1 Jeem 2023 April 06 First Shift Paper
1 Jeem 2023 April 06 First Shift Paper
1 Jeem 2023 April 06 First Shift Paper
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.
3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.
6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-2
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. For the plane electromagnetic wave given by E Eo sin t kx and B BO sin t kx . the
ratio of average electric energy density to average magnetic energy density is
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 1/2 (D) 1
Q2. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown below. A B n=4
The transition corresponding to emission of shortest
wavelength is C D n=3
(A) C (B) A
(C) B (D) D n=2
n=1
Q3. The number of air molecules per cm 3 increased from 3 1019 to 12 1019. The ratio of collision
frequency of air molecules before and after the increase in number respectively is:
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.75 (D) 1.25
Q5. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : When a body is projected at an angle 45 , it’s range is maximum.
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of sin 2 should be equal to one.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A is false but R is true
(B) A is true but R is false
(C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-3
Q6. For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the electric potential (V)
radially away from the centre (O) of shell can be graphically
represented as - O
A
R
V V
(A) (B)
r=R
r=R r r
V V
(C) (D)
r=R r r=R r
Q7. A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its average density is equal to that of the earth. An
object weighing W on earth will weight on that planet:
(A) 2W (B) 22/3 W
1/3
(C) 2 W (D) W
Q8. Given below are statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Earth has atmosphere whereas moon doesn’t have any atmosphere.
Reason R : The escape velocity on moon is very small as compared to that on earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B) A is true but R is false
(C) A is false but R is true
(D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Q9. A small ball of mass M and density is dropped in a viscous liquid of density 0 . After some time,
the ball falls with a constant velocity. What is the viscous force on the ball?
(A) F Mg 1 0 (B) F Mg 1 0
(C) F Mg 1 (D) F Mg 1 0
0
Q10. Two resistances are given as R1 10 0.5 and R2 15 0.5 . The percentage error
in the measurement of equivalent resistance when they are connected in parallel is –
(A) 2.33 (B) 5.33
(C) 6.33 (D) 4.33
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-4
Q11. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength 1 and frequency v 1 in air enters another medium. If
the angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the interface are 45 and 30 respectively, then
the wavelength 2 and frequency v2 of the refracted wave are :
1
(A) 2 1,v 2 2v1 (B) 2 1,v 2 v1
2
1
(C) 2 1,v 2 v1 (D) 2 2 1,v 2 v 1
2
Q12. A particle is moving with constant speed in a circular path. When the particle turns by an
angle 90 , the ratio of instantaneous velocity to its average velocity is : x 2 . The value of x will
be.
(A) 7 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 5
Q13. A long straight wire of circular cross-section (radius a) is carrying steady current I. The current I is
uniformly distributed across the cross-section. The magnetic field is
(A) Inversely proportional to r in the region r < a and uniform through in the region r > a
(B) uniform in the region r < a and inversely proportional to distance r from the axis, in the region
r>a
(C) zero in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(D) directly proportional to r in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
Q14. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached +5V
(A) AND
(B) OR LED
1 1
(C) NAND o 1 Glow
A o
(D) NOR B
Y
Q15. A small block of mass 100g is tied to a spring of spring constant 7.5N/m and length 20 cm. The
other end of spring is fixed at a particular point A. If the block moves in a circular path on a
smooth horizontal surface with constant angular velocity 5 rad/s about point A. then tension in the
spring is -
(A) 1.5 N (B) 0.50 N
(C) 0.75 N (D) 0.25 N
Q17. The kinetic energy of an electron, particle and a proton are given as 4K, 2K and K are
respectively. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron e , -particle ( and the
proton p are as follows :
(A) p e (B) p e
(C) p e (D) p e
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-5
Q18. A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of 100W. If the system performs work at a
rate of 200W. The rate at which internal energy of the system increases is
(A) 600W (B) 500W
(C) 1200W (D) 800W
Q19. The receptivity of semiconductor varies with temperature. Which of the following curve
represents the correct behaviour
(A) (B)
T T
(C) (D)
T T
Q20. By what percentage will the transmission range of a TV tower be affected when the height
of the tower in increased by 21% ?
