2 Cash Money Markets - 2014
2 Cash Money Markets - 2014
2 Cash Money Markets - 2014
Introduction
A loose definition of the “Money Market” is that it “includes wholesale
debt instruments with an original maturity of 12 months or less”. Interest on
these instruments is usually calculated on a simple interest basis and is
(usually) payable on maturity.
(It should be noted however, that there are longer term money market
instruments e.g. a 2 or 5 year CD or Eurodeposit.)
Advantages:
It is local and therefore the borrower will be known to potential
lenders
Easy to access
(Generally speaking) a plentiful supply of cash
Relatively simple settlement and clearing procedures
Disadvantages:
(Possibly) high interest rates
Finite amount of cash available especially for large parcels of
borrowings
Possible credit constraints
Lack of diversification (all eggs in one basket)
Advantages:
Potentially lower rates of interest
A far larger market than the domestic market
Diversification of borrowings
Disadvantages:
Currency risk
Unless the borrowing entity is well known, favorable credit lines
could be a problem
Initially may appear to be attractive viz. interest rates, but after
hedging currency exposure could prove to be quite costly
Advantages:
Potential for favourable interest rates
No currency risk as with foreign loans
Disadvantages:
Unless the borrowing entity is well known favourable credit lines
could be a problem
Possible limitation as regards quantum, but this depends on the
currencies involved.
“Complicated” settlement procedures
Please note that the advantages and disadvantages as listed above are
by no means exhaustive. Class discussions will highlight a number of others
that are not listed but are nevertheless relevant.
*** In the US CP is seldom issued for periods longer than 270 days as paper
issued in excess of this period must be registered with the SEC.
deposit will settle on the same day, but a Eurodollar deposit will only settle
in t+2.
If a Euro deposit e.g Eurodollar, Euroyen etc term deposit is made for a
period of 15 months - interest is payable annually. Interest will be paid at
the end of the first year and then on a pro rata basis i.e. 3 months interest,
thereafter at maturity.
Answers:
i) For this answer you can use either 1 of the following 2 formulae:
dias
Valor Acumulado Valor Investido x 1 i x
base
and
VF = VP 1 i
n
Therefore:
i)
365
Valor Acumulado = GBP 100 000 1 10% x
365
Ou
ii) For this part of the question you should use the second formula!
Alternatively, you could convert the monthly rate to an annual rate and
then proceed as for 2.1.1. However, using the second formula is more
straightforward, hence:
II)
12
10%
VF = GBP 100 000 1
12
= GBP 110 471, 31
days
Pr oceeds at Maturity Face value x 1 rate x
base
Eurodollar CD’s
Note:
4.60 – 50 means that the market maker bids for 2 month paper to
give a yield of 4.60% and offers 2 month paper so as to give the buyer
a yield of 4.50%. The difference between the Bid price and the Offer
price is called the “spread” – in this case 10 basis points.
The big figure of 4% is called the handle and the small figures (60-50)
are referred to as the basis. When one dealer quotes another dealer
he will often simply quote the basis.
3 x 2 means that there are $2m available on the offer and that the
market maker is bidding for $3m.
General Comment: When a bank bids for “paper” this is equivalent to
the bank investing funds, and will therefore try to obtain the highest
rate possible. Conversely when a bank offers “paper” this is the
equivalent to the bank borrowing funds or taking in a deposit, and will
therefore try to pay the lowest rate possible.
Contrast this to when a bank bids for “cash” which is the same as a
bank wanting to take in a deposit –they will try to take cash in at the
lowest rate possible! Conversely when a bank offers “cash” they will
try to obtain the highest rate possible!
