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Page 1
62. RADIO NAVIGATION
N
O
TI
20 IA
04 AV
41 E
89 ON
80 E
W
62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 1 of 64
CAPT. PARESHNATH
WE ONE AVIATION ACADEMY
www.weoneaviation.com
Page 2
62.01. RADIO AIDS

62.01.01. Ground D/F
1 What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130
id 1420 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
a 180 NM
b 220 NM
c 120 NM
d 150 NM
2 The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings
id 1421 from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:
a 107 NM
b 158 NM
c 134 NM
N
d 114 NM
O
3 What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order
id 3251 to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above
TI
MSL?
a FL100
20 IA
b FL50
c FL80
04 AV
d FL60
4 What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-
id 4735 down may be flown?
41 E
a none
89 ON
b VOR
c VHF radio
d VOR/DME
5 Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
80 E
id 4736
W
a It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC

b It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
c It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
d It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft or on
the ground
6 In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely
id 4737 to be used to fix an aircraft's position?
a On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary
b When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz
c When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR
d When declaring an emergency on any frequency
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 3
7 VDF for aeronautical use provides service in the frequency band

id 7124
a 108 - 136 MHz
b 118 - 137 MHz
c 130 300 MHz
d 108 - 118 MHz
8 In the VDF system directional antennas are used

id 7125
a In the aircraft
b In the aircraft and at the ground installation
c At the ground installation
d No directional antennas are used
9 The indicator of the ground VDF equipment responds to
id 7126
N
a The carrier wave received
b The identification transmitted from the aircraft
O
c The voice modulated signal transmitted by the aircraft
TI
d The signal being reflected from the aircraft
10 In VDF service the report "QDR 235, Class C" means
id 7127
20 IA
a The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the station is 235° +/- 10°
04 AV
b The true bearing from the aircraft to the station is 235 +/- 10°
c The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 +/- 15°
d The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 +/-10°
41 E
11 If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH, it
id 7128 means
89 ON
a The VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield, based
on VDF bearings
b The VDF service will be handled by a different VDF unit, operating on the same frequency
80 E
c The bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the QGH level
d The service will be limited to bearings, no positions will be given by the DF station
W
12 Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels, caused by

id 7129
a Efficient VDF antennas
b Super refraction of signals in the atmosphere
c The VDF station using a relay station for communication to the aircraft
d Intermodulation with signals on frequencies close to the one used by the VDF station
62.01.02. ADF
13 An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs
id 1060 to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:
a NDB: aircraft position VOR: aircraft position
b NDB: beacon position VOR: beacon position
c NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position
d NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 4
14 A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the
id 1422 transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
a Eight
b Six
c Four
d Two
15 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors
id 1423 from NDB transmissions, is due to:
a skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
b interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
c static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
d the effect of the Aurora Borealis
16 Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
id 1424 equipment are caused by:
N
a misalignment of the loop aerial
b signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
O
c signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
TI
d skywave/groundwave contamination
17 Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are
id 1425
20 IA
maximum when the NDB is:
a near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
04 AV
b inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

c inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
d near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
41 E
18 An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of

id 2199 zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing :
89 ON
a right drift
b left drift
c zero drift
80 E
d a wind from the west

W
19 Given : Compass heading 270° Deviation 2°W Variation 30°E Relative bearing
id 2200 316° What is the QDR?
a 224°
b 226°
c 046°
d 044°
20 What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?
id 2369
a 8m
b 8000 m
c 800 m
d 80 m
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 5
21 Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
id 2371
a Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
b Frequency drift at the ground station
c Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
d Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
22 ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should
id 2378 be accurate to within a maximum error of:
a +/-10°
b +/-5°
c +/-2.5°
d +/-2°
23 There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.
id 3055 Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both
propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is
N
over water will be:
O
a the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360°
b greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
TI
c greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
20 IA
d the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270°
24 Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
id 3163
04 AV
a 255 - 455 kHz

b 200 - 1750 kHz
c 300 - 3000 kHz
41 E
d 200 - 2000 kHz

89 ON
25 In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

id 3165
a signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
b sense aerial must be tuned separately
80 E
c mode selector should be switched to 'loop'

W
d BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'
26 Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
id 3173
a height error - station interference - mountain effect
b static interference - station interference - latitude error
c static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
d coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
27 Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
id 3254 inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
a Coastal effect
b Local thunderstorm activity
c Quadrantal error
d Precipitation interference
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 6
28 The ADF reception loop is always used so that the electromotive force (EMF)
id 5598
a induced is zero
b induced is maximum
c is zero
d is maximum
29 The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

id 5788
a find the loop 'null' position

b stop loop rotation
c hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
d hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal
30 An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is :
id 5789
N
a a beam rotating at 30 Hz
b bi-lobal circular
O
c a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
TI
d omnidirectional
31 Consider the following statements on the NDB transmitter:
id 7130
20 IA
a It is operating in the MF/HF band
04 AV
b To overcome the limitations caused by "line of sight" propagation, high-power transmitters must be
used
c In Europe, most NDBs operate in the frequency band 455 - 1750 kHz
d It is very simple, being required to transmit only a carrier wave and an identification
41 E
32 A loop aerial, as used in the ADF, will

89 ON
id 7131
a Always rotate at constant speed before locking on to a signal from an NDB
b Will provide the most accurate bearing when it is aligned in the direction resulting in highest signal
strength to the ADF receiver
80 E
c Receive a minimum or null signal from a transmitter when the plane of the loop is at right
W
angles to the direction of the transmitter

d Receive a minimum or null signal from a transmitter when the plane of the loop is parallel to the
direction of the transmitter
33 The basic information given by the ADF is
id 7132
a The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB
b The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB
c The true great circle track from the NDB to the aircraft
d The magnetic direction of the loop aerial with reference to the sense aerial
34 The combination of the polar diagrams of the loop and the sense aerial results in
id 7133
a A cardoid polar diagram, having only one null or minimum

b A figure-of-eight diagram in the vertical plane
c A pencil-beam polar diagram
d A polar diagram with many side-lobes
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 7
35 Some ADFs have a bandwidth control. Consider the following statements:

id 7134
a Broad or wide bandwidth should be selected when listening to any NDB for it's identification
b Broad or wide bandwidth should be selected when listening to music or voice
c Narrow bandwidth should be selected for listening to voice or music
d Broad or wide bandwidth should be used when static from CBs is experienced
36 Of the bearing indicators available for use on ADFs, the most sophisticated one is
id 7135
a The Relative Bearing Indicator

b The Radio Magnetic Indicator
c The Deviation Indicator
d The Manually Rotateable Card
37 Using an ADF indicator of the manually rotateable card type
id 7136
N
a Relative bearing is normally indicated under the pointer needle
b The aircraft heading may be marked on the indicator with a manually controlled "bug"
O
c May be combined with a VOR indicator
TI
d The card should be rotated so that the aircraft heading is at the top of the indicator
38 The heading read on a standard RMI is
id 7137
20 IA
a The magnetic heading
04 AV
b The relative heading
c The compass heading
d The True heading
41 E
39 Homing on an NDB
id 7138
89 ON
a Calls for an assessment of the drift

b Is most effective in strong winds
c Will in most situations result in frequent heading changes when approaching the NDB
80 E
d Will result in passing the NDB along the planned track

W
40 When using ADF, the sky-wave (night) effect

id 7139
a Is most dominant at the darkest time of the day
b Occurs when the signal from the desired NDB is interfered with by a long distant sky- wave signal
from another NDB operating at the same or a close frequency
c Occurs when two sky-wave signals from two different NDBs interfere with each other
d Is most dominant around dusk and dawn
41 Flying in the vicinity of CB clouds and using ADF
id 7140
a The ANT position of the function switch should be used when listening for NDB ID
b Strong static emitted from the CB may cause the ADF needle to deflect towards the CB
c The static emitted from the CB will fade soon after you have passed it
d All 3 answers are correct
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 8
62.01.03. VOR and Doppler-VOR

42 A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B
id 780 (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is
15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
a 190°
b 195°
c 185°
d 180°
43 An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the
id 1061 equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position
is 8°E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
a 255°
b 278°
c 262°
N
d 285°
44 Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected
O
id 1062 on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a
"TO" indication?
TI
a 100° 20 IA
b 280°
c 270°
04 AV
d 090°
45 A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals
id 1063 32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic
variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
41 E
a 360
89 ON
b 208
c 212
d 180
46
80 E
In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic
id 1064 variation:
W
a at the VOR
b at the aircraft location
c at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
d at both the VOR and aircraft
47 The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
id 1426
a beat frequency discrimination
b envelope matching
c phase comparison
d difference in depth of modulation
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 9
48 Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

id 1427
a SHF
b UHF
c VHF
d HF
49 Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

id 1428
a static interference
b uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
c night effect
d quadrantal error
50 If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors
id 1429 could be caused by:
N
a sky wave interference from the same transmitter
b noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter
O
c interference from other transmitters
TI
d sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
51 An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a
id 1430
20 IA
deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the
centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary?
04 AV
(Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
a 6.0
b 3.0
c 4.5
41 E
d 1.5
89 ON
52 An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant

id 1431 bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance
within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is
approximately:
80 E
a 165 NM
W
b 50 NM
c 105 NM
d 210 NM
53 An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following
id 1432 settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
a 284° with the FROM flag showing
b 284° with the TO flag showing
c 104° with the TO flag showing
d 104° with the FROM flag showing
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 10
54 An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The

id 1433 bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS
left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is:
a 100°
b 090°
c 270°
d 280°
55 An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to
id 1434 obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
a 064° with the FROM flag showing
b 064° with the TO flag showing
c 244° with the FROM flag showing
d 244° with the TO flag showing
56 What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive
id 1435 signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
N
a 156 NM
O
b 220 NM
c 147 NM
TI
d 184 NM 20 IA
57 An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is
id 1992 locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The
04 AV
available information from the VOR is:
a Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown
b Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°
c Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°
41 E
d Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown

89 ON
58 The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM

id 2198 represents a width of:
a 2.0 NM
b 3.5 NM
80 E
c 2.5 NM
W
d 3.0 NM
59 In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
id 2367
a UHF
b VHF
c SHF
d EHF
60 The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of
id 2374 phase on magnetic:
a west
b south
c east
d north
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 11
61 An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with
id 2376 the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from
the VOR ground station?
a SE
b SW
c NW
d NE
62 An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range
id 2377 of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
a less than 10°
b 10° or more
c 1.5° or more
d 2.5 or more
63 Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of
id 2635 a conventional VOR is correct?
N
a The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates
O
b The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the
characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
TI
c The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the allocated
frequency each time it rotates
20 IA
d The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal
64 The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals
04 AV
id 2638 from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:

a 230 NM
b 190 NM
41 E
c 170 NM
89 ON
d 151 NM
65 The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals
id 3179 from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:
a 163 NM
80 E
b 245 NM
W
c 204 NM
d 183 NM
66 If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
id 3248
a rhumbline track
b great circle track
c line of constant bearing
d constant magnetic track
67 An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above

id 3249 MSL at an approximate maximum range of :
a 90 NM
b 110 NM
c 100 NM
d 120 NM
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 12
68 An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT

id 3250 above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :
a 135 NM
b 123 NM
c 130 NM
d 142 NM
69 An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector
id 3252 (OBS) reads : 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
a left with 'FROM' showing
b right with 'TO' showing
c right with 'FROM' showing
d left with 'TO' showing
70 Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To
id 3255 indicator indicates "TO". CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what
radial is the aircraft?
N
a 085
O
b 275
TI
c 265
d 095
20 IA
71 The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :
id 3258
04 AV
a 108 to 117.95 MHz
b 108 to 111.95 MHz
c 118 to 135.95 MHz
41 E
d 108 to 135.95 MHz
72 If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR
89 ON
id 3259 station will be :

a 030°
b 330°
80 E
c 210°
d 150°
W
73 Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E; Estimated position of an
id 5564 aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E. What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
a 167°
b 347°
c 160°
d 193°
74 The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at
id 5787 the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range
will it be possible to obtain this information?
a 1230 km
b 123 km
c 12.3 NM
d 123 NM
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 13
75 Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected
id 5798 course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
a ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
b behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
c ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
d behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
76 The information carried by a signal emitted from a VOR is
id 7141
a The direction from the aircraft to the VOR and the identification of the VOR
b The accurate timing signal and the station identifier
c The Magnetic North reference signal and the identification signal for the correct direction to the
aircraft
d In what magnetic direction the signal left the VOR antenna, and the identification of the
station
77 The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR
N
id 7142
a Is always directed towards the aircraft
O
b Is like a figure of 8
TI
c Is a pencil beam
d Rotates at 30 revolutions per second
20 IA
78 The reference and the variable modulation signals from a VOR
id 7143
04 AV
a Are both at 30 Hz, one frequency modulated and the other amplitude modulated
b Are both pulse modulated, at 30 Hz
c Are AM and FM, at 9960 Hz
41 E
d Always have a frequency difference of 30 Hz

89 ON
79 The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR

id 7144
a Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR
b Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR
80 E
c Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards or from
W
the CDI needle

d Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication
80 OBS 123, TO/FROM showing TO, CDI is indicating 4 dots right on a 5-dot
id 7145 indicator. On what radial is your position?
a Radial 295
b Radial 131
c Radial 311
d Radial 115
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 14
81 In order to establish what radial you are on, you could

id 7146
a Read the OBS when the CDI is centred and the TO/FROM is showing TO
b Rotate the OBS until the CDI gets centred and the TO/FROM indicator is showing FROM.
Then read the radial on the OBS
c Turn the OBS to make the TO/FROM change from TO to FROM. The OBS is now indicating the
radial you are on
d Turn the aircraft until the CDI is centred. The aircraft magnetic heading is now the reciprocal of the
radial you are on
82 When the warning flag on a VOR indicator appears, it may indicate
id 7147
a That no signal is received

b That the received signal is too week to be processed in the receiver
c That the quality of the received signal is so poor that a stable establishment of phase difference
between the reference and the variable signal is not possible
N
83 On an HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) used in combination with a VOR receiver
O
id 7148
a A pictorial presentation of aircraft deviation relative to VOR radials is provided
TI
b The lubber line will indicate the reciprocal value of the received radial
c The lubber line will indicate the selected radial
20 IA
d There will be no Omni Bearing Selector knob, as this function is automatic on this type of indicator
04 AV
84 When using an RMI as an indicator for the VOR receiver
id 7149
a You will read the drift as the angle between the OBS bug and the tip of the VOR needle
b You will read the number of the received radial under the tail of the VOR needle
41 E
c The TO/FROM indication on the RMI will indicate which way to turn the aircraft in order to fly
89 ON
towards the VOR station being received

d You will read the number of the received radial under the tip of the VOR needle
85 If the compass providing information to the RMI suddenly gets a 20° deviation
id 7150
80 E
a The relative bearing to the VOR, as observed on the RMI, will jump 20°
W
b The number of the received radial may still be read on the compass card under the tail of the VOR
needle
c The magnetic track to the VOR station may be read on the compass card under the tip of the VOR
needle
86 When a maximum range and altitude is published for a VOR
id 7151
a The signal from the VOR will be too weak to provide information when you are outside this airspace
b The terrain will cause bends and/or scalloping on the VOR signal and make it inaccurate outside
standards in the airspace outside the published airspace
c The reception from this VOR is guaranteed free from harmful interference from other VORs
when you are within this airspace
d You are guaranteed to receive no interference to the VOR signal from other radio transmissions as
long as you are within the air space published
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 15
62.01.04. DME
87 A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM
id 790 away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
a 15 NM
b 14 NM
c 16 NM
d 17 NM
88 Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground
id 799 speed?
a An ADF sited on the flight route
b A DME station sited on the flight route
c A VOR station sited on the flight route
d A DME station sited across the flight route
89 An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from
N
id 1065 the ground because:
O
a the pulse recurrence rates are varied
b DME transmits twin pulses
TI
c they are not on the receiver frequency
d DME uses the UHF band
20 IA
90 The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following
id 1066 frequencies:
04 AV
a 962 to 1213 MHz

b 108 to 118 MHz
c 329 to 335 MHz
41 E
d 962 to 1213 kHz.

89 ON
91 A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
id 1067 level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
a 11 NM
b 7 NM
80 E
c 6 NM
W
d 8 NM
92 During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from
id 1068 a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
a aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude
b aeroplane is circling around the station
c altitude is too high
d range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM
93 A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
id 1436
a 10 MHz
b 1000 MHz
c 100 MHz
d 100 GHz
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 16
94 Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

id 1437
a UHF band and is a primary radar system
b VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
c UHF band and is a secondary radar system
d SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
95 For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the
id 1438 number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:
a 80
b 200
c 60
d 100
96 On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
id 1439
N
a ground equipment failure
b airborne equipment failure
O
c the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
TI
d the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
97 The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and
id 1440
20 IA
reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
a transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
04 AV
b pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration

c aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each other
d pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft
41 E
98 The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the
id 1441 ground because:
89 ON
a aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
b reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
c DME transmits twin pulses
80 E
d DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

W
99 In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring

id 1442 Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at
FL400?
a When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
b When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
c When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
d When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
100 The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance
id 1443 Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the
airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground
transponder was:
a 165 NM
b 186 NM
c 296 NM
d 330 NM
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 17
101 What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground
id 3175 installations if they are to have the same morse code identifier?
a 60 m
b 2000 m
c 600 m
d 300 m
102 A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength
id 3253 will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
a standby mode
b search mode
c memory mode
d signal controlled search
103 Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?
id 3256
N
a It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
b It is of no use to civil aviation
O
c It can provide DME distance
TI
d It can provide a magnetic bearing
104 A DME that has difficulty obtaining a "lock-on": (NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence
id 3257
20 IA
frequency, PPS = pulses per second)
a alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds
04 AV
b stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF

c stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 100 seconds
d stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been
41 E
transmitted
105 DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
89 ON
id 5790
a 110 MHz
b 300 MHz
80 E
c 1000 MHz
d 600 MHz
W
106 A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the
id 5791 callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
a VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
b DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation
c DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
d DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
107 In the DME system
id 7154
a The aircraft equipment is called a transponder

b The receive and the transmit frequency is always split by 63 MHz
c The operation is similar to a primary radar system
d The channels are referred to as "X" channels paired with VORs and "Y" channels paired with ILS
localizers
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 18
108 The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME
id 7155 system
a Is to avoid the reception in the aircraft of signals referring to other aircraft
b Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter
c Is to prevent overload of the system
d Is to permit more channels in the system
109 The airborne DME equipment will transmit pulse pairs at a comparatively high PRF
id 7156
a At all times, except when the panel control "LO" is operated

b When the distance presented is above 50 NM
c Whenever a stable signal is being received from the selected ground station
d When first switched on and after a channel selection
110 In the DME system, responses in the aircraft equipment to answers to other
id 7157 aircraft is prevented
N
a By using a directional aerial in the aircraft
b By carefully selecting the correct channel
O
c By an irregular change in pulse-pair PRF in every aircraft installation, and by making the
receiver sensitive for reception only in a short period of time of around the anticipated
TI
time of arrival of the answer from the ground station
d By using the "search mode" at frequent intervals
20 IA
111 System, or beacon, saturation of the DME system
id 7158
04 AV
a Occurs when the aircraft DME set has been in operation for an extended period of time, without
being put into the STANDBY mode
b Occurs when many aircraft, being at a long distance from the DME, are demanding a reply
41 E
c May occur when more than 100 aircraft are demanding replies from a single ground station
89 ON

