Histology 100%waranty
Histology 100%waranty
Histology 100%waranty
УДК 57676
ББК 287706
Г 47
2 TESTS OF HISTOLOGY-1
3 Edited by
The manual “Tests of Histology-1” was compiled by professor R.I. Yui, lecturer L.I.
Naumova, associated professor M.S. Kalinina, lecturer M.G. Adilova, associate
professor S.A. Semchenkova, senior lecturer Z.O. Ayapova, associate professor R.B.
Abildinov, senior lecturer T.F. Kruglikovskaya, senior lecturer Z.N. Jangeldina, senior
lecturer N.M. Tusupova, lecturer T.A. Baturina (Kazakh National Medical University).-
Almaty.- 2009.- 378 pp.
ISBN9965-15-759-6
1
the examinations, it may also be used for self-testing.
All rights reserved. This book is protected by copyright. No part of this book may be
reproduced in any form or by any means, including photocopying, or utilized by any
information storage and retrieval system without written permission from the copyright
owner.
Г1909000000
00(05)-08
ISBN 9965-15-759-6
УДК 57676
ББК 287706
Almaty, 2013
CONTENTS
PREFACE………………………………………………………………….………… 193
2. CYTOLOGY……………………………………………………………………. 198-207
4. EPITHELIA…………………………………………………………………….. 221-226
Structures of histologic specimen … that are (the following colour) stainable with
hematoxylin-eosin …
1-19. Heterochromatin a. green
1-20. Euchromatin b. yellow
1-21. Nucleolus c. pink
1-22. Cytoplasm d. blue-and-violet
1-23. Collagen fibres e. are not stainable
6
2. CYTOLOGY
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
2-1. Which of the following structures represents syncytium:
a. epithelium of thymic lobules
b. reticular tissue of the red bone marrow
c. reticular tissue of the peripheral hemopoietic organs
d. spermatogenic epithelium
e. enamel pulp
2-2. Cellular structure that consists of lipid bilayer, integral, semiintegral and
membranous proteins:
a. plasmalemma
b. microtubule
c. ribosome
d. cell centre
e. axoneme
2-3. Specialized junctional structure (cell contact) at which the two plasma
membranes are in actual contact:
a. unspecialized contact
b. tight junction
c. gap junction
d. desmosome
7
e. chemogenic synapse
2-4. Cell contact that allows the free passage of some substances from one cell to the
other:
a. desmosome
b. tight junction
c. gap junction
d. adhesive belt
e. unspecialized contact
2-5. The structure that is able to transmit nerve impulse:
a. desmosome
b. hemidesmosome
c. synapse
d. tight junction
e. gap junction
2-6. Gap junction is characterized by the fact that:
a. plasma membranes are in actual contact
b. the space between plasma membranes is about twenty nanometers
c. between plasma membranes there is an electron-dense zone
d. the space between plasma membranes is about three nanometers
e. the cell contact is able to transmit nerve impulse (activation or inhibition) from one
cell to the other
2-7. Contact between epithelial cell and basal membrane:
a. unspecialized
b. tight junction
c. desmosome
d. hemidesmosome
e. gap junction
2-8. Glycocalix of the cellular plasma membrane represents:
a. thick lipid layer
b. ribonucleoprotein layer
c. glycoprotein and glycolipid complexes associated with plasmalemma
d. layer of glycosaminoglycans
e. microfilaments and microtubules
2-9. What molecules (substances) and ions can enter cells because of passive
transport:
a. water
b. glucose
c. amino acid
d. sodium
e. calcium
2-10. Unspecialized cell junction is characterized by the fact that:
a. the two plasma membranes are in actual contact
b. the two plasma membranes are separated by a gap of 20 nanometers
c. the two plasma membranes are separated by an electron-dense zone
d. the two plasma membranes are separated by space of 3 nanometers
e. it is able to transmit activation and inhibition from one cell to the other
2-11. Desmosomes are characterized by the fact that:
a. the two plasma membranes are in actual contact
b. the two plasma membranes are separated by a gap of twenty nanometers
c. the two plasma membranes are separated by electron-dense zone
d. the two plasma membranes are separated by space of three nanometers
e. they are able to transmit activation and inhibition from one cell to the other
8
2-12. Which of the following structures is a membranous organelle:
a. cilium
b. microtubule
c. ribosome
d. centriole
e. endoplasmic reticulum
2-13. Which of the following structures is a membranous organelle:
a. ribosome
b. microtubule
c. lysosome
d. centriole
e. microfilament
2-14. Membranous organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes:
a. granular endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi complex
c. lysosomes
d. mitochondria
e. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
2-15. Which of the following structures are membranous organelles:
a. microtubules
b. microfilaments
c. ribosomes
d. polysomes
e. Golgi complex
2-16. Which of the following structures are membranous organelles:
a. centrioles
b. microtubules
c. microfilaments
d. ribosomes
e. mitochondria
2-17. Synthesis of proteins of the cell membrane takes place in:
a. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
b. granular endoplasmic reticulum
c. peroxisomes
d. lysosomes
e. centrioles
2-18. Cytoplasmic basophilia is due to the presence of the following organelles:
a. Golgi complex
b. granular endoplasmic reticulum
c. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
d. mitochondria
e. lysosomes
2-19. Which of the following structures takes part in the breakdown of biogenic
macromolecules:
a. centrioles
b. ribosomes
c. Golgi complex
d. endoplasmic reticulum
e. lysosomes
2-20. Primary lysosomes are formed in:
a. microtubules
b. cell centre
9
c. Golgi complex
d. microfibrils
e. peroxisomes
2-21. Organelles that perform the function of accumulation, segregation, transport,
modification and discharge of secretory product from the cell:
a. microtubules
b. microfilaments
c. ribosomes
d. polysomes
e. dictyosomes of the Golgi complex
2-22. Cell organelle that consists of five to ten flattened cisternae and a large number
of vesicles:
a. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
b. granular endoplasmic reticulum
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi complex
e. lysosome
2-23. Cell organelle that is bounded by a smooth outer membrane within which there
is an inner membrane; the inner membrane is highly folded on itself forming
incomplete partitions called cristae; the space bounded by the inner membrane is
filled by a granular material called matrix:
a. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
b. granular endoplasmic reticulum
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi complex
e. lysosome
2-24. Synthesis of adenosinetriphosphate takes place in:
a. centrioles
b. microtubules
c. microfilaments
d. ribosomes
e. mitochondria
2-25. Organelles that change activity of the oxidation-reduction enzymes, and of the
processes of active ion transport in the cell:
a. lysosomes
b. peroxisomes
c. mitochondria
d. Golgi complex
e. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
2-26. Cell organelle 0,2-0,4 micrometer in size, that represents membrane bounded
vesicle containing hydrolases:
a. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
b. granular endoplasmic reticulum
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi complex
e. lysosome
2-27. Damaged organelles are destroyed within a cell by:
a. lysosomes
b. peroxisomes
c. microtubules
d. microfilaments
10
e. centrioles
2-28. Enzymes of the primary lysosomes are synthesized in:
a. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi complex
c. granular endoplasmic reticulum
d. mitochondria
e. free ribosomes and polysomes
2-29. Marker enzyme of peroxisomes:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. acid phosphatase
c. catalase
d. alkaline phosphatase
e. myeloperoxidase
2-30. Marker enzyme of lysosomes:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. acid phosphatase
c. catalase
d. cytochrome oxidase
e. lactate dehydrogenase
2-31. Marker enzyme of mitochondria:
a. catalase
b. acid phosphatase
c. alkaline phosphatase
d. succinate dehydrogenase
e. hyaluronidase
2-32. Protein synthesis for “export” takes place in:
a. nucleolus
b. mitochondria
c. granular endoplasmic reticulum
d. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
e. lysosomes
2-33. In which cell organelles are the secretory granules formed:
a. lysosomes
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. microtubules
2-34. Non-membranous cell organelle:
a. mitochondrion
b. peroxisome
c. microtubule
d. lysosome
e. endoplasmic reticulum
2-35. Non-membranous cell organelle:
a. Golgi complex
b. centriole
c. peroxisome
d. lysosome
e. endoplasmic reticulum
2-36. Non-membranous cell organelles:
a. Golgi complex
b. microfilaments
11
c. peroxisomes
d. lysosomes
e. endoplasmic reticulum
2-37. Ribosomes play an essential role in:
a. protein synthesis
b. glycogen synthesis
c. phagocytosis
d. glycosaminoglycan synthesis
e. transport of substances
2-38. Cell organelle that represents elementary apparatus of the protein synthesis:
a. ribosome
b. lysosome
c. peroxisome
d. mitochondrion
e. microtubule
2-39. Basophilic organelles of young cells:
a. lysosomes
b. mitochondria
c. ribosomes
d. peroxisomes
e. Golgi comples
2-40. Organelle of the cytoskeleton is:
a. mitrochondrion
b. cell centre
c. lysosome
d. Golgi complex
e. microtubule
2-41. Pigment inclusion of the cell is:
a. melanin
b. neutral fat
c. glycogen
d. yolk
e. zymogenic granule
2-42. What types of inclusions do the drops of neutral fat belong to:
a. secretory
b. excretory
c. pigment
d. trophic
e. foreign phagocytized particles
2-43. What type of cytoplasmic inclusion of erythrocytes does hemoglobin represent:
a. `trophic
b. secretory
c. excretory
d. endogenous pigment
e. exogenous pigment
2-44. What type of inclusions do zymogenic granules represent:
a. secretory
b. trophic
c. excretory
d. endogenous pigment
e. exogenous pigment
2-45. Which of the following substances belong to the trophic cytoplasmic inclusions:
12
a. bilirubin
b. hemosiderin
c. glycogen
d. lipofuscin
e. melanin
2-46. Structural component of nucleus that is the site where ribosomal RNA is
synthesized:
a. nuclear membrane
b. nucleolus
c. nucleoplasm
d. euchromatin
e. heterochromatin
2-47. At what phase of mitosis do nucleoli disappear:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-48. At what phase of mitosis does nuclear membrane disappear:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-49. The outer nuclear membrane is continuous with the membranes of:
a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. lysosomes
c. peroxisomes
d. mitochondria
e. Golgi complex
2-50. Nuclei made up mainly of heterochromatin are referred to as closed-face nuclei;
that fact is due to:
a. insult to cells
b. beginning of mitosis
c. lack of transcriptional activity
d. high transcriptional activity
e. polyploidy of the cells
2-51. Large nuclei in which considerable areas of euchromatin can be seen are
referred to as open-face nuclei; that fact is due to:
a. insult to cells
b. beginning of mitosis
c. lack of transcriptional activity
d. high transcriptional activity
e. polyploidy of the cell
2-52. At what stage of the cell cycle is the DNA content of the chromosome duplicated,
and do centrioles divide:
a. mitosis
b. rest
c. presynthetic
d. synthetic
e. postsynthetic
2-53. What stage of the cell cycle is characterized by active RNA synthesis, tubulin
13
synthesis, adenosine tiposphate synthesis, and maturation of the daughter centrioles:
a. mitosis
b. rest
c. presynthetic
d. synthetic
e. premitotic
2-54. The most of somatic cells of the organism are at the stage:
a. G0
b. G1
c. S
d. G2
e. M
2-55. Apoptosis is:
a. programmed cell death
b. cell death under the influence of damaging factors
c. uncontrolled cell division
d. destruction of the intracellular structures as a result of hydrolase elaboration by
lysosomes
e. lysis of the nucleus
2-56. At which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes move until they have separated
into two groups near the poles of the сell:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-57. At which stage of mitosis the two centrioles separate and move to the opposite
poles of the cell:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-58. Which is the final phase of mitosis:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. telophase
d. metaphase
e. anaphase
2-59. At which stage of mitosis do chromosomes line up across the centre, or equator,
of the cell:
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. early telophase
e. late telophase
2-60. Which stage of mitosis is followed by cytokinesis:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
14
2-61. At which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids separate:
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. early telophase
e. late telophase
2-62. As a result of mitotic division, the two somatic cells were formed. What
chromosome number do they contain:
a. aneuploid
b. haploid
c. diploid
d. tetraploid
e. octoploid
15
2. Correct answers to the tests on the subject of «Cytology»
3. EMBRYOLOGY
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
3-1. Spherical sex cell one hundred and thirty micrometers in diameter, covered by
pellucid zone and radiate crown; it contains haploid number of chromosomes:
a. ovogonium
b. primary oocyte
c. secondary oocyte
d. mature ovum
e. first polar body
3-2. Human oocyte in accordance with the arrangement of its cytoplasmic yolk
inclusions is:
a. centrolecithal
b. markedly telolecithal
c. moderately telolecithal
d. isolecithal
17
e. alecithal
3-3. The cytoplasm of the oocyte does not contain:
a. mitochondria
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. ribosomes
d. Golgi complex
e. cell centre
3-4. Cortical granules of the oocyte:
a. make for distance interaction of the ovum and spermatozoon
b. make for contact interaction of the ovum and spermatozoon
c. facilitate the penetration of sopermatozoon into oocyte
d. take part in the formation of fertilization membrane
e. make for the process of union of pronuclei
