TCS NQT Practice Paper 5

TCS NQT Mock – 5
Verbal Ability
CLOZE Test (1-5)
(1-5) Directions: In the following passage, some of the words have been left
out and replaced by a blank. First read the passage and try to understand
what it is about. Then fill in the blanks as per the questions given.
Mountainous and meditative, Sikkim is a real-life Shangri-La boasting
__________, deep valleys and soaring snow-capped peaks. The
_________ landscape of this remote, sacred place is dotted with
__________ traditional Tibetan Buddhist monasteries and Hindu shrines.
Sikkim’s lofty, modern capital Gangtok, elevation 5,410 feet, is the gateway
to monastery tours and outdoor adventure, such as Himalayan mountain
treks and guided ___________ to the Khangchendzonga National Park
UNESCO World Heritage Site. The park is named for the world’s third-
highest peak, Khangchendzonga, which reaches __________ of 4,000 to
28,170 feet above sea level and is part of the Khangchendzonga UNESCO
Biosphere Reserve, one of the highest ecosystems in the world. On clear
days, Khangchendzonga may be visible from Gangtok.
1) boasting __________, deep valleys
a) Lush
b) Richly
c) Rush
d) Wealthy
Correct Choice: a
Solution
We need an adjective here to modify the noun VALLEYS. LUSH will fit here
as it means rich and green, which would be suitable to describe how the
valley looks. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
2) RICHLY is an adverb. RUSH is a verb which means to hurry. WEALTHY
means financially well off.
The _________ landscape of this
a) Scenic
b) Stun
c) Scenery
d) Divinely
Correct Choice: a
Solution
We need an adjective here to modify the noun LANDSCAPE. The sentence
talks about the beauty of the landscape of Sikkim. SCENIC means
aesthetically beautiful and will fit here. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
STUN means surprise, but it is a verb. SCENERY is a noun. DIVINELY is
an adverb.
3) is dotted with __________ traditional
a) Numerous
b) Number
c) Novel
d) Immutable
Correct Choice: a
Solution
We need an adjective here to modify the noun MONASTERIES.
NUMEROUS means several and will fit here. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
NUMBER is a noun. NOVEL means new but it will contradict
TRADITIONAL. Immutable - unchanging.
4) and guided ___________ to the
a) Tripping
b) Expeditions
c) Excerpts
d) Extracts
Correct Choice: b
Solution
We need a noun here to be modified by the adjective GUIDED.
EXPEDITIONS will fit here as the sentence talks about trips to a national
park. Thus, (b) is the right answer.
TRIPPING means to fall over something. EXCERPTS and EXTRACTS
refer to a part of a written text.
5) which reaches __________ of 4,000
a) Heights
b) Elevate
c) Range
d) Evidence
Correct Choice: a
Solution
We need a noun to form the object of the verb REACHES. HEIGHTS will fit
here as the sentence talks about how high the peak is. Thus, (a) is the right
answer.
ELEVATE means to raise and it is a verb. RANGE will be contextually
inapt. Evidence - proof.
Error Location (6)
(6) In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error.
Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate
option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’ as your answer.
6) Jefferson ended the great public receptions, (A)/ and turned the State
Dining Room, where (B)/ they had been held, into his office. (C)/ No error
(D)
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) A
Correct Choice : c
Solution
The sentence is grammatically correct and free of error. Thus, (c) is the
right answer.
Active – Passive Voice (7)
7) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/ Passive

Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best
expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
Sundarbans is being threatened by rising sea levels and extreme weather.
a) Rising sea levels and extreme weather are threatening Sundarbans.

b) Rising sea levels and extreme weather will be threatening
Sundarbans.
c) Rising sea levels and extreme weather were threatening Sundarbans.
d) Rising sea levels and extreme weather had been threatening
Sundarbans.
Correct Choice : a
Solution
The sentence is in indicative mood and passive voice. Follow the rules
below to convert a sentence in indicative mood to active voice:
1. The subject clause will become the object clause. Here, the subject
(SUNDARBANS) will change to the object of the verb, and the object
(RISING SEA LEVELS AND EXTREME WEATHER) will change into the
subject and begin the sentence.
2. Replace IS BEING THREATENED with ARE THREATENING.
3. Remove the conjunction BY before RISING SEA LEVELS AND
EXTREME WEATHER.
Option (a) is the right answer.
Para Jumbled Sentences (8)
8) In the question given below, rearrange the sentences in the correct

order, and choose the correct option.
P. This is the story of Sundarbans and how Volvo machinery is building
tomorrow in a very unique part of the world.
Q. Along the Bay of Bengal, 4.5 million people are living under the constant
threat of rising sea levels and recurring cyclones.
R. Tens of thousands of people have lost their homes the last decades.
S. A major source of protection is embankments and now, new ones are
being built to protect the population.
a) SQRP
b) SPRQ
c) PQRS
d) PSQR
Correct Choice : c
Solution
PQRS is the final order. P begins the passage by introducing the main topic
around which the passage revolves - the story of the Sundarbans and how
Volvo machinery is helping change its future. Q follows by beginning the
story - how many people are living under the constant threat of rising sea
levels and cyclones. R follows by telling us how so many people have lost
their homes due to these threats. S concludes by telling us the course of
action that is being taken to solve the problem. Thus, (c) is the right
answer.
Phrasal Verbs/ Idioms (9)
9) In the following question, a sentence is given with a phrase or idiom in

brackets. Select the option given below that can replace the bracketed
phrase.
When funding shifts too drastically or is (cut off) altogether, then problems
can dismantle research programmes anywhere.
a) cut down
b) cut across
c) cut back on
d) No Improvement
Correct Choice : d
Solution
(d) is the right answer. We need a phrase here that means to be stopped
completely, as hinted by the use of the word ‘altogether’.
Cut down – reduced. Cut across – to go across a place rather than around
it. Cut back on – to reduce. Cut off – stopped completely.
Single Fillers (10)
10) In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is

missing. From the given four options, choose the one that provides the
correct word to be filled in the blank, thereby making the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct.
Not even the _______ fan could resist becoming irate at the unfair referee
calls.
a) Obvious
b) Equable
c) Equivalent
d) Ego
Correct Choice :b
Solution
(b) is the right answer. We need an adjective to modify the noun FAN. The
context implies that some fans were unhappy with the referee calls.
EQUABLE means not easily disturbed or angered; calm and even-
tempered. Other words do not fit contextually.
OBVIOUS- easily perceived or understood; clear, self-evident, or apparent.
EQUIVALENT- equal in value, amount, function, meaning, etc.
EGO- a person's sense of self-esteem or self-importance.
Idioms (11)
11) In the following question , a sentence is given in which an idiom is

