PM 19

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Prime Mock 19 (CLAT) 2024
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single
passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.
Passage – 1
Your pet's carbon 'pawprint' is the total amount of greenhouse gas emissions resulting from its
everyday actions. It is every pet owner's responsibility to buy sustainable and ethically-produced pet
products. This would not only lower their carbon pawprint but also promote optimum wellness. The
lion's share of this carbon pawprint comes from the food that pets eat. A meat-heavy diet, for
instance, is responsible for more emissions. Dogs and cats, however, are carnivores and have
nutritional requirements that mean a complete vegan diet could pose a threat to their well-being.
India's pet food industry must, thus, prioritise introducing diets that are not only accepted by pet
owners but also nutritionally well-balanced and appetising. An important step for this lies in
promoting more sustainable pet food made from alternative protein sources. Treats made from
sustainable ingredients like cricket protein, for instance, are a good alternative. After all, unlike red
meat - an essential ingredient in most treats - cricket protein generates no methane whatsoever.
Pet shampoos and other personal care products are often laced with harsh chemicals such as
triclosan, petrochemicals and formaldehyde. These chemicals not only affect the health and safety
of pets by acting as skin irritants but are also corrosive to the natural environment as they pollute
waterways. Organic or natural grooming products are recommended instead. This is something
both pet owners and grooming parlours should keep in mind.
Further, disinfectants derived from coal products such as chloroxylenols are commonly used to
sanitise the living quarters of pets. Generally used in homes, grooming parlours and other such
spaces, chloroxylenols are highly toxic to aquatic biodiversity. One should opt for disinfecting and
cleaning agents like accelerated hydrogen peroxide, which is pet-safe, non-toxic, and leaves no
residues.
While kibble, food and water bowls, leashes, litter boxes, and poop bags account for a pet's
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necessities, it is essential that these requirements are met using eco-friendly alternatives. The basic
idea is to avoid buying pet essentials with excessive packaging that will eventually make its way to a
landfill. Eco-friendly pet products, on the other hand, are non-toxic, require less water for
manufacturing, and come with biodegradable packaging.
The composting of pet waste - a considerable portion of a pet's carbon pawprint comes from their
faeces - is crucial for reducing emissions too. While dog faecal matter is directly disposed, cat
faeces usually require litter. It is important that planet-friendly options such as grounded or crushed
walnuts, wheat and wood litter are used in cat litter boxes instead of bentonite. This is because
bentonite is extracted via environmentally destructive mining and processing. As a result, its
production generates heavy GHG emissions.
Q 1. 30405650 Why does the author mention vegan diet in the passage?
a) To show that omnivores have switched to a vegan diet.
b) To state that veganism can save the planet if everyone contributes equally.
c) To show that pet dietary habits are wrong.
d) To show that approach to being eco-friendly will differ from one species to another.
Q 2. 30405650 Which of the following would the author agree with the most?
a) Some pet products harm both the pets and the environment.
b) Pet keeping is one of the major unsustainable practices that we humans have taken upon.
c) Indian pet food industry is striving hard to get recognition for its sustainable practices.
d) Cats are more environmentally damaging compared to other pets.
Q 3. 30405650 Why is securing a germ-free environment for your pet and yourself may prove to be
damaging?
a) Pet grooming products are inorganic and laced with dangerous chemicals.
b) Pet disinfectants are laced with dangerous chemicals.
c) Pet's soil the interior of homes forcing the household to waste water.
d) Pet's eat in an unsanitary way which may affect the interior of a household.
Q 4. 30405650 As used in the passage what does 'biodiversity' mean?
a) All the different kinds of life you'll find in one area.
b) All the different kinds of life you'll find in earth.
c) All the different kinds of life you'll find in one's country.
d) All the different kinds of life you'll find in one's household.
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Q 5. 30405650 Which of the following is true of cat litter?
a) Cat households have shifted to eco-friendly alternatives for litter.
b) Eco-friendly alternatives for cat litter are unavailable in the market.
c) Commonly cat litter is made of materials which are bad ecologically.
d) Cat faeces is responsible for global GHG emissions.
Passage – 2
In 2013, a British man was arrested for planning to kidnap and brutally murder a soldier. The
suspect, who had a criminal history, had posted messages on social media in support of violent
jihad. In a search of his residence, the police had found a bag containing a hammer, a kitchen knife
and a map with the location of a nearby army barracks.
Shortly after his arrest, the suspect was interviewed by a counter-terrorist police officer. The
interviewer wanted him to provide an account of his plan, and to reveal with whom, if anyone, he
has been conspiring. But the detainee - we will call him Diola - refused to divulge any information.
Instead, he expounded grandiloquently on the evils of the British state for 42 minutes, with little
interruption. When the interviewer attempted questions, Diola responded with scornful, finger-
jabbing accusations of ignorance, naivety and moral weakness: "You don't know how corrupt your
own government is - and if you don't care, then a curse upon you."
Watching a video of this encounter, it is just possible to discern Diola's desire, beneath his ranting,
to tell what he knows. In front of him, a copy of the Qur'an lies open. He says he was acting for the
good of the British people, and that he is willing to talk to the police because, as a man of God, he
wants to prevent future atrocities. But he will not answer questions until he is sure that his
questioner cares about Britain as much as he does: "The purpose of the interview is not to go
through your little checklist so you can get a pat on the head. If I find you are a jobsworth, we are
done talking, so be sincere."
Even distanced by years from the events in question, it is impossible to watch the encounter without
feeling tense. Periodically, Diola turns away from the interviewer and goes silent, or gets up and
leaves the room, having taken offence at something said or not said. Each time he returns, Diola's
solicitor advises him not to speak. Diola ignores him, though in a sense he takes the advice: despite
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the verbiage, he tells his interviewer nothing.
Diola: "Tell me why I should tell you. What is the reason behind you asking me this question?"
Interviewer: "I am asking you these questions because I need to investigate what has happened
and know what your role was in these events."
Diola: "No, that's your job - not your reason. I'm asking you why it matters to you."
The interviewer, who has remained heroically calm in the face of Diola's verbal barrage, is not able
to move the encounter out of stalemate, and eventually his bosses replace him. When the new
interviewer takes a seat, Diola repeats his promise to talk "openly and honestly" to the right person,
and resumes his inquisitorial stance. "Why are you asking me these questions?" he says. "Think
carefully about your reasons."
The new interviewer does not answer directly, but something about his opening speech triggers a
change in Diola's demeanour. "On the day we arrested you," he began, "I believe that you had the
intention of killing a British soldier or police officer. I don't know the details of what happened, why
you may have felt it needed to happen, or what you wanted to achieve by doing this. Only you know
these things Diola. If you are willing, you'll tell me, and if you're not, you won't. I can't force you to
tell me - I don't want to force you. I'd like you to help me understand. Would you tell me about what
happened?" The interviewer opens up his notebook, and shows Diola the empty pages. "You see? I
don't even have a list of questions."
"That is beautiful," Diola says. "Because you have treated me with consideration and respect, yes I
will tell you now. But only to help you understand what is really happening in this country."
For years, any debate over what constitutes effective interrogation has been dominated by a
pervasive folk belief in coercion. From NYPD Blue to 24 and Zero Dark Thirty, we are trained in the
idea that interrogators get the job done by intimidating, demoralising and, when necessary,
brutalising their subjects. Steven Kleinman, a former army colonel and one of the US military's most
prolific and experienced interrogators, told me it is not just the public that is influenced by popular
narratives: "Politicians, policy-makers, senior military officers - people who have never conducted
interrogations are somehow just convinced they know what works."
Q 6. 30405650 How did the detained man interact with his interrogators?
a) By asking for pardon, since he had exposed the corruption of British soldiers.
b)
By questioning the naivety of the interrogators regarding the allegedly corrupt nature of the
government.
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c) By providing ample clues regarding the real culprits.
d) By pleading insanity.
Q 7. 30405650 On what ground does Diola refuse to divulge anything to the interviewer?
a) Diola perceives that the interviewer is driven by servitude rather than rationality.
b) Diola perceives that the interviewer is in cahoots with the British government.
c) Diola perceives that the interviewer is seditious.
d) Diola perceives that the interviewer is trying to get promoted by interviewing him.
Q 8. 30405650 From the reading of your passage, why do you think Diola offered to hold a
conversation with the boss?
a) Because Diola thought that the new person was genuinely concerned about Britain.
b) Because Diola felt that the boss was empathetic towards Diola's mission.
c)
Because the new person perceived Diola's desire to speak and showed his desire to understand
Diola's perceptions.
d)
Because the boss tricked Diola into believing that he was a man driven by rationality and not
another stooge for the state.
Q 9. 30405650 As used in the passage, what does 'grandiloquently' mean?
a) Extravagant in use of gestures. b) Extravagant in use of slangs.
c) Extravagant in use of personality. d) Extravagant in use of language.
Q 10. 30405650 Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the given passage?
a) b)
The Complexities of Effective Interrogation The Power of Consideration and Respect in
Techniques Interrogations
c) d)
Uncovering the Truth: A Glimpse into Diola's Challenging Folk Beliefs in Coercive
Interrogation Interrogation Methods
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Passage – 3
Last Wednesday, the Supreme Court granted the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
more time to complete its investigation into Hindenburg Research's allegations of malfeasance,
stock price manipulations and violations of minimum public shareholding requirements in Adani
Group firms. Ahead of the Court's original May 2 limit, SEBI had sought at least six more months,
citing complexities and the need to unravel layered deals it deemed "suspicious". The market
watchdog has now got a three-month reprieve. But the findings of a six-member expert panel,
tasked by the Court to review Indian securities market's overall regulatory and investor protection
framework in the wake of the dizzying volatility in Adani Group stocks' prices, do not inspire much
hope for an expedient closure. On its most vital term of reference - regulatory failure in dealing with
the alleged contravention of securities market laws in relation to the Adani Group or other
companies - the committee's findings are far from emphatic.
On the question of stock price manipulation, for instance, SEBI told the Justice A.M. Sapre-led
panel that 849 automated "alerts" were thrown up by stock exchanges in the 57 months up to
December 2022, resulting in four reports. The first of these reports, in September 2020, attracted
SEBI's attention to some common foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) holding shares across the Adani
Group. Juxtaposing this with earlier complaints, SEBI commenced a formal probe on potential
violation of the 25% public shareholding norms in October 2020. SEBI cited Adani Enterprises'
trading data to the panel and said no manipulation was found. But such analyses were still
underway for other group stocks, compelling the panel to conclude that "…prima facie", it won't be
possible to say there has been a "regulatory failure", even as it stressed that such investigations
must be time-bound. Even on the probe into the public share-holding and related party transactions
flagged by Hindenburg, the panel's inference is cautiously worded and hints at its own time
constraints. "In these circumstances, it would not be possible to return a finding of regulatory
failure… There indeed has to be a coherent enforcement policy." The key reason for SEBI drawing
a blank in attempts (that began in 2020 and revived after the Hindenburg report) to identify the 42
ultimate beneficiaries behind 13 FPIs with sizeable stakes in Adani Group firms is that the regulator
had itself tweaked the FPI norms in 2019 to make this obfuscation possible. Such a self-inflicted
'chicken and egg' situation, with capricious legislation diverging from enforcement, is rare and must
trigger a closer look at SEBI's approach to its key mandate of protecting investors.
Q 11. 30405650 Which of the following best summarizes the findings of the expert panel regarding
the regulatory failure in dealing with the alleged contravention of securities market laws in relation to
the Adani Group or other companies?
a)
The expert panel identified clear instances of regulatory failure in the investigations conducted by
SEBI, particularly regarding stock price manipulation and violations of public shareholding norms.
b)
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The expert panel concluded that there is insufficient evidence to establish regulatory failure, but
emphasized the need for time-bound investigations and a coherent enforcement policy.
c)
The expert panel found SEBI's approach to be effective in protecting investors, despite challenges
in identifying ultimate beneficiaries and the tweaking of FPI norms.
d)
The expert panel expressed optimism that SEBI's investigations into the alleged contraventions will
lead to an expedient closure and ensure investor protection.
Q 12. 30405650 Which of the following is the most suitable title for the given passage?
a) Challenges and Delays in SEBI's Investigation into Adani Group Allegations
b) SEBI's Regulatory Failure in Adani Group Investigations
c) Expert Panel's Recommendations for Enhancing SEBI's Investor Protection Framework
d)
Stock Price Manipulation and Public Shareholding Norms in Adani Group: A Closer Look at SEBI's
Approach
Q 13. 30405650 Which of the following can be inferred from the last line of the passage?
a)
The passage highlights SEBI's successful implementation of its key mandate to protect investors.
b)
The expert panel's findings reveal a lack of coordination between SEBI's legislation and
enforcement actions.
c)
The investigation into the alleged contraventions by the Adani Group has resulted in clear regulatory
failure.
d)
The passage suggests that SEBI's approach to protecting investors needs to be closely examined.
Q 14. 30405650 Based on the passage, what does the term "malfeasance" (as used in the first
paragraph) most likely mean?
a) b)
Complexity and intricacy in the investigation Violation of minimum public shareholding
process requirements
c) d) Wrongdoing or illegal activity
Allegations and accusations made by
Hindenburg Research
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Q 15. 30405650 SEBI requested ___________ more time to complete its investigation into the
allegations made by Hindenburg Research against the Adani Group firms.
a) no b) at least six months c) an indefinite period d)

