8.

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis

1. Distichiasis is: occurring with the onset of hot weather
a. Misdirected eyelashes in young boys with symptoms of
b. Accessory row of eyelashes burning, itching, and lacrimation with
c. Downward drooping of upper lid large flat topped cobble stone papillae
d. Outward protrusion of lower lid raised areas in the palpebral
conjunctiva is:
2. Band shaped keratopathy is commonly A. Trachoma
caused by deposition of: B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
a. Magnesium salt C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
b. Calcium salt D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
c. Ferrous salt
d. Copper salt 9. Which of the following organism can
penetrate intact corneal epithelium?
3. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal A. Strept pyogenes
ulcer, the drug always indicated is: B. Staph aureus
a. Corticosteroids C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea
b. Cycloplegics D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c. Antibiotics
d. Antifungals 10. A 12 years old boy receiving long term
treatment for spring catarrh, developed
4. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration defective vision in both eyes. The likely
of iris is known as: cause is;
a. Leucoma adherence a. Posterior subcapsular cataract
b. Dense leucoma b. Retinopathy of prematurity
c. Ciliary staphyloma c. Optic neuritis
d. Iris bombe d. Vitreous hemorrhage

5. The treatment of photophthalmia is: 11. A young child suffering from fever and
a. Atropine sore throat began to complain of
b. Steroids lacrimation. On examination, follicles were
c. Topical antibiotics found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva
d. Patching and reassurance with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The
most probable diagnosis is:
6. Corneal sensations are diminished in: a. Trachoma
a. Herpes simplex b. Staphylococal conjunctivitis
b. Conjunctivitis c. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
c. Fungal infections d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
d. Marginal keratitis
12. Bandage of the eye is contraindicated
7. The color of fluorescein staining in in:
corneal ulcer is: a. Corneal abrasion
a. Yellow b. Bacterial corneal ulcer
b. Blue c. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
c. Green d. After glaucoma surgery
d. Royal blue
13. Ten years old boy complains of itching.
On examination, there are mucoid nodules
with smooth rounded surface on the b. Herbert's pits
limbus, and mucous white ropy c. Post-trachomatous concretions
mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He d. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral
most probably suffers from: conjunctiva
a. Trachoma
b. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis 20. A female patient 18 years old, who is
c. Bulbar spring catarrh contact lens wearer since two years, is
d. Purulent conjunctivitis complaining of redness, lacrimation and
foreign body sensation of both eyes. On
14. In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with
characteristically there is negative fluorescein test. The expected
usually: diagnosis can be:
a. Copious purulent discharge a. Acute anterior uveitis
b. Copious muco-purulent discharge b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis
c. Excessive watery lacrimation c. Bacterial corneal ulcer
d. Mucoid ropy white discharge d. Acute congestive glaucoma

15. Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in: 21. Fifth nerve palsy could cause:
a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis a. Ptosis
b. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis b. Proptosis
c. Active trachoma c. Neuropathic keratopathy
d. Spring catarrh d. Lagophthalmos

16. A patient complains of maceration of

skin of the lids and conjunctiva redness at 22. Topical steroids are contraindicated
the inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear
swab is expected to show: of:
a. Slaphylococcus aureus a. Secondary glaucoma
b. Streptococcus viridans b. Cortical cataract
c. Streptococcus pneumonae c. Corneal perforation
d. Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli d. Secondary viral infection

17. Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of: 23. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal
a. Active trachoma ulcer is
b. Bulbar spring catarrh a. Ciliary injection
c. Corneal phlycten b. Blepharospasm
d. vitamin A deficiency. c. Miosis
d. Positive fluorescein test
18. A painful, tender, non itchy localized
redness of the conjunctiva can be due to: 24. The effective treatment of dendritic
a. Bulbar spring catarrh ulcer of the cornea is:
b. Episcleritis a. Surface anesthesia
c. Vascular pterygium b. Local corticosteroids
d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis c. Systemic corticosteroids
d. Acyclovir ointment
19. In trachoma the patient is infectious
when there is: 25. Herpes simplex keratitis is
a. Arlt's line characterized by:
a. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber B. Lamellar keratoplasty
b. No tendency to recurrence C. Keratectomy
c. Corneal hyposthesia D. Penetrating keratoplasty
d. Tendency to perforation
33. Dendritic ulcer causing virus:
26. Bacteria, which can attack normal a. Herpes simplex
corneal epithelium: b. Herpes zoster
a. Neisseria gonorrhea c. Cytomegalovirus
b. Staphylococcal epidermidis d. Adenovirus
c. Moraxella lacunata
d. Staphylococcal aureus 34. Treatment of choice in angular
conjunctivitis is:
27. Advanced keratoconus is least to be a. Penicillin
corrected when treated by: b. Dexamethasone
a. Hard contact Lens c. Sulphacetamide
b. Rigid gas permeable contact Lens d. Zinc oxide
c. Spectacles
d. Keratoplasty 35. Herbert's pits are seen in:
a. Trachoma
28. Tranta nodules are seen in: b. Herpetic conjunctivitis
a. Blepharoconjuctivitis c. Ophthalmia neonatorum
b. Vernal conjunctivitis d. Spring catarrh
c. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
d. Herpetic keratitis 36. Hordeolum externum is a suppurative
inflammation of:
29. Organisms causing angular a. Zeis' gland
conjunctivitis are: b. Meibomian gland
a. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli c. Moll's gland
b. Pneumococci d. Gland of Krause
c. Gonococci
d. Adenovirus 37. Intense itching is the most common
symptom of:
30. Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory a. Trachoma
granuloma of b. Blephritis
a. Meibomian gland c. Phlyctenular conjuctivitis
b. Zies’s gland d. Spring catarrh
c. Sweat gland
d. Wolfring’s gland 38. Treatment of phlyctenular
conjunctivitis is:
31. Ophthalmia neonatorum is prevented a. Systemic Anti-TB drugs
by: b. Systemic steroids
a. 1% Silver nitrate c. Topical acyclovir
b. Penicillin drops d. Topical steroids
c. Normal saline drops
d. Frequent eye washes 39. Blood vessels in a trachomatous
pannus lie:
32. Deep leucoma is best treated by: a. Beneath the Descemet's membrane
A. Tattooing b. In the substantia propria
c. Between Bowman's membrane & 46. In which of the following conditions,
substantia propria severe itching of the eye with ropy
d. Between Bowman's membrane & discharge in a 1 0 years old boy with
Epithelium symptoms aggravating in summer season
is most likely present:
40. Dendritic ulcer is due to: a. Trachoma
a. Herpes simplex b. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
b. Fungal infection c. Acute conjunctivitis
c. Syphilis d. Blepharitis
d. Phlycten
47. Epidemic conjunctivitis is caused by:
41. Ptosis in Horner's syndrome, is due to a. Adenovirus
paralysis of: b. Herpes virus
a. Riolan's muscle c. EB virus
b. Horner's muscle d. Papilloma virus
c. Muller's muscle
d. The levator palpebral muscle 48. Severe congenital ptosis with no
levator function can be treated by:
42. The dendritic corneal ulcer is typical of: a. Levator resection from skin side
a. Varicella-Zoster infection b. Levator resection from conjunctival side
b. Herpes simplex infection c. Fascia lata sling operation
c. Pseudomonas infection d. Fasanella servat operation
d. Aspergillus infection
49. The commonest cause of hypopyon
43. In vernal catarrh, the characteristic corneal ulcer is:
cells are: a. Moraxella
a. Macrophage b. Gonococcus
b. Eosinophils c. Pneumococcus
c. Neutrophils d. Staphylococcus
d. Epitheloid cells
50. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal
44. Cobblestone appearance of conjunctiva ulcer, the drug always indicated is:
is seen with: a. Corticosteroid
a. Trachoma b. Atropine
b. Spring catarrh c. Antibiotics
c. Purulent conjunctivitis d. Antifungal
d. Angular conjunctivitis
51. Fleischer ring is found in:
45. On removing yellow crusts on the lid a. Keratoconus
margin, small ulcers bleed. What is the b. Chalcosis
most probable diagnosis? c. Argyrosis
a. Squamous blepharitis d. Buphthalmos
b. Ulcerative blepharitis
c. Parasitic blepharitis

