PHILIPPINE SOCIETY OF AGRICULTURAL AND BIOSYSTEMS ENGINEERS

REGION IV-A
ABE ONLINE REVIEW CLASS 2023

PREBOARDS EXAMINATION
______________________________________________________________________________

AB POWER, ENERGY, & MACHINERY ENGINEERING AND ALLIED SUBJECTS

INSTRUCTIONS: Shade the letter of the corresponding answer on the answer sheet provided.

1. Performance criteria for rice combine harvester in terms of scattering loss.

a. 1.2% maximum c. 1.3% maximum
b. 0.2% maximum d. 0.3% maximum

2. The percentage of plant damage of a weeder shall not exceed

a. 4% b. 5% c. 6% d. 7%

3. Allowable cracked grain, % increase, maximum of heated-air mechanical rice dryer (continuous flow).
a. 2.0 b. 3.0 c. 10.0 d. 1.0

4. Minimum percent head rice index of single pass rubber-roll rice mill.
a. 0.81 b. 0.85 c. 0.90 d. 0.95

5. Minimum hulling efficiency of impeller-type rice mill.

a. 68% b. 75% c. 79% d. 81%

6. Determine the brake thermal efficiency of a 5-hp gasoline engine consuming 2 liters of fuel in an hour?
a. 19% b. 20% c. 30% d. 35%

7. A 5-liter engine consumes 11.5 liters of diesel fuel in 30 minutes. The engine is operating with a thermal
efficiency of 18% and is running at 2400 rpm. Calculate the brake torque.
a. 447 N-m b. 86.9 N-m c. 173.8 N-m d. 89.4 N-m

8. A 15.6-liter, 4-cycle engine produces a brake mean effective pressure 1077 kPa. Calculate the brake torque.
a. 1337 N-m b. 2674 N-m c. 4200 N-m d. 669 N-m

9. Approximate four-wheel tractor engine power for 4-bottom moldboard plow.

a. 26 to 34 kW b. 19 to 22 kW c. 60 to 97 kW d. 37 to 45 kW

10. What is the efficiency of the transmission if the input speed is 2000 rpm, input torque of 220 lb-ft and an
output torque at the final drive is 17000 lb-ft at 19 rpm?
a. 8.6% b. 91.4% c. 77.3% d. 73.4%

11. Minimum seeding efficiency for Rice Precision Seeder?

a. 70% b. 75% c. 80% d. 85%

12. The machine’s depth of cut for plowing and rotary tilling specified in the Methods of Test of walking-type
agricultural tractor.
a. exactly 100 mm c. 90 mm to 110 mm
b. 100 to 150 mm d. more than 150 mm

13. The distance from the center of the crankshaft to the center of the crankpin.
a. Crank stroke c. Crank rod
b. Cam shaft d. Crank throw
14. A lever that can be adjusted to admit more or less fuel mixture which could control the speed of the engine
a. Choke Lever c. Fuel Cock Lever
b. Decompression Lever d. Throttle lever

15. What is the engine displacement for a 10 cm by 15 cm engine with 4 cylinders?

a. 5 L b. 4.7 L c. 2.5 L d. 1.3 L

16. How much power is received by a pump run by a 7.5-hp engine running at 2800 rpm if a 3% slip is allowed
between the belt and pulleys?
a. 7.3 hp b. 7.5 hp c. 9.75 hp d. 7.0 hp

17. Single-axle machine powered by an engine ranging from 3 to 15 hp:

a. 2-wheel tractor c. Compact tractor
b. Standard tractor d. General purpose tractor

18. The gearbox placed on first gear will develop:

a. High torque-high speed c. Low torque-low speed
b. High torque-low speed d. Low torque-high speed

19. An engine has a mechanical efficiency of 80%. If the engine delivers 200Nm of torque to the wheels of a
tractor and the transmission ratio is 4:1, what is the torque produced by the engine crankshaft?
a. 800 Nm b. 50 Nm c. 40 Nm d. 62.5 Nm
20. The displacement volume of an engine is 4.2 liters, and it operates on a 4-stroke cycle. If the engine
completes 1500 revolutions, how many power strokes occur during this period?
a. 750 b. 1500 c. 2250 d. 3000

