PHÒNG GDĐT KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN

HUYỆN KIM BẢNG NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7
Đề chính thức (Thời gian làm bài 150 phút)

( Đề kiểm tra gồm 08 trang, học sinh làm ngay vào bộ đề này)
Sè ph¸ch
ĐIỂM CỦA BÀI KIỂM TRA

Bằng số: .............................................. Họ tên người chấm số 1: ........................

Bằng chữ:............................................ Họ, tên người chấm số 2: ........................

SECTION A. LISTENING (25 points)

(General in struction: The listening test consists of three parts.You will listen to each part
twice).
Part I. Listen and tick the box. (5,0points)

1. What must Michael paint first?

2. What must Michael wear?

3. What can Michael eat?

4. Where is the paint that Michael needs?

5. What is the matter with Michael now?

Part II. May has gone camping and has left all these things at home. Where are they? Listen
and write letters in the boxes. (10 points)
0. soap 0- G A. balcony
6. brush 6- B. table
7. umbrella 7- C. telephone
8. torch 8- D. mirror
9. dairy 9- E. cooker
10. chocolate 10- F. fridge
G. shower
H. bath
Part III. You will hear a woman asking about a tour casstle. Listen and complete questions 11-
15. You will hear the conversation twice. (10 points)

CASTTLE TOUR
- Time of the tour: 10 a.m
- Tour takes: (16) .............................................. minutes
- Price of a family ticket: (17) £ .........................................................
- Ticket includes: (18) soft drink or ......................................
- Name of gardens: (19) ...........................................................
- What to see in gardens: (20) 800-year-old ....................................

SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest. (5 points)
1. A. climate B. comic C. hike D. website
 2. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
3. A. cover B. category C. ancient D. decorate
4. A. erupt B. humor C. UFO D. communicate
5. A. Buddhism B. bomb C. viable D. bulb

Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Keys
Part II. Find the word A,B,C or D which has different stress pattern in each line (5 points)
1. A. comprise B. depend C. design D. novel
2. A. tropical B. collection C. tendency D. charity
3. A. friendliness B. occasion C. pagoda D. deposit
4. A. importing B. specific C. impolite D. important
5. A. federation B. unpolluted C. disappearing D. profitable

Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Keys

SECTION C. LEXICO & GRAMMAR ( 80 points)

Part I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences. (20 points)
1. In Titanic, it ________________ Leonardo DiCaprio as Jack Dawson, a poor artist.
A. directs B. shows C. acts D. stars
2. A ________________ is a film that shows real life events or stories.
A. action B. documentary C.thriller D. comedy
3. I have never felt as ________________ as I did when I watched that horror film.
A. terrify B. terrifying C. terrified D. terrible
4. I _______________ marbles when I was young, but now I don’t.
A. play B. used to play C.have played D. didn’t use to play
5. Cyclists and motorists have to wear a _______________ when they ride a motorbike.
A. hard hat B. cap C.mask D. helmet
6. Hurry up or we can’t _______________ the last bus home.
A. catch B. follow C. go D. keep
7. We must _________________ the amount of water our family uses every day.
A. lessen B. narrow C. lower D. reduce
8. My brother _________________ playing golf now.
A. like B. likes C. is liking D. is likes
9. This is Linda’s hat, and those shoes are ____________________.
A. hers B. her C. our D. their
10. The city is facing serious ____________________ problems.
A. pollution B. polluted C. pollute D. Pollutant
11. My parents gave ____________ a new digital camera. I love ____________ so much.
A. me/ it B. you / them C. them / it D. it / them
12. When ____________ people live in a small place, life can be very difficult.
A. too much B. too many C. a few D. few
13. Living in the country is healthier than that in the city because in the countryside, there is
____________ traffic.
A. more B. higher C. less D. fewer
14. MrsLien went to ______________ school to meet her daughter’s teacher.
A. an B. the C. a D. X
15. ________ apple a day keeps ________ doctor away.
A. 0/A B. The / a C. An/0 D. An / the
16. It’s really difficult to ___________ a bicycle up the hill.
A. fly B. drive C. pedal D. sail
17. ___________ the film was gripping, Tom slept from beginning to end.
A. Although B. Despite C. However D. Therefore
18. My uncle started working for this non-profit _______________ five years ago.
A. organisations B. organisation C.organise D. organizer
19. My hobbies aren’t ______________ hers.
A. similar B. the same C. different than D. the same as
20. Home robots can do many things ______________ repairing things or cooking meals.
A. for B. such C. like D. with
Your answer:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
K