3-5. Common feature of spermatozoon and oocyte is:
a. shape
b. size
c. mobility
d. presence ot yolk
e. haploid chromosome number
3-6. Sex cell that consists of a head (containing haploid nucleus), midpiece and tail:
a. spermatogonium
b. spermatid
c. primary spermatocyte
d. spermatozoon
e. secondary spermatocyte
3-7. Chromosome number in the nucleus of spermatozoon:
a. aneuploid
b. haploid
c. diploid
d. tetraploid
e. octoploid
3-8. Structures of spermatozoon that contain microtubules:
a. acrosome
b. nucleus
c. terminal part of tail
d. axoneme
e. plasma membrane
3-9. Nucleus of the spermatozoon is situated in:
a. head
b. connecting piece
c. principal piece
d. middle piece
e. neck
3-10. Which part of spermatozoon contains mitochondria:
a. head
b. connecting piece
c. middle piece
d. principal piece
e. annulus
3-11. The part of spermatozoon that contains proximal centriole:
a. head
b. connecting piece
18
c. middle piece
d. principal piece
e. annulus
3-12. Acrosome of spermatozoon represents a derivative of:
a. mitochondria
b. axial filament
c. distal and proximal centrioles
d. rough endoplasmic reticulum
e. Golgi complex
3-13. On the electron micrograph of the spermatozoon transverse section one can see
axial filament surrounded by mitochondria. Section of which part of the spermatozoon
is it:
a. head
b. connecting piece
c. middle piece
d. principal piece
e. terminal part of tail
3-14. Which is the correct sequence of embryogenesis:
a. histogenesis and organogenesis – cleavage – gastrulation – fertilization
b. cleavage – gastrulation – fertilization – histogenesis and organogenesis
c. fertilization – gastrulation – cleavage – histogenesis and organogenesis
d. gastrulation – cleavage – fertilization – histogenesis and organogenesis
e. fertilization – cleavage – gastrulation – histogenesis and organogenesis
3-15. Fertilization takes place in:
a. outer third of the uterine tube
b. neck of uterus
c. uterine cavity
d. abdominal cavity
e. vagina
3-16. The process of union of a sperm and an ovum in order to form a zygote is called:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
c. gastrulation
d. implantation
e. histogenesis and organogenesis
3-17. Rheotaxis is the ability of spermatozoon for:
a. contact action on oocyte
b. distant action on oocyte
c. upstream movement in a flowing liquid
d. penetration through the zona pellucida of the ovum
e. penetration through the plasmolemma of the ovum
3-18. Chemotaxis is ability of spermatozoon for:
a. contact influence on the oocyte
b. distant influence on the oocyte
c. upstream movement in a flowing liquid
d. penetration through the zona pellucida of the ovum
e. directional migration due to a chemical stimulus
3-19. Capacitation is:
a. a change in spermatozoon whereby it aquires the ability to fertilize an ovum
b. formation of the fertilization membrane
c. loss of spermatic filament
d. upstream movement of spermatozoon in a flowing liquid
19
e. excretion of enzymes from the acrosome
3-20. Process that occurs during contact interaction between gametes (in course of
fertilization):
a. acrosomal reaction
b. chemotaxis
c. rheotaxis
d. capacitation
e. cortical reaction
3-21. Acrosomal reaction is the process of:
a. formation of the fertilization membrane
b. loss of spermatic filament
c. excretion of hyaluronidase and tripsin by acrosome
d. spermatozoon activation
e. upstream movement of spermatozoon in a flowing liquid
3-22. Which of the cell structures takes part in the formation of fertilization membrane
of zygote:
a. nucleus
b. Golgi complex
c. mitochondria
d. cortical granules
e. endoplasmic reticulum
3-23. Cortical reaction is:
a. dispersion of the cells of corona radiata
b. formation of the tubercule of fertilization
c. fusion of the membranes of spermatozoon and oocyte
d. fusion of that area of the pellucid zone which is attached to the fertilizing
spermatozoon
e. migration of the cortical granules to the perivitelline space and formation of the
fertilization membrane
3-24. Fertilization membrane is destroyed:
a. in the process of fertilization
b. before the beginning of cleavage
c. at the stage of morula
d. just before implantation
e. at the stage of gastrulation
3-25. Cleavage is;
a. formation of zygote as a result of fusion of male and female sex cells
b. formation of blastocyst as a result of sequential division of zygote into blastomeres
c. formation of the germs of organs
d. formation of the germinal layers
e. formation of the axial organs
3-26. Type of cleavage of the human zygote is:
a. nontotal, asynchronous
b. total, equal
c. synchronous, equal
d. total, unequal, asynchronous
e. incomplete, equal
3-27. Dark and light human blastomeres are formed in the process of:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
c. the first phase of the gastrulation
d. the second phase of the gastrulation
20
e. histogenesis and organogenesis
3-28. Human morula is formed in the process of:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
c. the first phase of the gastrulation
d. the second phase of gastrulation
e. histogenesis and organogenesis
3-29. Human embryo at the stage of morula is:
a. in cervical canal of uterus
b. in uterine cavity
c. in contact with the endometrium
d. within the endometrium
e. in lumen of the oviduct
3-30. Human blastocystis is formed in the process of:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
c. the first phase of gastrulation
d. the second phase of gastrulation
e. histogenesis and organogenesis
3-31. What do we call the human germ at the end of cleavage:
a. blastocyst
b. amphiblastula
c. coeloblastula
d. discoblastula
e. morula
3-32. Trophoblast of the human blastocyst consists of:
a. one layer of flattened elongated cells
b. one layer of cuboidal cells
c. one layer of columnar cells
d. two layers of cuboidal cells
e. two layers of columnar cells
3-33. Trophoblast of the human germ is formed in the process of:
a. cleavage
b. fertilization
c. the first phase of gastrulation
d. the second phase of gastrulation
e. organogenesis and histogenesis
3-34. Embryoblast of the blastocyst represents:
a. one large light blastomere that is situated in the centre of the blastocyst
b. two small dark blastomeres that are situated in the centre of the blastocyst
c. two small light blastomeres adjacent to the trophoblast on the inside
d. one large light blastomere adjacent to the trophoblast on the inside
e. cluster of large dark blastomeres adjacent to the trophoblast on the inside
3-35. Human germ at the stage of blastula is situated in:
a. cervical canal of uterus
b. uterine cavity
c. abdominal cavity
d. within the uterine mucous tunic
e. lumen of the oviduct
3-36. The process of implantation begins:
a. on the third day
b. on the fifteenth day
21
c. on the seventh day
d. on the tenth day
e. on the first day
3-37. The process of gastrulation represents:
a. division of zygote into blastomeres
b. union of a sperm and an ovum in order to form zygote
c. formation of the three germinal layers
d. formation of the primordia of tissues and organs
e. formation of the blastocyst
3-38. Human germ at the stage of gastrula is situated:
a. in cervical canal of uterus
b. in uterine cavity
c. in abdominal cavity
d. within the uterine mucous tunic
e. in lumen of the oviduct
3-39. On the 11,5th day of the human embryonal development the material of the
germinal layers is situated:
a. on the floor of the amnion
b. in the area of the amniotic roof
c. in the area of the yolk sac
d. in the lateral parts of the amniotic wall
e. within the lateral parts of the wall of yolk vesicle
3-40. Human germ on the 14th day of development differs from the germ on the 11,5th
day of development by the appearance of:
a. connecting stalk
b. amniotic sac
c. yolk sac
d. extraembryonic mesoderm
e. extraembryonic ectoderm
3-41. Human embryo on the seventeenth day of development differs from the embryo
on the fourteenth day of development by the formation of:
a. connecting stalk
b. amniotic sac
c. neural tube
d. allantois
e. cytotrophoblast and symplastotrophoblast
3-42. Embryonic endoderm is formed by the migration of cells from:
a. anterior part of the primitive groove
b. prechondral plate
c. roof of the amniotic sac
d. lateral portions of the wall of amniotic sac
e. trophoblast
3-43. Embryonic mesoderm is formed by the migration of cells from:
a. prechordal plate
b. posterior part of the primitive groove
c. roof of the amniotic sac
d. lateral portions of the wall of amniotic sac
e. trophoblast
3-44. Prechordal plate represents small thickening that is situated in the region
directly in front of notochord; it consists of the crowded cellular layers of:
a. embryonic ectoderm and embryonic endoderm
b. embryonic ectoderm and embryonic mesoderm
22
c. embryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
d. embryonic endoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
e. embryonic mesoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
3-45. Presumptive germ of notochord is situated:
a. in front of Hensen’s node along the midline of the blastodisk
b. in the anterior part of the primitive groove
c. in the posterior part of the primitive groove
d. in the Hensen’s node
e. in the region of the prtechordal plate
3-46. Formation of fetal organs and tissues takes place in the process of:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
c. the first phase of the gastrulation
d. the second phase of the gastrulation
e. differentiation of the germ layers
3-47. Nephrotome gives rise to:
a. urogenital system
b. nervous system
c. respiratory system
d. digestive system
e. endocrine system
3-48. Neural tube gives rise to:
a. respiratory system
b. digestive system
c. reproductive system
d. nervous system
e. endocrine system
3-49. Ganglious lamellas develop into:
a. brain
b. spinal cord
c. spinal ganglions and chromaffin tissue
d. sense organs
e. dermal ectoderm
3-50. Myotome develops into:
a. myocardium
b. smooth muscle
c. skeletal muscle
d. axial skeleton
e. dermal connective tissue
3-51. Sclerotome develops into:
a. axial skeleton
b. skeletal muscle
c. dermal connective tissue
d. notochord
e. smooth muscle
3-52. Dermatome gives rise to:
a. dermal epithelium
b. dermal connective tissue
c. skeletal muscle
d. hair
e. sebaceous glands
3-53. Epidermis arises from:
23
a. mesenchyme
b. intestinal entoderm
c. dermal ectoderm
d. neural tube
e. mesodermal splanchnotom
3-54. Hemopoietic organs arise from:
a. mesodermal somites
b. mesenchyme
c. endoderm
d. ectoderm
e. mesodermal splanchnotom
3-55. Connective tissue arises from:
a. ectoderm
b. entoderm
c. mesenchyme
d. mesodermal splanchnotom
e. neural plate
3-56. Blood arises from:
a. ectoderm
b. mesemchyme
c. endoderm
d. nephrotome
e. mesodermal splanchnotom
3-57. Smooth muscle arises from:
a. mesodermal somites
b. mesodermal splanchnotom
c. nephrotome
d. neural tube
e. mesenchyme
3-58. Blood vessels arise from:
a. mesodermal somites
b. nephrotome
c. mesenchyme
d. neural plate
e. mesodermal splanchnotom
3-59. Epithelium of the stomach, intestine, liver and pancreas arises from:
a. mesoderm
b. mesenchyme
c. ectoderm
d. gastrocele
e. extraembryonic endoderm
3-60. Epithelium of the trachea, of lungs and of bronchi arises from:
a. mesoderm
b. mesemchyme
c. prechordal plate
d. endoderm
e. neural tube
3-61. Epithelium of the kidneys, gonads, uterus, oviducts and deferent duct arises
from:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesenchyme
24
d. splanchnotom
e. nephrogonotom
3-62. Extraembryonic organ that consists of cytotrophoblast and primary villi; it carries
out trophic, respiratory, excretory and protective function:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. primary chorion
e. placenta
3-63. Trophoblast develops into:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. primary chorion
e. umbilical cord
3-64. Which of the following functions does amnion carry out:
a. hemopoietic
b. protective
c. endocrine
d. immune
e. transport
3-65. Which of extraembryonic organs arises from maternal epiblast:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. secondary chorion
e. primary chorion
3-66. Formation of a cavity between cells of epiblast occurs at the beginning of the
second week of the human prenatal development. Which extraembryonic organ is
formed in this way:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. placenta
e. umbilical cord
3-67. Extraembryonic organ that defends fetus from mechanical injury:
a. yolk sac
b. amnuon
c. allantois
d. umbilical cord
e. placenta
3-68. Extraembryonic organ that represents reservoir filled with amniotic fluid:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. chorion
e. placenta
3-69. Wall of the amnion consists of:
a. extraembryonic endoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
b. extraembryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
c. embryonic ectoderm and embryonic mesoderm
d. embryonic endoderm and embryonic mesoderm
25
e. extraembryonic mesoderm and embryonic mesenchyme
3-70. Function of the human yolk sac:
a. protective
b. hemopoietic
c. endocrine
d. excretory
e. secretory
3-71. What function does the human yolk sac perform:
a. protective
b. hemopoietic
c. endocrine
d. immune
e. excretory
3-72. What do we call the extraembryonic organ, in the wall of which the first blood
vessels, the first blood cells and primary germ cells arise:
a. amnion
b. allantois
c. yolk sac
d. placenta
e. umbilical cord
3-73. In the process of the gastrulation hypoblast develops into:
a. amnion
b. primary yolk sac
c. embryonic mesoderm
d. primary chorion
e. secondary chorion
3-74. What is the wall of yolk sac made up of:
a. extraembryonic endoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
b. extraembryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
c. embryonic ectoderm and embryonic mesoderm
d. embryonic endoderm and embryonic mesoderm
e. extraembryonic mesoderm and embryonic mesenchyme
3-75. Wall of allantois consists of:
a. extraembryonic endoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
