UAS Kategori pengetahuan (Domain)

Modul Basic Diagnosis Aetiol Manag Natural Epidemi Pemer Statist

science ogy ement History ology iksaan ic &
audit
1 Keteramp 1 1 1 1 4
ilan
Klinik
Dasar
3 TI, Clin 3 3
Gover,
dan
Penelitian
4 Etika dan 2 3 5
Hukum
5 Keteramp 3 3
ilan
Bedah
Inti
8 Asuhan 4 4 8
Antenatal
10 Asuhan 6 3 5 2 4 20
Persalina
n
11 Asuhan 6 1 4 2 3 16
Kelahiran
12 Asuhan 6 1 4 2 2 2 17
Nifas &
Neonatus
15 Kesehata 5 3 3 11
n
Reproduk
si
16 Penangan 2 3 4 2 11
an
kehamila
n Dini
19 Pengemb 2 2
angan
Profesion
alisme
30 2 11 28 2 9 13 5 100

Modul 1 Keterampilan Klinik Dasar :

1. Structure and function of chromosomes and genes (2 soal).
2. Principles of fluid and electrolyte and acid-base balance (2 soal).
Modul 3 TI, Clin Gover, dan Penelitian :
1. Principles of screening. Statistical methods used in clinical research.
2. Understand accuracy of tests used in diagnosis.
3. Comparison of effectiveness/cost-effectiveness, number needed to treat.

Modul 4 Etika dan Hukum

1. Principles of informed consent.

Modul 5 Keterampilan Bedah Inti

1. Structure and function of normal cell.
2. Surgical anatomy of the pelvis and abdomen.
3. Organisation of immune system.

Modul 8 Asuhan antenatal

1. Physiology of pregnancy including acid-base, fluid and electrolyte balance in
healthy and pathological pregnancy.
2. Fetal physiology and its development with fetal growth.
3. Cellular physiology of the major organ systems in the non-pregnant
4. Anatomical adaptations to pregnancy.
5. Principles underlying the management of common disorders of pregnancy
6. Placental handling of drugs.
7. Effects of drugs on the pregnant woman and fetus.
8. Drugs for fetal development and wellbeing.

Modul 10 Asuhan persalinan

1. Physiology of parturition, myometrial contractility and cervical dilatation.
2. Fetal physiology in late pregnancy and during labour, including methods of
assessment of fetal wellbeing.
3. Endocrinology of parturition.
4. Development and maturation of the fetal endocrine system.
5. Biochemistry of prostaglandins and steroid hormones.
6. Hormones, receptors and intracellular signalling. (2 soal)
7. Biochemistry of myometrial contractility.
8. Obstetric anatomy of the pelvis and abdomen.
9. Changes during late pregnancy and in labour. (3 soal)
10. Mechanism of childbirth. (5 soal)
11. Tocolysis and stimulants of uterine contractility.
12. Pain relief in labour and the peurperium.
13. Understand principles of management of labour

Modul 11 Asuhan kelahiran

1. Physiology of the third stage of labour (5 soal).
2. Acid-base balance.
3. Interpret cord blood samples
4. Drugs in management of delivery (2 soal).
5. Third stage of labour and its problems.
6. Effects of drugs on the newborn.
7. Placental site and implantation and its abnormalities.
8. Understand principles of perineal repair (4 soal).
Modul 12 Asuhan Nifas & Neonatus
1. Lactation and uterine involution (4 soal)
2. Endocrinology of lactation (5 soal)
3. Structural changes in the newborn (3 soal)
4. Use of drugs during lactation (2 soal)
5. Understand the principles of management of postpartum problems including
haemorrhage (3 soal)

Modul 15 Kesehatan Reproduksi

1. Contraception in the postpartum period.
2. The impact of contraceptives on the physiology of the reproductive tract (4 soal)
3. Interactions between hormonal contraceptives and endocrine physiology (3 soal)
4. Epidemiology of contraception and STIs.
5. Drugs used for medical termination of pregnancy.
6. Drugs used for STIs including antimicrobial resistance.