a three-month reprieve
Passage – 4
It was one morning, while walking on the beach in Gujarat, that wildlife expert Meena Venkataraman
spotted a pair of paw prints. But this was no dog or fox that had visited. The footprints belonged to
an Asiatic lion, the king of the jungle - and, increasingly, the beach.
Once found throughout Mesopotamia, Persia and the Indian subcontinent, the Asiatic lion was
almost driven to extinction by the early 1900s due to hunting and habitat loss, before a nawab in the
western Indian state of Gujarat intervened. Today, the state is the only home of the Asiatic lion.
While most of the nearly 700 animals counted in 2020 are found in the dry, deciduous terrain of the
Gir forest and its surrounding protected areas, many have been moving to sea-side locales.
Between 2010 and 2020, the number of lions living along Gujarat's coast rose from 20 to 104, and
forest officials in Gujarat say coastal habitats are now the most significant of all satellite habitats that
the lions occupy.
Finding lions in coastal areas is not unprecedented - in Namibia, lions have adapted to the beach,
where they hunt seals - but in India it is unusual, says Venkataraman, principal consultant at
Carnivore Conservation and Research.
"Lions using the sandy beach and walking at the edge of the sea is an incredible sight. I have had
the good luck to see that a few times," she says.
In November 2022, researchers from Gujarat's forest department released findings from the first
study of coastal Asiatic lions. Between 2019 and 2021, they monitored 10 lions fitted with GPS radio
collars. One question they set out to answer was what kind of habitats the coastal lions were using,
says Mohan Ram, deputy conservator of forests in Gir, and lead author of the study.
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The answers were surprising, says Venkataraman, who was also part of the study. "They shelter in
the prosopis plantations in the western coasts [of Gujarat]. These are very thick and very thorny
habitats," she says, adding that it's unusual because the lion is believed to be a more "open area"
animal. Meanwhile, "in the eastern coasts, lions are actually making use of salt pan areas and
mangroves".
The researchers also compared the characteristics of the dispersing lions to those in Gir.
"Interestingly, we found the home ranges to be different," says Venkataraman. Lions living in coastal
habitats had larger home ranges - the area where an animal usually roams - than those living in the
Gir protected areas. Those living between the forest and coastal areas - the "link lions" - were found
to have even larger home ranges, she says.
Unlike Namibia's coastal lions, those in Gujarat do not prey on marine animals but, says
Venkataraman: "With time, they may develop a taste for scavenging dead fish."
They mostly feed on wild boar, nilgai (a type of antelope) and stray cattle, but in 2020 there were
reports of a lion preying on a turtle. Ram says forest officials are studying the coastal lions' food
habits and hunting patterns.
Q 16. 30405650 In the light of the passage, which one is factually correct?
a) A lion preying on a turtle indicates that lions are intelligent animals.
b) Not all lions have the same food habits.
c) Lions have started eating turtles because the latter is easy to catch.
d) Turtle meat is tastier than conventional meat.
Q 17. 30405650 In the light of the passage, what is the use of a GPS radio collar?
a) Helped in the study of the family history of the coastal lions.
b) Helped in the study of the coastal lions' culinary tastes.
c) Helped in the study of the coastal lions' sleeping habits.
d) Helped in the study of the places where the coastal lions lived.
Q 18. 30405650 Out of the following options, which one is true about Asiatic lions?
a) The number of Asiatic lions had dwindled one hundred years back.
b) The number of Asiatic lions had increased one hundred years back.
c) The number of Asiatic lions reduced because of climate change.
d) The number of Asiatic lions reduced despite stringent hunting laws.
Q 19. 30405650 What can be inferred about the home ranges of the lions?
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a) The home ranges of the lions do not vary. b)

The study of home ranges is scientifically
important.
c) d)
Based on the home ranges, the government Lions living on the coasts had the smallest home
frames policies. range.
Q 20. 30405650 Out of the following options, which one is an antonym of the word 'disperse' as
used in the passage?
a) Stroke b) Pry c) Gather d) Reify
Passage – 5
Climate change refers to long-term shifts in temperatures and weather patterns. Such shifts can be
natural, due to changes in the sun's activity or large volcanic eruptions. But since the 1800s, human
activities have been the main driver of climate change, primarily due to the burning of fossil fuels
like coal, oil and gas.
Burning fossil fuels generates greenhouse gas emissions that act like a blanket wrapped around the
Earth, trapping the sun's heat and raising temperatures.
The main greenhouse gases that are causing climate change include carbon dioxide and methane.
These come from using gasoline for driving a car or coal for heating a building, for example.
Clearing land and cutting down forests can also release carbon dioxide. Agriculture, oil and gas
operations are major sources of methane emissions. Energy, industry, transport, buildings,
agriculture and land use are among the main sectors causing greenhouse gases.
Climate scientists have showed that humans are responsible for virtually all global heating over the
last 200 years. Human activities like the ones mentioned above are causing green-house gases that
are warming the world faster than at any time in at least the last two thousand years.
The average temperature of the Earth's surface is now about 1.1°C warmer than it was in the late
1800s (before the industrial revolution) and warmer than at any time in the last 100,000 years. The
last decade (2011-2020) was the warmest on record, and each of the last four decades has been
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warmer than any previous decade since 1850.
Many people think climate change mainly means warmer temperatures. But temperature rise is only
the beginning of the story. Because the Earth is a system, where everything is connected, changes
in one area can influence changes in all others.
The consequences of climate change now include, among others, intense droughts, water scarcity,
severe fires, rising sea levels, flooding, melting polar ice, catastrophic storms and declining
biodiversity.
Climate change can affect our health, ability to grow food, housing, safety and work. Some of us are
already more vulnerable to climate impacts, such as people living in small island nations and other
developing countries. Conditions like sea-level rise and saltwater intrusion have advanced to the
point where whole communities have had to relocate, and protracted droughts are putting people at
risk of famine. In the future, the number of "climate refugees" is expected to rise.
In a series of UN reports, thousands of scientists and government reviewers agreed that limiting
global temperature rise to no more than 1.5°C would help us avoid the worst climate impacts and
maintain a livable climate. Yet policies currently in place point to a 2.8°C temperature rise by the
end of the century.
The emissions that cause climate change come from every part of the world and affect everyone,
but some countries produce much more than others. The seven biggest emitters alone (China, the
United States of America, India, the European Union, Indonesia, the Russian Federation, and
Brazil) accounted for about half of all global greenhouse gas emissions in 2020. Everyone must
take appropriate action to combat climate change.
Q 21. 30405650 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) Climate change does not affect housing.
b) Climate change has ripple effect.
c) Climate change means only warmer temperature.
d) Climate change has been acknowledged by the UN as the worst problem of the 21st century.
Q 22. 30405650 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
statements?
a) Scientists and government reviewers feel that climate change cannot be resolved.
b) The number of climate refugees will remain constant over the next few decades.
c) People fail to survive when they become climate refugees.
d) People will lose their habitats owing to climate change.
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Q 23. 30405650 Out of the following options, which one is untrue about the consequences of
climate change?
a) Disastrous storms b) c) Severe famine d) Loss of employment

Reduction of polar ice
Q 24. 30405650 According to the author, how can climate change be addressed?
a) Only the major emitting countries should address climate change.
b) Only the rich countries should take the lead to counter climate change.
c) India and neighbouring countries should take the lead to combat climate change.
d) Everyone should try to do the needful to address the problem.
Q 25. 30405650 Out of the following options, which one is a synonym of the word 'protracted' as
used in the passage?
a) Reprehensive b) Interminable c) Definite d) Resolute
Passage – 6
Social forestry refers to managing the forests for the benefits of local communities. It involves
aspects such as forest management, forest protection and afforestation of barren lands with the
significant goal of enhancing the environmental and social development of rural areas.
• In contrast to other projects in forestry, in the setting up of social forestry, the necessities of local
communities come first.
• For this reason, the main objective of social forestry is to nurture trees and plantations to fulfill the
rising needs of people in reference to increased demand for timber, wood, food and fuel, thereby
reducing the pressure and the reliance on traditional forest areas.
• The practice also intends to safeguard agriculture from detrimental climatic conditions by
improving the environment, increasing the natural beauty of the locality and increasing the provision
of forest produce for domestic use.
• Despite the concept and practice of social forestry being in existence for centuries, it is continually
obtaining a new dimension because of its benefits including its ability to tackle the challenges of
global warming.
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In social forestry, trees and the plants associated with them grow into a source of food and shelter
for a range of small animals and birds.
In the fight against the effect of global warming, trees play a vital role in the expulsion of carbon
from the atmosphere. The actual quantity of carbon dioxide withdrawn from the air mainly depends
upon the type of trees and vegetation in the forest. Trees help lessen carbon dioxide by acting as a
carbon dioxide sink and by reducing the use of energy.
Conservation of soil is one of the critical benefits of social forestry. Tree roots aid in the prevention
of soil erosion by keeping the soil in its place. Trees lessen the effects of soil erosion by reducing
the impact of raindrops falling on the barren surface.
Trees and nature are natural cures for stress and anxiety. Therefore, growing trees in human
habitats can contribute to better health and enhanced general well-being. It is also becoming a quite
common practice to find hospitals growing trees owing to their healing effects.
Trees make the locality more attractive and serene. An area with an abundance of trees is more
likely to attract new residents than an area without trees. Recreational areas that are considerably
packed with trees can help keep the community together at home.
Noise triggers anxiety and stress. Extended exposure to high levels of noise is considered a main
cause of hearing loss. Trees reflect and absorb sound energy, lessening noise pollution. Moreover,
the noise caused by the swirling of branches and leaves helps mask man-made sounds.
Trees help clean and enhance the quality of air. Trees also absorb gaseous air contaminants that
adversely affect human health. Notably, trees help to purify the air by absorbing pollutants into their
leaves and then trap and filter particulate matter through their stems, leaves and twigs.
Trees are natural conditioners of air. They give a cooling effect to the area they have been planted
at. It therefore helps in reducing the usage of air conditioners, which directly reduces the energy
consumption.
Q 26. 30405650 Out of the following options, which one is an effect of social forestry?
a) Social forestry helps to improve the infrastructure of a particular place.
b) Social forestry increases the biodiversity value of a particular place.
c) Social forestry has helped youths secure jobs in urban areas.
d) Social forestry decreases the biodiversity value of a particular place.
Q 27. 30405650 Social forestry is considered to be effective because:
a) Social forestry is the best way to combat global warming.
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b) Social forestry is one of the favoured means of the government to combat air pollution.
c) Social forestry enhances the quality of air.
d) Social forestry does not have any impact on air quality.
Q 28. 30405650 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
options?
a) Trees can alleviate the problem of sound pollution.
b) Trees are the most effective way to counter noise pollution.
c) Trees, at times, exacerbate the problem of noise pollution.
d) Only fruit bearing trees can address the problem of noise pollution.
Q 29. 30405650 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) Hearing loss can occur only when there is a high level of noise.
b) Hearing loss is very common in India.
c) Trees encourage holistic wellness of life.
d) Severe anxiety can lead to suicide.
Q 30. 30405650 Out of the following options, which one is an antonym of the word 'barren' as used
in the passage?
a) Arid b) Mountainous c) Desert d) Fertile
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1
India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites to make total 75 Ramsar sites covering an
area of 13,26,677 ha in the country in the 75th year of Independence. The 11 new sites include:
Four (4) sites in Tamil Nadu, Three (3) in Odisha, Two (2) in Jammu & Kashmir and One (1) each in
Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. Designation of these sites would help in conservation and
management of wetlands and wise use of their resources.
India is one of the Contracting Parties to Ramsar Convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. India
signed it on 1st Feb 1982. During 1982 to 2013, a total of 26 sites were added to the list of Ramsar
sites, however, during 2014 to 2022, the country has added 49 new wetlands to the list of Ramsar
sites.
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During this year itself (2022) a total of 28 sites have been declared as Ramsar sites. Based on the
date of designation mentioned on Ramsar Certificate, the number is 19 for this year (2022) and 14
for previous year (2021). Tamil Nadu has maximum no. of Ramsar sites (14 nos), followed by UP
which has 10 nos. of Ramsar sites.
Q 31. 30405650 Tampara Lake has been declared as Ramsar site, where is Tampara Lake
located?
a) Karnataka b) Maharashtra c) Odisha d) Tamil Nadu
Q 32. 30405650 Ansupa Lake has been declared as Ramsar site, where is Ansupa Lake located
in?
a) Gujarat b) Goa c) Odisha d) Telanaga
Q 33. 30405650 Where is the Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary, also known as "Chitrangudi Kanmoli,"
located?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Odisha c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu
Q 34. 30405650 Where is the Suchindram Theroor Vembannur Wetland Complex located?
a) Tamil Nadu b) Punjab c) Andhra Pradesh d) Kerala
Q 35. 30405650 What is the name of the sanctuary declared in Thane Creek in Maharashtra,
India?
a) b) c) d)
Ulhas River Sanctuary Mumbai Flamingo Thane Creek Flamingo Navi Mumbai Bird
Sanctuary Sanctuary Sanctuary
Q 36. 30405650 Where are the Hygam Wetlands located?
a) Baramulla District, Jammu and Kashmir b) Srinagar District, Jammu and Kashmir
c) Leh District, Ladakh d) Anantnag District, Jammu and Kashmir
Q 37. 30405650 Where is the Shallabug Wetland Conservation Reserve located?
a) Baramulla District, Jammu and Kashmir b) Srinagar District, Jammu and Kashmir
c) Leh District, Ladakh d) Anantnag District, Jammu and Kashmir
Passage – 2
Vladimir Putin's announcement that he intends to deploy tactical nuclear weapons on Belarusian
territory appears to be another attempt to raise the stakes in the conflict in Ukraine - and follows the
Russian leader's warnings that Moscow is ready to use "all available means" to fend off attacks on
Russian territory, a reference to its nuclear arsenal.
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Belarus said it had decided to host the weapons after years of pressure from the United States and
its allies aimed at changing its political and geopolitical direction. "Over the last two and a half
years, the Republic of Belarus has been subjected to unprecedented political, economic and
information pressure from the United States, the United Kingdom and its NATO allies, as well as the
member states of the European Union," the Belarusian foreign minister said in a statement.
"In view of these circumstances, and the legitimate concerns and risks in the sphere of national
security arising from them, Belarus is forced to respond by strengthening its own security and
defence capabilities." Minsk said the Russian nuclear plans would not contravene international non-
proliferation agreements as Belarus itself would not have control over the weapons.
Q 38. 30405650 What is the range of sizes for tactical nuclear weapons?
a) Less than one kiloton to 100 kilotons b) Less than one kiloton to 1,000 kilotons
c) 100 kilotons to 1,000 kilotons d) 1 kiloton to 10 kilotons
Q 39. 30405650 Which type of nuclear weapons are subject to arms control agreements?
a) Tactical nuclear weapons b) Strategic nuclear weapons
c) Both tactical and strategic nuclear weapons d)

