Exam Choice

Student Number

YEAR 11
2021 (PRELIMINARY)
EXAMINATION

Chemistry

General Instructions • Reading time – 5 minutes.

• Working time – 2 hours.
• Write using black pen.
• Draw diagrams using pencil.
• For questions in Section II, show all relevant working in
questions involving calculations.
• NESA approved calculators may be used.

Total marks: 75 Section I – 20 marks (pages 3 – 13)

• Attempt questions 1 – 20.

• Allow about 35 minutes for this section.

Section II – 55 marks (pages 14 – 28)

• Attempt questions 21 – 29
• Allow about 1 hour and 25 minutes for this section.

1
Section I – 20 marks

Attempt Questions 1-20

Allow about 35 minutes for this section

Use the multiple-choice answer sheet.

Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question. Fill in the response oval
completely.

Sample: 2+4= (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9

A B C D

If you think you have made a mistake, put a cross through the incorrect answer and fill in the
new answer.

A B C D

If you change your mind and have crossed out what you consider to be the correct answer,
then indicate the correct answer by writing the word correct and drawing an arrow as
follows.

A B C D

correct

2
1. Which one of the following statements is regarded as a scientific law?

(A) The entropy of the universe must always increase.

(B) The total mass in the universe must always be conserved.
(C) Equal volumes of gases must contain the same number of molecules.
(D) The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature (in oC).

2. A sample of an element was tested and shown to have the following physical and
chemical properties.

Physical properties Chemical properties

Solid at 25oC Forms dull coating when exposed to
air
Sample easily cut with knife, Reacts readily with water to form a
revealing shiny, silver appearance. colourless gas
Melting point of 63.5oC Reaction with chlorine gas is violent.
Analysis of white solid produced shows
it has a molecular mass of 74.55

Which element below would have properties consistent with those listed in the table?

(A) sodium
(B) calcium
(C) potassium
(D) magnesium

3
3. Chromatography is a technique which can separate a small sample of dye mixtures.

A drop that contains a mixture of 3 dyes was applied to a piece of chromatography

paper, at a position marked with a cross (x) as shown below.

The paper was placed into a solvent and the following chromatogram was later
observed.

In chromatography analysis, a value abbreviated to Rf is defined as the ratio of the

distance travelled by a component in the mixture, to the distance travelled by the
solvent front.

Which is the best estimate for the Rf value of the dye shown at ‘Spot 1’ on the
chromatogram?

(A) 0.33
(B) 0.41
(C) 0.67
(D) 0.75

4
4. The diagram below shows features of a film badge worn by people who work with
radioactive materials.

The badge is used to measure the amount of radiation to which the workers may have
been exposed. The badge in the diagram has been opened.

Part A of the badge has three windows as shown. When closed, any ionising radiation
that can penetrate the badge through a window and expose the paper-wrapped
photographic film inside. The film can therefore detect any possible exposure.

A badge taken from a worker in a nuclear facility was monitored and areas of the
photographic film behind the open and aluminium covered windows had been
exposed. No exposure was detected behind the lead-covered window.

Which type/s of radiation may the worker have been exposed to?

(A) alpha only

(B) gamma only
(C) alpha and beta only
(D) beta and gamma only

5
5. A small piece of steel wool was placed into a test tube and enough water added to
partially cover it.

After 5 days, the contents of the test tube were examined. A small mass of orange
solid was observed, along with some remaining metal.

Which list below includes 3 types of chemical reaction that could be used to classify
the reaction that occurred in the test tube?

(A) redox, metal displacement, corrosion

(B) corrosion, redox, precipitation
(C) oxidation, precipitation, metal displacement
(D) synthesis, redox, corrosion

6. Copper(II) sulfide can be converted to copper(II) oxide according to the unbalanced

equation below.

CuS(s) + O2(g) → CuO(s) + SO2(s)

What volume of SO2(g) would be produced from a reaction requiring 270 L of oxygen
to completely consume the CuS initially present?

(all gas volumes measured at the same temperature and pressure).

(A) 135 L
(B) 180 L
(C) 270 L
(D) 405 L

6
7. Phosphine (PH3) is the common name of a colourless, toxic and flammable gas.

Which of the following alternatives identifies the shape and polarity of molecules of
this compound?

Molecular shape Polarity of molecule

(A) pyramidal polar
(B) trigonal planar polar
(C) pyramidal non-polar
(D) trigonal planar non-polar

8. A sample of iron is found to contains three isotopes and has a relative atomic mass
of 55.9 amu.

The table below shows data on two of the isotopes.

Mass number of 56 57
isotope
Abundance in sample 91.85 2.30
(%)

What is the best estimate for the mass number of the third isotope of iron present in
the sample?