d. Hordeolum internum
52. In case of central dense leucoma 5 mm,
treatment of choice is: 59. Corneal ulceration is caused by injury to
a. Penetrating keratoplasty the —— cranial nerve
b. Glasses a. Third
c. Tattooing b. Fifth
d. Enucleation c. Sixth
d. Fourth
53. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration
of iris known as: 60. Dendritic ulcer is due to:
a. Leucoma adherent a. Herpes simplex
b. Leucoma non adherent b. Fungal infection
c. Ciliary staphyloma c. Syphilis
d. Iris Bombe d. Phlycten
e. Occlusion pupillae
61. Herpetic corneal ulcer is diagnosed by:
54. Adhesion of iris margin anteriorly is a. Geimsa stain
known as: b. EL1SA
a. Intercalary staphyloma c. Cell culture/PCR
b. Anterior synychia d. Rose Bengal stain
c. Posterior staphyloma
d. Iris Bombe 62. Most common viral infection of the
cornea is:
55. Intercalary staphyloma is a type of: a. Herpes simplex
a. Equatorial staphyloma b. Herpes zoster
b. Posterior staphyloma c. Adenovirus
c. Scleral staphyloma d. Molluscum contagiosum
d. Anterior staphyloma
63. A 30 years old male presents with a
56. Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5
derived from: days ago and pain, photophobia and
a. Trochlear nerve redness of the eye for 2 days. What would
b. Optic nerve be the most likely pathology?
c. Trigeminal nerve a. Anterior uveitis
d. Oculomotor nerve b. Conjunctivitis
c. Fungal corneal ulcer
57. The clinical features of symblepharon d. Corneal laceration
include
A. ectropion 64. Lagophthalmos occurs as a result of
B. lagophthalmos paralysis of:
C. chalazion a. 6th cranial nerve
D. Xanthelasma b. 5th cranial nerve
c. Levator palpebrae-superioris
58. Most of the thickness of cornea is d. 7th cranial nerve
formed by:
a. Epithelial layer 65. Hordeolum externum is inflammation
b. Substantia propria of:
c. Descemet's membrane a. Zeis gland
d. Endothelium b. Tarsus
c. Meibomian gland b. Excision of all the inner contents of the
d. Lacrimal gland eyeball including the uveal tissue
c. Photocoagulation of the retina
66. Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in: d. Removal of orbit contents
a. Facial palsy
b. Peripheral neuritis 73. The most important symptom
c. Oculomotor palsy differentiating orbital cellulitis from
d. Sympathetic palsy panophthalmitis is:
a. Vision
67. Commonest cause of posterior b. Pain
staphyloma is: c. Redness
a. Glaucoma d. Swelling
b.Retinal detachment
c. Iridocyclitis 74. A patient complains of severe ocular
d. High myopia pain in the right eye and headache. The
patient is drowsy, feverish with right
68. In DCR, the opening is made at: proptosis, lid and conjunctival edema,
a. Superior meatus mastoid edema and bilateral papilledema.
b. Middle meatus The diagnosis is:
c. Inferior meatus a. Endophthalmitis
d. Orbit b. Panophthalmitis
c. Orbital cellulitis
69. Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing: d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
a. Dry eye
b. Infective keratitis 75. The commonest cause of bilateral
c. Watering eyes proptosis is:
d. Horner’s syndrome a. Orbital cellulitis.
b. Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy.
70. 3 months old infant with watering c. Orbital emphysema.
lacrimal sac on pressing causes d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis,
regurgitation of mucopus material.
What is the appropriate treatment? 76. The most common cause of unilateral
a. Dacryocystorhinostomy proptosis in adult is;
b. Probing a. lacrimal gland tumours
c. Probing with syringing b. orbital cellulitis
d. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 c. panophthalmitis
months d. thyroid diseases

71. Most common cause of adult unilateral 77. The commonest cause of bilateral
proptosis proptosis is:
a. Thyroid orbitopathy a. Orbital cellulitis
b. Metastasis b. Dysthyroid ophthalmology
c. Lymphoma c. Orbital emphysema
d. Meningioma d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

