Answers Solutions JEE Advanced 2023 Paper 1

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Date: 04/06/2023

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks: 180

for
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

PART-I : PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks : 12)
• This section contains THREE (03) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct answer(s).

• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;

Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

Partial Marks : + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which
are correct;

Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

-1-
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

1. A slide with a frictionless curved surface, which becomes horizontal at its lower end, is fixed on the terrace of a
building of height 3h from the ground, as shown in the figure. A spherical ball of mass m is released on the slide
from rest at a height h from the top of the terrace. The ball leaves the slide with a velocity u0 = u0 xˆ and falls on
the ground at a distance d from the building making an angle  with the horizontal. It bounces off with a velocity
v and reaches a maximum height h1. The acceleration due to gravity is g and the coefficient of restitution of the
ground is 1/ 3. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) u0 = 2ghxˆ (B) v = 2gh ( xˆ – zˆ )

(C)  = 60° (D) d / h1 = 2 3

Answer (A, C, D)

Sol.

u0 = 2gh

-2-
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

v z = 2g (3h )

vz
tan  = = 3
u

 = 60

 3h   3h 
d = u0T = u0 2  = ( 2gh ) (2)  
 g   g 

Velocity after collision, only velocity along z-direction change

v1 = ev z = 2gh

v = v1kˆ + u0 iˆ

= 2gh iˆ + kˆ 

v12
h1 = =h
2g

d
Finally, u0 = 2gh ,  = 60, =2 3
h
2. A plane polarized blue light ray is incident on a prism such that there is no reflection from the surface of the
prism. The angle of deviation of the emergent ray is  = 60° (see Figure-1). The angle of minimum deviation for
red light from the same prism is min = 30° (see Figure-2). The refractive index of the prism material for blue light
is 3. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The blue light is polarized in the plane of incidence.


(B) The angle of the prism is 45°.

(C) The refractive index of the material of the prism for red light is 2.
(D) The angle of refraction for blue light in air at the exit plane of the prism is 60°.
Answer (A, C, D)

-3-
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol. For no reflection

tan i = 3
i = 60
sin i
= 3, r1 = 30
sin r1
 = i + e – r1 – r2 = 60°
e = 60 r2 = 30
A = 60
For red light,
 A + m 
sin  
=  2 = 2
 A
sin  
2
3. In a circuit shown in the figure, the capacitor C is initially uncharged and the key K is open. In this condition, a
current of 1 A flows through the 1  resistor. The key is closed at time t = t0. Which of the following statement(s)
is(are) correct?
–1
[Given : e = 0.36]

(A) The value of the resistance R is 3 .


(B) For t < t0, the value of current I1 is 2 A.
(C) At t = t0 + 7.2 s, the current in the capacitor is 0.6 A.
(D) For t → , the charge on the capacitor is 12 C.
Answer (A, B, C, D)

-4-
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol. 15 – IR = 6
I1 [3] = 6

I1 = 2 A
I = I1 + 1 = 3
15 – 3R = 6
 R =3
Eq. circuit is
1 1 1
= + +1
Req 3 3
3
Req = 
5
Eeq = 5 + 5 + 0 = 10
3
Eeq = 10  =6V
5
6
Current in circuit is e −t /CR
 3 
 5 + 3
 
7.210 –6
6  5 − 210−6 36
= e
18
30 30
=  e −1 =  0.36
18 18
= 0.6 A
At steady state, voltage across capacitor = 6 V
Q = 6 × 2 = 12 C

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

-5-
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

4. A bar of mass M = 1.00 kg and length L = 0.20 m is lying on a horizontal frictionless surface. One end of the bar

is pivoted at a point about which it is free to rotate. A small mass m = 0.10 kg is moving on the same horizontal
–1
surface with 5.00 ms speed on a path perpendicular to the bar. It hits the bar at a distance L/2 from the pivoted

end and returns back on the same path with speed v. After this elastic collision, the bar rotates with an angular

velocity . Which of the following statement is correct?

–1 –1
(A)  = 6.98 rad s and v = 4.30 ms

–1 –1
(B)  = 3.75 rad s and v = 4.30 ms

–1 –1
(C)  = 3.75 rad s and v = 10.0 ms

–1 –1
(D)  = 6.80 rad s and v = 4.10 ms

Answer (A)

Sol. C.O.A.M. about point O

L ML2 mvL
mv 0 = – …(i)
2 3 2

e=1

L
 v0 = v + …(ii)
2

Solve equation (i) and (ii)

m = 0.1 kg, M = 1 kg, L = 0.20 m

v0 = 5 m/s

Solve (i) and (ii)

We get,  = 6.98 rad/s

and v = 4.3 m/s

-6-
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

5. A container has a base of 50 cm × 5 cm and height 50 cm, as shown in the figure. It has two parallel electrically
conducting walls each of area 50 cm × 50 cm. The remaining walls of the container are thin and non-conducting.
3 −1
The container is being filled with a liquid of dielectric constant 3 at a uniform rate of 250 cm s . What is the
value of the capacitance of the container after 10 seconds?
−12 2 −1 −2
[Given: Permittivity of free space 0 = 9 × 10 C N m , the effects of the non-conducting walls on the
capacitance are negligible]

(A) 27 pF (B) 63 pF
(C) 81 pF (D) 135 pF
Answer (B)
250  10
Sol. h = = 10 cm
50  5

( 0.40  0.50 )  9  10–12


C1 =
5  10 –2
–10
= 0.36 × 10 F

3  0.10  0.5  9  10–12


C2 =
5  10–2
–10
C2 = 0.27 × 10 F

C = C1 + C2

= 63 pF
6. One mole of an ideal gas expands adiabatically from an initial state (TA, V0) to final state (Tf, 5V0). Another mole
of the same gas expands isothermally from a different initial state (TB, V0) to the same final state (Tf, 5V0). The
ratio of the specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume of this ideal gas is . What is the ratio TA/TB?
–1 1– 
(A) 5 (B) 5
 1+ 
(C) 5 (D) 5
Answer (A)

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JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol. For Adiabatic process


–1
TV =C

 TAV0 –1 = Tf (5V0 ) –1 …(i)

For Isothermal process


TB = Tf …(ii)

Equation (i)  equation (ii)


TA
 = 5  –1
TB

7. Two satellites P and Q are moving in different circular orbits around the Earth (radius R). The heights of P and
R
Q from the Earth surface are hP and hQ, respectively, where hP = . The accelerations of P and Q due to
3
gP 36
Earth’s gravity are gP and gQ. respectively. If = , what is the value of hQ?
gQ 25

3R R
(A) (B)
5 6

6R 5R
(C) (D)
5 5
Answer (A)
R
Sol. Given hP =
3
hQ = ?

gravitational acceleration at height


GM
ght =
(R + h)2

GM
gP 36 (R + hP )2
= =
gQ 25 GM
(R + hQ )2

R
Put hP = solving
3

3R
hQ =
5

-8-
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks : 24)


• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
8. A Hydrogen-like atom has atomic number Z. Photons emitted in the electronic transitions from level n = 4 to level
n = 3 in these atoms are used to perform photoelectric effect experiment on a target metal. The maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons generated is 1.95 eV. If the photoelectric threshold wavelength for the target metal
is 310 nm, the value of Z is __________.
[Given hc = 1240 eV-nm and Rhc = 13.6 eV, where R is the Rydberg constant, h is the Planck’s constant and c
is the speed of light in vacuum]
Answer (3)
1240
Sol. E4 to 3 = 1.95 eV + eV
310
 1 1 
13.6 Z 2  2 – 2  = 5.95
3 4 
7
13.6 Z 2 = 5.95
9  16
5.95  9  16
Z2 =
13.6
Solving Z = 3
9. An optical arrangement consists of two concave mirrors M1 and M2, and a convex lens L with a common principal
axis, as shown in the figure. The focal length of L is 10 cm. The radii of curvature of M1 and M2 are 20 cm and
24 cm, respectively. The distance between L and M2 is 20 cm. A point object S is placed at the mid-point between
n
L and M2 on the axis. When the distance between L and M1 is cm , one of the images coincides with S. The
7
value of n is __________.