b. embryonic endoderm and embryonic mesoderm
c. embryonic ectoderm and embryonic mesoderm
d. extraembryonic ectoderm and embryonic mesoderm
e. extraembryonic ectoderm and embryonic endoderm
3-76. What do we call the extraembryonic organ that is formed at the end of
gasrulation, and represents finger-shaped outgrowth of the extraembryonic endoderm
projecting into the connecting stalk:
a. amnion
b. allantois
c. yolk sac
d. placenta
e. umbilical cord
3-77. Extraembryonic organ that connects germ with maternal organism:
a. yolk sac
b. amnion
c. allantois
d. umbilical cord
26
e. placenta
3-78. Which placental structures take part in the elaboration of hormones:
a. chorial epithelium
b. connective tissue of the chorionic villi
c. endothelium of the fetal vessels
d. Langhans stria
e. basal lamina of the maternal placenta
3-79. What do we call the extraembryonic organ connecting the embryo with the
maternal organism and consisting of fetal and maternal parts:
a. umbilical cord
b. amnion
c. placenta
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
3-80. What is the maternal placenta made up of:
a. chorionic plate and chorionic villi
b. decidual membrane of the endometrium
c. deciduous capsular membrane
d. deciduous parietal membrane
e. myometrium
3-81. What is the maternal placenta made up of:
a. chorionic plate and chorionic villi
b. decidual membrane of the endometrium
c. myometrium
d. deciduous capsular membrane
e. deciduous parietal membrane
3-82. What is cotyledon of the developed placenta made up of:
a. branchy anchoring villus
b. lacuna containing maternal blood
c. basal lamina and septa
d. deciduous capsular membrane
e. deciduous parietal membrane
3-83. Human chorionic villi:
a. come in contact with the endometrial epithelium
b. come in contact with the endometrial lamina propria
c. are bathed directly by circulating maternal blood
d. are situated along the whole chorionic surface
e. come in contact with the endothelium of blood vessels
3-84. Extraembryonic organ that connects fetus with placenta:
a. yolk sac
b. amnion
c. allantois
d. umbilical cord
e. primary chorion
3-85. What function does the umbilical cord perform:
a. supporting
b. homeostatic
c. endocrine
d. immune
e. transport
3-86. What tissue is the stroma of umbilical cord made up of:
a. loose connective
27
b. adipose tissue
c. cartilaginous
d. reticular
e. mucous
28
mesoderm
d. chorionic plate, and chorionic villi
bathed directly by circulating maternal
blood
e. extraembryonic ectoderm and
embryonic endoderm
29
3-5 e 3-38 d 3-71 b 3-104 e
3-6 d 3-39 a 3-72 c 3-105 c
3-7 b 3-40 a 3-73 b 3-106 d
3-8 d 3-41 d 3-74 a 3-107 b
3-9 a 3-42 a 3-75 a 3-108 a
3-10 c 3-43 b 3-76 b 3-109 a
3-11 b 3-44 a 3-77 e 3-110 d
3-12 e 3-45 a 3-78 a 3-111 c
3-13 c 3-46 e 3-79 c 3-112 b
3-14 e 3-47 a 3-80 a 3-113 a
3-15 a 3-48 d 3-81 b 3-114 c
3-16 a 3-49 c 3-82 a 3-115 d
3-17 c 3-50 c 3-83 c 3-116 e
3-18 e 3-51 a 3-84 d
3-19 a 3-52 b 3-85 e
3-20 a 3-53 c 3-86 e
3-21 c 3-54 b 3-87 a
3-22 d 3-55 c 3-88 d
3-23 e 3-56 b 3-89 b
3-24 d 3-57 e 3-90 c
3-25 b 3-58 c 3-91 e
3-26 d 3-59 d 3-92 a
3-27 b 3-60 c 3-93 d
3-28 b 3-61 e 3-94 e
3-29 e 3-62 d 3-95 c
3-30 b 3-63 d 3-96 b
3-31 a 3-64 b 3-97 e
3-32 a 3-65 a 3-98 c
3-33 a 3-66 a 3-99 d
4. EPITHELIA
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
4-1. What type of tissue is characterized by the polar differentiation of the cells:
a. neural
b. loose irregular connective
c. muscular
30
d. epithelial
e. bone
4-2. Tissue that does not contain blood vessels and is devoid of intercellular
substance:
a. epithelial
b. bone
c. neural
d. loose irregular connective
e. muscular
4-3. Formation of basal membrane of the surface epithelium is due to the vital activity
of:
a. blood plasma
b. nervous elements and subjacent connective tissue
c. fatty tissue
d. epithelium and subjacent connective tissue
e. muscular tissue
4-4. Location of the surface epithelium:
a. on the outer surface of the body and the luminal surfaces of cavities
b. within the mucosal lamina propria
c. within the submucosa of alimentary canal
d. within the intermuscular connective tissue of the tongue
e. within the cartilage of trachea
4-5. Epithelial cells are bound together by means of:
a. network of elastic fibres
b. network of collagen fibres
c. liquid amorphous substance
d. different types of cell contacts
e. mineralized amorphous substance
4-6. Which of the following functions is typical of the surface epithelium:
a. protective
b. hemopoietic
c. contractile
d. prostaglandin secretion
e. conduction of the nerve impulse
4-7. Simple squamous epithelium (mesothelium) lines:
a. gastric mucosa
b. tracheal mucosa
c. serous tunics
d. esophageal mucosa
e. ureteral mucosa
4-8. Small intestine (lined by epithelium) performs absorptive function. What type of
epithelium corresponds to that function:
a. stratified squamous keratinized
b. simple squamous
c. transitional
d. simple pseudostratified ciliated
e. simple columnar with striated border
4-9. Epithelium consisting of different shaped cells, all of which rest on a basement
membrane:
a. simple cuboidal
b. simple columnar
c. simple squamous
31
d. pseudostratified columnar ciliated
e. stratified squamous non-keratinized
4-10. Goblet (flask) cells of the pseudostratified ciliated epithelium take part in:
a. regeneration
b. mucus secretion
c. phagocytosis
d. immune reactions
e. hormone synthesis
4-11. Cell that represents unicellular gland of the pseudostratified ciliated epithelium:
a. ciliated cell
b. basal cell
c. short intercalated cell
d. long intercalated cell
e. goblet cell
4-12. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium lines:
a. esophagus
b. stomach
c. intestine
d. trachea
e. renal tubules
4-13. Inner organ that contains mucous tunic lined by pseudostratified ciliated
epithelium:
a. esophagus
b. stomach
c. intestine
d. renal tubules
e. oviduct
4-14. Epithelium that consists of three layers of cells – basal, spinous and superficial:
a. transitional
b. stratified squamous non-keratinized
c. stratified squamous keratinized
d. pseudostratified ciliated
e. simple columnar
4-15. Epithelium that consists of five layers of cells – basal cell layer, stratum
spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum:
a. transitional
b. stratified squamous non-keratinized
c. stratified squamous keratinized
d. pseudostratified ciliated
e. simple columnar
4-16. In the tissue culture different cells of the stratified epithelium were inoculated:
in the first vial there are cells of basal layer, in the second vial there are cells of
stratum lucidum, in the third vial there are cells of stratum granulosum, in the fourth
vial there are cells of stratum corneum. In which of the vials will the cells proliferation
occur:
a. the first
b. the second
c. the third
d. the fourth
e. none of them
4-17. Layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium that contains stem (founded)
cells:
32
a. stratum granulosum
b. stratum basale
c. stratum spinosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
4-18. Layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium that is made up of
cylindrical cells:
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
4-19. Layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium that is made up of polygonal
cells:
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
4-20. Shape of the cells that form basal layer of the stratified squamous non-
keratinized epithelium is:
a. flattened
b. stellate
c. polygonal
d. prismatic
e. fusiform
4-21. Shape of the cells that form stratum spinosum (Malpighian layer) of the
stratified squamous epithelium is:
a. flattened
b. stellate
c. polygonal
d. prismatic
e. fusiform
4-22. Epithelium that can be stratched considerably without being damaged:
a. transitional
b. stratified squamous non-keratinized
c. stratified squamous keratinized
d. pseudostratified ciliated
e. simple columnar
4-23. What cells make up the surface layer of transitional epithelium:
a. prismatic
b. basal
c. endocrine
d. elongated (aggregated)
e. large (that can be stratched considerably without being damaged )
4-24. Endocrine glands pour their secretion:
a. into oral cavity
b. on to the surface of skin
c. into blood
d. into stomach and bowels
e. into gallbladder
4-25. Endocrine glands are characterized by:
33
a. presence of intercalated parts
b. presence of striated ducts
c. presence of interlobular excretory ducts
d. absence of excretory ducts
e. presence of common excretory duct
4-26. Glands that are characterized by holocrine type of secretion:
a. pancreas
b. liver
c. submandibular
d. sebaceous
e. parotid
4-27. Glands that are characterized by apocrine secretion:
a. pancreas
b. liver
c. submandibular
d. mammary
e. parotid
4-28. Glands that are characterized by apocrine secretion:
a. pancreas
b. liver
c. submandibular
d. sweat
e. parotid
4-29. Holocrine type of secretion is characterized by the fact that:
a. glandular cells are completely destroyed
b. apical parts of the glandular cells are destroyed
c. basal parts of the glandular cells are destroyed
d. glandular cells remain
e. microvilli on the apical pole are destroyed
4-30. Apocrine type of secretion is characterized by the fact that:
a. glandular cells are completely destroyed
b. apical parts of glandular cells are destroyed
c. basal parts of glandular cells are destroyed
d. glandular cells remain
e. micrivilli on the apical pole are destroyed
4-31. Merocrine type of secretion is characterized by the fact that:
a. glandular cells are completely destroyed
b. apical parts of glandular cells are destroyed
c. basal parts of glandular cells are destroyed
d. glandular cells remain
e. microvilli on the apical pole are destroyed
4-32. Gland that has branchy excretory duct:
a. simple alveolar (acinar)
b. endocrine
c. simple tubular
d. simple tubulo-alveolar (racemose)
e. compound
4-33. Gland that has unbranched excretory duct:
a. compound alveolar
b. endocrine
c. compound tubular
d. compound tubulo-alveolar
34
e. simple
4-34. In the histologic specimen of gland one can discover PAS-positive intracellular
secretion. What substances does that secretion contain:
a. carbohydrates
b. proteins
c. fat
d. nucleic acids
e. water.
Epithelium … is made up of …
4-35. Mesothelium a. one layer of cells, the height of which is
4-36. Simple cuboidal about the same as their width
4-37. Simple columnar b. one layer of cells the height of which is
4-38. Stratified squamous non- very little as compared to their width
keratinized c. one layer of cells the height of which is
4-39. Stratified squamous keratinized distinctly greater than their width
d. five layers of cells: stratum basale, stratum
spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum
lucidum, stratum corneum
e. three layers of cells: basal layer of
columnar cells, intermediate layer of
polyhedral cells, superficial layer of
squamous cells
Epithelium … lines …
4-40. Mesothelium a. esophageal mucosa
4-41. Simple cuboidal b. serous tunics
4-42. Pseudostratified ciliated c. convoluted renal tubules
4-43. Stratified squamous non- d. tracheal mucosa
keratinized e. mucous tunic of the urinary bladder
4-44. Transitional
To … glands belong …
4-50. Serous a. sweat glands
4-51. Mucous b. glands, ducts of which open into hair
4-52. Mixed follicles
4-53. Sebaceous c. goblet cells
4-54. Perspiratory d. parotid glands
e. submandibular gland
35
4. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Epithelium»
36
5. BLOOD. HEMATOSIS
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
5-1. Blood is derived from:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderma parietalis
d. mesoderma visceralis
e. mesenchyma
5-2. Of the total volume of blood plasma approximately is:
a. 55-60%
b. 40-45%
c. 20-30%
d. 10-20%
e. 1-5%
5-3. Blood cells that contain hemoglobin:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-4. Blood cells that have lost their nuclei and other organelles:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-5. What blood cells perform respiratory function:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-6. The life span of erythrocytes is approximately:
a. 8 to 12 hours
b. two months
c. 120 days
d. 10 to 12 minutes
e. one year
5-7. What types of erythrocytes are characterized by biconcave shape:
a. spherocytes
b. stomatocytes
c. echinocytes
d. discocytes
e. planocytes
5-8. Anuclear blood cells containing remains of organelles:
a. neurtophils
b. basophils
c. lymphocytes
d. reticulocytes
e. monocytes
5-9. Blood cells whose cytoplasm shows granular and reticular structures that are
37
stainable with cresyl blue brilliant:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. basophils
d. eosinophils
e. reticulocytes
5-10. Percentage of fetal hemoglobin in the blood of adult person constitutes about:
a. 2%
b. 12%
c. 50%
d. 82%
e. 100%
5-11. Percentage of human blood erythrocytes that contain rhesus-factor on their
surfaces is:
a. 0,5%
b. 10%
c. 30%
d. 86%
e. 100%
5-12. Diameter of the most erythrocytes is about:
a. 7,5 micrometers
b. 1,0 micrometer
c. 22,5 micrometers
d. 120,0 micrometers
e. 500,0 micrometers
5-13. Shape of leucocytes:
a. rounded
b. rectangular
c. stellate
d. spindle-shaped
e. cylindrical
5-14. Formed (cellular) elements of blood are:
a. fibroblasts
b. lipocytes
c. pigment cells
d. chondrocytes
e. neutrophils
5-15. Which of the following cells represents granulocyte:
a. neutrophil
b. monocyte
c. erythrocyte
d. lymphocyte
e. reticulocyte
5-16. Life span of the neutrophils is:
a. one year
b. 8 to 12 hours
c. one month
d. 120 days
e. 10 to 12 minutes
5-17. Blood cells that contain lobulated nuclei, and small cytoplasmic granules
stainable with acid and basic dyes. Those cells perform protective function:
a. lymphocytes
38
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. neutrophils
e. eosinophils
5-18. Blood cell that contains a large number of lysosomes in its cytoplasm:
a. neutrophil
b. basophil
c. B-lymphocyte
d. T-lymphocyte
e. erythrocyte
5-19. In the nidus of the acute inflammation neutrophils perform several functions.