Modul 16 Penanganan kehamilan Dini

1. Luteo-placental shift and feto-maternal communication
2. Maternal recognition of pregnancy, endocrinology of the corpus luteum and early
pregnancy.
3. Hormonal changes associated with pregnancy loss
4. Chromosomal abnormalities associated with pregnancy loss.
5. Epidemiology of pregnancy failure (2 soal)
6. Immunology of pregancy and miscarriage.
7. Pathology of miscarriage,
8. Understand the principles of management of early pregnancy failure (3 soal).

Modul 19 Pengembangan Profesionalisme

1. Prinsip hubungan dokter-pasien dan hak klien (2 soal)

1st sm Obgyn
2017
Please read the following carefully:

1. There are approximately 100 single best answer (SBA’s) in this

paper.
2. Two (2) minutes have been allocated per question.
3. Write your group number, seat number and student number on
each page of this question paper.
4. Please hand in all cellphones, calculators and removable
drives prior to the start of the examination.
5. You may not remove any question papers from the
examination room

TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Select the single best answer to each question. (Note: several options may be
correct but only one is the best answer.
2. Answers must be entered on the answer paper.

3. If you give more than one answer for a question, you will score zero for that
question.

4. There will be no penalty for incorrect answers.

5. If you do not know an answer you may leave it blank, in which case you will
neither earn a mark nor be penalised.

1. Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for patient with heart disease?
A. IUCD : risiko infeksi endokarditis
B. Depoprovera
C. Diaphagm
D. Oral contraceptive pills
E. Implant