72. Evisceration is: 78. The commonest cause of unilateral

a. Excision of the entire eyeball exophthalmos is:
a. Thyroid eye disease
b. Lacrimal gland tumour 85. The most diagnostic sign of anterior
c. Orbital cellulitis uveitis is:
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis a. Ciliary injection
b. Keratic precipitates
79. One of the earliest features of anterior c. Constriction of pupil
uveitis includes: d. Raised intra-ocular tension
a. Keratic precipitates
b. Hypopyon 86. The earliest feature of anterior uveitis
c. Posterior synechiae includes:
d. Aqueous flare a. Keratic precipitates
b. Hypopyon
80. Cylindrical lenses are used in: c. Posterior synechiae
a. Astigmatism d. Aqueous flare
b. Myopia
c. Hypermetropia 87. Drug of choice for Acute Iridocylitis is
d. Presbyopia a. Acetazolamide
b. Atropine
81. Koeppe’s nodules are found in: c. Antibiotics
a. Cornea d. Aspirin
b. Sclera
c. Iris 88. Atropine sulphate 1% drop or ointment
d. Conjunctiva must be used in:
a. Acute conjunctivitis
82. Aqueous humour is formed by: b. Chronic conjunctivitis
a. Epithelium of ciliary body c. Iritis
b. Posterior surface of iris d. Acute congestive glaucoma
c. Lens
d. Pars plana 89. Which laser is used for capsulotomy?
a. Diode laser
83. Aqueous humor is secreted by: b. Carbon dioxide laser
a. Circulus iridis minor c. Excimer laser
b. Ciliary muscle d. Yag laser
c. Ciliary processes
d. Iris crypts 90. Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:
a. Fistulizing operation
84. A middle aged female with recurrent b. Cataract extraction
joint pain gave past history of recurrent c. Cyclo-destructive procedure
attacks of pain, redness and dropped d. Miotics and Beta blockers
vision in one eye.
Recently she complained of similar attack. 91. Lens induced glaucoma least occur in:
The most important diagnostic sign of a. Intumescent cataract.
activity is: b. Anterior lens dislocation,
a. Festooned pupil c. Posterior subcapsular cataract
b. Aqueous flare and cells d. Posterior lens dislocation
c. Pigmented KPs
d. Patches of iris atrophy 92. After 48 hours of a cataract extraction
operation, a patient complained of ocular
pain and visual loss. On examination, this
eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal b. Yag laser iridotomy
oedema and absent red reflex. The first c. Trabeculotomy
suspicion must be: d. Trabeculectomy
a. Secondary glaucoma.
b. Anterior uveitis. 99. Topical atropine is contraindicated in:
c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. a. Retinoscopy in children
d. Acute conjunctivitis b. Iridocyclitis
c. Corneal ulcer
93. Treatment of choice in Aphakia is: d. Primary angle closure glaucoma
a. Spectacles
b. Contact lens 100. The following type of glaucoma is
c. Anterior chamber intraocular lens improved with mydriatics:
d. Posterior chamber intraocular lens a. Primary open angle glaucoma
b. Infantile glaucoma
94. Best site where intraocular lens is c. Phacolytic glaucoma
fitted: d. Pupillary block glaucoma
a. Capsular ligament 101. A newly born, presented with big hazy
b. Endosulcus cornea and photophobia. His management
c. Ciliary supported begins with:
d. Capsular bag a. Electrophysiological study of the retina,
b. Syringing of naso-lacrimal duct.
95. Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs c. Fluorescein stain to the cornea.
with: d. Measuring his ocular tension.
a. Phacoemulsification
b. Intracapsular cataract extraction plus 102. Total unilateral blindness (no PL) is a
intraocular lens feature of:
c. Extracapsular cataract extraction plus a. Corneal ulcer
intraocular lens b. Mature senile cataract
d. Intracapsualr cataract extraction alone c. Absolute glaucoma
or laser d. Macular degeneration

96. Pneumato-tonometer is a type of: 103. When visual deterioration in a

a. Goniolens glaucomatous patient reaches no PL the
b. Tonometer diagnosis is:
c. Perimeter a. Acute congestive glaucoma
d. Tonography b. Chronic congestive glaucoma
c. Chrome open angle glaucoma
97. When there is intumescene of the lens d. Absolute glaucoma
causing glaucoma?
a. Trephining should be done 104. In acute angle closure glaucoma the
b. Paracentesis is indicated pupil is:
c. Lens should be extracted a. Rounded, irreactive and dilated
d. Glaucoma should be treated medically b. Pin point constricted
only c. Vertically oval dilated
d. Normal sized, reactive
98. The treatment of choice for the other
eye in angle closure glaucoma is: 105. Which of the following conditions need
a. Surgical peripheral iridectomy immediate hospitalization?
a. Central retinal vein occlusion 112. Regarding buphthalmos, which is
b. Open angle glaucoma correct
c. Denderitic ulcer A. shallow anterior chamber
d. Acute angle closure glaucoma B. bilateral
C. trabeculectomy is the treatment of
106. In case of buphthalmos we usually find: choice
a. shallow anterior chamber D. small corneal diameter (less than 10mm)
b. Large Hazy cornea > 13mm.
c. Leukocoria 113. In early glaucomatous cupping, disc is:
d. Occlusio pupille a. Round
b. Oval vertically
107. 100 days glaucoma is seen in: c. Oval horizontally
a. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Pinpoint
b. Central retinal vein occlusion
c. Neovascular glaucoma 114. In a patient with acute glaucoma
d. Steroid induced glaucoma the prophylactic treatment for other
eye is:
108. Neovascular glaucoma follows: a. Peripheral iridotomy
a. Thrombosis of central retinal vein b. Schele's operation
b. Acute congestive glaucoma c. Anterior sclerotomy
c. Staphylococcal infection d. Iridenclesisis
d. Hypertension
115. You have been referred a case of open
109.A one-month old baby is brought with angle glaucoma. Which of the following
complaints of photophobia and watering. would be an important point in diagnosing
Clinical examination shows normal tear the case?
passages and clear but large cornea. The a. Shallow anterior chamber
most likely diagnosis is: b. Optic disc cupping
a. Congenital dacryocystitis c. Narrow angle
b. tial keratitis d. visual acuity and refractive error
c. Keratoconus
d. Buphthalmos 116. Which one of the following drugs is
contraindicated in the treatment of primary
110. Neovascular glaucoma can be best glaucoma?
treated by: a. Pilocarpine
A. trabeculectomy b. Homatropine
B. pilocarpine c. Acetazolamide
C. panphotocoagulation of retina d. Timolol
D. timolol maleate
117. Number of layers in neurosensory
111. Treatment of choice for fellow eye in retina is:
angle closure glaucoma is: a. 9
a. Timolol b. 10
b. Pilocarpine c. 11
c. Yag Laser iridotomy d. 12
d. Surgical iridectomy
118. In retinal detachment, fluid
accumulates between:
a. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear a. Color perception
layer. b. Confrontation test
b. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal c. Light projection
pigment epithelium d, Light perception
c. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.
d. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s 125. Night blindness is caused by:
membrane. a. Central retinal vein occlusion
b. Dystrophies of retinal rods
119. 100 days glaucoma is seen in: c. Dystrophies of the retinal cones
a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion d. Retinal detachment
b. Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion
c. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion 126. A patient of old standing diabetes
d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes.
On examination, the red reflex was dim,
120. A young patient with sudden painless with no details of fundus could be seen. He
loss of vision, with systolic murmur and might have:
ocular examination reveals a cherry red a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: b. Cystoid macular edema
a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion c. Vitreous hemorrhage
b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion d. Central retinal vein occlusion
c. Diabetes Mellitus
d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion 127. Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of
the central retinal artery results in one of
121. Retinitis pigmentosa most commonly the following field defects:
presents as: a. Lower nasal sector field defect
a. Night blindness b. Upper nasal sector field defect
b. Diplopia c. Upper temporal field defect
c. Scotoma d. Lower temporal sector field defect
d. Bitemporal hemianopia
128. Which of the following is true of
122. In Central retinal artery occlusion, a Diabetic retinopathy?
cherry red spot is due to: a. Always associated with hypertension
a. Hemorrhage at macula b. Seen only in uncontrolled diabetes
b. Increased choroidal perfusion c. Incidence increases with duration of
c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula disease
d. The contrast between pale retina and d. Determines prognosis of the disease
reddish choroids
129. Commotio retinae is seen in:
123. The most common primary intraocular a. Concussion injury
malignancy in adults is: b. Papilloedema
a. Retinoblastoma c. Central retinal vein thrombosis
b. Choroidal melanoma d. Central retinal artery thrombosis
c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
d. Iris nevus 130. Cherry red macula is seen in:
a. Acute Congestive glaucoma
124. Which of the following is ideal for b. Uveitis
evaluating macular functions in a patient c. Central retinal artery occlusion
whose vision is only hand movement (HM)? d. Central retinal vein occlusion
 Fundus examination showed blurred edges
131. Retinal change specific in proliferative of the left optic disc. The most probable
diabetic retinopathy is: diagnosis is:
a. Microaneurysm a. Raised intra cranial pressure
b. Soft cotton wool exudates b. Raised ocular tension
c. A-V shunt c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Neovascularization d. Optic neuritis