(A) 15% (B) 10%
(C) 12% (D) 14%
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-6
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. A steel rod has a radius of 20mm and a length of 2.0m. A force of 62.8kN stretches it along its
length. Young’s modulus of steel is 2.0 1011N / m2 . The longitudinal strain produced in the wire is
_________ 10 5
Q2. A particle of mass 10g moves in a straight line with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement in
n
10
SI units. Its loss of kinetic energy for above displacement is J. The value of n will be _______
x
Q3. A pole is vertically submerged in swimming pool, such that it gives a length of shadow 2.15m within
water when sunlight is incident at an angle of 30 with the surface of water. If swimming pool is filled
to a height of 1.5m, then the height of the pole above the water surface in centimetres
is nW 4 / 3 __________
Q4. Two identical solid sphere each of mass 2kg and radii 10cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod. The
separation between the centres of the spheres is 40cm. The moment of inertia of the system about
an axis perpendicular to the rod passing through its middle point is __________ 103 kg m2
Q5. An ideal transformer with purely resistive load operates at 12kV on the primary side. It supplies
electrical energy to a number of nearby houses at 120V. The average rate of energy consumption
in the houses served by the transformer is 60 kW. The value of resistive load (Rs) required in the
secondary circuit will be _________ m .
Q8. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li is ________ 10 12 m. Take : radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51 A
Q9. The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20% and its area of cross section is reduced by 4%.
The percentage change in resistance of the metallic wire is ________
Q10. A person driving car at a constant speed of 15m/s is approaching a vertical wall. The person
notices a change of 40Hz in the frequency of his horn upon reflection from the wall. The
frequency of horn is _________Hz.
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-8
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Given below: are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Loss of electron from hydrogen atom results of 1.5 103 pm size.
Reason R: Proton (H+) always exists in combined form.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(C) A is not correct but R is correct
(D) A is correct but R is not correct
Q4. A compound is formed by two elements X and Y. The element Y forms cubic close packed
arrangement and those of element X occupy one third of the tetrahedral voids. What is the
formula of the compound?
(A) XY3 (B) X3Y2
(C) X3Y (D) X2Y3
Q7. The difference between electron gain enthalpies will be maximum between:
(A) Ne and Cl (B) Ar and Cl
(C) Ne and F (D) Ar and F
Q8. The major products A and B from the following reactions are:
H
N
LiAlH4 Br2 / AcOH
B A
O
Br
H H
N N
(A) A = , B=
O OH
Br Br
Br
H
N NH2
(B) A = B=
,
O
Br Br
H H
N N
(C) A = B=
,
O
Br Br
H H
N N
(D) A = , B=
O OH
Br
Q9. The standard electrode potential of M+ / M in aqueous solution does not depend on
(A) Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom (B) Hydration of a gaseous metal ion
(C) Ionisation of a solid metal atom (D) Sublimation of a solid metal
Q14. Which of the following options are correct for the reaction
2
2 Au CN 2 aq Zn(s) 2Au(s) Zn CN4 aq
A. Redox reaction
B. Displacement reaction
C. Decomposition reaction
D. Commination reaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A only (B) A and B only
(C) A and D only (D) C and D only
Q15. Residue Q
Compound P HCl, Filter
Filtrate
NaOH
Oily Liquid R.
Compound P is neutral, Q gives effervescence with NaHCO3 while R reacts with Hinsbergs
reagent to give solid soluble in NaOH. Compound P is
O O
N N
(A) (B)
H CH3
H3C
O O
C N H
(C) (D) N CH3
H
H
CH3
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-11
Q17. Strong reducing and oxidizing agents among the following respectively, are
(A) Eu2+ and Ce4+ (B) Ce4+ and Tb4+
4+ 2+
(C) Ce and Eu (D) Ce3+ and Ce4+
O O
O
(C) (D) NH
O O
Q19. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: The spin only magnetic moment value for [Fe(CN)6 ]3 is 1.74 BM, whereas for
Fe H2 O ]3 is 5.92 BM,
6
Reason R: In both complexes, Fe is present in +3 oxidation state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) A is false but R is true
(C) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(D) A is true but R is false.