Part II. Supply the correct form or tense of the verbs in the parentheses ( 20 points)
1. Look! I The plane is flying to the airport. It (land).
............................................................................................................................................
2. If he (try) his best, he would not fail the exam.
............................................................................................................................................
3. We (learn) in this school for 2 years.
............................................................................................................................................
4. Yesterday, when the villgers (have) a party, a dragon suddenly appeared.
............................................................................................................................................
5. My brother used to (work) in the city but now he doesn’t.
............................................................................................................................................
6. Her house is not bright. It needs (repaint).
............................................................................................................................................
7. The doctor asked him to stop (smoke) because it is harmful for his health.
............................................................................................................................................
8. John, along with ten friends, (be) planning a party.
............................................................................................................................................
9. I’ll be on holiday this time next week. I (lie) on a beautiful beach.
 ............................................................................................................................................
10. It’s two years since I last (hear) from her.
............................................................................................................................................
Part III. There mistake in the four underlined part of each sentence underline it then correct it
(20 points)

1. You should take a taxi although it is raining hard.

A B C D
2. Alexandre G.Bell, a Scotsman invent the telephone in 1876.
A B C D
3. It is difficult for students answer all of the questions in fifteen minutes.
A B C D
4. She went out the room but saying any thing
A B C D
5. Lots of information are wrong ,so we don’t use any more.
A B C D
6. She is disappointing to watch the film, it is very boring.
A B C D
7. Either Nam or his father know how to connect the printer.
A B C D
8. Would you like help me solve these mathematics problems? I can hardly understand
A B C
how to do them.
D
9. It is greatly to be with you on such a lovely day
A B C D
10. I think I prefer country life more than city life
A B C D
Your answer:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Part IV. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences (20 points)
1. It’s very ______________ to live in damp room. (HEALTH)
2. Walking is a fun, easy and _______________activity. (EXPENSIVE)
3. A balanced diet alone is not enough for a healthy ____________________. (LIFE)
4. That woman is very pleasant, but her younger sister is a little _________ (FRIEND)
5. Jane likes to wear ________________________ clothes. (COLOUR)
6. Diana is a ________________.She sells flowers at a shop in New York. (FLOWER)
7. The students of class 7A enjoy ___________activities after school hours. (DIFFER)
 8. Some students are following the ______________ to the video room. (LIBRARY)
9. The post arrives _______________ ___ at eight in the morning. (REGULAR)
10. Do your classes start ______________________ or later? (EARLY)

SECTION D. READING (40 points)

Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word . (2.0 points)
Yesterday, Carlos went (1) _______________ La Tomatina. The festival is held on
the last Wednesday of August every year in Bũnol, Spain. (2) _______________ were
thousands of people there. In the morning, many people tried to (3) _______________ up
the pole to get the ham. At 11 a.m., they (4) _______________ a jet from the water cannons
and the chaos began. Bags of tomatoes from trucks were (5) _______________ to the
crowds, and they began throwing tomatoes at one another. They all had to wear goggles to
(6) _______________ their eyes.
After one hour, they saw another jet and stopped (7) _______________. The whole town
square (8) _______________ red with rivers of tomato juice. Finally, they tried tomato
Paella, a (9) _______________ Spanish rice dish. Together with local people and tourists,
they enjoyed the (10) _______________ food and drink.
Your answer