21. The intake manifold of an engine has a pressure of 0.9 bar absolute. If the manifold pressure is raised to 1.2
bar absolute during turbocharging, what is the boost pressure?
a. 0.2 bar b. 0.3 bar c. 1.2 bar d. 2.1 bar

22. In a multi-cylinder engine, what is the purpose of a crankshaft’s counterweight?

a. To balance the weight of the engine c. To reduce friction between moving parts
b. To balance the rotating forces and reduce vibrations d. To regulate the timing of valve operation

23. In the Otto cycle, what is the significance of the isentropic compression and expansion processes?
a. They define the combustion process c. They represent the intake and exhaust strokes
b. They establish the compression ratio d. They model the idealized behavior of an engine

24. The term knocking or pinging in relation to the engine refers to:
a. A malfunction in the ignition system c. A specific type of exhaust note
b. Uncontrolled combustion of fuel leading to pressure waves d. Valve timing irregularities

25. Which engine parameter is often adjusted to control the power output and efficiency of a turbocharged
combustion engine?
a. Camshaft profile b. Compression ratio c. Boost pressure d. Sparkplug gap

26. The exhaust valve of a 4-stroke engine, having a 45-cm diameter flywheel, opens 5 cm as measured on the
flywheel before the crank center and closes 1.25 cm after the head center. How long in degrees is it open?
a. 97.2° b. 164.1° c. 195.9° d. 198.3°

27. Assuming complete combustion, how much heat is generated in the cylinder of an engine consuming 8
liters of gasoline in an hour?
a. 77.75 kW b. 279.9 kW c. 279.9 MW d. 77.75 MW
28. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 18:1. If the air temperature at the start of compression is 20°C
and the air is compressed adiabatically, what will be the final temperature of the air after compression?
a. 66.29°C b. 360°C c. 720.94°C d. 1143.96°C

29. Trading entity authorized by foreign and local suppliers and/or manufacturers to distribute agricultural
machinery to dealers:
a. Manufacturer c. Distributor
b. Dealer d. Entrepreneur

30. The field area (m2) required for testing the performance of a hand tractor is
a. 200 b. 300 c. 400 d. 500

31. It is a type of nozzle that is best suited for flat surfaces like application of herbicides.
a. Hollow cone type nozzle c. Solid cone nozzle
b. Fan type nozzle d. Cone type nozzle

32. Sprayers are used primarily for the application of:

a. Herbicides b. Insecticide c. Fungicides d. Pesticides

33. Level of operation where it neither produces a profit nor incurs a loss is:
a. Benefit-Cost Ratio c. Break-Even Point
b. Internal Rate of Return d. Payback Period

34. Which of the following does not belong to the group of positive displacement pumps:
a. Lift pump b. Force pump c. Rotary pump d. Propeller pump

35. Planting system practiced when there is abundant water and drainage is a problem.
a. Double-row bed planting c. Flat planting
b. Furrow planting d. Bed planting

36. Type of pump of which the discharge and head have inverse relationship. High head will result in low
discharge and vice versa.
a. Variable displacement pump c. Positive displacement pump
b. Double acting pump d. Reciprocating pump

37. Which of the following is not part of a typical lift pump?

a. Inlet valve b. Piston c. Plunger d. Bucket valve

38. It converts the reciprocating motion of the piston to rotary motion.

a. Crankshaft b. Connecting rod c. Flywheel d. Cylinder

39. It is a method of plowing that moves two-way in a longitudinal direction.

a. Round about plowing c. Consecutive plowing
b. One-way plowing d. Return plowing