112 When VOR and DME stations are associated
id 7159
a Their IDs will in all respects be identical
80 E
b Their aerials will be mounted on top of each other

W
c Their signals must be tuned in by VOR and DME sets in the aircraft having common frequency
control
d They may be separated by as much as 600 metres if they are meant for en-route navigation
113 If a VOR station and a DME station, having different locations, are selected to
id 7160 provide a fix
a Two sets, with separate frequency control, are required in the aircraft
b Two positions, being ambiguous, will be presented
c Two different IDs will have to be checked
d All 3 answers above are correct
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 19
114 Consider the following statements on horizontal/slant distance when using DME:
id 7161
a The difference between the two is automatically compensated for in all DME equipment
b The difference between the two distances will be negligible for en-route navigation when
the indicated distance in NM is more than the height of the aircraft above the DME site,
stated in thousands of feet
c The horizontal distance is always slightly longer than the slant distance
d The operator in the aircraft should always make a mental increase to the indicated range, in order to
compensate for the difference between horizontal and slant distance
115 Using modern DME equipment meant for general navigation use, the accuracy
id 7162 expected is
a +/- 0,2 NM or 0,25% of the slant range, whichever is greater
b +/- 0,5 NM or 0,25% of the slant range, whichever is greater
c +/- 0,5 NM or 3,0% of the slant range, whichever is greater
d +/- 0,2 NM or 3,0% of the slant range, whichever is greater
N
116 What is the slant range error for an aircraft flying at 9000 feet absolute altitude
id 7163 above a DME located at elevation 2000 ft, when the slant range is 12 NM?
O
a 0,31 NM
TI
b 1,42 NM
c 0,57 NM
20 IA
d 0,09 NM
62.01.05. ILS
04 AV
117 The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
id 1059
a 400 Hz, blue
41 E
b 3000 Hz, blue

89 ON
c 1300 Hz, blue

d 400 Hz, amber
118 What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3°
id 1069 ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
80 E
a 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline
W
b 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser
centreline
c 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline
d 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline
119 ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
id 1070
a back-scattering of antennas
b spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
c multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
d ground returns ahead of the antennas
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 20
120 A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides

id 1444 accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
a 50 feet above ILS reference point
b 200 feet above the runway threshold
c runway surface
d 200 feet above the inner marker
121 The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active
id 1445 runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during
good weather operations is:
a heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
b aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
c to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations
d to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions
122 An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser
id 1446 inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
N
a will receive signals without identification coding
O
b will not normally receive signals
c may receive false course indications
TI
d can expect signals to give correct indications
20 IA
123 The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified
id 1447 audibly and visually by a series of:
04 AV
a alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing
b two dashes per second and a blue light flashing
c dots and a white light flashing
41 E
d dashes and an amber light flashing

124 The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on
89 ON
id 1448 a frequency of:

a 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
b 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
80 E
c 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse

d 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
W
125 What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at
id 1449 a groundspeed of 120 kt?
a 550 FT/MIN
b 600 FT/MIN
c 800 FT/MIN
d 950 FT/MIN
126 The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the
id 1450 threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the
approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:
a 1350 FT
b 1400 FT
c 1450 FT
d 1300 FT
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 21
127 In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?

id 2370
a VHF
b UHF
c SHF
d EHF
128 Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS
id 2372 localizer cockpit display represent :
a 2.0 degrees
b 1.5 degrees
c 2.5 degrees
d 0.5 degrees
129 Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
id 2373
N
a 1300 Hz
b 400 Hz
O
c 2000 Hz
TI
d 3000 Hz
130 What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker
id 2622
20 IA
beacon?
a white - amber - blue
04 AV
b amber - white - green

c blue - amber - white
d blue - green - white
41 E
131 The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two

id 3051 overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different
89 ON
(ii)..........
a (i) the same (ii) phases
b (i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies
80 E
c (i) different (ii) modulation frequencies

W
d (i) different (ii) phases

132 Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally
id 3053 situated?
a On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended
centreline
b At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline
c At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended
centreline
d At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown
133 Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an
id 3166 approximate:
a increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
b decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
c decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
d increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 22
134 Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i)
id 3170 ..........° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the
threshold.
a (i) 8 (ii) 10
b (i) 25 (ii) 17
c (i) 35 (ii) 25
d (i) 5 (ii) 8
135 The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of
id 3171 140 kt is approximately:
a 850 FT/MIN
b 800 FT/MIN
c 670 FT/MIN
d 700 FT/MIN
136 An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz
id 3180 modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS
N
indication will show:
O
a Fly right and fly down
b Fly left and fly down
TI
c Fly right and fly up 20 IA
d Fly left and fly up
137 An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in
id 3181
04 AV
groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The
effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a
decrease of approximately:
a 150 FT/MIN
41 E
b 250 FT/MIN
89 ON
c 50 FT/MIN
d 100 FT/MIN
138 A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
id 3260
80 E
a the surface of the runway

W
b a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway

c a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway
d a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway
139 Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

id 3261
a 112.10 MHz
b 108.25 MHz
c 110.20 MHz
d 109.15 MHz
140 What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at

id 3331 a groundspeed of 90 kt?
a 450 FT/MIN
b 400 FT/MIN
c 600 FT/MIN
d 700 FT/MIN
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 23
141 The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25,
id 5792 the localizer needle will be:
a right of centre
b left of centre
c centred
d centred with the 'fail' flag showing
142 Consider the following statements on ILS:
id 7164
a An ILS-approach may be flown if the localizer, glide path and marker beacons/DME are operational
b If the localizer is out of service, an ILS approach with increased decision height (DH) may be carried
out
c ILS is the primary precision approach facility for civil aviation
d When the pilot is reaching the decision height (DH) he may only continue the approach if both
localizer and glidepath indications are within one dot from the centre positions
143 The function of a locator beacon in an ILS procedure
N
id 7165
a Is to give steering information to guide the pilot during the final section of the ILS approach
O
b Is to locate the airfield position
TI
c Is to provide the pilot, flying the localizer course, with a check that he is on the localizer centre line
d Is to provide a navigation aid that will clearly indicate that the aircraft is within the
20 IA
coverage of the ILS localizer and glide path
144 Which of the following frequencies are used by ILS?
04 AV
id 7166
a 109,35 MHz
b 111,10 MHz
41 E
c 108,45 MHz
d a and b above
89 ON
145 At a distance of 20 NM from the localizer transmitter, the horizontal extent of the
id 7167 localizer coverage is
a +/- 10 NM wide
80 E
b 10 NM wide
c +/- 10° from the runway extended centre line
W
d +/- 2,5°
146 The ILS glidepath transmitter is located
id 7168
a No more than 600 meters from the localizer transmitter
b About 150 meters upwind from the threshold and about 300 meters from the centre line of the runway
c About 300 meters upwind from the threshold and about 150 meters from the centre line of
the runway
d As close to the runway threshold as possible without causing an obstruction to aircraft
147 The ILS glidepath is 2,8°. At what altitude above the threshold level is the upper
id 7169 limit of the glide path coverage at a distance of 1,5 NM from the touchdown point?
a 425 feet
b 745 feet
c 865 feet
d 610 feet
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 24
148 The glide path transmitter operates on

id 7170
a 36 VHF frequencies, paired with localizer frequencies
b The frequencies 90 and 150 MHz
c On frequencies found by multiplying the localizer frequency by 3
d 40 frequencies from 329,15 MHz to 335,00 MHz
149 Scalloping of an ILS beam means

id 7171
a That the beam slowly leaves the intended approach line

b That the beam is intermittent, and is received only now and then during an approach
c That false beams (sidelobes) appear from time to time during the approach
d That the guidance beam direction varies from side to side of the intended approach path
150 Consider the following statements on ILS back beam approach:
id 7172
N
a Using a standard ILS indicator, a back beam approach must be flown with heading adjustments from
the localizer needle
O
b Only when a published procedure is at hand, a back beam approach must be flown
c Using an HSI the course selector should be set to the inbound track of the localizer front beam, in
TI
order to get normal sensing
d All 3 statements are correct
20 IA
151 ILS Cat II will permit instrument approaches down to
id 7173
04 AV
a DH 100 ft, RVR 200 m

b DH 100 ft, RVR 350 m
c DH 50 ft, RVR 200 m
41 E
d DH 150 ft RVR 400 m

89 ON
152 If the ILS monitoring equipment senses a shift or change outside set limits in the
id 7174 basic transmission
a The Tower control will inform any inbound aircraft about the inaccuracy
b The technicians on duty will switch on the stand-by ILS equipment
80 E
c The pilot on ILS approach will be notified by the ident disappearing