What function is the main:
a. antibody formation
b. histamine secretion
c. heparin production
d. lysozyme secretion
e. active multiplication
5-20 Neutrophils:
a. are formed in the spleen
b. are formed in the red bone marrow
c. secrete histamine
d. synthesize immunoglobulins
e. their specific granules contain major basic protein
5-21. Blood cells that contain bilobed nuclei, and large cytoplasmic granules stainable
red-orange:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-22. Blood granulocytes that contain large acidophilic cytoplasmic granules:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. eosinophils
d. erythrocytes
e. neutrophils
5-23. Granules of which blood cells contain histaminases:
a. basophils
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. B-lymphocytes
e. eosinophils
5-24. Blood cells that are characterized by presence of the ovoid cytoplasmic granules
containing elongated crystalloid:
a. erythrocytes
b. monocytes
c. eosinophils
d. neutrophils
e. basophils
5-25. Antiparasitic activity is typical of:
a. eosinophils
b. basophils
39
c. neutrophils
d. monocytes
e. erythrocytes
5-26. Which of the following types of blood cells are granulocytes:
a. basophils
b. lymphocytes
c. monocytes
d. thrombocytes
e. erythrocytes
5-27. Blood cells that contain large basophilic cytoplasmic granules:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. eosinophils
d. neutrophils
e. basophils
5-28. Cells that produce histamine and take part in the regulation of vascular
permeability:
a. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
c. monocytes
d. basophils
e. thrombocytes
5-29. Blood cells that take part in the regulation of vascular permeability:
a. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
c. basophils
d. monocytes
e. lymphocytes
5-30. Blood cells that exhibit round to horseshoe-shaped nuclei occupying most of the
cytoplasm, which appears as a thin basophilic rim around the nucleus:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-31. Blood cell that gives rise to plasmocyte:
a. neutrophil
b. basophil
c. B-lymphocyte
d. T-lymphocyte
e. monocyte
5-32. Which of the following cells are granulocytes:
a. monocytes
b. basophils
c. segmentated neutrophils
d. eosinophils
e. stab (band) neutrophils
5-33. Blood cell that can move out of the vascular system to enter surrounding tissues
and give rise to macrophage:
a. neutrophil
b. basophil
c. erythrocyte
40
d. lymphocyte
e. monocyte
5-34. The largest blood cells that contain round or indented (kidney-shaped) placed
eccentrically nuclei, and poorly basophilic cytoplasm:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. eosinophils
d. neutrophils
e. basophils
5-35. Monocytes give rise to:
a. microglia
b. oligodendrocytes
c. protoplasmatic astrocytes
d. ependymal cells
e. fibrillar astrocytes
5-36. Monocytes give rise to:
a. hepatic macrophages (Kupffer cells)
b. hepatocytes
c. B-cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans
d. gastric chief cells
e. gastric parietal cells
5-37. Blood cells that consist of granulomere and hyalomere:
a. neutrophils
b. basophils
c. lymphocytes
d. thrombocytes
e. erythrocytes
5-38. Irregular-shaped fragments of megakaryocyte, that are avoid of nuclei and are
usually aggregated:
a. erythrocytes
b. blood platelets
c. monocytes
d. lymphocytes
e. basophils
5-39. Cells of the red bone marrow that release membrane-enclosed fragments of
their cytoplasm as platelets:
a. megakaryocytes
b. myeloblasts
c. erythroblasts
d. promonocytes
e. metamyelocytes
5-40. What is the percentage of lymphocytes in the leucogram of a healthy person:
a. 1-2%
b. 4-6%
c. 7-8%
d. 18-40%
e. 45-70%
5-41. What is the percentage of monocytes in the leucogram of an adult person:
a. 1-2%
b. 2-9%
c. 15-30%
d. 45-70%
41
e. 95%
5-42. What is the percentage of segmentated neutrophils in the leucogram of a
healthy person:
a. 1-2%
b. 2-9%
c. 45-70%
d. 95%
e. 15-30%
5-43. Common cell that gives rise to all types of blood cells:
a. megakaryoblast
b. stem cell
c. unipotential cell
d. macrophage
e. reticulum cell
5-44. What blood cells are formed in the thymus:
a. B-lymphocytes
b. T-lymphocytes
c. granulocytes
d. monocytes
e. thrombocytes
5-45. At what age does liver carry out hemopoietic function:
a. senility
b. puberty
c. embryonal
d. whole life
e. mature
5-46. Formed elements of blood were separated from plasma with the help of
centrifugation, and then they were injected into culture medium. What cells can be
formed in the colony:
a. stem cells
b. segmentated neutrophils
c. erythrocytes
d. eosinophils
e. thrombocytes
5-47. What process occurs in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes during erythropoiesis:
a. accumulation of hemoglobin
b. appearance of the specific granules
c. accumulation of lysosomes
d. increase of RNA content
e. increase of the number of mitochondria
5-48. Effector cells of the humoral immunity are:
a. reticulocytes
b. adipocytes
c. plasmocytes
d. T-lymphocytes
e. fibroblasts
5-49. Effector cells of the cellular immunity are:
a. reticulocytes
b. adipocytes
c. B-lymphocytes
d. T-lymphocytes-killers
e. plasmocytes
42
5-50. Cells that play a major role in both cellular and humoral immunity:
a. fibroblasts
b. reticulocytes
c. lymophocytes, macrophages, plasmocytes
d. erythrocytes, thrombocytes
e. adipocytes
5-51. In the postnatal life erythrocytes are formed in:
a. thymus
b. spleen
c. red bone marrow
d. lymph nodes
e. tonsils
5-52. What structures are formed in the red bone marrow:
a. T-lymphocytes , microglia
b. T-lymphocytes, pigment cells
c. T-lymphocytes, basophils, fibroblasts
d. fibroblasts, pigment cells, plasmocytes
e. thrombocytes, erythrocytes, granulocytes, B-lymphocytes, monocytes, precursor-
cells of T-lymphocytes
5-53. What cells are characterized by the ability for unlimited self-reproduction:
a. stem (founder) cells
b. blast cells
c. maturing cells
d. mature cells
e. unipotential cells – precursors
5-54. What blood cells are formed in the wall of the yolk sac and of other
extraembryonic organs:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. primary erythrocytes, secondary erythrocytes primitive granulocytes
d. thrombocytes
e. T-lymphocytes, basophils
5-55. In the intrauterine life, the intravascular formation of blood cells occurs in:
a. spleen
b. red bone marrow
c. thymus
d. pancreas
e. yolk sac
5-56. At what stage of the enbryonal development does hemapoiesis in the liver begin:
a. on the third day
b. on the seventh day
c. in the sixth month
d. in the fifth week
e. in the eighth month
5-57. At what stage of the embryonal development does hematopoiesis in the spleen
begin:
a. on the third day
b. on the seventh day
c. in the sixth month
d. in the third month
e. in the fifth month
5-58. At what stage of the embryonal development does hematopoiesis in the thymus
43
begin:
a. on the third day
b. in the seventh or eighth week
c. in the third month
d. in the sixth month
e. in the seventh month
5-59. In the hepato-thymo-lienal period of embryonal blood cell formation, there is an
universal hematopoietic organ:
a. thymus
b. red bone marrow
c. lymph nodes
d. spleen
e. liver
5-60. In the postembryonal period monocytes are formed in:
a. spleen
b. thymus
c. red bone marrow
d. tonsils
e. lymph nodes
5-61. In the postembryonal period monocytes are formed in:
a. red bone marrow
b. thymus
c. lymph nodes
d. tonsils
e. spleen
5-62. Type of the hematopoietic cells of postembryonal hematosis, that are
characterized by considerable morphologic changes as a result of their fast
differentiation:
a. stem (founder) cells
b. semi-stem cells
c. unipotential cells – precursor cells
d. maturing cells
e. blast cells
5-63. In what organ does embryonal hematocytopoiesis begin:
a. red bone marrow
b. spleen
c. liver
d. extraembryonic organs
e. thymus
5-64. The first stem cells of blood are formed in:
a. red bone marrow
b. yolk sac
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. liver
5-65. In the antenatal life the formation of blast cells takes place in:
a. liver
b. spleen
c. red bone marrow
d. yolk sac
e. thymus
5-66. What structures take part in the quantitative regulation of thrombocytopoiesis in
44
the postnatal life:
a. adipose cells
b. endotheliocytes and adventitial cells
c. macrophages
d. microenvironment and thrombopoietins
e. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
5-67. What structures take part in the quantitative regulation of erythropoiesis in the
postnatal life:
a. microenvironment and erythropoietins
b. adipose cells
c. endotheliocytes and adventitial cells
d. macrophages
e. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
5-68. What structures take part in the quantitative regulation of granulocytopoiesis in
the postnatal life:
a. endotheliocytes and adventitial cells
b. adipose cells
c. microenvironment and granulocytopoietins
d. macrophages
e. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
5-69. Myelocytes are:
a. pleuripotent haemal stem cells
b. half-stem partly determined hemopoietic cells
c. unipotential cells-precursors
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-70. Metamyelocytes are:
a. pleuropotent haemal stem cells
b. half-stem partly determined hemopoietic cells
c. unipotential cells-precursors
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-71. Colony forming units for granulocytes (CFU-G) are:
a. pleuripotent haemal stem cells
b. half-stem partly determined hemopoietic cells
c. unipotential cells-precursors
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-72. Colony forming units for erythrocytes (CFU-E) are:
a. pleuripotent haemal stem cells
b. half-stem partly determined hemopoietic cells
c. unipotential cells-precursors
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-73. Colony forming units for megakaryoblasts (CFU-Meg) are:
a. pleuripotent haemal stem cells
b. half-stem partly determined hemopoietic cells
c. unipotential cells-precursors
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-74. What cells of the erythropoiesis contain nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm:
a. basophilic erythroblasts
45
b. polychromatic erythroblasts
c. acidophilic erythroblasts
d. reticulocytes
e. mature erythrocytes
5-75. What cells of erythropoiesis contain nucleus and acidophilic cytoplasm:
a. basophilic erythroblasts
b. polychromatic erythroblasts
c. acidophilic erythroblasts
d. reticulocytes
e. mature erythrocytes
5-76. Which of the developing granulocytes contain poorly lobulated nucleus and
basophilic cytoplasmic granules:
a. promyelocytes
b. neutrophile myelocytes
c. basophile myelocytes
d. eosinophilic stab leukocytes
e. basophilic leukocytes
5-77. What cells of the erythropoiesis contain nucleus, and cytoplasm stainable with
both basic and acid dyes:
a. basophilic erythroblasts
b. polychromatic erythroblasts
c. acidophilic erythroblasts
d. reticulocytes
e. mature erythrocytes
5-78. What cells of the erythropoiesis contain thin reticular cytoplasmic structure:
a. basophilic erythroblasts
b. polychromatic erythroblasts
c. acidophilic erythroblasts
d. reticulocytes
e. mature erythrocytes
5-79. What blood cells undergo a process of maturation in the thymus:
a. erythrocytes
b. T-lymphocytes
c. B-lymphocytes
d. macrophages
e. granulocytes
5-80. What blood cells are formed by separation of small masses of cytoplasm from
megakaryocytes:
a. erythrocytes
b. blood platelets
c. granulocytes
d. monocytes
e. lymphocytes
5-81. What process takes place during granulopoiesis:
a. synthesis and storage of hemoglobin
b. accumulation of specific granules
c. formation of the polynuclear cells
d. increase of the cells in size
e. pushing the nuclei out of cells
5-82. Antigen-dependent multiplication of the B-lymphocytes takes place in:
a. lymph nodes
b. spleen
46
c. tonsils
d. red bone marrow
e. solitary lymphatic follicles of the digestive tract
5-83. What cells of the red bone marrow releases membrane-enclosed fragments of
its cytoplasm as platelets:
a. megakaryocytes
b. lymphoblasts
c. myeloblasts
d. erythroblasts
e. monoblasts
47
5. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Blood. Hematopoiesis»
48
6. CONNECTIVE TISSUES
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
6-1. Connective tissues arise from:
a. endoderm
b. ectoderm
c. splanchnotom
d. embryonic stalk
e. mesenchyme
6-2. Transport and trophic function of the connective tissue is performed because of:
a. collagen fibres
b. adipocytes
c. elastic fibres
d. plasmocytes
e. amorphous component of the intercellular substance
6-3. What cells participate in the regulation of permeability of the intercellular
substance of the connective tissue?
a. mastocytes
b. plasmocytes
c. macrophages
d. lipocytes
e. pericytes
6-4. Connective tissue that consists of a large number of different cells, ground
substance and loosely arranged fibres:
a. dense irregular fibrous
b. dense regular fibrous
c. loose irregular fibrous
d. reticular
e. pericytes
6-5. What tissue surrounds blood vessels:
a. dense irregular fibrous
b. dense regular fibrous
c. loose irregular fibrous
d. osseous
e. cartilaginous
6-6. Connective tissue that is characterized by the presence of a large number of
dense fibres arranged parallel to one another, of few cells and of little ground
substance:
a. dense irregular fibrous
49
b. dense regular fibrous
c. loose irregular fibrous
d. reticular
e. adiposer
6-7. Dense regular connective tissue is found in:
a. tendons, ligaments, fibrous membranes
b. stroma of hemopoietic organs
c. reticular layer of derma
d. papillary layer of derma
e. tunica adventitia of blood vessels
6-8. What fibres predominate in the tendons:
a. mature elastic fibres
b. reticular fibres
c. collagen fibres
d. oxytalan elastic fribres
e. elaunin fibres fibres
6-9. Flattened ramifying cell of the connective tissue; it contains large oval light
nucleus, intensely basophilic endoplasm and poorly basophilic ectoplasm:
a. histiocyte
b. mature fibroblast
c. plasma cell
d. basophil
e. adipocyte
6-10. Connective tissue cell that participates in the synthesis of intercellular
substance:
a. mature fibroblast
b. plasma cell
c. basophil
d. adipocyte
e. pigment cell
6-11. The main function of fibroblasts:
a. synthesis of the intercellular substance
b. storage of the reserve fat
c. melanin synthesis
d. immunoglobulin synthesis
e. hormone synthesis
6-12. Connective tissue cells of different shape that contain small dark nucleus and
numerous lysosomes and phagosomes:
a. fibroblasts
b. plasma cells
c. basophils
d. pigment cells
e. histiocytes
6-13. Histiocytes of the loose fibrous connective tissue:
a. perform phagocytosis
b. accumulate reserve fat
c. synthesize melanin
d. synthesize immunoglobulins
e. synthesize hormones
6-14. There is a histologic specimen of loose fibrous connective tissue that is stained
with special dye detecting lysosomal enzyme – acid phosphatase. What cells contain
much of that enzyme:
50
a. fibroblasts
b. plasmocytes
c. adipocytes
d. macrophages
e. tissular basophils
6-15. Oval cell of the connective tissue that contains small compact nucleus and large
basophilic granules:
a. fibroblast
b. plasmocyte
c. basophil
d. pigment cell
e. histiocyte
6-16. Connective tissue cell, the cytoplasmic granules of which contain heparin and
histamine:
a. histiocyte
b. mature fibroblast
c. plasmocyte
d. mastocyte
e. adipocyte
6-17. Cells of loose irregular connective tissue that participate in the energy
production and water metabolism:
a. fibroblasts
b. plasmocytes
c. macrophages
d. mast cells
e. adipocytes
6-18. Mast cells of the loose connective tissue:
a. synthesize and secrete histamine and hyaluronic acid
b. synthesize and accumulate fat
c. perform phagocytosis
d. synthesize immunoglobulins
e. synthesize hormones
6-19. Rounded connective tissue cell, the central zone of which is occupied by one
large fat drop:
a. fibroblast
b. plasmocyte
c. adipocyte
d. basophil
e. pigment cell
6-20.The main function of adipocytes is:
a. synthesis of intercellular substance
b. accumulation of reserve fat
c. melanin synthesis
d. immunoglobulin synthesis
e. hormone synthesis
6-21. Rounded connective tissue cell that contains a small eccentric nucleus
surrounded by well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum:
a. fibroblast
b. plasmocyte
c. adipocyte
d. basophil
e. pigment cell
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6-22. Connective tissue cell that synthesize immunoglobulins:
a. histiocyte
b. mature fibroblast
c. plasma cell
d. basophil
e. adipocyte
6-23. On the electron photomicrograph there is a cell of loose fibrous connective
tissue, that takes part in the immune reactions. This cell contains eccentric nucleus, a
prominent clear area in the cytoplasm that is adjacent to the nucleus, and well
developed granular endoplasmic reticulum. What cell is it:
a. mast cell
b. plasmocyte
c. macrophage
d. lipocyte
e. fibroblast
54
6. Correct answers to the questions on the subject «Connective tissues»
55
7. SKELETAL TISSUES
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
7-41. At present, transplantation of the articular cartilage is widely used owing to its
immunological resistance. How can you explain this fact:
a. low permeability and absence of vessels
b. presence of large amount of intercellular substance
c. presence of isogenous groups of chondrocytes
d. presence of glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans within ground substance
e. presence of lacunar capsules
7-42. Syndesmosis is union of bones by means of:
a. dense fibrous connective tissue
b. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
c. adipose tissue
d. reticular tissue
e. mucous tissue
7-43. Synchondrosis is union of bones by means of:
a. dense fibrous connective tissue
b. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
c. adipose tissue
d. reticular tissue
e. cartilaginous tissue
7-44. Synostosis is union of bones by means of:
a. dense fibrous connective tissue
b. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
c. adipose tissue
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d. bone tissue
e. cartilaginous tissue
7-45. Fibrous ring of intervertebral disks consists of:
a. dense fibrous connective tissue
b. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
c. hyaline cartilage
d. fibrocartilage
e. elastic cartilage
7-46. Fibres, content of which increase within gelatinous nucleus of intervertebral disk,
with age:
a. collagen
b. reticular
c. mature elastic
d. oxytalan
e. elaunin
7-47. Fibrous tunic of the joint capsule consists of:
a. dense fibrous connective tissue
b. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
c. hyaline cartilage
d. fibrocartilage
e. elastic cartilage
7-48. Integumentary layer of synovial membrane of the joint capsule is lined by:
a. stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
b. stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
c. one to six layers of synoviocytes
d. pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
e. mesothelium
7-49. Function of A-cells of superficial layer of synovial membrane is:
a. resorption of synovial fluid
b. secretion of proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid into synovial fluid
c. synthesis of collagen fibres
d. formation of elastic fibres
e. removal of articular cartilage
7-50. Function of B-cells of superficial layer of synovial membrane is:
a. resorption of synovial fluid
b. secretion of proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid into synovial fluid
c. synthesis of collagen fibres
d. formation of elastic fibres
e. removal of articular cartilage
7-51. Layer of basal zone of articular cartilage:
a. acellular lamina
b. calcified layer
c. tangential layer
d. transitional layer
e. rows of chondrocytes
7-52. Layer of intermediate zone of articular cartilage:
a. acellular lamina
b. calcified layer
c. tangential layer
d. transitional layer
e. rows of chondrocytes
7-53. Layer of superficial zone of articular cartilage:
62
a. acellular lamina
b. calcified layer
c. non-calcified layer
d. layer of isogenous groups
e. rows of chondrocytes
7-54. Cells that prevail in synovial fluid of a healthy articulation:
a. basophils
b. synoviocytes
c. monocytes
d. neutrophils
e. eosinophils
7-55. Concentration of the cells in one cubic millimeter of synovial fluid of healthy
articulation is:
a. two hundred or less
b. ten thousand
c. fifty thousand
d. one hundred thousand
e. two hundred thousand
7-56. Cells that prevail in synovial fluid in case of arthritis:
a. lymphocytes
b. synoviocytes
c. monocytes
d. neutrophils
e. eosinophils
8. MUSCULAR TISSUES
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
8-1. Smooth muscle of the most of inner organs and vessels arises from:
a. mesenchyme
b. ectoderm
c. endoderm
d. nerve tube
e. mesodermal somites
8-2. Shape of smooth muscle cell of mesenchymal origin is:
a. cuboidal
b. prismatic
c. pyramidal
d. fusiform
e. pyriform
8-3. Structural elements of the smooth muscle cell that contain ions of calcium:
a. mitochondria
b. actin filaments
c. myosin filaments
65
d. Golgi complex
e. vesicles of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
8-4. Actin filaments of the smooth muscle cell are connected with one another and
with plasmalemma by means of:
a. solid corpuscles
b. mitochondria
c. lysosomes
d. cisternae of the granular endoplasmic reticulum
e. canaliculi of the agranular endoplasmic reticulum
8-5. Impulse transmission from one smooth muscle cell to another is caused by:
a. desmosomes (bridge corpuscles)
b. interdigitations
c. nexuses
d. adhesive belts
e. tight junctions
8-6. In the histologic specimen of muscular tissue one can determine muscle fibres
containing a large number of nuclei situated under the sarcolemma. What type of
muscular tissue is it:
a. skeletal striated
b. smooth muscle of inner organs and vessels
c. cardiac
d. myoepithelial
e. neuromuscular tissue of the eye
8-7. Shape and location of satellite cells of the skeletal muscle:
a. cubical, within surrounding connective tissue
b. prismatic, on the basal membrane surrounding the muscle fibre
c. flattened, between plasmalemma of the muscle fibre and basal membrane
d. round, under the plasmalemma
e. pyramidal, within muscle fibre
8-8. On the electron photomicrograph of the peripheral zone of muscle fibre there is a
small flattened cell containing very few organelles. That cell is situated between
plasmolemma and basal membrane of muscle fibre. What do we call that cell:
a. fibroblast
b. satellite cells
c. fat cell
d. plasmocyte
e. histiocyte
8-9. Striated muscle is able to regenerate because of:
a. sarcolemma
b. satellite cells
c. sarcoplasm
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. myofibril
8-10. What structures are responsible for the trophism of striated muscle?