Neither tactical nor strategic nuclear weapons
Q 40. 30405650 The regulation of tactical nuclear weapons is primarily governed by__________.
a) Comprehensive arms control agreements
b) International treaties and conventions
c) Unilateral declarations made by George Bush and Mikhail Gorbachev
d) The United Nations Security Council resolutions
Q 41. 30405650 The worldwide Tactical nuclear weapons (TNWs) arsenals constitute a large
percentage of the nuclear weapon arsenals of:
a) b) China and France c) d) All of the above

United States and Israel, India, and
Russia Pakistan
Q 42. 30405650 Which country no longer possesses short-range nuclear weapons?
a) United States b) Russia c) China d) Great Britain
Q 43. 30405650 Has a tactical nuclear weapon ever been used in a combat situation as of 2023?
a) Yes, during World War II b) Yes, during the Cold War
c) d) It is unclear
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No, tactical nuclear weapons have never been

used in combat
Q 44. 30405650 Which of the following statements about tactical nuclear weapons (TNWs) is true?
a) They are primarily used for long-range strategic purposes.
b) They are subject to comprehensive arms control agreements.
c) They have electronic locks and strict security measures.
d) They can be deployed in battlefield and theatre-level operations.
Passage – 3
The Black Sea Grain Initiative, signed in [1] on 22 July 2022 to resume vital food and fertilizer
exports from designated Ukrainian seaports, has been extended. A note to correspondents from the
Office of the Spokesperson for the UN Secretary-General announced the extension on 18 March.
"The initiative allows for the facilitation of the safe navigation for the exports of grain and related
foodstuffs and fertilizers, including ammonia, from designated Ukrainian seaports," the note said.
During the first two terms of the initiative, some 25 million metric tons of grain and foodstuffs have
been moved to 45 countries, helping to bring down global food prices and stabilizing the markets,
according to the note.
The Black Sea Grain Initiative, alongside the Memorandum of Understanding on promoting Russian
food products and fertilizers to the world markets, are critical for global food security, especially for
the most vulnerable countries.
UNCTAD's report, "A Trade Hope: The impact of the Black Sea Grain Initiative", published on 9
March, said developing countries have benefited the most from the initiative, supporting food
security among the most vulnerable.
But this progress is fragile and price pressures remain. While food prices have gone down from their
all-time high at the start of the war, they're still high compared to pre-crisis levels.
Q 45. 30405650 Where was the deal for the Black Sea Grain Initiative signed which has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Istanbul b) Moscow c) Kyiv d) Ankara
Q 46. 30405650 What is the purpose of the Black Sea Grain Initiative?
a) Address global hunger b) Ensure the safe passage of commercial ships
c) d) Limit food price inflation

Increase grain exports from Russia and Ukraine
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Q 47. 30405650 Which countries are involved in the Black Sea Grain Initiative?
a) b) Ukraine, Belarus, Poland, and Romania

Russia, Turkey, Ukraine, and the United Nations c)
Turkey, Greece, Bulgaria, and Georgia
d) Russia, Ukraine, Belarus, and Moldova
Q 48. 30405650 Which Ukrainian ports are parts of the designated maritime humanitarian corridor
for the Black Sea Grain Initiative?
a) Chornomorsk, Odesa, and Yuzhny/Pivdennyi b) Moscow, Kyiv, and Lviv
c) Sevastopol, Donetsk, and Kharkiv d) Simferopol, Zaporizhia, and Dnipro
Q 49. 30405650 What is the role of the Joint Coordination Centre (JCC) in the Black Sea Grain
Initiative?
a) Ensuring maritime security in the Black Sea region
b) Monitoring and coordinating the safe passage of commercial ships
c) Overseeing the distribution of grains to Ukrainian ports
d) Facilitating negotiations between Russia and Ukraine
Q 50. 30405650 Which country is among the largest exporters of wheat, maize, rapeseed,
sunflower seeds, and sunflower oil globally?
a) Russia b) Turkey c) Ukraine d) Egypt
Q 51. 30405650 Which two straits connect the Black Sea to other bodies of water?
a) Strait of Gibraltar and Strait of Hormuz b) Strait of Malacca and Strait of Bab el-Mandeb
c) Strait of Bosphorus and Strait of Dardanelles d) Panama Canal and Suez Canal
Passage – 4
Two Indian Air Force (IAF) fighter aircraft -- Sukhoi-30 and Mirage-2000 - crashed in the Pahadgarh
area of Morena in Madhya Pradesh. The two fighter jets were involved in an accident when they
were on a routine training mission. An inquiry has been ordered to probe the cause.
Morena superintendent of police Ashutosh Bagri, while confirming the crash, said that two jets took
off from Gwalior on Saturday morning. While one of them had two pilots aboard, the other one had
one on board. Two pilots were safely rescued while the third sustained fatal injuries. Defence
Minister Rajnath Singh was also briefed by Chief of Air Staff Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari about
the incident.
Q 52. 30405650 Which country manufactures the Mirage 2000 fighter jets?
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a) India b) France c) Pakistan d) United States
Q 53. 30405650 What is the maximum speed that Mirage 2000 can attain?
a) Mach 1.5 b) Mach 2.0 c) Mach 2.2 d) Mach 2.5
Q 54. 30405650 What is the maximum altitude at which Mirage 2000 can be flown?
a) 40,000 ft b) 50,000 ft c) 59,000 ft d) 70,000 ft
Q 55. 30405650 Which radar system is fitted in Mirage 2000 for striking targets with accuracy?
a) b) Thales RDY 2 c) d) Saab Erieye

Lockheed Martin Raytheon AN/APG-63
APG-81
Q 56. 30405650 In which operations were Mirage 2000 aircraft deployed?
a) Operation Desert Storm b) Operation Enduring Freedom
c) Kargil war and Balakot airstrike d) Operation Rolling Thunder
Q 57. 30405650 What is the purpose of the indigenous SRBM Missile Pralay?
a) Anti-aircraft defense b) Maritime surveillance
c) Long-range communication d) Surface-to-surface strike capability
Q 58. 30405650 What is the range of the Pralay missile?
a) 100-300 kilometers b) 150-500 kilometers c) 500-800 kilometers d) 800-1000 kilometers
Passage – 5
Kerala has topped the list of States in the country with the most number of products securing the
Geographical Indication (GI) tag in FY23, data shared by the GI Registry said. Attappady
Aattukombu Avara (beans), Attappady Thuvara (red gram), Onattukara Ellu (sesame), Kanthaloor
Vattavada Veluthuli (garlic), and Kodungallur Pottuvellari (snap melon) were picked for the GI
recognition tag as per the data released by the registry. Besides the 6 products from Kerala, Mithila
Makhana (aquatic fox nut) from Bihar was selected for GI recognition followed by Alibag white onion
from Maharashtra. Tandur Redgram from Telangana, the local variety of pea, Ladakh Raktsey
Karpo Apricot from Ladakh, and Gamosa handicrafts from Assam were also chosen for the
honours. The Geogrphical Indication relates to particular location and product manufactured from
that region.
Accordingly, between April 2022 and March 2023, 12 products were selected for the recognition
with two of them from overseas. Brandy De Jerez from [1], which is locally manufactured was
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selected, while Provolone Valpadana from [2] also received GI recognition. In FY22, as many as 50
products from domestic and overseas markets were selected for the recognition, with Uttar Pradesh
topping the list with seven GI tags, followed by Uttarakhand at six.
Q 59. 30405650 What is the main characteristic of a product that receives Geographical Indication
(GI) recognition?
a) High quality and premium pricing b) Unique manufacturing process
c) Specific location of production d) Popular demand and consumer preference
Q 60. 30405650 What is the significance of Geographical Indication (GI) recognition for a product?
a) b)
It protects the product from imitation and misuse It ensures a higher export demand for the
product
c) d)
It increases the manufacturing cost of the It guarantees a longer shelf life for the product
product
Q 61. 30405650 Brandy De Jerez from [1] was selected for Geographical Indication (GI)
recognition. Which of the following countries has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Portugal b) Spain c) Colombia d) Russia
Q 62. 30405650 Provolone Valpadana, a product from [2], received Geographical Indication (GI)
recognition. Which of the following countries has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) France b) Spain c) Italy d) India
Q 63. 30405650 Which state in India has handcraft products like Aipan and Kumaon Chyura Oil
recognized with the Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Uttarakhand c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka
Q 64. 30405650 Which state in India has the Narsinghapettai Nagaswaram recognized with the
Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
Q 65. 30405650 Which state in India has handcraft products like Chunar Glaze Pottery and
Banaras Zardozi recognized with the Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
Legal Reasoning
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Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer
and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
Article 20 of the Constitution of India deals with the protections that are afforded with respect to the
conviction of offenses. It is made up of 3 elements:
1. That no person can be convicted of an offense other than one that was in force at the time when
the offense had been committed, and the penalty given to such a person cannot be greater than
that which had been in force when the offense had been committed.
2. No person can be punished for the same offense more than once.
3. No accused can be forced to be a witness against themselves. This is the right against self-
incrimination.
We took the doctrine from the Fifth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States of America,
however our version of the doctrine is narrower in nature than that of the United States because in
America a second trial is not permitted if the accused has been acquitted in the first trial, in India the
second trial can only be stopped if the accused has been punished in the first trial if they were
acquitted originally then a fresh case can be brought
Section 26 of the General Clauses Act states that when a person commits an offense under more
than one enactment, they must be prosecuted under one of the provisions but not both.
Further, Section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure also states that once a person has been
convicted or acquitted of an offense, they cannot be tried for the same offense again, or even a
different offense based on the same set of facts, so long as the original conviction or acquittal
remains in force.
This makes Section 300 wider in scope than Article 20 (2), as was backed up by the court as well in
the Kolla Veera Raghav Rao case. The Indian Penal Code also has a provision against Double
Jeopardy in the form of Section 71, the section states that in a case where an offense is made up of
several offenses, the offender cannot be punished for more than one of these offenses unless it has
expressly been provided so.
In order for Double Jeopardy to be applicable, there are certain conditions that need to be fulfilled.
The person needs to have been accused of an offense, there ought to have been proceedings
before a court or tribunal, the court must have punished the person for the offense, and the new
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charge on the person must be the same as the old offense for which they had been prosecuted, this
was stated in the case State of Bombay V. S.L. Apte.
If all of these conditions are fulfilled then the defense of double jeopardy can be availed. It is not
applicable to situations where distinct offenses have been committed by the same act of the
accused, the court clarified this point in their judgment in Bhagwant Swarup V. State of
Maharashtra.
Q 66. 30405650 D was a school peon. Once he was caught spying on the girl's restroom. The
school immediately expelled him without the salary of that particular month. The parent's union
came together and decided to file a criminal charge against D. D is contesting that he is being
punished twice for the same offense. Decide.
a) D is being punished twice as he has already been expelled from the school.
b) D is not being punished twice and a criminal charge can be heard against him.
c) D is being punished twice as already his salary has been deducted in the form of punishment.
d) Both (a) and (c)
Q 67. 30405650 A had been spying on his neighbour B by stalking her through social media. When
B realized the same, she filed a police complaint. Now, A has been charged with relevant sections
of IT act 2000 and IPC 1860. The court wants to award him 6 months of imprisonment under IPC
and 2 months of imprisonment and a fine under IT act 2000. Is there double jeopardy in the given
case?
a)
There is no double jeopardy in the given case as A is being charged under different provisions but
at once.
b) There is no double jeopardy as both punishments are being given in a single hearing.
c)
In the given case, A is being punished for the same offense of stalking under two different
provisions and there is double jeopardy.
d) None of the above.
Q 68. 30405650 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
Section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure also states that once a person has been convicted
or acquitted of an offense, they cannot be tried for the same offense again.
b)
Article 20 talks about the protection that ought to be given to those who have been accused or
convicted of having committed an offense.
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c) The Indian Penal Code also has a provision against Double Jeopardy in the form of Section 72.
Q 69. 30405650 D stayed in the kingdom of Rajnagar which followed the Indian constitution. Once,
D went to Raj Ghat on 10th January and took a bath. One 13th of January a new announcement
came out stating only the King and his family shall be allowed to take bath and any other person
bathing shall be punished. On 15th of January the king's guard took away D to punish him for
bathing in Rajghat. Is there any constitutional provision that can save D?
a) There isn't any constitutional provision that can save D and he should face the wrath of the king.
b) D shall be protected under article 20 (2) of the constitution that is double jeopardy.
c)
D shall be protected under article 20(1) as when he committed the crime the said law was not in
force and it cannot have a retrospective effect.
d)
The Constitution of India is not applicable outside the sovereignty of India and therefore, D cannot
be saved.
Q 70. 30405650 B was accused of robbing jewellery. He was brought into the police station for
interrogation. A, the head constable asked B to confess failing which his wife and mother's life
would be made miserable. B confessed to the crime. Can B seek protection of any constitutional
protection.
a)
B cannot seek any constitutional protection as he has already confessed to the crime which he has
committed.
b)
B has a right against self-incrimination and the same shall be protected as it is his fundamental
right.
c) B has the right to life which is being violated as he has been falsely convicted.
Passage – 2
Estoppel is a principle of law by which a person is held bound by the representation made by him or
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arising out of his conduct. Estoppel has been dealt in sections 115 to 117 of the Indian evidence act.
When one person has, by his declaration or by his act, intentionally caused or permitted another
person to believe a thing to be true and to act upon such belief neither he nor his representative
shall be allowed, in any suit or proceeding between himself and such person or his representative,
to deny the truth of that thing. In a case, a judge, who has shown high age in his certificates right
from the beginning of his career, sought to deny it by showing actual municipal birth records, so as
to retire at a later age. Held that the judge is estopped.
Doctrine of estoppel has gained a new dimension in recent years with the recognition of an
equitable doctrine of promissory estoppel both by English and Indian courts. According to it, if a
promise is made in the expectation that it should be acted upon in the future, and it was in fact
acted upon, the party making the promise will not be allowed to back out of it. The development of
such a principle was easy in Britain and USA, where estoppel is a rule of equity (common law), but
in India, it is a rule of law, and terms of sec 115 must be strictly complied with.
The concept of promissory estoppel differs from the concept of estoppel as continued in Section 115
in that representation in the latter is to an existing fact, while the former relates to a representation
of future intention. But it has been accepted by the Supreme Court as "advancing the cause of
justice. Though such promise (future) is not supported in point of law by any 'consideration' (the
basis of contract), but only by the party's conduct; however, if promise is made in circumstances
involving legal rights and obligations it is only proper that the parties should be enforced to do what
they promised. In Cases, where the government is one of the parties, the court will balance the
harm to the public interest by compelling the government to fulfill its promise and not to allow the
government to back out of it to see if the government does not act arbitrarily. The doctrine has been
variously described as "equitable estoppel", "quasi estoppel" and "new estoppel''. The Doctrine is
not really based on the principle of estoppel, but it is a doctrine evolved by equity in order to prevent
injustice where a promise made by a person knowing that it would be acted on, it is inequitable to
allow the party making the promise to go back upon it. The Doctrine of promissory estoppel need
not, therefore, be confined to the limitations of estoppel in the strict sense of word.
The Supreme Court has laid down that it is well settled that there cannot be any estoppel against
the Government in the exercise of its sovereign, legislative and executive functions. Where a local
development authority announced a housing scheme and accepted applications under it,
subsequently finding that the scheme was in violation of the Master Plan canceled it. It was held
that to be free to do so without any shackles of promissory estoppel.
Q 71. 30405650 Which of the following is the correct definition of 'doctrine of estoppel'?
a)
Doctrine of estoppel is used to prohibit a judge who has shown high age during his joining to
change his retirement date by producing the original certificate.
b)
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Doctrine of estoppel is used to sue the public officials when they go contradictory to the word which
they have given to the public.
c)
The doctrine of estoppel is a principle of law by which a person is held bound by the representation
made by him or arising out of his conduct.
d)
The doctrine of estoppel is a principle of law under which a public official is held bound by the
representation made by him or arising out of his conduct.
Q 72. 30405650 B is a public servant who was standing for the post of panchayat president. During
his election campaign his main motto was to 'vote me and save trees'. After the election in which he
secured victory, he permitted a construction of an industry in the village at the cause of acres of
forest land. Now the villagers want to apply the estoppel principle on him to restrain him from going
against his word. Decide.
a)
The villagers can file an estoppel as he is acting contradictory to the statement which he had given
previously.
b) The villagers cannot file an estoppel against him as he is the president of the panchayat.
c) In the given case, the provision of estoppel cannot be applied for the said act of the B.
d) An estoppel principle cannot be applied on a public person but only on a public office.
Q 73. 30405650 Which of the following statements is untrue with regards to application of doctrine
of estoppel?
a) The doctrine of estoppel has gained a new dimension in recent years.
b) The certain provisions of Indian Evidence act 1872 explain about estoppel.
c) Estoppel can never be applied to a governmental agency or authority.
d) None of the above
Q 74. 30405650 How does the concept of promissory estoppel differ from the concept of estoppel
according to the passage?
a)
Promissory estoppel is enforceable and a legal action can be claimed against it while estoppel is
used only as a restraint method without any legal action.
b)
Estoppel refers to representation of existing facts while in promissory estoppel the representation is
to the future facts.
c)
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Estoppel refers to representation of future facts while in promissory estoppel the representation is to
the existing facts.
d)
Estoppel refers to representation of past facts while in promissory estoppel the representation is to
the existing facts.
a) The doctrine of promissory estoppel has been variously described as "equitable estoppel".
b)
The doctrine of promissory estoppel has been accepted by the supreme court in advancement of
justice.
c)
The Doctrine of promissory estoppel need not be confined to the limitations of estoppel in the strict
sense of word.
Passage – 3
A Fiduciary Relationship is a confidential relationship, wherein the fiduciary has access or

