Chapter 1

1. People sometimes have difficulty distinguishing between scientific explanations

of common events and other kinds of explanation (superstition, prejudice, magic,
etc.). Which of the following best helps to identify a scientific explanation?

a. The explanation goes against the results of public opinion polls

b. We can test the explanation by comparing its predictions to measurement
results
c. The explanation relies on local folklore
d. The explanation changes according to the social status of the observer

2. If 2 people can knit a total of 12 socks per hour, how many socks can five people
knit in an 8 hour work day?

a. 200
b. 120
c. 240
d. 36

3. Suppose a theory is used to make a prediction. A measurement is carried out to

test the prediction. The measurement is found to have a value far larger than the
prediction. This means

a. the theory must be completely incorrect and must be rejected entirely.

b. the measurement must be incorrect; theories by definition cannot be
incorrect.
c. the theory might have correct elements but must be modified to account
for some unforeseen influences such that it is consistent with
measurements.
d. nothing because theories are not facts; theories often make incorrect
predictions but are still regarded as true by scientists.

4. The metric system of units is based on which number?

a. 2
b. 16
c. 10
d. 8
5. The key distinction between explanations provided by science and religion is

a. truth.
b. simplicity.
c. testability.
d. beauty.

6. In which of these relations will S double if T is doubled?

a. T = S*S
b. S = 10T
c. S = 1/T
d. T = 1/S

7. Your new weed-cutter requires, as fuel, a gas-to-oil mixture of 20-to-1 (20 parts
of gas mixed with one part of oil). You have 0.7 of a gallon of gas. How much oil,
in gallons, should you add to make it all into fuel for the weed-cutter?

ANS = 0.035

8. Which of the following is a correct metric unit for volume?

a. Smidgens
b. Liters
c. Drops
d. Microns

9. Suppose that, as it evaporates in the upper atmosphere, a raindrop's diameter

changes from one millimeter to one micrometer. Its diameter has decreased by a
factor of

a. 10, i.e., it is one tenth of the initial size.

b. 1,000 (or, 10^3), i.e., it is one thousandth of the initial size.
c. 1,000,000 (or, 10^6), i.e., it is one millionth of the initial size.
d. 100, i.e., it is one hundredth of the initial size.
 10. Your new weed-cutter requires, as fuel, a gas-to-oil mixture of 20-to-1 (20 parts of
gas mixed with one part of oil). You have 1/2 of a gallon of gas. How much oil, in
gallons, should you add to make it all into fuel for the weed-cutter?

a. 2
b. 1/2
c. 1/20
d. 1/40

Chapter 2

1. A person in a hurry averages 100 km/hr on a trip covering a distance of d= 655.5

kilometers. What time in hours was required to travel that distance?

ANS = 6.6

2. A car travels with an average speed of 26.4 m/s. What is this speed in km/h?

ANS = 95.0

3. A car travels a distance of 100 km. For the first 30 minutes it is driven at a
constant speed of 80 km/hr. The motor begins to vibrate and the driver reduces
the speed to 40 km/hr for the rest of the trip. The average speed for the entire
trip is

a. 53.3 km/hr.
b. 50.0 km/hr.
c. 60.0 km/hr.
d. 40.0 km/hr.
e. 47.5 km/hr.

4. The acceleration of a body cannot be zero at a point where

a. None of these choices are correct

b. the average velocity is positive.
c. the instantaneous velocity is zero.
d. the instantaneous velocity is positive but decreasing.
5. For the first hour a car is driven at a constant speed of 90 km/hr. The motor
begins to vibrate and the driver reduces the speed to 45 km/hr for another 2
hours. The average speed for the entire trip is

a. 25.5 km/hr.
b. 67.5 km/hr.
c. 45.0 km/hr.
d. 90.0 km/hr.
e. 60.0 km/hr.

6. Starting from rest, a car accelerates at a rate of 10.2 m/s2 for t= 14.2 seconds.
What is its velocity at the end of this time in m/s?

ANS = 144.8

7. An auto, starting from rest, undergoes constant acceleration and covers a

distance of 1250 meters. The final speed of the auto is 50 meters/sec. How long
does it take the car to cover the 1250 meters?

a. 50 s
b. 72,000 s
c. 0.05 s
d. 30 s

8. A traveler covers a distance of d = 459.5 miles in a time t=10 hours. What is the
average speed for this trip in units of km/hr?

ANS = 73.5

9. A car is driven between two nearby towns at an average speed of 50 miles/hour.

The magnitude of the average velocity of the car

a. will be the same as or greater than the average speed.

b. will always be greater than the average speed.
c. will always be less than the average speed.
d. will always be the same as the average speed.
e. will be the same as or less than the average speed.
 10. A driver drives for t= 4.4 hours at an average speed of 90.0 km/hr. What distance
in km does she travel in this time?