W
d The transmissions on a Cat I ILS will be stopped within 6 seconds

153 In an ILS system, the identification
id 7175
a Is transmitted with a tone of 1450 Hz
b Is transmitted in morse by the localizer transmitter with a tone of 1020 Hz
c Is transmitted by the localizer and the glidepath transmitters
d Is transmitted alternatively by the localizer and the glidepath transmitters using morse code (In
some countries voice identification is also used)
154 Flying a 3° glidepath ILS approach, at a ground speed of 100 Kt., the "rule of
id 7176 thumb" gives a required rate of descent of
a 500 ft/min
b 600 ft/min
c 450 ft/min
d 400 ft/min
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 25
155 There are four types of marker beacons, all transmitting on the same carrier
id 7177 frequency:
a Airway marker (fan marker), Outer marker, Middle marker, Intersection marker
b Intersection marker, Outer marker, Middle marker, Inner marker
c Airway marker (fan marker) Outer marker, Middle marker, Inner marker
d Boundary marker, Outer marker, Middle marker, Inner marker
156 The middle marker is identified by
id 7178
a Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 1300 Hz and an amber light
b Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 800 Hz and an amber light
c Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 800 Hz and a white light
d Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 1300 Hz and a white light
157 Flying an ILS approach, the middle marker is positioned so as to be passed
id 7179
N
a At about 200 ft AAL
b About 1500 meters from the threshold
O
c At about 350 ft AAL
TI
d At about 100 ft above DH
62.01.06. MLS
20 IA
158 Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)
id 2627 compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
04 AV
a It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter
b It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to
use an ILS
41 E
c The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to determine
range
89 ON
d There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is
an unlimited number of frequency channels available
159 The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-
id 2631 shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
80 E
a + or - 50° of the runway centre-line

W
b + or - 40° of the runway centre-line

c + or - 60° of the runway centre-line
d + or - 30° of the runway centre-line
160 MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth
id 3167 coverage of:
a + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM
b + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
c + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM
d + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 26
161 In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
id 4738
a EHF
b SHF
c VHF
d UHF
162 Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System
id 5747 (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
a Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station
to the aircraft
b Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft
to MLS station
c Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions
d A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters
163 Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a
N
id 5748 Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
O
a Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons
b Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons
TI
c Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
d Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
20 IA
164 Compared to the ILS, MLS has the following advantages:
id 7180
04 AV
a No special receivers are required in the aircraft

b Many different approaches to the same runway may be defined by 1 set of ground
equipment
41 E
c Aircraft separation will automatically be arranged by the ground equipment

89 ON
d All approaches to all airfields will use the same channel, which means that the aircraft equipment
will be a single-channel receiver
165 The MLS use a technique based on
id 7181
a "Frequency Modulated Duplex"
80 E
b "Pulse interrogation"
W
c "Time Reference Scanning Beam"

d "Analogue Scanning Beam"
166 In an MLS the azimuth information is available in the approach sector

id 7182
a To a distance of 10 NM in an 80 degree wide sector
b To a distance of 20 NM in an 80 degree wide sector
c To a distance of 10 NM in a 110 degree wide sector
d To a distance of 20 NM in a 40 degree wide sector
167 Making an MLS approach, the aircraft

id 7183
a Receives elevation information 2 times a second

b Receives elevation information 13 times a second
c Receives elevation information three times as frequent as azimuth information
d Receives elevation and azimuth information 39 times a second
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 27
62.01.07. Homing and Intercepts

168 A Homing you prefer with a difference of angle greater then
id 8859
a 50°
b 70°
c 90°
d 120°
169 Which interception do you choose with a difference of angle of 15° and an EET of 4
id 8860 minutes?
a Homing
b 90°/45° Interception
c Correction
d 45° Interception
170 act QDM 140° act HDG 020° req QDM 110° First turn?
N
id 8862
a Left HDG 155°
O
b Left HDG 190°
TI
c Right HDG 065°
d Right HDG 110°
20 IA
171 act QDM 330° act HDG 060° req QDM 350° Intercept HDG?
id 8863
04 AV
a 260°
b 315°
c 305°
41 E
d 350°
89 ON
172 act QDM 150° act HDG 330° req QDM 120° Kind of interception?
id 8864
a Homing
b Correction
80 E
c 45° Interception
W
d 80°/260° Interception
173 act QDM 210° act HDG 060° req QDM 260° First turn?
id 8865
a left HDG 170°
b right HDG 215°
c right HDG 170°
d right HDG 260°
174 act QDM 095° act HDG 090° req QDM 090° EET 5Min. Correction?
id 8866
a 5°
b 10°
c 15°
d 20°
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 28
175 act QDM 120° act HDG 120° req QDR 060° Int-HDG?
id 8867
a 040°
b 045°
c 065°
d 030°
176 act QDR 285° act HDG 290° req QDR 290° Time passed the station 2Min.
id 8868 Correction HDG?
a 305°
b 290°
c 285°
d 300°
N
O
TI
20 IA
04 AV
41 E
89 ON
80 E
W
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 29
62.02. BASIC RADAR PRINCIPLES

62.02.01. Pulse techniques and associated terms
177 A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
id 2368
a transponder interrogation
b pulse technique
c phase comparison
d continuous wave transmission
178 The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a
id 3161 pulsed radar is pulse:
a repetition rate
b amplitude
c length
N
d frequency
O
179 Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be
id 3162 used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200
TI
NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
a 375 pps
20 IA
b 782 pps
c 308 pps
04 AV
d 405 pps
180 The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined
id 3182 by the (i)........ ; the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........
41 E
a (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

89 ON
b (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output

c (i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
d (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
181 Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary
80 E
id 3183 radar of continuous wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?

W
a A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be used

b It eliminates the minimum target reception range
c It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radars
d The equipment required is more complex in continuous wave radar but this is offset by greater
reliability and accuracy
182 The maximum range of primary radar depends on :
id 3262
a pulse recurrence frequency
b wave length
c frequency
d pulse length
62.02. BASIC RADAR PRINCIPLES 2002/12/22 Page 29 of 64
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 30
183 For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary
id 4774 radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
a 2
b 16
c 4
d 8
184 The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary
id 4775 radar is the:
a pulse recurrence rate
b power output
c size of parabolic receiver aerial
d height of the transmitter above the ground
185 In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar
id 5749 systems operate?
N
a SHF
b UHF
O
c EHF
TI
d VHF
186 In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence
id 5793
20 IA
Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
a ratio of pulse period to pulse width
04 AV
b delay after which the process re-starts

c the number of cycles per second
d number of pulses per second
41 E
187 Consider the following statements on a freely suspended magnetic needle in the
id 7059 terrestrial magnetic field:
89 ON
a The needle will align itself along the magnetic meridian

b The needle will align itself with the direction of the magnetic lines of force
c The needle will not be influenced by the magnetic inclination (dip)
80 E
d All answers are correct

W
188 In a primary radar system

id 7184
a The aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground radar
b All radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site
c The radar is primarily used for range-finding
d The radar is the primary aid for ATC
189 In a primary radar the maximum range requires

id 7187
a Long PRI and high PRF
b Short PRI and high PRF
c High pulse effect and long PRI
d High pulse effect and short PRI
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 31
190 Minimum useful range of a primary radar requires

id 7188
a Long pulses and high PRI
b Short pulses and long PRI
c Short pulses
d High PRF
191 For a parabolic reflector to make a narrow beam

id 7189
a The power from the transmitter must be evenly distributed on the antenna
b The size must be large compared to the wavelength
c The size of the antenna has only minor importance
d The antenna must rotate at a high speed
192 The receiver in a primary radar
id 7190
N
a Must be very sensitive in order to detect weak signals
b Must be protected from the influence of the high-power transmitter pulse
O
c Must have a short recovery time in order to receive echoes from near-by aircraft
TI
193 On a standard radar display (PPI)
id 7191
20 IA
a The time base is a sine curve
04 AV
b The time base is a cosine curve
c The time base is a linear, straight scale
d The time base is made to rotate synchronously with the antenna in order to display bearing
41 E
as well as range
194 Using primary radar, super refraction may play a role, because
89 ON
id 7192
a Super refraction may cause the direct wave range to be considerably increased
b Other radar signals may be received due to super refraction of signals
c Super refraction may cause shadows, in which no target will be observed
80 E
d Super refraction will cause a sort of "night effect" also on radar frequencies
W
195 Using a primary radar,

id 7193
a Target size will influence the maximum range
b Detection of targets in the area close to the radar will be difficult
c Precipitation may reduce the useful range
62.02.02. Ground radar