possesses the confidential information or entrusting of power. He shall not undertake any
transaction which shall be a possible conflict of interest to the Beneficiary and to ensure the desired
outcome is achieved. Status of an informal Fiduciary Relationship: Generally, a fiduciary relationship
exists only where one party is accustomed to being guided by the judgment or advice of the other or
is justified in placing confidence in the belief that such party will act in its interest. Mostly, the
acceptance of the Fiduciary duties is also considered in the case of formal contracts or agreements.
However, where a party has entrusted confidential information or property or knowledge with a
peculiar reliance on another party irrespective of any agreement or contract executed and the latter
is under the fiduciary obligations.
1. A fiduciary relationship is a commitment to act in the best interest of another person. Following
the certain duties of Fiduciary while discharging his obligations:
2. He must act in the Good Faith of the Party: Where confidential information or property is in the
custody of a person, then such a person is deemed to be a Fiduciary. If there is a question on
transactions that happened in good faith, as per Section 111 of the Indian Evidence Act, the burden
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of proof rests on the Fiduciary.

3. Fiduciary must not make any profits: perse fiduciary should not make any profits, however, any
profit or gain made by the fiduciary during the transaction then he is under obligation to disclose the
same to the Beneficiary, although there is no harm caused to the Beneficiary.
4. Fiduciary shall not be the purchaser: usually, the fiduciary shall not be the purchaser of property
in his possession or handed over by the beneficiary.
5. Discharge his duty with care: While taking decisions, the fiduciary shall do research, gather all
information and consider all pros and cons of the decisions.
Although the Indian laws have not defined the fiduciary relationship concisely, however, many
statutes have recognized the obligations and entrusted the duties to the parties following are a few
notable scenarios:
Section 16 - "Undue influence" 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Where one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to
obtain an unfair advantage over the other, the Fiduciary is recognized as an influential or dominating
person.
Section 88 - "Advantage gained by fiduciary" of Indian Trusts Act, 1882
The Trustee is merely fiduciary, shall assume all the obligations entrusted upon the fiduciary while
discharging his duties, and shall act for the best interest of the Beneficiary(s) without any undue
gain or profit.
Section-20- "Fiduciary relation of guardian to ward" of Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 The
guardian shall hold a fiduciary relationship with his ward.
In Companies Act: Globe Motors Ltd. vs Mehta Teja Singh
The director of the Company has executed an agreement acting in their interest rather than the
interest of the Company & Stakeholders. The court ordered the director to rescind the contract.
Q 76. 30405650 D was a virologist. Once D was invited by the government of India to give his
views on the behaviour of omicron so that they can plan their next set of guidelines accordingly. D
who was tired of the continued lockdown told the government that omicron is just a common cold
and there is no need for any regulation. The government did not impose any regulations. However,
in the next 15 days India saw an average of 15k omicron related deaths. Now the government
wants to sue D as he has failed his fiduciary obligation. Decide.
a)
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D did not have any fiduciary obligation as he did not specifically sign any agreement with the
government.
b)
D has not failed his fiduciary obligation as he was giving his mere opinion and the government was
not bound to act by the same.
c)
D has failed in his fiduciary obligation which was present as he has given a misleading statement to
the government.
d)
There can be no fiduciary obligation in the given case and D did not have the intention of misleading
the government.
Q 77. 30405650 C was an aged person and he held a lot of assets. He was unable to keep track of
his large wealth and had hired B, a lawyer to look after his assets and guide him according to the
market situation. B advised C when to sell the assets or buy assets, when to invest etc. Is B a
fiduciary and is he having a dominating authority over C?
a) B is not a fiduciary and there is no dominating authority over C.
b) B is not a fiduciary. However, he has a dominating authority over C.
c) B has fiduciary responsibility and he also is in an influential and dominating authority over C.
d)
B does have a fiduciary relationship. However, there is no dominating authority as the final authority
to decide upon the asset rests with C.
Q 78. 30405650 Which of the following statements is false in light of the above given passage?
a)
The fiduciary shall not undertake any transaction which shall be a possible conflict of interest to the
Beneficiary.
b) The Indian laws have not defined the fiduciary relationship concisely.
c)
A fiduciary relationship exists only where one party is accustomed to being guided by the judgment
or advice of the other.
Q 79. 30405650 D who acted as a fiduciary to one B had the bank account details of B. However, B
thought D had given the details purposefully expecting B to leak out the information to one A. D who
was an ardent fan of thriller movies was excited by this double bluff trick and gave away all the
information to A. Now B wants to file a suit against D and D wants to contend that the information
was not given in good faith. Decide.
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a)
D can plead before the court that the information was not given in good faith and therefore was not
bound by fiduciary duty.
b) B can file a case against D for breaking the fiduciary commitments he had against B.
c)
B can file a case. However, the burden is upon D to prove that the information was not given in
good faith.
d)
B cannot file a case in the given case as he has no proof to suggest that it was D who has leaked
out the information to C.
Q 80. 30405650 C owned a big multi business company. C had an ambition of entering the rural
Indian market. In order to start the venture, he asked A, B and D regarding their opinion for the best
place and time to enter the market. After analysing their advice, he came up with a unique decision
and went ahead with it. Was there a fiduciary relationship in the given case?
a) There is a fiduciary relationship between C and A, B and D.
b) There is no fiduciary relationship between C and the others mentioned.
c) There is a fiduciary relationship between A, B and C.
d) There is no fiduciary relationship between A and B but between C and D.
Passage – 4
Cybersquatting is the practice of registering an Internet domain name that is likely to be wanted by
another person, business, or organization, hoping to sell the same to them for a profit. The
underlying idea behind cybersquatting is exploiting the accepted practice of first come, first serve
basis and registering under the names of celebrities or personalities with whom they have no
connection. The simple registration process coupled with the inability of WIPO to keep track of all
the registrars and their relationship with the desired domain makes the cybersquatting process
easier. Cyber squatters usually put these domain names up for auctions or sell them directly to
companies or interested parties for highly exorbitant prices.
To deal with the ever-increasing problem of cybersquatting, Internet Corporation for Assigned
Names and Numbers (ICANN), the international body that looks after top-level domains (gTLD &
ccTLD), prepared a report containing recommendations to deal with domain name disputes. ICANN
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adopted the Uniform Domain Name Dispute Resolution Policy (UDRP) based on the report's
recommendations. UDRP gives rules and regulations that have to have complied with ICANN-
accredited domain name dispute resolution service provider. There are various dispute redressal
forums such as the World Intellectual property organization, Arab center for domain name dispute
resolution, and National arbitration forum. But the majority of the cases are heard and resolved by
WIPO.
The UDRP mainly focuses on problems that have been created by disputes between domain names
and trademarks. Through UDRP, complainants can file a case with resolution service providers
specifying the required information such as domain name in question, the respondent, the
contentions, etc. The dispute shall be heard by a panel consisting of one to three panelists. The
decision is binding. However, the decision can be challenged in other courts of law as the process is
an alternate dispute resolution method.
After successfully governing dispute resolutions for ten years, in the year 2009, the WIPO proposed
to amend the rules of UDRP to allow only electronic filing of pleadings under uniform domain name
dispute resolution policy (UDRP). From March 1st, 2010, e-filing of UDRP pleadings was made
mandatory. Paperless filing ushered in a new era of Domain name disputes. Paperless filing
involved the process of filing complaints through the mail, notifications, and other prescribed
methods in the newly updated UDRP rules.
On January 18th of 2010, WIPO released the decision of the first paperless case brought by Nokia.
The case was resolved within thirty-seven days under the greener and more efficient filing and
notification option. The new paperless filing requires complaints to be made via e-mail or be
contained in the body of an e-mail. The size of one email should not exceed 10 MB. Larger files
must be sent via separate emails, and the total size of complainant files should not exceed 50 MB,
barring exceptional circumstances. Paragraph 3(b)(xii) of updated UPDRP rules requires a party
initiating a complaint to send its complaint to the respondent and the WIPO arbitration and
mediation center. For this purpose, the center has provided an updated complaint transmittal
coversheet in Annex A.
Q 81. 30405650 Which among the following is the biggest contribution of ICANN to check the
menace of cybersquatting?
a) Appointment of permanent internet watchdog in the year 1999
b) Proposal to introduce paperless filing of cases in the year 2008
c)
Preparation of a report containing recommendations to deal with domain name disputes in the year
1999
d) Proposal to amend the existing guideline to add domain name disputes in the year 1999.
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Q 82. 30405650 Pachin Tendulkar was a famous footballer who represented Brazil. Go Daddy was
a company that held right to merchandise Pachin's name and had trademark over the same. One
RTY solutions obtained a domain name- PachintendulkarlovesJohnnysins.com. Now Go Daddy
wants to file a domain name infringement case against RTY solutions. Decide.
a)
Go Daddy cannot file a case domain name dispute and only Pachin can as his name is being used
to merchandise immoral practices.
b) Go Daddy can file a UDRP process against RTY solutions.
c) Go Daddy can file the UDRP process only with the express consent of Pachin Tendulkar.
d) In the given case, the UDRP process cannot be initiated as the domain name is not identical.
Q 83. 30405650 Which of the following statements regarding paperless filing that is mentioned in
the passage is true?
a) The panel became more vigilant and efficient after the UDRP process moved paperless.
b)
The number of cases being filed dramatically shot up after the UDRP process adopted the greener
strategy.
c) eUDRP is a greener and more efficient way of solving domain name disputes.
d)
WIPO moved into a global standard and surpassed the Arabian dispute resolution center in the
number of cases being heard after eUDRP was accepted.
Q 84. 30405650 B owned a website named 'Naughty Indian' and the Domain name of the same
was NottyIndians.com. The website shared videos and clips of naughty kids committing
mischievous acts etc. One D started an adult video company whose domain name was
NaughtIndiansandPakistaneese.com. B was offended by an immoral and unethical website being
named after his company and also for infringement of his trademark. He filed a UDRP proceeding at
WIPO by mailing them the complaint in three separate emails of 15 mb, 18mb and 12 mb. Can
WIPO accept the complaint of D?
a)
WIPO cannot accept the complaint of B as his website and D's website have different names
altogether.
b)
WIPO cannot accept the complaint as the complaint has not been submitted by following the
required procedure.
c) WIPO can accept the complaint as there is domain name infringement by the act of D.
d)
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In the given case, WIPO need not entertain the said case as there is no domain name infringement
in the said case.
Q 85. 30405650 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the given passage?
a)
The UDRP mainly focuses on problems that have been created by disputes between domain names
and trademarks.
b)
UDRP gives rules and regulations that have to have complied with ICANN-accredited domain name
dispute resolution service provider
c)
On January 18th of 2010, WIPO released the decision of the first paperless case brought by
Samsung.
d)
The simple registration process coupled with the inability of WIPO to keep track of all the registrars
and their relationship with the desired domain makes the cybersquatting process easier and
predominant.
Passage – 5
According to Section 441 of The Indian Penal Code, whoever enters into property in the possession
of another with the intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in
possession of such property, or having lawfully entered into such property, but remains there with
intent thereby to intimidate, insult or any such person, or with an intent to commit an offence, is said
to commit 'criminal trespass'. Thus, it can be deduced that criminal trespass occurs when a person
unlawfully without any right or an express or implied license enters into the private property of
another person or remains into such property with a criminal intention. The object of making criminal
trespass an offence is to ensure that people can enjoy their private property without any kind of
interruption from outsiders. Punishment for criminal trespass, as prescribed in Section 447 of IPC is
either imprisonment which may extend to three months, or fine which may extend to INR 500 or
both.
Criminal trespass has two limbs, firstly, entering into the property of another with criminal intent and
secondly, entering lawfully but remaining in the property with a criminal intent to harm or cause
annoyance. Thus the essential ingredients for committing Criminal trespass are:
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'Whoever enters' -To commit the offence of criminal trespass, there must be an actual entry into the
property of another by the accused person. No trespass can occur if there is no physical instrument
by the accused into the private property of the victim. In the State of Calcutta vs Abdul Sukar, the
court held that constructive entry by a servant does not amount to entry, under this Section as even
though there was no possession in law, there was possession in fact.
Property -The term property under this Section includes both movable and immovable property.
Wrongful entry into one's car or other movable property would have similar liability as wrongful entry
into one's house. In Dhannonjoy v Provat Chandra Biswas, the accused drove away from the boat
of the possessor after attacking him. The court held that this would amount to criminal trespass
even though it was a movable property. But the term property does not include incorporeal property
or something which cannot be touched, such as patent rights.
Possession of another- The possession of the property should be in the possession of the victim
and not the trespasser. Having the ownership of the property is not necessary, mere possession is
sufficient to claim criminal trespass against the trespasser. However, it is not necessary for the
person having possession or the owner of the property to be present at the time when the
trespassing occurred; no presence of owner or possessor would also amount to trespassing as long
as the premises are entered into by the trespasser to annoy.
Intention- If it is proved that the intention of the accused parties was not to insult, harm or annoy the
owners or possessors of the property, then it would not amount to criminal trespass. Intention is the
essence of this crime, and if there is no dominant motive to commit the crime, no criminal trespass.
The test for determining whether the entry was done with an intent to cause annoyance.
Q 86. 30405650 D was hosting a party at his place. B, one of his friends, was on the invite list. B
after the party stayed back trying to steal D's watch. D who caught B hiding sued him for the tort of
trespass. Can the charge be entertained? Decide.
a) B cannot be charged with the tort of trespass but for theft under IPC.
b) B can be filed for the tort of trespass as his action fulfils the requirement.
c) B cannot be filed for the tort of trespass as D himself added him to the invite list.
d) B cannot be filed for the tort of trespass as he has not actually committed the offense.
Q 87. 30405650 Kalia and Raju were two research scholars in the University of Dholakpur. Both
were researching the mystical powers of Dhoni Baba. Once Raju found out about a very special
power of DhoniBaba which would help him in proving his hypothesis. He was discussing the same
with his friend Bheem. Kalia overheard the same and used the same information in his paper. Now
Raju wants to file a case of trespass against Kalia. Decide.
a) Kalia can be held liable for the tort of intellectual trespass as he willfully used the idea of Raju.
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b) The act of Kalia can be considered as trespass can be committed even for incorporeal property.
c) The act of Kalia cannot be considered as the tort of trespass.
d) The act of Kalia can be charged under copyright infringement.
Q 88. 30405650 B went to a party held at C's place. During the party B lost his watch. B found that
watch lying in C's showcase. B took the same and returned home. Actually, it was C' s watch and
not the one that B lost. Now C wants to file a case of trespass against B. Decide.
a) B can be held liable for the tort of trespass as he willfully took the property of another
b) B cannot be held liable for the tort of trespass but should be charged for theft.
c) B cannot be held liable for trespass in the given case.
d) B can be held liable for criminal trespass under IPC.
Q 89. 30405650 A was going on a trip. He asked his neighbor B to look after his house and gave
the keys to A. One, C entered into A's house and started watching Television. Now B wants to file a
charge of trespass against C. Decide.
a) B can file a case of trespass against C for his action.
b)
B cannot file a case of trespass as all the requirements of trespass have not been fulfilled in the
given case.
c) B cannot file a case of trespass as he does not have the ownership of the property.
d) Both A and B