132. Commonest lesion which hinders vision 138. The type of optic atrophy that
in diabetic retinopathy is: following optic neuritis is:
a. Macular oedema a. Secondary optic atrophy
b. Microaneurysm b. Consecutive optic atrophy
c. Retinal hemorrhage c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
d. Retinal detachment d. Primary optic atrophy

133. Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in: 139. Injury to optic tract produces:
a. Papilloedema a. Homonymous hemianopia
b. Retinoblastoma b. Bitemporal hemianopia
c. Papillitis c. Binasal hemianopia
d. Retinitis d. Sparing of macular vision

134. Primary optic atrophy results from: 140. Blurring of disc margin is found in:
a. Retinal disease a. Papillitis
b. Chronic glaucoma b. Retrobulbar neuritis
c. Papilledema c. Tobacco amblyopia
d. Neurological disease d. Optic nerve atrophy

135. Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is 141. In optic neuritis the best investigation
characterized by: to be done include:
a. Marked swelling of the optic disc. a. Perimetry
b. Impaired direct light reflex in the b. Keratoscopy
affected eye c. Ophthalmoscopy
c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the d. Ophthalmodynamometry
affected eye
d. Normal visual acuity 142. Elevation of the disc margin is seen in:
a. Optic atrophy
136. The type of optic atrophy that follows b. Retrobulbar neuritis
retro-bulbar neuritis is: c. Papilloedema
a. Secondary optic atrophy d. Tobacco amblyopia
b. Consecutive optic atrophy
c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy 143. Optic disc diameter is:
d. Primary optic atrophy a. 1 mm
b. 1.5 mm
137. A male patient 30 years old with visual c. 2 mm
acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago d. 3 mm
he presented with drop of vision of the left
eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 144. Optic nerve function is best studied by:
in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. a. Ophthalmoscope
b. Retinoscope d. Outward and down
c. Perimetry
d. Gonioscopy 151. A patient 60 year old, diabetic for 20
years. He suffered acutely of drooping of
145. A 25 years old lady suddenly develops the right eyelid. On manual elevation of the
unilateral loss of vision decreasing from 6/6 lid he sees double vision. What is your
to 4/60 with ill-sustained reaction of the diagnosis?
pupil. She complains of slight headache and
some pain in the orbit when looking a. Diabetic sixth nerve palsy
upward. The most likely diagnosis is: b. Oculomotor nerve palsy
a. Acute frontal sinusitis c. Trochlear nerve palsy
b. Acute iritis d. Abducent nerve palsy
c. Retrobulbar neuritis
d. Acute congestive glaucoma 152. An area of reduced or absent vision
within an intact visual field is
146. Enlargement of blind spot is a sign of: called:
a. Avulsion of Optic nerve a. Scotoma
b. Papillitis b. Homonymous hemianopia
c. Papilledema c. Heteronymous hemianopia
d. Retinal detachment d. Altitudinal hemianopia

147. Homonymous hemianopia is due to 153. Which of the following pupils is

lesion at: dilated?
a. Optic tract a. Pupil in Horner's syndrome
b. Optic nerve b. Datora poisoning
c. Optic chiasma c. Argyl Robertson pupil
d. Retina d. Pupil in open angle glaucoma, with a
C/D of 0.3.
148. Optic nerve axon
emerges from: 154. D-shaped pupil occurs in:
a. Ganglion cells a. Iridocyclitis
b. Rods and cones b. Iridodenesis
c. Amacrine cells c. Cyclodialsis
d. Inner nuclear layer d. Iridodialysis

