Richie-ZuZu For SRC Secretary

Question Bank for (Parasitology)

IGNORE THE NUMBERING

A) Protozoology (MCQs)
1) On the basis of light and electron microscopic morphology, the protozoa are currently classified into
A. Four Phyla B. Five Phyla

C. Six Phyla D. Seven Phyla

2) The most common form of asexual reproduction in protozoa is called as

A. Binary fission B. Multiple fission

C. Both D. None

3) All protozoa required organic materials, which may be particulate or in solution. Such type of nutrition is called
A. Holozoic B. Saprozoic

C. Both D. None

4) Protozoal parasites belonging to class Rhizopoda are characterized by having

A. Cilia B. Flagella

C. Cyst D. Rhizopoda

5) Amoebic dysentery in man and animals is caused by

A. Entamoeba (E.) coli B. E. gingivalis

C. E. histolytica D. None

6) Amoebic liver abscesses is the most common form of

A. Extraintestinal amaebiasis B. Pulmonary amoebiasis

C. Cutaneous amoebiasis D. All above

7) Non-pathogenic species of genus Entamoeba occurs commonly in the human mouth is

A. E. coli B. E. gingivalis

C. E. hartmanni D. None

8) Protozoal parasites belonging to class Mastigophora are characterized by having

A. Cilia B. Flagella

C. Cyst D. Rhizopoda

9) Protozoan parasites required hematin obtained from blood haemoglobin for aerobic respiration are called
A. Heteroxenous B. Hemoflagellates

C. Both D. None

10) Metronidazole is the drug of choice for

A. Amoebiasis B. Trypanosomiasis

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Discipline: Parasitology
 C. Giardiasis D. Trichomoniasis

11) Trypomastigotes stage of Trypanosoma usually found in

A. Invertebrate host B. Vertebrate host

C. Both D. None

12) Epimastigotes stage of Trypanosoma usually found in

A. Invertebrate host B. Vertebrate host

C. Both D. None

13) Species of Trypanosomes develop in the anterior portion of the insect gut are called as
A. Stercoraria B. Salivaria

C. Both D. None

14) Species of Trypanosomes develop in the posterior portion of the insect gut are called as
A. Stercoraria B. Salivaria

C. Both D. None

15) In human beings, Trypanosoma brucei caused a disease called as

A. African Trypanosomiasis B. Sleeping sickness

C. Both D. Nagana

16) In animals, Trypanosoma brucei caused a disease called as

A. African Trypanosomiasis B. Sleeping sickness

C. Both D. Nagana

17) Common name of Glossina species is

A. Tsetse fly B. Horse fly
C. Both D. None
18) Biological vector of sleeping sickness is
A. Tsetse fly B. Horse fly
C. House fly D. None
19) Swelling of the lymph nodes in African trypanosomiasis is called as
A. Winterbottom’s sign B. Spring bottom sign
C. Both D. None
20) Trypanosoma equiperdum cause disease in equines called as
A. Nagana B. Dourin
C. Surra D. Muri
23) The test used to detect raised levels of IgG and IgM in Trypanosoma evansi infected individuals is the
A. Thymol turbidity test B. Card agglutination test
C. Mercuric chloride test D. Formol gel test
24) Trypanosoma species can be culture in vitro on a number of medium including
A. NNN mediu B. Weinmann’s medium
C. Both D. None
26) IgG and IgM levels raised in parasitic infections like