2. Emergency contraceptives are effective if administered within following period after

unprotected coitus?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 120 hours can up to
E. 240 hours
3. Sterlization is commonly performed at which site of fallopian tube?
A. Ampulla
B. Infundibulum
C. Isthmus
D. Cornua
E. Fimbriae
4. Cu T 380A IUCD should be replaced once in?
A. 3 yrs
 B. 4 yrs
C. 6 yrs
D. 8 yrs
E. 10 yrs
5. Oral contraceptive pill of choice in a lactating woman is?
A. Monophasic pill : even levels of estrogen and progestin
B. Combination pill
C. Biphasic pill : static level of estrogen, varying progestin levels
D. Triphasic pill : varing estrogen and progestin levels through day 21
E. Mini pill : progestin only
6. What is the recommendation for use of Levonorgestrel for the purpose of emergency
contracentive?
A. One tablet of 0.75 mg Levonorgestrel tobe taken soon after the act of
unprotected coitus but whitin 120 hours
B. One tablet of 0.75 mg Levonorgestrel tobe taken soon after the act of
unprotected coitus but whitin 72 hours
C. Two tablet of 0.75 mg Levonorgestrel tobe taken soon after the act of
unprotected coitus but whitin 96 hours
D. Two tablet of 0.75 mg Levonorgestrel tobe taken soon after the act of
unprotected coitus but whitin 120 hours dosis 1,5 mg
E. Three tablet of 0.75 mg Levonorgestrel tobe taken soon after the act of
unprotected coitus but whitin 96 hours
7. Hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated in women?
A. Less than 25 years old
B. Who are normotensive
C. Who have thromboembolic disorders
D. Who have anaemia
E. Who have hypertension
8. Which of the following is a third generation intrauterine device?
A. Cu-7
B. Nova T
C. TCu-200
D. TCu-380A
E. Progestasert : progestogen
9. When calcium supplementation is used to reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia in women at high
risk, at what gestation should it be commenced?
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 24 weeks
E. 28 weeks
10. What vitamin should women be advised to be taken throughout pregnancy and also while
breastfeeding?
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin K
11. A woman is advised to avoid drinking all alcohol in pregnancy but she declines. She enjoys
wine but no more than 250 ml per week. She is keen to understand the safe limits of alcohol
intake. What is acceptable with regard to alcohol intake during pregnancy?
 A. 1–2 UK Units per week
B. 3–4 UK Units per week
C. 5–6 UK Units per week
D. 7–8 UK Units per week
E. 9–10 UK Units per week
12. You have been asked to review a full blood test results of a woman at 28 weeks of gestation.
At what threshold level of haemoglobin concentration would you define anaemia at this
gestation?
A. 90 g/l
B. 95 g/l
C. 100 g/l
D. 105 g/l
E. 110 g/l
13. Structures passing over the pelvic brim
A. Superior rectal artery
B. Psoas artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Ureters
E. Superior gluteal artery
14. Urogenital diaphragm
A. Is located superior to the pelvic floor
B. Is located inferior to the pelvic diaphragm
C. Anteriorly, it encloses the bladder
D. Posteriorly, it encloses the superficial transverse perineal muscle
E. Supports the pelvic organs
15. The boundaries of the ischiorectal fossa
A. Perineal skin forms the apex of the fossa
B. Obturator internus is the lateral boundary
C. Vagina forms the medial boundary
D. The apex is formed by the deep transverse perineal muscle
E. Sacrospinous ligament forms the posterior boundary
16. The following are true about the pudendal canal
A. It contains pudendal artery, pudendal vein but not pudendal nerve
B. It contains pudendal artery, pudendal nerve but not pudendal vein
C. It runs medial to obturator externus
D. It runs along the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa
E. It leaves the pelvis via lesser sciatic foramen
17. With regard to the course of the ureters in females
A. The right ureter is in close association with the sigmoid colon before it enters the
bladder
B. Both ureters are almost always found at the bifurcation of the external iliac vessels
C. Both ureters pass over the pelvic brim, along the anterior wall
D. Both ureters are retroperitoneal all along in their course until the peritoneum is
lost towards the inferior end
E. Both ureters pass superior to the uterine arteries
18. For the following scenarios please choose the appropriate anatomical structure This
structure is divided during mediolateral episiotomy
A. Internal anal sphincter
B. External anal sphincter
C. Ischiocavernosus muscle
D. Central perineal tendon
 E. Transverse perineal muscle
19. Which structure would be divided when performing a midline episiotomy?
A. Internal anal sphincter
B. External anal sphincter
C. Ischiocavernosus muscle
D. Central perineal tendon
E. Transverse perineal muscle
20. Glomerular filtration rate may be measured using:
A. Insulin.
B. Para -aminohippuric acid.
C. Glucagon.
D. Glucose.
E. Inulin.
21. During pregnancy there is an increase in the following:
A. Monocytes.
B. Lymphocytes.
C. Abnormal Erythrocyte.
D. Alkaline phosphatase.
E. Haemoglobin concentration.
22. Na reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubules:
A. is under hormonal control
B. is a passive process
C. is related to K secretion
D. is accompanied by passive absorption of CL
E. increased in pregnancy .