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. Mass of Urea (NH2CONH2) required to be dissolved in 1000g of water in order reduce the vapour
pressure of water by 25% is _______g. (Nearest integer)
Given: Molar mass of N,C,O and and H are 14,12,16 and 1 g mol1respectively.
Gibbs energy
C. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and non-spontaneous at
(c)
D. Reaction is non-spontaneous at (a) and (b) c
b
Extent of reaction
Q4. The value of log K for the reaction A B at 298 K is__________. (Nearest integer)
Given: Ho = 54.07 kJ mol1
So = 10 J K1 mol1
(Take 2.3038.314298 = 5705)
Q5. For the adsorption of hydrogen on platinum, the activation energy is 30 kJ mol1 and for the
adsorption of hydrogen on nickel, the activation is 41.4kJ mol1. The logarithm of the ratio of the
rates of chemisorptions on equal areas of the metals at 300K is _________(Nearest integer)
Given: ln 10 = 2.3
R = 8.3 JK1 mol1
Q6. The number of species from the following which have square pyramidal structure is_____
PF5 ,BrF4 ,IF5 ,BrF5 , XeOF4 ,ICl4
Q9. Number of bromo derivatives obtained on treating ethane with excess of Br2 in diffused sunlight
is______________.
Q10. If 5 moles of BaCl2 is mixed with 2 moles of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of
Ba3(PO4)2formedis_________(Nearest integer)
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-13
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Let the position vectors of the points A, B, C and D be 5iˆ 5 ˆj 2k,
ˆ ˆi 2jˆ 3k,
ˆ 2iˆ ˆj 4kˆ and
2
ˆi 5ˆj 6kˆ . Let the set S { : the points A, B, C and D are coplanar}. Then 2 is
S
equal to
(A) 41 (B) 25
37
(C) (D) 13
2
dy
Q2. If 2x y 3y x 20 , then at 2, 2 is equal to :
dx
2 loge 8 3 loge 16
(A) (B)
3 loge 4 4 loge 8
3 loge 4 3 loge 8
(C) (D)
2 loge 8 2 loge 4
Q3. One vertex of a rectangular parallelepiped is at the origin O and the lengths of its edges along x,
y and z axes are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. Let P be the vertex 3, 4, 5 . Then the shortest
distance between the diagonal OP and an edge parallel to z axis, not passing through O or P is :
12
(A) (B) 12 5
5
12 12
(C) (D)
5 5 5
Q4. The straight lines 1 and 2 pass through the origin and trisect the line segment of the line
L : 9x 5y 45 between the axes. If m1 and m2 are the slopes of the lines 1 and 2 , then the
point of intersection of the line y m1 m2 x with L lies on
(A) y x 5 (B) y 2x 5
(C) 6x y 15 (D) 6x y 10
Q5. If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes
x 1 y 3 z 2
2x y z 3, 4x 3y 5z 9 0 and parallel to the line is
2 4 5
ax by cz 6 0 , then a b c is equal to
(A) 13 (B) 15
(C) 14 (D) 12
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-14
Q6. ˆ b ˆi 2ˆj 2kˆ and c ˆi 4ˆj 3kˆ . If d is a vector perpendicular to both b
Let a 2iˆ 3ˆj 4k,
2
and c , and a d 18 , then a d is equal to
(A) 640 (B) 760
(C) 720 (D) 680
Q7. A pair of dice is thrown 5 times. For each throw, a total of 5 is considered a success. If the
k
probability of at least 4 successes is 11 , then k is equal to
3
(A) 164 (B) 75
(C) 123 (D) 82
x3
3
Q8. Let
A x R : x 3 x 4 3 , B x R : 3 x r 3 3x , where t denotes
r 1 10
greatest integer function. Then,
(A) A = B (B) A B, A B
(C) B C, A B (D) A B
x 2 x sec 2 x tan x dx . If I 0
Q9. Let I x 2 0 , then I is equal to
x tan x 1 4
2 2
4 2 4 2
(A) loge (B) loge
32 4 4 16 4 4
2 2
4 2 4 2
(C) loge (D) loge
16 4 4 32 4 4
Q11. From the top A of a vertical wall AB of height 30 m, the angles of depression of the top P and
bottom of Q of a vertical tower PQ are 150 and 600 respectively, B and Q are on the same