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Discipline: Parasitology
 A) Protozoology (MCQs)
35) Which of the following species is transmitted sexually
A. Tt. rotunda B. T. gallinea
C. T. foetus D. Pt. hominis
36) Which of the following drugs is effective against Trichomonas vaginalis
A. Penicillin B. Streptomycin
C. Metronidazole D. Pentamidine
37) Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins is important in immunity to T. vaginalis?
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgE D. IgM
40) The infection rate of Trichomonas vaginalis in European women is
A. <0.1% B. 1%
C. 1-5% D. 5-20%
41) Trichomonads are members of which phylum of protozoa
A. Sarcomastigophora B. Apicomplexa
C. Cilliophora D. Microspora
42) Trichomonas gallinae is transmitted by which of the following routes
A. Sexually B. Oral
C. Aerosol D. Direct contact
43) How long after infection with Trichomonas vaginalis do clinical symptoms begin
A. <24 hours B. 1-5 days
C. 5-10 days D. 1-4 weeks
A. Malaria B. Leishmaniasis
C. Schistosomiasis t D. All above
A. Xenodiagnosis B. Thymol turbidity tes
C. Both D. Mercuric chloride test
31) American trypanosomiasis is transmitted by
A. Kissing bugs B. Tsetse fly
C. Both D. Horse fly
33) Which of the following species infects primates
A. Trichomonad. suis B. P. hominis
C. T. buttey D. Tt. rotunda
54) Giardia lamblia is usually transmitted
A. by ingestion of contaminated food or water B. by intermediayte host
C. Both D. None
55) Trophozoite of Giardia lamblia have
A. 2 flagella B. 4 flagella
C. 5 Flagella D. 6 flagella
56) Giardiasis can be diagnosed by
A. Duodenal biopsy B. Enterotest
C. Both D. None
57) Giardia trophozoites exhibits a characteristic
A. Tear-drop shape B. Pear shape
C. Both D. Flask shaped
58) Giardia trophozoites contains
A. One nucleus B. Two nuclei
C. Three nuclei D. Four nuclei
59) A unique ultrastructural feature of Giardia is the adhesive disk also called as
A. Ventral disk B. Sucking disk
C. Sucker D. All above
60) The incubation period of giardia infection in human being is generally
A. 3 days B. -2 weeks
C. 4 weeks D. 4-6 weeks
61) Gastro-intestinal disturbances associated with giardiasis include
A. Flatulence B. Bloating

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Discipline: Parasitology
 C. Purple burbs D. All above
62) Stools associated with Giardia infection are generally described as loose, bulky, frothy and/or greasy with
A. The absence of blood or mucus B. The presence of blood or mucus
C. The absence of mucus D. The presence of mucus
63) Drug of choice against Giardiasis is
A. Metronidazole B. Paramomycin
C. Furazolidone D. Quinacrin
65) T. vaginalis, infects
A. Men B. Women
C. Both D. None
66) Trichomonasis is a
A. Non-sexually transmitted diseases B. Sexually transmitted diseases
C. Food born disease D. Contagious disease
67) Trichomoniasis can be diagnosed by
A. Whiff test B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Wet mount D. All above
68) The use of latex or polyurethane condoms during vaginal intercourse can prevent the transmission of
A. Trichomoniasis B. Amoebiasis

C. Trypanosomiasis D. Giardiasis

69) Drug of choice against Trichomoniasis is

A. Metronidazole B. Tinidazole
C. Paramomycin D. furazolidone
76) Ciliates undergo
A. Asexual reproduction B. Sexual reproduction
C. Both D. None

92) Trypanosoma congolense is a monomorphic having

A. No flagellum B. A free flagellum
C. Two flagellums D. Three flagellums
93) Trypanosoma lewisi is
A. A non-pathogenic species not transmitted by rat flea B. A nonpathogenic species transmitted by rat flea
C. Pathogenic species not transmitted by rat flea D. Pathogenic species transmitted by rat flea
95) All species of Lesishmania in human are morphologically
A. Similar B. Partially similar
C. Different D. Partially different
96) Leishmanial stage is present in the cells of the
A. Vertebrates B. Invertebrates
C. Both D. None
98) Lesihmaniasis is transmitted by
A. Sand fly B. Tsetse fly
C. Horse fly D. House fly
99) Visceral leishmaniasis is also known as
A. Kala azar B. Dum dum fecer
C. Both D. None
Kala azar is also called as
100)
A. Cutenous leishmanisais B. Visceral leishmaniasis