196 Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar
id 1075 with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of
light is 300 000 km/second)
a 150 km
b 666 km
c 1333 km
d 333 km
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 32
197 A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200

id 2637 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
a 135 NM
b 69 NM
c 270 NM
d 27 NM
198 A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum
id 3050 unambiguous range of approximately:
a 270 NM
b 135 NM
c 67 NM
d 27 NM
199 Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on
id 3169 frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at
approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is (iii) ......... possible to
N
determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.
O
a (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always
b (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never
TI
c (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
20 IA
d (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never
200 The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary
id 3174
04 AV
radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps
= pulses per second)
a 610 pps
b 3240 pps
41 E
c 1620 pps
89 ON
d 713 pps
201 Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum
id 3176 unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
a 330
80 E
b 6000
W
c 167
d 3000
202 Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary
id 3177 search radar?
a short pulse length and narrow beam
b long pulse length and wide beam
c long pulse length and narrow beam
d short pulse length and wide beam
203 The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is
id 5750 approximately:
a 100 NM
b 200 NM
c 300 NM
d 400 NM
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 33
204 A simple schematic diagram of a typical primary radar set, will show that
id 7185
a The timer is feeding timing signals directly to the magnetron
b The modulator receive the same input as the receiver
c The Display unit is fed information from the receiver and the timebase generator
d The TR.-switch provides signals both to the Timebase and the Receiver
205 A long-range surveillance radar will typically use a frequency of

id 7186
a 1000 MHz
b 600 MHz
c 3000 MHz
d 10 GHz
206 A radar used by ATC has the following characteristics: Long wavelength, aerial
id 7196 rotation speed 5 RPM. Most likely this is
N
a An en route surveillance radar
b Precision Approach Radar
O
c Terminal Surveillance Radar
TI
d Airfield Surface Movement Indicator
207 Two types of radar approaches may be available
id 7197
20 IA
a Surveillance approach and Final approach
04 AV
b Final approach and Precision approach
c Surveillance approach and Precision approach
d Terminal approach and surveillance approach
41 E
208 A Surveillance Radar installation will often consist of

id 7198
89 ON
a A Primary radar and a Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

b A primary Radar and a VDF
c A Primary Radar and a Precision Radar
80 E
d An SSR and a Precision Radar

W
62.02.03. Airborne weather radar

209 Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order
id 1451 to:
a detect the larger water droplets
b transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
c obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
d detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
210 The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
id 1452
a give an indication of cloud tops

b detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
c inhibit unwanted ground returns
d extend the mapping range
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 34
211 In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:

id 1453
a fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
b fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
c pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
d pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
212 Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather
id 1454 radar when using the 'weather beam'?
a stratus
b cirrocumulus
c cumulus
d altostratus
213 A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne
id 2628 weather radar system because:
N
a the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively
small
O
b greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets
c static interference is minimised
TI
d less power output is required in the mapping mode
20 IA
214 Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna
id 2632 stabilisation axes?
04 AV
a roll, pitch and yaw
b roll and pitch
c pitch and yaw
41 E
d roll and yaw

215 In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing
89 ON
id 2633 severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
a green to yellow to red
b yellow to amber to blue
80 E
c green to red to black

d yellow to orange to red
W
216 In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant
id 3054 radiation pattern.
a MAPPING
b CONTOUR
c WEATHER
d MANUAL
217 In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
id 3168
a permitted anywhere
b only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect
equipment
c totally prohibited
d unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 35
218 The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the
id 3172 mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
a when approaching coast-lines in polar regions
b beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode
c beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition
d beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam
219 A frequency of airborne weather radar is :
id 3263
a 9375 MHz
b 9375 GHz
c 9375 kHz
d 93.75 MHz
220 A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing
id 5591 the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
N
a decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
b increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
O
c decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
TI
d increase in area and move to the top of the screen
221 In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
id 5593
20 IA
a better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea
04 AV
b scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose signals are practically
independent of distance
c a greater radar range to be achieved
d higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture
41 E
222 In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a
89 ON
id 5751 cloud will be detected are:

a size of the water drops; wavelength/frequency used
b range from cloud; wavelength/frequency used
80 E
c size of the water drops; diameter of radar scanner

d rotational speed of radar scanner; range from cloud
W
223 In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is
id 5752 at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a
beam width of 5°)
a 5° up
b 0°
c 2.5° down
d 2.5° up
224 When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a single very bright line
id 5794 appears on the screen. This means that the:
a scanner is not rotating
b transmitter is faulty
c scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
d receiver is faulty
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 36
225 The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
id 5795
a simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams
b virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the
main beam
c have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection
d eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
226 Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather
id 5797 radar?
a dry hail; clear air turbulence
b snow; clear air turbulence
c clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation
d snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation
227 Airborne weather radar uses a particularly high frequency radar signal, at 9 - 12
id 7209 GHz, in order to
N
a Get the most accurate range and bearing information
O
b Get good returns from droplets of water and other sorts of precipitation
c Making it possible to present a colour display of the weather situation
TI
228
20 IA
The stabilisation of the weather radar, aerial is effective
id 7210
a For up to +/- 5° roll and pitch
04 AV
b For up to +/- 20° of combined roll and pitch

c For up to +/- 30° of combined roll and pitch
d For up to +/- 45° of combined roll and pitch
41 E
229 When the airborne weather radar is operating in it's primary mode, to detect
89 ON
id 7211 precipitation,
a Maximum tilt of the aerial will often be used
b The range will be limited, compared to the range obtainable in the mapping mode
80 E
c The radar beam is pencil-shaped

d The radar beam is a cosec-beam
W
230 On the airborne weather radar display, different colours are used
id 7212
a To display different intensity of precipitation
b High ground
c Echoes from other aircraft
d Clouds, indicating different levels of visibility
231 You want to use your airborne weather radar to detect areas with turbulence.
id 7213 Consider the following statements:
a If you are flying at low altitude, the detection of turbulence at levels below the aircraft may
difficult because of ground returns
b You should select the cosec beam and carefully adjust the aerial tilt
c Using the cosec beam, the height of top of clouds, with possible turbulence, may be calculated
using the 1 : 60 rule.
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 37
232 Using the airborne weather radar, before take-off

id 7214
a The contrast control should be adjusted to maximum contrast
b The radar transmitter should not be operated when personnel is observed in the sector
ahead of the aircraft
c The antenna tilt control should be set to max negative tilt
d The gain control should be adjusted according to the light conditions expected when airborne
62.02.04. SSR secondary surveillance radar and transp.

233 When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional
id 1072 information transmitted is:
a height based on QFE
b altitude based on regional QNH
c aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
d flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
N
234 The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a
id 1073 transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies:
O
Transmitter Receiver
a 1090 MHz 1090 MHz
TI
b 1090 MHz 1030 MHz 20 IA
c 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
d 1030 MHz 1030 MHz
04 AV
235 Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
id 1455
a The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
b The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
41 E
c A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
89 ON
d The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
236 In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
id 1456 code:
80 E
a 7000
b 7700
W
c 7600
d 7500
237 In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the
id 1457 aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
a 7600
b 7500
c 7700
d 7000
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 38
238 The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S
id 2626 are:
a the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation
between aircraft using TCAS II
b collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
c continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and
collision avoidance using TCAS II
d air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft
surveillance capability
239 When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air
id 2634 traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated
flight level that is accurate to within:
a + or - 50 FT
b + or - 75 FT
c + or - 100 FT
N
d + or - 25 FT
240 The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
O
id 2916
a 1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz
TI
b 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz 20 IA
c 1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz
d 1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz
04 AV
241 The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains :

id 3264
a four modes, each 1024 codes
41 E
b two modes, each of 4096 codes

c four modes, each 4096 codes
89 ON
d two modes, each 1024 codes
242 A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can
id 5592 be used in:
80 E
a mode C only
W
b mode A only
c all modes
d mode S
243 The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
id 5594
a phase differences
b pulses
c frequency differences
d amplitude differences
244 Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to
id 5753 indicate transponder malfunction?
a 7600
b 0000
c 4096
d 9999
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 39
245 Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be
id 5754 used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been
required?
a 0000
b 5000
c 7000
d 2000
246 What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
id 5796 transponder codes?
a 4096
b 3600
c 1000
d 760
247 The frequencies used by SSRs are
id 7199
N
a Interrogations are transmitted on 1030 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on
O
1090 MHz
b Interrogations are transmitted on 1030 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1030
TI
MHz
c Interrogations are transmitted on 1090 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1090
MHz
20 IA
d Interrogations are transmitted on 1090 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1030
04 AV
MHz
248 The spacing between the two pulses transmitted by an SSR interrogator decides
id 7200
a The identification of that SSR
41 E
b What mode is used

89 ON
c What service may be provided by the SSR

d The ATC code to be set in the aircraft
249 What SSR modes are currently in use by ATC?

id 7201
80 E
a Mode C and Mode D

W
b Mode A and Mode B

c Mode A and Mode C
d Mode A, Mode B and Mode C
250 Using SSR, the normal transmission from the ATC transponder in the aircraft
id 7202 consists of
a The two pulses received plus the aircraft identification
b The two pulses received plus an additional number of pulses between them
c The aircraft identification plus pulses giving the altitude
d Pulses giving the altitude, plus any ident pulse
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 40
251 The transponder code set in an SSR system consists of

id 7203
a 2 digits and 2 letters, forming any of 4096 different codes
b 4 digits, forming any of 9999 different codes
c 4 digits, forming any of 4096 different codes
d 4 digits, forming any of 7777 different codes
252 When the ATC transponder "IDENT" button is pressed by the pilot
id 7204
a The airplane's identification will be sent to all SSRs within range

b The airplane's echo on the controller's display will flash or "fill in"
c Mode A will automatically be selected
d The controller will be urged to identify this airplane
253 When both SSR and primary radar is presented on the controller's display
id 7205
N
a The SSR information is more accurate in bearing and distance
b The primary radar information is superfluous
O
c The primary radar information is more accurate in bearing and distance
TI
d Altitude information is presented for all targets
254 On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular
id 7206
20 IA
flight will be shown:
a Squawk code, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign
04 AV
b Destination, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign

c Squawk code, Magnetic heading , Ground speed, Airplane callsign
d Squawk code, Flight level , True heading, Airplane callsign
41 E
255 In the SSR terminology "de-fruiting" means

id 7207
89 ON
a Removing all different colours from the display, making it a mono-colour display
b Displaying only airplanes with a selected destination
c Displaying only airplanes changing their altitude
80 E
d The removal from the display of random responses