Q 90. 30405650 What was held by the court in the case of State of Calcutta vs Abdul Sukar?
a) The court held that constructive entry by a servant does not amount to entry.
b) The court held that trespass cannot be filed in case of intangible property.
c) The court gave the difference between the tort of trespass and the criminal act of trespass.
Passage – 6
Hate speech despite being a colonial concept and consistently used in the 'legal circle' has not yet
been statutorily defined. In Pravasi Bhalai Sangathan v. UOI, the Court recognised this issue and
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recommended the Law Commission to define "hate speech", which was considered by the
Commission in the 267th Law Commission Report. This adoption of a definition comes at a crucial
stage as with the wide-scale adoption of social media, it has become the center stage to spread
hate speech. This was noticed during the recent Delhi riots where Facebook was used to incite
communal hatred. The Parliamentary Standing Committee and the Peace and Harmony Committee
constituted by the Delhi Legislative Assembly, based on Wall Street Journal's report, suspect that
Facebook did not duly detect and control hate speech on its platform during the said period. Though
Wall Street's report claims that political bias is the primary reason for the inefficient content
regulation, the report also acknowledges that "Facebook faces a monumental challenge policing
hate speech across the enormous volume of content posted to its platforms worldwide". It is
important to understand that the claims of bias are not yet confirmed and might be mere politically
motivated allegations. However, the inefficiency of Facebook to moderate hate speech is a real
issue especially because it has been proven that Facebook's algorithm has several limitations that
have now become the reason for organised hate speech crimes. It is argued that Facebook's
inefficient content moderation system that relies on artificial intelligence is responsible for the
communal disharmony spread in Delhi last year, and Facebook needs to take responsibility and
develop an ethical system to prevent such misuse in the future.
Last year, the Delhi Legislative Assembly constituted the "Peace and Harmony Committee" to
analyse the factors responsible for the riots. During the investigation, the Committee received leads
to suggest that Facebook's platform was used as the primary tool for spreading hate speech against
communal harmony. The Committee summoned Facebook India's Vice President and Managing
Director, Mr Ajit Mohan, to understand Facebook's role as a medium of hatred. However, Mr Mohan
refused to appear on the ground of lack of jurisdiction and filed an Article 32 petition before the
Supreme Court to set aside the summons issued by the Committee.
The Court in Ajit Mohan v. Legislative Assembly National Capital Territory of Delhi, ruled that the
power of the legislature is not limited to enacting laws and the Committee's summon is valid to
investigate the matter. However, the court noted that the Committee cannot punish or recommend
actions against Facebook because such power is limited to the Central government. Section 79 of
the Information Technology Act exempts the liability of an intermediary in certain circumstances. An
intermediary is not liable when it is merely acting as a platform for third-party information. This is
exactly what Facebook claimed in defence in the Ajit Mohan case referred to above. However, the
section states that an intermediary should observe due diligence while discharging its duties.
Arguably, using an inefficient algorithmic system is not 'due' diligence especially because Facebook
itself claims that more than 90% of hate speech on its platform is detected by artificial intelligence
Q 91. 30405650 Why according to the passage, does the definition of hate speech come at a very
important juncture?
a)
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The improved awareness of citizens regarding their rights and legislations has made filing of hate
speech cases more prevalent.
b)
The wide-scale adoption of social media has become the center stage to spread hate speech and
hence the definition introduction comes at an important juncture.
c)
The wide scale increase of communal hatred and party politics, the definition of hate speech is more
important now than ever.
a) An intermediary is not liable when it is merely acting as a platform for third-party information
b)
Hate speech despite being a colonial concept and consistently used in the 'legal circle' has not yet
been statutorily defined.
c)
The Delhi Legislative Assembly constituted the "Peace and Harmony Committee" to analyse the
factors responsible for the riots.
d)
The Court in Ajit Mohan v. Legislative Assembly National Capital Territory of Delhi, ruled that the
power of the legislature is limited to enacting laws.
Q 93. 30405650 What according to the passage is the reason for communal disharmony spread in
Delhi last year?
a)
The spread of fake news via Facebook is the primary reason for the outburst of communal
disharmony in Delhi.
b) The social media mishandling was the reason for the outburst of communal disharmony in Delhi.
c)
Facebook's inefficient content moderation system that relies on artificial intelligence is responsible
for the communal disharmony spread in Delhi.
d)
Electoral ideologies leaning towards hate speech against religion was the reason behind the
communal outburst in Delhi.
Q 94. 30405650 How did Facebook claim defense in the case of Ajit Mohan?
a)
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Facebook claimed that an intermediary is not liable when it is merely acting as a platform for third-
party information.
b)
Facebook defended that as an intermediary they will not be held liable for the action of the third
party.
c) Facebook claimed that they shall not be held liable for the act of an intermediary.
d)
Facebook defended by saying that the IT laws of Indiado not mandate them to comply with the
contended regulations.
Q 95. 30405650 What has been the primary center of discussion in the above given passage?
a)
The passage discusses the inability of Facebook to control hate speech and the effects of the same.
b)
The passage discusses the rise of hate speech and social media as a tool of the same with the
example of the Facebook fiasco.
c)
The passage discusses the problems of social media and the lack of laws to regulate the same with
the example of hate speech.
d)
The passage discusses the concept of hate speech and the laws that regulate the same with the
example of the Facebook case.
Passage – 7
"The defence of inevitable accident holds that where an accident is purely inevitable, and not
caused by the fault of either party, the loss lies where it falls. Although normally the defendant need
not prove an inevitable accident but only deny negligence, the defence is still used occasionally.
The courts, however, are not quick to accept it. An inevitable accident is an occurrence not
avoidable by any precaution a reasonable person would be expected to take. The person invoking
the defence must show that something happened over which he or she had no control, and the
effect of which could not have been prevented by using great skill and care. He or she must show
either the cause of the accident and the inevitability of its result, or all the possible causes and the
inevitability of the result of each. The standard is not one of perfection; thus, it is wrong for a trial
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judge to tell the jury the defendant must show the accident could not possibly be prevented by the
exercise of reasonable care. It is important to distinguish between the defence of an inevitable
accident and the defence of explanation. If an automobile collision occurs because of an external
factor such as snow or ice on the road, the defence of explanation is available to the defendant
driver who can rebut the inference of negligence by merely advancing an explanation of how the
collision may have occurred reasonably without negligence. However, where the defendant is
claiming an inevitable accident because of factors wholly within him or her, such as
unconsciousness, the defendant has a heavier burden of proving on a balance of probabilities that
his or her driving manner was not a conscious act."
With respect to the onus borne by the parties in circumstances in which the defence of inevitable
accident is put forth, the authorities confirm that once the plaintiff establishes a prima facie case of
negligence, the onus will shift to the defendant to prove inevitable accident. In so doing, the
defendant is required to show how the accident took place and that the loss of control of the vehicle
could not have been avoided by the exercise of the greatest care and skill.
The notion of an inevitable accident posits a non-tortious explanation for an accident. In the matter
at hand that explanation is, according to the defendant, the sudden loss of steering and braking
ability. Such a mechanical failure is only non-tortious if it could not have been prevented by the
exercise of reasonable care. If the exercise of reasonable care could or would have revealed the
mechanical problem, then a driver is not absolved of responsibility when the problem becomes
manifest. His or her negligence remains a cause of the accident, albeit the negligence rests, at least
in part, on a different footing, namely a failure to exercise reasonable care in inspecting and
maintaining the vehicle as opposed to negligence in the manner of driving. Even if a defendant
experiences a sudden mechanical failure which occurred in spite of the exercise of reasonable care
in maintaining and servicing a vehicle, that is not necessarily the end of the matter. The issue that
remains is whether the defendant exercised reasonable care in responding to the emergency
Q 96. 30405650 According to the passage, what is the opinion of courts regarding inevitable
accidents?
a)
The passage notes that courts consider an inevitable accident to be a genuine problem and the
same had to be addressed or considered while dealing with cases.
b)
The passage says that courts are not quick to accept or take note of the defense or the concept of
inevitable accident.
c) The passage says that courts extensively consider the defense of an inevitable accident.
d) The passage does not speak about the opinion of courts with regards to inevitable accidents.
Q 97. 30405650 Binod Malya owned many cars. Binod used some of his cars occasionally. Once
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Binod wanted to take his Mercedes for a spin. However, after not using the car for a long time the
battery of the car got out of the ideal condition. Binod after some attempts switched on the ignition
and kept the car on so that the battery may recharge itself again. He left the car and went to meet
his girlfriend Deepika. A kid went inside the car and shifted the gears leading to a collision of the car
with Ranbir. Ranbir files a case against Deepika as well as Binod Malya. The defendants want to
take the plea of inevitable accident. Decide.
a)
Malya and ors can take the defense of an inevitable accident as shifting of gears by a kid was
unforeseeable.
b) The defendants cannot plead the defense of an inevitable accident in the given case.
c) The defendant can only plead for an act of god and not an inevitable accident.
d) The kid should be held liable for negligence and not Malya and Deepika.
Q 98. 30405650 Which of the following is not a requirement to prove the defense of an inevitable
accident?
a) The act took place without the intent or awareness of the person.
b) The person could not have reasonably foreseen the same happening
c) The act happened due to some higher authority or power which humans have no control of
d) The person has taken reasonable care to avoid the same.
Q 99. 30405650 How should the trial judge not ask the defense to prove that the act happened due
to an inevitable accident?
a)
By telling the jury the defendant must show the accident could not possibly be prevented by the
exercise of reasonable care.
b) By asking to prove that there was no prima facie negligence from the part of the defendant
c) By looking into the detailed circumstances of the case and then decide upon inevitable accident
Q 100. 30405650 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given
passage?
a) The notion of inevitable accident posits a non-tortious explanation for an accident
b)
The defence of inevitable accident holds that where an accident is purely inevitable, and not caused
by the fault of either party, the loss lies where it falls.
c)
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If a defendant experiences a sudden mechanical failure which occurred in spite of the exercise of
reasonable care in maintaining and servicing a vehicle, that it is necessarily an end of the matter.
d)
The passage distinguishes between the defence of an inevitable accident and the defence of
explanation.
Passage – 8
With the COVID-19 outbreak around the globe, the performance of most of the existing agreements
between business sectors is at stake and this raises serious legal concerns. The fate of such
existing agreements could be decided by the force majeure clauses in a contract. Force majeure
has been defined by Black's Law Dictionary as an event or effect that can be neither anticipated nor
be controlled and is usually governed by Section 32 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Most of the
companies have a force majeure clause which contains a list of events which may prevent, delay or
render the performance of the obligations impossible. Some of these events can be categorized as
acts of God including fire, drought, volcano, epidemic, earthquake etc.
The sine qua non to invoke Section 32 is to determine whether COVID-19 qualifies as a force
majeure event. This can be determined only by looking into the force majeure clauses in the
contract. The situation can give rise to three possible scenarios. First, there is a contract which has
clearly listed epidemic or pandemic in the force majeure clause. In such a case, the affected party
can easily invoke Section 32 since Covid-19 has been declared as a pandemic by the WHO and the
Indian Government via an office memorandum. Second, there is a clause which has explicitly
excluded pandemic as a force majeure event in the clause. In such situations, the parties cannot
claim Covid-19 as a Force majeure event. The law has been settled by Satyabrata Ghose v.
Mugneeram Bangur &Co case, which states that when the parties themselves contemplate the
continuation of the performance of contract despite any event of force Majeure nature, the
obligations continue even when the event happens. Third, in case of any ambiguities, when
pandemic has neither been listed explicitly but words like "any other force majeure events" has
been used, Courts have followed a strict rule of interpretation and no claim can be made in such a
case.
What happens in an absence of a force majeure clause? -In case of the absence of an force
majeure clause, the affected party can seek relief under Section 56 for discharging the contract by
invoking the doctrine of frustration. However, for invoking Section 56, the parties have to show that
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due to COVID-19, the performance of the contract has become impossible or the performance
would be impracticable or useless for the object and purpose of the contract.
Does COVID-19 qualify as a force majeure Event with respect to all contracts? - Although Covid-19
has been declared as a pandemic, it does not mean that COVID-19 would qualify as a force
majeure event with respect to all contracts. Mere qualification as a force majeure event would not
discharge all the contracts. The application would rather depend on the nature, terms, facts and
circumstances of each case.
For instance, a contract to supply a car on 1stApril, 2020 would not attract the force majeure clause,
even if a pandemic was included in the force majeure clause. This is because there is merely a
delay in the performance and no impossibility of performance of the contract. With every force
majeure clause, there is a different level of impact on the performance for the force majeure clause
to trigger. Such impacts could be in the form of prevention, hindrance or delay in the performance of
the contract and all of which require a varying degree of onus probandi. For instance, the onus
required to prove a delay in the performance of the act shall be less than to prove that the
performance has become impossible. Thus, there cannot be a straitjacket formula for the invocation
of Section 32 to discharge the contract rather it largely depends on the nature and terms of each
contract.
Q 101. 30405650 D entered into an agreement to sell 500 boxes of flour to a food manufacturing
company. The contract had a clause that stated 'the contract shall stand terminated if any highly
contagious disease occurs and makes the masses ill'. During the continuation of the contract,
Covid-19 occurred across the world. Now D wants to terminate the contract. Decide.
a)
D cannot terminate the contract as the clause does not explicitly suggest the same and it is open to
interpretation.
b) D can terminate the contract as the clause in the contract provides for such a provision.
c)
D cannot terminate the contract permanently but can suspend the same for a temporary period of
time.
Q 102. 30405650 According to the passage, will covid-19 be classified as a force majeure event
under section 56 of the Indian contract act 1872?
a)
The passage states that Covid-19 is classified as a force majeure event under section 56 of the
code.
b)
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The passage says that covid-19 does not classify as a force majeure event under section 56 of the
code.
c)
The passage does not answer whether covid-19 classifies or not classifies as a force majeure
event.
d)
The passage suggests that covid- 19 classifies as a force majeure event only in exceptional
circumstances.
Q 103. 30405650 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given
passage?
a)
The law has been settled that when the parties themselves contemplate the continuation of the
performance of the contract despite any event of force Majeure nature, the obligations continue
even when the event happens.
b)
Most of the companies have a force majeure clause which contains a list of events which may
prevent, delay or render the performance of the obligations impossible.
c)
-In case of the absence of an force majeure clause, the affected party can seek relief under Section
56 for discharging the contract by invoking the doctrine of frustration.
d) All the above statements are true.
Q 104. 30405650 What does the author imply when he suggests there cannot be a straightjacket
formula to invoke section 32?
a)
The author explains the difficulties of bringing covid-19 under a force majeure factor and making a
contract impossible under section 32.
b)
The author explains the necessity of adopting and bringing up laws to include covid-19 under
section 32.
c)
The author explains the overlapping of section 32 and section 56 which creates hindrances in
invoking impossibility and the necessity to evolve accordingly.
d)
The passage does not provide nor are there necessary facts to conclude a suitable answer to this
question.