23. At approximately 20 weeks estimated gestational age, the uterus in a normal
pregnancy is which of the following?
A. not palpable abdominally
B. palpable at the level of the umbilicus
C. palpable at the level of the xiphoid
D. palpable just over the symphysis pubis
E. palpable midway between the umbilicus and the sternum
24. The uterine muscle mass enlarges during pregnancy primarily because of which of the
following?
A. atypical hyperplasia
B. anaplasia
C. hypertrophy and hyperplasia
D. involution
E. production of new myocytes
25. A patient presents for her new obstetrics (OB) examination. She is 23 years old G1PO
at 10 weeks without problems. Her prepregnant body mass index (BMI) was 22. As
part of her pregnancy-based education you inform her that she should follow a
balanced diet with a recommended weight gain that is approximately how many
kilograms?
A. 2.5 to 5 kg
B. 5 to 7.5 kg
C. 7.5 to 10 kg
D. 12.5 to 17.5 kg 11,5-16
E. 15 to 20 kg
26. A 26-year-old G2 P1 woman at 41 weeks’ gestation has been pushing for 3 hours
without progress. Throughout this time, her vaginal examination has remained
completely dilated, completely effaced, and 0 station, with the head persistently in the
occiput posterior (OP) position.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the situation?
A. The occiput posterior position is frequently associated with a gynecoid pelvis.
B. The labor progress is normal if the patient does not have an epidural catheter
for analgesia,
C. The labor progress is abnormal if epidural analgesia is being used.
D. The patient is best described as having an arrest of descent.
E. The bony part of the fetal head is likely to be at the plane of the pelvic inlet.
27. A 30-year-old G1 P0 woman complains of nausea and vomiting for the first 3 months
of her pregnancy. She is noted to have a hemoglobin level of 9.0 g/dL and the mean
corpuscular volume was 110 fL (normal 90-105). Which of the following is the most
likely etiology of the anemia?
A. Iron deficiency
B. Folate deficiency
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Physiologic anemia of pregnancy
E. Haemorrhage
28. A 29-year-old G2 P1 at 28 weeks’ gestation, who had normal hemoglobin level 4
weeks ago at her first prenatal visit complains of 1 week of fatigue and now has
hemoglobin level of 7.0 g/dL. She noted dark colored urine after taking an antibiotic
for a urinary tract infection.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Hemolysis
D. Folate deficiency
E. Vitamin B12 deficiency
29. A 33-year-old African American G1 P0 at 16 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with
sickle cell trait. Her husband also is a carrier for the sickle cell gene. Which of the
following best describes the likelihood that their unborn baby will have sickle cell
disease?
A. 1/100
B. 1/50
C. 1/10
D. ¼
E. 1/5
30. What are the cardinal movements of labor (in order) ?
A. Descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extention, external rotation,
expulsion.
B. Descent, flexion, engagement, internal rotation, extension, external rotation,
expulsion.
C. Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external
rotation, expulsion
D. Engagement, flexion, descent, internal rotation, extension, external rotation,
expulsion.
E. Flexion, Engagement, descent, internal rotation, extension, external rotation,
expulsion
31. A 29-year-old G1 P0 woman desires to breast-feed her infant, which is 1 day old. The
infant received an injection of vitamin K. You counsel the patient on positive health
consequences of breast-feeding including immunological, bonding,
neurodevelopmental, and gastrointestinal effects. Which of the following requires
supplementation in the first 6 months as it is not present in breast milk?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
E. Vitamin A
32. A 27-year-old G0 P0 woman is contemplating becoming pregnant. In preparation, her
obstetrician conducts a preconception counseling session and assesses rubella status,
and prescribes supplemental folate.
Which of the following is the best explanation of the purpose of the supplemental
folate?
A. Avoidance of megaloblastic anemia
B. Decreasing fetal anomalies
C. Enhancing absorption of iron
D. Increasing maternal immune function
E. Increasing fetal immune function
33. A 32-year-old G1 P0 woman at 15 weeks’ gestation is a physiologist, and is
questioning the physician about the adaptations that occur in pregnancy. Which of the
following statements is most accurate regarding the changes in pregnancy?
A. Cardiac output is largely the same as the nonpregnant woman.
B. The plasma volume is increased by about 50%.
C. The plasma volume is increased by about 10%.
D. The systemic vascular resistance of a pregnant woman is slightly increased as
compared to the nonpregnant woman.
E. The pregnant woman typically has a short diastolic murmur which is
physiologic.
34. The following renal changes is :
A. Decreased glomerular filtration rate. x
B. Decreased excretion of urate. x
C. Increased excretion of folate.
D. Decreased excretion of glucose. x
E. Uretra dilatation. x/v
35. The following physiological measurements is increased in normal healthy pregnancy
A. Pulmonal blood pressure.
B. Venous pressure.
C. Serum colloid osmotic pressure.
D. Glomerular filtration rate.
E. PCO2 .
36. A woman attends for her antenatal booking visit and it is noted that she is taking
