CL MALAD 70 Questions:

Passage-1:

Coal was needed in vast quantities for the Industrial Revolution. For centuries, people in Britain had to make do with
charcoal if they needed a cheap and easy to acquire fuel. Whatever industry‘ that existed before 1700, did use coal but it
came from coal mines that were near to the surface and the coal was relatively easy to get to. The Industrial Revolution
changed all of this. Before the Industrial Revolution, two types of mines existed: drift mines and bell pits. Both were small
scale coal mines and the coal which came from these types of pits was used locally in homes and local industry. However,
as the country started to industrialise itself, more and more coal was needed to fuel steam engines and furnaces. The
development of factories by Arkwright and the improvement of the steam engine by Watt further increased the demand
for coal. As a result, coal mines got deeper and deeper and coal mining became more and more dangerous. Coal shafts
could go hundreds of feet into the ground. Once a coal seam was found, the miners dug horizontally. However,
underground, the miners faced very real and great dangers Even with Watt‘s improved steam engine, flooding was a real
problem in mines. Explosive gas (called fire damp) would be found the deeper the miners got. One spark from a digging
miner‘s pick axe or candle could be disastrous. Poison gas was also found. Underground pit collapses were common; the
sheer weight of the ground above a worked coal seam was colossal and mines were only held up by wooden beams called
props. Regardless of all these dangers, there was a huge increase in the production of coal in Britain. Very little coal was
found in the south, but vast amounts were found in the Midlands, the north, the north-east and parts of Scotland. Because
coal was so difficult and expensive to move, towns and other industries grew up around the coal mining areas. This in itself
created problems as these towns grew without any obvious planning or thought given to the facilities that the miners and
their families would need.

Q-1.

Why was charcoal used as a fuel for centuries by the British?

A. It was inexpensive and easy to get.

B. The coal mines were near the surface.

C. It was used in steam engines and furnaces.

(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) A and B (d) A, B and C

Q-2.

What led to the upsurge in demand of coal?

A. Development of factories

B. Improvement of steam engines

C. Increase in demand by local industries

(a) Only A (b) Only C (c) A and B (d) A, B and C

Q-3.

Which among the following is not listed as a problem faced by the coal mine workers while working in the mine?

(a) Fire damp (b) Pit collapses (c) Splitting of seam (d) Flooding

Q-4.

Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?

(a) The deeper a mine, the more dangerous it is.

(b) Despite being deterred by the dangers, the workforce increased which lead to the increase in production.

(c) More and more coal was needed for furnaces once the country started to industrialise itself.

(d) The miners and their families that settled around the coal mines faced problems due to lack of facilities.

Q-5.

Which among the following is the synonym of the word ’colossal‘?

(a) petite (b) cosmogony (c) magnificent (d) pharaonic

Passge-2:
“If every woman in the world woke up, slapped herself on the head and said: I‘m happy with who I am,‘ entire economies
would collapse,” says Jane Caro, an award-winning advertising writer and co-author of The F Word: How We Learned to
Swear by Feminism. Caro believes the fashion and cosmetics industries have a vested interest in keeping women insecure
by presenting an ideal that no one can ever achieve. ―Advertising isn‘t immoral, it‘s amoral,” she says, ―”It responds to
where the money and the desire is.” Logically we know that many images of women in ads, magazines and films are
idealized versions of reality, often airbrushed to perfection, but still, we agonize over the difference between them and us,
often in minute detail. The media is often portrayed as the bogeyman in the body-image debate, but experts such as
Professor Susan Paxton from La Trobe University’s School of Psychological Science say it‘s only part of the picture. Paxton
notes women are getting messages from family from an early age. ―There’s evidence that by age three, children prefer
thin people to those who are not so thin,” she says. ―When given the option of picking a picture of a plump child or a thin
child to be their friend, they generally choose the latter.” The way in which parents view their bodies also impacts their
children‘s attitudes. ―A mother who is always dieting or being critical of her body is sending a clear message to her
daughters,” says Tiggemann. ―That sense of body dissatisfaction is passed on.” The anti-obesity push is also unhelpful.
―It‘s shifted the focus away from health and onto weight and looks,” she says. ―It‘s perpetuating the notion that fat is
bad, thin is good, and thinner is better.” And it‘s a notion that has recently been proved to be untrue.

Q-6.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Thin girls are beautiful and have the potential to make headlines.

(b) Anti-obesity programmes have helped in reducing obesity.

(c) Economies would collapse if all the women in the world start admiring the way they look.

(d) Children have a tendency to get influenced by what they see at home.

Q-7.

Why did Chloe Marshall make headlines?

(a) She was not unlike the others who believed that “thin is in’.

(b) She was not considered ‘fairest of them all‘.

(c) She was not as ‘image obsessed‘ as the other winners.

(d) She was a “full figured” 2008 Miss England runner up.

Q-8.
Which notion is being talked about in the last line of the passage?

(a) Women‘s obsession with a slim figure is unhealthy.

(b) Fat is bad and slim is good.

(c) Fat is bad and slim is true is false.

(d) The anti obesity push is not helpful.

Q-9.

Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

A. Beauty is given great importance in today‘s society.

B. Only a few women are happy the way they look.

C. Media is considered the Lilliputian character that is responsible for the body-image debate.

(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) B and C (d) All follow

Q-10.

Which of the following is the synonym of the word ― “odious”?

(a) fair (b) acceptable (c) inevitable (d) disgusting

Passage-3.