horizontal level. If C is a point on AB such that CB = PQ, then the area (in m 2) of the quadrilateral
BCPQ is equal to
(A) 300 3 1
(B) 200 3 3
(C) 600 3 1 (D) 300 3 1
Q14. Let a1, a 2 , a3 ,.......an be n positive consecutive terms of an arithmetic progression. If d > 0 is its
common difference, then
d 1 1 1
lim ..... is
n n a1 a2 a2 a3 an1 an
(A) d (B) 0
1
(C) 1 (D)
d
Q15. The mean and variance of a set of 15 numbers are 12 and 14 respectively. The mean and
variance of another set of 15 numbers are 14 and 2 respectively. If the variance of all the 30
numbers in the two sets is 13, then 2 is equal to
(A) 9 (B) 12
(C) 11 (D) 10
Q17. Let A aij , where aij 0 for all i, j and A 2 I . Let a be the sum of all diagonal elements of A
22
2
1 1
Q18. Let 5f x 4f 3, x 0 . Then 18 f x dx is equal to :
x x 1
Q19. If the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term from the end in the expansion of
n
4 1
2 4 is 6 : 1, then the third term from the beginning is :
3
(A) 30 2 (B) 60 2
(C) 60 3 (D) 30 3
Q20. If 2n
C3 : n C3 10 : 1 , then the ratio n2 3n : n2 3n 4 is
(A) 27:11 (B) 65:37
(C) 35:16 (D) 2:1
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-16
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q2. Let A 1, 2, 3, 4,....,10 and B 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 . The number of elements in the relation
R a,b A A : 2 a b 2
3 a b B is………..
Q3. A circle passing through the point P , in the first quadrant touches the two coordinate axes at
the points A and B. The point P is above the line AB. The point Q on the line segment AB is the
foot of perpendicular from P on AB. If PQ is equal to 11 units, then the value of is………..
E x, y : 3 x y
9 x 2 ,0 x 3 . If the set of all values of p is the interval a, b , then
2 2
b b a is equal to……….
Q5. Let the image of the point P 1, 2, 3 in the plane 2x y z 9 be Q. If the coordinates of the point
R are 6,10,7 , then the square of the area of the triangle PQR is………..
Q6. Let the tangent to the curve x 2 2x 4y 9 0 at the point P 1, 3 on it meet the y-axis at A. Let
the line passing through P and parallel to the line x 3y 6 meet the parabola y 2 4x at B. If B
2
lies on the line 2x 3y 8 , then AB is equal to…………
n2
Q7. If the area of the region S x, y : 2y y 2
x 2 2y, x y is equal to
n 1 n 1
, then the
natural number n is equal to………..
Q8. Let a and t be the greatest integer t . Then the number of points, where the function
f x a 13 sin x , x 0, is not differentiable, is……….
Q9. The number of ways of giving 20 distinct oranges to 3 children such that each child gets at least
one orange is………..
15
1
Q10. The coefficient of x18 in the expansion of x 4 3 is…………..
x
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-17
SECTION – B
1. 25 2. 2 3. 50 4. 176
5. 240 6. 3 7. 628 8. 425
9. 25 10. 420
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D
5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C
9. C 10. D 11. D 12. D
13. B 14. B 15. A 16. C
17. A 18 C 19. C 20. B
SECTION - B
1. 1111 2. 2 3. 4 4. 10
5. 2 6. 3 7. 6 8. 7
9. 9 10. 1
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-18
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. A
5. C 6. C 7. C 8. A
9. A 10. A 11. C 12. B
13. B 14. C 15. D 16. B
17. C 18. A 19. C 20. D
SECTION - B
1. 2 2. 18 3. 121 4. 3
5. 594 6. 292 7. 5 8. 25
9. 3483638676 10. 5005
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-19
Sol4. In a coil, the induced emf is produced only if the flux through it changes w.r.t time in a magnetic
field. Thus, for uniform field, flux can be changed either by rotating the coil or by changing the
area of the coil.