ANS = 396

Chapter 3
Reading Quiz:
1. During every second after an object is dropped from rest and experiences free
fall, its speed

a. decrease by 4.9 m/s

b. increase by 4.9 m/s
c. decrease by 9.8 m/s
d. increase by 9.8 m/s

2. A freely falling object (neglecting air resistance) has its velocity

a. increase as the square of the time

b. increase linearly with time.
c. decrease linearly with time
d. remain constant

3. An object undergoing free fall experiences

a. a constant acceleration
b. increase in acceleration
c. decrease in acceleration
d. a zero acceleration

4. Galileo

a. showed that in the absence of air resistance, all objects fall at the same rate
regardless of their weight.
b. performed experiments proving the theories of Aristotle about motion.
c. is not mentioned in the book.
d. showed that heavier objects fall at a faster rate than lighter objects.

5. Just before it reaches the peak of the path of its motion, an object thrown
upward has
 a. its velocity directed downward and its acceleration directed upward.
b. its velocity directed upward and its acceleration directed downward.
c. its velocity directed upward and its acceleration directed upward.
d. its velocity directed downward and its acceleration directed downward.

Homework Quiz:
1. A ball is thrown upward with an initial velocity of v=12.8 m/s. The approximate
value of ​g​ = 10 m/s2. Take the upward direction to be positive.What is the
magnitude of the velocity in m/s of the ball 1 second after it is thrown?
ANS = 2.8

2. Ball A is thrown upward with a velocity of 19.6 m/s. Two seconds later ball B is
thrown upward with a velocity of 9.8 m/s. Which ball is first to return to the
thrower's hand?

a. A will arrive first

b. B will arrive first
c. A and B will arrive at the same time

3. (Ignore air resistance for this problem.) Two identical balls are thrown
simultaneously from the top of a very tall cliff. Ball A is thrown downward with an
initial velocity of 6 m/s, while ball B is thrown straight upward with an initial
velocity of 9.8 m/s. After one second has elapsed, the

a. acceleration of ball A is greater than that of ball B.

b. velocity of ball A is 9.8 m/sec2.
c. acceleration of ball A is upward.
d. velocity of ball B is zero.
e. acceleration of both balls is zero.

4. A stone is thrown upward from a bridge at a speed of 10 m/s. It narrowly misses

the bridge on the way back down and hits the water at 30 m/s. The bridge is
about

a. 40.8 m high.
b. 50.5 m high.
 c. 3 m high.
d. 20 m high.

5. Which of the following does not move like a projectile?

a. An airplane flying at a constant altitude

b. A rock kicked up by a truck wheel
c. The seeds at a watermelon seed spitting contest
d. A monkey jumping from a tree

6. A ball rolls off a table with a horizontal velocity of 10 m/s. It takes 1.3 seconds for
it to reach the floor. Use the approximate value of g as 10 m/s2 to solve the
following problem: What is the vertical component of the ball’s velocity in m/s
just before it hits the floor? (Use ​g​ = 10 m/s2.)

ANS = 13

7. A ball is thrown upward with an initial velocity of 31.0 m/s. The approximate value
of ​g​ is 10 m/s2. At what time in seconds does the ball reach the high point in its
flight?

ANS = 3.1

8. If air resistance can be ignored, which of the following graphs will be a straight
line for a falling object?

a. Velocity versus time

b. Velocity versus distance travelled
c. Time versus distance travelled

9. A steel ball is dropped from a diving platform (with an initial velocity of zero). Use
the approximate value of ​g​ as 10 m/s2 to solve the following problem : What is
the velocity of the ball in m/s​ ​after t= 1.3 seconds of its release?

ANS = 13

10. Two people stand on different floors of an outdoor stairway. One is 6 m above
the ground and the other is 12 m above the ground. The person on the lower floor
 throws a ball upward with a speed of 15 m/s and the other person just drops
hers. Ignoring air resistance, which ball hits the ground at a higher speed?

a. They both hit the ground with the same speed

b. The one that is dropped
c. The one thrown upward

Chapter 4
Reading Quiz:
1. According to Newton's First Law

a. a force is necessary to cause an object to leave its state of rest.

b. a force is necessary to maintain motion at constant velocity.
c. once an object is in motion a force cannot change its velocity.
d. if an object is at rest it will always stay at rest.

2. Compared to its reading when at rest, a bathroom scale with a person standing on it
in an elevator that is accelerating upward would indicate

a. the same reading.

b. a smaller reading.
c. a greater reading.
d. no reading at all.

3. Compared to its reading when at rest, a bathroom scale with a person standing on it
in an elevator on which the cable has just broken and the elevator is in free fall would
indicate

a. a greater reading.
b. the same reading.
c. no reading at all.
d. a smaller reading.

4. The basic unit of force is

a. meter.
b. pound.
c. newton.
d. kilogram.
 5. The belief that a force is necessary for motion to continue at constant velocity was
advanced by

a. Kepler
b. Aristotle.
c. Newton.
d. Galileo.

