Communicable Disease

Mock board

1. Which of the following conditions has the highest risk for developing more serious complications from
Covid-19 illness
a. 50 year old with poorly controlled Diabetes Mellitus type 2
b. 45 year old newly diagnosed of Migraine
c. a 30 year old with recurrent Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease
d. an 18 year old suffering from Scoliosis

2. To prevent transmission of Covid-19, one should

a. avoid drinking contaminated water
b. do handwashing
c. use mosquito repellants
d. all of the above

3. A client suspected of Leptospirosis is on his second week of illness and will be undergoing a test for
confirmation of the disease. The nurse on duty should expect to collect this specimen for culture
a. Blood
b. CSF
c. Urine
D. throat swab

4. After a series of rain and floods, the community health nurse should prepare the following medication
for post-exposure chemoprophylactic agent for leptospirosis
a. Paracetamol
b. Doxycycline
c. Ciprofloxacin
D. Penicillin

5. Tetanus is acquired through

a. cut or wound with the spores of the bacterium
b. inhalation of the spores of the bacterium
c. transmitted from person to person
d. bite from an infected mosquito

6. An admitted client diagnosed of Tetanus suddenly developed generalized muscle spasm and increased
oral secretion. What is the priority nursing intervention
a. administer antibiotic as ordered
b. turn the patient to his side to avoid aspiration
c. administer sedatives to relax the muscle
d. dim the light
7. Typhoid Fever transmission can be prevented by
a. wearing face mask
b. taking chemoprophylactic antibiotic
c. avoid wading in floods
d. avoid preparing food to other people while infection persists

8. Which of the following individuals has the highest risk of acquiring typhoid fever
a. healthcare workers
b. travelers going to India
c. bank employees
d. librarians

9. A client came in to the hygiene clinic with a complaint of foul-smelling discharge from her vagina.
The nurse will suspect the cause of the symptom is
a. Syphillis
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
d. Gonorrhea

10. #9 client asked the nurse about the possible complication of her disease. What is the possible
outcome
a. Infertility
b. Genital Warts
c. acquiring infections from opportunistic microorganisms
d. rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

11. A male client was diagnosed to have human papilloma virus. Which of the following is the expected
sign or symptom
a. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
b. painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
c. cauliflower-like warts on the penis
d. painful ulcers on the glans penis

12. CD4 cells are monitored to assess the status of this disease
a. HIV
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Chlamydia Trachomatis
d. Syphillis

13. A male patient under treatment of gonorrhea is given combination antibiotics to treat what
coexisting infection
a. HIV
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Chlamydia Trachomatis
d. Syphillis

14. A male diagnosed with gonorrhea asked the nurse of what possible complication if he choose to be
untreated. The nurse explains to the client that the likely outcome of untreated gonorrhea is
a. HIV
b. Malignancy
c. Genital Warts
d. Infertility

15. A nurse is educating patients with AIDS about prevention of opportunistic infections. Which of the
following must be avoided
a. intake of raw organic milk
b. acquiring pneumonia immunization
c. eating well-cooked meat
d. avoiding unpasteurized foods and beverages

16. True about Dengue

a. spread through the bite of the female Aedes aegypti
b. it is spread directly from person to person
c. transmitted by bite or scratch from rodents
d. treated by used of antibiotics

17. A client with dengue experienced sudden pain in the abdomen and persistent vomiting. Based on the
case, the nurse should do immediate intervention because
a. patient’s disease became highly transmissible
b. antibiotics must be started
c. warning signs of dengue are present
d. fever must be monitored

18. Which of the following patients with dengue needs further health teaching
a. I must inform the nurse when my stool turned dark-colored
b. I should drink more fluids
c. I will need rest to help me recover
d. I can take aspirin if I experienced fever

19. A client with dengue asked the nurse which of his food he should avoid during his stay in the hospital
a. Banana
b. Chocolate
c. Rice
D. Milk

20. Which of the following is a warning sign of severe dengue

a. Gum bleeding
b. eye pain
c. high grade fever
d. nausea

21. Which of the following is the top priority when assessing a client diagnosed with Polio
a. Nutrition
b. Anxiety Disorder
c. Respiratory Status
d. Mobilization

22. To prevent transmission of Polio, the nurse should

a. apply insect repellants
b. avoid bite from infected rodents
c. do handwashing
d. all of the above

23. Common vectors of rabies except

a. dogs
b. cats
c. bats
d. rodents

24. These are considered Post-exposure prophylaxis against rabies except

a. applying herbal medicines to wound
b. extensive washing with water and soap
c. active immunization
d. administration of immunoglobulin or monoclonal antibodies

25. Which is considered Category I of rabies exposure

a. nibbling of uncovered skin
b. direct contact with bats
c. feeding animals
d. minor scratches