Sol7. MP 2Me ; P e
wt on earth w mge
wt on planet w ' mgP
4
P GRP
w ' mgP
3
w mge 4
e GRe
3
w ' P RP 1
1 2 3
w e R e
1
w' 2 3w
4 4
MP 2Me P . RP3 & Me e Re 3
3 3
MP 2Me
4 4
P . RP 3 2e R e3
3 3
1
RP 2 3 Re
Sol8. At moon, due to the low escape velocity, the rms velocity of molecules is greater than escape
velocity. Hence, molecules escape and there is no atmosphere at moon. Thus both Assertion and
Reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
R R1 R2
2 2 R
R R R 2
1
0.5 0.5
6
100 225
13
300
R 13
% 100
R 300
13
%
3
4.33%
v inst v
Sol12.
2R
R
2v
2 2 x 2
x2
A B Y
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0
Sol15. kx m 2 r
Where r x
So, kx m 2 x
7.5x 0.1 52 0.2 x
7.5x 0.5 2.5x
5x 0.5
x 0.1m
Thus, tension in the spring is T = kx = 7.5 × 0.1 = 0.75N
m
Sol16. T 2
k eq
Where k eq k1 k 2
m
T 2
k1 k 2
Sol17. According to De-broglie,
h h
P 2mkE
h h h
e
2me kEe 2m e 4k 8mek
h h
P
2mP kEP 2mPk
h h h
2m kE 2m .4k 8mP K
Thus, P e
Sol19. A semiconductor starts conduction more as the temperature increases. It means resistance
decreases with increase in temperature. So, if temperature increases, its resistivity decreases.
m
Also, 2
ne
As temperature increases, decreases but n increases and n is dominant over .
SECTION - B
stress
Sol1. y
strain
stress F
strain
y Ay
62.8 1000 62.8 1000
2 11
r 2 10 3.14 400 10 6 2 1011
200
10 5 25 105
8
4
Sol2. 1 sin60 sin r
3
3 3 3 3 air 60
sin r - (i)
4 2 8 y
27 37 water
cosr 1 0.75
64 8 r
27 1.5m
tan r 0.85
37
x
or 0.85 2.15m
1.5
x 1.275m
y y
tan30
2.15 1.275 0.875
1 y 0.875
y 0.50
3 0.875 1.732
So, length of pole above water surface is 0.50m
or 50cm.
VS NS
Sol4.
VP NP
120 N
S
12000 NP
1 N
S - (i)
100 NP
For an ideal transformer, Pinput = Poutput
iP vP iS v S 60000 w
60000
iP 5
12000
v 12000
Now RP P 2400
iP 5
vS 120 120
& RS 120 240m
iS 60000 / 120 60000
A 0 A 4 0
2d d
Sol5. C1
3 3 4 A 0
A 0 A 40 3 d
2d
d
3 3
4 A 0
According to question, 2
3 d
A 0 3
- (i)
d 2
A0 A 40
d 2d
A 3
3 3
Now, C 2 2 0 2 3
A 0
A 0
4 d 2
d 2d
3 3
Sol6. Bnet B1 B2
i i
Bnet 0 ˆi 0 ˆj
2r 2r
i
or Bnet 2 0
2r
2
4 10
7
2
628 108 T
2 0.2
n2
Sol7. rn
z
0.51 n2
or rn A
z
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-25
For Li , z 3
0.51 52
So, r5 1010 m 17 25 1012 m 425 1012 m
3
Sol8. R
A
1.21 10
R' R 1.25R
0.96 A 8
Thus, resistance increases by 25%
Sol10. a 2x
vdv
2x
dx
On integrating, both sides, we get
0 x
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
Sol1. Size of nucleus is of order 1.5103pm. and H+ always exists in combined form & there is no
relation between these two statements.