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Discipline: Parasitology
C. Both D. None

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Discipline: Parasitology
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
101) Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct except:

A. Ascaris lumbricoides is one of the largest nematode B. Ascaris lumbricoides can cause pneumonia

C. Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of Ascaris D. Ascaris lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs
lumbricoides
102) Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct except
A. Hookworm infection can cause pneumonia B. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when
filariform larvae penetrate the skin
C. Hookworm infection is caused by Necatar americanus D. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the
trophozoite in the stool
103) Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites except
A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Taenia solium
C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. None
104) Phylum Nemathelminthes includes
A. Roundworms B. Tapeworms
C. Flukes D. None
105) Phylum Platyhelminthes includes
A. Round worms B. Flatworms
C. Thorny headed worms D. All of above
106) The name helminth is derived from the Greek words helmins or helminthos which means
A. Fluke B. Nematode
C. Cestode D. Worm
107) The name helminth is usually applied to Parasitic and non-parasitic species of
A. Flatworms B. Tapeworms
C. Roundworms D. All of above
108) Members of Phylum Platyhelminthes are
A. Dorsoventrally flattened B. Laterally Compressed
C. Round D. None
109) Members of Phylum Nemathelminthes are
A. Dorsoventrally flattened B. Laterally Compressed
C. Round D. None
110) Anthelmintics are chemicals used to kill
A. Helminths B. Insects
C. Arachnids D. Protozooa
111) Anthelmintics are chemicals used to kill
A. Flatworm B. Tapeworm
C. Roundworm D. All of above
112) Anthelmintics solutions when given orally are called as
A. Drench B. Bolus
C. Both a and b D. None
113) Oral preparations of anthelmintics are called as
A. Drench B. Spot on
C. Pour on D. All of above
114) Anthelmintics are used to
A. Kill the worms B. Remove the eggs from pasture
C. Both D. None
115) Anthelmintics may be administered as
A. Drench B. Bolus
C. Injection D. All of above

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116) Benzimidazoles work against parasites by
A. Binding with protein tubulin B. Mimicking acetylcholine
C. Both D. None of above

120) Avermectins act against parasites by

A. Stopping the energy metabolism B. Inhibiting the Cholinesterase
C. Changing the chloride ion channel activity D. None of these
121) Anti-cestodal drugs include
A. Niclosamide B. Organophosphate
C. Levamisole D. None
122) Praziquantel is effective against
A. Trematodes B. Cestodes
C. Nematodes D. None
123) Parasites with direct life cycle are known a
A. Monoxenous B. Heteroxenous
C. Both D. None
124) Control of parasites with direct life cycle is easy because
A. Have to control only in Intermediate host B. Have to control only in definitive host
C. Both D. None
125) Monogenetic trematodes are
A. Viviparous B. Oviparous
C. Both D. None
129) Which one of the followings is correct statement
A. Almost all trematodes are hermaphrodite B. All are hermaphrodite except Schistosomatidae
C. Members of Genus Fasciola are hermaphrodite D. All of above
130) Male reproductive organs of flukes have
A. Two testes B. Two pair of testes
C. Numerous testes D. Both a and b
131) Life cycle of a typical trematode has--------------------different life stages
A. 5 B. 6
C. 7 D. 8
132) Lancet liver fluke is the common name of
A. Fasciola hepatica B. Opisthorchis viverrini
C. Clonorchis sinensis D. None
133) Which one is the correct way to write the name of an organism in Binomial nomenclature system?
A. Fasciola hepatica B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Fasciola hepatica D. Both a and b
134) Study of group of organisms which form natural groups with features, usually morphological, in common, is called
A. Taxonomy B. Entomology
C. Helminthology D. Biology