Homework Quiz:
1. The engine of a car is part of the car and cannot push directly on the car in order to
accelerate it. What external force acting on the car is responsible for the
acceleration of the car on a level road surface?

a. the friction force of the ground on the tires

b. the force of the motor on the rest of the car
c. the friction force of the tires on the road

2. You have three carts connected by strings. Assume their masses are such that
M1 > M2 > M3 . If a force, F, is applied to M1and the net force on M2 is called F2
and the net force on M3 is called F3 , which of the following correctly states the
relative size of each force?

a. F​2​ > F > F​3

b. F​2​ = F = F​3
c. F > F​2​ > F​3
d. F​2​ < F < F​3
e. F < F​2​ < F​3

3. A 8.6 kg sled sliding freely on an icy surface experiences a 4-N frictional force
exerted by the ice and an air-resistive force of 0.7 N. What is the acceleration of the
sled in m/s^2?
ANS = -0.55
4. Two equal magnitude forces act on a box as shown in the diagram.

a. the object is not accelerating in the horizontal direction

b. the object is accelerating to the right
c. the object is accelerating both to the right and to the left
d. the object is accelerating to the left

5. Suppose that a skydiver wears a specially lubricated suit that reduces air
resistance to a small constant force that does not increase as the diver’s velocity
increases. In this situation which of the following statements is correct?

a. the diver’s terminal velocity will remain the same as any other skydiver
b. the diver’s terminal velocity will be more than any other skydiver
c. the diver will no longer experience a terminal velocity
d. the diver’s terminal velocity will be less than any other skydiver

6. Patricia has a weight of 179 lb. What is her mass in kilograms?

ANS = 81.20
7. At a given instant in time, an 10-kg rock that has been dropped from a high cliff
experiences an upward force of air resistance of 7.3 N. What is the magnitude of the
acceleration of the rock in units of m/s​2?​ (Round the final answer to one decimal
place.)
ANS = 9.1
8. An object with mass 13.7 kg is accelerating east starting from rest traveled 1000 cm
in 10 seconds what is the net force in units of Newton?

ANS = 2.7

9. The tablecloth trick is where a tablecloth is rapidly pulled out from under some
dinnerware without disturbing the dinnerware appreciably. The dinnerware does
move a small amount though. Which of the following explanations is correct for this
situation?
 a. the force of friction from the moving tablecloth only acts for a short time
b. The normal force from the moving tablecloth on the dinnerware becomes
very small
c. the force of friction from the moving tablecloth is very large

10. A single force of 3.7 N acts upon a 18.00 kg block. What is the magnitude of the
acceleration of the block in units of m/s​2.​ ?

ANS = 0.21

Chapter 6
Reading Quiz:
1. Work is defined as

a. the product of the force and the distance through which the force acts.
b. the power divided the time.
c. the product of the force and the potential energy.
d. the product of the force and the perpendicular distance to the pivot point.

2. If the height of an object above a reference level is doubled its gravitational potential
energy is multiplied by ________.

a. 2
b. b. 4
c. c. 0.5
d. d. 0.25

3. The principle of conservation of energy states that if no work is done on a system by

a nonconservative force

a. the total mechanical energy is a constant.

b. the kinetic energy is always a constant.
c. the momentum is always a constant.
d. the potential energy is always a constant.

4. The fundamental unit of work and energy is the

a. Watt
b. Joule
c. Kepler.
d. Newton.
 5. If the velocity of an object is doubled its kinetic energy is multiplied by ________.

a. 25
b. 5
c. 2
d. 4

Homework Quiz:
1. A force of 130 N is used to drag a crate a distance of 7​ .8 m ​across a floor. The force
is directed at an angle upward from the crate so that the vertical component of the
force is 120 N and the horizontal component is 50 N as shown in the diagram. What
is the total work done by the 130-N force in units of J. Round your answer to the
nearest one?

ANS = 390
2. Which requires more work: lifting a 7-kg rock to a height of 1.8 m without
acceleration or accelerating the same rock horizontally from rest to a speed of 6
m/s?

a. Accelerating the rock horizontally from rest to a speed requires more work.
b. Both cases require the same amount of work
c. Lifting the rock without acceleration requires more work.

3. A ball is being twirled in a circle at the end of a string. The string provides the
centripetal force needed to keep the ball moving in a circle at constant speed. What
is the sign of the work done by the string on the ball in this situation?

a. negative
b. zero, the string does no work
c. positive
4. A roller-coaster car has a potential energy of 600 kJ and a kinetic energy of 150 kJ at
point A in its travel. At the low point of the ride, the potential energy is zero, and 173
kJ of work has been done against friction since it left point A. What is the kinetic
energy of the roller coaster at this low point in units of J?