(A) 52
(B) 53
(C) 54
(D) 55

7
9. In 2009, a new material called graphane was discovered.

The diagram below shows part of a model of the structure of graphane.

Which of the following is a physical property you would expect to be exhibited by

this material, based on the model of the solid?

(A) A high solubility in water.

(B) A very high melting point.
(C) A resistance to reaction with oxygen.
(D) An ability to be hammered into different shapes.

10. Paracetamol is a medication used to treat fever and mild pain.

Its molecular formula is C8H9O2N.

A sample of pure paracetamol is analysed and found to contain 1.27 g of carbon.

The mass of oxygen in the same sample would be closest to:

(A) 0.21 g.
(B) 0.42 g.
(C) 0.63 g.
(D) 0.84 g.

8
11. A 10 mL sample of mercury was combined with 150 mL of oxygen gas (measured at
273K and 100 kPa pressure) in a sealed reaction vessel.

An oxidation reaction slowly produced mercury(II) oxide, according to the equation.

2Hg(l) +O2(g) → 2HgO(s)

The densities for the reacting elements are provided below.

Element Mercury Oxygen

Density at 273K (gmL-1) 13.546 0.001429

Given the data above, what would be the total mass, rounded to the nearest gram, of
the chemical/s remaining in the vessel after 24 hours?

(A) 27 g
(B) 136 g
(C) 160 g
(D) 271 g

12. The diagram below represents the distribution of the kinetic energy of reactant
particles at two different temperatures (T1 and T2).

Assume that the areas under the curves are equal.

Which statement below is correct, based on information provided by this diagram?

(A) T2 must be higher than T1, as more particles possess the EA at T2.
(B) Fewer molecules possess the EA at T1, because most have already reacted.
(C) As the temperature increases from T1 to T2, the size of the EA increases.
(D) A catalyst would reduce the EA and increase the reaction rate at T1 and T2.

9
13. 54.0 kJ of energy is required to convert 1.00 mol of liquid water to vapour, at 100 °C.

Given these data, what amount of energy would be needed to convert 50.0g of water,
initially at 20oC, completely to water vapour at 100oC?

(A) 71 kJ
(B) 150 kJ
(C) 167 kJ
(D) 16,869 kJ

14. A particular reaction is spontaneous at very low temperatures, but as the temperature
increases, it eventually becomes non-spontaneous.

Based on these data, which alternative below shows the correct sign of Ho and So
for this reaction?

Ho (kJmol-1) So (JK-1mol-1)

(A) +ve +ve

(B) -ve -ve

(C) +ve -ve

(D) -ve +ve

10
Questions 15 and 16 refer to the half-cells shown in two galvanic cells in the diagram
below.

X, Y and Z are symbols of unknown metals.

The voltage produced by each galvanic cell is shown above the voltmeter symbol.

15. Given that the reduction potential of Y is -2.34V, what must be the reduction potential
of X?

(A) 0.14V
(B) 0.34V
(C) 0.40V
(D) 0.80V

16. Which option below lists the metal ions in increasing oxidant strength?

(A) Y2+ < X2+ < Z2+

(B) X2+ < Z2+ < Y2+
(C) X2+ <Y2+ < Z2+
(D) Y2+ < Z2+ < X2+

11
Questions 17 and 18 relate to the following information.

17. What energy change would occur if 1.807 x 1024 oxygen atoms combined to form
diatomic oxygen molecules?

(A) 747 kJ would be released.

(B) 747 kJ would be absorbed.
(C) 1494 kJ would be released.
(D) 1494 kJ would be released.

18. What is the H of the following reaction?

2O (g) + 2O2 (g) → 2O3 (g)

(A) -356 kJmol-1

(B) -214 kJmol-1
(C) 640 kJmol-1
(D) 782 kJmol-1

12
19. A student followed the steps below to produce two solutions of barium hydroxide of
different concentrations.

STEP 1. 17.10 g of barium hydroxide powder was weighed and added to a

100.0mL volumetric flask.
Distilled water was added to the calibration line on the flask.
This solution was labelled as ‘Solution A’.

STEP 2. 5.00mL of this solution was withdrawn by volumetric pipette and

added to a second volumetric flask.
Distilled water was added to the calibration line on the flask.
This solution was labelled as ‘Solution B’.

The hydroxide concentration of ‘Solution B’ was measured at 0.04molL-1.

Given this value, what was the volume of the volumetric flask used in STEP 2?

(A) 120 mL
(B) 125 mL
(C) 245 mL
(D) 250 mL

20. The manufacture of a compound known as phenol (C6H5OH) relies on the reaction
shown by the following balanced chemical equation.

C6H6(l) + H2SO4(l) + 2NaOH(aq) → C6H5OH(l) + Na2SO3(aq) + 2H2O(l)

The approximate molar masses for all of the compounds above are shown in the table.