a. nuclei and common organelles
b. myofibrils
c. telophragmas and mesophragmas
d. sarcolemma
e. triads
8-11. Thin myofilaments of the sarcomere of striated muscle fibre make up:
a. telophragma
b. mesophragma
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c. isotropic disk
d. anisotropic disk
e. T-tubules
8-12. Thick myofilaments of the sarcomere of striated muscle fibre make up:
a. telophragma
b. masophragma
c. isotropic disk
d. anisotropic disk
e. T-tubules
8-13. Sarcomeres represent the basic reoccuring structural units of the myofibril,
comprising the myofilaments and associated organelles which lie between:
a. two M-bands
b. two Z-bands
c. M- and Z-bands
d. overlap zone and M-band
e. overlap zone and Z-band
8-14. Common border-line structure between adjacent sarcomeres is:
a. mesophragma (M line)
b. telophragma (Z line)
c. H-zone
d. T-tubules
e. overlap zone
8-15. Area of the sarcomere of striated muscle, in which one thick filament is
surrounded by six thin ones:
a. telophragma
b. mesophragma
c. overlap zone
d. isotropic disk
e. H-zone
8-16. In striated muscle fibre, the I-band of the sarcomere of myofibril is made up of:
a. myosin filaments
b. actin filaments
c. microtubules
d. collagen of the first type
e. collagen of the second type
8-17. H-zone (light zone) of A-band of the myofibril of striated muscle fibre is made up
of:
a. myosin filaments
b. actin filaments
c. microtubules
d. collagen of the first type
e. collagen of the second type
8-18. Z-line (telophragma) of the myofibrils of striated muscle fibre is situated:
a. in the middle of I-band
b. in the middle of overlap zone
c. in the middle of A-band
d. between overlap zone and M-band
e. on each side of M-band
8-19. Myosin filaments of the striated muscle are connected with Z line by means of
molecules of the following protein:
a. actin
b. myosin
67
c. tropomyosin
d. troponin
e. titin
8-20. In case of contraction of the striated muscle fibre, the heads of myosin
molecules come into contact with molecules of the following proteins:
a. tropomyosin and troponin
b. nebulin and myomesin
c. actin
d. nebulin and titin
e. titin and myomesin
8-21. M-line (mesophragma) of the myofibrils of striated muscle fibre is situated:
a. in the middle of I-band
b. in the middle of overlap zone
c. in the middle of A-band
d. between overlap zone and Z-band
e. on each side of Z-band
8-22. M line of the sarcomere of striated muscle fibre is made up of:
a. actin
b. actinin
c. tropomyosin
d. myomyosin
e. myosin
8-23. T-tubules represent:
a. microtubules
b. elongated mitochondria
c. invaginations of the sarcolemma into the sarcoplasm
d. canaliculi of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. invaginations of the basal membrane into sarcoplasm
8-24. Triad of the striated muscle fibre represents a complex that consists of:
a. one T-tubule and two cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. two T-tubules and one cistern of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. three T-tubules
d. three cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. one T-tubule and two mitochondria
8-25. Canaliculi of the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the striated muscle fibres contain:
a. ions of calcium
b. ions of phosphorus
c. molecules of adenosine triphosphoric acid
d. molecules of acid phosphatase
e. molecules of alkaline phosphatase
8-26. White skeletal muscle is characterized by:
a. presence of a large number of myofibrils
b. presence of a quantity of myoglobin
c. presence of a small number of myofibrils
d. absence of myofibrils
e. high content of the oxidizing enzymes
8-27. Red skeletal muscle is characterized by:
a. presence of a large number of myofibrils
b. presence of a quantity of myoglobin
c. low content of myoglobin
d. absence of myofibrils
e. low content of oxidizing enzymes
68
8-28. What tissue is the endomysium of striated muscle made up of:
a. loose irregular fibrous connective
b. dense irregular connective
c. dense regular connective
d. mucous
e. reticular
8-29. What tissue is the perimysium of striated muscle made up of:
a. loose irregular connective
b. dense irregular connective
c. dense regular connective
d. mucous
e. reticular
8-30. What tissue is the epimysium of striated muscle made up of:
a. loose irregular connective
b. dense irregular connective
c. adipose
d. mucous
e. reticular
8-31. Muscle is attached to tendon by means of:
a. collagen fibres
b. mature elastic fibres
c. oxytalan fibres
d. reticular
e. elaunin
8-32. There is a histologic specimen of the muscular tissue that is stained with
hematoxylin-eosin. In the histologic specimen one can see oxyphil muscle fibres that
are arranged parallel to one another. The fibres contain numerous nuclei situated
under the sarcolemma. What type of muscular tissue is it:
a. mesenchymal
b. epidermal
c. neural
d. coelomic
e. somatic
8-33. There are histologic specimens of muscular tissue that are stained with
hematoxylin-eosin. In the histologic specimens one can see muscle cells containing
oxyphilic cytoplasm. The nucleus of each cell is located centrally. The junctions
between adjoining cells are seen as dark staining transverse lines (intercalated discs).
What type of muscular tissue is that:
a. mesenchymal
b. epidermal
c. neural
d. coelomic
e. somatic
8-34. Myoepithelial cells arise from:
a. visceral layer of splanchnotom
b. myotomes of the somites
c. mesenchyme
d. endoderm
e. ectoderm
8-35. Muscle cells of the iris of eye develop from:
a. visceral layer of splanchnotom
b. myotomes of the somites
69
c. mesenchyme
d. neuroglia
e. endoderm
8-36. Staining of sections of muscular tissue with iron hematoxylin demonstrated
cross striation. What other morphological features is cardiac muscle characterized by?
a. layers of the connective tissue
b. nuclei that are situated under the plasmolemma of the functional muscle fibre
c. intercalated disks
d. dense corpuscles
e. blood vessels
9. NERVE TISSUE
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
9-1. Nerve tissue consists of:
a. nerve cells and neuroglia
b. fibroblasts and reticular fibres
c. reticulocytes and adipocytes
d. histiocytes and collagen fibres
e. epitheliocytes and oxytalan fibres
9-2. Nerve tissue develops from:
a. endoderm
b. neural plate
c. somites of the mesoderm
d. splanchnotom of the mesoderm
72
e. mesenchyme
9-3. In а picture there are three neurocytes (multipolar, bipolar, pseudounipolar). How
many axons does each of those cells cointain?
a. five
b. four
c. three
d. two
e. one
9-4. Multipolar neurons are characterized by the presence of:
a. one axon and many dendrites
b. two axons and one dendrite
c. one axon and one dendrite
d. a single process that after a very short course divides into axon and dendrite
e. one dendrite and many axons
9-5. Pseudounipolar neurons are characterized by the fact that:
a. their perikaryon gives off a single process that after a very short cource divides into
two
b. their perikaryon gives off two processes that are situated at its opposite poles
c. their perikaryon gives off many processes
d. their cytoplasm contains poorly developed granular endoplasmic reticulum
e. their cytoplasm contains poorly developed Golgi complex
9-6. What organs are bipolar neurons found in?
a. spinal ganglion
b. gray matter of the spinal cord
c. organ of vision
d. white matter of the spinal cord
e. organs of the endocrine system
9-7. Pseudounipolar neurons are found in:
a. cerebral cortex
b. posterior horn of the spinal cord
c. cerebellar cortex
d. spinal ganglions
e. anterior horn of the spinal cord
9-8. Cells of the nerve tissue that contain secretory granules and vesicles in their
cytoplasm:
a. neurosecretory cells
b. nerve cells of ordinary type
c. oligodendrocytes
d. astrogliocytes
e. microgliocytes
9-9. Which organelles are found only in the nerve cell?
a. basophilic substance and neurofibrils
b. mitochondria and tonofibrils
c. Golgi complex and myofibrils
d. primary lysosomes and residual corpuscles
e. centrioles and mitochondria
9-10. Chromophilic substance represents:
a. cluster of mitochondria
b. cluster of lysosomes
c. stack of cisternae of the Golgi complex
d. stack of cisternae of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e. stack of cisternae of the rough endoplasmic reticulum, free ribosomes and
73
polysomes
9-11. Neurofibrils of the cytoplasm of nerve cells represent:
a. projections from the cell surface
b. channels of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. fibrous protein (collagen) of nervous type
d. bundles of neurofilaments and neurotubules that are able to be impregnated with
silver
e. elements of the Golgi complex
9-12. Nerve cells are charactertized by:
a. high level of the protein synthesis
b. low level of the protein synthesis
c. absence of the protein synthesis
d. high phagocytic activity
e. absence of the retrograde current of neuroplasm
9-13. Nerve cells are characterized by:
a. well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi complex
b. absence of the cell centre
c. absence of the mitochondria
d. absence of the myofibrils
e. absence of the agranular endoplasmic reticulum
9-14. Cell of the neural tissue that generate nerve impulse in response to irritation:
a. ependymocytes
b. protoplasmic astrocytes
c. neurocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. fibrous astrocytes
9-15. Nerve cells differ from other cells by the presence of:
a. tonofibrils
b. myofibrils
c. cilia
d. Nissl substance and neurofibrils
e. striated border
9-16. Structure of the nerve cell that takes part in the conduction of nerve impulse:
a. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
b. granular endoplasmic reticulum
c. microtubules
d. cisternae of the Golgi complex
e. plasmalemma
9-17. Structure of the nerve cell that takes part in the mediator synthesis:
a. cell centre
b. lysosomes
c. granular endoplasmic reticulum
d. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
e. mitochondrion
9-18. Speed of the impulse movement along a nonmyelinated nerve fibres is:
a. 100-200 meters per second
b. 40-50 meters per second
c. 1-2 meters per second
d. 150-200 meters per second
e. 200 -250 meters per second
9-19. Speed of the impulse movement along a myelinated nerve fibres is:
a. 10-15 meters per second
74
b. 2-10 meters per second
c. 1-2 meters per second
d. 5-120 meters per second
e. 20-25 meters per second
9-20. Myelinated nerve fibre is made up of:
a. three axons that invaginates into the cytoplasm of the Schwann cell
b. 10-20 axons that invaginate into the cytoplasm of Schwann cell
c. two axons and myelin sheath
d. one axon, myelin sheath, neurolemma
e. five axons and neurolemma
9-21. Nonmyelinated nerve fibre is made up of:
a. one axon, myelin sheath and neurolemma
b. two axons and myelin sheath
c. 10-20 axons that invaginate into the cytoplasm of Shwann cell
d. five axons and neurolemma
e. more than one hundred axons
9-22. Myelin sheath of the nerve fibre is made up of spiral mesaxon of:
a. fibrous astrocytes
b. protoplasmic astrocytes
c. oligodendrocytes
d. microglia
e. ependymocytes
9-23. Axis cyliders of the nerve are:
a. axon and dendrite of neurocytes
b. processes of the fibrous astrocytes
c. processes of the protoplasmic astrocytes
d. chains of oligodendrocytes
e. processes of microglia
9-24. What structure of the nerve fibre is stainable black with osmic acid:
a. axis cylinder
b. nodes of Ranvier
c. myelin sheath
d. neurolemma
e. nuclei of the neurolemma cells
9-25. Neuroglia cells that are derived from haemopoietic stem cell:
a. ependymocytes
b. fibrous astrocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
d. microglia
e. oligodendrocytes
9-26. Neuroglia cells that possess phagocytic activity:
a. ependymocytes
b. fibrous astrocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. microglia
9-27. Neuroglia cells that belong to the system of the mononuclear phagocytes:
a. fibrous astrocytes
b. protoplasmic astrocytes
c. ependymocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. microglia
75
9-28. Neuroglia cells that line central canal of spinal cord and ventricles of brain:
a. oligodendrocytes
b. fibrous astrocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
d. ependymocytes
e. microglia
9-29. Shape of the cells of ependymal glia that line central canal of the spinal cord:
a. spherical
b. pyramidal
c. cylindrical
d. stellate
e. flattened
9-30. Neuroglia cells that are mainly found in the gray substance of the organs of
central nervous system; perikaryons of the cells give off short thick processes that
then divide into secondary processes:
a. oligodendrocytes
b. ependymocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
d. fibrous astrocytes
e. microglia
9-31. Stellate glial cells whose cell bodies and fibrous filament-possessing processes
are found in the white matter of the brain and spinal cord:
a. oligodendrocytes
b. ependymocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
d. fibrous astrocytes
e. microglia
9-32. Neuroglia cells that take part in the formation of myelin sheath of nerve fibres:
a. protoplasmic astrocytes
b. fibrous astrocytes
c. microglia
d. lemmocytes (Schwann cells)
e. ependymocytes
9-33. Schwann’s sheath of the nerve fibre consists of cytoplasm and nuclei of:
a. microgliocytes
b. fibrous astrocytes
c. lemmocytes
d. protoplasmic astrocytes
e. ependymocytes
9-34. On the photomicrograph there is a multipolar neurocyte and glia cells
surrounding its perikaryon and processes. What do we call the type of the glia cell
supporting processes of the neurocyte:
a. protoplasmic astrocyte
b. fibrous astrocyte
c. microglia
d. lemmocyte
e. ependymocyte
9-35. Gliocytes that surround neurons in peripheral ganglia:
a. microglia (small glial cells)
b. fibrous astrocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
d. ependymal cells
76
e. capsular cells (satellite cells, capsular gliocytes)
9-36. Chemogenic synapses transmit nerve impulse from the presynaptic neuron to
the postsynaptic neuron by means of:
a. ions of calcium
b. ions of sodium
c. neuromediators (neurotransmitters)
d. ions of potassium
e. ions of phosphorus
9-37. Synapse in which inhibition of impulse takes place:
a. axosomatic
b. axodendritic
c. axoaxonic
d. somatosomatic
e. dendrodendritic
9-38. Presynaptic pole of the chemogenic synapse is characterized by the presence of
the cluster of:
a. lysosomes
b. vesicles of Golgi complex
c. microtubules
d. presynaptic vesicles and mitochondria
e. components of the agranular endoplasmic reticulum
9-39. Structure of the chemogenic synapse that contains receptors that respond to
neuromediators:
a. presynaptic membrane
b. synaptic cleft
c. postsynaptic membrane
d. neurofilaments
e. presynaptic vesicles
9-40. Substances that take part in the nerve impulse transmission:
a. ions of calcium
b. ions of sodium
c. acetylcholine, noradrenaline
d. ions of potassium
e. ions of phosphorus
9-41. Which of the following structures belong to the effector nerve endings:
a. axomuscular synapse
b. mechanoreceptors
c. baroreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
e. thermoreceptors
9-42. Axonal terminals of the motor neurons form:
a. effector nerve endings
b. mechanoreceptors
c. baroreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
e. thermoreceptors
9-43. Neural processes that form effector nerve endings:
a. axons of motor neurons
b. dendrites of motor neurons
c. axons of sensory neurons
d. dendrites of sensory neurons
e. processes of association neurons
77
9- 44. Neuromuscular synapse includes a process of a nerve cell. What process is it?