highlighted. From the options below, choose the one that gives the correct
meaning of the idiom.
This election is an eyewash, the leader has already been selected.
a) A deceptive action
b) A futile effort
c) An important day
d) An event or action that one is ashamed of
Correct Choice : a
Solution
‘Eyewash’ means “misleading or deceptive statements, actions, or
procedures”. Thus, (a) is the correct answer.
Reading Comprehension (12-15)
(12-15) Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions.
About 37% of the area of the entire world is agricultural land, a third of
which (about 11%) is used for crops. And as the population of the world
rises to 9.7 billion people in 30 years, the land available for crops will
reduce. Thus, there is an immediate need to try and improve the efficiency
of food production. Experts predict that agricultural yield must increase by
50% between now and 2050. How to do this is the question facing
agricultural scientists across the world.
Plants use sunlight to produce energy for their metabolism and food
production. This is referred to as photosynthesis (wherein sunlight is used
to make energy-rich molecules needed for producing food molecules).
However, the efficiency of photosynthesis is rather low, just about 5% in
most land crops. The most efficient land crop with 8% average is
sugarcane, which is not all that edible, except for the sugar in it. If only we
can increase the efficiency of crops such as wheat, rice and other grains!
One such attempt is through the project RIPE (Realizing Increased
Photosynthetic Efficiency), undertaken by a group of scientists at the
University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign in the US, supported by the Bill
and Melinda Gates Foundation.
One way of achieving it has been shown in the model plant tobacco where
the scientists could “engineer photosynthesis” by increasing the expression
of three genes involved in processing light. This increases the tobacco yield
by 20%. The team is trying to do the same genetic engineering method in
other plants. One such plant is cassava (also called tapioca, sago or
‘sabudana’) whose roots are carbohydrate-rich, and eaten by over half a
billion people in Latin America and parts of Africa; indeed it is eaten as a
staple food in parts of Andhra, Kerala and the hilly areas of Assam. Genetic
engineering of this plant was done, just as in tobacco, and appears to work.
Another way that some other scientists are trying is to reduce what is called
photorespiration in plants. Here the energy and oxygen produced in the
‘light reaction’ of photosynthesis is drained by the plant to make “wasteful”
products in the ‘dark reaction’, and not just carbohydrates and other food
material, particularly when the plant’s leaves close in order to reduce water
loss by evaporation. If we can find ways to reduce this photorespiration,
edible food yields can go up.
12) As per the passage, which plant has the highest average efficiency of
photosynthesis and what is that efficiency?
a) Sugarcane and 8% respectively.

b) Tobacco and 20% respectively.
c) Wheat and 5% respectively
d) Sago and 20% respectively.
Correct Choice : a
Solution
Refer to the line in the passage: “The most efficient land crop with 8%
average is sugarcane”. Thus, (a) is the correct answer.
13) As per the passage, which of the following steps have been taken or
can be taken to increase the efficiency of photosynthesis in plants?
1. Reduce photorespiration in plants.
2. Increasing the expression of certain genes
3. Increase the concentration of sunlight over the plants
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) Only 2
d) 2 and 3
Correct Choice : b
Solution
Refer to the line in the passage: “Another way that some other scientists
are trying is to reduce what is called photorespiration in plants”. Thus, 1 is a
step that can be taken to increase the efficiency.
Refer to the line in the passage: “shown in the model plant tobacco where
the scientists could “engineer photosynthesis” by increasing the expression
of three genes involved in processing light”. Thus, 2 is a step that has been
taken to increase the efficiency of photosynthesis.
The passage states that plants use sunlight to make energy-rich molecules
during photosynthesis. It does not say that the intensity of sunlight has an
effect on the efficiency of photosynthesis. Thus, 3 is not a step that can be
taken to increase the efficiency of photosynthesis.
Thus, (b) is the correct answer.
14) As per the passage, what is the end product of photosynthesis?
a) Sunlight
b) Energy-rich molecules
c) Water
d) Foodgrain
Correct Choice : b
Solution
The passage states that photosynthesis is the process wherein sunlight is
used to make energy-rich molecules needed for producing food molecules.
This means that in photosynthesis, sunlight is used to make energy-rich
molecules. Thus, (b) is the correct answer.
15) As per the passage, what percentage of the world’s area is used for
growing crops?
a) 37%
b) 23%
c) 11%
d) 8%
Correct Choice : c
Solution
Refer to the line in the passage: “About 37% of the area of the entire world
is agricultural land, a third of which (about 11%) is used for crops”. Thus,
(c) is the correct answer.
Error Location (16-17)
16) In the question below, a sentence is given, divided into five parts (A),
(B), (C), (D) and (E). One of the parts is grammatically incorrect or has an
error in it. You are required to identify the parts that are grammatically
correct and choose the option accordingly.
Governments increasingly recognize (A)/ that economies can reach (B)/
their full potential only (C)/ with the full participation (D)/ of both women and
men. (E)
a) ABCD
b) ACDE
c) ABDE
d) No error
Correct Choice : d
Solution
(d) is the right answer. The sentence is grammatically correct. It does not
contain any error.
Policymakers around the world already (A)/ recognize that they need to find
a way to (B)/ reopen national economies safely and in (C)/ accordance to
policies to keep the (D)/ COVID-19 pandemic under control. (E)
a) ABCE
b) ACDE
c) ABDE
d) BCDE
Correct Choice: a
Solution
(a) is the right answer. In D, we need to replace the phrase IN
ACCORDANCE TO with IN ACCORDANCE WITH. If something is done IN
ACCORDANCE WITH a particular rule or system, it is done in the way that
the rule or system says that it should be done. The phrase IN
ACCORDANCE TO is incorrect.
Single Fillers (18)
18) In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is

missing. From the given options a combination of words would fit the blank
thereby making it grammatically and contextually correct.
Part of the continuing allure of police action films is the chance to get under
the skin of a criminal, to _______ into an alien world.
1. Peak
2. Glimpse
3. Peek
4. Glare
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4
Correct choice: c
Solution
We need a base form verb to fit in the infinitive construction TO + VERB.
GLIMPSE and PEEK mean to look into or get a view of, and will fit here as
the sentence tells us how police action films allow us to get a view of an
alien world. Thus, (c) is the right answer.
Peak (noun) - summit. Glare - to stare in an angry or fierce way.
Interchanging of Words (19-20)
(19-20) In the question below, a sentence is given with four words

highlighted in bold. From the options, choose the pair of words that should
be interchanged in order to make the sentence grammatically and
meaningfully correct.
19) There was little doubt that the process complained milk safety
by eliminating the diseases that led to so many deaths, but
consumers improved that pasteurized milk was flavourless.
a) doubt – eliminating
b) doubt – improved
c) complained – improved
d) eliminating -- improved
Correct Choice : c
Solution
The sentence tells us that there was little doubt (uncertainty) that the
process improved (bettered) milk safety by eliminating (getting rid of) the
diseases, but consumers complained (expressed dissatisfaction) that
pasteurized milk was flavourless. We need to interchange COMPLAINED
and IMPROVED, as the former will agree with the subject CONSUMERS,
and the latter will link the subject PROCESS with the object MILK SAFETY.
Thus, (c) is the right answer.
(19-20) In the question below, a sentence is given with four words

highlighted in bold. From the options, choose the pair of words that should
be interchanged in order to make the sentence grammatically and
meaningfully correct.
20) The potential of wind power to oppose ecosystems by killing or
disturbing wildlife has been a concern voiced by both environmentalists
and those who more broadly damage renewable energy.
a) potential – oppose
b) potential – damage
c) oppose – voiced
d) oppose -- damage
Correct Choice : d
Solution
The sentence tells us how the potential (capacity) of wind power to damage
(harm) ecosystems by killing or disrupting wildlife has been a concern
voiced (expressed) by both environmentalists and those who oppose
(stand against) renewable energy. We need to interchange OPPOSE and
DAMAGE, as the latter will take the object ECOSYSTEMS while the latter
will take the object RENEWABLE ENERGY after it. Thus, (d) is the right
answer.
Para Jumbled Sentences (21-23)
(21-23)Directions: A set of seven statements is given out of which the 1st