W
256 Consider the following statements on SSR Mode S:

id 7208
a Mode S will have the ability to transmit short messages from the ground to a particular aircraft
b A mode S interrogator, when installed, will also collect data from old mode A and C transponders
c Mode S will be able to address any particular of some 16 million aircraft
d All 3 statements are correct
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 41
62.03. Wind corrections

257 Act Hdg 270° Wind 245/ 12Kt WCA ?
id 8895
a 4°to the Right
b 4° to the Left
c 2° to the Right
d 2° to the Left
258 Act Hdg 250° TAS 140 Kts Wind 180/60Kt GS?
id 8896
a 170 Kts
b 160 Kts
c 120 Kts
d 130 Kts
N
259 You intercept a QDM with a right crosswind component. Is your intercept Hdg
id 8897 greater or smaller then without wind influence
O
a Greater
TI
b Smaler
c Remains the same
20 IA
d No enough information to give an answer
260 Act Hdg 150° Wind 245/ 12Kt WCA ?
04 AV
id 8898
a 6°to the Right
b 6° to the Left
41 E
c 12°to the Right

89 ON
d 12°to the Left
261 Act Hdg 290° TAS 250 Kts Wind 135/75Kt GS?
id 8899
a 325 Kts
80 E
b 300 Kts
W
c 175 Kts
d 200 Kts
62.03. Wind corrections 2002/12/22 Page 41 of 64
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 42
62.05. AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEMS

62.05.01. General philosophy
262 ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which
id 4693 permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
a within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the
capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
b outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
c within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum
of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
d outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids
263 Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
id 4694
N
a 0.25 NM standard deviation or better
b 0.5 NM standard deviation or better
O
c 1.0 NM standard deviation or better
TI
d 1.5 NM standard deviation or better
264 Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

20 IA
id 4695
a +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time
04 AV
b +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time

c +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time
d +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight
41 E
265 Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight
89 ON
id 4701 Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:

a warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
b flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
c warnings; flight envelope and system limits
80 E
d cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes

W
266 Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an

id 4702 Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
a cautions, abnormal sources
b flight envelope and system limits
c warnings
d engaged modes
267 Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in green on an Electronic
id 4703 Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
a engaged modes
b cautions, abnormal sources
c the earth
d the ILS deviation pointer
62.05. AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEMS 2002/12/22 Page 42 of 64
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 43
268 Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic
id 4704 Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
a the sky
b engaged modes
c the flight director bar(s)
d flight envelope and system limits
269 Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
id 4705 current data and values are coloured:
a red
b cyan
c white
d magenta
id 4706 armed modes are coloured:
N
a white
b green
O
c magenta
TI
d amber/yellow
id 4707
20 IA
selected data and values are coloured:
a green
04 AV
b white
c magenta
d yellow
41 E
272 Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), a
id 4708 selected heading is coloured:
89 ON
a white
b green
c magenta
80 E
d yellow
W
id 4710 increasing intensity of precipititation are coloured in the order:
a green, amber/yellow, red, magenta
b green, red, magenta, black
c black, amber/yellow, magenta, red
d amber/yellow, magenta, black
id 4711 turbulence is coloured:
a cyan
b red
c black
d white or magenta
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 44
275 In a hybrid navigation system

id 7237
a Data from two or more of sources is electronically compared and the best information is
used
b The aircrew has limited control over the navigation
c The aircrew has full control of all navigational matters, because all navigation is executed by the
aircrew
d The information obtained from ATC and ground radar's plays a dominant role
276 RNAV equipment will
id 7240
a Allow frequent changes in flight plan and ATC clearances to be executed by the air crew
b Lead to a more economic air transport
c Permit airplanes to be navigated along direct tracks between predetermined as well as chosen
waypoints, with a high order of accuracy
N
62.05.02. Typical flight deck equipment and operation
277
O
Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight
id 2917 between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
TI
a Elapsed time on route.
b ETD
20 IA
c ATA
d ETO
04 AV
278 The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:

id 4697
a another source of aircraft position; it is independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS etc)
41 E
b the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time

89 ON
c the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS

d the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
279 The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation
id 4699 Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
80 E
a indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown

W
b corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns

c indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
d represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the desired
track, wind influence is compensated for
280 In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by
id 4700 the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?
a When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-off time
b When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS
c When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
d When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is
equal to the FMC calculated Mach number
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 45
281 Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display
id 4712 in MAP mode?
a Figure 1
b Figure 4
c Figure 3
d Figure 2
id 4713 in PLAN mode?
a Figure 1
b Figure 3
c Figure 4
d Figure 2
id 4714 in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
N
a Figure 3
b Figure 2
O
c Figure 1
TI
d Figure 4
id 4715
20 IA
in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
a Figure 2
04 AV
b Figure 1
c Figure 4
d Figure 3
41 E
id 4716 in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
89 ON
a Figure 4
b Figure 2
c Figure 1
80 E
d Figure 3
W
id 4717 in PLAN mode?
a Figure 2
b Figure 3
c Figure 4
d Figure 1
id 4718 in MAP mode?
a Figure 4
b Figure 3
c Figure 1
d Figure 2
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 46
id 4719 in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
a Figure 2
b Figure 4
c Figure 3
d Figure 1
id 4721 in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
a Figure 1
b Figure 2
c Figure 3
d Figure 4
290 Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal
id 4731 Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:
N
a FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
O
b EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP
TI
c FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
d FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
20 IA
291 The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way
id 5596 that the pilot can:
04 AV
a can modify the database every 28 days
b only read the database
c insert navigation data between two updates
41 E
d read and write at any time in database

292 The following flight plan has been inserted into the navigation system : WPT1,
89 ON
id 5597 WPT2, WPT3, WPT4, WPT5. Between WPT1 and WPT2, a clearance is given to
proceed directly to WPT5. In order to achieve this the pilot must:
a use the automatic pilot in the heading mode (HDG) as it is not possible to modify the flight plan in
flight
80 E
b erase (with CLR) WPT3 and WPT4

W
c erase the flight plan and retype a new one

d type DIR TO WPT5 on his keyboard
62.05.04. Types of area navigation system inputs

293 Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area
id 2636 Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
a VOR/DME
b DME/DME
c NDB/VOR
d VOR/VOR
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 47
62.05.05. VOR/DME area navigation

294 In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:
id 2375
a has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
b does not have to be in range when entered or used
c must be in range
d does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
295 Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a

id 4436 basic Area Navigation (RNAV) system?
a It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
b It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
c It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues working
by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air
d It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance
N
indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
296 In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to
O
id 4758 navigation is provided by:
a Inertial Reference Systems, Aircraft Mapping Radar, Navigation radios
TI
b Navigation radios, Flight Management Computer, Inertial Reference Systems
20 IA
c Flight Management Computer, Aircraft Mapping Radar, Navigation radios
d Inertial Reference Systems, Navigation radios, True airspeed and drift inputs
04 AV
297 In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to

id 4759 automatic flight is provided by:
a Flight Control Computers, Flight Management Computers, Autothrottle
41 E
b Flight Control Computers, Inertial Reference Systems, Autothrottle

c Flight Management Computers, Flight Control Computers, Air Data Computers
89 ON
d Air Data Computer, Inertial Reference Systems, Autothrottle

298 How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond
id 4760 to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
80 E
a The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently
b The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
W
c It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display
d The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
299 Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates
id 4761 the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
a Flight Control Computer
b Flight Management Computer
c Symbol Generator
d Navigation database
300 Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area
id 5767 Navigation System?
a Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation
b Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
c Wind velocity
d True airspeed; drift angle
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 48
301 Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom
id 5768 Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
a Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
b Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
c Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
d Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
302 Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-
id 5771 based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
a because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180°/360°) it
takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information
b when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference
station
c when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station
d when the Phantom Station is out of range
303 What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in
N
id 5772 the en-route mode?
O
a 1 NM
b 5 NM
TI
c 2 NM
d 10 NM
20 IA
304 In it's simplest form, RNAV may consist of
id 7239
04 AV
a At least one VOR and 2 DME sets

b A VOR/DME receiver with an associated navigation computer
c ADF and VOR receivers with an associated navigation computer
41 E
d At least 3 DME sets and an associated navigation computer

89 ON
62.05.06. Flight director and autopilot coupling

305 Typically the following sources of information are used by the FMS to establish the
id 7241 aircraft's position
80 E
a VOR/DME, ADF, LORAN C, Radio altimeter

b VOR/DME, ILS, IRS, GNSS, Radio altimeter
W
c Map reading Weather radar, ILS, IRS, GNSS, Radio altimeter

d VOR/DME, ILS, ADF, GNSS, Radio altimeter
306 The FMC database is divided into two broad sections, namely
id 7242
a The CPU database and the Flight Engineer's database
b The Performance database and the ATC information database
c The Navigation database and the Performance database
d The Navigation database and the FMS database
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 49
62.06. SELF-CONTAINED AND

EXTERNAL-REFNAV
62.06.01. Doppler
307 The major source of cross-track error in a doppler navigation system is:
id 1074
a compass error
b altitude error
c latitude error
d manoeuvring error
308 An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the

id 1459 transmitter velocity will occur when:
a the transmitter moves away from the receiver
b the transmitter moves towards the receiver
N
c the receiver moves towards the transmitter
O
d both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
309 The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
TI
id 2918
a doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System
20 IA
b radio waves refraction in the ionosphere
04 AV
c radar principles using frequency shift
d phase comparison from ground station transmissions
310 Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is
id 3184 proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
41 E
a the transmitter and receiver move towards each other