Answer (80 or 150 or 220)

-9-
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol.

For reflection from M2

1 1 1
+ =
v (–10) (–12)

1 1 1
= –
v 10 12
v = +60 cm (for I1)

For refraction from L


1 1 1
– =
v u f

1 1 1
– =
v (–80) 10

80
v =+ (For I2)
7
This image should be at focus of M1

20 80 n
 + =
2 7 7

n = 150

Also,
If I2 is formed at pole of M1

n 80
then =
7 7

n = 80

- 10 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

And further if I2 is formed at centre of curvature of M1 then

n 80
= + 20
7 7

 n = 220

10. In an experiment for determination of the focal length of a thin convex lens, the distance of the object from the
lens is 10 ± 0.1 cm and the distance of its real image from the lens is 20 ± 0.2 cm. The error in the determination
of focal length of the lens is n%. The value of n is _______.
Answer (1)
Sol. Object distance = 10 ± 0.1 cm
Image distance = 20 ± 0.2 cm
Applying lens formula
1 1 1
− = …(i)
v u f
1 1 1
 − =
20 ( −10) f

20
 f = cm
3
Differentiate equation (i)
1 1 −1
− dv + du = df
2 2
v u f2
For calculating error
1 1 1
df = + dv + du
2 2
f v u2
 df   0.2 0.1  20
   100 =  2 + 2   100
 f   20 10  3

 0.2 0.1  20
= +  =1
 4 1  3
df
  100 = 1%
f
11. A closed container contains a homogeneous mixture of two moles of an ideal monatomic gas ( = 5/3) and one
mole of an ideal diatomic gas ( = 7/5). Here,  is the ratio of the specific heats at constant pressure and constant
volume of an ideal gas. The gas mixture does a work of 66 Joule when heated at constant pressure. The change
in its internal energy is ________ Joule.
Answer (121)

- 11 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol. u = n1C1T + n2C2 T

= ( n1C1 + n2C2 ) T …(i)

Work done = Pv

= (n1 + n2 )R T …(ii)

Divide (i) by (ii)

u ( n1C1 + n2C2 ) T
=
W ( n1 + n2 ) R T
W  n1C1 + n2C2 
u =  
R  n1 + n2 

 3R 5R 
2+  1
66  2 2 
=
R 2 +1
= 121 J
12. A person of height 1.6 m is walking away from a lamp post of height 4 m along a straight path on the flat ground.
The lamp post and the person are always perpendicular to the ground. If the speed of the person is 60 cm s −1,
the speed of the tip of the person’s shadow on the ground with respect to the person is _______ cm s−1.
Answer (40)

dx1
Sol. Given that = speed of person = 60 cm/s
dt

- 12 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

dx2
Also = speed of tip of person's shadow
dt
Applying similar triangle rule in ABE & DCE
4 1.6
=
x2 x2 – x1
4x2 – 4x1 = 1.6x2
2.4x2 = 4x1
Differentiate both sides w.r.t. t
dx2 dx
2.4 =4 1
dt dt
dx2 4
= ( 60 )
dt 2.4
= 100 cm/s
v SP = v SG – v PG

v SP = 100 cm s –1 – 60 cm s –1
–1
= 40 cm s
13. Two point-like objects of masses 20 gm and 30 gm are fixed at the two ends of a rigid massless rod of length
10 cm. This system is suspended vertically from a rigid ceiling using a thin wire attached to its center of mass,
as shown in the figure. The resulting torsional pendulum undergoes small oscillations. The torsional constant of
−8 −1 −3 −1
the wire is 1.2 × 10 N m rad . The angular frequency of the oscillations in n × 10 rad s . The value of n is
_____.

Answer (10)
Sol. m1 = 30 gm
m2 = 20 gm

- 13 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Moment of inertia about the axis of rotation is


I = m1r12 + m2r22
Clearly r1 = 4 cm
And r2 = 6 cm
–3 –4 –3 –4
 I = (30 × 10 × 16 × 10 ) + (20 × 10 × 36 × 10 )
–7 2
 I = 1200 × 10 kg m
If the system is rotated by small angle ‘’, the restoring torque is (R) = –k

d 2 −k −1.2  10−8
And =   = −2 = 
dt 2 I 1200  10−7
2 –4
  = 10
1
So,  = rad / s
100
–3
  = 10 × 10 rad/s

SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
14. List-I shows different radioactive decay processes and List-II provides possible emitted particles. Match each
entry in List-I with an appropriate entry from List-II, and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
238
(P) 92 U →234
91 Pa
+
(1) one  particle and one  particle
214 –
(Q) 82 Pb →210
82 Pb (2) three  particles and one  particle
210 –
(R) 81 Tl →206
82 Pb (3) two  particles and one  particle
228 –
(S) 91 Pa →224
88 Ra (4) one  particle and one  particle
+
(5) one  particle and two  particles
(A) P → 4, Q → 3, R → 2, S → 1 (B) P → 4, Q → 1, R → 2, S → 5
(C) P → 5, Q → 3, R → 1, S → 4 (D) P → 5, Q → 1, R → 3, S → 2
Answer (A)

- 14 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol. Option (A) is correct answer.


• In  decay mass number decreases by 4 unit and atomic number decreases by 2 unit.

• In  decay mass number does not change but atomic number increases by 1 unit.
+
• In  decay mass number does not change but atomic number decreases by 1 unit.
15. Match the temperature of a black body given in List-I with an appropriate statement in List-II, and choose the
correct option.

–3 hc –6
[Given: Wien’s constant as 2.9 × 10 m-K and = 1.24 × 10 V-m]
e
List-I List-II
(P) 2000 K (1) The radiation at peak wavelength can lead to
emission of photoelectrons from a metal of work
function 4 eV.
(Q) 3000 K (2) The radiation at peak wavelength is visible to
human eye.
(R) 5000 K (3) The radiation at peak emission wavelength will
result in the widest central maximum of a single
slit diffraction.
(S) 10000 K (4) The power emitted per unit area is 1/16 of that
emitted by a blackbody at temperature 6000 K.
(5) The radiation at peak emission wavelength can be
used to image human bones.
(A) P → 3, Q → 5, R → 2, S → 3 (B) P → 3, Q → 2, R → 4, S → 1
(C) P → 3, Q → 4, R → 2, S → 1 (D) P → 1, Q → 2, R → 5, S → 3
Answer (C)
Sol. (P) 2000 K m T = b

b 2.9  10−3
m = = = 1.45  10−6 m = 1450 nm
T 2000

2.9  10−3
(Q) 3000 K m T = b  m = = 966.66 nm
3000

2.9  10−3
(R) 5000 K m T = b  m = = 580 nm
5000

2.9  10−3
(S) 10000 K m T = b  m = = 290 nm
10,000

- 15 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

List-II
hc 1.24  10−6
(1)  th = = = 0.31 10−6 m = 310 nm
 4
As,   th S →1

(2) 400 <  < 700 nm R→2


(3) Central maxima is widest for maximum wavelength
 P →3
1 1
(4) A (T1 ) =
4
AT24  T1 = T2 = 3000 K Q→4
16 2
(5) For imaging bones X-rays are used (1-10 nm)
None of the options in List-II
16. A series LCR circuit is connected to a 45 sin(t) Volt source. The resonant angular frequency of the circuit is
4
105 rad s−1 and current amplitude at resonance is I0. When the angular frequency of the source is  = 8 × 10
−1
rad s , the current amplitude in the circuit is 0.05 I0. If L = 50 mH, match each entry in List-I with an appropriate
value from List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) I0 in mA (1) 44.4