ANS = 577000

5. A 95 kg mass attached to a spring is pulled back horizontally across a table so that

the potential energy of the system is increased from zero to 160 J. Ignoring friction,
what is the magnitude of the velocity in units of m/s of the mass after it is released
and has moved to a point where the potential energy has decreased to 80 J?
(express your answer to one decimal point)

ANS = 1.3

6. At the low point in its swing, a pendulum bob has a velocity of 2.6 m/s. How high in
cm will the bob swing above the low point before reversing direction? Ignore the air
resistance.
ANS = 34.5
7. A woman uses a pulley arrangement to lift a heavy crate. She applies a force that is
one-forth the weight of the crate, but moves the rope a distance four times the height
that the crate is lifted. How does the work done by the woman on the rope compare
to the work done by the rope on the create if there are no dissipative forces?

a. the work done by the woman is equal

b. the work done by the woman is less
c. the work done by the woman is greater

8. A rope applies a horizontal force of 220 N to pull a crate a distance of 6 m across the
floor. A frictional force of 110 N opposes this motion. What is the work done by the
force applied by the rope in units of J?

a. 1230
b. 1320
c. 2310
d. 3210

9. A pendulum is pulled back from its equilibrium (center) position and then released.
When the bob is halfway between the high point and the low point in its swing in
what form(s) is the total energy of the bob?
 a. partially kinetic, partially potential
b. kinetic only
c. potential only

10. In which of the following systems is the work done by a frictional force resulting in
the increase of the total mechanical energy of a system?

a. a skidding car with negative acceleration

b. none
c. a car with positive acceleration

Chapter 7
Reading Quiz:
1. Impulse is calculated as

a. the force divided by the time interval.

b. the product of mass times velocity.
c. the product of the force and the time interval.
d. the product of force and velocity.

2. The impulse/momentum theorem states that the impulse is equal to

a. the square of the momentum.

b. the total momentum.
c. the force divided by the momentum.
d. the change in momentum.

3. If the speed of an object is doubled, its momentum is multiplied by ________.

a. 0.5
b. 2
c. 0.25
d. 4

4. A perfectly inelastic collision is one in which

a. there is no damage to either object.

b. the objects stick together after the collision.
c. the objects bounce off each other.
d. kinetic energy is conserved.
 5. The principle of conservation of momentum

a. is valid only for perfectly inelastic collisions.

b. is valid only for perfectly elastic collisions.
c. is valid for all collisions.
d. is valid only if the net external force acting on the system is zero.
e. states that it is impossible to change the momentum of an object.

Homework Quiz:
1. A railroad car collides and couples with a second railroad car that is standing still,
and the two stick together. What type of collision is it?

a. completely inelastic
b. elastic
c. partially inelastic

2. A car and a small truck traveling at right angles to each other with the same
speed collide and stick together. The truck’s mass is roughly twice the car’s
mass. The final velocity vector of the system will be closer to the original
direction of which, if either, vehicle?

a. neither, the velocity will be at 45° from the truck and car’s initial velocity
b. the car
c. the truck

3. Two ice skaters, initially at rest push off one another. What sign is the total
momentum of the system after they push off?

a. negative
b. positive
c. zero

4. A rifle with a mass of 4.0 kg fires a bullet with a mass of 7.8 g. The bullet moves with
a velocity of 860 m/s after the rifle is fired. If external forces on the rifle can be
ignored what is the magnitude (to 2 decimal number) of the recoil velocity of the rifle
in units of m/s?
ANS = 1.68
5. Which of the following is an advantage of a padded dashboard compared to a rigid
dashboard in reducing injuries during collisions?

a. longer impact time

b. larger force exerted by the rigid dashboard
c. less impulse is needed to stop the driver's head

6. Two objects collide under conditions where total momentum is conserved. Is the
momentum conserved for each object?

a. the momentum of each object is conserved separately

b. only the momentum of the most massive object is conserved separately
c. the momentum of each object is not conserved separately

7. A 4245-kg truck traveling with a velocity of 12 m/s due east collides head-on with a
897-kg car traveling with a velocity of 40 m/s due west. The two vehicles stick
together after the collision.What is the total momentum of the two vehicles after
they collide in kg.m/s?
ANS = 15060
8. A 40 kg ball traveling with a speed of 45 m/s is brought to rest in a catcher’s mitt.
Determine the magnitude of the impulse exerted by the mitt on the ball. The impulse
acting on the ball (in units of N.s to one decimal number) is:
ANS = 1800.0
9. A cue ball strikes a glancing blow against a second billiard ball initially at rest.
Which of the following sketches correctly depicts the velocities of the billiard
balls after the collision?

a.

b.
 c.

d.
10. Two forces produce equal impulses, but the second forces acts for a time twice that
of the first force. Which force, if either, is larger?
a. both forces are the same magnitude
b. the first force
c. it is impossible to tell with the information given
d. the second force

Chapter 12
Reading Quiz:
1. How will the electrostatic force on two charged objects change if the distance is
doubled?

a. the force will remain unchanged

b. the force will be four times large
c. the force will be halve
d. the force will be four times smaller
e. the force will double

2. How will the force between two charged objects change if the both charges are
doubled in magnitude?

a. the force will be four times larger

b. the force will be four times smaller
c. the force will remain unchanged
d. the force will halve
e. the force will double
3. Two charges, of equal magnitude but opposite sign, lie along a line as shown in the
diagram. Which diagram correctly indicates the direction of the electric field at
points A, B, C, and D?

a.

b.

c.

d.

