Q31. A project is approved and launched.

The project manager begins planning all aspects of project

execution according to the project charter. What process is the project manager engaged in?

A. Develop Project Charter

B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Monitor and Control Project Work

Q32. A new project manager is assigned to take over an existing project mid-execution. What
document should the new PM review FIRST?

A. Lessons learned
B. Issue log
C. Project management plan
D. Risk register

Q33. The project sponsor requests adding new features during project execution that were not
included in the original project scope. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A. Inform the team to begin work on the new features

B. Add the new features to the scope management plan
C. Analyze the feasibility and impact of including the new features
D. Update the WBS with the additional work

Q34. A project manager discovers that a team member falsifies test results to hide defects in a project
deliverable. What is the BEST course of action for the PM?

A. Terminate the team member immediately

B. Discuss the situation only with upper management
C. Have a private conversation with the team member
D. Notify stakeholders of the faulty test results

Q35. A project forecast shows a cost overrun, although the schedule predicts on-time completion. The
sponsor insists the PM present on-schedule, on-budget forecasts to stakeholders. What should the PM
do?

A. Present the false forecasts as requested

B. Refuse and share realistic forecasts
C. Update forecasts to match sponsor expectations
D. Threaten to escalate the issue to senior management

Q36. A project manager’s friend works for a company bidding on a procurement contract for the
PM’s project. The PM is asked to recommend who should receive the contract. What is the BEST
course of action?

A. Recommend the friend’s company to leverage the relationship

B. Document the relationship and withdraw from decision-making
C. Decline to make any recommendation due to the conflict of interest
D. Award the contract to the lowest bidder regardless of relationship

Q37. During project planning, a project manager develops a scope management plan and
requirements documentation. What process are they engaged in?

A. Define Scope
B. Create WBS
C. Validate Scope
D. Control Scope

Q38. The project sponsor requests adding functionality that was specifically excluded from scope
based on low business value. What should the project manager explain is needed to add this
functionality?

A. Update the requirements traceability matrix

B. Complete change control and get approval
C. Revise the scope management plan
D. Issue a change request to close out the feature

Q39. During user acceptance testing, key requirements are found to be missing from the deliverable.
What should have been the project manager’s FIRST line of defense against this?

A. Scope verification
B. Scope validation
C. Quality control
D. Change control

Q40. A project is running behind schedule. By crash costing the critical path, the project manager
calculates the budget required to meet the original deadline. What schedule compression technique is
being used?

A. Resource leveling
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical path analysis
D. Crashing

Q41. While monitoring the project schedule, the project manager sees that the critical path has 25
days of float available. What does this suggest?

A. The next activity is estimated at 25 days

B. The project can be completed 25 days later
C. The critical path can be delayed without impacting the end date
D. The critical path has 25 days of risky activities

Q42. The project management office (PMO) requires all project schedules have a risk threshold = top
3 longest paths, and cut-off = near-critical ratio = 1.1. What do these parameters control?

A. Risk analysis methods

B. Schedule network analysis
C. Schedule compression techniques
D. Critical path identification

Q43. A project manager is estimating project costs. Stakeholders request using the most conservative
estimates to minimize risk of cost overruns. What estimation approach meets this need?

A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Three-point estimating
D. PERT estimating
Q44. A project has the following time and cost estimates:
Most likely: 4 months, $80,000 Optimistic: 3 months, $60,000 Pessimistic: 5 months, $120,000 What is the
expected project cost?
C. $90,000
A. $65,000 D. $100,000C. +$75,000
B. $80,000 D. +$100,000
Q45. A project has a budget at completion of $250,000. The project manager has spent $75,000 to
date. However, the estimate at completion is $325,000. What is the cost variance?

A. -$100,000 C. +$75,000
B. -$75,000 D. +$100,000
Q46. A project team is designing a new building. The project manager wants to ensure the electrical
C. +$75,000
wiring will meet safety codes and standards. What quality technique should be used?
D. +$100,000
A. Benchmarking
B. Design of experiments
C. Statistical sampling
D. Quality audits

Q47. A project has several complex processes that must operate efficiently to meet product
specifications. What tool should the project manager use to identify the inputs and outputs of these
processes?

A. Process decision program chart

B. Statistical sampling
C. Flowchart
D. Check sheet

Q48. A project has fallen behind schedule leading to significant quality issues. What root cause is most
likely?

A. Inadequate quality audits

B. Insufficient testing
C. Lack of process controls
D. Poor workmanship

Q49. A project manager must staff a team of database developers for an upcoming project expected to
last 18 months. There are no internal resources available. What contract type would be MOST
suitable?

A. Fixed-price
B. Purchase order
C. Statement of work
D. Retainer

Q50. The project budget allows for hiring two web developers. However, the schedule requires four
developers to finish on time. What should the project manager do?

A. Fast track to reduce duration

B. Crash the schedule
C. Increase budget for more staff
D. Report unrealistic timeline

31.Answer: B Explanation: The Develop Project Management Plan process establishes how the project will
be planned, executed, monitored, controlled and closed. It creates the overall project roadmap.
32. Answer: C Explanation: The project management plan contains all information on how the project was
intended to be executed. The new PM should review it first for context.

33. Answer: C Explanation: A change request to modify the scope must be analyzed for impacts before
approval. The PM does not have the authority to expand the scope unilaterally.

34. Answer: C Explanation: The PMI Code of Ethics requires discussing ethical issues directly with the
individual first before taking other actions.

35. Answer: B Explanation: The PMI Code of Ethics forbids knowingly reporting false or inaccurate
information. The PM must provide truthful forecasts.

36. Answer: C Explanation: The PM should disclose the relationship and recuse themselves from decisions
to avoid any appearance of impropriety.

37. Answer: A Explanation: The Define Scope process determines and documents project goals,
deliverables, assumptions and constraints. It creates the scope baseline.

38. Answer: B Explanation: Adding excluded functionality requires formally submitting a change request
and going through change control for approval.

39. Answer: A Explanation: Scope verification progressively validates work is performed according to
requirements. It prevents late discovery of gaps.

40. Answer: D Explanation: Crashing determines the reduction in duration possible through adding
resources on the critical path.

41. Answer: C Explanation: Float on the critical path means it can be delayed without delaying project
completion.

42. Answer: D Explanation: These parameters define criteria for determining the critical path(s) when
analyzing the schedule network.

43. Answer: D Explanation: PERT uses three estimates – most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic – to
calculate a weighted average that emphasizes the extremes.

44. Answer: C Explanation: Expected cost = (optimistic + 4 x most likely + pessimistic) / 6

45. Answer: A Explanation: Cost variance = EAC – BAC.

Here, EAC is $325,000 while BAC is $250,000, so the variance is -$100,000 (unfavorable)

46 Answer: A Explanation: Benchmarking compares product designs to industry best practices and
standards to ensure quality.

47. Answer: C Explanation: A flowchart diagrams the steps of a process, showing inputs, outputs, decision
points etc. Useful for analyzing process efficiency.

48. Answer: D Explanation: Poor workmanship generating rework is a common root cause of quality issues
and schedule delays.

49. Answer: D Explanation: A retainer contract secures resources for the duration of the project,
appropriate for long-term staff augmentation needs.

50. Answer: D Explanation: The PM cannot arbitrarily change the budget or schedule. They should report
the mismatch between budget/schedule as a project constraint.