(Q) The quality factor of the circuit (2) 18


−1 (3) 400
(R) The bandwidth of the circuit in rad s
(S) The peak power dissipated at resonance in Watt (4) 2250
(5) 500
(A) P → 2, Q → 3, R → 5, S → 1
(B) P → 3, Q → 1, R → 4, S → 2
(C) P → 4, Q → 5, R → 3, S → 1
(D) P → 4, Q → 2, R → 1, S → 5
Answer (B)
Sol. As per the given information :
1
= 105 …(i)
LC
45
I0 = …(ii)
R
45
0.05I0 =
2
 5 
R 2 +  0.8 X L0 − XC0 
 4 

- 16 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Where X L0 = XC0 are at resonant frequencies

450 
On solving, R  I0 400 mA
4
1 L
Quality factor Q = 44.44
R C
0
Q=   2250 rad/s

400
Peak power = 45  W
1000
= 18
 Correct match is option (B)
17. A thin conducting rod MN of mass 20 gm, length 25 cm and resistance 10  is held on frictionless, long, perfectly
conducting vertical rails as shown in the figure. There is a uniform magnetic field B0 = 4 T directed perpendicular
to the plane of the rod-rail arrangement. The rod is released from rest at time t = 0 and it moves down along the
rails. Assume air drag is negligible. Match each quantity in List-I with an appropriate value from List-II, and
choose the correct option.
−2 −1
[Given: The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m s and e = 0.4]

List-I List-II
(P) At t = 0.2 s, the magnitude of the induced emf in Volt (1) 0.07
(Q) At t = 0.2 s, the magnitude of the magnetic force in Newton (2) 0.14
(R) At t = 0.2 s, the power dissipated as heat in Watt (3) 1.20
−1 (4) 0.12
(S) The magnitude of terminal velocity of the rod in m s
(5) 2.00
(A) P → 5, Q → 2, R → 3, S → 1 (B) P → 3, Q → 1, R → 4, S → 5
(C) P → 4, Q → 3, R → 1, S → 2 (D) P → 3, Q → 4, R → 2, S → 5

- 17 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Answer (D)

Sol. Induced emf  = Bv

 B V
 Induced current i = =
R R

 mg – iB = ma [Applying 2nd law]

B 2 2v dv
 mg − =m
R dt

v
 B 2 2v 
ln mg − 
dv dt  R  t
 =  0
=
B 2 2
v m −B 2 2 m
mg –
R R

B 2 2v
mg − −B2 2
 R = e mR t
mg

–5t
 v = 2[1 – e ]

 1
 At t = 0.2 s, v = 2 1 − 
 e

 1
  = B  2 1 −  = 1.2 volts
 e

and magnetic force = iB = 0.12 N

and power dissipated = 0.144 W

also, Terminal velocity = 2 m/s

 Correct match is (D)

- 18 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

PART-II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks : 12)

• This section contains THREE (03) questions.


• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which
are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

1. The correct statement(s) related to processes involved in the extraction of metals is(are)
(A) Roasting of Malachite produces Cuprite
(B) Calcination of Calamine produces Zincite
(C) Copper pyrites is heated with silica in a reverberatory furnace to remove iron
(D) Impure silver is treated with aqueous KCN in the presence of oxygen followed by reduction with zinc metal
Answer (B, C, D)

Sol. Cu(OH)2 ⋅ CuCO3 → CuO + H2O + CO2



ZnCO3  → ZnO + CO2
Calamine Zincite

CuFeS2 + O2 → Cu2S + FeS + SO2

FeS + O2 → FeO + SO2

FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3


Slag

4Ag + 8CN− + 2H2O + O2 → 4[Ag(CN)2 ]− + 4OH−

2[Ag(CN)2 ]− + Zn(s) → [Zn(CN)4 ]2− + 2Ag

- 19 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

2. In the following reactions, P, Q, R and S are the major products.

The correct statement(s) about P, Q, R and S is(are)


(A) Both P and Q have asymmetric carbon(s)
(B) Both Q and R have asymmetric carbon(s)
(C) Both P and R have asymmetric carbon(s)
(D) P has asymmetric carbon(s), S does not have any asymmetric carbon
Answer (C, D)

Sol.

- 20 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

3. Consider the following reaction scheme and choose the correct option(s) for the major products Q, R and S.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Answer (B)

Sol.

- 21 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 12)

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

4. In the scheme given below, X and Y, respectively, are

(A) CrO2–
4
and Br2

(B) MnO2–
4
and Cl2

(C) MnO4– and Cl2

(D) MnSO4 and HOCl

- 22 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Answer (C)

Sol. MnCl2 → Mn ( OH)2 + NaCl


aq NaOH

(P ) (Q )

Mn ( OH)2 
PbO
2
H2SO4
→ MnO4–
P ∆ ( X)

MnO( OH)2 KI
NaCl 
Conc. H2SO4
→ Cl2 
starch
→ blue
∆ (Y)

5. Plotting 1/Λm against cΛm for aqueous solutions of a monobasic weak acid (HX) resulted in a straight line with
y-axis intercept of P and slope of S. The ratio P/S is

[Λm = molar conductivity

°
Λm = limiting molar conductivity

c = molar concentration

Ka = dissociation constant of HX]

° °
(A) K a Λm (B) K a Λm /2

° °
(C) 2 Ka Λm (D) 1/(K a Λm )

Answer (A)

Λm
Sol. α=
Λm°

cα 2
κa =
1– α

( )
2
c Λm / Λ°m
Ka =
(
1 – Λm / Λ°m )
cΛm2
Ka =
(
Λ°m Λ°m – Λm )
K a Λ°m2 – K a Λ°m Λm = cΛm2

- 23 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

K a Λ°m2 °
– K a Λ m =cΛ m
Λm

K a Λm°2
= cΛ m + K a Λ m°
Λm

1  cΛ m  1
=  °2
+ °
Λm  K a Λm  Λm
1
P=
Λm°

1
S=
K a Λm° 2

 1 
P  Λm° 
=   = K a Λm°
S  1 
 K Λ° 2 
 a m 
6. On decreasing the pH from 7 to 2, the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt (MX) of a weak acid (HX) increased
from 10−4 mol L−1 to 10−3 mol L−1. The pKa of HX is

(A) 3 (B) 4

(C) 5 (D) 2

Answer (B)

Sol. MX  M⊕ + X

X + H⊕  HX

 H⊕ 
=S K1
sp  + 
 Ka 

 10−7 
10−4
= Ksp  1 +  ...(1)
 Ka 

 10−2 
10−3
= Ksp  1 +  ...(2)
 Ka 

- 24 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Squaring Equation [(1)/(2)] gives

 10−7 
1 + 
 Ka 
−2
10 = 
 10−2 
1 + 
 Ka 

10−4 10−7
10−2 + 1+
=
K
ka kKa

10−4 − 10−7
= 0.99
Ka

10−4
= 0.99
Ka

10−4 1
K=
a = × 10−2
0.99 99
pKa = 2 + log99  4
7. In the given reaction scheme, P is a phenyl alkyl ether, Q is an aromatic compound; R and S are the major
products.