4. When you comb your hair with a plastic comb, what will the sign be of the charge
acquired by the comb?

a. None
b. Negative
c. Positive

5. What energy source increases the potential energy of the water behind the dam of a
hydroelectric power plant?
 a. A pump
b. the buoyancy of the water
c. the work done by gravity

Homework Quiz:
1. A charge of -6.6 x 10​-6​ C is placed at apoint in space where the electric field is
directed toward the right and has a magnitude of 6.4 x 10​5​ N/C. What is the
magnitude of the electrostatic force on the charge?

a. 42.0N
b. 6.40N
c. 4.22N
d. 24.2N

2. The most common form of lightning strike from a cloud to the ground involves
negative charge moving from the cloud to the ground. Just before a lightning strike,

a. There are no charges on the ground

b. The electric field must point toward the sky
c. The potential energy of the electrons in the cloud must be small
d. The potential must be larger near the cloud

3. To bring a negative charge from a negative infinitely great distance away into the
presence of a positive charge would require a _________amount of work to be done.

a. Zero
b. Negative
c. Positive

4. The electric potential increases from 52V to 403V from the bottom plate to the top
plate of a parallel-plate capacitor. A -4x10​-3​ C charge is moved from the bottom plate
to the top plate. What is the magnitude of the change in potential energy of the
charge?

a. 1.4%
b. 14%
c. 4.1%
d. 41%
 5. A +5.3x10​-6​ C test charge experiences forces from two other nearby charges: a 39-N
force due east and a 15-N force due west. Determine the magnitude of the electric
field (in units Mega N/C) at the location of the test charge. Be accurate to 3 decimal
places.

ANS = 4.583

6. A charge of +2.4 C is moved from a position where the electric potential is 20V to a
position where the electric potential is 50V. What is the change in potential energy
(in J) of the charge associated with the change in position? No decimal numbers are
needed.

ANS = 72

7. Two charged particles exert an electrostatic force of 597 N on each other. What will
the magnitude of the electrostatic force (in N)be uf the distance between the two
charges is reduced to one-third of the original distance? No decimal points needed.

ANS = 5373

8. A charge of 10 x 10​-6​ C is located 28.9 cm from a charge of -7 x 1​0-​6 C. Determine the

magnitude in units of N (up to 4 decimal pints) of the force exerted on each charge.
Take the value of Coulomb’s constant as 9 x 10​9​ N•m​2​/C​2

ANS = 6.5430

Chapter 13
Reading Quiz:
1. When a battery is being used in a circuit, how will the voltage across its terminals be
different from when no current is being drawn from the battery?

a. It will be less when it is being used

b. It will be larger when it is being used
c. It will be the same

2. Consider the circuit shown. What would happen to the brightness of the bulb if we
connected a wire between points A and B?
 a. It would increase
b. It would decrease
c. It would remain unchanged

3. When a current passes through a series combination of resistors how does the
current change, if at all, as it goes through each successive resistor in the
combination?

a. It increase each time

b. It decrease each time
c. It remains the same each time

4. What is the difference, if any, of electric current and electric charge?

a. Electric current is moving electric charges

b. Electric current is only charges in wires and electric charge are only outside
the wires
c. Electric current is made by a power plant only, while electric charge is created
in nature

5. In the circuit shown, the circle with an A in it represents an ammeter. Which of these
statements is correct?

a. No current will flow through the meter, so it will have no effect

b. The meter will draw a significant current from the battery
c. The meter is in the correct position for measuring the current through R
Homework Quiz:
1. A 99-Ω resistor has a voltage difference of 7 V across its leads. What is the power in
units of watts being dissipated in this resistor (keep 4 decimal places)?

ANS = 0.4949

2. In the circuit shown, consider R​1​ = 3.5 Ω as the internal resistance, R

​ b​ t​, of the battery.
As shown, it can be considered in series with the battery and R​2​ = 19 Ω as the load
resistance ​Rb​ ulb​.

a. 0.0667 V
b. 6.0557 V
c. 5.6670 V
d. 5.0667 V

3. A 40 watt fluorescent bulb is rated for use in a 120 volt line. During a brownout the
actual voltage drops to 102 V. The actual power dissipated in the bulb under these
conditions is

a. 47
b. 28.9 W
c. 30 W
d. 28.3 W

4. A 90-W light bulb operates on an effective ac voltage of 110 V. Calculate the

resistance of the light bulb using Ohm’s law.

a. 444.4444 Ω
b. 13.4444 Ω
c. 144.4444 Ω
d. 134.4444 Ω
 5. Four 24-Ω resistors are connected in series to a 22-V battery of negligible internal
resistance. Calculate the current in units of A flowing through each resistor. Be
accurate to 4 decimal places.

ANS = 0.2292

6. Three identical resistors can be connected in any combination. It's not necessary to
include all three in any given combination. The number of distinct values of
resistance that can be made is

a. 4
b. 6 or more
c. 5
d. 2 or less
e. 3

7. Three identical resistors, where R​ 1​ ​ = 44 Ω, are connected in parallel with one another
as shown. Then the parallel combination is connected to a 12.7-V battery whose
internal resistance is negligible. What is the total current in A through the
combination? Be accurate to 4 decimal places.

ANS = 0.8659

8. A 45-Ω resistor has a voltage difference of 4 V across its leads. What is the power in
W being dissipated in this resistor? Be accurate to 4 decimal places.