and the 4th statements are fixed (A and D), and the rest are jumbled in any
random order. Rearrange the remaining statements in the right order and
answer the questions.
A. It seems to be a law in the technology industry that leading
companies eventually lose their positions
B. But consumers’ preferences were already shifting towards touch-screen
smartphones.
C. It lost its market share in the space of just a few years.
D. In 2007, Nokia accounted for more than 40% of mobile-phone sales
worldwide.
E. With the introduction of Apple’s iPhone in the middle of that year,
Nokia’s market share shrunk rapidly and revenue plummeted.
F. By the end of 2013, Nokia had to sell its phone business to Microsoft.
G. Mobile-phone champion Nokia, one of Europe’s biggest technology
success stories, was no exception.
21) Which of the following statements will follow A after rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) E
d) G
Correct Choice : d
Solution
(d) is the right answer. AGCDBEF is the correct sequence.
A begins the paragraph by establishing the subject: TECHNOLOGY
INDUSTRY. The sentence seeks to convey that one of the unique trends in
the technology industry is that the leading companies often lose their
dominant position.
G follows A. It shifts the discussion to NOKIA. It tells us that NOKIA was
one such company, which lost its leading position.
C follows G. The pronoun IT refers to NOKIA. It tells us that Nokia lost its
position in just a few years.
D has been given to us as the fourth statement. It tells us that Nokia
accounted for a significant portion of the mobile phone sales globally.
B follows D. It begins with the conjunction BUT, which is used to link
contrasting sentences. It tells us that although Nokia was a dominant force
at that time, consumers' preferences were also changing. The shift towards
touch-screen smartphones was already underway.
E follows B. It tells us that after the launch of Apple’s iPhone, Nokia’s
market share declined rapidly.
F ends the passage by telling us that Nokia finally had to sell its business to
Microsoft in 2013.
22) Which of the following statements will follow D after rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) E
d) G
Correct Choice : a
Solution
(a) is the right answer. AGCDBEF is the correct sequence.
dominant position.
Microsoft in 2013.
23) Which of the following statements will follow E after rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) F
Correct Choice: d
Solution
(d) is the right answer. AGCDBEF is the correct sequence.
dominant position.
Microsoft in 2013.
Error Location (24)
As artificial intelligence and robotic technologies (A)/ advance faster then
even their own developers (B)/ expected, studies are finding that many (C)/
of the occupations that employ (D)/ people can already be automated. (E)
a) ABCD
b) ACDE
c) ABDE
d) BCDE
Correct Choice: b
Solution
(b) is the right answer. In B, we need to replace THEN with THAN. THAN is
used when talking about comparisons; THEN is used when talking about
something relating to time. Here a comparison has been made between the
expected pace of advancement of technologies and the actual one.
Reasoning Ability
Counting of Numbers (25)
25) How many triangles does the figure have?
a) 6
b) 2
c) 5
d) 7
Correct Choice: c
Solution
There are 5 triangles in the figure.
Hence, option c.
Mirror Image (26)
26) If a mirror is placed on the line OR, then which of the answer figures is
the right image of the given figure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Correct Choice: c
Solution
Hence, option c.
Coding – Decoding (Matrix coding)
(27)
27) In the question, a word is represented by only one set of number as

given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the
alternatives are represented by 2 classes of alphabets as in two matrices
given below. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbers from 0-4 and
that of matrix II are numbers from 5-9. A letter from this matrix can be
represented 1st by its row and next by its column. Ex- ‘A’ can be
represented by 20, 79 etc. and ‘B’ can be represented by 11, 67, 96 etc.
Similarly, you have to identify the set of word ‘PREVENT’.
Matrix - I
0 1 2 3 4
0 K H T R E
1 P B C S T
2 A L N G D
3 H K R B M
4 P N F E S
Matrix - II
5 6 7 8 9
5 J R G D W
6 K N B G Y
7 C S W R A
8 N U V P T
9 K B C X D
a) 10, 32, 34, 78, 22, 66, 14

b) 40, 56, 43, 87, 04, 85, 14
c) 40, 56, 43, 87, 04, 58, 14
d) 40, 65, 43, 87, 04, 85, 14
Correct Choice : b
Solution
As the digits of the numbers represented by rows and columns
respectively,
P R E V E N T
10, 40, 03, 32, 56, 04, 04, 22, 66, 85, 02,14,
88 78 43 87 43 41 89
Hence, option b.
Syllogisms (28)
28) Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I,

II, and III assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statement.
Statements:
Some apples are bananas.
No bananas are guavas.
Mostly guavas are grapes.
Conclusions:
I. Some grapes are bananas.
II. Mostly guavas are apples.
III. Some grapes are apples.
a) None follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Conclusion II and conclusion III follow
d) Conclusion I and conclusion III follow
Correct Choice: a
Solution
Following figure can be formed from the statements.
None follows.
Hence, option a.
Inserting the Missing number (29)
29) Select the digit which can replace the ? from the given four alternatives.
8 9 12
4 7 6
3 5 2
9 11 ?
a) 14
b) 16
c) 17
d) 15
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Given
8 9 12
4 7 6
3 5 2
9 11 ?
The pattern is 8 + 4 - 3 = 9, 9 + 7 - 5 = 11, similarly, 12 + 6 - 2 = 16.

Hence, option b.
Alphabet Series (30)
30) A letter series is given below in which some letters are missing. Select
the option that gives the letters that can fill these blanks in that order.
q_rs_uu_rrst_uq_rstuu
a) Rtqur
b) Qturq
c) Rsqur
d) Rtqru
Correct Choice: a
Solution
From option (a),
qrrstuu/qrrstuu/qrrstuu
Hence, option a.
North – South Sitting Row

arrangement (31-35)
(31-35) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in two parallel rows
i.e. Row 1 and Row 2. The persons are sitting in row 1 face south and the
persons sitting in row 2 face north. Each of them works in different
companies viz. Infosys, Wipro, HP, HCL, TCS, Tata, IBM, Samsung, Nokia
and LG but not in the same order. The persons sitting in row I are sitting
exactly opposite to the persons sitting in row 2 and are facing each other.
F works in HP and sits at one of the extreme ends. F sits opposite to the
one who sits second to the left of J. I does not work in Nokia. E sits
opposite to the one who sits second to the right of the one who works in
Tata. H works in HCL. E and J are immediate neighbors. J faces south. C
sits to the immediate right of the one who works in IBM. I does not work in
IBM. Only one person sits between the one who works in Tata and the one
who works in HCL. B works in Wipro and sits third to the right of the one
who works in Infosys. B sits opposite to C. The one who works in LG sits
opposite to G, who works in TCS. A sits opposite to F.
31) Who sits 2nd to the right of D?
a) The one who works in HP

b) The one who works in HCL
c) The one who works in Nokia
d) The one who works in TCS
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Starting Point: Start with placing F and J as, F sits opposite to the one who
sits 2nd to the left of J which means both J and F are not sitting in the same
row.
Clues: E and J are immediate neighbors. J faces south. F works in HP and
sits at one of the extreme ends. A sits opposite to F.
Inference: So, E either sits to the right or left of J. So, we have 2 cases.
Case I: When E sits to the left of J in row 1:
Row - 1 J E A
Row - 2 F(HP)
Case II: When E sits to the right of J in row 1:
Row - 1 E J A
Row - 2 F(HP)
Clues: E sits opposite to the one who sits second to the right of the one
who works in Tata. H works in HCL. Only one person sits between the one
who works in Tata and the one who works in HCL. B works in Wipro and
sits third to the right of the one who works in Infosys. B sits opposite to C. C
sits to the immediate right of the one who works in IBM.
Inference: So, case II is rejected because E sits opposite to the one who
sits 2nd to the right of the one works in Tata which is not possible in case II.
Also, A must be working in Infosys so, that C sits immediate right of the one
who works in IBM.
Row - 1 B(Wipro) J E A(Infosys)
Row - 2 (IBM) C (Tata) H(HCL) F(HP)
Clues: The one who works in LG sits opposite to G, who works in TCS. I
does not work in Nokia. I does not work in IBM.
Inference: So, J must be working in LG so, that G sits opposite to the one
who works in LG. Also, E works in Nokia and I works in Samsung.
The final arrangement is as follows:
Row - 1 I(Samsung) B(Wipro) J (LG) E (Nokia) A(Infosys)
Row - 2 D(IBM) C (Tata) G(TCS) H(HCL) F(HP)
The one who works in TCS sits 2nd to the right of D.