The correct statement about S is


(A) It primarily inhibits noradrenaline degrading enzymes
(B) It inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandin
(C) It is a narcotic drug
(D) It is ortho-acetylbenzoic acid
Answer (B)

Sol.

S is ortho-acetoxybenzoic acid, it inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandin.

- 25 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks : 24)


• This section contains SIX (06) questions.

• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.

• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;

Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

8. The stoichiometric reaction of 516 g of dimethyldichlorosilane with water results in a tetrameric cyclic product X
in 75% yield. The weight (in g) of X obtained is___.

[Use, molar mass (g mol−1): H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Si = 28, Cl = 35.5]

Answer (222)

Sol. Dimethyldichlorosilane –

mol. mass – 129 g/mol

516
Number of moles of dimethyldichlorosilane initially taken = = 4 moles
129

Tetramerisation

Applying POAC on Si atom

4 75
Moles of tetrameric cyclic product formed = × = 0.75 moles
4 100

Molar mass of product formed = 296 g/moles

The mass of product formed = 296 × 0.75 = 222 g

- 26 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

9. A gas has a compressibility factor of 0.5 and a molar volume of 0.4 dm3 mol−1 at a temperature of 800 K and
pressure x atm. If it shows ideal gas behaviour at the same temperature and pressure, the molar volume will be
y dm3 mol−1. The value of x/y is ___.

[Use: Gas constant, R = 8 × 10−2 L atm K−1 mol−1]

Answer (100)

Vreal
Sol. Compressibility factor (Z) = = 0.5
Videal

Vreal = 0.4 dm3 mol–1 = 0.4 L/mol

0.4
∴ Videal = = 0.8 L/mol
0.5

∴ y = 0.8 L/mol

Using ideal gas equation : PV = nRT

1× 8 × 10 −2 × 800
P=
0.8

x = 80 atm

x 80
∴ = = 100
y 0.8

1
10. The plot of log kf versus for a reversible reaction A(g)  P(g) is shown.
T

- 27 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Pre-exponential factors for the forward and backward reactions are 1015 s–1 and 1011 s–1, respectively. If the
value of log K for the reaction at 500 K is 6, the value of |logkb| at 250 K is_______.
[K = equilibrium constant of the reaction, kf = rate constant of forward reaction, kb = rate constant of backward
reaction]
Answer (5)
Sol. From the question
Af = 1015, Ab = 1011, f = Forward reaction
log K at 500 K = 6 b = Backward reaction
log kf at 500 K = 9 (from graph)
log kb at 500 K :

k  k
logK = log  f  since ⇒ K = f
 kb  kb

6 = log kf – log kb
6 = 9 – log kb
log kb = 3 at 500 K

k − Ea  1 1
log 2 =  – 
k1 R  T2 T1 

–Eab
kb = Ab e RT

 –Eab 

lnkb = ln A b e RT 
 
 

E
lnkb = lnA b – ab
RT
Eab
2.303logkb = 2.303log A b –
500R

Ea
= 2.303(log A b – logk b )
500R

Ea
= 2.303(log1011 – 3)
500R

Ea
= 2.303(11–
= 3) 2.303 × 8
500R

- 28 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Ea = 2.303 × 8 × 500R

 k  –Ea  1 1
ln  2  =  – 
 k1  R  T2 T1 

k  –Ea  1 1 
ln  250 K = –
 k 500 K


 R  250 500 

k  − 2.303 × 8 × 500R  1 
ln  250 K =  500 
 k 500 K  R  
 

2.303(log k250 K – log k500 K) = –2.303 × 8


log k250 K – 3 = –8
log k250 K = –5
| log k250 K | = 5
11. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes two reversible processes (A → B and B → C) as shown in the
given figure:

A → B is an adiabatic process. If the total heat absorbed in the entire process (A → B and B → C) is RT2 ln 10,
the value of 2 logV3 is______.

5
[Use, molar heat capacity of the gas at constant pressure, Cp,m = R]
2
Answer (7)
Sol. qA → C = RT2ln10

qA → B = 0 ( adiabatic)

qA → C = qA → B + qB → C

- 29 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

qA → C = qB → C

V 
qA → C = nRT2 ln  3  …(1)
 V2 

For B → C
∆E = q + w
∆E = 0 (since isothermic)
q =–w

 V 
= –  –nRT2 ln 3 
 V2 

V 
= nRT2 ln  3 
 V2 

V 
q = nRT2 ln  3 
B →C  V2 

V 
qB →C = RT2 ln  3  [Since n = 1]
 V2 

From A → B

T1V1γ –1 = T2 V2γ –1

600V1γ –1 = 60V2γ –1
5
–1
10 × 10 3 V2γ –1
=
5
–1
105/3 = V23

105/3 = V22/3
5 3 5
×
V2 10
= = 3 2
10 2
5
V2 = 10 2 ….(2)

From equation (1)

V 
qA→C = nRT2 ln  3 
 V2 

Given, qA → C = RT2 ln10

- 30 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

V 
RT2 ln10 = RT2 ln  3 
 V2 
V 
ln10 = ln  3 
 V2 
 V 
ln10 = ln  35 
 2 
 10 
V3
10 = 5
10 2
5 7
1+
V3 10
= = 2
10 2
2logV3 = 2log107/2
=7
12. In a one-litre flask, 6 moles of A undergoes the reaction A(g)  P(g) . The progress of product formation at two
temperatures (in Kelvin), T1 and T2, is shown in the figure:

If T1 = 2T2 and ( ∆G


2 – ∆G1 ) = RT2 ln x, then the value of x is______.

[ ∆G1 and ∆G


2 are standard Gibb’s free energy change for the reaction at temperatures T1 and T2, respectively.]

Answer (8)
Sol. 

A(g) 
 P(g)
Initially 6 0
At equilibrium 6–a a
at T1 a=4 at T2 a=2
4 2 1
( )
∴ K eq =
1
= 2
2
( )
∴ K eq =
2
=
4 2

- 31 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

∆G1 =
–RT1 ln(K eq )1

∆G1 =
–2RT2 ln(K eq )1 [Given: T1 = 2T2]

∆G –RT2 ln(K eq )2


2 =

(K eq1 )2
∴ ∆G
2 – ∆G1 =

RT2 ln
(K eq2 )

22
= RT2 ln = RT2 ln8
1
2

∴ ∆G = RTln x has x = 8

13. The total number of sp2 hybridised carbon atoms in the major product P (a non-heterocyclic compound) of the
following reaction is _______.

Answer (28)

Sol.

All marked C–atoms are sp2 hybridised.