40. The country which has the highest level of mechanization

a. China b. Thailand c. Korea d. Philippines

41. Currently, this is considered as highly mechanized sector in the Philippines.

a. Rice b. Sugar c. Corn d. Coconut
42. These are machines that generate labor by increasing cropping intensities and make possible the full
utilization of farm products and by-products
a. Category I AMTs c. Category III AMTs
b. Category II AMTs d. Category IV AMTs

43. Which among the rice farm operations is the last to be mechanized as experienced by most advanced
countries?
a. Land preparation operation c. Threshing operation
b. Crop establishment operation d. Drying operation

44. One mechanical horsepower is:

a. 75 kp.m/s b. 746 J/s c. 98.6 hp d. 33,000 lbf-ft/min

45. What is the performance index of an animal-drawn upland weeder with a working width of 7 inches and
field efficiency of 65%. The animal is traveling at 2.5kph and the plant damage is 12.5% with a weeding
index of 80%.
a. 184 ha/h-hp b. 195 ha/h-hp c. 201 ha/h-hp d. 212 ha/h-hp

46. A three-ha field is plowed using a 13-cm wide animal-drawn plow with a field efficiency of 70%. The
draft is 60 kg and the animal is traveling at 3 kph. Determine the time (hour) required to work the field.
a. 165 h b. 175 h c. 185 h d. 195 h

47. The calibration of an 8X8 (8 rows X 8 inches row spacing) grain drill is shown below. The groundwheel
diameter is 1.0 m. What is the seeding rate at ½ open seeding adjustment?
Seeding Discharge (gm)
Adjustment (8 rows for 10 revolutions of groundwheel)

¼ Open 150
½ Open 350
¾ Open 580
Full Open 750

a. 30 kg/ha b. 28 kg/ha c. 27 kg/ha d. 29 kg/ha

48. The application rate of a certain chemical is recommended at 4 kg/ha. The calibration test of a 12-liter
knapsack sprayer is as follows: Nozzle discharge = 1.0 liters/min, swath = 1.2 m and walking speed =
20m/min. Determine the amount of chemical to be mixed with water per load.

a. 1.15 kg b. 1.2 kg c. 1.1 kg d. 1.05 kg

49. What is the % unrototilled worked by a two-wheel tractor attached with a rototiller having the following
data:

Test Area = 20 m x 15 m
Rototiller width of cut = 770 mm
Total time of testing = 23 min
No. of turns from headland to headland = 9 turns
Speed = 40 m/min

a. 45% b. 49% c. 51% d. 55%

 50. Determine the milling degree of a commercially available rice milling machine with the following output
data:

Capacity: One–ton
Foreign Materials: 30kg
Unhulled Palay: 100kg
Husks: 210 kg
Bran: 90 kg

a. 11.8% b. 12% c. 12.2% d. 12.4%

51. A 2.2 m –combine traveling at 6 kph can empty its 1.5-ton grain tank in 3 min. The field efficiency is 75%
when unloading on-the-go. The field yield is 5-tons per hectare. What would be the material efficiency of
the machine?

a. 50% b. 64% c. 71% d. 75%

For 40-41. Given a tractor has 1.300 m traction wheel and travels 2.5mph when the engine is running at 1600 rpm.
The reduction of the transmission gear is 6:2 and that of the differential is 8 :2 ?

52. Determine the gear ratio of the tractor

a. 97.4 b. 98.5 c. 99.0 d. 101.4

53. Determine the gear ratio of the final drive

a. 9 b. 8 c. 7 d. 6

For 42-44, given are the following data:

Annual gross benefit = P200,000.00

Annual total costs is = P 120,000.00
Salvage value = 10% of total investment
Repair and Maintenance = 10% of total investment
Taxes & Insurances = 0
Bank Interest Rate = 8%
Economic life = 7 years

54. Find the depreciation cost in pesos

a. 10104 b. 10285 c. 10344 d. 10455

55. Find the interest on investment in pesos

a. 3520 b. 3100 c. 3255 d. 3596

56. Find the payback period

a. 1yr b. 2 yr c. 3 yr d. 4 yr

57. In decimal number system, the rightmost number ___________ and the succeeding number ___________.
a. Increases by 1; increases by 1 c. Resets to 0; increases by 1
b. Resets to 1; increases by 1 d. Decreases by 1; increases by 1