Sol2. Photochemical smog is a mixture of pollutants that are formed when nitrogen oxides and volatile
organic compounds react in the presence of sunlight, creating a brown haze above cities.
Sol3.
A 2B 3aq 3 2
2A a1 3B aq
t0 C 0 0
At equilibrium C C 2C 3C
2 3
A 3 B 2 4C2 2 27C3 3
Keq =
A 2 B3 C 1
1
108C5 5 Keq 5
Keq 4
c 108C
Sol4. ‘y’ form ccp lattice so number of ‘y’ atom in one unit cell = 4
8
atom ‘x’ occupy one third of tetrahedral void, so number of ‘x’ atom in one unit cell = .
3
Therefore formula of compound = X8 Y4 or X2 Y3
acetone
Sol5. R CH2 Br I 2
R CH2 I + Br
SN
transition state I C Br
H H
Sol6.
n CH2 CH CH2 CH
CN CN n
Acrylonitrile
Polyacrylonitrile (PAN)
or orlon
Sol7. Out of ‘F’ & ‘Cl’ , ‘Cl’ have more negative value of electrongain enthalpy. And out of Ne & Ar, Ne
have more positive value of electrongain enthalpy.
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-27
Sol8.
NH
NH NH
LiAlH4 Br2
AcOH
O O
(B) Br
(A)
Invertase
Sol10. Sucrose glucose & fructose
Zymase
Glucose ethyl alcohol & CO2
Diastase
Starch maltose
Pep sin
Proteins Amino acids.
Sol11.
N2O 4 NO 2 N2O 5 N2O
O O O O
N N N N O N O N N O N N
O O O
O O O
Sol13. Calcium sulphate (CaSO4) is in the form of Gypsum and its function is to increase the initial
setting time of cement.
Sol15.
O O
H2N
NH OH +
HCl
H3C H3C (R)
(Q)
Q Carboxylic acid, gives effervescence with NaHCO3
R1o amine, react with Hinsbergs reagent to give ppt (soluble in NaOH)
Sol18.
CONH2 NH2
Br2
NaOH NH H
NH
COOCH3 C OCH3 C OCH3
C
O O
O
Sol19. Explanation:-
3 3
Fe CN6 Fe H2 O 6
O.S. of Fe 3 O.S. of Fe 3
Fe3 Ar 3d5 4S0 Fe3 Ar 3d5 4S0
d5 d5
field is strong field is weak
Pairing of e takes place Pairing of e not occurs.
5 5
d d
n n 2 B.M. n n 2 B.M.
Put n =1 (unpaired e ) put n=5
1.74B.M. 5.92B.M.
So both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
SECTION – B
Sol1. As we know that
P Ps
XB 0
Ps
For very dilute solution
nsolute P Ps
0
nsolvent Ps
Let the mass of urea required = x
x 18 P 0.75P0
0
60 1000 0.75P0
x 1111g
k 2 Ea 1 Ea 2
Sol5. log
k1 2.303RT
41.4 30 1000
1.99
2.3 8.3 300
2
Sol7. Ammonium-phosphomolybdate
(NH4)3PO4.12MoO3
Let the O.S of Mo is x
x6=0
x =+6
h 6.6 10 34
Sol8.
2mKE 2 9 1031 4.50 10 29
After solving above expression we get the value of 7.3 105 .
hv
Sol9. CH3 CH3 Br2 Brominated product
(excess)
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION – A
Sol1.
A 5iˆ 5ˆj 2kˆ , B ˆi 2ˆj 3kˆ
C 2iˆ ˆj 4kˆ , D ˆi 5ˆj 6kˆ
AB 4iˆ 3 ˆj 3 2 kˆ
AC 7iˆ 5 ˆj 4 2 kˆ
AD 6iˆ 6 2 kˆ
AB , AC , AD are coplanar.