Hence, option d.
32) Who sits opposite to the one who works in Tata?
a) I
b) D
c) B
d) F
Correct Choice: c
Solution
row.
Row - 1 J E A
Row - 2 F(HP)
Row - 1 E J A
Row - 2 F(HP)
who works in IBM.
B sits opposite to the one who works in Tata.

Hence, option c.
33) Who sits 3rd to the left of the one who works in Samsung?
a) E
b) J
c) F
d) D
Correct Choice: a
Solution
row.
Row - 1 J E A
Row - 2 F(HP)
Row - 1 E J A
Row - 2 F(HP)
who works in IBM.
E sits 3rd to the left of the one who works in Samsung.

Hence, option a.
34) Who works in IBM?
a) The one who sits immediate right of A

b) The one who sits 2nd to the right of B
c) The one who sits immediate right of C
d) The one who sits opposite to I
Correct Choice: d
Solution
row.
Row - 1 J E A
Row - 2 F(HP)
Row - 1 E J A
Row - 2 F(HP)
who works in IBM.
The one who sits opposite to I i.e. D works in IBM.

Hence, option d.
35) Find the odd one out?
a) A
b) C
c) D
d) I
Correct Choice: b
Solution
row.
Row - 1 J E A
Row - 2 F(HP)
Row - 1 E J A
Row - 2 F(HP)
who works in IBM.
All are sitting at the extreme ends of the row except C.

Hence, option b.
Logical Inequalities (36)

36) In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the
statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read
the statements and give answer.
Statements: Q ≤ D ≥ E > F; H = F > X ≥ Y
Conclusions:
I. D > Y
II. E> H
a) Only conclusion I is true
b) Only conclusion II is true
c) Either conclusion I or II is true
d) Both conclusions I and II are true
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Given statement: Q ≤ D ≥ E > F; H = F > X ≥ Y
On combining statements, we get,
D ≥ E > F > X ≥ Y and D ≥ E > F = H
Conclusions:
I. D > Y: True (As, D ≥ E > F > X ≥ Y, so, D > Y)
II. E > H: True (As, E > F = H, so, E >H)
Hence, option d.
Syllogisms (37-38)
37) In the question below there are three statements followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Only a few cotton is jean
All jean is shirt
All shirt is trouser
Conclusions
I. Some shirt is not cotton
II. Some cotton is not trouser
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Both the conclusions I and II follow
c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
d) Only conclusion II follows
Correct Choice : c
Solution
Following figures can be formed from the statements.
So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Hence, option c.
38) In the question below there are three statements followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Only group is single
Some group is online
Some online is offline
Conclusions:
I. No single is online
II. All single being offline is a possibility
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Both the conclusions I and II follow
c) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
d) Only conclusion II follows
Correct Choice : a
Solution
Following figure can be formed from the statements.
Since, only group is single is given which means all single is only part of
group so, conclusion I follows.
Hence, option a.
below.
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in eight seats around a
rectangular table such that three persons are sitting on one of the longer
side and three are sitting on one of the shorter side and one is sitting on
other longer and one is sitting on other shorter side of the table. Also, one
of the three who are sitting on longer side and the one who sits alone on
the shorter side are facing away from the table and rest all are facing
towards the table.
P and T are not adjacent to each other. P sits on longer side and S sits
third to the left of P, who does not sit in the middle of the longer side. Two
persons sit between S and W. R and Q are not immediate neighbors of
each other. T faces away from the centre and U sits 2nd to the left of T. Q
sits second to the right of V.
Rectangular Sitting arrangement

(39-40)
39) Who sits immediate right of T?
a) V
b) Q
c) S
d) W
Correct Choice : b
Solution
Starting Point: As, P sits in the longer side of table but does not sit in the
middle of longer side so, start with placing P and S as S sits 3rd to the left of
P so, P either face away or towards the table.
Clues: Two persons sit between S and W. T faces away from the centre
and U sits 2nd to the left of T. P and T are not adjacent to each other.
Inference: So, there are 4 possibilities of P i.e. either P faces away and sit
either of the two seats of longer side or P faces towards and sits either of
the two seats of longer sides. Now, T and P are not adjacent to each other
and T faces outside which means T either sit alone in shorter side or sit in
longer side so, two of the possibilities are rejected here. So, we have left
with two possibilities of P faces away from the table.
Case I: When P sitting immediate right of U:
Case II: When P sits immediate left of U:
Clues: Q sits second to the right of V. R and Q are not immediate

neighbors of each other.
Inference: So, in case II, V must be sitting adjacent to U and Q is sitting
adjacent to S which means R must be sitting adjacent to Q so, case II is
rejected.
Q sits immediate right of T.

Hence, option b.
40) Who sits immediate left of R?
a) U
b) Can’t be determined
c) W
d) P
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Starting Point: As, P sits in the longer side of table but does not sit in the
middle of longer side so, start with placing P and S as S sits 3rd to the left of
P so, P either face away or towards the table.
Clues: Two persons sit between S and W. T faces away from the centre
and U sits 2nd to the left of T. P and T are not adjacent to each other.
Inference: So, there are 4 possibilities of P i.e. either P faces away and sit
either of the two seats of longer side or P faces towards and sits either of
the two seats of longer sides. Now, T and P are not adjacent to each other
and T faces outside which means T either sit alone in shorter side or sit in
longer side so, two of the possibilities are rejected here. So, we have left
with two possibilities of P faces away from the table.
Case I: When P sitting immediate right of U:
Case II: When P sits immediate left of U:
Clues: Q sits second to the right of V. R and Q are not immediate

neighbors of each other.
Inference: So, in case II, V must be sitting adjacent to U and Q is sitting
adjacent to S which means R must be sitting adjacent to Q so, case II is
rejected.
P sits immediate left of R.
Hence, option d.
Ordering & Ranking (41-42)

below.
There are seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G, who secured different
marks in an examination. A secured more than D, but less than G. F
secured more than only B and C. G doesn’t secure the highest marks. The
one who secured the second lowest marks scored 48 and the one who
secured the highest marks scored 78 marks.
41) If C secured 12 marks more than B, then what is the sum of the marks
obtained by B and E?
a) 114
b) 112
c) 116
d) 122
Correct Choice: a
Solution
F secured more than only B and C. A secured less than G who does not
secure the highest marks which means E secured the highest marks.
E(78) > G > A > D > F > B/C(48)> C/B
So, if the marks obtained by C is 12 more than B which means B secured
36 marks so, the sum of B and E is 114(36+78).
Hence, option a.
42) Who secured the highest marks?
a) A
b) B
c) E
d) C
Correct Choice: c
Solution
F secured more than only B and C. A secured less than G who does not
secure the highest marks which means E secured the highest marks.
E(78) > G > A > D > F > B/C(48)> C/B
E secured the highest marks.
Hence, option c.
Months Based Puzzle (43-47)