Paper transactions:
Quoted rates: 6.40/50
Bank bids for Paper High @ 6.50%
Bank offers Paper Low @ 6.40%
Cash transactions:
Quoted rates: 6.40/50
Bank bids for Cash Low @ 6.40%
Bank offers Cash High @ 6.50%
Answers:
i)
dias
Re ceitas / Valor na Maturidade Valor Facialx 1 i x
base
270
Receitas na Maturidade =USD 5 000 000 1 4.8% x
360
= USD 5 180 000
Valor na Maturidade
Valor no Mercado Secundário
Dias para o Vencimento
1 i x
base
USD 5 180 000
Valor no Mercado Secundário =
245
1 4.75% x
360
Valor na Maturidade
Dias para o Vencimento
Example 3:
A trader purchases a GBP10 000 000 CD in the primary market. The tenor
of this CD is 182 days and was purchased at par of 6.35%. What was the
maturity value of these CDs?
Answer:
days
Pr oceeds at Maturity Face value x 1 rate x
base
182
Maturity proceeds/value = GBP10 000 000 1 6.35% x
365
= GBP 10 316 630.14
Example 4:
CDs with a maturity value of GBP 2 100 000 were initially issued for a period
of 1 year.
i) What was the original rate of issue if the face value of these CDs
was GBP 2 000 000?
ii) What is the current market value of these CDs if the remaining
period to maturity is 60 days, and that the current 2 month rate is
6%?
Answers:
i)
days
Pr oceeds at Maturity Face value x 1 rate x
base
365
2 100 000 = 2 000 000 x 1 x % x
365
2 100 000 36500
x = 1 x
2 000 000 365
x = 5%
OR
ii)
Maturity value
Secondary market value
days remaining to maturity
1 yield x
base
2 100 000
Secondary market proceeds =
60
1 6% x
365
= GBP 2 079 489.96
Example 5:
A dealer purchases a EUR 10 000 000, 180 day CD at par of 4%. After
holding it for a period of 30 days she sells it at a yield of 3.9%.
i. How much did she sell the CD for i.e. what were the secondary
market proceeds?
ii. Did she make a profit or loss on the sale of this CD?
iii. What was the “holding period return” or “return on investment” on
this CD?
Answers:
i. You must first calculate the maturity value in the primary market
and then calculate the secondary market proceeds.
180
Maturity value = EUR 10 000 000 x 1 4% x
360
= EUR 10 200 000
10 200 000
Secondary market proceeds =
150
1 3.9% x
360
= EUR 10 036 900.37
ii. The original “life” of the CD was 180 days. The amount of interest to
be earned over this period is EUR 200 000. Therefore the amount of
interest to be accrued on a daily basis is
200 000
= EUR 1 111.11 per day
180
The CD was held for 30 days, therefore the total interest accrued to
date is:
30 x EUR 1 111.11 = EUR 33 333.33
The selling price was EUR 10 036 900.37 and the book value is EUR
10 033 333.33. The profit (or loss) on the sale of this CD is:
Selling price – book value
EUR 10 036 900.37 – EUR 10 033 333.33 = EUR 3 567.04
Example 6:
One day after purchasing the CD as referred to in example 4 the dealer
decides to sell it in the secondary market. The best bid that he receives is
5% - exactly the same yield at which the CD was purchased.
i) Did the dealer receive more or less than what he paid for the CD?
ii) Did the dealer make a profit or loss or did he break even on this
trade?
Answer:
2 100 000
i) Secondary market purchase price =
364
1 5 % x
365
ii) The CD had been held for 1 day. Interest in the amount of ₤
273.97 had therefore accrued. The book value of the CD is
therefore GBP 2 000 273.97 at the time of the sale. He only received
GBP 2 000 260.96! The dealer therefore made a trading loss of
(GBP 2 000 260.96 - GBP 2 000 273.97) = - GBP 13.01. A small loss, but
a loss nevertheless.
Example 7:
Calculate the final amount of interest to be received on a 21 month
Eurodollar CD issued at par of 3.75%. The face value of the CD was USD
5m
Answer:
For Eurodollar deposits longer than 1 year interest is paid on an annual
basis. For odd period deposits longer than 1 year, the odd period portion
of the coupon is paid at the end of the deposit!