Mauritius is a melting pot of a great diversity of cultures. The largest cultural group is made up of people with Indian roots
comprising Hindus originating from northern India, Tamils from southern India and Muslims from western India. The
Creoles owe part of their ancestry to the first slaves who were imported from Madagascar and possibly to the east coast of
Africa. The arrival of the Chinese dates from after 1826. Most Europeans are of French descent and stem from the settlers
who arrived during the colonization of the island by France. Religion plays a major part in the island‘s cultural activities.
Numerous churches, temples, mosques and pagodas exist next to each other proving the remarkable level of religious and
cultural tolerance. The largest religious grouping is made up of Hindus who make up 51% of the population in Mauritius,
followed by Christians at 25 %, which are mainly Roman Catholics. Islam is the next popular religion found in Mauritius
(21% ) and Buddhism is fourth.

March 12, 1992 Mauritius became a republic and is tipped as the first ‘tiger‘ of the Indian Ocean and Africa. Population
density is still high at 1500 persons per square mile but the population growth rate has been contained at less than two
per cent per year in the 1990s. The structure of the economy has undergone substantial transformation. Diversification
away from sugar (but not at its expense) has been achieved. Textile and garment, and tourism are the two other leading
sectors today. The major challenge today is not finding jobs but finding enough skilled labour to maintain the
competitiveness of the economy. The unemployment rate stands at less than three per cent. The overall balance of
payments is positive. Income per capita is Rs. 25000, placing Mauritius among the middle-income group of countries.
Mauritius is now poised to move to a higher development phase. At the end of the year 2003, the population of Mauritius
was over 1.2 million. With a population density at about 1500 persons per square kilometre, Mauritius is the third most
densely populated place in the world. There are several languages, which are spoken in Mauritius due to the rich culture
and history of its people. English is the official language in Mauritius; however, French is more widely spoken and is
dominant in the media. The language, which is mostly spoken by Mauritians, is Creole. Originating as the common
language among slaves of differing origins, and between then and the colonists, the lingua franca of the island is based on
French with elements of English, Hindi, Chinese and Malagasy. Bhojpuri is spoken by many Indo-Mauritians. Hindi itself is
used for official purposes but it is not widely spoken as a home language.

Q-11.

According to the passage, which of the following is/are correct with respect to Mauritius?

1. At the end of 2003, the population of Mauritius was over 1 million.

2. Mauritius has a positive overall balance of payments.

3. The creole was one of the first languages to be spoken in Mauritius.

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q-12.

Which of the following was most likely to be the main industry of Mauritius in the past?

(a) textiles (b) tourism (c) sugar (d) cement

Q-13.

What does the author mean by “lingua France” in the context of the passage?

(a) official language

(b) language of communication

(c) oldest language

(d) mother tounge

Q-14.

One of the chief concerns of Mauritius now is to

(a) find skilled workers.

(b) find jobs for the unemployed.

(c) diversify industrial growth.

(d) change the economic structure

Q-15.

Many different life forms _____in the clear waters of Mauritius where colorful corals thrive in the shallow, warm waters
which surround the island.
Choose from the following the correct option that fits the blank.
(a) exist (b) is existing (c) existed (d) exists

Q-16.

According to the passage, which of the following are false with regard to Mauritius?

1. It witnesses religious diversity.

2. Racial discrimination is a menace in the island.

3. People here respect one another‘s cultural sentiments.

4. Most of the island‘s religious buildings consists of temples.

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Passage-4.

Ever since the final whistle brought World Cup 2006 to a close, the atmosphere in the two neighbouring capitals could not
be more different. In Rome, there were scenes of euphoria over Italy‘s victory. Ecstatic Italian demonstrators partied into
the early hours of the morning. The victorious team was given a rapturous welcome both at the airport and in Rome‘s
Circolo Massimo, where over a million fans braved the Roman sun to greet the returning heroes. The great expanse of the
Circolo Massimo was strewn with red, white and green flags, while the air was thick with the crowd‘s hooting, chanting
and music-making. Late on Monday the winning team was expected to be greeted by Prime Minister Romano Prodi. Then,
a parade through the streets of Rome, with the solid gold trophy in an open top bus.

In Paris, the Champs Elysees, which had seen crowds of upto 5,00,000 when France entered the quarterfinals and then the
semifinals, had barely 50,000 fans who felt they had to tell their team it had been heroic despite the defeat. But their heart
was not in it. A special TV show organised to celebrate victory turned into a virtual wake. Mournful faces were trying to
mask a sense of overwhelming sorrow, not least because superstar Zidane‘s final match had been tarnished by his
expulsion from the game.

There will be no parade down the Champs Elysees as had been planned. The players had lunch with President Jacques
Chirac on their return. But a tight-lipped Raymond Domenech said brusquely: ―I am the manager, I decide. There will be
no parade.‖ Instead, fans had a glimpse of their favourite stars from a balcony of the chic Crillon Hotel at the Place de la
Concorde.

In Italy, on the other hand, the victory was experienced as a double triumph, with the feeling that Italians had avenged
their Euro 2000 defeat at the hands of the French. The Italian press was lavish in its praise for the squadra azzura with
headlines like ― “The world Belongs to Us” or simply, ― “Champions.” Newspapers hoped this victory would augur a new
era of hope and economic recovery for Italy.

Q-17.

In the first line of the passage, which two capitals is the author talking about?

(a) Italy and France

(b) Rome and Paris

(c) Melbourne and Rome

(d) Italy and Brazil

Q-18.

What does the word “tarnished‘ mean in the context of the passage?

(a) oxidised (b) spoiled (c) deteriorated (d) discoloured

Q-19.

Why did the French fans gather to welcome their team despite its defeat in World Cup 2006?

(a) To make the team feel that they are not alone

(b) To support their team emotionally

(c) To congratulate their team for being great rivals

(d) To support their team for giving a tough fight

Q-20.

Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the passage?

1. Zidane‘s was excluded from the football team before the final match got over

2. France mourned over a not-so-glorious end of Zidane‘s career

3. Italy had once lost a match against France

4. Italy triumphed over France twice in World Cup 2006

(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4 (c) Only 2 (d) 3 and 4

Q-21.