ANS = 0.3556

Chapter 14
Reading Quiz:
1. A horizontal wire is oriented along an north-south line, and a compass is placed
above it. How, if at all, will the compass needle deflect if the current flows through
the wire?

a. the compass will orient itself in the north-south direction

 b. the compass will orient itself in the east-west direction
c. the compass will orient itself at a 45-degree angle to the wire
d. the compass will be undisturbed by the current being turned on

2. The north pole of a hand-held bar magnet is brought near the north pole of a second
bar magnet lying on the tablet. How will the second magnet tend to move?

a. nothing; the tablet magnet will not be affected by the hand-held magnet
b. it will be attracted and move closer
c. it will be repelled and move away

3. Which type of motor typically runs at a fixed speed?

a. a direct current motor

b. an alternating current motor
c. both run at a fixed speed

4. What would happen to the voltage the battery delivers to the resistor if a transformer
is used, as shown in the diagram?

a. it would increase the voltage

b. nothing
c. it would decrease the voltage

5. If we look down at the top of a circular loop of wire whose plane is horizontal and
that carries a current in a clockwise direction, what is the direction of the magnetic
field at the center of the circle?

a. clockwise
b. upwards
c. counterclockwise
d. downwards

Homework Quiz:
1. If the distance between the south poles two long bar magnets is reduced to half its
original value, how will the force between the poles change?
 a. the force will halve
b. the force will double
c. the force will not changed
d. the force will quadrupole

2. What would happen to the voltage the battery delivers to the resistor if a transformer
is used, as shown in the diagram?

a. it would decrease the voltage

b. nothing
c. it would increase the voltage

3. A loop of wire enclosing an area of 6.924 m​2​ has a magnetic field passing through
its plane at an angle to the plane. The component of the field perpendicular to the
plane is 0.12 T, and the component parallel to the plane is 0.05 T. What is the
magnetic flux through this coil (in units of T.m​2​ keeping 4 decimals)?

ANS = 0.8309

4. A circular loop of wire whose plane is horizontal and that carries a current in a
clockwise direction. If we were to represent the loop as a bar magnet or magnetic
dipole, in what direction would the North pole be pointing?

a. downwards
b. upwards
c. clockwise
d. counterclockwise

5. A uniform magnetic field is directed horizontally toward the north, and a positive
charge is moving west through this magnetic field. In what direction, if at all, is the
magnetic force on the particle?

a. downward
b. eastward
 c. westward
d. there is no magnetic force on the particle
e. upward

6. Two parallel wires, each carrying a current of 5.4 A, exert a force per unit length of
1.61×10​−5​ N/m on each other. What is the distance between the wires in centimeters
(keeping 4 decimals)?

ANS = 36.3478

7. A coil of wire with 150 turns and a cross-sectional area of 0.26 m​2​ lies with its plane
perpendicular to a magnetic field of magnitude 1.8 T. The coil is rapidly removed
from the magnetic field in a time of 0.4 s. What is the average value of the voltage
induced in the coil (in units of volts keeping one decimal place)?

ANS = 175.5

8. A transformer has 47 turns of wire in its primary coil and 90 turns in its secondary
coil. If an alternating voltage with an effective voltage of 137 V is applied to the
primary, what is the effective voltage induced in the secondary coil(in units of volts).

ANS = 262

Chapter 15
Reading Quiz:
1. Waves are traveling in an eastward direction on a lake. In what direction is the water
mostly moving?

a. northward
b. eastward
c. southward
d. westward
e. in circular motion

2. At sporting events the crowd sometimes generates a “wave” that propagates around
the stadium. What type of wave is this?

a. a mix of a transverse and longitudinal wave

b. a longitudinal wave
c. a transverse wave
 3. We can form standing waves on a rope attached to a wall by moving the opposite
end of the ope up and down at an appropriate frequency. Where does the second
wave come from that interferes with the initial wave to form a standing wave?

a. from friction of the pivot which attaches the rope to the wall
b. the wave interferes with itself
c. from the reflection of the first wave

4. Suppose that we increase the temperature of the air through which a sound wave is
traveling. What effect does this have on the speed of the sound wave?

a. it decreases the speed

b. it increases the speed
c. the speed of the sound wave remains unaffected

5. Two ropes are joined smoothly to form a single rope, which is attached to a wall. If
the ends of the two ropes are moved up and down in phase, but one rope is half a
wavelength longer than the other to the point where they join, how will the the two
waves interference when they join?

a. destructively
b. constructively
c. it is impossible to predict this with the information given

Homework Quiz:
1. Suppose an audible sound wave were being produced at a frequency of 800 cycles
per second. If the frequency were doubled, the sound would become

a. higher in pitch.
b. louder.
c. lower in pitch.
d. softer

2. The principle of superposition tells us that, if two waves cross paths,

a. the frequency is the sum of the individual frequencies.

b. the speed is the speed of the faster wave.
c. the wavelength is the sum of the individual wavelengths.
d. the amplitude is the sum of the individual amplitudes.
3. A longitudinal wave on a Slinky has a frequency of 6.0 Hz and a speed of 1.5 m/s.
What is the wavelength of this wave in SI units to 2 significant figure?