below.
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V likes 7 IPL teams KKR, RCB, DD,
CSK, SRH, KXIP and RR but not in the same order. They have their
birthdays on 8th of different months viz. January, March, April, June, July,
September and December of the same year but not necessarily in the
same order.
P does not like RCB. V’s birthday does not fall in January. P’s birthday falls
in the month which have 31 days. Q’s birthday month is after P’s birthday
month. U’s birthday falls in the month having 31 days. The one who likes
CSK has birthday in April. Q’s birthday month is immediately before U’s
birthday month. S does not like RR. The ones who like RR and SRH have
their birthday in the month which have 30 days. The one who likes RCB
has his birthday in the month which has 31 days. T’s birthday falls in the
month having 30 days but before September. R has his birthday in
December. V and U like KXIP and KKR teams respectively. V’s birthday
falls before Q’s birthday. V’s birthday is not in June.
43) Who likes SRH team?
a) P
b) S
c) R
d) T
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Starting Point: Start with the direct information we have i.e. R has his
birthday in December. The one who likes CSK has birthday in April.
Clues: P’s birthday falls in the month which have 31 days. Q’s birthday
month is after P’s birthday month. U’s birthday falls in the month having 31
days. Q’s birthday month is immediately before U’s birthday month. T’s
birthday falls in the month having 30 days but before September.
Inference: So, both P and U have their birthday in the month having 31
days which means they have birthday on one of the months among
January, March, July and December but Q’s birthday is after the birthday of
P also, R has birthday in December. Now, Q’s birthday must be in June as
his birthday month followed by birthday month of U who has birthday in
month having 31 days so, U has birthday in July, and P has birthday either
in January or March. T must have his birthday in April.
Months Persons Teams
January P/
March P/
April T CSK
June Q
July U
September
December R
Clues: P does not like RCB. V’s birthday does not fall in January. The ones
who like RR and SRH has their birthday in the month which have 30 days.
The one who likes RCB has his birthday in the month which has 31 days. S
does not like RR. V and U like KXIP and KKR teams respectively. V’s
birthday falls before Q’s birthday. V’s birthday is not in June.
Inference: So, V has his birthday in March because he has birthday before
Q but not in January which means S has his birthday in September. Now, R
must like RCB as the one who likes RCB has his birthday in month having
31 days. Also, S must like SRH as the ones who like RR and SRH have
their birthday in the month having 30 days but S does not like RR.
January P DD
March V KXIP
April T CSK
June Q RR
July U KKR
September S SRH
December R RCB
S likes SRH team.

Hence, option b.
44) Who among the following has birthday in June?
a) The one who likes CSK

b) P
c) The one who likes DD
d) The one who likes RR
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Starting Point: Start with the direct information we have i.e. R has his birthday in
December. The one who likes CSK has birthday in April.
Clues: P’s birthday falls in the month which have 31 days. Q’s birthday month is
after P’s birthday month. U’s birthday falls in the month having 31 days. Q’s
birthday month is immediately before U’s birthday month. T’s birthday falls in the
month having 30 days but before September.
Inference: So, both P and U have their birthday in the month having 31 days
which means they have birthday on one of the months among January, March, July
and December but Q’s birthday is after the birthday of P also, R has birthday in
December. Now, Q’s birthday must be in June as his birthday month followed by
birthday month of U who has birthday in month having 31 days so, U has birthday
in July, and P has birthday either in January or March. T must have his birthday in
April.

January P/
March P/
April T CSK
June Q
July U
September
December R
Clues: P does not like RCB. V’s birthday does not fall in January. The ones who
like RR and SRH has their birthday in the month which have 30 days. The one who
likes RCB has his birthday in the month which has 31 days. S does not like RR. V
and U like KXIP and KKR teams respectively. V’s birthday falls before Q’s
birthday. V’s birthday is not in June.
Inference: So, V has his birthday in March because he has birthday before Q but
not in January which means S has his birthday in September. Now, R must like
RCB as the one who likes RCB has his birthday in month having 31 days. Also, S
must like SRH as the ones who like RR and SRH have their birthday in the month
having 30 days but S does not like RR.
January P DD
March V KXIP
April T CSK
June Q RR
July U KKR
September S SRH
December R RCB
The one who likes RR team has birthday in June.

Hence, option d
45) ___ has birthday in March?
a) V
b) The one who likes KXIP
c) Either T or P
d) Both (a) or (b)
Correct Choice: d
Solution
January P/
March P/
April T CSK
June Q
July U
September
December R
January P DD
March V KXIP
April T CSK
June Q RR
July U KKR
September S SRH
December R RCB
V likes KXIP team and has birthday in March.

Hence, option d
46) How many persons have birthday in between the birthdays of U and P?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) None
Correct Choice: c
Solution
Starting Point: Start with the direct information we have i.e. R has his birthday in
December. The one who likes CSK has birthday in April.
Clues: P’s birthday falls in the month which have 31 days. Q’s birthday month is
after P’s birthday month. U’s birthday falls in the month having 31 days. Q’s
birthday month is immediately before U’s birthday month. T’s birthday falls in the
month having 30 days but before September.
Inference: So, both P and U have their birthday in the month having 31 days
which means they have birthday on one of the months among January, March, July
and December but Q’s birthday is after the birthday of P also, R has birthday in
December. Now, Q’s birthday must be in June as his birthday month followed by
birthday month of U who has birthday in month having 31 days so, U has birthday
in July, and P has birthday either in January or March. T must have his birthday in
April.
January P/
March P/
April T CSK
June Q
July U
September
December R
Clues: P does not like RCB. V’s birthday does not fall in January. The ones who
like RR and SRH has their birthday in the month which have 30 days. The one who
likes RCB has his birthday in the month which has 31 days. S does not like RR. V
and U like KXIP and KKR teams respectively. V’s birthday falls before Q’s
birthday. V’s birthday is not in June.
Inference: So, V has his birthday in March because he has birthday before Q but
not in January which means S has his birthday in September. Now, R must like
RCB as the one who likes RCB has his birthday in month having 31 days. Also, S
must like SRH as the ones who like RR and SRH have their birthday in the month
having 30 days but S does not like RR.
January P DD
March V KXIP
April T CSK
June Q RR
July U KKR
September S SRH
December R RCB
Three persons have birthdays in between the birthdays of U and P.

Hence, option c.
47) Find the odd one out?
a) S
b) V
c) P
d) U
Correct Choice: a
Solution
January P/
March P/
April T CSK
June Q
July U
September
December R
January P DD
March V KXIP
April T CSK
June Q RR
July U KKR
September S SRH
December R RCB
All of them have birthdays in the months having 31 days except S.