89 ON
b the transmitter moves away from the reciever

c the transmitter moves toward the reciever
d both transmitter and receiver move away from each other
80 E
311 A Doppler shift will occur

id 7215
W
a If a transmitter is moving during transmission to a fixed position receiver

b When the distance between a transmitter and a receiver is changing during a transmission
c If a receiver is moving during reception of transmissions from a fixed position transmitter
312 In the normal applications using Doppler shift registered in aircraft equipment
id 7216
a The Doppler shift will only be detectable when a ground station is within range
b The Doppler shift will be doubled, because it is based on measuring the frequency of a
reflected signal from the ground
c The Doppler shift, indicating ground speed, will always indicate a speed higher than the actual
ground speed of the aircraft, due to depression of the beams
d The Doppler shift frequency will normally be displayed
62.06. SELF-CONTAINED AND EXTERNAL-REFNAV 2002/12/22 Page 49 of 64
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 50
313 In using an airborne Doppler navigation system, the Doppler shift is proportional to
id 7217
a Aircraft speed and aerial depression
b Aircraft speed and absolute altitude
c Aircraft speed and transmitter frequency
d Aircraft speed, transmitter frequency and aircraft absolute altitude
314 In using an airborne Doppler navigation system, the expected accuracy

id 7218
a Will be higher for cross-track movements than for movement along track
b Will be improved with careful adjustment of the antenna tilt
c Is 0,1% in ground speed
d Will be high when flying over a calm sea
62.06.03. Loran-C
315 In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of
N
id 2380 pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?
O
a Loran C
b GPS
TI
c Decca
d Doppler
20 IA
316 Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?
id 2623
04 AV
a It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by phase
comparison
b It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles; position lines are obtained in
41 E
sequence from up to eight ground stations

c It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by
89 ON
pulse technique
d It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of four
ground stations
317 Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C
80 E
id 2639 navigation system?

W
a Differential range by phase comparison

b Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
c Differential range by pulse technique
d Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions
318 Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
id 3327
a 10.2 - 13.6 kHz
b 1750 - 1950 kHz
c 90 - 110 kHz
d 978 - 1213 MHz
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 51
319 Loran C coverage is:

id 5385
a global
b confined to certain limited areas of the world
c unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°S
d unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over the major continental land
masses
320 When using hyperbolic navigation systems to provide lines of position, the basic
id 7219 measurements are
a Angular displacement
b Speed changes
c Of actual speed at short intervals of time
d Timing
321 In a hyperbolic navigation system the area of highest accuracy of a single line of
id 7220 position is
N
a On the perpendicular to the base-line
O
b Along the base-line
c Along the base-line extension
TI
d At equidistance from the two ground stations
322
20 IA
To produce a two-position line fix, the ground elements of a hyperbolic navigation
id 7221 system must consist of at least
04 AV
a 3 master stations and 3 slave stations
b 2 master stations and 3 slave stations
c 1 master and 1 slave station
d 2 slave stations and a master station serving them both
41 E
323 Within the area of coverage of a hyperbolic navigation system, the highest
89 ON
id 7222 accuracy of a two-positionline fix will be achieved when

a The 2 position lines intersect at right angles, and the distances to the ground stations are
not too long
b The 2 position lines are parallel and the distances to the ground are within the published area of
80 E
coverage
W
c The 2 position lines intersect on the base-line of one of them

d The Master and the slave station are both located on the same base-line
324 LORAN C use a radio frequency of
id 7223
a Around 1000 MHz
b Around 30 kHz
c Around 100 kHz
d Around 260 kHz
325 The base-line between the LORAN C master and slave station is typically
id 7224
a 1200 - 1500 NM
b 50 - 150 NM
c 200 - 400 NM
d 600 - 1000 NM
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 52
326 In a LORAN C system the spacing between lines of position having a 10 msec
id 7225 time difference
a Is most narrow along the base-line
b Is most narrow along the perpendicular to the base-line
c Is most narrow along the base-line extension
d Is widest along the perpendicular to the base-line, equidistant from the master and slave stations
327 In a LORAN C system you will detect a constant time difference when moving
id 7226
a Along the Base line

b Along the Base line extension
c Along any hyperbola
328 In the LORAN C system a single master station may trigger two or more slave
id 7227 stations. The pulses transmitted from each of the slave stations may be identified
by
N
a The identification signal they transmit
O
b The carrier frequency used by each slave station
TI
c The delay in time introduced at each slave station
d The direction of the signal from the slave stations
20 IA
329 All modern LORAN C receivers intended for use in aircraft
id 7228
04 AV
a Call for the user to identify the received Master and Slave station before any positional information is
displayed
b Have a built-in navigation computer, programmed for great circle navigation
c Also have facilities to receive NDBs
41 E
d Presents the aircraft position as bearing and distance from the master or slave stations
89 ON
330 When data are published for an hyperbolic navigation system, they are valid
id 7243
a For all users at ground speeds up to 500 Kt
b For all propagation situations, also when night effect is dominant
80 E
c For a period of up to 5 years

W
d For users at sea level
62.06.04. Decca navigation system

331 What is the normal range of accurate fixing using Decca by day?
id 4743
a 300 NM
b 400 NM
c 100 NM
d 200 NM
332 In which frequency band does the Decca navigation system operate?
id 4744
a MF
b LF
c HF
d VLF
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 53
333 Which of the following statements accurately describes the availability of Decca
id 4745 navigation system coverage?
a It is available throughout the world without restriction
b It is limited to very specific local areas of Europe and the Middle East
c It is limited to Europe and parts of Africa
d It is only available in Europe where it is confined to areas of the North Sea
334 In relation to Decca ground transmitters, hyperbolic position lines are lines on
id 4746 which all points will always have the same:
a phase angle from both signals
b difference in range from both
c range from both
d difference in signal amplitude from both
335 Which of the following statements most correctly describes the Decca navigation
id 4747 system?
N
a It is a medium range (200-300 NM) constant wave hyperbolic navigation system
b It is a short range (100-200 NM) pulsed radar navigation system
O
c It is a long range (over 1000 NM) hyperbolic navigation system
TI
d It is a world wide navigation system based on geostationery satellites
336 DECCA is
id 7229
20 IA
a A long range hyperbolic navigation system, based on measuring the phase difference of carrier waves
04 AV
b Using airborne equipment measuring phase difference between two received carrier waves, and is
operating at Medium frequencies
c Is a low frequency hyperbolic navigation system, being very accurate and based on measuring the
difference in time of arrival of two pulses, one from a master and the other from a slave station.
41 E
d A short range hyperbolic navigation system, operating at Low frequencies

89 ON
62.06.05. Satellite assisted navigation :

337 What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
id 2379 three dimensional fix?
80 E
a 4
b 3
W
c 5
d 6
338 In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained
id 2624 by:
a timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
b the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known
position
c timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and
return from a satellite in a known position
d the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum
number of satellites
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 54
339 In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS)

id 2625 provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
a EHF
b SHF
c UHF
d VHF
340 What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted
id 2629 Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?
a 5
b 4
c 3
d 2
341 Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
id 3052 adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation
N
without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number
O
of satellites is:
a 3
TI
b 5
c 6
20 IA
d 4
342
04 AV
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of
id 3178 the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
a Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock
b Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
41 E
c Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation

89 ON
d Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag

343 Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
id 3185 adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional
80 E
operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any

faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The
W
number of
a 6
b 7
c 4
d 5
344 In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
id 3274
a measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions, in known
positions, to reach the aircraft's receiver
b the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in
known positions
c measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known
positions, and return to the aircraft's receiver
d measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites received in a
specific sequential order
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 55
345 GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals.
id 3328 Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
a L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
b L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
c L1-precise (P)
d L2-selected availability (S/A)
346 Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to
id 3329 determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?
a EUREF 92
b ED 87
c ED 50
d WGS 84
347 Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
id 3330 receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
N
a Latitude, longitude and altitude
b Latitude and longitude
O
c Latitude, longitude and time
TI
d Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
348 Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the
id 4437
20 IA
most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
a GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
04 AV
b NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit

c NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
d NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
41 E
349 The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:

id 4438
89 ON
a 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary
orbital plane
b 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
80 E
c 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane

d 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
W
350 Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites
id 4439 is correct?
a It is greatest at the poles
b It is the same throughout the globe
c It is greatest at the equator
d It varies, depending on the time and observer's location
351 How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC)
id 4440 of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
a 30
b 18
c 12
d 24
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 56
352 Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability
id 4441 (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
a NNSS-Transit
b NAVSTAR/GPS
c COSPAS-SARSAT
d GLONASS
353 The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
id 4442
a determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the
speed of light
b calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
c calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite and the
receiver
d determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of light
354 In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term
N
id 4443 used when a receiver:
a is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best
O
geometric coverage
TI
b is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with
another already being monitored
20 IA
c is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously
d requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes
04 AV
355 The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
id 4444 navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because
the:
a measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code
41 E
b calculated range includes receiver clock error