- 32 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
14. Match the reactions (in the given stoichiometry of the reactants) in List-I with one of their products given in List-
II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) P2O3 + 3H2O → (1) P(O)(OCH3)Cl2
(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → (2) H3PO3
(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → (3) PH3
(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → (4) POCl3
(5) H3PO4
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 5
(B) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 2
(C) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
(D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 5
Answer (D)
Sol. P2O3 + H2O → H3PO3
P4 + NaOH + H2O → PH3 + NaH2PO2

H3PO2 + H2O + AgNO3 → H3PO4 + HNO3 + Ag↓


Hence :-
P→2
Q→3
R→4
S→5

- 33 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

15. Match the electronic configurations in List-I with appropriate metal complex ions in List-II and choose the correct
option.

[Atomic Number: Fe = 26, Mn = 25, Co = 27]

List-I List-II

(P) t 62g e0g (1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+

(Q) t 32g eg2 (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+

(R) e2 t 32 (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+

(S) 4
t 2g eg2 (4) [FeCl4]–

(5) [CoCl4]2–

(A) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3

(B) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 5

(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 1

(D) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1

Answer (D)

Sol. (1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ → 3d6

H2O → weak ligand

(2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ → 3d5

H2O → weak ligand

- 34 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ → 3d6


NH3 → strong ligand

(4) [FeCl4]– → Fe+3 → 3d5


Cl– → weak ligand

(5) [CoCl4]2– → Co+2 → 3d7


Cl– → weak ligand

∴ P → 3, Q → 2, R → 4, S → 1
16. Match the reactions in List-I with the features of their products in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) aq. NaOH


(-)-1-Bromo-2-ethylpentane  → (1) Inversion of configuration
SN 2 reaction
(single enantiomer)

(Q) aq. NaOH


(-)-2-Bromopentane  → (2) Retention of configuration
SN 2 reaction
(single enantiomer)

(R) aq. NaOH


(-)-3-Bromo-3-methylhexane  → (3) Mixture of enantiomers
SN 1reaction
(single enantiomer)

(S) aq. NaOH


(4) Mixture of structural isomers

SN 1reaction

(5) Mixture of diastereomers

(A) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 3 (B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 5

(C) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 4 (D) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 5

- 35 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Answer (B)

Sol. (P) Configuration at chiral carbon is same.

P → 2 [reaction does not occur at chiral carbon]

(Q) Configuration at chiral carbon changes.

Q→1

(R) SN1 → Mixture of enantiomers formed.

R→3

(S)

∴ So mixture of diastereomers are formed.

S→5

17. The major products obtained from the reactions in List-II are the reactants for the named reactions mentioned in
List-I. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) Etard reaction (1) Zn −Hg, HCl


Acetophenone  →

(Q) Gattermann reaction (2) (i) KMnO4 , KOH, ∆


Toluene →
(ii) SOCl2

(R) Gattermann-Koch reaction (3) CH3 Cl


Benzene  →
anhyd. AlCl3

(S) Rosenmund reduction (4) NaNO2 /HCl


Aniline  →
273-278 K

(5) Zn, ∆
Phenol  →

(A) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 3

(B) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 2

(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4

(D) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 2

- 36 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Answer (D)

Sol. (P) → (3)

(Q) → (4)

(R) → (5)

(S) → (2)

- 37 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

PART-III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks : 12)
• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which
are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

1. Let S = (0, 1) ∪ (1, 2) ∪ (3, 4) and T = {0, 1, 2, 3} . Then which of the following statements is(are) true?

(A) There are infinitely many functions from S to T


(B) There are infinitely many strictly increasing functions from S to T
(C) The number of continuous functions from S to T is at most 120
(D) Every continuous function from S to T is differentiable
Answer (A, C, D)
Sol. S = (0, 1) ∪ (1, 2) ∪ (3, 4) and T = {0, 1, 2, 3}.
Let domain and co-domain of a function y = f(x) are S and T respectively.
(A) There are infinitely many elements in domain and four elements in co-domain.
⇒ There are infinitely many functions from S to T.
⇒ Option (A) is correct
(B) If number of elements in domain is greater than number of elements in co-domain, then number of strictly
increasing function is zero.
⇒ Option (B) is incorrect
(C) Maximum number of continuous functions = 4 × 4 × 4 = 64
(Every subset (0, 1), (1, 2), (3, 4) has four choices)
 64 < 120 ⇒ option (C) is correct.
(D) For every point at which f(x) is continuous, f′(x) = 0
⇒ Every continuous function from S to T is differentiable.

- 38 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Option (D) is correct.


x2 y 2
2. Let T1 and T2 be two distinct common tangents to the ellipse E : + = 1 and the parabola P : y 2 = 12 x .
6 3
Suppose that the tangent T1 touches P and E at the points A1 and A2, respectively and the tangent T2 touches
P and E at the points A4 and A3, respectively. Then which of the following statements is(are) true?
(A) The area of the quadrilateral A1A2A3A4 is 35 square units
(B) The area of the quadrilateral A1A2A3A4 is 36 square units
(C) The tangents T1 and T2 meet the x-axis at the point (–3, 0)
(D) The tangents T1 and T2 meet the x-axis at the point (–6, 0)
Answer (A, C)
x2 y 2
Sol. E : + 1 , Tangent : y =
= m1x ± 6m12 + 3
6 3
3
P : y2 = 12x, Tangent:=y m2 x +
m2
For common tangent
3
m = m1 = m2, ± 6m12 + 3 =
m2
±1
⇒ m=
 a 2a 
⇒ equation of common tangents y = x + 3 and y = –x – 3 point of contact for parabola is  2 , 
m m 
⇒ A1 ≡ (3, 6), A4 (3 − 6)
xx1 yy1
Let A2 ( x1, y1 ) ⇒ tangent to E is + 1
=
6 3
A3 is mirror image of A2 in x-axis ⇒ A3(–2, –1)

Intersection point of T1 = 0 and T2 = 0 is (–3, 0)


1
Area of quadrilateral A1A2 A3 A=
4 5 35 square units
(12 + 2) ×=
2

- 39 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

x3 5 17
3. Let f: [0, 1] → [0, 1] be the function defined by f ( x ) = − x2 + x + . Consider the square region
3 9 36
S = [0, 1] × [0, 1]. Let G = {( x, y ) ∈ S : y > f ( x )} be called the green region and R = {( x, y ) ∈ S : y < f ( x )} be
called the red region. Let Lh = {( x, h ) ∈ S : x ∈ [0, 1]} be the horizontal line drawn at a height h ∈ [0, 1] . Then which
of the following statements is(are) true?

1 2
(A) There exists an h ∈  , such that the area of the green region above the line Lh equals the area of the
4 3 
green region below the line Lh
1 2
(B) There exists an h ∈  , such that the area of the red region above the line Lh equals the area of the red
4 3 
region below the line Lh
1 2
(C) There exists an h ∈  , such that the area of the green region above the line Lh equals the area of the
4 3 
red region below the line Lh
 1 2
(D) There exists an h ∈  ,  such that the area of the red region above the line Lh equals the area of the green
4 3
region below the line Lh
Answer (B, C, D)
Sol.

x3 5 17 5
f (x) = − x2 + x + , f ′( x ) = x 2 − 2 x +
3 9 36 9

1
For maxima/minima, f ′( x ) = 0 ⇒ x =
3

1 1 1
AR =∫ f ( x ) dx = ⇒ AG =
0 2 2

- 40 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

1 3 3 2
(A) 1 − h = h − ⇒ h = , > option (A) is incorrect
2 4 4 3

1 1
(B) h = − h ⇒ h = ⇒ option (B) is correct.
2 4

1 1 11 1 1 1
(C) ∫0 f ( x ) dx =
2 ∫0 2
, dx = ⇒ ∫  f ( x ) −  dx =
2 0 2
0

1
⇒ h= ⇒ option (C) is correct.
2

(D)  Option (C) is correct ⇒ option (D) is also correct.