Choose the most appropriate title for the given passage:

(a) The tale of the victor and the vanquished

(b) A match well-avenged

(c) New Champs on the block

(d) World Cup 2006

Passage-5.

Rock, or rock-and-roll is a form of music that was invented in the United States in the 1950s. It has become popular in the
US, Europe, and many other parts of the world. African-American performers like Little Richards, Fats Domino, Ray Charles,
and Big Joe Turner were among the first people to come out with true rock-and-roll, a combination of various elements
from country and Western, gospel, rhythm and blues, and jazz. The influences of early performers like blues man Muddy
Waters, gospel performer Ruth Brown, jazz musician Louis Jordan, on rock-and-roll, are still felt today. For example, the
songs of early country legend Hank Williams affected musicians, from early rock star Buddy Holly to 1980s rocker Bruce
Springsteen.

In the segregated 1950s, African-American musical forms were not considered appropriate for White audiences. Much of
the US population had not been exposed to them. All that changed, when in 1953, Cleveland disc jockey Alan Freed began
to play rhythm and blues to a largely non African-American audience. Freed was successful and a lot of records were sold.
The music spread, and the term that Freed had adopted for the music — rock-and-roll began to spread as well.

Teenagers and the money they were willing to spend on records provided an impetus for rock-and-roll. On their way to
becoming rock stars, many performers copied songs from the original artists. For instance, Pat Boone scored a hit with a
toned-down version of Little Richards‘ song, ‗Tutti Frutti‘, prompting Little Richard to comment,‘ He goes and outsells me
with my song that I write.‘ In 1955-56, Chuck Berry, Bill Haley and the Comets, and particularly Elvis Presley became
famous for their version of traditional rhythm and blues. Elvis Presley‘s first television appearance in January 1956 marked
rock-and-roll‘s ascendancy into the world of pop music.

Q-22.

What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) American popular music.

(b) The careers of successful rock musicians.

(c) The musical elements that distinguish pop from classical music.
(d) The emergence and spread of rock-and-roll.

Q-23.

Who is NOT mentioned as an African-American performer who was amongst the first to come out with rock-and-roll?

(a) Fats Domino

(b) Little Richards

(c) Elvis Presley

(d) Ray Charles

Q-24.

According to the passage, true rock-and-roll is characterized by a combination of which of the following.

(a) The music of Bruce Springsteen and Hank Williams.

(b) Musical influences from Europe and Asia.

(c) Country and Western, gospel, rhythm and blues, and jazz.

(d) Rhythm and blues played by Alan Freed

Q-25.

Which of the following are false according to the given passage?

(a) rock-and-roll was invented by Americans

(b) rock-and-roll falls under the umbrella of pop music

(c) rock-and-roll became popular among teenagers

(d) Alan Freed was a disc jockey who popularized rock-and-roll among non-African American audience

Instructions for Q 26 – 35

In each of the questions a statement is followed by two assumptions. These assumptions may or may not be implicit in the
statement. Identify the assumption implicit in the statement.

(a) Only assumption I is implicit

(b) Only assumption II is implicit

(c) Both assumptions I and II are implicit

(d) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit

Q-26.

Statement: Tanu asked her servant to get vegetables from the market.

Assumption I: The servant will be able to purchase the vegetables.

Assumption II: The servant will be able to locate the vegetable market.

Q-27.

Statement: Activists want the parliament to pass the Women Reservation Bill. The bill proposes that thirty three percent
seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies shall be reserved for women.
Assumption I: The passing of the bill will lead to empowerment of women in the political arena. Assumption II: The
provisions of the bill will lead to a decrease in the incidence of crime against women.

Q-28.

Statement: The government wants to make a change in the adoption laws so that only married couples are allowed to
adopt children.

Assumption I: Married couples need children more than the unmarried ones.

Assumption II: Married couples will make better parents as compared to people who are unmarried.

Q-29.

Statement: Producers prefer to sign George, a pedestrian actor, over others for their films despite the fact that he doesn’t
have a hit film to his name.

Assumption I: George has done a lot of hit films.

Assumption II: George is very handsome and charming.

Q-30.

Statement: In order to tackle traffic problems, the authorities have decided to cut down on the number of cars that can be
registered every month.

Assumption I: The growing number of cars is one of the major reasons for congestion on roads. Assumption II: People
prefer to commute by cars.

Q-31.

Statement: Scientists believe that a galaxy other than our Milky Way exists in this cosmos. This new galaxy has an earth-
like planet that supports life.

Assumptions I: Earth and earth-like planets have the potential to support life.

Assumptions II: Only an earth like planet can have life in this cosmos.

Q-32.

Statement: Pickpocketing has become rampant in crowded places.

Assumptions I: Pickpocketing is a banned activity.

Assumptions II: Pickpocketing takes place only in crowded places.

Q-33.

Statement: “No living being other than man is a social animal”.

Assumptions I: Non-living beings are not social animals.

Assumptions II: There is at least one more living being other than man.

Q-34.

Statement: Child abuse is increasing and has become a major form of human exploitation in India.

Assumptions I: Children can be subjected to abuse and exploitation in India.

Assumptions II: Other forms of human exploitation exist in India.

Q-35.

Statement: People in North India wear more woollens than people in South India.

Assumption I: Good quality woollens are available more in North India than in South India.

Assumption II: People of North India are not as strong as people of South India.

Instructions Q36 – Q44

Each of the following questions consist of statements followed by two conclusions. Read the given statements carefully
and identify which of the conclusions directly follow.

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(c) Both conclusions I and II follow

(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q-36.