1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10

Part II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D that best fits each of the blanks (2.0 points)
Sandwiches are common in many countries. But (1) ______ did this strange name come
from? The Earl of Sandwich (1718-1792) was an Englishman. He liked (2) ______cards.
One night he played for hours and got very hungry. (3) ______ he didn’t want to stop his
card game. He asked for some roast meat (4) ______ two pieces of bread. (People bake roast
meat in the oven or a stove). He ate the food (5) ______he played cards. People gave his
name (6) ______ this new kind of food.
Pizza is (7) ______international food. A baker probably (8) ______the pizza in Naples,
Italy. It was about the same time (9) ______the first sandwich. “Pizza” means “pie” in
Italian. People (10) ______the name “pizza pie” for long time ago. Now it is just “pizza”.
1. A. what B. when C. where D. how
2. A. play B. played C. plays D. playing
3. A. So B. Moreover C. But D. Because
4. A. for B. between C. on D. among
5. A. while B. until C. after D. before
6. A. to B. for C. from D. with
7. A. other B. another C. others D. the other
8. A. did B. discovered C. invented D. found
9. A. than B. as C. like D. from
 10. A. was used B. have used C. use D. used
Your answer
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10

SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. ( 20 points)
1. He used to play tennis better than he does now.
->He doesn’t play ……………………………………………………………………
2. He didn’t remember anything about it, and I didn’t, either.
->He forgot…………………..…………………………………………………………
3. Although she performed well, she didn’t receive good comments from critics.
->Despite her ……………………………………………………………………….
4. How much is a bowl of beef nodle soup?
->What is the …………………………………………………….………………….…?
5. Critics found his performance as King Lear disappointing . AT
-> Critics were ……………………………………………………………………..
6. The distance between Ha Nam and Hanoi is about 80 km
-> It’s ……………………………………………………………...……………….
7. This school bag is the same as my school bag at home.
-> This school bag is not……………………………………………………………
8. Listening to music at home is more interesting than going to the concert.
-> I prefer ............................................................................................................................
9. On the 7th May every year, thousands of people visit Dien Bien Phu in Dien Bien
Province.
-> Dien Bien Phu .............................................................................................................
15. With luck, she will win the cookery competition.
-> If …………………….......................................................................................................
Part II. Use the given words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words. ( 10
points)
1. Lan offen visits Ha Long Bay.( PAY)
.................................................................................................................................................
They spent a week finishing their project (TO)
.................................................................................................................................................
The weather is terrible.! (WHAT)
.................................................................................................................................................
She enjoys cooking very much. (OF)
.................................................................................................................................................
My school does not take part in the community activities very often, neither does his school.
(NOR)
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................

Part III. Write a paragraph (about 100-120 words) about the trafic problems in a big city (15
points)
 The end

PHÒNG GDĐT HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG

HUYỆN KIM BẢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7
Đề chính thức (Thời gian làm bài 150 phút)

SECTION A. LISTENING (25 points)

Part I. Listen and tick the box. (5,0points)
 5 x 1 = 5,0 points
1 2 3 4 5
C B C B A
Part II. May has gone camping and has left all these things at home. Where are they? Listen
and write letters in the boxes. (10 points)
5 x 2 = 10 points
6 7 8 0 10
D H F B E
Part III. You will hear a woman asking about a tour casstle. Listen and complete questions 11-
15. You will hear the conversation twice. (10 points)
5 x 2 = 10 points
12. 45/ forty- five 13. 22/ twenty -two 14. tea
15. Highclere 16. tree
SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)
Part I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest. (5 points) 1 x 5 = 5 points
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Key B D C A B
Part II. Find the word A,B,C,D which has different stress pattern in each line (5 points)
1 x 5 = 5 points
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Keys D B A A D

SECTION C. LEXICO & GRAMMAR ( 80 points)

Part I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences. (20 points)
20 x 1 = 20 points
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
K D B C B D A D B A B A B C B D C A B D C

Part II. Supply the correct form or tense of the verbs in the parentheses ( 20 points)
10 x 2 = 20 points
1. is going to land 2. tried 3. have learnt/ have learned/ have been learning
4. were having 5. work 6. repainting/ to be repainted
7. smoking 8. is 9. will be lying 10. heard