What type of neurocyte does that process belong to:
a. axon of multipolar neuron
b. axon of pseudounipolar neuron
c. dendrite of multipolar neuron
d. dendrite of pseudounipolar neuron
e. axon of unipolar neuron
9-45. What type of receptors does Vater-Pacini corpuscle belong to:
a. thermoreceptors
b. mechanoreceptors
c. baroreceptors
d. photoreceptors
e. chemoreceptors
9-46. Inner flask of Vater-Pacini corpuiscle is made up of:
a. modified lemmocytes
b. plexus of collagen fibres
c. plexus of elastic fibres
d. plexus of fibroblasts
e. cluster of adventitional cells
9-47. On the photomicrograph of the inner flask of Vater-Pacini corpuscle one can see
neuronal process. What process and of what type of neurocyte is that:
a. axon of multipolar neuron
b. axon of pseudounipolar neuron
c. dendrite of pseudounipolar neuron
d. dendrite of multipolar neuron
e. axon of unipolar neuron
9-48. Sensory nerve ending that is responsible for temperature sense:
a. Vater- Pacini corpuiscle
b. Meissner’s corpuscle
c. genital corpuscle
d. free nerve ending
e. Ruffini’s corpuscle
9-49. Nerve cells that form reflex arc:
a. afferent, intercalary and efferent
b. afferent and intercalary
c. intercalary and efferent
d. afferent
e. efferent
Structural elements of the nerve tissue are characterized by the fact that …
…
9-65. Electrical interneuronic synapses
a. axons of the effector neurons end on
9-66. Secretory nerve endings glands
9-67. Free nerve endings b. they are situated mainly within the
9-68. Varter-Pacini corpuscles surface epithelium
9-69. Myelinated nerve fibres c. they transmit nervous impulses in the
both directions
d. they are baroreceptors
e. their membranes consist of two layers:
inner myelin sheath and outer neurilemma
Structural components of the nerve represent …
tissue …
9-70. Nerve fibres a. systems that consists of chain of
9-71. Reflex arcs neurons transmitting nerve impulse
9-72. Effector nerve endings b. processes of nerve cells that are
9-73. Receptor nerve endings surrounded by a sheath consisting of
9-74. Neuromuscular spindles lemmocytes
c. terminals of axons of effector neurons
d. terminals of dendrites of sensory
neurons
e. complex of intrafusal muscle fibres
surrounded by connective tissue capsule
80
b. presence of a long dendrite and absencе of an axon
c. absence of both a dendrite and an axon
d. presence of several ramifying dendrites and of one long axon
e. presence of a short dendrite that ends as a rod (knob), and of a long axon
10-2. Sense organ that responds to stimulation by means of directly nerve sensing
cells:
a. olfactory organ
b. organ of hearing
c. organ of equilibrium
d. organ of taste
e. Vater-Pacini corpuscle
10-3. Olfactory mucosa of the nasal cavity contains the following cells:
a. sensory
b. endocrine
c. ciliated
d. goblet
e. neurosecretory
10-4. Sense organ whose sensory cells have a short dendrite and a long axon; the
dendrites end in a thickening (called the rod or knob); each axon passes into the
subjacent connective tissue where it forms one fibre of the olfactory nerve:
a. organ of hearing
b. organ of taste
c. organ of equilibrium
d. organ of smell
e. organ of sight
10-5. Cells of olfactory organ:
a. ciliated
b. sensory,supporting and basal
c. neurosecretory
d. goblet
e. endocrine
10-6. Cells that respond to angular acceleration:
a. cells of saccular macula
b. cells of urticular macula
c. cells of ampullary crest
d. cells of spiral organ
e. cells of retina
10-7. Receptor cells, the dysfunction of which, causes disorder in appreciation of
information about angular movements of the head:
a. hair cells of spiral organ
b. receptor cells of olfactory organ
c. rods and cones of retina
d. receptor gustatory cells
e. hair cells of saccular and utricular maculae, and hair calls of ampullary crests
10-8. Otholithic membrane is situated in:
a. ampullary crest
b. spiral organ
c. saccular and utricular maculae
d. vascular stria of cochlear duct of membranaceous labyrinth
e. spiral ligament
10-9. Ampullary crests of the organ of equilibrium are characterized by the fact that:
a. their hair cells do not contain stereocilia
81
b. their hair cells secrete mucus
c. their supporting cells produce hormones
d. their supporting cells produce enzymes
e. on the surface of hair and supporting cells there is a gelatinous cupula
10-10. Saccular and utricular maculae are characterized by the fact that:
a. their hair cells do not contain stereocilia
b. their hair cells produce mucus
c. their supporting cells produce hormones
d. their supporting cells produce enzymes
e. their supporting and hair cells are covered by otolithic membrane.
10-11. The first type hair cells of saccular and utricular maculae (of the organ of
equilibrium) are characterized by the fact that:
a. they secrete mucus
b. they produce hormones
c. they produce enzymes
d. they do not contain stereocilia on their apical pole
e. nerve ending forms a cup-shaped layer around their basal pole
10-12. The second type hair cells of the saccular and utricular maculae are
characterized by the fact that:
a. their basal poles are adjoined by afferent and efferent nerve endings
b. they secrete mucus
c. they produce hormones
d. they produce enzymes
e. they do not contain stereocilia on their apical pole
10-13. Sense organ, the receptor and supporting cells of which are surrounded by
gelatinous cupula that is devoid of cavity:
a. organ of equilibrium
b. organ of hearing
c. organ of smell
d. organ of taste
e. organ of vision
10-14. Cells that make up saccular and utricular maculae:
a. goblet cells
b. hair cells and supporting cells
c. nerve cells
d. nonciliated cells and basal cells
e. columnar cells and intercalated cells
10-15. Cells of the organ of equilibrium, on the apical pole of which, there are sixty to
eighty stereiocilia (nonmotile microvilli) and one kinocilium (motile cytoplasmic
filament):
a. supporting cells
b. squamous epithelial cells
c. cuboidal epithelial cells
d. cylindrical epithelial cells
e. hair sensory cells
10-16. Sense organ, sensory and supporting cells of which, are covered by gelatinous
otolithic membrane containing otoliths (crystals of calcium carbonate):
a. organ of equilibrium
b. organ of hearing
c. organ of smell
d. organ of taste
e. organ of sight
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10-17. Which of the following cells are the part of saccule and utricle of the organ of
equilibrium:
a. basal cells and non-ciliated cells
b. ciliated cells
c. goblet cells
d. hair cells and supporting cells
e. endocrine cells
10-18. Sense organ, hair cells and supporting cells of which, are covered by otolithic
membrane:
a. organ of sight
b. organ of hearing
c. organ of smell
d. organ of equilibrium
e. organ of taste
10-19. Hair sensory cells of the macula of utricle in the vestibular part of
membranaceous labyrinth respond to:
a. electromagnetic waves
b. linear acceleration
c. angular acceleration
d. vibration
e. sound waves
10-20. Sensory hair cells of ampullary crests in vestibular part of membranaceous
labyrinth respond to:
a. electromagnetic waves
b. linear acceleration
c. angular acceleration
d. vibration
e. sound waves
10-21. Sensory hair cells, that respond to angular acceleration, are situated in:
a. utricular macula
b. saccular macula
c. ampullary crest
d. spiral organ
e. spiral ganglion
10-22. Corneal substantia propria:
a. is homogenous
b. consists of fenestrated elastic membranes
c. consists of loose fibrous connective tissue
d. consists of mucous tissue
e. consists of connective tissue laminae, flattened fibroblasts and ground substance
10-23. Function of Schlemm’s canal of eye:
a. tears outflow
b. vascularization of the membranes of eyeball
c. renewal of the composition of vitreous body
d. fluid outflow from the anterior chamber of eye
e. nutrition of the anterior part of retina
10-24. Bodies of retinal glyocytes are situated in:
a. layer of ganglion cells
b. external nuclear layer
c. inner nuclear layer
d. inner plexiform layer
e. external plexiform layer
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10-25. External plexiform layer of the retina contains:
a. bodies of photoreceptor cells
b. peripheral processes of photoreceptor cells
c. bodies of bipolar neurons
d. synaptic contacts of photoreceptor cells with dendrites of bipolar neurons and
processes of horizontal neurons
e. axons of bipolar neurons, dendrites of ganglion cells and processes of amacrine
cells
10-26. Inner plexiform layer of the retina contains:
a. bodies of photoreceptor cells
b. peripheral processes of photoreceptor cells
c. bodies of bipolar neurons
d. synaptic contacts of photoreceptor cells with dendrites of bipolar neurons and
processes of horizontal neurons
e. axons of bipolar neurons, dendrites of ganglion cells and processes of amacrine
cells
10-27. Retinal bipolar neurons:
a. connect photoreceptor cells with horizontal neurons
b. their axons form the layer of optic nerve fibres
c. connect photoreceptor cells with ganglion cells
d. connect amacrine neurons with ganglion cells
e. transmit nerve impulses from ganglion cells to photoreceptor cells
10-28. Shape of the cells of retinal pigment epithelium in transverse section:
a. mainly hexagonal
b. triangular
c. round
d. oval
e. stellate
10-29. Retinal pigment epithelium rests on basal membrane and is adjacent to:
a. choroid
b. external nuclear layer
c. external plexiform layer
d. inner nuclear layer
e. inner plexiform layer
10-30. Retinal bipolar neurons transmit nerve impulse to the following cells:
a. horizontal
b. pigment
c. photoreceptor
d. glia fibre-like supporting
e. ganglionic
10-31. Axons of the retinal photoreceptor cells form contacts with the following cells:
a. pigment
b. bipolar
c. amacrine
d. ganglion
e. glia fibre-like supporting
10-32. Retinal bipolar neurons connect the following cells:
a. photoreceptor and ganglion
b. pigment and horizontal
c. photoreceptor and pigment
d. amacrine and pigment
e. ganglion and pigment
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10-33. Retinal horizontal neurons connect the following cells:
a. photoreceptor
b. pigment and photoreceptor
c. pigment and amacrine
d. ganglion and amacrine
e. pigment and glia fibre-like supporting
10-34. Retinal amacrine neurons connect the following cells:
a. ganglion
b. pigment and photoreceptor
c. ganglion and horizontal
d. pigment and glia fibre-like supporting
e. pigment
10-35. Retinal fibre-like supporting cells extend from:
a. anterior limiting lamina till posterior limiting lamina
b. pigment epithelium till layer of optic nerve fibres
c. external nuclear layer till layer of ganglion cells
d. inner plexiform layer till external plexiform layer
e. external nuclear layer till inner nuclear layer
10-36. Part of the rod photoreceptor cell that contains visual pigment rhodopsin:
a. outer segment of the rod
b. inner segment of the rod
c. cilium
d. cytoplasm of the cell body
e. rod process
10-37. Part of the cone photoreceptor cell that contains visual pigment iodopsin:
a. inner segment of the cone
b. outer segment of the cone
c. cilium
d. cytoplasm of the cell body
e. cone process
10-38. Part of the cone photoreceptor cell that contains ellipsoid:
a. outer segment of the cone
b. inner segment of the cone
c. cilium
d. cytoplasm of the cell body
e. cone process
10-39. Part of the rod photoreceptor cell that contains basal corpuscle connected with
nine pairs of peripheral microtubules and one pair of central microtubules:
a. inner segment of the rod
b. outer segment of the rod
c. cilium
d. cytoplasm of the cell body
e. rod process
10-40. Epithelium that lines the anterior surface of lens:
a. simple squamous
b. birowed
c. pseudostratified ciliated
d. stratified squamous non-keratinized
e. stratified squamous keratinized
10-41. Shape of the lens fibre in transverse section:
a. triangular
b. hexagonal
85
c. round
d. stellate
e. ramified
10-42. Vitreous body represents:
a. colourless transparent gel
b. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
c. dense irregular fibrous connective tissue
d. dense regular fibrous connective tissue
e. adipose tissue
10-43. Retinal layer that consists of single row of high, mainly hexagonal cells
containing melanosomes:
a. external nuclear layer
b. external plexiform layer
c. pigment cell layer
d. inner nuclear layer
e. inner plexiform layer
10-44. Retinal cell, outer segment of the process of which, contains visual pigment
rhodopsin:
a. rod
b. cone
c. bipolar cell
d. amacrine cell
e. ganglion cell
10-45. Retinal cell, outer segment of the process of which, contains visual pigment
iodopsin:
a. rod
b. cone
c. bipolar cell