135) The names of genus and species are expressed in ____ form
A. Latin B. Greek
C. Roman D. English

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153) Helminth parasite found in muscles is
A. Trichinella spiralis B. Haemonchus contortus
C. Trichostrongylus D. Oesophagostomum
154) River blindness is also known as
A. Haemonchosis B. Onchcerciasis
C. Echinococcosis D. None of them
155) One of the symptoms of onchocerciasis
A. Anaemia B. Convulsions
C. Presence of nodules on the skin D. All of above
156) For diagnosis of river blindness
A. Blood examination B. Urine examination
C. Faecal examination D. Skin examination
157) The basic line of action to treat flukes is
A. Control of mosquitoes B. Control of snails
C. Control of flies D. Control of insects
158) Trematodes present in bile duct and pancrease is
A. Fasiola hepatica B. Eurytrema pancreaticum
C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Oesophagostomum
159) Scientific name of liver fluke is
A. Haemonchus contortus B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Fasciola hepatica D. Oesophagostomum
161) Following parasites are also called as blood flukes
A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Schistosomes
C. Trichostrongylus D. Oesophagostomum Cooperia
162) Head of cestodes is also known as
A. Scolex B. Proboscis
C. Bothria D. Bothridiate
164) Projections called microtriches in cestodes are helpful for
A. Attachment with host B. Attachment with female
C. Increase in surface area D. Attract feed
165) Main nerve center in cestodes is composed of
A. Ganglia B. Nerves
C. Neurons D. None of above
166) Excretory system of cestodes is composed of
A. Diffusion B. Flame cells
C. Osmosis D. Active transport
167) Pork tape worm is name given to following parasite
A. Taenia solium B. Taenia saginata
C. Trichostrongylus D. Oesophagostomum
168) Cestodes are characterized by
A. True body cavity B. Incomplete body cavity
C. Absence of body cavity D. Complete body cavity
169) Respiratory and blood vascular system of platyhelminths is
A. Complete B. Absent
C. Well-developed D. None of above
170) Regarding digestive system, trematodes have
A. No alimentary canal B. Incomplete alimentary canal
C. Alimentary canal D. None of above

172) Nematodes are

A. Bisexual B. Unisexual
C. Both D. None
173) Nematodes are having following characteristic (s)

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 A. Cylindrical B. Round
C. Pointed ends D. All of above
174) Body of nematodes is covered with
A. Cuticle B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis D. None of above
177) Ivermectin was first used as
A. Antibiotic B. Antimalarial
C. Antiseptic D. All of above
181) The main defense against parasitic diseases is
A. Vaccination B. Cleanliness
C. Deworming D. Antibiotics
182) Use of different group of anthelmintics for deworming after 3 months is called as
A. Alternate deworming B. Strategic deworming
C. Rotational deworming D. Changing of dewormer
183) Use of microorganisms for the control of parasites is called as
A. Biological control B. Chemical control
C. Strategic deworming D. Chemotherapy
184) Treatment with the help of chemicals is known as
A. Immunological control B. Chemotherapy
C. Strategic deworming D. Biological control

198) In nematodes, alimentary canal is

A. Absent B. Incomplete
C. Complete D. None
199) The members of class Nematomorph are also called as
A. Hairworms B. Hookworms
C. Ringworms D. None
200) Hair worms may be regarded as
A. Disease producing Parasites B. False parasitic
C. Beneficial D. None
201) Members of class acanthocephalan are also known as
A. Thorny headed worms B. Thread worms
C. Hook worms D. Whipworm
202) Trichuris is also known as
A. Thorny headed worm B. Hook worm
C. Thread worm D. Whipworm
203) Helminths are economically significant as they
A. Lower productivity of hosts B. Lower quality of meat and skin
C. Affect immunity D. All of above
204) For detection of helminth infection, we use
A. Faecal exam B. Blood exam
C. Sputum D. All of above
205) In feces, the most observed thing for nematode diagnosis is
A. Adult worm B. Eggs
C. Segments D. Larvae
206) For qualitative faecal examination, we use
A. Withlock chamber B. Stolls egg counting technique
C. McMaster chamber D. All of above