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 12)

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.


• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

 1 1
4. Let f : (0, 1) →  be the function defined as f ( x ) = n if x ∈  ,  where n ∈  . Let g : (0, 1) →  be a
 n + 1 n 
x
1− t
function such that ∫ t
dt <g ( x ) < 2 x for all x ∈ (0, 1). Then lim f ( x )g ( x )
x →0
x2

(A) Does NOT exist (B) Is equal to 1


(C) Is equal to 2 (D) Is equal to 3
Answer (C)

Sol. We need to solve 1 sided limit here to get some answer, otherwise lim doesn’t exist here (not in domain)
x →0−

 1
f (x)
=  x  −1 where (⋅) = least integer function
 

x
1− t  1  1
lim
x →0 + ∫ t
dt ⋅   − 1 ≤ lim f ( x ) ⋅ g ( x ) ≤ lim   − 1 × 2 x
x x →0 +
x →0 +
x
x2

- 41 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

 1  1 1 
Now lim
=  x  − 1× 2 x lim 2 x    x ∉Z
x →0+  x →0+ x  

 1  1
= lim 2 x  − =  2
x →0 +
 x  x 

 1 1 
= lim 2 x   2 ;  ∉ Z 
=
x →0+ x
   x 

x
1− t 1
x
1− t 1  1  x2
∫ t
dt ⋅ 1 − x  
x 
lim
x →0 + ∫ t
dt ⋅ −  =
x x  x
x2

x
1− t 1− x 1− x2
∫ t
dt − 2x
lim x2
= lim
x x2
x →0+ x x →0+ 1
2 x

lim 2 1 − x − 4 x ⋅ 1 − x 2 =2
x →0+

1
Similarly for ∈ Z is equal to 2.
x

5. { }
Let Q be the cube with the set of vertices ( x1, x2 , x3 ) ∈  3 : x1, x2 , x3 ∈ {0,1} . Let F be the set of all twelve lines

containing the diagonals of the six faces of the cube Q. Let S be the set of all four lines containing the main
diagonals of the cube Q; for instance, the line passing through the vertices (0, 0, 0) and (1, 1, 1) is in S. For lines
1 and 2, let d(1, 2) denote the shortest distance between them. Then the maximum value of d(1, 2), as 1

varies over F and 2 varies over S, is

1 1
(A) (B)
6 8

1 1
(C) (D)
3 12

- 42 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Answer (A)

Sol.

Equation of OD line is
 
(
r = 0 + λ iˆ + ˆj )
Equation of diagonal BE is

(
r1 = jˆ + α iˆ − jˆ + kˆ )

=S.D =
(
ˆj ⋅ iˆ − ˆj − 2kˆ ) 1
6 6

In other case S.D is zero.

 x2 y 2 
6. X ( x, y ) ∈  ×  :
Let= + < 1 and y 2 < 5 x  . Three distinct point P, Q and R are randomly chosen from X.
 8 20 
Then the probability that P, Q and R form a triangle whose area is a positive integer, is

71
(A)
220

73
(B)
220

79
(C)
220

83
(D)
220

Answer (B)

- 43 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol. The given region are as

The points inside region are {(2, 1), (2, –1), (2, 2), (2, –2), (2, 3), (2, –3), (2, 0), (1, 1), (1, –1), (1, 2), (1, –2),
(1, 0)}.
Total number of ways to select three points = 12C3 = 220
Required number of triangle = 4 × 7C1 + 9 × 5C1 = 73
Points are taken such a way that distance between two points are multiple of 2.
7. Let P be a point on the parabola y2 = 4ax, where a > 0. The normal to the parabola at P meets the x-axis at a
point Q. The area of the triangle PFQ, where F is the focus of the parabola, is 120. If the slope m of the normal
and a are both positive integers, then the pair (a, m) is
(A) (2, 3) (B) (1, 3)
(C) (2, 4) (D) (3, 4)
Answer (A)

Sol.

Equation of normal at P(am2, –2am) is y = mx – 2am – am3


1
⇒ Area of ∆PFQ = (a + am 2 ) × 2am =120
2
a2m(1 + m2) = 120
Pair (a, m) ≡ (2, 3) satisfies above equation

- 44 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks : 24)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions.

• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.

• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

 π π
8. Let tan−1( x ) ∈  − ,  , for x∈. Then the number of real solutions of the equation
 2 2
 3π π   π π   π 3π 
2 tan−1(tan x ) in the set  − , −  ∪  − ,  ∪  ,
1 + cos(2 x ) =  is equal to
 2 2  2 2 2 2 

Answer (3)

Sol. 2 tan−1(tan x )
1 + cos 2 x =

⇒ |cosx| = tan–1(tanx)

Number of solutions = Number of intersection points = 3

- 45 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

9. Let n ≥ 2 be a natural number and f : [0,1] →  be the function defined by


 1
 n(1– 2nx ) if 0 ≤ x ≤ 2n

 2n(2nx – 1) if 1 ≤ x ≤ 3
 2n 4n
f (x) = 
 4n(1– nx ) if 3 1
≤x≤
 4n n
 n 1
 (nx – 1) if ≤ x ≤ 1
n – 1 n
If n is such that the area of the region bounded by the curves x = 0, x = 1, y = 0 and y = f(x) is 4, then the
maximum value of the function f is
Answer (8)
 1
 n(1– 2nx ) , 0 ≤ x < 2n

2n(2nx – 1) , 1 ≤ x < 3
 2n 4n
Sol. f ( x ) = 
 4n(1– nx ) , 3 1
≤x≤
 4n n
 n 1
 (nx – 1), ≤ x ≤ 1
n – 1 n
x ∈ [0, 1]
 1
f(x) is decreasing in 0, 
 2n 
 1 3 
increasing in  , 
 2n 4n 
 3 1
decreasing in  , 
 4n n 
1 
increasing in  ,1
n 
Graph

f(x)∈ [0, n]
Area = 4 ⇒ n = 8 = and f(x)max = n = 8

- 46 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

 r
10. Let 7 5 …5 7 denote the (r + 2) digit number where the first and the last digits are 7 and the remaining r digits
 99
 98
7 5 …5 7 + m
are 5. Consider the sum S = 77 + 757 + 7557 + …+ 7 5 …5 7 .If S = , where m and n are natural
n
numbers less than 3000, then the value of m + n is
Answer (1219)

 98
Sol. S
= 77 + 757 + 7557 + … + 7 5 …5 7

98

= 7(10 + 102 + … + 1099 ) + 50(1 + 11 + … + 111…1) + 7 × 99

 1099 – 1  50
= 70  + (10 – 1) + (102 – 1) + … + (1098 – 1) + 7 × 99
 9  9

 1099 – 1  50   1098 – 1  
= 70  + 10   – 98  + 7 × 99
 9  9   9  

7 × 10100 70 50 1099 – 1– 9 
= – +  – 98  + 7 × 99
9 9 9  9 

99
7 × 10100 70 50   
= – + 111…1– 99  + 7 × 99
9 9 9

 99 

7 × 10100 – 70 + 555 …5 0
– 550 + 693
9

 99 

7 555 …5 – 70 + 143 × 9
=
9
99

7 55 …5 7 + 1210
=
9

m + n = 1219
1967 + 1686i sin θ 
11. Let A 
= : θ ∈ R  . If A contains exactly one positive integer n, then the value of n is
 7 − 3i cos θ 
Answer (281)
1967 + 1686i sin θ
Sol. z = is a positive integer.
7 − 3i cos θ