149. Homonymous hemianopia is the result 155. The action of superior rectus is:
of a lesion in: a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction
a. Optic chiasma b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction
b. Retina c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
c. optic tract d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
d. Optic nerve
156. The action of inferior oblique is:
150. In complete third nerve paralysis the a. Depression, extorsion, abduction
direction of the affected eye in the primary b. Depression, extorsion, adduction
position is: c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
a. Inward d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction
b. Outward
c. Outward and up 157. The best treatment for amblyopia is:
a. Orthoptic exercises d. Pseudophakia
b. occlusion
c. Surgery 165. Fleischer ring is found in:
d. Best treat after age 10 years a. Keratoconus
b. Chalcosis
158. Chronic use of steroids may lead to: c. Argyrosis
a. Iris atrophy d. Buphthalmos
b. Glaucoma
c. Corneal opacity 166. Intercalary staphyloma occurs at:
d. Retinopathy a. Area extending up to 8 mm from limbus
b. Limbus
159. Sudden loss of unilateral vision and c. Posterior pole of eye
pain on movement is seen in: d. Region of sclera which are perforated by
a. Diabetes mellitus vortex vein
b. Retrobulbar neuritis
c. Hypertension 167. Blow out fracture of orbit commonly
d. IIIrd nerve palsy produces:
a. Deviation of septum
160. The commonest intra-ocular tumour in b. Retinal haemorrhage
children is: c. Fracture of nasal bones
a. Malignant melanoma d. Fracture of floor of orbit
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Teratoid medulloepithelioma 168. A one-month old baby is brought with
d. Diktyoma complaints of photophobia and watering.
Clinical examination shows normal tear
161. Hyphema is blood in the: passages and clear but large cornea. The
a. Ant. Chamber most likely diagnosis is:
b. Post. Chamber a. Congenital dacryocystitis
c. Cornea b. Interstitial keratitis
d. Conjunctiva c. Keratoconus
d. Buphthalmos
162. Herbert’s pits are seen on the:
a. Lid margin 169. Blindness in Vitamin A deficiency is due
b. Palpebral conjunctiva to:
c. Arlt's line a. Corneal involvement
d. Limbus b. Retinopathy
c. Conjunctival scarring
163. Most important complication of d. Uveitis
traumatic hyphema is:
a. Iridocyclitis 170. Flashing of light is an earliest sign of:
b. Iridodialysis a. Cataract
c. Blood staining of cornea b. Glaucoma
d. Siderosis bulb c. Retinal detachment
d. Corneal opacity
164. Shallow anterior chamber is seen in:
a. High myopia 171. In non proliferative diabetic
b. Aphakia retinopathy, most common cause of
c. High hypermetropia blindness:
a. Subretinal hemorrhage a. Staphylococcus
b. Macular edema b. N. Gonorrhea
c. Retinal detachment c. N. Meningitides
d. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Streptococcus

172. Fixed dilated pupil is seen in: 179. In accommodative esotropia:

a. Oculomotor palsy a. Usually associated with amblyopia
b. Trochlear palsy b. High myopia is usually present.
c. Abducent palsy c. Astigmantism is usually present.
d. Facial palsy d. Due to excessive accommodation.

173. Arlt's line is seen in: 180. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration
a. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis of iris is known as:
b.Keratoconus a. Leucoma non adherent
c. Ocular pemphigoid b. Iris bombe
d. Trachoma c. Symbleparon
d. Leucoma adherent
174. A two months old child presents with
epiphora and regurgitation. The most 181. Corneal sensations are lost in:
probable diagnosis: a. Conjunctivitis
a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis b. Marginal keratitis
b. Buphthalmos c. Herpetic keratitis
c. Congenital dacryocystitis d. Fungal keratitis
d. Encysted mucocele
182. The colour of flourescein staining in
175. Posterior staphyloma is associated corneal ulcer is;
with: a. Yellow
a. Pathological myopia b. Blue
b. Retinoblastoma c. Green
c. Acid injury d. Royal blue
d. Sympathetic ophthalmia
183.Arlt's line is present in:
176. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is caused a. Upper palpebral conjunctiva
by: b. Lower palpebral conjunctiva
a. Hypersensitivity to exogenous antigen c. Bulbar conjunctiva
b. Mechanical injury d. Limbus
c. Hypersensitivity to endogenous antigen
d. Extended wear contact lenses 184. The most common complication of
lagophthalmos is:
177. Iridodialysis is: a. Purulent conjunctivitis
a. Iris is broken from ciliary body b. Exposure keratitis
b. Hole in iris c. Entropion
c. Tremulousness of iris d. Trichiasis
d. Change of iris colour
185. Main muscle responsible for lid
178. Which of the following pathogens can elevation:
produce corneal infections in the presence a. muller's muscle
of an intact epithelium b. Superior rectus muscle
c. Superior oblique muscle a. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
d. Levator palpebrae superioris muscle b. Central retinal artery occlusion
c. Exudative retinal detachment
186. Fundus changes in background diabetic d. Tractional retinal detachment
retinopathy include:
a. Cotton wool spots 192. Consecutive optic atrophy is secondary
b. Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities to
(IRMAs) a. papilloedema
c. Neovessels in the retina b. papillitis
d. Microaneurysms c. diseases of retina and choroid
d. glaucoma

187. Treatment of choice for angular 193. Chronic dacryocystitis increases the
conjunctivitis is: risk of:
a. Vaso constrictors a. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
b. Zinc preparations b. Vernal conjunctivitis
c. Large doses of Vitamin A c. Pneumococcal corneal ulcer
d. Antiviral drugs d. Dendritic corneal ulcer