Part III. There mistake in the four underlined part of each sentence underline it then correct it
(20 points)
10 x 2 = 20 points
1.C 2.B 3. C 4. B 5 C
6. A 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D
Part IV. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences (20 points)
10 x 2 = 20 points
1. unhealthy 2. inexpensive 3. lifestyle 4.unfriendly 5. colorful
6. florist 7. different 8. librarian 9. regulary 10. earlier

SECTION D. READING (40 points)

Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word (20 points)
10 x 2 = 20 points
1. to 2. There 3. climb 4. saw 5. thrown
6. protect 7. throwing 8. was 9. traditional 10. good

Part II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D that best fits each of the blank spaces (20
points)
10 x 2 = 20 points
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A D C A A B D B C

SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. ( 20 points) 10 x 2 = 20 points
1. He doesn’t play as well as he used to.
2. He forgot everything about it, and I did too.
3.Despite her good performance, she didn’t receive good comments from critics/Despite the
fact that she performed well, she didn’t receive good comments from critics.
4.What is the price of a bowl of beef nodle soup?
5. Critics were disappointed at his performance as King Lear.
6. It’s about 80 km from Ha Nam to Ha Noi.
7.This school bag is not different from my school bag at home.
8. I prefer listening to music at home to going to the concert..
9. Dien Bien Phu in Dien Bien Province is visited by thousands of people on the 7th May
every year.
10. If she is lucky, she will win the cookery competition.
Part II. Use the given words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words. ( 10
points) 5 x 2 = 10 points
1. Lan offen pays a visit to Ha Long Bay.
2. It took them a week to finish their project.
3. What terrible weather!
4. She is fond of cooking.
5. Neither my school nor his school takes part in the community activities very often.
Part II. Write a paragraph (about 100-120 words) about the trafic problems in a big city (15
points)
 Mô tả tiêu chí đânh giá Điểm
1 Bố cục 3
- Câu đề dẫn
- Bố cục hợp lý: 3 phần (Câu mở đầu, các câu triển khai
thân đoạn, câu kết đoạn)
- Bố cục uyển chuyển từ câu mở đầu đến câu kết.
2 Phát triển ý 3
- Lô gic, mạch lạc
- Có giải thích, dẫn chứng, ví dụ xác thực
3 Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 3
- Sử dụng ngôn ngữ phù hợp với nội dung của bài viết
- Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong
- Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết linh hoạt
4 Nội dung 3
- Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
- Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận
- Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy
đinh 10%
5 Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 3
- Sử dụng đúng dấu câu
- Viết đúng chính tả
- Sử dụng đúng thì/thời, thể, cấu trúc câu ngữ pháp.
The end

Chú ý: Tổng số điểm toàn bài là 200; kết quả làm bài của thí sinh được quy về thang điểm 20
KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Sè b¸o danh Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7
Sè ph¸ch
Họ và tên học sinh: ...................................
Ngày tháng năm sinh: ..............................
Học sinh trường THCS: ...........................

Họ và tên giám thị số 1:.........................................Chữ ký của GT số 1:.................

Họ và tên giám thị số 2:.........................................Chữ ký của GT số 2:.................

KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Sè b¸o danh Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7 Sè ph¸ch
Họ và tên học sinh: ...................................
Ngày tháng năm sinh: ..............................
Học sinh trường THCS: ...........................

Họ và tên giám thị số 1:.........................................Chữ ký của GT số 1:.................

Họ và tên giám thị số 2:.........................................Chữ ký của GT số 2:.................

KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Sè b¸o danh Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7 Sè ph¸ch
Họ và tên học sinh: ...................................
Ngày tháng năm sinh: ..............................
Học sinh trường THCS: ...........................

Họ và tên giám thị số 1:..........................................Chữ ký của GT số 1:.................

Họ và tên giám thị số 2:..........................................Chữ ký của GT số 2:.................

Sè b¸o
KIỂM TRAdanh
CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC Sè ph¸ch
2023-2024
Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7
Họ và tên học sinh: ...................................
Ngày tháng năm sinh: ..............................
 Học sinh trường THCS: ...........................

Họ và tên giám thị số 1:..........................................Chữ ký của GT số 1:.................

Họ và tên giám thị số 2:..........................................Chữ ký của GT số 2:.................