73. The nurse in a disaster situation classifies victims according to the following EXCEPT________?
A. Urgency of treatment
B. Resources available to treat the victims
C. Severity of injury
D. Place of treatment

74. A nurse is the first responder in a disaster scene. The nurse should FIRST________:
A. Begin to triage the victims.
B. Wait for rescue workers to arrive at the scene.
C. Care for victim with life threatening problems.
D. Attend to person with disabilities.

75. IMPOTENCE → most common complication of TURP

76. 3rd DEGREE BURN → area is WHITE and LEATHERY with NO blisters

77. Plain Lactated Ringer’s Solution (PLR) → best IV fluid for shock. It corrects fluid imbalance and acidosis.

78. Patient in Massive hemorrhagic SHOCK → RED TAG

79. Multiple Myeloma → affects the B-Plasma cells in the bone marrow which produces antibodies

80. Myeloma symptoms include: HYPERuricemia, HYPERcalcemia, HYPERphosphatemia and presence of BENCE-JONES
proteins in the Urine

81. CHEMOTHERAPY DRUGS

I. Cell cycle SPECIFIC (CAVAT)

C-ampothecin Analogues
A-ntimetabolites
V-inca/Plant alkaloids
A-ntitumor antibiotics
T-yrosine kinase inhibitor (ImaTINIB)

II. Cell cycle NONSPECIFIC (AHA)

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A-lkylating agents
H-ormonal agents (Taxanes)
A-nthracyclins (doxoRUBICIN, daunoRUBICIN, epiRUBICIN and idaRUBICIN)

NP 5 BULONGS
82. The nurse learns that a patient was admitted involuntarily on the shift. What assumption can the nurse make about
the patient?
a. For the first 48 hours, he can be given medication despite his objections
b. He can leave the ward upon demand
c. At the time of admission, he was considered to be an imminent danger to himself or to others
d. He has agreed to accept the treatment and participate fully in care planning
Rationale:
Option A → for INVOLUNTARY admission, patient can receive treatment despite his objection within 24 HOURS upon admission only
Option B and D → refer to VOLUNTARY admission

83. PRN orders for restraints are unacceptable

84. A 3-year-old boy was brought to a Pediatric clinic for indifferent behavior. About a month after their toddler is diagnosed
as moderately retarded, the parents discuss he toddler’s future, reflecting specifically on plans for their child’s independent
functioning. The nurse recognizes that the parents:
A. Are using denial
B. Accept the child’s diagnoses
C. Are using intellectualization
D. Accept their child’s limitation

85. The nurse utilizes play when interacting with children based on the understanding that play for the preschool-age child is
necessary for the emotional development of:
A. Projection
B. Introjection
C. Competition
D. Independence

86. Common defense mechanism of sexually abused children → REPRESSION

87. Common defense mechanism of PARANOID patients → PROJECTION
88. Common defense mechanism of patients with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder → UNDOING
89. Common defense mechanism of Substance Abusers, Gamblers → Denial, Projection
90. Common defense mechanism of pt with Borderline Personality → Splitting

SITUATION: Ella, a 10-year-old grade four pupil in a private school has just lost her best friend Lory, who died of leukemia. Her
mother brought her to the ER because Ella has been gloomy and often expresses feeling of joining Lory in heaven.
91. Which of the following is the precipitating factor for Ella’s feeling of wanting to die?
a. Lory’s death
b. Her age
c. Her authoritarian mother
d. Her fear of death

92. Ella’s feeling of joining Lory in heaven is a manifestation of:

a. Suicidal intent
b. Suicidal threat
c. Paranoia
d. Suicidal ideation

93. Ella states, “I will hang myself.” This is a manifestation of:

a. Denial
b. Suicidal threat
c. Suicidal intent
d. Paranoia

94. Which of the following is the best predictor of adolescent attempting suicide?
a. Depressed mood
b. Joyful mood
c. Feeling of euphoria
d. Feeling of hopefulness

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95. Ella states, “I wish I were dead. I cannot stand anymore not having Lory around.” Your most appropriate action would be
to:
a. Do nothing because Ella will not do it
b. Give Ella more time to reflect
c. Stay with Ella
d. Endorse Ella to the resident psychiatrist

SITUATION: Grieving and Loss is a universal occurrence but is experienced uniquely by people. The following questions apply:

96. When human needs are taken away or not met for some reasons, a person experiences loss. Using Maslow’s hierarchy of
human needs, which of the following will the nurse consider a loss in case of death?
a. Loss of security and loss of sense of belonging
b. Loss related to self-actualization
c. Physiologic and safety loss
d. Loss of self esteem

97. Vangie, 73-year-old with a comorbidity of hypertension and asthma, has died of COVID. Ariel grieved and mourned for
her mother’s untimely death. He is now aware that his mother is one of the 13, 425 reported deaths. The nurse will
consider at what stage of grieving process is Ariel experiencing?
a. Depression
b. Bargaining
c. Denial and anger
d. Acceptance

98. Which of the following gives cue to the nurse that the patient may be grieving for a loss?
a. Thoughts, feelings, behavior, and physiologic complains
b. Hallucination, panic level of anxiety, sense of impending loss
c. Sad affect, anger, anxiety, and sudden change of mood
d. Complaints of abdominal pain, diarrhea, loss of appetite

99. Which of the following situations will the nurse consider as risk factors for complicated grief?
a. Childbirth, marriage, and divorce
b. Death of a spouse, death by suicide of a child
c. Inadequate perception of the grieving process
d. Inadequate support and old age

100.As a nurse, which of the following are the critical factors for successful integration of loss during the grieving process?
a. The patient’s predictable and steady movement from one stage of the process to the next
b. Accurate assessment and intervention by the nurse or helping person
c. The nurse’s trustworthiness and healthy attitude about grief
d. The person’s adequate perception, adequate support and adequate coping

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