Hence, option a.
Distance & Direction (48-49)

below.
Rani started her journey from point ‘P’ and walked 10km eastwards to
reach point ‘Q’ then she turned to her left and walked 3km to reach point ‘R’
and then she turned to her left again and walked 12km to reach point ‘S’.
Again, she turned to her left and walked 3km to reach point ‘T’.
48) If point Z is south west of P and 8km south of point S then what is the
shortest distance between point Z and point Q?
a) 10km
b) 13km
c) 8km
d) 11km
Correct Choice: b
Solution
According to the information given following figure can be formed:
So, the shortest distance between point Z and point Q must be 13 km
according to Pythagoras Theorem
TZ2 + TQ2 = QZ2
5 2 + 12 2 = QZ 2
QZ = 13.
Hence, option b.
49) Point T is in which direction with respect to the point R?
a) South west
b) North west
c) North east
d) South east
Correct Choice: a
Solution
According to the information given following figure can be formed:
Point T is in south west of point R.
Hence, option a.
Alphabets, Numbers, Symbols

sequence puzzle (50-51)
(50-51) Directions: Study the given arrangement of number alphabets,

numbers and symbols and answer the questions based on it.
7O#%H&68@P3E*5I$72B^4&1L
50) In the given arrangement, how many such alphabets are there which
are immediately preceded by a number, which is equal to their alphabetic
positions?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Given series:
7O#%H&68@P3E*5I$72B^4&1L
There is only one such number, which is immediately preceded by a
number equals to their alphabetic position.
Hence, option d.
51) What is the sum of the numbers between ‘H’ and ‘@’ in the given
arrangement?
a) 9
b) 14
c) 15
d) 8
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Given series:
7O#%H&68@P3E*5I$72B^4&1L
The sum of the numbers between ‘H’ and ‘@’ is 14(6+8).
Hence, option b.
Logical Inequalities (52)
52) In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the

statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read
the statements and give answer.
Statements: P ≥ Q ≤ R < S; T ≥ U < S ≤ V
Conclusions:
I. U < R
II. P ≥ S
a) Only conclusion I is true

b) Only conclusion II is true
c) Either conclusion I or II is true
d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Given statement: P ≥ Q ≤ R < S; T ≥ U < S ≤ V
On combining statements, we get,
Q ≤ R < S ≤ V; P ≥ Q ≤ R < S ≤ V
Conclusions:
I. U < R: False (As, U < S > R, we cannot establish the exact relation
between U and R)
II. P ≥ S: False (As, P ≥ Q ≤ R < S, we cannot establish the exact relation
between P and S)
Hence, option d.
Alphabet test (Letter word

problems) (53)
53) How many pairs of alphabets are there in the word ‘EXPLANATION’
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabetical
series?
a) Three
b) Four
c) One
d) Two
Correct Choice: a
Solution
Given word
‘EXPLANATION’ so, there are four such pairs i.e. AE, NL and NO
Hence, option a.
Alphabet-numeric Series (54)
54) Which of the following pair replaces ? in series given.

?, JM12, ?, BW22
a) NH6, FQ17
b) NH7, FR17
c) OH7, EQ16
d) NG7, FR18
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Given series
?, JM12, ?, BW22
N – 4 = J, J – 4 = F, F – 4 = B
H + 5 = M, M + 5 = R, R + 5 = W
7 + 5 = 12, 12 + 5 = 17, 17 + 5 = 22
Hence, option b.
Numerical Ability
Discounts (55)
55) An article is marked up by 120% above its cost price and then sold for
Rs. 1320 after giving 20% discount. Find the cost price of the article.
a) Rs. 600
b) Rs. 750
c) Rs. 960
d) Rs. 840
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Let the cost price of the article be Rs. ‘x’
According to the question,
2.2 × 0.8x = 1320
Or, x = 1320/1.76 = Rs. 750
Hence, option b.
Time & Work (56)
56) Amar is 4 times more efficient than Amish. Both working together can
complete the work in 12 days. Find the number of days taken by Amar to
complete the work alone.
a) 16 days
b) 15.8 days
c) 12.5 days
d) 14.4 days
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Let the efficiency of Amish be x units/day
Therefore, efficiency of Amar = 4x + x = 5x units/day
Total work = (5x + x) × 12 = 72x units
Time taken by Amar to complete the whole work alone = 72x/5x = 14.4
days
Hence, option d.
Ratios & Proportions (57)
57) In a bag there are coins of Rs. 1, Rs. 2, 25 paise and 50 paise in the
ratio 4:2:5:3, respectively. If the total amount in the bag is Rs. 172. Find the
difference between the number of Rs. 1 coins and 50 paise coins.
a) 16
b) 12
c) 18
d) 14
Correct Choice: a
Solution
Let the number of coins of Rs. 1, Rs. 2, 25 paise and 50 paise be 4x, 2x, 5x
and 3x respectively
4x + (2 × 2x) + (5x/4) + (3x/2) = 172
Or, 16x + 16x + 5x + 6x = 172 × 4
Or, x = (172 × 4)/43
Or, x = 16
Required difference = (4x – 3x) = x = 16
Hence, option a.
Time & Distance (58)
58) Two cyclists ‘A’ and ‘B’ are coming towards each other with a speed of 25
km/hr and 30 km/hr. If both of them meet after 48 minutes after starting and both
start at the same time, then find the distance between them at the time they start.
a) 38 km
b) 36 km
c) 42 km
d) 44 km
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Required distance = (25 + 30) × (48/60) = 44 km
Hence, option d.
Algebra (59)
59) If (17/6) + (3x – 14/3) = 5x/2, then find the value of ‘x’.
a) 11/3
b) 16/3
c) 17/6
d) None of these
Correct Choice: a
Solution
{(5x/2) – 3x} = (17/6) – (14/3)
Or, x = 11/3
Hence, option a.
Progressions (60)
60) The 3rd and 7th terms of an arithmetic progression is 143 and 399
respectively. Find its 15th term.
a) 749
b) 865
c) 911
d) 857
Correct Choice: c
Solution
Let the first term and common difference of the series be ‘a’ and ‘d’
respectively
{a + (7 – 1)d} – {a + (3 – 1)d} = 399 – 143
Or, 4d = 256
Or, d = 64
Therefore, a = 143 - 128 = 15
Therefore, 15th term of the series = a + (15 – 1)d = 911
Hence, option c.
Coordinate Geometry (61)
61) Point (2, -1) is midpoint of points A(x, -6) and B(-3, y). Find the value of (x +
y).
a) 11
b) -9
c) 15
d) -14
Correct Choice: a
Solution
{x + (-3)}/2 = 2
Or, x = 4 + 3 = 7
Also, (-6 + y)/2 = -1
Or, y = -2 + 6 = 4
Therefore, (x + y) = 11
Hence, option a.
Areas (62)
62) The ratio of the length to breadth of a rectangular field is 7:4,
respectively. If the total cost of fencing at the rate of Rs. 2.5/m is Rs. 550,
then find the area of the field.
a) 56 dam2
b) 28 m2
c) 28 dam2
d) None of these
Correct Choice: c
Solution
Let the length and breadth of the rectangular field be 7x metres and 4x
metres respectively
Therefore, 2(7x + 4x) = 550/2.5
Or, x = 220/22 = 10 metres
Therefore, area of the field = 7x × 4x = 2800 m2 = 28 dam2
Hence, option c.
Mixtures & Allegations (63)
63) A 18 kg alloy ‘A’ of tin and copper contains 12 kg tin and rest copper.
Alloy ‘A’ is mixed with alloy ‘B’ of tin and copper having the ratio 3:2
respectively. If the ratio of tin to copper in final mixture is 5:3, then find the
quantity of copper in alloy ‘B’.
a) 12 kg
b) 16 kg
c) 10 kg
d) 15 kg
Correct Choice: a
Solution
Let the quantity of tin and copper in alloy ‘B’ be ‘3x’ kg and ‘2x’ kg
respectively
(12 + 3x)/(6 + 2x) = 5/3
Or, 36 + 9x = 30 + 10x
Or, x = 6
Therefore, quantity of Copper in alloy ‘B’ = 2x = 12 kg
Hence, option a.
Data Interpretation (Pie Chart on
Percentages) (64)
64) The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of 1500 players
(boys and girls) from five different states as total number of players from
five states together who participated in Khelo India games.
If out of the total number of players from Haryana and Assam 2/3rd and
3/5th were boys respectively then find the difference between the number of
girls who participated from given two states.
a) 32
b) 12
c) 24
d) 18
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Required difference = {(1/3) × 0.18 – (2/5) × 0.12} × 1500 = 18
Hence, option d.
Profit & Loss (65)