188. Patient 60 year old, diabetic for 20 194. Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in:
years. He suffered acutely of dropping of a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
the right eyelid. On manual elevation of the b. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
lid he sees double vision. What is your c. Active trachoma
diagnosis? d. Spring catarrh
a. Trigeminal nerve neuropathy
b. Trochlear nerve palsy 195. In acute angle closure glaucoma the
c. Abducent nerve palsy pupil is :
d. Oculomotor nerve palsy a. rounded, irreactive and dilated
b. Pin point constricted
189. Pupillary nerve fibers pass through the c. Vertically oval, dilated, irreactive
optic tract to: d. Normal sized, reactive
a. The optic chiasma
b. The optic radiation 196. Patient received a tennis ball hit to his
c. The lateral genicualte body eye which used to have 6/6 vision. External
d. The pretectal nuclei eye examination showed no abnormalities
vision is H.M. and red reflex is normal.
190. Systemic hypertension can predispose Possible diagnosis is:
to the following ocular problem: a. comotio retinae
a. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment b. traumatic cataract
b. Muscca volitans c. vitreous hemorrhage
c. Retinal vein occlusion d. secondary glaucoma
d. Retinal vasculitis
197. The commonest cause of diminution of
191. Pregnant lady at 27 week gestation vision in a school-aged child is:
developed marked elevation of her blood a) Soft cataract
pressure and proteinuria then developed b) Infantile glaucoma
marked diminution of vision. It is mostly c) Errors of refraction
due to: d) Corneal dystrophy
 a. One meridian is myopic and the other is
198. Cobble stone papillae are emmetropic
pathognomonic of b. Both meridian are myopic
a. trachoma c. One meridian is hypermetropic and the
b. Inclusion conjunctivitis other emmetropic
c. Vernal conjunctivitis d. Both meridian are hypermetropic
d. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
205. Ptosis in Horner's syndrome, is due to
199. A scan biometry is used to calculate paralysis of:
the power of the intraocular lens by a. Riolan's muscle
measuring: b. Horner's muscle
a. Corneal curvature c. Muller's muscle
b. Refractive index d. The levator palpebral muscle
c. Depth of the anterior
chamber 206. Blow out fracture Most commonly
d. Axial length of the eye affect
a. The inferior wall of the orbit
200. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal b. The medial wall of the orbit
ulcer c. The lateral wall of the orbit
a. Ciliary injection d. The roof of the orbit
b.
Blepharo 207. Vossius ring is iris pigments deposited
spasm on
c. Miosis a. Posterior surface of the cornea
d. positive b. Anterior surface of the lens
fluorescein test c. Posterior surface of the lens
d. Anterior surface of the cornea
201. Early stages of papilledema
cause: 208. The sure sign of scleral rupture is
a. arcuate scotoma a. Shallow anterior chamber
b. Enlargement of the b. Decreased visual acuity
blind spot c. Prolapsed intraocular contents
c. ring- shaped scotoma d. Hypotony
d. Siedle scotoma
209. A male patient was complaining of
202. Small pupils are seen in: continuous redness of both eyes, foreign
a. Argyll Robertson pupil body sensation, and frequent loss of lashes.
b. Final stage of Hutchinson’s pupil On examination, the lid margins were
c. IIIrd nerve palsy hyperemic, and the lashes were matted
d. Mydriatic drops instillation with yellow crusts, which left painful ulcers
on trying to remove. The most reliable
203. Temporal crescent is seen typically in diagnosis is :
a. Astigmatism a. Squamous blepharitis
b. Hypermetropia b. Cicatricial entopion
c. Myopia c. Spastic entropion
d. Squint d. Ulcerative blepharitis

204. Simple myopic astigmatism means

210. Ciliary congestion is most marked at a. Binocular movements in the same
the direction.
a. Sclera b. Binocular movements in the opposite
b. Fornix direction
c. Bulbar conjunctiva c. Controlled by shirrington's low
d. Limbus d. Controlled by oculomotor nuclei
e. Iris
217. Contraindication to Cataract surgery:
211. Bandage of the eye is contraindicated a. Corneal nebula
in: b. Herbert's pits
a. Corneal abrasion c. Arcus senilis
b. Bacterial corneal ulcer d. Chronic dacryocystitis
c. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
d. After glaucoma surgery 218. Rubeosis iridis is seen in:
a. Central retinal artery occlusion
212. Superior oblique muscle is supplied b. Central retinal vein occlusion
by:- c. Acute iridocyclitis
a. Oculomtor nerve d. Corneal ulcer
b. Abducens nerve
c. Trochlear nerve 219. Diminished vision in daylight is seen in:
d. Fascial nerve a. Central cataract
b. Peripheral cataract
213. A patient with recent rhegmatogenous c. Peripheral retinal degenerations
retinal detachment is presented with: d. Retinitis pigmentosa
a. Photophobia
b. Amaurosis fugax 220. One of the following signs disappear
c. Photopsia with medical treatment:
d. Neuralgic pain a. Pannus siccus
b. Tranta's spots
214. The most characteristic in prodromal c. Arlt's line
stage of acute congestive glaucoma: d. Arcus senilis
a. Coloured haloes
b. Marked ciliary injection 221. A 3 year old child presents with a
c. Persistent elevation of intraocular convergent squint dating for one year. The
pressure first step management is:
d. Profuse lacrimation a. Proper refraction
b. Surgical correction
215. Ten years old boy complains of itching. c. Training on the synoptophore
On examination, there are mucoid nodules d. Prism prescription
with smooth rounded surface on the
limbus, and mucous white ropy discharge. 222. The primary treatment of
He most probably suffers from: dacryocystitis in infant, should be:
a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis a. Syringing
b. Bulbar spring catarrh b. Antibiotics and massage
c. Purulent conjunctivitis c. Dacryocystectomy
d. Viral conjunctivitis d. Dacryocystorhinostomy

216. Version movements are: 223. Fifth nerve palsy could cause:
a. Ptosis C. Spastic entropion.
b. Proptosis D. Ulcerative blepharitis.
c. Neurotrophic Keratitis
d. Lagophthalmos 230. Best position for intraocular lens is:
A. In the anterior chamber
224. The earliest feature of anterior uveitis B. Iris claw lens
includes: C. In the capsular bag
a. Keratic precipitates D. Posterior to the capsule
b. Hypopyon
c. Posterior synechiae 231. Which of the following field defects do
d. Aqueous flare pituitary gland tumours
produce?
225. Accommodation is maximum in A. Unilateral field defect
a. Adulthood B. Bitemporal hemianopia
b. Childhood C. Homonymous hemianopia
c. Middle age D. Altitudinal field defect
d. Old age
232. A patient wearing glasses of +5.00
226. Lens induced glaucoma least occur in: diopters is more prone to have:
a. Intumescent cataract A. Open angle glaucoma
b. Anterior lens dislocation B. Closed angle glaucoma
c. Posterior subcapsular cataract C. Phacolytic glaucoma
d. Posterior lens dislocation D. Neovascular glaucoma