58. In converting hexadecimal number to decimal number system, multiply each decimal equivalent by:
a. Base number b. N-1 c. Place value d. Product

59. The active element of the sensor is:

a. Wires b. Resistive type c. Transducer d. Actuator
60. In strain gauges, the __________ changes which results to change in filament resistance.
a. Resistivity b. Density c. Geometrical portion d. Sensitivity

61. The thermocouple law that states that thermoelectric voltage due to two junctions in a circuit consisting of
two different conducting metals depends only on the junction temperatures T1 and T2.
a. Law of intermediate leadwire metals c. Law of intermediate junction metals
b. Law of intermediate temperatures d. Law of intermediate metals

62. A special type of DC motor that can move in angular increments in response to digital pulses
a. Servo motor b. Brushless motor c. Stepper motor d. Shunt motor

63. In a load cell, the strain gauge is connected to form a ________ to yield a voltage proportional to the load
a. Parallel circuit b. Bridge circuit c. Series circuit d. Voltage divider

64. The sensitivity of voltmeter is defined as as the ratio of:

a. Theoretical reading to the experimental reading
b. Error in reading to the accuracy of reading
c. Total range of the voltmeter to the full scale deflection current
d. Total resistance of the circuit to the voltage range of the voltmeter

65. When using a voltmeter is used to measure the voltage drop across an element in the circuit, the resulting
error in measurement is referred to as _______ error.
a. Loading b. Measurement c. Voltmeter d. None of the above

66. When an ammeter is inserted to the circuit to measure current, it introduces a significant errorif the internal
resistance of the ammeter (R am ) approaches:
a. Zero c. Same magnitude as the total resistance in the circuit
b. One d. None of the above

67. Which type of utility refers to the availability of goods when they are most needed?
a. Place utility b. Time utility c. Form utility d. Possession utility

68. What are the challenges faced by farmers when dealing with supermarkets and hypermarkets?
a. High delivery costs and inconsistent quality and pricing
b. Limited market access and inadequate product diversity
c. Lack of transaction documents and poor business skills
d. Inefficient packaging and labeling practices

69. What strategy involves selling agricultural products directly to buyers without intermediaries?
a. Direct marketing c. Indirect marketing
b. Cooperative marketing d. Cluster marketing

70. Which marketing function involves bearing risks associated with physical damages, increased costs, and
other types of losses?
a. Grading b. Processing c. Negotiation d. Risk-taking
71. How do agribusiness marketing systems contribute to the growth of developing countries?
a. By eliminating intermediaries
b. By focusing on product diversity
c. By creating utility and connecting producers and consumers
d. By establishing direct marketing channels

72. What is the primary purpose of packaging in the marketing of agricultural products?
a. Increasing product quality c. Enhancing product presentation and protection
b. Reducing transportation costs d. Eliminating competition from intermediaries
73. What are the different types of agribusiness products? Which type is directly consumed by buyers?
a. Fresh, semi-processed, finished; Fresh c. Fresh, semi-processed, finished; Finished
b. Fresh, semi-processed, end goods; Fresh d. Fresh, semi-processed, end goods; Finished

74. How do retailers contribute to the marketing of agricultural products?

a. By accumulating products for wholesalers
b. By negotiating on behalf of producers and buyers
c. By selling products directly to end-users
d. By transforming raw materials into finished goods

75. Which promotional strategy involves using various channels like print ads, internet, social media, and radio
to inform consumers about product availability and features?
a. Direct marketing c. Indirect marketing
b. Online marketing d. Integrated marketing communications

76. What is not a characteristic of a wholesaler

a. Substantial working capital
b. Access to maket facilities
c. Has transportation ability
d. Carries assortment of different products in small quantities

77. What is the significance of branding, packaging, and labeling in agricultural product marketing?
a. Increasing production volume c. Reducing product costs
b. Enhancing product differentiation d. Eliminating competition