Compound C6H6 H2SO4 NaOH C6H5OH Na2SO3 H2O

Molar mass 78 98 40 94 126.1 18
(gmol-1)

Using the values for molar masses provided, what theoretical mass of phenol could be
produced if 80.0g of each reactant were combined under suitable conditions to form
the compound?

(A) 76.7 g
(B) 94.0 g
(C) 96.4 g
(D) 188.0 g

13
 YEAR 11
2021 (PRELIMINARY)
EXAMINATION

Chemistry
Section II
Answer Booklet

55 marks

Attempt Questions 21 – 29

Allow about 1 hour and 25 minutes for this part

Instructions • Answer the questions in the spaces provided. These spaces

provide guidance for the expected length of response.

• Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.

• Extra writing space is provided at the back of this booklet. If

you use this space, clearly indicate which questions you are
answering.

14
 Marks
Question 21 (6 marks)

The electron configuration of two elements, identified as “D” and “E”, are shown
in the following table.

Element Electron configuration

D 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p3
E 1s22s22p63s23p5

(a) Give a possible formula of a compound formed between these elements, 1

using the letters D and E to represent the elements.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) A compound formed from these two elements has a melting point of -8.5oC
and a boiling point of 60.4oC.

What is the physical state of this compound at standard room temperature? 1

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(c) Predict TWO qualitative physical properties of this compound in the solid
state, apart from its melting and boiling point.

Fully justify your predictions based on the information provided. 4

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

15
 Marks
Question 22 (4 marks)

To answer this question you should refer to the general solubility rules below.

A small sample of an unknown ionic salt was dissolved in water. 2 mL of the

solution formed was added to three test tubes.

A different test reagent, shown below, was added to each test tube.

• Reagent 1: silver nitrate (aq)

• Reagent 2: potassium sulfate (aq)
• Reagent 3: sodium hydroxide (aq)

Identify an ionic compound which would give a white precipitate with each of 4
the three reagents.

Justify your selection, referencing the relevant solubility rules shown above, and
include a net ionic equation for the reaction which would occur between a
solution of your identified compound and Reagent 3.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

16
Question 23 (5 marks)

A student set out to measure the enthalpy of solution of sodium hydroxide, using
a basic calorimeter as shown below.

The student was aware that a major source of error in such an experiment was
undetermined heat loss to the calorimeter and surroundings.

To estimate this heat loss, they were provided with a pure sample of potassium
hydroxide.

Upon secondary research, they found the theoretical heat of solution of potassium
hydroxide to be 53.51 kJmol-1.

Their investigation was carried out in two steps.

Step 1:
4.00 g of potassium hydroxide solid was added to 50.0 g of distilled water in the
calorimeter. The temperature of the solution increased by 12.5oC.

The student used this data, along with the theoretical value of the heat of solution
of the potassium hydroxide, to determine the % heat loss to the calorimeter and
surroundings.

Step 2:
They repeated the experiment using the sodium hydroxide in the same
calorimeter and thermometer.

They found that 4.00g of the sodium hydroxide, when added to 50.0g of water,
brought about a temperature increase of 14.1oC

Question 23 continues on page 18.

17
 Marks
Question 23 (continued)

(a) Calculate the heat energy gained by the water in Step 1 of the investigation. 1

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) Use the student’s data from both steps to determine their experimental 4
value for the heat of solution for sodium hydroxide, accounting for the %
heat loss to the calorimeter determined in Step 1.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

18
 Marks
Question 24 (7 marks)

Freshly produced aluminium metal reacts readily in air to form a coating of water
insoluble aluminium oxide, which is difficult to detect with our eyesight.

(a) Write a balanced chemical equation for the formation of aluminium oxide 1
from aluminium and oxygen.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) Use oxidation numbers to justify the classification of this reaction as a 2

redox reaction.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

An experiment was carried out to compare the relative reactivity of

aluminium with three other metals (labelled X, Y and Z in the table below).

Small pieces of aluminium foil and strips of the other metals were placed into
1M nitrate solutions of each metal.

Signs of any reaction were recorded. The results are shown below.

Al (s) X (s) Y (s) Z (s)

3+
Al No reaction No reaction No reaction
X2+ No reaction Reaction No reaction
Y2+ No reaction No reaction No reaction
Z2+ No reaction Reaction Reaction

(c) Identify one type of observation that would indicate a reaction had occurred 1
between any of the metals and the nitrate solutions they were placed into.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

Question 24 continues on page 20.

19
 Marks
Question 24 (continued)

(d) Place the metals X, Y and Z into an increasing order of activity. 1

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(e) Explain why a conclusion about the relative reactivity of aluminium with 2
the other metals cannot be drawn from these results and suggest a
modification to the procedure which would improve its validity.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

20
Question 25 (4 marks)

To estimate the molar mass of an unknown volatile liquid Y, a student carried out
an experiment as described below.

