Airbus A320 - Training Supplement

A320 Operational Questions

1. Under what weather conditions would you not be allowed into the ILS
Critical Area with the exception o f aircraft already cleared; i.e. an air-
craft on short final or an aircraft landing/exiting?
a. Less than ceiling 800' and/or visibility 2 miles.
ref AIM 1-1-9 (k)(1)(2)(a)
2. Name the items that the Passenger Brief must address.
a. Smoking.
b. Use o f safety belts and shoulder harnesses
c. Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and
emergency exits.
d. Location of survival equipment.
e. Ditching procedures if required for overwater flights.
f. The normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment installed on
the airplane.
ref FAR Part 91.519 (a)(l-6)
3. When must the passengers be briefed?
a. Prior to each takeoff unless the PIC-determines that the
passenger(s) are familiar with the contents o f the briefing.
b. It may be supplemented by printed cards for the use o f each
passenger containing the required items of 91.519 (b )( 1& 2)( c)
ref FAR Part 91.519 (a)
4. What is the maximum permitted speed for operations under Class B
airspace?
a. 200K.
ref FAR Part 91.117 (c)
5. What is the maximum permitted speed for operations within Class C
or Class D airspace excluding operations within the Class B airspace?
a. 200K.
ref FAR Part 91.117 (b)
6. When operating above FL 350, what has to be accomplished if the
copilot needs to leave their station?
a. The PIC must don and utilize their 0 2 mask.
ref FAR Part 91.211 (b)(l)(ii)(2)

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7. What is the maximum altitude that the A320 may be operated without
use of the autopilot?
a. FL 280.
ref. FAR Part 91 Appendix G Section 1
8. While operating within RVSM airspace and an altimeter vertical error
occurs exceeding 300', what must the operator do?
a. Notify the Administrator.
ref. FAR Part 91 Appendix G Section 6
9. What is the frequency of checking the altimeters while operating
within RVSM?
a. Hourly.
ref. Normal Procedures Checklist, Cruise
10. Unless compliance with FAR Part 91.175 (c)(1)(2) and with the
exception of CAT II &CAT III ops, may you descend below DA/DH
or MDA without seeing the runway?
a. Yes.
ref. FAR Part 91.175 (c) (3)(i-ix)
11. When arriving at an airport in Class D airspace, flying a visual
approach to a runway served by an ILS, do you have to utilize the ILS
system?
a. Yes.
ref. FAR Part 91.129 (e)(2)(i)(ii)

Special Emphasis
12. Positive aircraft control is maintaining stabilized flight through
smooth and positive control inputs. What are some areas that prior
planning or anticipation would play into positive aircraft control?
a. Wake turbulence
b. Windshear
c. Crosswinds
d. Contaminated runways
e. Disengagement of the auto flight systems(s)
f. Terrain clearance
g. TCAS

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Note: Reactive flying versus proactive flying will contribute
significantly to the loss of positive aircraft control.
13. When control is transferred from the PF to the PM, then it should be
in a clear and concise manner utilizing the challenge/response
method. Give example:
__________________________________________.
14. What effect does an AFT CG have on the stall characteristics of an
airplane?
a. As CG proceeds aft, the amount of elevator deflection needed to
stall the airplane at a given load factor will be reduced.
b. If extremely aft, then introduction of the airplane into an abrupt
stall condition may well lead to a flat spin.
15. Do altitude and/or temperature have an effect on an aircraft's stall
speed?
a. Little, indicated airspeed and load factor are the main contributors
16. What is Special Use Airspace?
a. Consists of airspace that wherein activities must be confined
17. Name some Special Use Airspace.
a. Prohibited Areas
b. Restricted Areas
c. Warning Areas
d. Military Operations Areas
e. Alert Areas
f. Controlled Firing Areas
g. Temporary Flight Restrictions
h. Parachute Jump Aircraft Operation.
i. Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA)
j. National Security Areas
18. Name some Special Use Airspace.
a. Prohibited Areas
b. Restricted Areas
c. Warning Areas
d. Military Operations Arease
e. Alert Areas
f. Controlled Firing Areas

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g. Temporary Flight Restrictions
h. Parachute Jump Aircraft Operation.
i. Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA.
j. National Security Areas
19. Are you allowed to operate in Prohibited or Restricted Areas?
a. Yes, if permitted by the controlling agency.
20. Collision Avoidance, i.e. “See and Avoid” is primarily the pilot’s
responsibility. Under IMC (IFR) operations, is it the controller's
primary responsibility to issue traffic advisories?
a. No.
21. What type of aircraft(s) generate the strongest vortexes and in what
configuration?
a. Heavy, clean and slow.
22. What avoidance techniques might be used?
a. Delay takeoff or landing.
b. Keep your descent above the offending aircraft.
c. Know the surface wind direction and velocity.
d. Be aware of crossing traffic.
e. When vortices sink to the ground they tend to move laterally over
the ground @ 2-3 knots in calm conditions.
f. Enroute, vortices descend several hundred feet per minute.
Consider a lateral offset.
23. As determined by the FAA, what are some of the types of Pilot
Surface Deviations that may lead to a Runways Incursion?
a. Takeoff without a clearance.
b. Takeoff on wrong runway or a taxiway.
c. Landing without a clearance.
d. Takeoff or landing below minimums.
e. Takeoff or landing on wrong runway, airport or taxiway.
f. Entered taxiway or runway without clearance.
g. Careless or reckless aircraft operation.
24. What are some preventions that may be used to alleviate runway.
incursions:
a. Read back all runway crossing/hold short instructions.
b. Review airport layouts.