Statements:
Both India and Pakistan are democratic countries. Both have democratically elected Prime Ministers. Both the Prime
Ministries want peace.

Conclusions:

I. India and Pakistan are unlikely to follow the path of confrontation.

II. India and Pakistan are neighbouring countries

Q-37.

Statements:
Many people are endowed with plentiful time. Idling away time is a sign of high status for them.

Conclusions:

I. Affluent people idle away time.

II. Good fortune makes a person idle.

Q-38.

Statements:

The planning Commission is opposed to the proposal. It feels that the cost of subsidizing helicopter operations will be
exorbitant.

Conclusions:

I. The planning Commission wants the government to spend less on itself.

II. Helicopter operations must be subsidized.

Q-39.

Statements:
The population below the poverty line is computed on the basis of minimum daily calories requirement of food and actual
consumption. Forty-eight percent of India's population lives below the poverty line.

Conclusions:
I.Forty-eight percent of the people in India do not get the required calories of food.
II.Poverty is India's biggest problem.

Q-40.

Statements:

The policy of liberalisation will make the rich richer and the poor poorer. The disparity between the rich and the poor will
widen.

Conclusions:

I. Liberalisation is not good for India.

II. The rich believe in liberalisation.

Q-41.

Statements:

National integration cannot be achieved. There are contrasts between the rich and the poor and different religious groups.

Conclusions:
I. Contrasts hinder integration.
II. National integration is essential for India

Q-42.

Statements: A simple DNA test can predict whether someone is more likely to lose weight on a low fat or a low
carbohydrate diet, say US researchers. Their study looked at how well people with different genes fared on different
weight loss diets.

Conclusions:

I. People’s bodies react to certain nutrients differently and this is related to their genetic makeup.

II. A better understanding of one’s genetic makeup helps in charting out one‟s diet pattern to lose weight.

Q-43.

Statements:
There are glaring inequalities between man and man. Laws can ensure an ordered society but only hard work will help us
to achieve the social objective of economic goals.

Conclusions:

I. Only hard work can remove economic inequalities.

II. Economic equality is more important than discipline

Q-44.

Statements:

The deadlock persisted for the fourth consecutive day despite hectic efforts. Then, a meeting between the Prime Minister
and the farmers' leaders was arranged.
Conclusions:

I. Meeting with Prime Minister ended the deadlock.

II. The meeting between the Prime Minister and the farmers' leader was the result of the hectic efforts.

Instructions for Q45-Q51

In each of the following questions, two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take
the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Mark your
answer as:

(a) if only conclusion I follows

(b) if only conclusion II follows

(c) if neither I nor II follows

(d) if both I and II follow

Q-45.

Statements:

Some rivers are lakes. All lakes are ponds.

Conclusions:

I. All ponds are lakes.

II. Some rivers are ponds.

Q-46.

Statements:

Some flies are ants. All insects are ants.

Conclusions:

I. All ants are flies.

II. Some ants are insects.

Q-47.

Statements:

All planets are moons. All moons are suns.

Conclusions:

I. All moons are planets.

II. All planets are suns.

Q-48.
Statements:

All monkeys are dogs. All dogs are cats.

Conclusions:

I. All monkeys are cats.

II. All cats are monkeys.

Q-49.

Statements:

All tubes are handles. All cups are handles.

Conclusions:

I. All cups are tubes.

II. Some handles are not cups

Q-50.

Statements:

All books are cakes. All lamps are cakes.

Conclusions:

I. Some lamps are books.

II. No lamp is book.

Q-51.

Statements:

All flowers are stems. All stems are roots.

Conclusions:

I. All roots are flowers.

II. All stems are flowers.

Q 52 – Q-60 Directions. In each of the sample questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by four
options pairs of words or phrases. Select the option pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that
expressed in the original pair.
Q-52. quixotic : pragmatic :: murky : ______

a. rapid b. cloudy c. clear d. friendly

Q-53. smear : libel :: heed : ______

a. represent b. doubt c. consider d. need

Q-54. nymph : ______ :: seraphim : angel

a. maiden b. sinner c. candle d. priest

Q-55. poetry : rhyme :: philosophy : ______

a. imagery b. music c. bi-law d. theory

Q-56. jibe : praise :: ______ : enlighten

a. jib b. delude c. worship d. wed

Q-57. marshal : prisoner :: principal : ______

a. teacher b. president c. doctrine d. student

Q-58. fecund : infertile :: ______ : fleet

a. rapid b. slow c. fertilizer d. damp

Q-59. diamond : baseball :: court : ______

a. poker b. jury c. grass d. squash

Q-60. native : aboriginal :: naïve : ______

a. learned b. arid c. unsophisticated d. tribe

Instructions: Q-61-70

Each question below consists of a Statement and two Courses of Action - I and II. Assuming the statement to be true,
decide which of the suggested Courses of Action logically follow(s) using the code given below. Code:

(a) If only I follows

(b) If only II follows

(c) If both I and II follow

(d) If neither I nor II follows

Q-61.

Statement:

The sale of model Y of XYZ cell phone company has dropped drastically ever since its rival brand announced the launch of
a better model at a reduced price.

Courses of Action:

I. The quality of model Y should be improved and its price should be decreased.

II. The XYZ cell phone company should do a thorough research on the rival company’s product and strategy.

Q-62.

Statement:

There is an increase in the demand of imported fruits in the Indian market.

Courses of Action:

I. The government should increase import duty.

II. The fruit vendors should not be allowed to sell imported fruits.

Q-63.
Statement:

With the onset of monsoon, a number of cases of malarial infections have been reported.

Courses of Action:

I. People should be advised to wear long-sleeved clothing and minimize the exposure of bare skin.

II. Government should provide anti-malarial drugs free of cost.

Q-64.