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Q 105. 30405650 What has law settled regarding section 32 and force majeure clauses according
to the passage?
a)
Impacts could be in the form of prevention, hindrance or delay in the performance of the contract
and all of which require a varying degree of onus probandi.
b)
When the parties themselves contemplate the continuation of the performance of the contract
despite any event of force Majeure nature, the obligations continue even when the event happens.
c)
Most of the companies have a force majeure clause which contains a list of events which may
prevent, delay or render the performance of the obligations impossible.
d) Mere qualification as a force majeure event would not discharge all the contracts.
Logical Reasoning
Direction for questions 106 to 135: Read the following passages and answer the questions that
follow.
Passage – 1
With the advent of social media - the product of the evolution of the Internet into a sphere of
communication that allows for relatively unfettered user-generated content - the problem of
misinformation has taken a grotesque form. Express measures to curb misinformation, called "false
news" and the somewhat inaccurate "fake news", are a must. However, this raises the question
whether the Union government or its divisions can be the regulating entity. In the IT (Intermediary
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023, the Union government has
added a provision of a fact-check unit to identify fake or false or misleading online content related to
the government. Against such content identified by this unit, intermediaries, such as social media
companies or net service providers, will have to take action or risk losing their "safe harbour"
protections in Section 79 of the IT Act, which allows intermediaries to avoid liabilities for what third
parties post on their websites. This is unacceptable and problematic. Also, Section 69A of the IT
Act, 2000 elucidates the procedure to issue takedown orders, which these notified amendments
could bypass. They also run afoul of Shreya Singhal vs Union of India (2015), a verdict with clear
guidelines for blocking content.
Without a right to appeal or the allowance for judicial oversight, the government cannot sit on
judgment on whether any information is "fake" or "false" as the power to do so can be misused to
prevent questioning or scrutiny by media organisations. Takedown notices have been issued by the
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government for critical opinion or commentary on social media platforms, with several having to
comply with them and only a few such as Twitter contesting them in courts. By threatening to
remove a platform's immunity for content that is flagged by a government unit, it is clear that the
Union government intends to create a "chilling effect" on the right to speech and expression on
online platforms. To keep the establishment - which includes the executive government of the day -
on its toes and to speak truth to power is a non-negotiable and salient role of journalism in a
democracy. In India, freedom of the press is guaranteed through Article 19 of the Constitution, with
media rights and public right to free speech derived from this Article. It stands to reason that any
relationship between the government and the media should be kept at arm's length, with the media
having sufficient freedom. The government being the arbiter on what constitutes "false" or "fake"
news and having the power to act upon platforms for publishing these will amount to draconian
censorship.
Q 106. 30405650 What could be a suitable title to the passage?
a) Social Media and the Problem of Misinformation
b) Censorship in the Indian Government's Intermediary Guidelines
c) The Importance of Freedom of Speech and Press in a Democracy
d) The Impact of AI on Writing Style
Q 107. 30405650 Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
a)
The Indian government's new IT Amendment Rules aim to allow intermediaries to avoid liabilities for
what third parties post on their websites.
b)
The Indian government's new IT Amendment Rules have no provision for a fact-check unit to
identify fake or false or misleading online content related to the government.
c)
The Indian government's new IT Amendment Rules could create a "chilling effect" on the right to
speech and expression on online platforms.
d)
The Indian government's new IT Amendment Rules have been welcomed by social media
companies and net service providers.
Q 108. 30405650 Which statement best illustrates the concerns raised by the author about the
Union government's role in regulating "false" or "fake" news as per the IT (Intermediary Guidelines
and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023?
a)
The government fact-check unit's identification of fake news will improve the quality of information
on social media platforms.
44 of 60 14-06-2023, 09:44
b)
The government fact-check unit's power to identify fake news will likely create a chilling effect on
free speech and expression online.
c)
The government fact-check unit's establishment will enhance the independence of media
organizations in India.
d)
The government fact-check unit's existence will ensure a better relationship between the
government and media organizations.
Q 109. 30405650 Which of the following statements best reflects the main idea of the passage?
a)
The Union government's provision of a fact-check unit to identify false content on online platforms is
unacceptable and problematic.
b)
Social media companies and net service providers risk losing their safe harbour protections if they
fail to take action against false content on their websites.
c) The government's attempt to regulate false news on social media infringes on free speech rights.
d)
The lack of judicial oversight and right to appeal in the Union government's attempt to regulate false
news on social media platforms poses a threat to media organizations and free speech.
Q 110. 30405650 What can be inferred about the Union government's involvement in regulating
misinformation on social media platforms as per the passage?
a)
The Union government's involvement is necessary to curb the spread of misinformation effectively.
b) The government's involvement threatens the freedom of the press and the right to free speech.
c) The Union government's interference will help media organizations maintain their credibility.
d)
The government's involvement in regulating misinformation will enhance communication between
media and the government.
Q 111. 30405650 What opinion among the following would the author of the passage likely
oppose?
a) The Union government ought to possess the authority to control misinformation on social media.
b) A healthy distance must be maintained between the government and the media.
c) Upholding press freedom is a non-negotiable cornerstone of democratic journalism.
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d) Ensuring the right to free speech on digital platforms is of paramount importance.
follow.
Passage – 2
China's decision to "freeze" the visas of two Indian journalists, including The Hindu's Beijing
correspondent, has shown how journalists have unfortunately been dragged into rising geopolitical
tensions between the neighbours. China's government, on April 6, 2023 said its decision was a
response to India taking steps aimed at Chinese journalists. In 2017, China said, India had
shortened the visas for India-based reporters to three months, down from the one year that is the
norm in both countries. Then on March 31 this year, reports said, a Xinhua reporter was told to
leave India. With Beijing's retaliatory move, there are only two Indian reporters in China, who have
been warned of countermeasures if Chinese visas were not restored to one year validity. It is now
entirely possible that there will be no reporters from the world's two largest countries covering the
other - a most unfortunate development amid worsening relations. Restoring the access of
journalists on the basis of reciprocity is not complex. Indeed, until 2016, reporters from both
countries were on one-year visas and largely left to do their work. The troubles began that year,
when three Xinhua reporters were expelled after visiting a Tibetan settlement without permission
from the Home Affairs Ministry, which subsequently began placing all Chinese reporters on three-
month visas.
India appears to increasingly be following the Chinese playbook by tightening scrutiny on foreign
reporters in general. India has, as G-20 host, highlighted the strength of its democracy, but recent
actions, including the government's over-the-top response to a BBC documentary, appear to show
insecurity. While New Delhi is right to scrutinise non-journalistic activities of some Chinese
reporters, restricting all of them will be counterproductive. On the spectrum of Chinese media
coverage - largely negative on India - ground reports have been among the more multifaceted,
showing sides of India that most Chinese usually do not get to see. Beijing, meanwhile, also stands
to lose from its decision to restrict Indian media access. Last year's fake news of a coup in China,
published in Indian websites, highlighted the absence of on-the-ground context. Moreover, if Beijing
is now justifying its freezing of visas by pointing to reciprocity, it should be aware that reciprocity
would also mean giving Indian organisations the kind of freedom that Chinese media enjoy in India.
Even in the absence of Chinese employees, Xinhua and CGTN can continue to report with their
Indian journalists. In contrast, Beijing bars foreign media organisations from hiring Chinese
journalists except as assistants. In this race to the bottom, both sides stand to lose.
Q 112. 30405650 According to the passage, what was the reason behind China's decision to freeze
the visas of two Indian journalists, including The Hindu's Beijing correspondent?
a) India had expelled three Xinhua reporters in 2016
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b) Chinese government accuses India of repressing Chinese media
c) India shortened the visas for India-based reporters to three months
d) China restricted the access of Indian media to the country
Q 113. 30405650 Which of the following could be a suitable title to the passage?
a) Restrictions on Journalists in India and China due to rising tensions
b) The Impact of Reciprocity on Chinese-Indian Relations
c) The Importance of Ground Reports in Chinese Media Coverage of India
d) The Race to the Bottom: Both China and India Stand to Lose
Q 114. 30405650 What can be inferred about the consequences of restricting journalists' access
between India and China?
a)
Both countries will experience an increase in accurate news reporting and greater understanding of
each other's cultures.
b) The restrictions will lead to a more positive portrayal of each country in the other's media.
c)
The lack of on-the-ground context might lead to the spread of misinformation and hinder mutual
understanding between the two nations.
d)
The restrictions will encourage a more cooperative relationship between the two countries, fostering
peace and stability in the region.
Q 115. 30405650 Which of the following would strengthen the author's argument that restricting
journalists' access between India and China is counterproductive?
a)
Demonstrating that journalists from both countries have consistently provided unbiased reporting.
b) Restrictions on free speech have fuelled misinformation and hindered mutual understanding.
c)
Showing that both countries have experienced significant economic benefits as a result of the
restrictions.
d)
Establishing that India and China have a long history of using reciprocity in their diplomatic
relations.
Q 116. 30405650 Which of the following would weaken the author's argument that restricting
journalists' access between India and China is counterproductive?
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a) Presenting data that shows an increase in balanced reporting due to the restrictions.
b)
Identifying instances where journalists from both countries have produced biased or sensationalist
reporting.
c)
Revealing that foreign reporters in India and China are under constant surveillance, affecting their
reporting quality.
d)
Establishing that the majority of the public in both countries relies on alternative sources of
information about each other, rather than news reported by journalists.
Q 117. 30405650 As a media organization planning to expand its international coverage, which of
the following strategies would be most effective in promoting a better understanding between India
and China, given the issues mentioned in the passage?
a) Hiring only local journalists from each country to report on their own nation's affairs.
b) Promoting collaboration between Indian and Chinese journalists for balanced reporting.
c)
Focusing on alternative sources of information and avoiding the use of journalists from either
country.
d)
Implementing strict guidelines for journalists to adhere to each government's regulations and
avoiding controversial topics.
follow.
Passage – 3
An expert panel appointed by the Centre has suggested a long overdue restructuring of the school
education system. Last week, the committee released a "pre-draft" of the National Curriculum
Framework (NCF) for public feedback on recommendations, which include giving senior secondary
students the freedom to pursue a mix of arts, commerce and science subjects. This flexibility is in
accordance with the multidisciplinary approach underlined in NEP 2020. The NCF's proposal to
assess the students' capabilities in Classes 10 to 12 through examinations over four years - and not
one board exam every year - also fits in with the NEP's vision of "holistic education". The changes
will have an enhanced role for "well-designed" textbooks. Implicit in the NCF approach is also a
greater role for the teacher.
It is increasingly becoming evident that the rigid boundaries between arts, science and commerce
48 of 60 14-06-2023, 09:44
do not provide the child the foundational knowledge to deal with the more pressing challenges of
today. Combating climate change and other environmental crises, for instance, require an
understanding of politics, economics, sociology as well as disciplines that deal with natural
phenomena. Business studies are not purely about what happens in the realm of commerce.
Understanding of human behaviour plays an important role in shaping economic models. The
significance of humanities in the Fourth Industrial Revolution has been underlined by several
research papers. That's why NEP "envisions a complete overhaul and re-energising of the higher
education system", including "moving towards a more multidisciplinary undergraduate education".
The new NCF approach could provide the groundwork for such a change at the school-level. It
recognises that the current system encourages rote learning and does very little to develop critical
skills. It rightly points out that a large number of students have developed a "fear" of mathematics
and current methods of assessment have created a perception that mathematics is about
"mechanical computation". It, therefore, recommends a shift to play, activity, discovery and
discussion-based learning at the primary school level.
In the coming weeks and months, the panel will hold several rounds of discussion on the "pre-draft".
An urgent task should be to ensure that the reforms are applied in an inequitable manner. According
to the education ministry's data, more than a lakh government schools in the country have just one
teacher. Saddled with a number of responsibilities, the instructor may not be able to make learning a
creative exercise, as the NEP and NCF demand. The NEP is alive to these concerns. The
document's section on empowering the teacher should not escape the planners' attention while they
lay the framework for reforms in school education.
Q 118. 30405650 Which of the following statements best describes the article's main conclusion?
a)
The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) has proposed a multidisciplinary approach to school
education, but its implementation will be challenging due to inadequate resources in government
schools.
b)
A multidisciplinary approach to school education is recommended by the NEP 2020 to completely
restructure and reenergize the higher education system.
c)
The NCF's multidisciplinary approach can address the pressing challenges of today by breaking the
rigid boundaries between arts, science, and commerce subjects.
d)
The NCF's proposed shift towards play, activity, discovery, and discussion-based learning at the
primary school level can make learning a creative exercise and help overcome the fear of
mathematics among students.
Q 119. 30405650 Which of the following best describes the role played by the second paragraph in
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the passage's context?
a) It explains the significance of multidisciplinary education in the current scenario.
b) It highlights the importance of mathematics in the current education system.
c)
It suggests a shift to play, activity, discovery, and discussion-based learning at the primary school
level.
d) It discusses the need for a complete overhaul and re-energizing of the higher education system.
Q 120. 30405650 Which of the following best strengthens the author's argument for equitable
application of reforms in school education in India?
a) According to a report by UNESCO, teacher absenteeism is a major issue in Indian schools.
b) The Indian government has increased spending on education by 6% in the current fiscal year.
c)
The United States has implemented a similar multidisciplinary approach to education with great
success.
d)
A study by the World Economic Forum found that equitable access to education is crucial for
economic growth.
Q 121. 30405650 Which of the following statements would weaken the author's arguments about
the proposed restructuring of the school education system?
a)
Research has shown that students who specialize in one subject area tend to perform better on
standardized tests.
b)
The proposed reforms could create an uneven playing field for students who lack access to
multidisciplinary resources.
c)
According to recent studies, students who engage in rote learning tend to develop stronger critical
thinking skills.
d)
The traditional model of separate subject areas has been effective for centuries and should not be
changed.
Q 122. 30405650 Which of the following would the author of the passage disagree with?
a) The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) should be restructured to align with NEP 2020.
b) Business studies should be purely focused on what happens in the realm of commerce.
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c)
The current system of education encourages rote learning and does very little to develop critical
skills.
d) The reforms proposed in the NCF should be applied inequitably.
Q 123. 30405650 Which of the following is a necessary assumption made by the author for their
arguments to hold?
a)
The current school education system in India is not preparing students adequately for challenges
like climate change and the Fourth Industrial Revolution.
b)
The NCF committee's proposed reforms will be implemented in an equitable manner in all schools,
regardless of the number of teachers available.
c)