unbranded multivitamins purchased from a supermarket. Which vitamin may be
embryotoxic if the dosage is too high?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin K
37. Once the patient is in active labor and 6 Cm dilated, you notice that on two
subsequent examination she is failing to make progress. Which of following would be
appropriate for evaluating the adequacy of contractions ?
A. Fetal scalp electrode
B. Intrauterine pressure catheter
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Speculum examinations
E. Serum oxytocin levels.
38. Iron metabolism in women is characterized by which of the following?
A. decreased absorption of iron in the presence of ascorbic acid
B. decreased iron absorption from the GI tract during pregnancy
C. greater iron absorption during pregnancy
D. greater iron requirements in early pregnancy than in late pregnancy
E. greater iron stores than in men
39. Iron supplementation is recommended in pregnancy in order to do which of the
following?
A. maintain the maternal hemoglobin concentration
B. prevent iron deficiency in the fetus
C. prevent iron deficiency in the mother
D. prevent postpartum hemorrhage
E. raise the maternal hemoglobin concentration
40. Which pathological term describes the reversible replacement of one differentiated
cell type with another?
A. Atrophy
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Hypertrophy
E. Metaplasia
41. Regarding the respiratory system:
A. Alveolar air in the lungs is fully saturated with acid.
B. In a healthy resting individual, the total respiratory dead space volume has
almost equal anatomical and alveolar components.
C. The functional residual capacity is reduced during normal pregnancy.
D. During pregnancy there is an increase in the respiratory rate.
E. Intrapleural pressure may exceed atmospheric pressure at the beginning of
expiration.
42. Which of the following events aids in closure of the ductus arteriosus in the
newborn?
A. Fall in pulmonary arterial pressure
B. Thoracic compression during delivery
C. Postnatal accumulation of carbon dioxide
D. Increased compression of pulmonary vasculature
E. Increased of PO2
43. The human placenta is a complex structure that serves as the interface between the
fetus and maternal circulation to allow excretory, respiratory, and nutritional functions
for the fetus. It does which of the following?
A. allows mainly small molecules and a few blood cells to pass
B. allows maternal blood to enter the fetal circulation but not vice versa
C. allows only large molecules to pass
D. allows total mixing of the maternal and fetal blood
 E. maintains absolute separation between the maternal and fetal circulations
44. Ovulation:
A. Ovulation occurs during the hours after the oestrogen peak.
B. Progesterone enhances the activity of proteolytic enzymes responsible,
together with prostaglandins, for digestion and rupture of the follicular
wall.
C. It occurs after ferning of cervical mucus has disappeared.
D. During ovulation, the release of the ovum may take as long as 30 min.
E. On day 15 of a normal menstrual cycle the appearance of subnuclear
vacuolation on endometrial biopsy strongly indicates that ovulation has
occurred.
45. The uterine artery is a direct branch of which major artery in the pelvis?
A. External iliac
B. Internal iliac
C. Femoral
D. Obturator
E. Pudendal
46. What is the major estrogen produced by the placenta during pregnancy ?
A. Dehydroepiandrosterone
B. Estradiol 1
C. Estriol 3
D. Estrone 2
E. Ethynilestradiol
47. Hyperplasia and hyperthrophy of the alveolar cells in the breast during pregnancy are
stimulated by which hormones :
A. Estrone and hCG
B. Human placental lactogen and estradiol
C. Human placental lactogen and progeterone
D. Prolactin and Human placental lactogen
E. Prolactin and progeterone
48. What are the two major steroid hormones produced by corpus luteum ?
A. Estradiol and hCG
B. Estradiol and progeterone
C. Estradiol and testosterone
D. Progesterone and hCG
E. Progesterone and testosterone
49. By what percentage does the cardiac output increase in pregnancy ?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 40%
E. 80%
50. Because the fetus is growing rapidly, its need for nutrients and energy exceeds the
mother’s on a gram-for-gram basis. Often, the placental transport will achieve a fetal
concentration greater than maternal, but occasionally the converse occurs. Which of
the following has a lower concentration in the fetus than in the mother?
A. amino acids
B. iron
C. oxygen
D. phosphate
 E. vitamins
51. At what gestation does the corpus luteum cease to be essential for pregnancy
maintenance ?
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 12 weeks (10-12 minggu)
D. 16 weeks
E. 40 weeks
52. Where in the kidney is the majority of bicarbonate reabsorbed ?
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Collecting duct
C. Distal convoluted tubules
D. Loop of Henle
E. Proximal convoluted tubules
53. Which cell organelle is responsible for the enzymatic modification of secreted
proteins ?
A. Golgi complex
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus
D. Rough endomplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endomplasmic reticulum
54. Which fetal gland is responsible for generating dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
during estrogen synthesis ?
A. Adrenal