Statement:

Inspite of the teacher’s repeated warnings, a student was caught using a cell phone in class.

Courses of Action:

I. The cell phone should be immediately confiscated and the child should be warned against using it in class again.
II. The child should be punished for his act

Q-65.

Statement:

The vapours released by house paints are toxic and can cause cancer or asthma.

Courses of Action:

I. The relevant authorities should raise concerns about the long-term health effects of „off gassing‟, the release of vapours
from house paints.

II. Only water-based paints, which are less toxic, should be used and the solvent-based ones should be banned.

Q-66.

Statement:

Facebook helps one connect to different people anywhere in the world but with the rise in its popularity, one’s privacy and
security is frequently compromised.

Courses of Action:

I. One should regularly review one’s privacy settings and maintain a check on the information shared with others.

II. One should refrain from putting any photographs or posts on one’s Facebook account.

Q-67.

Statement:

A large number of southern right whale calves are dying off the coast of Argentina, sparking concerns among marine
scientists and conservation officials.

Courses of Action:

I. The relevant authorities must study the differences between the whale calves‟ present situation with their situation in
the past.

II. The conservation officials should check whether there is a need to change the monitoring system.

Q-68.
Statement:

The publishing industry has always made most of its money through hardcovers but now, e-books have reduced the
revenues manifold.

Courses of Action:

I. Drop the prices of hardcover bestsellers and increase the prices of e-books.

II. E-books should be priced in a way that costs are met and overall revenues are maximized.

Q-69.

Statement:

A uniquely dangerous termite that tunnels up the sides of houses has recently turned up in South Florida, raising the total
number of termites that could be living in the region by 25 to 30 percent.

Courses of Action:

I. The district administration should organize a campaign to raise awareness about the new species of termite.

II. The pest department of the state should identify all the major infested sites and treat them.

Q-70.

Statement:

The state of Gujarat is the worst affected by floods recently.

Courses of Action:

I. The Chief Minister should immediately send a rescue team to Gujarat.

II. The Chief Minister should immediately form a commission to investigate the cause of the flood.

QUANTS

QUANT SECTION TEST

1. How many liters should be removed out of 40 liters of solution of petrol and kerosene and be
replaced with equal amount of kerosene so that the proportion of petrol drops from 80% to 75%.
a) 2 liters b) 2.5 liters c) 3 liters d) 3.5 liters e) 4 liters

2. Dry grapes contain 10% water whereas fresh grapes contain 75% water. To obtain 15 kgs of dry
grapes, how many kgs of fresh grapes are needed?

a) 54 kgs b) 20 kgs c) 150 kgs d) 112.5 kgs e) 22 kgs

3. Ten years ago, the average age of a couple was 27 years old. Today also the average age of the couple
and their baby is 27 years old. Find the present age of the baby.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e) 7

4. A student scored 90, 80, 60, 50 and 70 marks in the subject Physics, Chemists, Mathematics. Biology
and English respectively. If weight of respective subjects is 12, 15, 20, 18 and 24, rind the weighted average.
a) 58.31 b) 64.50 c) 68.09 d) 70.63 e) 72.71

5. In an organization 50 employees are working. Average salary of 20 employees is Rs. 20000 and
that of remaining employees is Rs. 50000. Find the average salary of the whole organization.

a) Rs. 38000 b) Rs. 30000 c) Rs. 35000 d) Rs. 40000 e) Rs. 42000

6. In a company there are 3 different departments, A, B, and C. Average salary of department A is Rs.
50000, average salary of department B is Rs. 55000 and average salary of department C is Rs. 60000.
average salary of department A and B together is Rs. 52000 and that of B and C together is Rs. 58000. Find
the average salary of the whole company.

a) Rs. 52500 b) Rs. 54500 c)Rs.56000 d) Rs. 55000 e) Rs. 57500

7. The average weight of 8 people decreases by 2 kgs, when two new people are added to the group.
If the difference between the original weight and new weight is 36 kgs, find the new total weight of the
people.

b) 264 c) 271 d) 272 e) 268

8. Ram scores marks in six subjects in the ratio of 6 : 4 : 7 : 6 : 7 : 5 and he got an overall aggregate of
70.00%. If the passing criteria is the 50% of the maximum marks in each subject and maximum marks
of all the subjects are same. Find in how many subjects did he fail.

a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) Cannot be determined

9. In a school, every student participates in at least one of the games between Chess and Tennis. 40% of
the students play both Chess and Tennis, and 20% of the members who play Chess do not play Tennis. What
percentage of the students play only Tennis?
a) 60 b) 50 c) 40 d) 70 e) 80

10. A student scores 30% marks in an exam and fails by 10 marks. Another one scores 55% and passes by 15
marks. What is the passing marks as a percentage of the total marks?
a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40 e) 45

11. Ram Gopal Verma wants to make a new film. He collected money from 50 % of his sponsors on an
average Rs 100000 each, but the total amount of money collected is only 40 % of the requirement. How
much should each of the remaining sponsor contribute on an average so that the film can be created in time?

a) 100000 b) 200000 c) 250000 d) 150000 e) 170000

12.I invested two different sums of money in two schemes viz. A and B such that one-fourth the amount
invested in scheme A is equal to one-fifth the amount invested in scheme B. The ratio of the amounts
received from the two schemes after 3 years are in the ratio 16: 25. Find the ratio of the rate of interest
being offered by the two schemes, if both of them are offering a simple rate of return.

a) 25: 16 b) 5: 4 c) 4: 5 d) 16: 25 e) Cannot be determined

13. At a certain rate of simple interest, a principal becomes three times in 15 years. In how many years
will the principal amounts becomes nine times?