65) A milk seller purchased 20 litres of milk at the rate of Rs. 25 per litre.
While selling the milk, he added 4 litres of water to it and sold the mixture at
the same rate. Find the profit/loss percentage of the milk seller.
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 18%
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Total cost price for the milk seller = (20 × 25) = Rs. 500
Total selling price for the milk seller = (20 + 4) × 25 = Rs. 600
Required profit percent = {(600 – 500)/500} × 100 = 20%
Hence, option b.
Data Interpretation(Pie chart on

percentages) (66)
66) The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of 1500 players
(boys and girls) from five different states as total number of players from
five states together who participated in Khelo India games.
If 10%, 20%, 30%, 40% and 50% of the players from Punjab, Haryana,
Bihar, Assam and Jharkhand won gold medals in games played by them,
then find total number of games held. Only these five states participated.
a) 465
b) 540
c) 395
d) 620
Correct Choice: a
Solution
Required number of games = {(0.10 × 0.24) + (0.20 × 0.18) + (0.30 × 0.14)
+ (0.40 × 0.12) + (0.50 × 0.32)} × 1500 = 465
Hence, option a.
Problems on Numbers (67-68)

67) When the numerator and denominator of a fraction is increased by 7
and 13 respectively the fraction becomes 3/5. Find the fraction if the
denominator is 2 more than the numerator.
a) 3/5
b) 5/7
c) 11/13
d) 7/9
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Let the numerator of the fraction be ‘a’
{(a + 7)/(a + 2 + 13)} = 3/5
Or, 5a + 35 = 3a + 45
Or, a = 10/2 = 5
Required fraction = 5/7
Hence, option b.
68) 60% of a number is 45% of another number. If the sum of the numbers
is 350, then find the difference of the numbers.
a) 50
b) 75
c) 80
d) 45
Correct Choice: a
Solution
Let the numbers be ‘x’ and ‘y’ respectively
0.60x = 0.45y
Or, x/y = 3/4
Therefore, (3 + 4) units = 350
Or, 1 unit = 50 units
Therefore, difference = 4 – 3 = 1 unit = 50
Hence, option a.
Data Interpretation (Tabular Form
on percentages) (69-71)

below.
The given table shows the income (in Rs.) of two persons and their
percentage expenditure (in accordance to their incomes), in four different
years.
Income Percentage Income Percentage

of ‘A’ expenditure of ‘A’ of ‘B’ expenditure of ‘B’
2010 45000 60% 32000 75%
2011 36000 75% 48000 50%
2012 48000 80% 25000 80%
2013 54000 45% 40000 65%

69) Find the ratio of the expenditures of ‘A’ in 2010 and 2011, together to
the savings of ‘B’ in 2011.
a) 4:1
b) 9:4
c) 3:2
d) 7:5
Correct Choice: b
Solution
In 2010:
Income of ‘A’ = Rs. 45000
Expenditure of ‘A’ = 0.6 × 45000 = Rs. 27000
Expenditure of ‘A’ = 45000 – 27000 = Rs. 18000
Similarly,
Incom Incom
e of Expenditu Saving e of Expenditu Saving
‘A’ re of ‘A’ s of ‘A’ ‘B’ re of ‘B’ s of ‘B’
201
0 45000 27000 18000 32000 24000 8000
201
1 36000 27000 9000 48000 24000 24000
201
2 48000 38400 9600 25000 20000 5000
201
3 54000 24300 29700 40000 26000 14000
Required ratio = (27000 + 27000):24000 = 9:4

Hence, option b.
70) Find the difference between savings of ‘A’ in 2013 and expenditures of
‘B’ in 2011 and 2013, together.
a) Rs. 24300
b) Rs. 19500
c) Rs. 18400
d) Rs. 20300
Correct Choice: d
Solution
In 2010:
Similarly,
Incom Incom
e of Expenditu Saving e of Expenditu Saving
‘A’ re of ‘A’ s of ‘A’ ‘B’ re of ‘B’ s of ‘B’
201
0 45000 27000 18000 32000 24000 8000
201
1 36000 27000 9000 48000 24000 24000
201
2 48000 38400 9600 25000 20000 5000
201
3 54000 24300 29700 40000 26000 14000
Required difference = (24000 + 26000) – 29700 = Rs. 20300

Hence, option e.
71) The expenditure of ‘A’ in 2012 is how much percent of income of ‘B’ in 2010
and 2011, together?
a) 60%
b) 56%
c) 54%
d) 48%
Correct Choice: d
Solution
In 2010:
Similarly,
Incom Incom
e of Expenditur Saving e of Expenditur Saving
‘A’ e of ‘A’ s of ‘A’ ‘B’ e of ‘B’ s of ‘B’
201
0 45000 27000 18000 32000 24000 8000
201
1 36000 27000 9000 48000 24000 24000
201
2 48000 38400 9600 25000 20000 5000
201
3 54000 24300 29700 40000 26000 14000
Required percentage = {38400/(32000 + 48000)} × 100 = 48%

Hence, option d.
Time & work (72)
72) ‘A’ and ‘B’ together working with 75% of their efficiencies can complete
a work together in 20 days while ‘A’ alone working with his original
efficiency takes 48 days to complete the same work. Find the time taken by
‘B’ alone (working with his original efficiency) to complete 55% of the work.
a) 10 days
b) 18 days
c) 12 days
d) 15 days
Correct Choice: c
Solution
Let the total work be 240 units
75% of efficiency of (A + B) = 240/20 = 12 units/day
Original efficiency of ‘A’ = 240/48 = 5 units/day
Original efficiency of (A + B) = 12/0.75 = 16 units/day
Therefore, original efficiency of ‘B’ = 16 – 5 = 11 units/day
Required time taken = 0.55 × (240/11) = 12 days
Hence, option c.
Mixtures & Allegations (73)

73) A mixture contains paint and oil in the ratio 11:8, respectively. 20% of
the mixture is taken out and replaced with ‘y’ litres of paint and ‘2y’ litres of
oil such that the ratio of paint to oil in the resultant mixture becomes 8:9.
Find the difference between quantity of oil added and the initial quantity of
oil, in the mixture.
a) 8 liters
b) 5 liters
c) 10 liters
d) None of these
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Let the initial quantity of paint and oil in the mixture be 11x litres and 8x
litres, respectively
{(0.8 × 11x) + y} / {(0.8 × 8x) + 2y} = 8/9
Or, 79.2x + 9y = 51.2x + 16y
Or, 7y = 28x
Or, y = 4x
Or, 2y = 8x
Therefore, quantity of oil added in the mixture = 2y = 8x litres
Initial quantity of the oil in the mixture = 8x litres
Difference = 8x – 8x = 0
Hence, option d.
Partnership (74)
74) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ invested Rs. 2400, Rs. 8000 and Rs. 3200, in a business
together. After 8 months, ‘B’ left and ‘A’ and ‘C’ added 25% more amount of
their initial investments. If the profit received by ‘B’ at the end of the year is
Rs. 12000, then find the total profit received by A, B and C together.
a) Rs. 21320
b) Rs. 25650
c) Rs. 14560
d) Rs. 22840
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Ratio of the profits received by ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’
= {(2400 × 8) + (1.25 × 2400 × 4)}:{(8000 × 8)}:{(3200 × 8) + (1.25 × 3200 ×
4)} = 39:80:52
Therefore, required profit received = 12000 × (39 + 80 + 52)/80 = Rs.
25650
Hence, option b.
Areas (75)
75) The sum of the perimeters of an equilateral triangle and a square is 120
cm. If their perimeters are equal then find the area of the square.
a) 256 cm2
b) 225 cm2
c) 196 cm2
d) 400 cm2
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Let each side of square be ‘a’ cm
Perimeter of the square = 120/2 = 60 cm
Or, 4a = 60
Or, a = 15
Therefore, area of the square = 152 = 225 cm2
Hence, option b.
Simple Interest – Compound