210) For faecal examination, collection of faeces will be from

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 A. Rectum B. Ground
C. Freshly from ground D. None
211) Macroscopic examination means the examination
A. With microscope B. With naked eye
C. With hand lens D. None of above
212) Microscopic examination means the examination
A. With microscope B. With naked eye
C. With hand lens D. None of above
217) Factors affecting faecal egg count are
A. Anthelmintic history and season B. Season and Type of parasites
C. Breed of animal and season D. All above
218) Most commonly used anthelmintic are
A. Benzimidazole B. Levamisole
C. Ivermectin D. All above
219) The anthelmintic used for ectoparasites also is
A. Ivermectin B. Benzimidazole
C. Levamisole D. All of above
222) CSF eosinophilia may be caused by
A. Angiostrongylus B. Haemonchus
C. Both D. None
223) Transverse myelitis caused by
A. Trichostyrongylus B. Schistosoma mansonii

C. Oesophegostomum D. Trichuris

237) Mode of reproduction of nematode is

A. Ovoviviparous B. Oviparous
C. Parthenogenesis D. All of above
238) Direct life cycle is also called
A. Monoxenous B. Heteroxenous
C. Complet D. None
239) Usually, the intermediate host of nematodes is
A. Arthropod B. Trematode
C. Both a and b D. None
240) Larvae of following nematodes can penetrate the skin
A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichostrongylus
C. Haemonchus D. All
242) Larvae having long esophagus not proportional to the length of body are called as

A. Filariform B. Rhabditiform
C. Gubernacular D. None
243) Esophagus length shorter than length of parasite in proportion is called as
A. Rhaboditiform B. Filariform
C. Gubernacula D. None
244) Maturation of Gastrointestinal nematodes mostly occurs in
A. Ground/soil B. Vegetation
C. Intermediate host D. Gastrointestinal tract
247) Following is the example of hookworm
A. Ancylostoma caninum B. Barderpole worm
C. Haemonchus contortus D. All of above
249) Body of following parasite is ribbon like

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 A. Tapeworm B. Cestodes
C. Roundworms D. a and b
250) Following part of cestode is globular in shape, at the anterior end, responsible for attachment to the gut wall
A. Scolex B. Probosces
C. Strobila D. All of above
254) Protozoan transmitted sexually is____________.
A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Giardia lamblia D. Balantidium coli
256) Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
A. Necator americanus B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Ascaris lumbricoides
257) The main anatomic location of Schistosoma mansoni adult worms is:
A. Renal tubules B. Lung alveoli
C. Bone marrow D. Intestinal venules
258) Each of the following statements concerning Strongyloides stercoralis is correct EXCEPT:
Migrating larvae of S. stercoralis induce a marked
A. S. stercoralis produces filariform larvae. B.
eosinophilia.
C. S. stercoralis undergoes a free-living life cycle in soil. D. S. stercoralis is acquired by ingestion of eggs.
259) Which of the following tapeworms is acquired by eating raw or under-cooked pork?
A. Taenia saginata B. Taenia solium
C. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Hymenolepis nana

260) Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Taenia solium
C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Trichinella spiralis
263) Nematoda means___________.
A. pointed bodies B. peaked heads
C. pointed ends D. pointed cells
267) In cestodes following types of larva/metacestode could be seen
A. 3 B. 5
C. 7 D. 8
268) There are following basic types of scolex in cestodes
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
269) Body of adult cestode can be divided into how many parts?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
271) Cestodes are
A. Non parasitic B. Parasitic
C. Both D. None
272) Nematodes may be
A. Parasitic B. Non parasitic
C. Both D. None
273) Among all helminths only following are having segmented body
A. Nematodes B. Acanthocephalans
C. Trematodes D. Cestodes
276) Dwarf tapeworm of poultry is a
A. Trematode B. Nematode
C. Cestode D. None