B. Pancreas
C. Parathyroid
D. Pituitary
E. Thyroid
55. Which muscles form the pelvic floor :
A. Levator ani and coccygeus
B. Levator ani and piriformis
C. Obturator internus and coccygeus
D. Obturator internus and Levator ani
E. Obturator internus and piriformis
56. Antibiotics:
A. Metronidazole is nephrotoxic.
B. Streptomycin given by the rectal route is as effective as when given by the
intravenous route.
C. Aminoglycosides are effective against anaerobes.
D. Ampicillin may potentiate the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
E. Erythromycin has an antibacterial spectrum identical to that of penicillin.
Therefore,it may be used as an alternative for the penicillin-allergic patient.
57. Drugs affecting glucose metabolism:
A. Insulin stimulates DNA synthesis in the nucleus.v
B. Glucagon increases the synthesis of glycogen.x
C. Adrenaline inhibits the breakdown of hepatic glycogen.x
D. Insulin is inactivated by the gastro-intestinal enzymes.x
E. Glucagon can not be used in the treatment of hypoglycaemic coma.x
58. Regarding the femoral vessels and nerve:
A. The origin of the femoral nerve is S2–S4.
 B. The femoral nerve enters the femoral sheath and lies lateral to the femoral
vessels.
C. Branches of femoral artery include the inferior epigastric artery.
D. The femoral artery lies medial to the femoral nerve.
E. The femoral artery is a continuation of the external iliac artery after passing
over the inguinal ligament.
59. What is the most common complication of paracervical block in pregnancy ?
A. Maternal hypotension
B. Maternal hypertension
C. CNS toxicity
D. Fetal bradycardia
E. Bleeding
60. What type of joint is formed at symphisis pubis ?
A. Cartilaginous
B. Condyloid
C. Fibrous
D. Synarthrodial
E. Synovial
61. The uterus:
A. The lower portions of the Müllerian ducts fuse to form the uterus.
B. The uterus is supported only by the levator ani muscles.
C. The peritoneum covers the entire uterus posteriorly.
D. The increased blood supply to the uterus in normal pregnancy is attributed to
increased levels of angiotensin II.
E. The uterus fails to acquire an anteverted position in 5 per cent of women.
62. The uterus:
A. There is no subserosa in the uterus.
B. The blood supply of the uterus is entirely from the uterine artery.
C. The lymphatic drainage of the fundus of the uterus is into the para -renalis
nodes.
D. The broad ligament has no supporting function to the uterus.
E. The nerves of the uterus are branches of the superior hypogastric plexus.
63. Oxytocin:
A. Is a nonapeptide.
B. Is released by the fetus during pregnancy.
C. Is released in the female during orgasm.
D. Causes milk production.
E. Is inactivated by oxytocindehydrokinase.
64. Uterus is at the level of umbilicus at:
A. 10 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 16 weeks
D. 20 weeks
E. 24 weeks
65. The internal iliac artery:
A. Divides into anterior and posterior divisions at the upper border of the lesser
sciatic foramen.
B. The median sacral artery arises from the posterior division.
C. At the level of the sacroiliac joint it is crossed anteriorly by the ureter.
D. The superior gluteal artery arises from the anterior division.
 E. The superior and inferior vesical arteries arise from the umbilical artery.
66. These methods suppress lactation
A. Oestrogen
B. Restricted fluid intake
C. Intermittent, reducing frequencies of expressing milk
D. Adequate breast support
E. Bromocriptine
67. Perinatal mortality refers to:
A. Number of stillbirths per 1,000 total births.
B. Number of stillbirths & neonatal deaths per 1,000 total births.
C. Number of stillbirths & neonatal deaths per 1,000 live births.
D. Number of neonatal deaths per 1,000 total births.
E. Number of stillbirths & neonatal deaths per 100,000 total births.
68. The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is associated with:
A. High luteinizing hormone level
B. High progesterone levels
C. High prolactin level
D. Low basal body temperature
E. Proliferative changes in the endometrium
69. The order of cardinal movements in labor:
A. Engagement, internal rotation, flexion
B. Engagement, descend, flexion, internal rotation
C. Descend, engagement, flexion
D. Internal rotation, flexion, decent, engagement.
E. Engagement, flexion, internal rotation.
70. The placental cotyledons are formed primarily by which of the following?
A. arterial pressure on the chorionic plate and decidua
B. fetal angiogenesis
C. folding of the yolk sac
D. maternal angiogenesis
E. mesenchymal differentiation secondary to unknown factors
71. The time that spermatogonum takes to transform to spermatozoa:
A. 52 days
B. 62 days
C. 72 days (64 -72)
D. 82 days
E. 96 days
72. Regrading fertilization and implantation:
A. Fertilization occurs in inner third of the fallopian tube.
B. The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata and zona
pellucida while the tail remains outside.
C. The second meiotic division is completed before fertilization.
D. Implantation occurs in morula stage
E. The trophoblast invades the endometrium and differentiate into outer
cytotrophoblast and inner cyncytiotrophoblast.
73. The baseline Heart rate of normal fetus at term is:
A. 80-100 bpm
B. 100-120 bpm
C. 120-160 bpm
D. 160-170 pbm
 E. 170-180 bpm
74. There are three principal structural components of the cervix :
A. Collagen, smooth muscle, extracellular matrix