d. amacrine cell
e. ganglion cell
10.46. Retinal layer of rods and cones is formed by processes of:
a. photoreceptor cells
b. bipolar neurons
c. ganglion cells
d. horizontal neurons
e. radiate glial cells
10-47. Cells, the bodies of which form external nuclear layer;
a. bipolar neurons
b. horizontal neurons
c. amacrine neurons
d. ganglion cells
e. photoreceptor cells
10-48. Cells, the bodies of which, form retinal layer of ganglion cells:
a. photoreceptor cells
b. bipolar neurons
c. horizontal neurons
d. ganglion cells
e. amacrine neurons
10-49. Cells, the processes of which, make up the external and internal limiting
membranes of the retina:
a. bipolar neurons
b. horizontal neurons
86
c. ganglion cells
d. radial gliocytes
e. neurosensory cells
10-50. Retinal layer that consists of the bodies of photoreceptor cells:
a. layer of rods and cones
b. external nuclear layer
c. inner nuclear layer
d. layer of ganglion cells
e. inner plexiform layer
10-51. Retinal layer, that consists of processes of photoreceptor cells:
a. layer of rods and cones
b. external nuclear layer
c. external plexiform layer
d. inner plexiform layer
e. layer of optic nerve fibres
10-52. Retinal layer that consists of the bodies of bipolar, horintal and amacrine
neurons:
a. external nuclear layer
b. inner nuclear layer
c. layer of ganglion cells
d. layer of rods and cones
e. inner plexiform layer
10-53. Corneal layer that consists of connective tissue laminae, flattened fibroblasts
and ground substance:
a. stratified squamous epithelium
b. anterior limiting lamina
c. substantia propria
d. posterior limiting lamina
e. cuboidal epithelium
10-54. Sclera is made up of:
a. reticular tissue
b. dense irregular fibrous connective tissue
c. dense regular fibrous connective tissue
d. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
e. adipose tissue
10-55. Corneal layer that consists of stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium:
a. anterior epithelium
b. anterior limiting lamina
c. substantia propria
d. posterior limiting lamina
e. posterior epithelium
10-56. Corneal layer that consists of simple squamous epithelium:
a. anterior epithelium
b. anterior limiting lamina
c. substantia propria
d. posterior limiting lamina
e. posterior epithelium
10-57. Corneal posterior epithelium is:
a. simple squamous
b. pseudostratified ciliated
c. stratified squamous keratinized
d. stratified squamous non-keratinized
87
e. transitional
10-58. Retinal layer of optic nerve fibres is made up of:
a. dendrites of bipolar neurons
b. axons of horizontal neurons
c. axons of ganglion cells
d. dendrites of amacrine neurons
e. processes of radial gliocytes
10-59. Retina arises from:
a. mesoderm
b. mesemchyme
c. endoderm
d. ectoderm
e. neurotubule
10-60. Select correct sequence of retinal impulse transmission:
a. photoreceptor – pigment cell – ganglion cell
b. bipolar neuron – photoreceptor – ganglion cell
c. photoreceptor – bipolar neuron – ganglion cell
d. pigment cell – bipolar neuron – photoreceptor
e. ganglion cell – bipolar neuron – photoreceptor
10-61. Sensory organ that contains sensory epithelium;
a. olfactory organ
b. acoustic organ
c. Krause’s bulb
d. organ of sight
e. Vater-Pacini corpuscle
10-62. Epithelium lining external acoustic meatus:
a. pseudostratified ciliated
b. stratified squamous keratinized
c. stratified squamous non-keratinized
d. transitional
e. simple squamous
10-63. Epithelium lining the tympanic cavity:
a. pseudostratified ciliated
b. stratified squamous keratinized
c. stratified squamous non-keratinized
d. transitional
e. simple squamous or cuboidal that is continuous with columnar
10-64. Epithelium lining external surface of tympanic membrane:
a. pseudostratified ciliated
b. stratified squamous keratinized
c. stratified squamous non-keratinized
d. transitional
e. simple squamous
10-65. Epithelium lining internal surface of tympanic membrane:
a. simple squamous
b. stratified squamous non-keratinized
c. stratified squamous keratinized
d. pseudostratified ciliated
e. transitional
10-66. Cavity of the middle ear is filled by:
a. lymph
b. perilymph
88
c. endolymph
d. air
e. blood
10-67. Cavity of the cochlear duct of membranous labyrinth is filled by:
a. lymph
b. perilymph
c. endolymph
d air
e. blood
10-68. Cavity of the vestibular part of membranous labyrinth is filled by:
a. lymph
b. perilymph
c. endolymph
d. air
e. blood
10-69. Location of perikaryon of the first neuron of auditory tract:
a. vestibular ganglion
b. rhomboid fossa
c. thalamus
d. spiral ganglion
e. saccular macula
10-70. Acoustic receptor cells are situated in:
a. ampullary crests of semicircular ducts
b. spiral ganglion
c. spiral organ
d. macula utricle
e. macula saccule
10-71. Cells producing endolymph are situated in:
a. vascular stria of cochlear duct of membranaceous labyrinth
b. spiral ganglion
c. spiral organ of Corti
d. macula of utricle
e. macula of saccule
10-72. Vascular stria of cochlear duct of membranaceous labyrinth represents the
following type of epithelium:
a. multirowed, between cells of which there are capillaries
b. simple squamous
c. simple columnar
d. stratified squamous non-keratinized
e. stratified squamous keratinized.
10-73. Outer hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti rest on the following cells:
a. outer phalangeal cells
b. outer rod (pillar) cells
c. Hensen’s cells
d. Claudius’ cells
e. supporting cells
10-74. Outer hair cells are characterized by the fact that:
a. their stereocilia are not attached to the tectorial membrane
b. they are pyriform in shape
c. their agranular endoplasmic reticulum is poorly developed
d. they rest on basal membrane
e. they are innervated mainly by efferent nerve fibres
89
10-75. Inner hair cells are characterized by the fact that:
a. they are arranged in several rows
b. they are cylindrical in shape
c. they contain well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum, forming cisternae
d. they rest on basal membrane
e. they are innervated mainly by sensory nerves
10-76. Supporting cells of the spiral organ are characterized by the fact that:
a. there are stereocilia on their apical pole
b. they respond to high frequency sounds
c. they contain well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum, that forms cisternae
d. they rest on basement membrane
e. they respond to high sounds
10-77. Outer phalangeal cells are characterized by the fact that:
a. they contain finger-shaped process on their apical pole
b. they contain stereocilia on their apical pole
c. they respond to high frequency sounds
d. they contain well developed agranular endoplasmic reticulum
e. they respond to high sounds
10-78. Inner phalangeal cells are characterized by the fact that:
a. they do not contain finger-shaped process on their apical pole
b. they contain stereocilia on their apical pole
c. they respond to high frequency sounds
d. they rest on basal membrane
e. they respond to high sounds
10-79. Columnar epitheliocytes of the spiral organ, that (on their apical pole) contain
thirty to sixty stereocilia arranged in three to four rows:
a. inner phalangeal cells
b. outer phalangeal cells
c. inner hair cells
d. outer hair cells
e. outer rod (pillar) cells
10-80. Cylindrical epitheliocytes of the spiral organ that contain stereocilia on their
apical pole; the stereocilia form V-shaped striated border:
a. inner phalangeal cells
b. outer phalangeal cells
c. inner hair cells
d. outer hair cells
e. outer rod (pillar) cells
10-81. Epitheliocytes of the spiral organ that form tunnel of Corti:
a. inner and outer hair cells
b. inner phalangeal and inner rod cells
c. outer rod and outer phalangeal cells
d. cells of Hensen and cells of Claudius
e. inner rod and outer rod cells
10-82. The first sensory neuron of auditory tract is situated in:
a. vestibular nucleus of the medulla oblongata
b. quadrigeminal plate
c. thalamic region
d. spiral organ
e. spiral ganglion
10-83. On the electron photomicrograph of the spiral organ one can see some jug-
shaped cells. The cells are arranged in one row, and they contain stereocilia on their
90
apical pole. What cells are these:
a. outer and inner rod cells
b. outer phalangeal cells
c. outer hair cells
d. inner phalangeal cells
e. inner hair cells
10-84. Cylindrical sensory epithelial cells that are arranged in three to four rows within
the spiral organ:
a. inner and outer rod cells
b. outer palangeal cells
c. inner phalangeal cells
d. inner hair cells
e. outer hair cells
10-85. Cells that make up taste buds:
a. goblet (flask) cells
b. ciliated cells
c. nerve cells
d. receptor, supporting and basal cells
e. rod and cilia-free cells
92
10. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Sense organs»
1-1 b
1-2 c
1-3 a
1-4 d
94
1-5 e
1-6 d
1a. ембрана
2
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
2
3 2-4. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter A:
4 a. mitochondrial matrix
5 b. crista
6 c. intermembranous space
7 d. outer mitochondrial membrane
8 e. mitochondrial granules
2-5. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter Б:
a. mitochondrial matrix
b. crista
c. intermembranous space
d. outer mitochondrial membrane
e. mitochondrial granules
2-6. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter B:
95
a. mitochondrial matrix
b. crista
c. intermembranous space
d. outer mitochondrial membrane
e. mitochondrial granules
2-7. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter Г:
a. mitochondrial matrix
b. crista
c. intermembranous space
d. outer mitochondrial membrane
e. mitochondrial granules
2-8. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter Д:
a. mitochondrial matrix
b. crista
c. intermembranous space
d. outer mitochondrial membrane
e. inner mitochondrial membrane
2-9. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter E:
a. mitochondrial matrix
b. crista
c. intermembranous space
d. outer mitochondrial membrane
e. inner mitochondrial membrane
102
Сурет 2.6 Сұрақтары 2-25-тен 2-29-ға дейін
2.6 Суретте 2-25-тен 2-29-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптерімен белгіленген
11 Рис. 2.6 Вопросы с 2-25 по 2-29
Вопросы с 2-25 по 2-29 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 2.6
Fig. 2.6 Questions from 2-25 to 2-29
2-1 b 2-24 d
2-2 a 2-25 e
2-3 c 2-26 d
2-4 b 2-27 b
2-5 a 2-28 c
2-6 d 2-29 a
2-7 e
2-8 e
2-9 c
2-10 a
2-11 c
2-12 d
2-13 c
2-14 e
2-15 e
2-16 b
2-17 b
2-18 a
2-19 d
2-20 e
2-21 c
2-22 b
2-23 a
105
3 ЭМБРИОЛОГИЯ
109
a. септа
b. кіндік
c. лакуналар
d. хориальді пластинка
e. хорион бүрлері
3-12. Плацентаның және онымен байланысқан мүшелердің Д әріпімен
белгіленген құрылымы:
a. септа
b. кіндік
c. лакуналар
d. хориальді пластинка
e. хорион бүрлері
3-13. Плацентаның және онымен байланысқан мүшелердің Е әріпімен
белгіленген құрылымы:
a. септа
b. кіндік
c. лакуналар
d. жатырдың кілегейлі қабығының базальді пластинкасы
e. хорион бүрлері
3-14. Плацентаның және онымен байланысқан мүшелердің Ж әріпімен
белгіленген құрылымы:
a. септа
b. кіндігі
c. лакуналар
d. жатырдың кілегейлі қабығының базальді пластинкасы
e. жатырдың етті қабығы
25 3-8. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated
with the letter A:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
3-9. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated with
the letter Б:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
3-10. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated with
the letter B:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
3-11. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated with
the letter Г:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
3-12. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated with
111
the letter Д:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
3-13. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated with
the letter E:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. endometrium
e. chorionic villi
3-14. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated with
the letter Ж:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. endometrium
e. myometrium
118
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
24
3-25. Human germ in the period of formation of the embryonal body folds. Structure
that is designated with the letter A:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
3-26. Human germ in the period of formation of the embryonal body folds. Structure
that is designated with the letter Б:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
3-27. Human germ in the period of formation of the embruonal body folds. Structure
that is designated with the letter B:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