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278) Body of flukes appears like
A. Common Pin B. Ribbon
C. Leaf D. None
279) Definitive host of beef tapeworm is
A. Cattle B. Man
C. Bird D. None
280) Helminthology is the study of Phylum
A. Platyhelminthes B. Nemathelminths
C. Both D. None

296) Toxocara vitulorum is a

A. Cestode B. Trematode
C. Protozoa D. Nematode
297) Whip worm is common name of
A. Toxocara vitularum B. Haemonchus contortus
C. Trichuris trichura D. None
299) Eyeworm is common name of
A. Onchocerca cervicalis B. Loa loa
C. Dirofilaria immitis D. None
300) Adults of Trichinella spiralis are found in
A. Cardiac muscles B. Smooth muscles
C. Skeletal musclues D. Small intestine
301) Taenia Saginata & T. Solium (tapeworms; cestodes) can be controlled by________.
A. Sanitation B. Cooking Pork
C. Rodent Control D. A & B

319) The Ascardis are successful as parasites because_____________.

A. Eggs survive in the environment for extended periods B. Produce large number of eggs
of time
C. Survive for large periods of time in the host D. a & b
320) Eggs of Ascaris Suum have___________.
A. A mamillated shell B. Have a fully developed larvae when passed
C. Have a relatively thin shell D. a & b
325) Ascaris lumbericoides lives in the intestine of_____________.
A. Sheep and goat B. Monkey
C. Homo sapiens D. Pig
326) The life cycle of Ascaris lumbericoides requires an intermediate host which is____________.
A. Cattle B. snail
C. man D. None of the above
327) The life span of Ascaris is_____________.
A. More than 30 days B. About an year
C. Six months D. 8 to 10 months
328) The infected stage of Ascaris is___________.
A. Egg B. Fourth Juvenile
C. Second Juvenile D. Adult worm itself
329) The exterior of Ascaris is covered by_____________.
A. Pellicle B. Epidermis
C. Sclerites D. Cuticle

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331) The disease caused by the hook worm is called____________.
A. Ascariasis B. Ancylostomiasis
C. Enterobiasis D. Elephentiasis
332) Elephantiasis is caused by____________.
A. Ascaris lumbericoides B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Fasciola hepatica
333) Cuticle in Ascaris is an adaptation for____________.
A. Parasitism B. Growth
C. Reproduction D. Locomotion
334) Ascaris normally inhabits the lumen of___________.
A. Stomach B. Appendix
C. Small intestine D. Large intestine
335) Respiration of Ascaris is____________.
A. Cutaneous B. Aerobic
C. Anaerobic D. both b and c
337) Which of the following has no alternate host?
A. Tape worm B. Ascaris lumbericoides
C. Plasmodium vivax D. Fasciola hepatica
338) Sperms of Ascaris are characteristic because they are_____________.
A. giant in size B. without mitochondria
C. amoeboid shape D. with large body and tail
339) Which is not a pathological effect of helminth infections?
A. Diarrhea B. Hemorrhage
C. Enlargement and swelling of organs D. Anemia
340) What helminth is responsible for causing the greatest number of worm infections worldwide?
A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichinella spiralis
341) What is the intermediate host for the schistosomes?
A. Snails B. Humans

C. Blood-sucking insects D. Soil

342) Which is the smallest tape worm infecting man?
A. Taenia saginata B. Hymenlopis nana
C. Taenia solium D. Diphyllobothrium latum
343) Which of the following nematode is a ovo-viviparous?
A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Trichenella spiralis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Dracunculus medinensis
344) The larval form of Taenia solium is called__________.
A. Cysticerus cellulosae B. Cysticercoid
C. Cysticerus bovis D. Hydatid cyst
345) Dog heart tape worm is the common name for_________.
A. Toxocara canis B. Mansonella streptocerca
C. Dirofilaria immitis D. Toxoplasma gondi
346) Which of the following is not a bile stained egg?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Taenia solium D. A ncylostoma duodenale
348) Hookworm infection leads to deficiency of___________.
A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin A
C. Iron D. Folic acid