- 47 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

(1967 + 1686i sin θ )( 7 + 3i cos θ )


z=
( 7 − 3i cos θ )( 7 + 3i cos θ )
1967 = 281 × 7; 1686 = 281 × 6

1967 × 7 − 1686 × 3 sin θ cos θ + i (1686 × 7 sin θ + 1967 × 3cos θ)


z=
49 + 9cos2 θ
(281 × 6) × 7sinθ + (281 × 7) × 3cosθ = 0
1
tan θ = −
2
4 2
⇒ cos2 θ = ; sin θ cos θ = −
5 5

 2  36 
(281× 7 × 7) − (281× 6) × 3 ×  −  281 49 +
 5  =  5 
=z = 281
4  36 
49 + 9 ×  49 +
5  5 

12. Let P be the plane 16 and let


3 x + 2y + 3z =

7
S= {αiˆ + βjˆ + γkˆ : α 2
+ β2 + γ 2 = 1 and the distance of (α, β, γ) from the plane P is .
2
        
Let u, v and w be three distinct vectors in S such that u − v = v − w = w − u . Let V be the volume of the
   80
parallelepiped determined by vectors u , v and w . Then the value of V is
3
Answer (45)

Sol. P : 3 x + 2y + 3z =
16

S = αiˆ + βjˆ + γkˆ : α 2 + β2 + γ 2 = 1

7
d(α, β, γ) from P =
2
     
u −v = v −w = w −u -
  
V : volume of parallelepiped by vectors u, v , w

80
V =?
3

- 48 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

7
d(α, β, γ) from β = (Given)
2
3α + 2β + 3 γ − 16 7
⇒ =
3+4+9 2

3α + 2β + 3 γ − 16 7
=
4 2
3α + 2β + 3 γ − 16 =14 …(i)

α2 + β2 + γ2 = 1 …(ii)
  
Volume of parallelepiped by vector u, v , w
  
V = [u v w ]

=u ⋅ (v × w ) …(iii)
  
u= v= w= 1 (Given) …(iv)
     
u − v = v − w = w − u -(Given)
 2  2  2
⇒ u − v =v − w =w − u
   
⇒ u 2 + v 2 − 2u ⋅ v = v 2 + w 2 − 2v ⋅ w
(A) (B)
2  
2
= w + u − 2w ⋅ u
(C)
(A) and (B)
   
⇒ u 2 + v 2 − 2u ⋅ v = v 2 + w 2 − 2v ⋅ w
     
⇒ u 2 − w 2 = 2u ⋅ v − 2v ⋅ w [ = = 1 (Given)]
u w
   
⇒ u ⋅v = v ⋅w
Hence, by using (B) and (C) also, we will get
     
u ⋅ v = v ⋅ w = w ⋅ u = m (say) …(v)
  
⇒ u, v , w are the vectors of an equilateral triangle (say ∆ABC)

- 49 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

16
d (O, P ) =
3+4+9

16
=
4
= 4 units
     
=
OA u= , OB v=, OC w
  
= OB
OA = OC = 1 (Given)

In an equilateral triangle, circumcentre, orthrocentre and centroid coincide.


Let D be the circumcentre of ∆ABC, then

∠ADB = 120°

DA2 + DB 2 − AB 2
Given = …(vi)
2(DA) ⋅ (DB )

OE = OD + DE
= OD + AF

7
4 OD +
⇒ =
2

7 1
⇒ OD = 4 − =
2 2

⇒=
DA OA2 − OD 2

1
= 1−
4

3
DA =
2

3
⇒ = DB
DA = …(vii)
2
From (vi) and (vii),

3 3
+ − AB 2
1 4 4
− =
2 3 3
2 ×
2 2

- 50 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

3
− AB 2
1 2
− =
2 3
2

1 3 3
⇒ − × = − AB 2
2 2 2

3 3
⇒ AB 2= +
2 4

9
⇒ AB 2 =
4

3  
⇒ AB − = u −v
2

9  
⇒ AB 2 = =u 2 + v 2 − 2u − v
4

9
⇒ = 1 + 1 − 2m
4

9 1
⇒ 2m =2− =−
4 4

1
⇒ m= − …(viii)
8

Volume of parallelepiped,
  
V = [u v w ]
   
1 u ⋅v u ⋅w
  2    
uvw =
u ⋅v 1 v ⋅w
   
w ⋅u w ⋅v 1

1 m m
= m 1 m
m m 1

= 1(1 – m2) – m(m – m2) + m(m2 – m)


= 1 – m2 – m2 + m3 + m3 – m2
= 1 – 3m2 + 2m3
  2
u v w = 2m3 − 3m 2 + 1

= (m – 1) [2m2 – m – 1]

- 51 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

= (m – 1) [2m2 – 2m + m – 1]
= (m – 1) (m – 1) (2m + 1)

= (m – 1)2 (2m + 1)
  
⇒ [u v w ] = (m − 1) (2m + 1) = v

 1  1
 − 8 − 1 2 × − 8 + 1
 

9 3
V= ×
8 2

80 80 9 3
v= × ×
3 3 8 2

= 45
4
 70 
13. Let a and b be two nonzero real numbers. If the coefficient of x5 in the expansion of  ax 2 + is equal to
 27 bx 
7
 1 
the coefficient of x–5 in the expansion of  ax − 2  , then the value of 2b is
 bx 

Answer (3)
r
 70 
Sol. Tr +1 = 4Cr (ax 2 )4 −r  
 27bx 

For coefficient of x5, 8 – 2r – r = 5 ⇒ r = 1

 70 
⇒ Coefficient of x5 = 4C1a3  
 27b 
r
7  1 
=tr +1 Cr (ax )7 −r  − 2 
 bx 

For coefficient of x–5, 7 – r – 2r = –5 ⇒ r = 4

1
⇒ coefficient of x −5 = 7C4 a3
b4

 70  1
⇒ 4C1a3  = 
7
C4 a 3 ⇒
= 2b 3
 27b  b4

- 52 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks : 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
14. Let α, β and γ be real numbers. Consider the following system of linear equations
x + 2y + z = 7
x + αz = 11
2x – 3y + βz = γ
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.