227. IOP as measured by indentation is 233. The most accepted regimen in drug
recorded as: therapy of anterior uveitis can be:
A. mm Hg A. Corticosteroids and antibiotics
B. gm/mm2 B. Corticosteroids and miotics
C. a scale from 0 to 18 C. Corticosteroids and cycloplgics
D. Ib/in2 D. Corticosteroids and nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drugs
228. A refractive error of +2.00 +2.00 X 180
would be classified as: 234. A female patient 18-year-old, who is
A. mixed astigmatism contact lens wearer since two years, is
B. compound hyperopic astigmatism complaining of redness, lacrimation and
C. compound myopic astigmatism foreing body sensation of both eyes. On
D. simple hyperopic astigmatism examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with
negative Fluorescein staining, the expected
229. A male patient was complaining of diagnosis can be :
continuous redness of both eyes, foreign A. Acute anterior uveitis
body sensation, and frequent loss of lashes. B. Giant papillary conjunctivitis.
On examination, the lid margins were C. Bacterial corneal ulcer.
hyperemic, and the lashes were matted D Acute congestive glaucoma.
with yellow crusts, which left painful ulcers
on trying to remove. The most reliable 235. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachments
diagnosis is : are more in patients with:
A. squamous blepharitis. A. myopia
B. Cicatricial entopion. B. hyperopia
C. astigmatism C. aphakia
D. presbyopia D. senile immature cataract

236. Slit lamp examination of your patient 242. White pupillary reflex is seen in
reveals bulging, centrally thinned corneas. A. retinoblastoma
Refractometry shows an increase in B. malignant melanoma
astigmatism. The patient probably has: C Vitreous haemorrhage
A. flat cornea D. Open angle glaucoma
B. keratoconjunctivitis
C. keratoconus 243. The most accurate method of
D. exophthalmus measuring IOP is
A. digital
237. During routine IOP mesurements, you B. applanation
discovered a patient with an IOP of 30- C. air-puff non contact tonometer
mmHg & 25 mmHg. The C/D ratio was 0.4 D. gonioscopy
and the field of vision showed paracentral
scotoma. The angle of AC was open. What is 244. Angle of anterior chamber is studied
the first line of treatment? with:
A. Topical beta blockers a. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
B. Laser iridotomy b. Gonioscopy
C. Surgical peripheral iridectomy c. Retinopathy
D. Subscleral trabeculectomy d. Amblyoscope

238. Aqueous humour is secreted by: 245. Unilateral aphakia can be treated by
A. angle of anterior chamber A. glasses
B. choroid B. intraocular lens implant
C. ciliary body C. keratoplasty
D. iris D. radial keratotomy

239. Anterior chamber is shallow in 246. Radial keratotomy is useful in

A. buphthalmos A. myopia
B. open angle glaucoma B. hypermetropia
C. closed angle glaucoma C. presbyopia
D. aphakia D. aphakia

240. A female patient is complaining of 247. Optical condition of the

watering of the right eye and photophobia. eye in which there is a
Examination showed 8 scattered rubbing significant difference in
lashes of the upper lid. The best treatment refraction between the two
is : eyes
A. Snellen's operation A. mixed astigmatism
B. Van Millingen's operation B. irregular astigmatism
C. Electroysis C. anisometropia
D. Diathermy D. compound astigmatism

241. Tremulousness of iris is seen in 248. Chronic use of topical steroids may
A. chronic iridocyclitis lead to
B. closed angle glaucoma A. iris atrophy
B. glaucoma
C. corneal opacity 255. 'D' shaped pupil is seen in
D. retinopathy A. iridocyclitis
B. iridodialysis
249. A young child suffering from fever and C. glaucoma
sore throat began to complain of D. dislocation of lens
lacrimation. On examination, follicles were
found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva 256. Hordeolum externum is an
with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The inflammation of
most probable diagnosis is: A. lid margin
A. Trachoma B. tarsal plate
B. Staphylococcal conjunctivitis C. meibomian gland
C. Adenoviral conjunctivitis D. Zeis gland
D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
257. Neovascular glaucoma can be best
250. YAG laser is used in the treatment of treated by:
A. diabetic retinopathy A. trabeculectomy
B. open angle glaucoma B. pilocarpine
C. after cataract C. panphotocoagulation of retina
D. retinal detachment D. timolol maleate

251. Regarding buphthalmos, which is 258. Lagophthalmos is the condition of

correct A. incomplete closure of the palpebral
A. shallow anterior chamber aperture
B. bilateral B. drooping of the upper eyelid below its
C. trabeculectomy is the treatment of normal position
choice C. lid margin rolls outwards
D. small corneal diameter (less than 10mm) D. lid margin rolls inwards

252. Treatment of choice in primary open 259. Paralytic ptosis is due to

angle glaucoma is A. complete or partial 3rd nerve palsy
A. cyclodialysis B. 4th nerve palsy
B. iridectomy C. 6th nerve palsy
C. cyclodiathermy D. 7th nerve palsy
D. medical
260. The clinical features of symblepharon
253. The optic nerve extends up to include
A. optical chiasma A. ectropion
B. optic tract B. lagophthalmos
C. lateral geniculate body C. chalazion
D. optic radiation D. Xanthelasma