B. Collagen, connective tissue, extracellular matrix
C. Collagen, dermatan sulfat, glycosaminoglycans
D. Collagen, striated muscle, extracellular matrix
E. Collagen, dematan sulfat, smooth muscle,
75. The Fallopian tube from ovarii to the uterine divide into :
A. Portion of infundibulum, isthmus, interstitial, ampulla
B. Portion of ampulla, infundibulum, interstitial, isthmus
C. Portion of infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, interstitial
D. Portion of isthmus, interstitial, infundibulum, ampulla
E. Portion of interstitial, isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum
76. The following Ig can across the placenta
A. Ig A
B. Ig G
C. Ig M
D. Ig D
E. Ig E
77. The gynecoid pelvis :
A. is the second commonest type of female pelvis
B. has wider anteroposterior than transverse diameter at the pelvic prim
C. has less prominent ischial spines than android pelvis
D. has ashallow ,wide sacrosciatic notch
E. has a parallel pelvic side wall
78. Normal haemopoiesis requires the following elements of vitamins :
A. iron
B. folic acid
C. cyanocobaamine
D. Vit K
E. Vit A
79. The following respiratory functions increase in pregnancy:
A. vital capacity
B. tidal volume
C. residual volume
D. inspiratory capacity
E. minute ventilation
80. Cardiac action in pregnancy:
A. the mean COP is +61/min
B. COP rises by +1.5 L/M during 1st 10 weeks
C. COP rises by 1/3 during pregnancy
D. pulse rate rise by 1/5 during pregnancy
E. stroke volume falls during pregnancy
81. A patient presents for preconceptive counseling. Her history is complicated by mitral
stenosis. You tell her that this may be problematic at times of high cardiac output in
pregnancy. The time at which cardiac output is highest is during what phase of
pregnancy?
A. in the first trimester
B. in the second trimester
C. in the third trimester
 D. during labor
E. immediately postpartum (10 to 30 minutes)
82. What phase of parturition corresponds with the clinical stages of labor ?
A. phase 0
B. phase 1
C. phase 2
D. phase 4
E. phase 3
83. The cervical modifications during phase I of parturition :
A. the second change relates to the state of the bundle of collagen fibers
B. there are not changes in the relative amounts of the various glycoaminogycans
C. the first change relates to the striking increase in the amount of hyaluronic
acid in the cervix
D. cervical softness is associated with increasing production of cytokines that
causes infiltration of leukocytes wich also degrade collagen
E. During this phase the cervix must remain firm and unyielding
84. which of the following separate maternal and fetal blood in human placenta :
A. trophoblast
B. maternal vascular endothelium
C. fetal vascular endothelium
D. maternal connective tissue
E. fetal connective tissue
85. in the fetal circulation:
A. the ductus venosus delivers blood directly into the superior vena cava
B. the umbilical artery returns blood from the placenta
C. the ductus aretriosus carries blood to the lungs
D. blood returning from the lungs is 90 % saturated with oxygen
E. blood from the inferior vena cava is largely directed through the foramen
ovale
86. Luteinzing hormone:
A. is required for normal corpus luteum survival
B. has a half life in the circulation of 30 hrs
C. is released in pulses /GNRH?
D. in the male stimulates testosterone production
E. plasma concentration are increased in post menopausal women
87. Myometrial contractility:
A. is calcium dependant
B. is associated with phosphorylation of myosin light chain
C. is independent of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. is mediated by somatic nerves
E. depend on myometrial gap junctions
88. When should the fetal heart rate be auscultated observation during labor ?
A. Before the contraction
B. During the contraction
C. Immediately after contraction
D. Anytime
E. After the uterine relaxation
89. The uterine quiescence :
A. some myometrial contraction cause cervical dilatation
B. During this phase the cervix must remain firm and unyielding
 C. Prepare the uterus for labor, contraction of this type are more common in
nulliparuos women
D. The contractions are characteristized by increasing intensity
E. The contraction are still remain
90. The normal endocrinological change occurring in pregnancy is
A. Decreased ACTH
B. Decreased prolactin
C. Decreased thyroxine levels
D. Decreased cortisol levels
E. Decreased FSH/LH
91. The following blood coagulation factors are increased during pregnancy
A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Platelets
D. Factor XIII
E. Factor X
92. The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are:
A. actin and troponin
B. actin and myosin
C. troponin and tropomyosin
D. myosin and tropomyosin
E. actin and tropomyosin
93. Type I muscle fibres have the following characteristics:
A. white, glycolytic, slow contracting
B. white, oxidative, slow contracting
C. red, oxidative, fast contracting
D. red, glycolytic, slow contracting
E. red, oxidative, slow contracting
94. At term, the ligaments of the pelvis change. This can result in
A. Increasing rigidity of the pelvis.
B. Degeneration of pelvic ground substance.
C. Decreasing width of the symphysis.
D. Enlargement of the pelvic cavity.
E. Posterior rotation of the levator muscles.
95. In a vertex presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what fetal
part to the Mother's pelvis:

A. Mentum.

B. Sacrum.

C. Acromian.

D. Occiput.

E. Sinciput.

96. The relation of the fetal parts to one another determines:

A. Presentation of the fetus.  most below part

 B. Lie of the fetus.  baby vs mother axis

C. Attitude of the fetus.

D. Position of the fetus.  fetal to pelvis

E. None of the above.

97. Engagement is strictly defined as:

A. When the presenting part goes through the pelvic inlet.

B. When the presenting part is level with the ischial spines.

C. When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic
inlet.

D. When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head is at the level of ischial
spines.

E. None of the above.

98. Luteinizing hormone (LH):

A. LH is responsible for ovulation and the initial formation of the corpus
luteum.
B. The molecular weight of LH is 58 000 daltons.
C. Sustained continuous administration of exogenous gonadotrophin-releasing
hormone (GnRH) analogues leads to increased production of LH.
D. LH has highest pulse frequency during the late follicular phase.
E. The highest pulse amplitude is during the late luteal phase.
99. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH):
A. The half-life of human FSH is the same as luteinizing hormone (LH): about
170 min.
B. The molecular weight of FSH is 68 000 daltons.
C. In the male, FSH is concerned with maintenance and growth of the
germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules and with sperm
production.
D. Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH), released in less frequent pulses,
causes no change in FSH secretion.
E. Is excreted in small amounts at the climacteric.
100. The corpus luteum:
A. Due to the effect of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) shortly after
ovulation, the ruptured follicle will change to become the corpus luteum.
B. If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates approximately 14
days before the next menses.
C. Luteinization is a process in which fluid rich in carotene is deposited within
the cytoplasm of granulosa and theca interna cells, giving the characteristic
white colour.
D. Mainly produces oestrogen.
E. May secrete oxytocin and inhibin.