The student used a hypodermic syringe to inject a sample of liquid Y into a gas
syringe in an oven set to a specific temperature.

At the oven temperature, liquid Y vaporised, and the vapour entered the syringe.

The gas volume after complete vaporisation was carefully measured from a scale
on the syringe.

The student’s results are shown in the table.

Mass of hypodermic syringe and liquid Y before injection 10.91 g

Mass of hypodermic syringe and liquid Y after injection 10.70 g
Oven temperature 98.1 °C
Atmospheric pressure 102 kPa
Increase in volume in gas syringe after injection of Y 85.0 mL

Question 25 continues on page 22.

21
 Marks
Question 25 (continued)

(a) Use the results to determine the molar mass of liquid Y. Show all working. 3

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) Some of the liquid injected did not evaporate because it dripped from the 1
hypodermic syringe before it was placed into the oven.

Identify the effect of this error on the value of the molar mass of Y
calculated from the experimental results.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

22
 Marks
Question 26 (9 marks)

The table below shows the first ionisation energies of elements from Li to Mg.

Atomic Ionisation
Number Energy (kJmol-1)
Li 520.2
Be 899.5
B 800.6
C 1086.5
N 1402.3
O 1313.9
F 1681
Ne 2080.7
Na 495.8
Mg 737.7

(a) Give the electron configuration of Mg in terms of shells and subshells and 2
clearly identify which electron is removed upon its first ionisation.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) Describe the general trend in first ionisation energy across Period 2, as 3
shown by the data in the table, and apply your knowledge of atomic
structure to account for the general trend identified.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

Question 26 continues on page 24.

23
 Marks
Question 26 (continued)

(c) Identify the TWO elements which have ionisation energy data inconsistent 1
with the general trend.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(d) For either of the elements identified above, explain how application of 3
knowledge of subshells and/or orbitals can account for the anomaly in their
first ionisation energy value.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

24
 Marks
Question 27 (5 marks)

A student conducting a depth study into the properties of ionic solutions

identified some variables regarding the ions in the solution which could affect its
electrical conductivity.

The student then proposed the following hypothesis to test.

“As the radius of the cation in an ionic solution increases, the conductivity of
its solution decreases.”

The student was given access to any typical laboratory equipment, as well as
solid forms of any salt they requested.

(a) Identify the dependent variable in an investigation to test this hypothesis. 1

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) Design an investigation that could be carried out to test the hypothesis. 4

Your design should be described as a clear, concise and scientifically

formatted method, specifying any equipment and chemicals that would be
required for a valid and reliable investigation of the proposed hypothesis.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

25
 Marks
Question 28 (4 marks)

A student added varying masses of a metal ‘M’ to excess hydrochloric acid and
measured the volume of dry hydrogen produced (at 25oC and 100kPa).

The metal reacted with the acid according to the equation:

M (s) + 2HCl (aq) → MCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)

The results of the experiment are shown in the graph below.

(a) Use the graph to estimate the mass of metal which would be required to 1
produce 28L of hydrogen gas, measured under the same conditions.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) Use the data provided in the graph to estimate the mass of the metal 3
required to produce 1 mole of H2 (g), and hence determine the molar mass
and likely identity of the metal.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

26
 Marks
Question 29 (11 marks)

Triacetone triperoxide, commonly referred to as TATP, is a crystalline solid

at room temperature which can be used as a powerful explosive.
The compound is highly unstable, with weak oxygen-oxygen single bonds.
Approximately 80% as powerful as TNT, its decomposition in air releases
significant amounts of energy.
The compound is more dangerous to handle than many other explosives, as
a firm shock or knock is enough to trigger an explosion.

(a) A chemist analysed a sample of white solid suspected to be TATP, and 2

found that the sample contained 48.7% C, 43.2 % O, 8.1% H by mass.

Calculate the empirical formula of the solid, assuming it is pure.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(b) The molecular structure of TATP is shown below.

Demonstrate that the empirical formula determined in part (a) is consistent 2

with the structure shown above.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 29 continues on page 28.

27
 Marks
Question 29 (continued)

(c) Complete a labelled sketch of the energy profile expected for the 2
decomposition of a mole of TATP, given the description of the compound
provided.

(d) Justify the features of the energy profile diagram you have sketched in (c), 3
with reference to the characteristics of the compound.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

(e) Explain how the weak O-O bonds in TATP contribute to the exothermic 2
nature of its decomposition reaction.

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………...

28
Section II extra writing space.

If you use this space indicate clearly which question you are answering.

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

29
Section II extra writing space.

If you use this space indicate clearly which question you are answering.

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

30