3-28. Human germ in the period of formation of the embryonal body folds. Structure
that is designated with the letter Г:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
3-29. Human germ in the period of formation of the embryonal body folds. Structure
that is designated with the letter Д:
a. chorionic villi
b. body of the embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
3-30. Human germ in the period of formation of the embryonal body folds. Structure
that is designated with the letter E:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
119
Сурет 3.6 Сұрақтары 3-31-ден 3-37-ге дейін
3.6 Суретте 3-31-ден 3-37-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
Рис. 3.6 Вопросы с 3-147 по 3-37
Вопросы с 3-31 по 3-37 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 3.6
Fig. 3.6 Questions from 3-31 to 3-37
120
e. жатыр қуысы
3-36. Ұрықтан тыс мүшелер мен жатыр қабықтарының ұрықпен өзара
қатынасы. Е әріпімен белгіленген құрылымды атаңыз:
a. decidua capsularis
b. decidua basalis
c. decidua parietalis
d. жатырдың етті қабығы
e. ұрық
3-37. Ұрықтан тыс мүшелер мен жатыр қабықтарының ұрықпен өзара
қатынасы. Ж әріпімен белгіленген құрылымды атаңыз:
a. decidua capsularis
b. decidua basalis
c. decidua parietalis
d. жатырдың етті қабығы
e. ұрық
3-1 d 3-27 d
3-2 c 3-28 e
3-3 a 3-29 a
3-4 d 3-30 b
3-5 e 3-31 b
3-6 e 3-32 a
3-7 b 3-33 c
3-8 a 3-34 d
3-9 b 3-35 e
3-10 c 3-36 e
3-11 d 3-37 d
3-12 e
3-13 d
3-14 e
3-15 a
3-16 c
3-17 b
3-18 d
3-19 d
3-20 a
3-21 b
3-22 c
3-23 e
3-24 d
123
3-25 a
3-26 c
4 ЭПИТЕЛИЙ ТІНДЕРІ
126
38 4-8. Көп қабатты жалпақ мүйізделмеген эпителийдің Г әріпімен
белгіленген құрылымы:
38a. тамыр
38b. базальді мембранасы
38c. базальді қабат
38d. тікенекті қабат
38e. жалпақ жасушалар қабаты
128
37c. тікенекті қабат
37d. дәнді қабат
35a. жылтыр қабат
38 4-12. Көп қабатты жалпақ мүйізделген эпителийдің Г әріпімен
белгіленген құрылымы:
38a. базальді мембрана
38b. базальді қабат
38c. тікенекті қабат
38d. дәнді қабат
35b. жылтыр қабат
39 4-13. Көп қабатты жалпақ мүйізделген эпителийдің Д әріпімен
белгіленген құрылымы:
39a. базальді мембрана
39b. базальді қабат
39c. тікенекті қабат
39d. дәнді қабат
35c. жылтыр қабат
40 4-14. Көп қабатты жалпақ мүйізделген эпителийдің Е әріпімен
белгіленген құрылымы:
40a. мүйізделген қабат
40b. базальді қабат
40c. тікенекті қабат
40d. дәнді қабат
35d. жылтыр қабат
132
4. «Эпителий тіндері» тақырыптары бойынша берілген тесттердің
дұрыс жауаптары
4. Правильные ответы к тестам по теме «Эпителиальные ткани»
4. Correct answers to the tests on the subject “Epithelium”
4-1 a 4-9 a
4-2 b 4-10 b
4-3 d 4-11 c
4-4 c 4-12 d
4-5 b 4-13 e
4-6 c 4-14 a
4-7 d 4-15 b
4-8 e 4-16 a
4-17 e
133
5. ҚАН. ҚАННЫҢ ТҮЗІЛУІ
135
Сурет 5.2 Сұрақтары 5-4-тен 5-5-ке дейін
5.2 Суретте 5-4-тен 5-5-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
Рис. 5.2 Вопросы с 5-4 по 5-5
Вопросы c 5-4 по 5-5 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 5.2
Fig. 5.2 Questions from 5-4 to 5-5
БІР ДҰРЫС ЖАУАБЫН ТАБЫҢЫЗ:
5-6. Formed element of blood (at the magnification of 1000) that is designated with
the letter A:
a. erythrocyte
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. large lymphocyte
5-7. Formed element of blood (at the magnification of 1000) that is designated with
the letter Б:
a. erythrocyte
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. large lymphocyte
140
Сурет 5.6 Сұрақтары 5-12-ден 5-16-ға дейін
5.6 Суретте 5-12-ден 5-16-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
Рис. 5.6 Вопросы с 5-12 по 5-16
Вопросы c 5-12 по 5-16 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 5.6
Fig. 5.6 Questions from 5-12 to 5-16
5-1 b
5-2 c
5-3 a
5-4 d
5-5 a
5-6 b
5-7 a
5-8 e
5-9 a
5-10 e
5-11 a
5-12 e
5-13 a
5-14 d
5-15 c
5-16 b
143
6 ДӘНЕКЕР ТІНДЕРІ
155
Сурет 6.6 Сұрақтары 6-27-ден 6-30-ға дейін
6.6 Суретте 6-27-ден 6-30-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
Рис. 6.6 Вопросы с 6-27 по 6-30
Вопросы с 6-27 по 6-30 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 6.6
Fig. 6.5 Questions from 6-27 to 6-30
156
92b. макрофаг
92c. фибробласт
92d. коллагеновое волокно
92e. основное вещество
93 6-28. Структура рыхлой неоформленной волокнистой соединительной
ткани, обозначенная буквой Б:
93a. тучная клетка
93b. адипоцит
93c. фибробласт
93d. коллагеновое волокно
93e. основное вещество
94 6-29. Структура рыхлой неоформленной волокнистой соединительной
ткани, обозначенная буквой В:
94a. тучная клетка
94b. адипоцит
94c. фибробласт
94d. коллагеновое волокно
94e. основное вещество
95 6-30. Структура рыхлой неоформленной волокнистой соединительной
ткани, обозначенная буквой Г:
95a. тучная клетка
95b. адипоцит
95c. фибробласт
95d. коллагеновое волокно
95e. основное вещество
5-1 a 6-16 c
5-2 b 6-17 b
6-3 c 6-18 c
6-4 d 6-19 d
6-5 e 6-20 e
6-6 e 6-21 a
6-7 c 6-22 d
6-8 b 6-23 c
6-9 c 6-24 a
6-10 d 6-25 e
6-11 a 6-26 b
6-12 e 6-27 b
6-13 d 6-28 d
6-14 e 6-29 e
6-15 a 6-30 c
158
7. ҚАҢҚА ТІНДЕРІ
170
7a. резорбция аймағы
7b. қатпарлы жиегі
7c. шеткі ашық аймағы
7d. лизосомалары
7e. ядролары
8 7-29. Остеокласт және оны қоршаған тіндердің Г әріпімен белгіленген
құрылымы:
8a. резорбция аймағы
8b. қатпарлы жиегі
8c. шеткі ашық аймағы
8d. лизосомалары
8e. ядролары
9 7-30. Остеокласт және оны қоршаған тіндердің Д әріпімен белгіленген
құрылымы:
9a. резорбция аймағы
9b. қатпарлы жиегі
9c. шеткі ашық аймағы
9d. лизосомалары
9e. ядролары
SELECTONECORRECTANSWER:
7-43. Structure of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the letter A:
a. surface layer
b. synovial villi
179
c. superficial collagen-elastic layer
d. deep collagen-elastic layer
e. cartilaginous layer
7-44. Structure of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the letter Б:
a. surface layer
b. synovial villi
c. superficial collagen-elastic layer
d. deep collagen-elastic layer
e. cartilaginous layer
7-45. Structure of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the letter B:
a. surface layer
b. synovial villi
c. superficial collagen-elastic layer
d. deep collagen-elastic layer
e. cartilaginous layer
7-46. Structure of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the letter Г:
a. surface layer
b. synovial villi
c. superficial collagen-elastic layer
d. deep collagen-elastic layer
e. cartilaginous layer
180
с. тін базофилі
d. лимфоциті
e. нейтрофилі
7-47. Structure of surface layer of articular synovial membrane that is designated with
the letter A:
a. phagocytic synoviocyte
b. secretory synovial cell
c. mast cell
d. lymphocyte
e. neutrophil
7-48. Structure of surface layer of articular synovial membrane that is designated with
the letter Б:
a. phagocytic synoviocyte
b. secretory synovial cell
c. mast cell
d. lymphocyte
e. neutrophil
7-49. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the
letter A:
a. tangential layer
b. transitional layer
c. layer of isogenous cell groups
d. layer chondrocytes distributed in rows
e. layer of noncalcific cartilage
7-50. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the
letter Б:
a. tangential layer
b. transitional layer
c. layer of isogenous cell groups
d. layer of chondrocytes distributed in rows
e. layer of noncalcific cartilage
7-51. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the
letter B:
a. tangential layer
183
b. transitional layer
c. layer of isogenous cell groups
d. layer of chondrocytes distributed in rows
e. layer of noncalcific cartilage
7-52. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the
letter Г:
a. tangential layer
b. transitional layer
c. layer of isogenous cell groups
d. layer of chondrocytes distributed in rows
e. layer of noncalcific cartilage
7-53. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the
letter Д:
a. tangential layer
b. transitional layer
c. layer of isogenous cell groups
d. layer of chondrocytes distributed in rows
e. layer of noncalcific cartilage
7-54. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the
letter E:
a. tangential layer
b. transitional layer
c. layer of isogenous cell groups
d. layer of lamellar bone
e. layer of noncalcific cartilage
7-1 a 7-28 d
7-2 b 7-29 b
7-3 c 7-30 a
7-4 d 7-31d
7-5 e 7-32 b
7-6 c 7-33 e
7-7 b 7-34 c
7-8 c 7-35 d
7-9 e 7-36 a
7-10 d 7-37 e
7-11 b 7-38 b
7-12 a 7-39 a
7-13 c 7-40 c
7-14 d 7-41 d
7-15 e 7-42 e
7-16 c 7-43 b
7-17 a 7-44 a
7-18 c 7-45 c
7-19 b 7-46 d
184
7-20 d 7-47 a
7-21 e 7-48 b
7-22 d 7-49 a
7-23 c 7-50 b
7-24 b 7-51 c
7-25 a 7-52 d
7-26 e 7-53 e
7-27 c 7-54 d
8. ЕТ ТІНДЕРІ
189
ВЫБЕРИТЕ ОДИН ПРАВИЛЬНЫЙ ОТВЕТ:
192
Сурет 8.5 Сұрақтары 8-17-ден 8-19-ға дейін
8.5 Суретте 8-17-ден 8-19-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
8.6 Рис. 8.5 Вопросы с 8-17 по 8-19
Вопросы с 8-17 по 8-19 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 8.5
Fig. 8.5 Questions from 8-17 to 8-19
193
90c. сократительные кардиомиоциты
90d. сосуды
90e. соединительная ткань
8-1 c 8-13 b
8-2 a 8-14 d
8-3 b 8-15 c
8-4 d 8-16 e
8-5 b 8-17 a
8-6 c 8-18 b
8-7 a 8-19 c
196
8-8 e 8-20 d
8-9 c 8-21 b
8-10 a 8-22 c
8-11 d 8-23 e
8-12 b
1 9 НЕРВ ТІНІ
2
197
БІР ДҰРЫС ЖАУАБЫН ТАБЫҢЫЗ:
1
2 9-1. А әріпімен белгіленген нейроглияның түрін анықтаңыз:
2a. протоплазмалық астроцит
2b. талшықты астроцит
2c. эпендимоциттер
2d. олигодендроглиоцит
2e. микроглия
3 9-2. Б әріпімен белгіленген нейроглияның түрін анықтаңыз:
3a. протоплазмалық астроцит
3b. талшықты астроцит
3c. эпендимоциттер
3d. олигодендроглиоцит
3e. микроглия
4 9-3. В әріпімен белгіленген нейроглияның түрін анықтаңыз:
4a. протоплазмалық астроцит
4b. талшықты астроцит
4c. эпендимоциттер
4d. олигодендроглиоцит
4e. микроглия
202
3c. біліктік цилиндр
3d. Шванн жасушаларының ядросы
3e. Шванн қабығы
4 9-15. Миелинді нерв талшығының Г әріпімен белгіленген құрылымы:
4a. Ранвье буылтығы
4b. миелинді қабығы
4c. біліктік цилиндр
4d. Шванн жасушаларының ядросы
4e. Шванн қабығы
5 9-16. Миелинді нерв талшығының Д әріпімен белгіленген құрылымы:
5a. Ранвье буылтығы
5b. миелинді қабығы
5c. біліктік цилиндр
5d. Шванн жасушаларының ядросы
5e. Шванн қабығы
6 9-17. Миелинді нерв талшығының Е әріпімен белгіленген құрылымы:
6a. Ранвье буылтығы
6b. миелиннің кертіктері
6c. біліктік цилиндр
6d. Шванн жасушаларының ядросы
6e. Шванн қабығы
204
Сурет 9.4 Сұрақтары 9-18-ден 9-20-ға дейін
9.4 Суретте 9-18-ден 9-20-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
Рис. 9.4 Вопросы с 9-18 по 9-20
Вопросы с 9-18 по 9-20 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 9.4
Fig. 9.4 Questions from 9-18 to 9-20
9-1 c 9-13 a
9-2 b 9-14 c
9-3 e 9-15 d
9-4 a 9-16 e
9-5 b 9-17 b
9-6 c 9-18 b
9-7 d 9-19 c
9-8 e 9-20 a
9-9 a 9-21 d
9-10 d 9-22 a
9-11 c 9-23 b
9-12 b 9-24 e
208
10. СЕЗУ МҮШЕЛЕРІ
211
Сурет 10.2 Сұрақтары 10-6-дан 10-10-ға дейін
10.2 Суретте 10-6-дан 10-10-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
Рис. 10.2 Вопросы с 10-6 по 10-10
Вопросы с 10-6 по 10-10 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 10.2
Fig. 10.2 Questions from 10-6 to 10-10
10-1 e
10-2 d
10-3 c
10-4 b
10-5 a
10-6 c
10-7 b
10-8 d
10-9 a
10-10 e
214
Ұсынылатын әдебиеттер:
1. . Гистология, цитология және эмбриология атласы. Абильдинов Р.Б., Аяпова
Ж.О., Юй Р.И. «Эффект» баспасы, Алматы 2006, 26 б.т.
2. Гистология: Оқу құралы төрт бөлімді. Ж.О.Аяпова. Алматы: «Кітап»
баспасы–2005, 285 б.т.
3. Гистология: Оқу құралы. Ажаев С.А. Төрт бөлімді. Кентау: Еркін и К – ХХI, 2004.
4. Гистология, эмбриология, цитология. Данилов Р.К. 2006.
5. Гистология, учебник под редакцией Афанасьева Ю.И., Юриной Н.А., 2004.
6.Гистология, цитология және эмбриология бойынша тәжірибелік сабақтарға
арналған микросуреттер атласы. Юй Р.И., Абильдинов Р.Б. «Эффект» баспасы, 15
б.т.,Алматы 2010.
7. Гистология, цитология және эмбриология бойынша тәжірибелік сабақтарға
арналған микросуреттер атласы. Юй Р.И., Абильдинов Р.Б. «Эффект» баспасы, 15
б.т.,Алматы 2012.
Рекомендуемая литература:
1. Атлас по гистологии, цитологии и эмбриологии. Абильдинов Р.Б., Аяпова Ж.О.,
Юй Р.И. типография «Эффект», Алматы 2006, 26 п.с.
2. Гистология, эмбриология, цитология. Данилов Р.К. 2006.
3. Гистология. Афанасьев Ю.И., Юрина Н.А. 2004.
4. Атлас микрофотографий по гистологии, цитологии и эмбриологии для
практических занятий. Юй Р.И., Абильдинов Р.Б. типография «Эффект», 15
п.л.,Алматы 2010.
5. Атлас микрофотографий по гистологии, цитологии и эмбриологии для
практических занятий. Юй Р.И., Абильдинов Р.Б. типография «Эффект», 15
п.л.,Алматы 2012.
215
Literature:
1. Human Histology. A. Stevens, J.S. Lowe.- L.e.a.: Mosby, 1997.
2. Basic histology. Texts and atlases, published in Northern America.- 2003.- 512 pp.
3. Functional histology. Texts and atlas. Curchill Livingstone, International edition.
Sidney. Toronto. 2000.- 413 pp.
216