9
Last coupon will be 3.75%% x USD 5 000 000 x = USD140 625
12
Intermediation
Borrower or Investor or
Bank
Deficit Unit Surplus Unit
Disintermediation
In the US, CP is issued for periods up to 270 days, with the majority of issues
in the very short term. US CP is issued on a discount (to yield) basis.
days
Discount amount Face Value x dis rate x
base
19/8 5.55 - 50 25 x 15
26/8 5.58 - 55 10 x 15
02/9 5.60 - 55 10 x 5
09/9 5.64 - 63 15 x 30
16/9 5.70 - 62 10 x 20
23/9 5.73 - 68 5 x 15
30/9 5.76 - 72 10 x 10
Note:
5.70 - 62 means that the market maker bids for TB’s maturing on
16/9/xx at a (discount) rate of 5.70% and offers TB’s maturing on
16/9/xx at a (discount) rate of 5.62%. The difference between the Bid
price and the Offer price is called the “spread” – in this case 8 basis
points.
The big figure of 5% is called the handle and the small figures (70-62)
are referred to as the basis. When one dealer quotes another dealer
he will often simply quote the basis.
10 x 20 means that there are ₤20m available on the offer and that
the market maker is bidding for ₤10m.
Answers:
i) What was the price of the T- bill?
days
Market value Face value x 1 Dis rate x
base
90
Price = USD 1 000 000 1 5.45% x
360
= USD 986 500
days
Discount amount Face Value x dis rate x
base
90
Discount = USD 1 000 000 x 5.4% x
360
= USD 13 500
Discount rate
True yield
days
1 Discount rate x
base
5.4%
True Yield =
90
1 5.4% x
360
= 0.05474 or 5.474%
NOTE: The true yield rate must be higher than the discount rate. This is
always the case! If your calculation produces a lower rate then you have
“added” in the denominator and not “subtracted”.
iv) What would the price be of a USD1 000 000 90 day US T-bill
quoted at yield of 5.474%?
Maturity value
Secondary market value
days remaining to maturity
1 yield x
base
Example 9:
GBP 7 000 000, 91 Day TB’s are issued for an amount of GBP 6 916 230.14.
i) What was the discount in monetary terms?
ii) What was the discount in % terms?
iii) What was the true yield of this issue?
Answers:
i) Discount amount = Face Value – Consideration
= GBP 7 000 000 - GBP 6 916 230.14
= GBP 83 769.86
= 4.858%
Activo (1)
PARTE A PARTE B
Tomador de Fundos/ Emprestados dos Fundos /
Comprador do REPO
Vendedor do REPO
Activo (4)
As repos are “secured” transactions they should normally trade below the
Fed Funds or standard call rate (which is unsecured.)
7% 20201
GC5
KEY:
1 = 7% 2007 Bond
2 = Period of repo (overnight, 1 week, 1 month etc)
3 = Repo rate: The trader will purchase the repo (i.e. lend cash) @ 6.28%
and sell the repo (borrow cash) @ 6.20%
4 = 10 x 5 indicates that the trader is prepared to buy 10m nominal and
sell 5m nominal of the 7% 2007 bond
5 = General Collateral
Example 10:
Given the following rates for a repo – 3.25%/3.75%
You would then use the following rates in the following circumstances:
Repo Reverse
Repo
You Quote 3.25/3.75 3.25% 3.75%
You are quoted 3.25/3.75 3.75% 3.25%
Spot: When dealing in your own currency in your own country then spot is
today (t+0). When dealing in a foreign currency in your own country then
spot is generally 2 banking days from today (written as T + 2)
3.5 Documentation
“Where sale and repurchase agreements or stock borrowing or lending
transactions are entered into, proper documentation including written
3.7 Haircuts
Remember that the assets sold by the seller (and therefore bought by the
buyer) represent the collateral for the loan. To build protection against
fluctuations in the valuation of these assets, the buyer often insists on a
“haircut” on the assets. This haircut represents a discount on the current
value of the asset, thereby building in some protection against
fluctuations. The level or extent of the haircut can range from 2%, for high
quality credit assets, to 50%, for some volatile emerging market credit risk.
There are 2 methods used to calculate the haircut.