ANS = 0.2

4. Blowing gently across the top of a soda pop bottle gives you a musical note at a
certain fundamental frequency. This is most similar to
a. an organ pipe.
b. making a guitar string resonate at its fundamental.
c. a telephone.
d. a wind chime.

5. A string with a length of 2.55 m is fixed at both ends. If waves travel with a speed of
134 m/s on this string, what is the frequency in Hz associated with this longest
wavelength. Be accurate to 4 decimal places?

ANS = 26.2745

6. A string is held taut between two supports 2.0 m apart. The longest and next-longest
possible wavelengths for standing waves are

a. 8 m and 4 m.
b. 16 m and 5.3 m.
c. 4 m and 2 m.

7. Suppose that a guitar string has a length of 0.81 m, a mass of 4.3 g, and a tension of
75.6 N. What is the speed of a wave on this string in SI units (be accurate to 4
decimal places)?

ANS = 119.3354

8. Electromagnetic waves are generally

a. transverse waves.
b. longitudinal waves.
c. a 50/50 combination of transverse and longitudinal waves.

9. An organ pipe closed at one end and open at the other has a length of 0.3 m. What is
the frequency in Hz associated with this standing wave if the speed of sound is 295
m/s? Be accurate to 3 decimal places.
 ANS = 245.833

10. A 832-Hz note is played with a 680-Hz note. What is the beat frequency in Hz when
the two notes are played together?

ANS = 152

Chapter 16
Reading Quiz:
1. Skylight is produced by scattering of light from the direct beam coming from the
sun. Why is the color of the sky different from the color of the light of the sun itself?

a. sunlight is scattered by particles smaller than the wavelength

b. the sun is emitting mostly blue light, but our eyes perceive the sun as white
since there is more than our cones can absorb
c. sunlight is scattered by particles larger than the wavelength

2. What characteristic of the electromagnetic waves predicted by Maxwell’s theory led

him to suggest that light might be an electromagnetic wave?

a. its high speed

b. the different colors
c. the fact it interferes

3. A starter pistol is fired at the beginning of a race. If you are at the other end of the
track, which of the following will you perceive first?

a. both the sound and flash associated with the pistol’s firing will be perceived
at the same time
b. the sound of the pistol
c. the flash associated with the pistol’s firing

4. Thin-film interference occurs when one clean glass plate is placed on top of another
glass plate. What does the thin film consist of in this case?

a. the two glass plates

b. just the top glass plate
c. the air between the glass
d. just the bottom glass plate
 5. If you pass an unpolarized light beam through a polarizing filter, how will the light
beam emerging from the filter’s brightness be compared with the incoming beam?

a. weaker
b. unchanged
c. stronger

Homework Quiz:
1. An orange fringe produced by double-slit interference lies 1.96 cm from the center of
a screen placed 0.8 m from the double slit. If the screen is moved back so that it is
now at a distance of 5 m from the double slit, how far from the center of the screen
will the orange fringe lie?

ANS = 12.250

2. Light with a wavelength of 404 nm strikes a single slit that is 0.6 mm wide. The
diffraction pattern produced by the slit is observed on a wall at a distance of 2.5 m
from the slit. How wide in mm is the central bright fringe of this diffraction pattern?
(keep 4 decimal points)

ANS = 3.3667

3. When passed through a diffraction grating with a slit spacing of 0.004 mm (4 × 10​–6
m), the first-order fringe for light of a single wavelength lies a distance of 27.3 cm
from the center of a screen located 1.9 m from the grating. What is the color of the
light?

a. Red
b. Violet
c. Blue
d. Yellow
e. Green

4. When passed through a diffraction grating with a slit spacing of 0.004 mm (4 × 10​–6
m), the first-order fringe for light of a single wavelength lies a distance of 39.89 cm
from the center of a screen located 1.9 m from the grating. What is the wavelength
of the light in nm? (be as accurate as you can)

ANS = 839.789
 5. Microwaves used in microwave ovens often have a wavelength of about 6 cm. What
is the frequency of these waves? The speed of light is 3 × 10​8​ m/s.

a. 5 MHz
b. 5 KHz
c. 5 Hz
d. 5 GHz

Chapter 17
Reading Quiz:
1. What is an advantages might there be to using binoculars rather than an
astronomical telescope for viewing distant objects on land?

a. right-side-up images
b. travelers friendly
c. better magnification
d. has a nice color

2. A fish is swimming in a pond looks up at an object lying a couple of feet above the
surface of the water. How does this object appear to the fish?

a. the object appears closer than it actual is

b. the object appears farther than it actual is
c. the object appears at its correct distance

3. What, if anything, changes when a beam of light is reflected from a mirror?

a. both its speed and velocity

b. nothing changes
c. it speed
d. its velocity

4. An object is located at the left-side focal point of a negative lens. Which is the
correct image?

a.
 b.

c.

d.
5. How does a plane mirror focus light rays?