254. Consecutive optic atrophy occurs 261. The most important examination in
following cases presenting with congenital ptosis is :
A. papilloedema A. The function of the levator muscle.
B. central retinal artery occlusion B. Examination of the cornea
C. toxic amblyopia C. The examination of the cranial nerves.
D. papillitis D. The examination of the fundus.
 D. Red
262. Bandage of the eyes is contraindicated
in: 269. Following injury to the exiting
A. Corneal abrasion. eye, sympathetic ophthalmitis begins
B. Bacterial corneal ulcer. in:
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis. A. In 4-6 days
D. after glaucoma surgery. B. In 4-6 weeks
C. 8-12 months
263. The first line of treatment in acid burns D. After 2 years
of the eye is
A. Patching the eye 270. In intracapsular cataract extraction
B. Instilling a drop of oil in the eye which part of the lens capsule is left
C. Immediate wash with plain water behind?
D. Instilling a drop of surface anesthetic into A. Anterior lens capsule
the eye B. Posterior lens capsule
C. Equatorial rim the lens capsule
264. An 8 year old girl received a tennis ball D. No lens capsule is left behind
trauma to her right eye. On examination on
the same day you would find 271. When there is intumescent cataract
A. Blood staining of the cornea causing glaucoma?
B. Hyphaema A. Trephining should be done
C. Hypopyon B. Paracentesis is indicated
D. Ghost cell glaucoma C. Lens should be extracted after control of
IOP
265. In myopia which one of the following is D. Medical treatment only
most common?
A. Equatorial staphyloma 272. Laser treatment in diabetic retinopathy
B. Posterior staphyloma is indicated in:
C. Ciliary staphyloma A. Dense vitreous haemorrhage
D. Intercalary staphyloma B. Diffuse macular oedema
C. Tractional retinal detachment
266. Arlt's line is present is: D. Macular epiretinal membrane distortion
A. upper palpebral conjunctiva
B. Lower palpebral conjunctiva 273. In retinitis pigmentosa, the
C. Bulbar conjunctiva pigmentation in the retina starts at:
D. Cornea A. Posterior pole
B. Anterior to equator
267. Deep leucoma is best treated by: C. Equator
A. Tattooing D. At the disc
B. Lamellar keratoplasty
C. Keratectomy 274. The incision size in phacoemulsification
D. Penetrating keratoplasty is:
A. 1 mm
268. The color of fluorescein staining in B. 3 mm
corneal ulcer is: C. 5 mm
A. Yellow D. 7 mm
B. Blue
C. Green
275. Severe congenital ptosis with no A. Third never paralysis
levator function can be treated by: B. Trigeminal never paralysis
A. Levator resection from skin side C. Facial never paralysis
B. Levator resection from conjunctival side D. Trochlear never paralysis
C. Fascia lata sling operation
D. Fasanella servat operation 282. Dilator pupillae is supplied by:
a. Postganglionic sympathetic from cervical
276. In Central retinal artery occlusion, a plexus
cherry red spot is due to : b. Preganglionic sympathetic from cervical
A. Heamorrhage at macula plexus
B. Increased choroidal perfusion c. III Nerve
C. Increased in retinal perfusion at macula d. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers form V
D. The contrast between pale retina and nerve.
reddish intact choriocapillaris
283. Vossius ring is seen in:
277. The most common primarily a. Cornea
intraocular malignancy in adults is: b. Retina
A. Retinoblastoma c. Lens
B. Choroidal melanoma d. Anterior chamber
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
D. Iris naevus 284. Leucokoria is seen in:
a. Glaucoma
278. A patient has an upper lid trichiasis b. Cataract
with history of chronic eye irritation. The c. Retinitis pigmentosa
most common causes are : d. Acute dacryocystitis
A. Stye
B. Trachoma 285. Ultrasonography is helpful in
C. Infected chalazion confirming the diagnosis of:
D. Spring catarrh a. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
b. Retinitis pigmentosa
279. Chalazion is: c. Subluxated clear crystalline lens
A. Acute suppurative inflammation of d. Central retinal vein occlusion
Meibomian glands
B. Chronic granulomatous inflammation of 286. Marcus Gunn Pupil indicates disease
Meibomian glands of:
C. Retention cyst of the Meibomian glands a. Lens
D. Neoplasm of the Meibomian glands b. Sclera
c. Retina
280. A patient complains of maceration of d. Optic nerve
skin of the lids and conjunctival redness at
the inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival 287. ‘D’ shaped pupil is seen in:
swab is expected to show: a. Iridocyclitis
A. Staphylococcus aureus b. Iridodialysis
B. Staphylococcus viridans c. Glaucoma
C. Staphylococcus pneumonae d. Dislocation of lens
D. morax-Axenfield diplobacilli
288. In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is:
281. Paralytic ectropion occurs in: A. Fusion
B. Stereopsis a- Complete spontaneous resolution with
C. Simultaneous macular vision time
D. Ambliopia b- Conjunctival side of the lesion is reddish
or purplish
289. In paralytic squint, the difference c- Transformation to malignancy
between primary and secondary deviation d- Presentation as nodule in the
in the gaze of direction of the paralytic intermarginal strip
muscle:
a. Increases 296. The anterior and posterior lamellae of
b. Decreases the lid can be separated at the level of the
c. Remains the same lid margin by the :
d. don’t change a- lash line
b- line of meibomian gland orifices
290. In concomitant squint: c- gray line
a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation d- mucocutaneous junction
b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation 297. Fibrin collarette around the base of the
d. Primary deviation don’t change eyelashes in children is due to :
a- squamous blepharitis
291. The only extraocular muscle which b- meibomian seborrhea
does not arise from the apex of the orbit is: c- ulcerative blepharitis
a. Superior rectus d- meibomianitis
b. Superior oblique
c. Inferior oblique 298. Gold weight is placed pretarsally in the
d. Inferior rectus upper lid in :
a- ankyloblepharon
292. Superior tarsal muscle (Muller's b- involutional ectropion
muscle) is supplied by the : c- lagophthalmos VII nerve palsy (Bell's
a- Third cranial nerve palsy)e
b- Sympathetic nerve fibres d- spastic entropion of upper lid
c- Parasympathetic nerve fibres
d- Seventh cranial nerve 299. Abnormal lid laxity is diagnosed if :
a- lid can be drawn away by more than 10
293. The anterior most structure in the mm from the globe
eyelid margin is the : b- the punctum is visible only when the lid is
a- mucocutaneous junction pulled down
b- gray line c- pulling the lower lid laterally causes medial
c- meibomian gland orifices canthus displacement more than 4 mm
d- lash line d- the lid does not snap back immediately
when drawn away from the globe
294. The anterior lamella of eyelid contains: and released
a- Glands of Wolfring
b- Zeis glands 300. Keratinization of the lid margin can
c- Glands of Krause result from :
d- Meibomian glands a- Blepharospasm
b- Severe ectropion
295. Which of these is a common occurence c- Spastic entropion
with chalazia : d- Lagophthalmos
301. The most common type of congenital
ptosis is :
a- Aponeurotic
b- Neurogenic
c- Traumatic
d- Myogenic

302. Extraocular movement testing in

congenital myogenic ptosis may reveal
limited :
a- adduction
b- abduction
c- supraduction
d- infraduction

303. Regarding Horner's syndrome

a- Ptosis of moderate to severe degree may
be seen
b- The miotic pupil constricts to light
c- Loss of accomodation is seen in the case of
third order neuronal lesions
d- The near reflex is absent in the
miotic pupil

304. Pupil involving third nerve palsy is

caused in case of
a- intracranial aneurysm
b- diabetes mellitus
c- hypertensin
d- all of the above

305. A 4 year old child with severe bilateral

congenital myogenic ptosis with poor
elevator function
a- will have a chin up head position
b- will benefit from bilateral frontalis
suspension procedure
c- is likely to have amblyopia
d- is likely to have diplopia

306. Ectropion of the upper lid most

commonly
a- Spastic ectropion
b- Senile ectropion
c- Paralytic ectropion
d- Cicatricial ectropion