Please bear in mind that whilst both methods are correct, method i) is the
more popular method and must be used in the exam!
i) Preferred method:
Nominal value EUR 10m
Dirty or all-in price 101.256
Haircut 2%
Example 11:
From the following information calculate the amount of variation
margin required by the repo buyer from the repo seller if the
market value of the underlying securities has decreased.
Dirty price of securities on commencement: EUR10 358 600
Haircut 2%
Nominal value of underlying securities: EUR 10m
Current market value (dirty price) of underlying securities:
EUR 10 100 000
Answer:
10 358 600
Amount borrowed / lent =
1.02
= EUR 10 155 490.20
bonds)
Germany Bunds3 Annual coupons
Bobls4 ACT/ACT
Italy CCTs 5 Semi - Annual coupons
CTOs 6 ACT/ACT
UK Gilts Semi Annual coupons
ACT/ACT
United States T Notes (Shorter than 10 Semi Annual coupons
years) ACT/ACT
T Bonds (Longer than
10 years)
Answer:
Step 1:
Calculate the interest on the repo
7
43/8% x EUR 49 633 866.00 x = EUR 42 223.25
360
Example 13:
The same details as for example 7 above apply, except that the repo
buyer insists on a haircut of 2%. Calculate the amount to be repaid on
termination date of the repo.
Answer:
Step 1: Market Value of the collateral is EUR 49 633 866.00, but a
haircut of 2% must still be applied.
Therefore: €49 633 866.00 ÷ 1.02 = €48 660 652.94
Example 14:
You agree to do a 14 day repurchase agreement. 7 days before the
maturity of the agreement the issuer pays a coupon of EUR 1 800 000.
Calculate the amount to be repaid at the end of the 14 days if you have
been quoted the following:
Security: 6% OATs maturing 31/03/15(Annual - Act/Act)
Settlement Date: 24/03/10
Nominal: EUR 30 million
Repo Rate: 3.5/4.00
Market Value: EUR 32 135 979
Period: 14 days
Note: The coupon paid by the issuer (7 days before the maturity of the
agreement) would have been received by the buyer of the repo for
onward delivery to the seller of the repo – this is referred to as a
“manufactured coupon”. Therefore there is no effect on the “outcome”
of the agreement.
Example 15:
Same details as for Example 14, except that instead of doing a repo, a
buy and sell back transaction was concluded.
Referring to the table on page 24, under the heading “Coupon Payment”
you will notice that in a repo, the coupon is returned by the buyer to the
seller. In a buy and sell back agreement however; it (the coupon) is kept
by the buyer!
during the period of the repo was ignored in that it had no effect on the
outcome of the repo transaction. The coupon would have been returned
to the seller (of the repo). However, because this transaction is a buy and
sell back agreement we must certainly take cognizance and make
allowances for this coupon payment!
Now take into account the fact that this is not a classic repo but rather a
buy and sell back agreement!
Step 4: 7 days before the agreement was due to terminate the buyer
(lender of cash) would received a coupon amount of EUR 1 800 000.
Under “normal” circumstances this would have gone back to the seller,
but now it is kept by the buyer. Bearing in mind that the payment on
maturity should have been EUR 32 185 968 (see example 14). The buyer
has however already received an amount of EUR 1 800 00 (from the
coupon). The amount owing by the seller should therefore be:
€ EUR 32 185 968 – EUR 1 800 000 = EUR 30 385 968.00
Step 5: The coupon was 7 days earlier than the agreement was due to be
terminated.
The standard rule of thumb for buy and sell back agreements is that any
coupon received during the period of the transaction can be re-invested
(by the buyer) at the same rate (at which the transaction was concluded)
for the remaining period of the agreement!
In other words:
The transaction was concluded at a rate of 4%, and
The coupon was received 7 days before the maturity date of the
transaction.
Therefore the coupon can be reinvested at a rate of 4% for a period of
7
7 days – EUR 1 800 000 x 4% x = EUR 1 400. This amount must also be
360
subtracted from the “original” terminal amount!