a) 45 years b) 30 years c) 60 years d) 75 years e) 90 years

14. A man invested Rs. 30,000 into two parts at simple interest, one at 4% per annum and other at 6% per
annum. If the first part earns same interest as the second part for the same period of time, then find the amount
invested at 4%.

a) Rs. 19,000 b) Rs. 20,000 c) Rs. 16,000 d) Rs. 12,000 e) Rs. 18,000

15.In how much time would Rs 15000 become Rs 19965, at the rate of 10% per annum where interest
is being compounded annually?

a) l years b) 1.5 years c) 2.5 years d) 2 years e) 3 years

16.The compound interest on a sum of money for 2 years at a certain rate of interest is Rs.1125. The simple
interest on the same sum for a period of 3 years and at the same rate of interest is Rs.1500. Find the sum (in
Rs.).

a) 2000 b) 3000 c) 3500 d) 2500 e) 1500

17.Mr. Chatur takes a loan from a bank of a certain amount at 10% p.a., compound annually and lends it to
Mr. Bhola for 2 years at 20% p.a., compound annually. He thus makes a Profit of Rs. 18400 at the end of two
years after settling the debt. Find the amount borrowed.

a) 60000 b) 80000 c) 120000 d) 160000 e) 184000

18.A man sells an article at a profit of 20%. If lie bought it at 10% less and sold it at Rs. 18 more he
would make a 40% profit. Find the cost price of the article?

a) Rs. 150 b) Rs. 180 c) Rs. 240 d) Rs. 300 e) Rs. 330

19.In order to make a profit of 40% I sell 15 articles for Rs.70. How many articles should i sell for Rs.400 so
that I will incur a loss of 20%

a) 125 b) 100 c) 225 d) 150 e) 175

20.Amar sells a digital camera at a discount on its market price of Rs. 25000 & also gives an additional
discount of 20%, thus selling it at Rs.15000 find the initial discount.

a) 20% b) 25% c) 15% d)50% e) 40%

21.A salesman marks up his products by 11.11%. What is the maximum discount that he can offer such
that he does not make any loss?
a) 10% b) 22.22% c) 88.88% d) 9.09% e) None of these

22. l0 pencils are purchased for Rs. 8 but sold at Rs. 10 per 8 pencils. Find the profit percentage

a) 56.25% b) 44.44% c) 35% d) 53.74% e) None of these

23.Paras has enough money to buy either 20 pens or 30 pencils. He decides to spend only 80 percent
of total money & buys 10 pens how many more pencils can he buy?

a) 10 b) 15 c) 7 d) 9 e) None of these

24.Suresh Bhai withdrew certain amount from bank to buy 52 shirts averaging Rs.150. Bank gave him
same number of notes of Rs. 50, Rs. 100 and Rs. 500. How many notes did Suresh Bhai draw of Rs. 100?

a) 15 b) 12 c) 3.1 d) 14

25.The cost of bean A is Rs.25/kg and the cost of bean B is Rs.33/kg. If bean B and bean A are mixed in
ratio 5 : 2, then what will be the price per kg of mixture?

a) Rs.29.4 b) Rs.30.7 c) Rs.31.8 d) Rs.28.8 e) Rs.31.3

26.The expenses of a school are partly constant and partly vary as the number of boys. The expenses
were Rs. 10,000 for 150 boys and Rs. 8,400 for 120 boys, what will be the expenses when there 330 boys?

a) Rs. 18,400 b) Rs. 19,600 c) 23,100 d) Rs. 22,000 e) Rs. 22,100

27.If 7x — 4y = 5 and 3x — 2y = 2 find ratio of x : y

a) 1 : 2 b) 3 : 4 c) 4 : 3 d) 2:3 e) 2:1

28.In how many ways can 735 be written as difference of two squares of natural numbers?

a) 12 b) 8 c) 6 d) 4

29.How many two digit numbers exist such that it is equal to the multiple of sum of the digits?

a) 23 b) 9 c) 14 d) None of these
30. If x2 = 999998000001, then x = ?

a) 99999 b) 9999 c) 999999 d) 9999999

31.Find the number of natural number solutions of (a, b) which satisfy the equation

a) 9 b) 8 c) 4 d) Infinite

32.Which of the following is exactly divisible by 99?

a) 228645 b) 114345 c) 357240 d) 913464

33.There are 144, 160, 180, 200 students from each of the school A, B, C and D. If they had to form teams
where they have equal number of students from the same school in all the teams, what are the total number
of teams possible if there are maximum students in each team?

a) 112 b) 57 c) 171 d) 84

34.What is the least number which must be subtracted from 1401, so that the resultant number when divided by
7, 10, 18 and 30 will leave in each case the remainder 3?

a) 137 b) 138 c) 42 d) 243

35.Find the maximum powers of 2 in the HCF of 23473184 and 54321096.

a) 4 b) 2 c) 5 d) 3

36.Product of 2 natural numbers is 216. H.C.F. is 6. How many such pairs are

possible?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

37.What is the last digit of 399?

a) 3 b) 9 c) 7 d) 1

38.How many factors does the number 720 have?

a) 25 b) 30 c) 32 d) 34

39.The rightmost non-zero digits of the number 302720 is

a) 1 b) 3 c) 7 d) 9

40.Find the unit digit of the product 2 2010 × 6 2011 × 7 2012 × 8 2013

a) 2 b) 3 c) 7 d) 9

41.

42.
43.

44.

45.

46.
47.

48.

49.

50.

51.
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53.

54.

55.
56.

57.

58.

59.
60.

61.

62.
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64.

65.

66.
67.

68.

69.

70.
LRDI

Q1.

Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?
A. (1/3)
B. (1/8)
C. (2/8)
D. (1/16)

Q2.
Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13

Q3.

Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... What number should come next?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 26

Q4.
Look at this series: 21, 9, 21, 11, 21, 13, 21, ... What number should come
next?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 21
D. 23
Q5.
Look at this series: 58, 52, 46, 40, 34, ... What number should come next?
A. 26
B. 28
C. 30
D. 32

Q6.
Look at this series: 8, 22, 8, 28, 8, ... What number should come next?
A. 9
B. 29
C. 32
D. 34

Q7.
Look at this series: 31, 29, 24, 22, 17, ... What number should come next?
A. 15
B. 14
C. 13
D. 12

Q8.

Look at this series: 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ... What number should come next?
A. 52
B. 56
C. 96
D. 128
Q9.

Look at this series: 201, 202, 204, 207, ... What number should come next?
A. 205
B. 208
C. 210
D. 211

Q10.
A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P areat
the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ?
A. A
B. X
C. S
D. Z

Q11.
A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to
D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second
position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sittingtogether.
In which position A is sitting ?
A. Between B and D
B. Between B and C
C. Between E and D
D. Between C and E

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre:
1. P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of R and V.
 2. S is not the neighbour of P.
3. V is the neighbour of U.
4. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S.

Q12. Which two of the following are not neighbours ?

A. RV
B. UV
C. RP
D. QW

Q13. Which one is immediate right to the V ?

A. P
B. U
C. R
D. T

Q14. Which of the following is correct ?

A. P is to the immediate right of Q
B. R is between U and V
C. Q is to the immediate left of W
D. U is between W and S

Q15. What is the position of S ?

A. Between U and V
B. Second to the right of P
C. To the immediate right of W
D. Data inadequate.
Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of
Rani and to the right of Bindu. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between
Rani and Mary.

Q16. Who is sitting immediate right to Reeta ?

A. Bindu
B. Rani
C. Mary
D. Seema

Q17. Who is in the middle of the photograph ?

A. Bindu
B. Rani
C. Reeta
D. Seema

Q18. Who is second from the right ?

A. Mary
B. Rani
C. Reeta
D. Bindu

Q19. Who is second from the left in photograph ?

 A. Reeta
B. Mary
C. Bindu
D. Seema

In an Exhibition seven cars of different companies - Cadillac, Ambassador,

Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo are standing facing to east in the
following order :
1. Cadillac is next to right of Fargo.
2. Fargo is fourth to the right of Fiat.
3. Maruti car is between Ambassador and Bedford.
4. Fiat which is third to the left of Ambassador, is at one end.

Q20. In an Exhibition seven cars of different companies - Cadillac,

Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo are standing facingto
east in the following order :
1. Cadillac is next to right of Fargo.
2. Fargo is fourth to the right of Fiat.
3. Maruti car is between Ambassador and Bedford.
4. Fiat which is third to the left of Ambassador, is at one end.

Q21.
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A. Maruti is next left of Ambassador.
B. Bedford is next left of Fiat.
C. Bedford is at one end.
D. Fiat is next second to the right of Maruti.
Q22.
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A. Fargo car is in between Ambassador and Fiat.
B. Cadillac is next left to Mercedes car.
C. Fargo is next right of Cadillac.
D. Maruti is fourth right of Mercedes.

Q23.

Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of Ambassador ?

A. Cadillac, Fargo and Maruti
B. Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo
C. Maruti, Bedford and Fiat
D. Bedford, Cadillac and Fargo

Q24.
Which one of the following is the correct position of Mercedes ?
A. Next to the left of Cadillac
B. Next to the left of Bedford
C. Between Bedford and Fargo
D. Fourth to the right of Maruti.

Each of these questions are based on the information given below:

1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south - while M,
N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first
line and are facing to North.
2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q.
3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other.
4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M.
5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D.
6. M is at one end of the line.
Q25.

Who is sitting third to the right of O ?

A. Q
B. N
C. M
D. Data inadequate

Q26.
If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of Q, and Q shifts to the placeof
B, then who will be the second to the left of the person opposite to O ?
A. Q
B. P
C. E
D. D

Q27.
Which of the following pair is diagonally opposite to each other ?
A. EQ
B. BO
C. AN
D. AM

Q28.
If O and P, A and E and B and Q interchange their positions, then who will be
the second person to the right of the person who is opposite to the person
second of the right of P ?
A. D
 B. A
C. E
D. O

Q29.
In the original arrangement who is sitting just opposite to N ?
A. B
B. A
C. C
D. D

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row facing North :

1. F is to the immediate right of E.
2. E is 4th to the right of G.
3. C is the neighbour of B and D.
4. Person who is third to the left of D is at one of ends.

Q30.

Who are to the left of C ?

A. Only B
B. G, B and D
C. G and B
D. D, E, F and A

Q31.

Which of the following statement is not true ?

A. E is to the immediate left of D
B. A is at one of the ends
 C. G is to the immediate left of B
D. F is second to the right of D

Q32.
Who are the neighbours of B ?
A. C and D
B. C and G
C. G and F
D. C and E

Q33.
What is the position of A ?
A. Between E and D
B. Extreme left
C. Centre
D. Extreme right

Q34. A, B and C are sisters. D is the brother of E and E is the daughter of B. How is A
related to D?
(a) Sister (b) Cousin (c) Niece (d) Aunt
Q35. F is the brother of A. C is the daughter of A. K is the sister of F. G is the brotherof
C. Who is the uncle of G? (a) A (b) C (c) F (d) K
Q36. P is the brother of Q and R. S is the R‘s mother. T is P‘s father. Which of the
following statements cannot be definitely true? (a) T is Q‘s father (b) S is P‘s mother
(c) T is S‘s husband (d) S is T‘s son
Q37. A party consisted of a man, his wife, his three sons and their wives and three
children in each son's family. How many were there in the party? (a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 13
(d) 17
Q38. Nithya is Sam‘s Sister. Mogan is Sam‘s Father. Selvan is Rajan‘s Son. Rajan is
Mogan‘s Brother. How is Nithya related to Selvan? (a) Daughter (b) Sister (c) Cousin
(d) Wife
Q39. A man said to a woman, ―Your mother‘s husband‘s sister is my aunt.‖ How isthe
woman related to the man? (a) Granddaughter (b) Daughter (c) Sister (d) Aunt

Q40.

Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only sonof
my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?
A. Brother
B. Uncle
C. Cousin
D. Father

Q41.
Pointing towards a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my
mother." How is the woman related to the man?
A. Mother
B. Grandmother
C. Sister
D. Daughter

Q42.
Introducing Sonia, Aamir says, "She is the wife of only nephew of only brother of
my mother." How Sonia is related to Aamir?
A. Wife
B. Sister
C. Sister-in-law
D. Data is inadequate

Q43.
SCD, TEF, UGH, _ , WKL
 A. CMN
B. UJI
C. VIJ
D. IJT

Q44.
One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a
crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction
was Udai facing?
A. East
B. West
C. North
D. South
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Q45. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z,

then in which direction of Y, is P?
A. North
B. South
C. South-East
D. None of these

Q46.

A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 kmhe
turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting
place?
A. West
B. South
C. North-East
D. South-West
Q47.
Golu started from his house towards North. After covering a distance of 8 km.he
turned towards left and covered a distance of 6 km. What is the shortest distance
now from his house?
A. 10 km.
B. 16 km.
C. 14 km
D. 2 km.

Q48.
Rohit walked 25 m towards south. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 m.He
then turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right and walked
15 m. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?
A. 35 m East
B. 35 m North
C. 30 m West
D. 45 m East

Six girls are sitting in a circle facing to the centre of the circle. They are P, Q,R,
S, T and V. T is not between Q and S but some other one. P is next to the left
of V. R is 4th to the right of P.
Q49.
Which of the following statement is not true ?
A. S is just next to the right to R
B. T is just next to the right of V
C. R is second to the left of T
D. P is second to the right of R

Q50.
If P and R interchange their positions then which of the following pair will sit
together ?
A. RT
B. PV
C. VT
D. QV

Q51.

What is the position of T ?

A. Just next to the right of Q
B. Second to the left of P
C. Between Q and R
D. To the immediate right of V

Q52.

Which one is sitting just right to the V?

A. P
B. T
C. R
D. S/Q

In a class there are seven students (including boys and girls) A, B, C, D, E, F

and G. They sit on three benches I, II and III. Such that at least two students
on each bench and at least one girl on each bench. C who is a girl student,
does not sit with A, E and D. F the boy student sits with only B. A sits on the
bench I with his best friends. G sits on the bench III. E is the brother of C.

Q53.
How many girls are there out of these 7 students ?
 A. 3
B. 3 or 4
C. 4
D. Data inadequate

Q54.
Which of the following is the group of girls ?
A. BAC
B. BFC
C. BCD
D. CDF

Q55.
Who sits with C ?
A. B
B. D
C. G
D. E

Q56.
On which bench there are three students ?
A. Bench I
B. Bench II
C. Bench III
D. Bench I or II
Q57. Introducing a girl, a boy said, "She is the daughter of the mother of the
daughter of my aunt." How is the girl related to the boy?

i) Cousin
ii) Niece
 iii) Daughter
iv) Aunt

Refer to the data and answer the questions.

1. A family consists of 6 members P, Q , R, X, Y, Z.
2. Q is the son of R but R is not mother of Q.
3. P and R are married couple.
4. Y is the brother of R, X is the daughter of P.
5. Z is the brother of P.
Q58. Who is the brother in law of R?
a. y
b. r
c. p
d. z

Q59. How many female members are there in the family?

a.1
b.2
c.3
d.4

Q60. How is Q related to X?

a. brother
b. sister
c. mother
d. father

Q61. How is Y related to P?

a. brother
b. brother in law
c. uncle
 d. cannot be determined

Q62. AEI : ILO :: LPT :

A) TWX
B) TWU
C) TWZ
D) TWY
E) TUZ

Eight persons are sitting around a circular table such that some of them are facing
towards the centre while some are facing away from centre. M is third to the right of S,
who sits second to the left of Y. P sits on the immediate right of X, who faces the same
direction as faced by M. Neither X nor P is adjacent to M. C is third to the left of
Y. Not more than 4 persons face outside. B and S face same direction. C is third to the
right of B. J is second to the left of M. C and J face opposite direction to that of B.
Immediate neighbors of C face opposite directions.
Q63. How many persons face towards the centre?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

Q64. What is the position of J with respect to P?

a. 3 to the left
b. 2 to right
c. 4 to right
d. 3 to right

Q65. Find the odd one out?

a. x
b. s
 c. m
d. y
e. p

Q66. Who is second to the right of C?

a. x
b. p
c. j
d. s
e. cannot be determined

Q67. How many persons sit between J and B when counted from the right of former?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

Q68.
If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P x Q means P is the wife of Q and P %Q
means P is the daughter of Q then which of the following means D is the uncle
of A?
A. A % B x C + D

B. A x B + C % D

C. A + C % B x D

None of these
D.

Q69.
A is the son of C; C and Q are sisters; Z is the mother of Q and P is the son of
Z. Which of the following statements is true?
A. P and A are cousins

B. P is the maternal uncle of A

C. Q is the maternal grandfather of A

C and P are sisters

D.

Q70.

If X + Y means X is the daughter of Y; X - Y means X is the brother of Y; X

%Y means X is the father of Y and X x Y means X is the sister of Y. Which
of the following means I is the niece of J?
A. J - N % C x I
B. I x C - N % J
C. J + M x C % I
D. I x C + N - J