4 3 3 2
7 5 4 2 0 2 5 6 0
6 0 6 2
2, 3
2
2 16 25 41
S
Sol2. 2x y 3y x 20
dy 2yx y 1 3y x ny
y
dx 2x nx 3xy x 1
dy 23 3 22 n2 2 3n2
3
dx 2,2 2 n2 3 2 2
2n2 3
Sol3.
y
C 0,4,0 B
x
0,4,5 O A 3,0,0
S P 3,4,5
R Q
0,0,5
Z
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-31
Equation of line OP
r 3iˆ 4ˆj 5kˆ ……….(i)
side parallel to z axis not passing O & P is CS
Equation of CS
r 4ˆj 5kˆ ………..(ii)
shortest distance between lines OP and CS
4ˆj
3iˆ 4ˆj 5kˆ 5kˆ
3iˆ 4ˆj 5kˆ 5kˆ
4ˆj
15ˆj 20iˆ
2 2
15 20
60 12
25 5
x y y
Sol4. L: 1 B(0,9) y=m 2n(L2)
5 9
AC : CB 1: 2
10 D
C , 3 y=m 1x(L1)
3
and AD : DB 2 : 1 C
5
D ,6
3 x
A(5,0) L
9 18
m1 , m2
10 5
9 18
y x
10 5
9
y x
2
10 45
It cut the line L : 9x 5y 45 at ,
7 7
Sol5. P1 2x y z 3
P2 4x 3y 5z 9 0
P1 P2 0
2x y z 3 4x 3y 5z 9 0
P3 2 4 x 1 3 y 1 5 z 3 9 0
x 1 y 3 z 2
P3 is parallel to
2 4 5
2 2 4 4 1 3 5 1 5 0
3 5 0
3
5
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-32
i j k
Sol6.
d bc 1
2 2 2iˆ ˆj 2kˆ
1 4 3
a d 18
4 3 8 18 2
d 4iˆ 2ˆj 4 kˆ
2
i j k
2 2 2
ad 2 3 4 20i 83 16k 16 5iˆ 2ˆj 4kˆ 16 45 720
4 2 4
Sol8. x 3 x 4 3
2 x 7 3
x 2
x 1 A , 1 ………….(i)
x 3
3
(B) 3 x r 33 x
r 1 10
x 3
3
3 x 10 33 x
1 1
10
x x3
3 3 33x
33 3 3 x 3 3x
x 1 x 1
B , 1 ………….(ii)
A B
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-33
Sol9. I x
x2 x sec 2
x tan x dx
2
x
x tan x 1
x2 2x
dx
x tan x 1 x tan x 1
x2 x cos x dx
2
x tan x 1 x sin x cos x
x2
I x 2n x sin x cos x C
x tan x 1
I 0 0 c 0
2 1
I 2n
4 4 4 4 2 2
2
n
4
2
32 4 4
Sol10. x 2 8x 15 2x 7 0
x 2 8x 15 2x 7 0 x 7 / 2 …………(i)
x 2 8x 15 x 3 x 5
Case I x , 3 5, …………(ii)
x 2 8x 15 2x 7
x 2 10x 22 0
10 100 88
x 5 3
2
x 5 3
x 3, 5
Case II
x 2 8x 15 7 2x
x 2 6x 8 0
x 4, 2 x 4
sum of roots 9 3
30 A
Sol11. 3;
x
30 h
2 3
x 0
15
30 h 20 3 30 30 m C P
x 10 3 h h
h 60 20 3 60
0
area = hx B Q
x
60 20 3 10 3
200 3 3 3
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-34
600
3 1
3 is correct
Sol12. x y az b
2x 5y 2z 6
x 2y 3z 3
System of equations can be written as
1 1 a x b
2 5 2 y 6
1 2 3 z 3
R1 R3 , R2 2R3
0 1 a 3 x b 3
0 1 4 y 0
1 2 3
z 3
0 0 a 7 x b 3
R1 R 2 0 1 4 y 0
1 2 3 z 3
For infinite solution a = 7 & b = 3
2a 3b 23
Sol13. P Q R Q
P Q R Q
Q P R
P R Q
P R Q
d 1 1 1
Sol14. lim .....
n n a1 a2 a2 a3 an 1 a2
d a2 a1 a3 a2 an an 1
lim ....