Interest (76)
76) Rs. (x + 200) when invested at 15% p.a. for 8 years gives a simple
interest of Rs. (x + 680). Find the amount received when Rs. (x + 1000) is
invested at 50% p.a. compound interest for two years, compounded
annually.
a) Rs. 5000
b) Rs. 6400
c) Rs. 7200
d) Rs. 8000
Correct Choice: c
Solution
{(x + 200) × 15 × 8}/100 = (x + 680)
Or, 1.2x – x = 680 – 240
Or, x = 440/0.2 = 2200
Required amount received = (x + 1000)(1 + 50/100)2 = 3200(1 + 50/100)2 =
Rs. 7200
Hence, option c.
Averages (77)
77) The average of three numbers (a, b and c) is 320. ‘b’ is 25% more than
‘a’ and 120 less than ‘c’. Find the average of ‘a’ and ‘c’.
a) 330
b) 300
c) 350
d) 280
Correct Choice: a
Solution
b = 1.25a and c = 1.25a + 120
1.25a + 1.25a + 120 + a = 3 × 320
Or, a = 840/3.5 = 240
Required average = (a + 1.25a + 120)/2 = 660/2 = 330
Hence, option a.
Problems on Ages (78)

78) The ratio of the ages of ‘A’ and ‘B’, 8 years ago from now was 3:2,
respectively. If the ratio of their ages 4 years hence form now will be 9:7,
respectively, then find the difference between their present ages.
a) 4 years
b) 8 years
c) 2 years
d) 6 years
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Let the ages of ‘A’ and ‘B’, 8 years ago from now be 3x years and 2x years,
respectively
(3x + 8 + 4) / (2x + 8 + 4) = 9/7
Or, 21x + 84 = 18x + 108
Or, 3x = 24
Or, x = 8
Required difference = 3x – 2x = x = 8 years
Hence, option b.
Percentages (79)
79) In a group of animals (cows + horses), if 40% of cows left and same
number of horses join the group, then the number of horses would have
been 50% more than that of cows. Find the original percentage of horses in
the group of animals.
a) 11.5%
b) 20%
c) 33.33%
d) 16.66%
Correct Choice: c
Solution
When 40% of cows left and same number of horses join:
Let the number of cows be ‘x’
Therefore, number of horses = 1.5x
Total number of animals = x + 1.5x = 2.5x
Now, original number of cows = x/0.6 = 5x/3
Therefore, original number of horses = 2.5x – (5x/3) = 5x/6
Required percentage = {(5x/6)/2.5x} × 100 = 33.33%
Hence, option c.
Comparison on Boats & Streams
(80 – Q1, Q2)
80) In the question, two quantities I and II are given. You have to solve both
the quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and
Quantity-II and choose the correct option.
Quantity-I: Boat ‘A’ can travel 125 km upstream in 12.5 hours and 340 km
downstream in 8.5 hours. The speed of the boat in still water is what
percent of the speed of the current.
Quantity-II: A boat can travel 110 km downstream in 5 hours. If the speed
of the boat in still water is 6 km/hr more than that of current, then the speed
of the boat in still water is what percent of the speed of the current.
a) Quantity-I > Quantity-II

b) Quantity-I < Quantity-II
c) Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
d) Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Quantity I:
Let the speed of the boat in still water be ‘x’ km/hr and the speed of the
current be ‘y’ km/hr
(x - y) = 125 / 12.5 = 10… .. (1)
Also, (x + y) = 34/8.5 = 40….. (2)
On solving equation (1) and (2), we get
Speed of the boat in still water = x = 25 km/hr
Speed of the current = 15 km/hr
Required percentage = 25/15 × 100 = 166.67%
Quantity II:
Let the speed of the current be ‘a’ km/hr
Therefore, speed of the boat in still water = (a + 6) km/hr
According to the question,(a + a + 6) = 110/5 = 22
Or, a = 16/2 = 8
Required percentage = 14/8 × 100 = 175%
Hence, option b.

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TCS NQT Mock – 5

7) In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/ Passive

a) Rising sea levels and extreme weather are threatening Sundarbans.

Para Jumbled Sentences (8)

8) In the question given below, rearrange the sentences in the correct

Phrasal Verbs/ Idioms (9)

9) In the following question, a sentence is given with a phrase or idiom in

10) In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is

11) In the following question , a sentence is given in which an idiom is

a) Sugarcane and 8% respectively.

14) As per the passage, what is the end product of photosynthesis?

Single Fillers (18)

18) In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is

Interchanging of Words (19-20)

(19-20) In the question below, a sentence is given with four words

(19-20) In the question below, a sentence is given with four words

Para Jumbled Sentences (21-23)

(21-23)Directions: A set of seven statements is given out of which the 1st

22) Which of the following statements will follow D after rearrangement?

23) Which of the following statements will follow E after rearrangement?

Error Location (24)

Mirror Image (26)

27) In the question, a word is represented by only one set of number as

a) 10, 32, 34, 78, 22, 66, 14

28) Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I,

The pattern is 8 + 4 - 3 = 9, 9 + 7 - 5 = 11, similarly, 12 + 6 - 2 = 16.

North – South Sitting Row

31) Who sits 2nd to the right of D?

a) The one who works in HP

Case II: When E sits to the right of J in row 1:

Row - 1 B(Wipro) J E A(Infosys)

Row - 2 (IBM) C (Tata) H(HCL) F(HP)

Row - 1 I(Samsung) B(Wipro) J (LG) E (Nokia) A(Infosys)

Row - 2 D(IBM) C (Tata) G(TCS) H(HCL) F(HP)

The one who works in TCS sits 2nd to the right of D.

Case II: When E sits to the right of J in row 1:

Row - 1 B(Wipro) J E A(Infosys)

Row - 2 (IBM) C (Tata) H(HCL) F(HP)

Row - 1 I(Samsung) B(Wipro) J (LG) E (Nokia) A(Infosys)

Row - 2 D(IBM) C (Tata) G(TCS) H(HCL) F(HP)

B sits opposite to the one who works in Tata.

Case II: When E sits to the right of J in row 1:

Row - 1 B(Wipro) J E A(Infosys)

Row - 2 (IBM) C (Tata) H(HCL) F(HP)

Row - 1 I(Samsung) B(Wipro) J (LG) E (Nokia) A(Infosys)

Row - 2 D(IBM) C (Tata) G(TCS) H(HCL) F(HP)

E sits 3rd to the left of the one who works in Samsung.

34) Who works in IBM?

a) The one who sits immediate right of A

Case II: When E sits to the right of J in row 1:

Row - 1 B(Wipro) J E A(Infosys)

Row - 2 (IBM) C (Tata) H(HCL) F(HP)

Row - 1 I(Samsung) B(Wipro) J (LG) E (Nokia) A(Infosys)

Row - 2 D(IBM) C (Tata) G(TCS) H(HCL) F(HP)

The one who sits opposite to I i.e. D works in IBM.

Case II: When E sits to the right of J in row 1:

Row - 1 B(Wipro) J E A(Infosys)

Row - 2 (IBM) C (Tata) H(HCL) F(HP)

Row - 1 I(Samsung) B(Wipro) J (LG) E (Nokia) A(Infosys)

Row - 2 D(IBM) C (Tata) G(TCS) H(HCL) F(HP)