78. Which pricing strategy focuses on setting prices based on the range of possible prices offered by
competitors?
a. Cost-based pricing c. Demand-based pricing
b. Competition-based pricing d. Value-based pricing

79. What is the primary purpose of market research in agricultural marketing?

a. Increasing sales through promotion c. Standardizing product quality
b. Gathering data for decision-making d. Transforming raw materials

80. What type of agricultural product classification undergoes a secondary level of transformation and is used
by other industries?
a. Fresh products c. Semi-processed products
b. Finished products d. Perishable products

81. What is the role of intermediaries like agents and brokers in the marketing system?
a. Accumulating products for wholesalers
b. Selling products directly to end-users
c. Negotiating on behalf of producers and buyers
d. Reprocessing products for distribution

82. How can farmers improve their connection with supermarkets and hypermarkets?
a. Lowering the product quality standards c. Increasing production volume
b. Forming marketing associations d. Reducing product diversity

83. The person or entity which retains an agricultural and biosystems engineer and is engaged in the practice of
ABE for the performance of professional services.
a. Employer b. Agricultural Engineer c. Firm d. Client
84. The agency mandated to develop standards for agriculture and fishery machinery, tools and equipment.
a. AMTEC b. PhilMech c. BAFS d. BAFE

85. The government agency that shall require the signature of a registered agricultural and biosystems engineer
in the technical documents included in the issuance of Environmental Compliance Certificate.
a. DA b. DPWH c. DAR d. DENR

86. The first Agricultural Engineering Law enacted in 1964

a. RA 8559 b. RA 3279 c. RA 3927 d. RA 8995

87. Under RA 10601, this shall be carried out in order to effect suitable field shapes and sizes conducive to
efficient operation of agricultural machinery and equipment and likewise to ensure economies of scale.
a. Contiguous farming c. Precision agriculture
b. Corporate farming d. Modern farming

88. The credit units required for PABEs under the IRR of Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016.
a. 45 b. 55 c. 50 d. 60

89. Republic Act providing the modernization, standardization and regulation of the procurement activities of
the government.
a. RA 8559 b. RA 8435 c. RA 8293 d. RA 9184

90. Items indicated in the documents signed, used or issued by PABE in connection with the practice of
profession except:
a. Professional license number c. Duration of validity
b. Professional tax receipt d. Registration date of license

91. The Local Government Code of 1991:

a. RA 7160 b. RA 8435 c. RA 10372 d. RA 8981

92. The specific principles for Professional Conduct include the following except for:
a. Posterity b. Solidarity c. Integrity d. Equality

93. Part of the BAC that purpose is to enhance transparency of the government procurement process.
a. TWG b. End user c. BAC Secretariat d. Observers

94. The length of protection of a trademark as mandated by law is:

a. Life of author + 50 yrs after the author’s death c. 5 yrs with 2 renewal of 5 years each
b. 10 yrs renewable every 10 year period d. 20 yrs without renewal

95. Under AFMA. NIA is mandated to gradually turn over operation and maintenance of the National Irrigation
System’s to Irrigators’ Associations.
a. Secondary canals and on-farm facilities c. Main canal
b. Reservoir and main headworks d. Watershed

96. The following are the qualifications to become a member of the Board of ABE except:
a. Natural-born citizen c. Active practitioner for not less than 7 years
b. Registered PABE d. At least 35 years old

97. Republic Act No. 9367 is also known as:

a. CARP Law b. CARPER c. Renewable Energy Act d. Biofuels Act

98. The Sugarcane Industry Development Act of 2015.

a. RA 10659 b. RA 9729 c. RA 10657 d. RA 951
99. The code that deals with minimum standards and requirements for all buildings and structures:
a. RA 6541 b. RA 9003 c. RA 6657 d. RA 9367

100.The following acts are grounds for the revocation of professional license except for:
a. Moral turpitude b. Dishonesty c. Negligence d. Fairness