List-I List-II

1 (1) a unique solution


(P) If=
β ( 7α − 3 ) and γ = 28, then the system has
2

1 (2) no solution
(Q) If=
β ( 7α − 3 ) and γ ≠ 28, then the system has
2

1 (3) infinitely many solutions


(R) If β ≠ ( 7α − 3 ) where α = 1 and γ ≠ 28, then the
2
system has

1 (4) x = 11, y = –2 and z = 0 as a solution


(S) If β ≠ ( 7α − 3 ) where α = 1 and γ = 28, then the
2
system has

(5) x = –15, y = 4 and z = 0 as a solution

The correct option is:


(A) (P) →(3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (1), (S) → (4)
(B) (P) →(3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (5), (S) → (4)
(C) (P) →(2), (Q) → (1), (R) → (4), (S) → (5)

(D) (P) →(2), (Q) → (1), (R) → (1), (S) → (3)

Answer (A)

- 53 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol. x +2y + z = 7
x + αz = 11
2x – 3y + βz = γ
1 2 1
=∆ 1 =
0 α 0
2 −3 β
3α – 2(β – 2α) – 3 = 0
7α – 2β = 3
1
⇒=
β ( 7α − 3 )
2
7 21 7 1
1 1 2 7
=∆1 11 0 α =, ∆ 2 1 11 α , ∆3 =1 0 11
γ −3 β 2 γ β 2 −3 γ
∆3 = 0
⇒ 33 – 2 (γ – 22) + 7 (–3) = 0
γ = 28
∆1 = 21α – 2(11β – αγ) – 33
= 21α – 22β + 2αγ – 33
∆2 = 11β – αγ – 7(β – 2α) + γ – 22
= 14α + 4β + γ – αγ – 22
1
(P) If=
β ( 7α − 3 ) and γ = 28
2
∆ = 0, ∆1 = 0, ∆2 = 0, ∆3 = 0
Infinitely many solutions
x = 11, y = – 2 and z = 0 will satisfy all the three given equations, so it is a solution.
1
(Q) If=
β ( 7α − 3 ) and γ ≠ 28 then
2
∆ = 0, but ∆3 ≠ 0 so no solution
1
(R) If β ≠ ( 7α − 3 ) , α = 1 and γ ≠ 28
2
∆ ≠ 0, ∆3 ≠ 0 so a unique solution
1
(S) If β ≠ ( 7α − 3 ) , α = 1, γ = 28
2
∆ ≠ 0, ∆3 = 0, ∆1 ≠ 0, ∆2 ≠ 0, so a unique solution
x = 11, y = – 2 and z = 0 will satisfy all the three equations
Option A is correct.

- 54 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

15. Consider the given data with frequency distribution


xi 3 8 11 10 5 4
fi 5 2 3 2 4 4
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) The mean of the above data is (1) 2.5
(Q) The median of the above data is (2) 5
(R) The mean deviation about the (3) 6
mean of the above data is
(S) The mean deviation about the (4) 2.7
median of the above data is
(5) 2.4
The correct option is
(A) (P) → (3) (Q) → (2) (R) → (4) (S) → (5)
(B) (P) → (3) (Q) → (2) (R) → (1) (S) → (5)
(C) (P) → (2) (Q) → (3) (R) → (4) (S) → (1)
(D) (P) → (3) (Q) → (3) (R) → (5) (S) → (5)
Answer (A)
Sol.
x … 3 4 5 8 10 11 (ascending order)
f … 5 4 4 2 2 3
3 × 5 + 8 × 2 + 11× 3 + 10 × 2 + 5 × 4 + 4 × 4
Mean =
5+2+3+2+4+4
15 + 16 + 33 + 20 + 20 + 16 120
= = = 6
20 20
1
Median
= (10th + 11th observation)
2
1
= (5 + 5)= 5
2
Mean deviation about mean
3 × 5 + 2 × 4 + 1× 4 + 2 × 2 + 4 × 2 + 5 × 3
=
20
54
= = 2.7
20
Mean deviation about median

- 55 -
JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

2 × 5 + 1× 4 + 0 + 3 × 2 + 5 × 2 + 6 × 3
=
20

4.8
= = 2.4
20

P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 5

∴ Option A is correct.
 
( )
16. Let 1 and  2 be the lines r1 =λ iˆ + jˆ + kˆ and r2= ( ˆj − kˆ ) + µ ( iˆ + kˆ ) , respectively, Let X be the set of all the
planes H that contain the line 1. For a plane H, let d(H) denote the smallest possible distance between the points

of 2 and H. Let H0 be a plane in X for which d(H0) is the maximum value of d(H) as H varies over all planes in

X.

Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.

List-I List-II

(P) The value of d(H0) is (1) 3

(Q) The distance of the point (0, 1, 2) from H0 is 1


(2)
3

(R) The distance of origin from H0 is (3) 0

(S) The distance of origin from the point of (4) 2


intersection of planes y = z, x = 1 and H0 is

1
(5)
2

The correct option is


(A) (P) → (2) (Q) → (4) (R) → (5) (S) → (1)

(B) (P) → (5) (Q) → (4) (R) → (3) (S) → (1)


(C) (P) → (2) (Q) → (1) (R) → (3) (S) → (2)
(D) (P) → (5) (Q) → (1) (R) → (4) (S) → (2)
Answer (B)

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JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

Sol. H0 will be the plane containing the line 1 and parallel to  2.

iˆ jˆ kˆ
1 1 1= jˆ (1) − jˆ (1 − 1) + kˆ ( −1)
∴ Normal vector of plane parallel 1 and 2 is
1 0 1

= iˆ − kˆ

∴ H0 : x – z = c |(0, 0, 0)

⇒C=0

∴ H0 : x – z = 0
(P) d(H0) = 1 distance of point (0, 1, –1) from H.

0 − ( −1) 1
d= = ∴P → 5
2 2

0−2
(Q) d = = 2 ∴Q → 4
2

0
(R) d = =0 ∴ R → 3
2

(S) Point of intersection will be (1, 1, 1) ∴ S → 1

d= 1 + 1 + 1= 3

∴ Option (B) is correct.


3
17. Let z be a complex number satisfying z + 2z 2 + 4z − 8 =0 , where z denotes the complex conjugate of z. Let
the imaginary part of z be nonzero.
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.

List-I List-II

(P) z
2
is equal to (1) 12

(Q) z−z
2
is equal to (2) 4

(R)
2
z + z+z
2
is equal to (3) 8

(S)
2
z + 1 is equal to (4) 10

(5) 7

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JEE (Advanced)-2023 (Paper-1)

The correct option is


(A) (P) → (1) (Q) → (3) (R) → (5) (S) → (4) (B) (P) → (2) (Q) → (1) (R) → (3) (S) → (5)
(C) (P) → (2) (Q) → (4) (R) → (5) (S) → (1) (D) (P) → (2) (Q) → (3) (R) → (5) (S) → (4)
Answer (B)
3
z + 2z 2 + 4 z − 8 =0
3
Sol. z + 2z 2 + 4z − 8 =0

(
2 z2 − z 2 + 4 ( z − z ) =
0)
( z − z ) 2 ( z + z ) − 4  =
0

 z = z ( not possible ) or 4 x = 4 ⇒ x = 1.

z = 1 + λi ⇒ z = 1 + λ 2 ⇒ z = 1 − λi

(1 + λ ) ( )
3
2
+ 2 1 − λ 2 + 2λi + 4 (1 − λi ) − 8 = 0
2

( ) ( )
3
⇒ 1 + λ2 + 2 1 − λ2 = 4
2

(1 + λ ) = 2 (1 + λ )
3
2 2 2

(1 + λ ) 
2
1 + λ 2 − 2 = 0


⇒ λ2 = 3
Now
2
(P) z = 1 + λ 2 = 1 + 3 = 4

2 2 2
(Q) z − z = 1 + λi − (1 − λi ) = 2λi = 4λ 2 = 12

2 2 2
(R) z + z + z = 4 + (1 + λi ) + (1 − λi ) = 4 + 4= 8

2 2
(S) z + 1 = 1 + λi + 1 = 4 + λ 2 = 4 + 3= 7

∴ P → (2), Q → (1), R → (3), S → (5)


  

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