The NEP and NCF demand a shift towards play, activity, discovery, and discussion-based learning
at the primary school level.
d)
The multidisciplinary approach underlined in NEP 2020 is essential for preparing students for the
challenges of today's world.
follow.
Passage – 4
The India Justice Report 2022 shows some improvement, but not enough. Its chief editor mentioned
India's commitment to justice for all by 2030 through effective, inclusive and accountable
institutions, although the latest report showed that the goal is still a long way off. This is the third IJR
and it ranked large and mid-size states with populations of one crore and smaller states according
to their achievements in budgets, human resources, infrastructure workload, diversity and trends
against their own benchmarks across four 'pillars' - the police, judiciary, prisons and legal aid. In the
first category, Karnataka heads the list with three other southern states in the top five - it has shown
conscious effort - but even then the total picture is far from heartening. Justice can only be
meaningful when the poorest and least powerful can expect it. The IJR shows that over 77% of the
people in prisons filled to 130% capacity are under-trial prisoners, and in the foreword, the former
Chief Justice of India, U.U. Lalit, said that around 70% of litigants in criminal cases are below the
poverty line. This is easy to connect with the fact that legal aid clinics have fallen by 44% between
2019 and 2021 even though there is slightly higher expenditure for legal aid. The system is
interconnected: under-trial prisoners spend a longer time behind bars, ensuring that the case
51 of 60 14-06-2023, 09:44
arrears keep increasing.
Behind this lie fundamental issues of finances and vacancies. Only the Union territories of Delhi and
Chandigarh allocate 1% of their annual expenditure to the judiciary. Workloads are unreasonable
when there is a 22% vacancy among judges; in high courts it is 30%. Yet the Centre keeps stalling
appointments to the higher judiciary. Vacancies plague the police, prison staff and legal aid; 25% of
police stations have no CCTV cameras. How is that acceptable? It cannot help the less privileged
that just Karnataka has met all quota requirements, but that too only in the police force. Equally
problematic is the striking shortage of women across the justice system, especially among prison
staff and the police - and the latter after an increase. If the IJR's facts are the result of a lack of
attention, it is strange enough. But do they suggest that governments would rather not have justice
for all?
Q 124. 30405650 What does the question at the conclusion of the passage intimate about the
commitment of governments towards the goal of justice for all?
a) It suggests that governments are putting in efforts to enhance the justice system.
b) It implies that governments are apathetic towards the goal of justice for all.
c) It indicates that governments are trying, but need to do more.
d) It points out that the issue of justice for all is not on the priority list of governments.
Q 125. 30405650 What is the main conclusion made by the author in the passage?
a) The India Justice Report 2022 shows significant improvement in achieving justice for all by 2030.
b)
The lack of attention by governments towards issues in the justice system raises questions about
their commitment to justice for all.
c)
The Karnataka state has achieved all quota requirements, which is a positive sign towards
achieving justice for all.
d) The India Justice Report 2022 indicates that justice for all has been achieved in India.
Q 126. 30405650 According to the passage, the India Justice Report 2022 shows a lack of
commitment to justice for all in India. Which of the following external pieces of evidence would
weaken this argument?
a)
A recent survey of citizens in India found that over 80% are satisfied with the country's justice
system.
b)
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has ranked India as the highest performing
country in South Asia on its Human Development Index (HDI).
52 of 60 14-06-2023, 09:44
c)
A report by Amnesty International found that India has made significant progress in reducing
poverty levels over the past decade.
d)
The Global Peace Index 2021 ranked India as the 135th most peaceful country out of 163 countries
worldwide.
Q 127. 30405650 Which issue contributes to the slow progress towards achieving justice for all,
according to the passage?
a) b)
Lack of attention and action by governments Overcrowding of prisons with under-trial
towards issues prisoners
c) Shortage of women across the justice system d)
High workload among judges due to vacancies
Q 128. 30405650 Which of the following is a necessary assumption made by the author in the
passage?
a) The India Justice Report is the only source of information on India's justice system.
b) The Indian government is not taking enough action to address the issues in the justice system.
c) Karnataka's efforts towards achieving justice are the most significant among all states.
d)
The vacancies in the police force and legal aid have no impact on the progress towards justice for
all.
Q 129. 30405650 What can be inferred from the India Justice Report 2022 if the information in the
passage is true?
a) The Indian justice system is progressing well towards its goal of justice for all by 2030.
b) Only the southern states of India have made conscious efforts to improve their justice system.
c) There is a shortage of women in the justice system, especially among prison staff and the police.
d) The Indian government is prioritizing the improvement of the justice system.
follow.
Passage – 5
By refusing to entertain a plea filed by 14 parties seeking fresh guidelines governing the arrest and
remand of Opposition leaders, the Supreme Court has simply asserted the cardinal principle of
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democracy: all are equal before the law. A Bench comprising Chief Justice DY Chandrachud and
Justice JB Pardiwala correctly said that "laying down general guidelines without having relation to
facts of a case will be dangerous." Representing the petitioners, led by the Congress, senior
advocate Abhishek Manu Singhvi argued that mass arrests are a threat to democracy and a sign of
authoritarianism. Chandrachud's response to this was reasonable and sagacious: "When you say
that space for opposition has shrunk, the remedy is in that space, the political space. Not [in] the
court." This is a message that not just the Opposition but also the Government should learn. Why
don't Opposition leaders engage with the Government as much as they should? Why do they
disrupt proceedings in Parliament and Assemblies? Why don't they allow ministers to make
statements? It is not that in recent times Bharatiya Janata Party leaders have been setting new,
commendable norms by their conduct within and outside legislature buildings, but that doesn't give
Opposition leaders the licence to lower the standards of political debate in the country. As we have
always emphasised-and it's a universal truth-two wrongs don't make a right.
Owing to vociferous, and sometimes vituperative, political debate and perverted public discourse,
our leaders seek solutions to their problems elsewhere. Like in courts. Hence the 14 parties' petition
in the apex court. They themselves can't resolve their own issues, and then seek a judicial
resolution (And if this results in greater powers and importance of the Supreme Court and high
courts, they also grumble about 'judicial activism' and 'judicial overreach,' but that's another story).
This is cutting across party lines. Opposition parties now seek relief from the apex court. The BJP
wants the judiciary to kill, or at least tame, the beast called populism. So, a few months ago, a BJP
leader, Ashwini Upadhyay, petitioned the Supreme Court, seeking restrictions on parties on
distributing "irrational freebies" before elections. It is another matter that the BJP's own conduct is
little better than other parties. In the matter of legal action against Opposition leaders, the apex
court, while not accepting the Opposition parties' plea seeking special guidelines, has offered an
olive branch to them. The Bench said, "You please come back to us when you have an individual
criminal case or group of cases." That's fair enough. Besides, there are special courts for
expeditious trials of criminal cases involving MP/MLAs. The Central Government set up these courts
as directed by the Supreme Court. Importantly, the SC also monitors their performance. In a
nutshell, there are enough safeguards to shield Opposition leaders.
Q 130. 30405650 What is the passage's main conclusion regarding the Supreme Court's refusal to
entertain a plea filed by 14 opposition parties?
a)
The Supreme Court's decision exemplifies its unwillingness to engage in judicial activism and
overreach, urging political parties to address their issues within the political space.
b)
The Supreme Court's decision demonstrates its belief that the current safeguards for Opposition
leaders are sufficient and that political discourse should be improved.
c)
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The Supreme Court's decision shows its stance on not creating general guidelines unrelated to
specific case facts, as it may lead to potential misuse of legal provisions.
d)
The Supreme Court's decision reflects its desire to maintain a balance of power between the
Government and Opposition, encouraging cooperation and constructive debate.
Q 131. 30405650 In the context of advocating for enhanced political dialogue between Government
and Opposition parties, which of the following would bolster the author's viewpoint?
a)
Showcasing the rising trend of the Supreme Court stepping in to mediate conflicts between the
Government and Opposition factions in recent times.
b)
Offering instances of fruitful political negotiations involving Government and Opposition parties that
culminated in noteworthy policy transformations.
c)
Underscoring the critical role, a robust, efficient Opposition plays in fostering a vibrant democracy,
ensuring the Government remains answerable.
d)
Highlighting episodes where political groups have indulged in disruptive antics within Parliament,
causing setbacks in policy execution.
Q 132. 30405650 Which necessary assumption does the author make for their arguments to hold
true in the passage?
a)
The Supreme Court's refusal to entertain the plea signifies that the court inherently favours the
ruling party, thus undermining the democratic principle of equality before the law.
b)
The Opposition parties' plea for special guidelines is a genuine attempt to protect the democratic
space, and their inability to engage with the Government justifies seeking judicial intervention.
c)
The existing legal framework, including special courts for MP/MLA trials and Supreme Court
monitoring, is adequate in ensuring the fair treatment of Opposition leaders in legal matters.
d)
Opposition parties should refrain from political discourse and solely rely on the judiciary to resolve
conflicts, as it is the most impartial and unbiased institution in the country.
Q 133. 30405650 Based on the passage, which inference can be drawn regarding the author's
perspective on the role of the judiciary in political matters?
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a)
The author believes that the judiciary should actively intervene in political matters to resolve
conflicts between the Government and the Opposition.
b)
Political leaders should engage and resolve issues in the political sphere, rather than the judiciary,
according to the author.
c)
The author views the judiciary as being primarily responsible for upholding the democratic principles
and resolving all disputes between political parties.
d)
The author asserts that the judiciary's involvement in political matters should only occur when the
Opposition parties are treated unfairly by the Government.
Q 134. 30405650 Based on the passage, what should the Opposition parties focus on to address
their concerns regarding arrests and remand of their leaders?
a)
Rely solely on the Supreme Court's guidance and rulings to ensure protection of Opposition leaders
in legal matters.
b)
Engage more actively with the Government, improve political discourse, and address issues through
proper channels within the political space.
c)
Continue to disrupt proceedings in Parliament and Assemblies to draw attention to the perceived
unfair treatment of Opposition leaders.
d)
Request the Supreme Court to intervene in all legal matters concerning Opposition leaders to
ensure impartiality and fairness.
Q 135. 30405650 Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the author's argument
that there are enough safeguards in place to shield Opposition leaders?
a)
The special courts for expeditious trials of criminal cases involving MP/MLAs are heavily influenced
by the ruling party.
b)
The Supreme Court's refusal to entertain the plea demonstrates its commitment to maintaining the
separation of powers.
c)
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The Central Government has a history of providing support and protection to Opposition leaders
during legal disputes.
d)
The Opposition parties have been successful in engaging with the Government on various
occasions to resolve political issues.
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
Radha is determined to pursue her B. Tech degree at the renowned Massachusetts Institute of
Technology in the United States. However, in order to afford the high expenses associated with her
education, she decides to apply for an education loan. The loan agreement guarantees to cover
75% of all her educational costs, leaving Radha responsible for the remaining expenses. Once she
arrives in the United States, Radha immediately faces the challenge of paying the rent for her new
apartment, which amounts to $700 per month. In addition to that, she has to pay her tuition fee for
the current semester, which is $20,000. On average, Radha spends around $300 per month on
utilities and groceries. It is important to note that Radha's course spans a total of two years,
consisting of two semesters per year. To support her financially, the bank disburses 75% of the total
expenses for the twoyear duration at the beginning of her course.
Q 136. 30405650 How much of the total expenses is Radha only responsible for in 2 years?
a) $32000 b) $26000 c) $28000 d) $30000
Q 137. 30405650 According to the College Tuition Inflation Rate Report, published by Education
Data, the tuition fee has been increasing at the rate of 5% every year. Radha took admission in year
2019. What was the increase in the tuition fee per semester by the year 2022?
a) $5132.4 b) $2436.5 c) $3568.4 d) $3152.5
Q 138. 30405650 In a company, Radha gets an internship of $8000 per month for 3 months. The
utilities and rent for these 3 months is what percentage of the total amount she earns from the
internship?
a) 12.5% b) 18% c) 18.4% d) 15%
Q 139. 30405650 Radha and one of her batchmates Suman decide to stay together for 6 months.
They decide to pay for rent and utilities in the ratio of 1:1. For next 6 months Radha lives with her
relatives and does not have to pay for rent and utilities herself. How much does she save on rent
and utilities in this 1 year?
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a) $7500 b) $6000 c) $9000 d) $8000
Q 140. 30405650 If the bank charges simple interest at the rate of 9% per annum, then find the
total interest amount that Radha paid after 2 years. (Assume she pays off the entire loan after 2
years of completion of course)
a) $14040 b) $18002 c) $20040 d) $16200
below.
The table below illustrates the percentage of the population living below the poverty line, as well as
the ratio of the total number of males (M) and females (F) living below and above the poverty line in
six cities: A, B, C, D, E, and F.
Q 141. 30405650 If the population of females below the poverty line in City D is 24,000, then the
population of males above the poverty line in that city is:
a) 62400 b) 70000 c) 93600 d) 130000
Q 142. 30405650 If the total population of City A is 3,00,000, then the difference between the
number of males below the poverty line and the number of females above the poverty line in this
city is:
a) 54000 b) 68400 c) 74400 d) 93600
Q 143. 30405650 If the total population of City B and City C is 5,00,000 and 3,50,000 respectively,
the ratio of the number of females below the poverty line in B to C is:
a) 16 : 21 b) 28 : 35 c) 6 : 7 d) 7 : 6
Q 144. 30405650 If the population of males below the poverty line in City F is 32,000 and that in
City E is 39,000, then what percent of the total population of E is the total population of F?
a) 90.28% b) 82.05% c) 71.45% d) 61.54%
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Q 145. 30405650 What is the sum of the number of females below the poverty line and the number
of males above the poverty line in City D if the population is 24,000?
a) 11232 b) 14112 c) 13426 d) 12122
below.
Delhi recorded over 15% rise in crime in 2021 as compared to the previous year, the Police
Commissioner said that the increase in crime rate was due to less number of cases being lodged
during the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020. Citing data, police said that in 2021 the total number of
heinous and petty crimes reported under 'total IPC' was 2,93,309 and 13,097 cases were lodged
under 'local and special laws' (arms-related crime, NDPS).
According to the police, 9,477 cases of snatching were registered in 2021 which was 35% higher
than similar cases reported in 2020. Police arrested 1,631 people in connection with these cases
which is 40% higher than the arrests in 2020, the data stated.
There were 17 cases of kidnapping for ransom in 2021 and all of them were solved. In 2020, 11
cases were filed which were all solved. The percentage of extortion cases solved was 88 in 2021 as
a total of 175 cases were lodged, compared to 120 cases in the previous year, it said. The use of
firearms has also gone down by 9% in murder, attempt to murder and dacoity/robbery cases, the
data said. There was an 8% increase in crimes against senior citizens in 2021 when compared to
the previous year during which 38,050 such cases were registered, police added.
The Delhi Police said a total of 15,146 PCR calls were received in 2021 and 2,359 cases were filed
for robbery and dacoity. The number of PCR calls and cases were 13,322 and 1,972 respectively in
2020.
Q 146. 30405650 What was the total number of crimes, under all categories, reported under 'total
IPC as well as local and special laws' in 2020?
a) 286420 b) 264460 c) 266440 d) 288660
Q 147. 30405650 The number of PCR calls was what percentage of reported crimes in the year
2020?
a) 0.5% b) 2% c) 1.5% d) 5%
Q 148. 30405650 If the average amount of money involved in each of the kidnapping for ransom
and extortion cases was Rs.58 lakh, then what was the total amount saved from all such solved
cases in 2021?
a) Rs.109.18 crores b) Rs.60.9 crores c) Rs.99.18 crores d) Rs.89.38 crores
59 of 60 14-06-2023, 09:44
Q 149. 30405650 What were the reported number of cases of crime against senior citizens in
2021?
a) 40098 b) 41094 c) 39914 d) 41113
Q 150. 30405650 What were the reported number of cases of snatching in 2020 and how many
arrests were made in these cases respectively?
a) 7020 ; 1165 b) 7200 ; 1256 c) 7320 ; 1050 d) 7050 ; 1155
60 of 60 14-06-2023, 09:44