a. it cannot focus the light rays

b. just like a lens.
c. diverging away from the mirror
d. to point

Homework Quiz:
1. An insect is embedded inside a glass block (​n​ = 1.54) so that it is located 5.1 cm
below one of the plane surfaces of the block. How far in cm from this surface does
this insect appear to a person looking at the block at an angle? (be accurate to 4
decimal points)

ANS = 3.3117
2. A negative lens has a focal length of −33 cm. An object is located 65 cm from the
lens. How far in cm from the lens is the image? (keep one decimal point)

ANS = -21.9

3. A telescope that produces an overall angular magnification of 75× uses an eyepiece

lens with a focal length of 7.1 cm. What is the magnitude of the focal length of the
objective lens in cm?
 ANS = 532

4. A concave mirror has a focal length of 41 cm. An object is located 120 cm from the
surface of the mirror. How far in cm from the mirror is the image of this object?
(keep one decimal point)

ANS = 62.28

5. A positive lens has a focal length of 6 cm. An object is located 29.0 cm from the
lens. How far in cm from the lens is the image? (keep one decimal point)

ANS = 7.6

Chapter 20-21
Reading Quiz:
1. Which fundamental force of nature is the most difficult to incorporate into a
completely unified theory?

a. the nuclear weak force

b. the electromagnetic force
c. the nuclear strong force
d. gravity

2. If an elevator is accelerating downward, how will your apparent weight (as measured
by a bathroom scale) be compared with your weight when the elevator is not
accelerating?

a. you apparent weight will be the same

b. your apparent weight will be greater
c. your apparent weight will be lesser

3. What was the Michelson-Morley experiment designed to detect?

a. the motion of the sun through the ether

b. the motion of the earth relative to the ether
c. the motion of the ether through earth

4. If a boat is moving downstream, how will the velocity of the boat relative to the water
be compared with the velocity of the boat relative to the stream bank?

a. the same compared with the water

 b. greater compared with the water
c. smaller compared with the water

5. What does the term ​Big Bang​ refer to?

a. the explosion of spacetime

b. explosions of individual stars
c. explosions of galaxies
d. Someone with a big hand banging on a door.

6. How does the mass of leptons compare with protons and neutrons?

a. mostly lighter
b. about the same
c. mostly heavier

7. How does light travel in space?

a. in a straight line
b. in curves as far away from massive bodies as possible
c. bending according to the curvature of spacetime

8. At what velocities could we use the relativistic momentum expression p = mv?

a. objects moving at any speed smaller than the speed of light

b. only for object moving near the speed of light
c. objects moving at any speed
d. only for object moving at the speed of light

Homework Quiz:
1. Basic scientific research is essential to humanity well being.

a. only in weapons
b. sometimes
c. not at all
d. only in medicine
e. always

2. Looking at the following rest mass energies in unites of MeV:

● The proton = 938.272
● The up quark = 2.2
 ● The down quark = 4.6
● The proton is made of 2 up quarks and 1 down quark. Calculate the binding
energy inside the proton per quark in units of eV.
a. infinity
b. zero
c. 239.272
d. 929.272

3. An astronaut cooks an egg in 5.3 min in his spaceship whizzing past Earth at a
speed of 0.65 ​c​. Calculate the time taken in min to cook the egg as measured by an
observer on Earth. (keep 3 decimals)

ANS = 6.974

4. Looking at the following rest mass energies in unites of MeV:

● Hydrogen atom = 938.783
● The electron = 0.511
● The proton = 938.272
● Knowing that the hydrogen atom is made of an electron and a proton. Find
out the binding energy inside the atom in units of eV.
a. 0.511
b. about zero
c. infinity
d. 938.783
e. 938.272
5. An object has a rest-energy of 1169 joules. It is moving with a velocity of 0.8​c.​ What
is the total energy in units of joules of the object? Round to the nearest one.

ANS = 1948

6. The result of a particle meeting its antiparticle will most likely be:

a. the release of quarks contained in each particle.

b. the creation of a "black hole."
c. annihilation of the two particles and the release of photons.
d. the creation of a new particle with twice the mass of the original particles.

7. The factor γ appears in many expressions derived from the theory of special
relativity. If v​ ​ = 0.15 ​c​, calculate the value of gamma (γ). (keep 3 decimals)
 ANS = 1.011

8. A spaceship that is 120 m long as measured by its occupants is traveling at a speed

of 0.3​c​ relative to the Earth. How long in units of m is the spaceship as measured by
mission control in Houston? (keep 3 decimals)

ANS = 114.473

9. Suppose that violet light of wavelength 380 nm was emitted from a star in a distant
galaxy at some point in the past. In the time the light took to reach Earth, the
universe has expanded by a factor of 1.40 (all distances have been multiplied by
1.40). What is the wavelength in nm of the light we receive on Earth today? (keep 1
decimal)

ANS = 532.00

10. An observer on Earth notes that an astronaut on a spaceship puts in a 10.3-hour shift
at the controls of the spaceship. How long is this shift in hours as measured by the
astronaut himself if the spaceship is moving with a velocity of 0.41​c​ relative to the
Earth? (Keep 3 decimals)

ANS = 9.394