26. What post-exposure prophylaxis is needed for # 25

a. washing of exposed skin surfaces
b. administer active immunization
c. administer immunoglobulin/monoclonal antibodies
d. all of the above

27. Which is considered Category II of rabies exposure

a. minor scratches without bleeding
b. minor scratches with bleeding
c. touching animals
d. feeding animals
28. This is the post-exposure prophylaxis needed for # 27 except
a. washing of exposed skin surfaces
b. administer active immunization
c. administer immunoglobulin/monoclonal antibodies
d. none of the above

29. Which is considered Category III of rabies exposure

a. minor scratches without bleeding
b. minor scratches with bleeding
c. touching animals
d. feeding animals

30. What post-exposure prophylaxis is needed for # 29

a. washing of exposed skin surfaces
b. administer active immunization
c. administer immunoglobulin/monoclonal antibodies
d. all of the above

31. A client was given active immunization against rabies. The client asked the nurse for his next
schedule of vaccination. The nurse should respond
a. No need for further vaccination. The dose is complete
b. On the 3rd day after the first dose
c. On the 7th day after the first dose
d. On the 28th day after the first dose

32. The client has history of bleeding disorder hence the intramuscular route for anti-rabies is avoided.
What is the alternative route of vaccination for him
a. Oral
b. Intradermal
c. Subcutaneous
d. Intravenous

33. Hepatitis B can be spread through

a. sneezing
b. hugging
c. coughing
d. sharing contaminated needles

34. Which is true in Hepatitis A transmission prevention

a. it needs a vector for transmission
b. 2 doses of vaccine with at least 1 week interval is needed for protection
c. 1 dose of vaccine is enough to provide protection
d. handwashing is a key prevention
35. This type of hepatitis needs coinfection with hepatitis B
a. HAV
b. HEV
c. HDV
d. HCV

36. The presence of this serological marker establishes the diagnosis of hepatitis B
a. anti-Hbs
b. anti-Hcv
c. HbsAg
d. anti-HAV

37. This type of hepatitis is considered waterborne

a. HAV
b. HEV
c. HDV
d. HCV

38. This type of hepatitis presents as a mild disease except in the individuals in the third trimester of
pregnancy
a. HAV
b. HEV
c. HDV
d. HCV

39. Staphylococcus Aureus is the organism most commonly cause of this disease in adult
a. Community acquired Pneumonia
b. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
c. Covid-19
d. Poliomyelitis

40. To identify the organism causing the pneumonia, this test will be used to determine the pathogen
A. ABG analysis
B. Chest x-ray
C. Blood cultures
D. Sputum culture and sensitivity

41. A 70 -year old was admitted to the ward due to pneumonia. The nurse should be concerned of these
symptoms that may appear first
A. Altered mental status and dehydration
B. Fever and chills
C. Hemoptysis and dyspnea
D. Pleuritic chest pain and cough
42. A client with pneumonia becomes diaphoretic, has a temperature of 39.5*C and suddenly
experienced dyspnea due to retained airway secretions. What is the priority nursing intervention
a. Administer 300mg of Paracetamol thru IV to relieve high fever
b. Change linen to provide comfort
c. Do tepid sponge bath
d. Do nasotracheal suctioning to clear secretions

43. The nurse saw his elderly client with pneumonia and was observed to be irritable and restless upon
assessment. The nurse suspects that his client may be experiencing signs of
a. recovery
b. hypoxia
c. depression
d. psychosis

44. This is the definitive test for Tuberculosis

a. Sputum culture
b. Chest X-ray
c. Tuberculin test
d. Complete Blood Count

45. A client for PPD testing for Tuberculosis came into your clinic. Based on the nurse knowledge of this
test, the route of this test is through
a. Oral
b. Intradermal
c. Intramuscular
d. Patch

46. True about tuberculin test for Tuberculosis except

a. Redness or Erythema is measured for assessment of the result
b. it should be injected on the palm-side surface of the forearm
c. reading of result is after 48 to 72 hours
d. it is done intradermally

47. Leprosy can be transmitted by

a. shaking hands
b. hugging
c. sitting next to each other
d. inhalation of droplet from coughing of untreated patient

48. Which is not an expected finding in a child with Rubeola

a. Cough
b. Coryza
c. Chest tightness
d. Conjunctivitis
49. The nurse should emphasize this home care instruction to a parent of a child with Rubella
a. avoid foods that require chewing
b. isolate the infected child from pregnant women
c. apply warmth and local support with snug fitting underpants to relieve orchitis
d. return the child if he complains decreased hearing sensation

50. A child was noted to have pseudomembrane formation in the throat and complains frequent
discharge from the nose. The most likely causative agent of this is
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Human Herpesvirus type 6
c. Group A B-hemolytic streptococci
d. Epstein – Barr Virus

numbers 1 to 30 included in midterms exam