n n d d d
d an a1
lim
n n d
1 a1 n 1 a
lim d 1
n
d n n n
d
1
d
xi2
Sol15. xi 15 12 and 122 14
15
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-35
yi2
And yi 15 14 and 142 2
15
14 144 15 2 196 15
Now, 13 132
30
2 10
Sol16. S 5 11 19 29 .... Tn 1 Tn
S 5 11 19 .... .... Tn1 Tn
0 5 6 8 10 ..... t n1 Tn
n 1
Tn 5 12 n 2 2
2
n2 3n 1
Sn Tn n2 2n n
n n 1 2n 1 n n 1
3 n
6 2
10 7 41 20 21
S 20 3 20
6 2
3520
a b a b
Let A
c d c d
2
A I
a2 bc ab bd 1 0
ac dc bc d2 0 1
a2 bc 1 a d c 0
ab bd 0 bc d2 1
Again A 1 ad bc 1
Solving a 0, b 1 3a2 4b2 4
2 2
1 1 1 5
Sol18. 5f x 4f 3 ……….(i) f x dx 9 x 4x 3 dx
x x 1 1
1 1 2
Replace x 5log x 2x 2 3x
x 9 1
1 1
5f 4f x x 3 …………(ii) 5log x 3
x 9
Solving (i) and (ii) we get
2
5 18 f x dx 10loge 2 6
9f x 4x 3
x 1
n
Sol19.
E 21/ 4 1/ 4
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-36
n4
4
n4 4 2
t 5 n C4 21/4 3 1/4
n C4
3
………..(i)
5th term from end
n 4
1 4
n 4
n
t '5 C 4 3 4 2 1/4
n C4 3 4
2 …………(ii)
t5 6
Given
t '5 1
n4 n4
4 4 n4
2 3
66 4
63/ 2
3 2
n4 3
n 10
4 2
1
8 2
t3 10
C2 21/4 3 1/ 4
45 4 3 2 60 3
2n
Sol20. C3 : n C3 10 : 1
2n ! 3! n 3 ! 10
3! 2n 3 ! n!
4 2n 1 10n 20
n8
Now
n 2
3n
64 24
88
2
n 2
3n 4 64 24 4 44
SECTION – B
xy 2 sin x
3
dy
yx 2cos x
dx 3
d2 y dy
x 2 2sin x
dx 2 dx 3
y" 2y ' 2 2
6 6 6
2
Sol3. Equation of circle is x a y a a 2
Passes P , P ,
2 2
a a a ……….(i)
2
Equation of AB x y a …………(ii)
B 0,a
Let Q x1,y1 x1 y1 a ………..(iii) Q
slope of PQ = 1
Equation of PQ
x x1 y y1 A a,0
r
1/ 2 1/ 2
For co-ordinate of Q , r 11
x1 y1
11
1/ 2 1/ 2
JEE-MAIN-2023 (6th April-First Shift)-PCM-38
11 11
x1 & y1
2 2
22
x1 y1 11 2 a
2
(i) 2 2 2a 2ab a2 0
2
2 2a a 2 0
2
1/ 2 a 2 2a 1/ 2 a a 0 2
2
11 2 2 11 121 2
Sol4. 3 x y 9 x2 ; 0 x 3 y
P 1, 2
P
Again solving y x 1 & x 2 y 2 9
n
2 17 1
x x40 x
2
17 1 2
p 1, a 1 b b 4
2
2 2
b b a 3
Sol7. 2y y 2 x 2 2y x 2 2y
(i) x 2 y 2 2y 0 yx
2
x y 1 1
2 2, 2
(ii) x 2 2y
2
7
Required area =
1
2y 2y y 2 dy
6 4
Sol8.
y 13
y 12
y2
y 1
at every line f(x) is discontinuous two times in y = 12 line it is discontinuous only once.
total number of discontinuous points = 25
Sol9. 20 different oranges can be given to 3 children so that each gets at least once is
320 3 C1 220 3 C2 120
15
4 1
Sol10. x 3
x
r
15 r 1
Gen. term = 15
Cr x 4
3
x
r
1 15
Cr x 60 7r
60 7r 18 7r 42 r 6
coefficient of x18 15 C 6 91 55 5005