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D) Public Health Parasitology (MCQ’s)
600) Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Taenia solium D. Trichinella spiralis
601) Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT:
A. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus. B. Hookworm infection can cause anemia.
C. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when D. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the
filariform larvae penetrate the skin. trophozoite in the stool
602) Each of the following statements concerning trichinosis is correct EXCEPT:
A. Trichinosis can be diagnosed by seeing cysts in muscle B. Trichinosis is acquired by eating undercooked pork.
biopsy specimens.
C. Eosinophilia is a prominent finding. D. Trichinosis is caused by a protozoan that has both a
trophozoite and a cyst stage in its life cycle.
603) Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Necator americanus
623) Intermediate host for Taenia saginata is
A. Pig B. Cattle
C. Dog D. Man
624) Man is the host of Taenia saginata
A. Final Host B. Paratinic host
C. Accidental Host D. Intermediate Host
626) The important cestodes transmitted through food and water includes
A. T. solium B. D. latum
C. E. granulosus D. All of these
628) The parasite that make cyst in different part of human Body is
A. T. solium B. Beef Tapeworm
C. Pork Tapeworm D. All of these
642) Anisakiosis is a parasitic disease which is caused by
A. Nematode B. Cestode
C. Trematode D. Protozoan
643) All are zoonotic parasite except
A. Angiostrongylus cantonensis B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Echinococcus granulosus
647) Protozoa in which of the following genera does NOT cause brain infections?
A. Acanthamoeba B. Leishmania
C. Naegleria D. Entamoeba
648) Tsetse flies can carry which of the following pathogens?
A. Trypanosoma brucei B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Giardia intestinalis
650) All of the following have a preference for the intestinal tract EXCEPT __________.
A. Balantidium B. Entamoeba
C. Trichomonas D. Giardia
651) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all apicomplexan parasites?
A. They form nonmotile, sporelike shapes. B. They infect the bloodstream.

C. They are parasites of animals. D. They require two types of hosts to complete their life
cycles.

Discipline: Parasitology Page 14 of 18

653) Which of the following parasites can cross the placenta in women?
A. Cryptosporidium B. Toxoplasma
C. Plasmodium D. Cyclospora
655) Tapeworms use their scolex for which of the following?
A. asexual reproduction B. sexual reproduction
C. anchorage D. ingesting nutrients
657) Which of the following tapeworms has an affinity for the liver in human body?
A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata D. Schistosoma mansoni
658) In the generalized life cycle of fluke larvae, circariaes can parasitize all of the following EXCEPT __________.
A. the bloodstream B. the liver
C. the lungs D. the brain
659) The deposition of eggs in the perianal area is a characteristic of which of the following?
A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Wuchereria bancrofti
660) The condition elephantiasis is associated with infections of which of the following?
A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Necator americanus
C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Fasciola gigantica
661) Which of the following organisms is associated with the propagation and transmission of schistosomiasis?
A. snails B. dogs
C. mosquitoes D. cats
A. Taeniasis B. Anisakiasis
C. Trichinellosis D. Diphyllobothriasis
667) Capillaria hepatica is a ___________parasite
A. Nematode B. Cestode
C. Trematode D. None of these