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Prime Mock 19 (CLAT) 2024

a) To show that omnivores have switched to a vegan diet.

c) To show that pet dietary habits are wrong.

d) Cats are more environmentally damaging compared to other pets.

b) Pet disinfectants are laced with dangerous chemicals.

Q 4. 30405650 As used in the passage what does 'biodiversity' mean?

a) All the different kinds of life you'll find in one area.

b) All the different kinds of life you'll find in earth.

c) All the different kinds of life you'll find in one's country.

d) All the different kinds of life you'll find in one's household.

Q 5. 30405650 Which of the following is true of cat litter?

a) Cat households have shifted to eco-friendly alternatives for litter.

b) Eco-friendly alternatives for cat litter are unavailable in the market.

c) Commonly cat litter is made of materials which are bad ecologically.

d) Cat faeces is responsible for global GHG emissions.

the verbiage, he tells his interviewer nothing.

c) By providing ample clues regarding the real culprits.

c) Diola perceives that the interviewer is seditious.

Q 9. 30405650 As used in the passage, what does 'grandiloquently' mean?

a) Extravagant in use of gestures. b) Extravagant in use of slangs.

c) Extravagant in use of personality. d) Extravagant in use of language.

a) Challenges and Delays in SEBI's Investigation into Adani Group Allegations

b) SEBI's Regulatory Failure in Adani Group Investigations

c) Expert Panel's Recommendations for Enhancing SEBI's Investor Protection Framework

a) no b) at least six months c) an indefinite period d)

a) A lion preying on a turtle indicates that lions are intelligent animals.

b) Not all lions have the same food habits.

d) Turtle meat is tastier than conventional meat.

a) Helped in the study of the family history of the coastal lions.

b) Helped in the study of the coastal lions' culinary tastes.

c) Helped in the study of the coastal lions' sleeping habits.

c) The number of Asiatic lions reduced because of climate change.

d) The number of Asiatic lions reduced despite stringent hunting laws.

a) The home ranges of the lions do not vary. b)

a) Stroke b) Pry c) Gather d) Reify

warmer than any previous decade since 1850.

a) Climate change does not affect housing.

b) Climate change has ripple effect.

c) Climate change means only warmer temperature.

c) People fail to survive when they become climate refugees.

d) People will lose their habitats owing to climate change.

a) Disastrous storms b) c) Severe famine d) Loss of employment

a) Only the major emitting countries should address climate change.

d) Everyone should try to do the needful to address the problem.

a) Reprehensive b) Interminable c) Definite d) Resolute

a) Social forestry helps to improve the infrastructure of a particular place.

b) Social forestry increases the biodiversity value of a particular place.

c) Social forestry has helped youths secure jobs in urban areas.

d) Social forestry decreases the biodiversity value of a particular place.

Q 27. 30405650 Social forestry is considered to be effective because:

a) Social forestry is the best way to combat global warming.

c) Social forestry enhances the quality of air.

d) Social forestry does not have any impact on air quality.

a) Trees can alleviate the problem of sound pollution.

b) Trees are the most effective way to counter noise pollution.

c) Trees, at times, exacerbate the problem of noise pollution.

Q 29. 30405650 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

b) Hearing loss is very common in India.

c) Trees encourage holistic wellness of life.