89 ON
c movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into account
d calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit
356 What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable
id 4445 for use on board an aircraft?
80 E
a Sequential
W
b Multichannel
c Multiplex
d Any hand held type
357 What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an
id 4446 accurate independent 3-D position fix?
a 3
b 5
c 24
d 4
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 57
358 The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:

id 4447
a under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations
b inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselage
c in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines
d on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity
359 In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) is the
id 4448 artificial degradation of the navigation accuracy by:
a shutting off selected satellites
b dithering the satellite clock
c using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing
d offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount
360 How does 'Selective Availability' (SA), if at all, affect the navigation accuracy of the
id 4449 NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
N
a It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation are
selected by the receiver
O
b It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals
c It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing process in the
TI
receiver is quicker
d It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites
20 IA
361 In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
id 4450
04 AV
a is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected

b is corrected by using signals from four satellites
c can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks
41 E
d is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites
89 ON
362 The navigation accuracy for civil users of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
id 4451 system is mainly influenced by:
a clock error inside the receiver
b receiver noise
80 E
c the 'Selective Availability' (SA) function

W
d movement of the receiver during the computation process

363 The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system
id 4452 NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon
b minimised by computing the average of all signals
c minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals
transmitted by the satellites
d negligible
364 Which satellite NAVSTAR/GPS navigation system error(s) are corrected for by the
id 4453 differential (D-GPS) technique?
a Clock; receiver noise
b Clock; Selective Availability (SA)
c Receiver noise
d Ephemeris
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 58
365 Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs
id 4454 from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational
system (INS)?
a The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall accuracy
b The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INS
c The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
d The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy
366 The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
id 5461
a control, space and user segments

b main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas
c antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)
d atomic clock, power supply and transponder
367 One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system
id 5462 NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
N
a manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix (Selective
O
Availability SA)
b manufacture and launch the satellites
TI
c monitor the status of the satellites
d grant and monitor user authorisations
20 IA
368 The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system
04 AV
a select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time
taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver
b transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the satellite
41 E
c to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time
89 ON
d monitor the orbital planes of the satellites

369 One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system
a transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and
80 E
velocity
b transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously
W
c compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position
back to the user segment
d monitor the satellites' orbits and status
370 The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
id 5465 NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
a an ellipsoid
b a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
c a sphere
d a geoid
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 59
371 In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation
id 5466 system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
a height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
b geometric height above ground
c height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
d flight level
372 In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination'
id 5467 denotes the angle between the:
a orbital plane and the equatorial plane
b horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite
c orbital plane and the earth's axis
d horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite
373 How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
id 5468
N
a 12 days
b Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)
O
c Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)
TI
d 365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit
374 At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS
id 5469
20 IA
satellites circling the earth?
a 20200 km
04 AV
b 10900 km
c 36000 km
d 19500 km
41 E
375 The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
id 5470
89 ON
a inclined 55° to the equatorial plane

b inclined 55° to the earth axis
c inclined 90° to the equatorial plane
80 E
d parallel to the equatorial plane

W
376 In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite
id 5471 navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
a EHF
b VHF
c UHF
d SHF
377 In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following
id 5472 statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
a PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetical background noise that exists in space
b PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites
c PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time
taken by the signal to reach the receiver
d PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from different
directions (multipath effect)
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 60
378 Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be
id 5473 processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
a P and Y
b P
c C/A- and P
d C/A
379 Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system
id 5474 NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
a recognition of Selective Availability (SA)
b fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
c assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite
d correction of receiver clock error
380 How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which
id 5475 of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
N
a Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
b The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
O
c The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information
with the calculated positions of the satellites
TI
d Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo
Random Noise code
20 IA
381 Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code,
id 5476 forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS
04 AV
satellites?
a time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix (Selective Availability SA)
b almanac data; satellite status information
41 E
c data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data

89 ON
d time; positions of the satellites

382 In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken
id 5477 to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
a 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
80 E
b 12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)

W
c 12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)

d 24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
383 Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS
id 5478 transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
a C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
b The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
c The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
d The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
384 Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS
id 5479 receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
a Ionospheric
b Multipath
c Tropospheric
d Receiver noise
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 61
385 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the
id 5480 correction of one of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the
transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and L2)?
a The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be reduced due to the interference of both
frequencies
b The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies
c The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of the
carrier frequency squared
d The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency
squared
386 Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of
id 5481 the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
a It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
transmitted by the satellites
b It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the monitoring
stations of the ground segment
N
c It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information
O
d It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations (ground
segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message
TI
387 GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and
id 5590 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or
20 IA
military). Commercial aviation uses:
a only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes
04 AV
b only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code
c only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code
d the two carrier waves and one public code
41 E
388 What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the
id 5773 reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
89 ON
a It may prevent the reception of signals

b It causes multipath propagation
c The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and
80 E
information from unaffected signals

d It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected
W
389 Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most
id 5774 accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
a 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon
b 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each other
together with a fourth directly overhead
c 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizon
d 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 62
390 In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the
id 5775 differential technique (D-GPS)?
a Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver
noise error
b The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by the
receiver to determine an error correction
c Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable
receiver on the aircraft
d Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed distance apart.
This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for multipath errors
391 Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the
id 5776 differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is
correct?
a The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation to a D-
GPS ground station
b The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position
N
fix
c A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix
O
d Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision Approaches'
TI
392 How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine
id 5777 the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
20 IA
a It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
b The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
04 AV
c The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna
d The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation message
393 In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
41 E
id 5778
a continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites
89 ON
b procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data
available
c procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational
80 E
d continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising above the
horizon
W
394 What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the
id 5779 NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not
available?
a The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems
b The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions
c A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are again
available
d The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot monitors the
GPS-System manually
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 63
395 Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS

id 5780 satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor
system?
a Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions
b The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation information
continuously displayed
c The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation systems
d The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational
396 Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR
id 5781 conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position
fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional
navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
a It must be continued under VFR conditions
b It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all systems must be checked
c It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
N
d The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off the faulty
system
O
397 What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
id 5782 approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
TI
a If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise barometric altitude
20 IA
b Barometric altitude
c Radar altitude
04 AV
d GPS altitude
398 Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights
id 5783 under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
system?
41 E
a GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude

89 ON
b The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude

c GPS altitude
d Barometric altitude
399
80 E
The satellites used in the GPS

id 7230
W
a Are geostationary
b Do not cross the plane of the Equator
c All have different planes of orbit
d Orbit the Earth at an altitude of about 20 200 km
400 Using GPS, the primary position information is in the form of

id 7231
a Spheres, with the satellites in the centre of the spheres
b Spheres, with the airplane in the centre of the spheres
c Bearing and distance from the satellite
d 3-dimensional position, with the Earth's centre as reference
CAPT. PARESHNATH
Page 64
401 The GPS satellites will pass positions on the Earth having latitude as high as
id 7232
a 45°
b 55°
c 60°
d 65°
402 Of the types of GPS receivers available for civil aviation, which is the most
id 7233 advanced type?
a The multiplex receiver
b The multiple satellite receiver
c The single channel receiver
d The continuous tracking receiver
403 Current minimum operational standards for the GPS system calls for
id 7234
N
a 3 satellites "visible" at least 7,5° above the horizon
b 4 satellites "visible" above the horizon
O
c 4 satellites "visible" at least 10° above the horizon
TI
d 5 satellites "visible" at least 7,5° above the horizon
404 In the GPS system Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
id 7235
20 IA
a Means that the receiver evaluates the signals from 5 satellites and discards the signals
04 AV
from a satellite exhibiting anomalous pseudo range errors
b Means that the positions from 3 independent receivers are matched and blended to one accurate
position
c Means that the receiver itself selects 3 satellites from the 21 in orbit at any time
41 E
d Includes the operators final selection of the satellites that the receiver presents as suitable
89 ON
405 Differential GPS (DGPS)

id 7236
a Is used to differentiate between the signals from different satellites
b Means to find the difference between a DR position produced by the navigation (between the GPS
80 E
position and the real position) computer and the GPS position
W
c Is used to improve the accuracy of GPS signals within an area, by using data from a
receiver placed in a known position as a correction to the data received in the aircraft from
the satellites
d Means to use the GPS receiver while in a known position, and register the difference
CAPT. PARESHNATH

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62. RADIO NAVIGATION

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 1 of 64

62.01. RADIO AIDS

a It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 2 of 64

7 VDF for aeronautical use provides service in the frequency band

8 In the VDF system directional antennas are used

12 Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels, caused by

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 3 of 64

b inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

18 An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of

d a wind from the west

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 4 of 64

a 255 - 455 kHz

d 200 - 2000 kHz

25 In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

c mode selector should be switched to 'loop'

d BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 5 of 64

29 The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

a find the loop 'null' position

32 A loop aerial, as used in the ADF, will

angles to the direction of the transmitter

a A cardoid polar diagram, having only one null or minimum

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 6 of 64

35 Some ADFs have a bandwidth control. Consider the following statements:

a The Relative Bearing Indicator

a Calls for an assessment of the drift

d Will result in passing the NDB along the planned track

40 When using ADF, the sky-wave (night) effect

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 7 of 64

62.01.03. VOR and Doppler-VOR

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 8 of 64

48 Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

49 Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

52 An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 9 of 64

54 An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The

d Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown

58 The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 10 of 64

id 2638 from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:

67 An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 11 of 64

68 An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT

d 108 to 135.95 MHz

id 3259 station will be :

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 12 of 64

d Always have a frequency difference of 30 Hz

79 The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR

the CDI needle

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 13 of 64

81 In order to establish what radial you are on, you could

a That no signal is received

towards the VOR station being received

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 14 of 64

a 962 to 1213 MHz

d 962 to 1213 kHz.

62.01. RADIO AIDS 2002/12/22 Page 15 of 64