669) An intermediate host whose presence may be required for the completion of a parasite's life cycle but in which no
development of the parasite occurs.
A. Reservoir host B. Definitive host
C. Paratenic host D. All of these
672) _____________act as reservoir for the Strongyloides spp infection.
A. Cats B. Cattle
C. Dogs D. Sheep
673) Hookworms are
A. Nematode B. Cestode
C. Trematode D. Tapeworm
677) All are Intermediate hosts Except
A. fish B. chicken
C. snakes D. cattle
678) Strongyloidiasis is also known as __________.
A. threadworm infection B. pinworm infection
C. headworm infection D. birdworm infection
679) The zoonotic potential of Strongyloides fuelleborni is believed to be much _________than Strongyloides stercoralis
A. higher B. lower
C. equal D. Both are not zoonotic
680) Strongyloid infections can also cause _________in man which can be zoonotic in nature.
A. hepatitis B. rumenitis
C. dermatitis D. None of these
681) Humans are _________for S. stercoralis infections
A. Reservoir host B. Definitive host
C. Paratenic host D. None of these

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692) Zoonotic filariasis is a vector borne disease and blood sucking insects act as ________vectors for transmission of the disease
A. biological B. mechanical
C. genitical D. clonal
697) All are major neglected parasitic infections except
A. toxocariasis B. trypanosomiasis
C. trichomoniasis D. toxoplasmosis
698) All are soil-born except
A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Toxocara canis D. Anclostoma duodenale and Necator americanus
699) The diseases which normally present in humans but could be transmitted to animals is called_______
A. Anthropozoonoses B. Amphixenosis
C. Zooanthroponoses D. None of these

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700) Entamoeba histolytica can be cultured in
A Maconkey agar B CLED medium
C Diamonds medium D NNN medium
701) Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as
A Amoeboid B Jerky
C Falling leaf like D Stately
702) Faeces are composed of:
A Cell of intestinal wall B Red blood cells occasionally
C Bacteria D All of these
703) Ectoparasites can be collected from small animals:
A Putting dead animal into polythene bag B Put in a bag containing chloroform
C Pooter method D All of these
705) The objectives for collection of trematodes are:
A To understand methods for collection B To understand methods for collection and preservation
C For confirmation of diagnosis of disease D All of these
706) The stages of protozoa found in diarrhoic sample:
A Trophozoites B cysts
C Trophozoites and cysts D Eggs
707) Malarial parasite, trypanosome and microfilariae can be identified by:
A Thick smear B Thin smear
C Concentration method D None of these
708) Onchocerciasis worms can be diagnosed by:
A Examination of skin snip B Direct method
C Sedimentation method D Floatation method
715) Dark, tarry color blood in feaces indicates:
A Bleeding around rectum B Bleeding high up in gastrointestinal tract
C Bleeding in complete gastrointestinal tract D None of these
716) Burrowing and deep follicular mites can identify by:
A Superficial Skin scrapping method B Deep Skin scrapping
C Skin snip examination D None of these
717) A diarrheal specimen examination:

A Immediately after collection B After one day

C After 24-48 hours D After 48-72 hours
719) In cestode infection faecal sample:
A Adult worms and eggs B Proglottids and eggs
C Proglottids and worms D Eggs and larvae
722) Faecal sample preservation ideal temperature is:
A At -2C B At -4 C
C At 4 C D At 25 C
723) Microscopic faecal examination is done for:
A Quantitative faecal examination B Qualitative faecal examination
Both Quantitative faecal examination and Qualitative
C D None of these
faecal examination
724) Blood examination can indicate presence of:
A Larvae B Mites
C Nymphs D All of these
730) To observe movement of parasites in blood follow:

Discipline: Parasitology Page 17 of 18

 A Direct method B Indirect method
C Both direct and indirect method D None of these
731) In case of nematode infection can find in faecal sample
A Egg B Larvae
C Adult worms D All of these

998) Definitive host of beaf tapeworm is

A. Cattle B. Man
C. Bird D. None
999) Helminthology is the Study of Phylum
A. Platyhelminthes B. Nemathelminths
C. Both D. None
1000) Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Trichinella spiralis D. Taenia solium

Discipline: Parasitology Page 18 of 18