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c. Know signage.
d. Review NOTAMS.
e. Request progressive if unsure.
f. Check constantly for other traffic both airborne and on the
surface.
g. Use at least a taxi light while taxiing.
h. Turn on all lights when crossing a runway.
i. After landing, clear runway as soon as practical.
j. j. Proper radio phraseology.
k. k. Write down instructions.
25. Concerning LAHSO ops, what are some considerations that a pilot
would use prior to accepting a LAHSO clearance?
a. Check available landing distance
b. Slope
c. Runway condition, i.e. no contamination
d. LAHSO combinations at the airport
e. WX
f. MELs
g. Windshear possibility
h. Stabilized approach
i. Touchdown at proper point
j. Familiarity with LAHSO signage
k. Maintain heightened awareness including radio communications
26. In the area of controlled flight into terrain, what would be some
practices that a pilot would employee to alleviate this type of
situation?
a. Good preflight.
b. Monitor flight continuously (If you don’t have something to do,
then you probably do have something to do.)
c. Monitor auto flight systems.
d. Know the route and minimum altitudes.
e. Know the indications and functions of the TAWS.
27. Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a systematic approach to
risk assessment and the incorporation of Threat and Error
Management (TEM).
Name some of the steps involved in ADM.

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a. Recognize the need for the decision.
b. Identify the problem(s).
c. Collect the facts.
d. Identify alternative responses.
e. Weigh the impact of each alternative response.
f. Select then implement the response.
g. Evaluate the effects of your response.
28. During flight operations and you feel pressured to complete a
maneuver or procedure, can you create time?
a. Yes.
i. On the ground, either don't dispatch or set the brake.
ii. In flight.
1. Reduce speed.
2. Take an off course vector or delaying vectors.
3. Reduce ascent/descent rate.
4. Go into holding.
5. Refuse a clearance if necessary.
29. With respect to Crew Resource Management, what are some
examples of good CRM practices?
a. Good briefings.
b. Discussion among both pilots about the flight itself or specific
tasks that may be involved.
c. Both pilots contributing to SA.
d. Recognition of the loss of SA (signs?)
e. Using all available resources both inside and out.
f. Looking for threats to the flight.
30. Prior to takeoff, what is the minimum amount of frost that may be on
the aircraft’s surface?
a. NONE
31. What is the difference between Type I and Type IV de-ice/anti-ice
fluids?
a. Type I is for de-icing and Type IV is anti-icing designed for
aircraft that have a rotations speed of >85Kts.
32. What may affect the properties of Type IV fluid after application?
a. Heavier precipitation (higher moisture content)

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b. Wind
c. Jet blast
d. Aircraft skin temperature is lower than OAT?
33. Where are the procedures for de-icing located?
a. QRH
34. A what point does the holdover times begin?
a. At the beginning of the last application.
35. What is OEB 154/3?
a. Due to a flight guidance software anomaly, the speed memorized
in the SRS target computation is not the current airspeed upon go
around engagement (approximately Vapp), but actually the
airspeed upon engine-out detection (which can be significantly
greater). Normally, the go-around airspeed is that speed
memorized upon initiation or Vapp whichever is higher. In
addition, the go-around speed target is upper limited by the VLS
of the go-around Slats/Flaps configuration +15K.
36. Describe the GA sequence under OEI conditions.
a. Follow the OEI GO AROUND procedure, until the “Gear Up”
order.
b. Landing Gear up SELECT
c. Confirm/Announce “GEAR UP/Flaps”
d. FCU SPEED PULL
e. NAV or HOG mode SELECT
f. At engine acceleration altitude:
i. FCU ViS knob PUSH to LEVEL - OFF
ii. FCU SPEED PUSH or SELECT
c. At Green Dot speed:
i. FCU ALT PULL
ii. THRUST LEVER MCT

NOTE: As OPEN CLIMB mode cannot be engaged at or below 100’ RA,

CAT III operations are not allowed with one engine inoperative.
With OEI, the minimum DH for CAT II operations is 150’.
37. During slat/flap anomaly procedure(s), are AUTO BRAKES
allowed?
a. No, reference QRH

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38. Can the data for LANDING DISTANCE WITHOUT AUTOBRAKE
be readily accessed?
a. Yes, reference QRH

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System Study Questions

1. What are the emergency items in the cockpit?

a. 1 Medical Kit
b. 2 Escape ropes
c. 3 fire items: axe, extinguisher, PBE
d. 4 life jackets
e. 3 Quick-don oxygen masks
f. 2 Flashlights
2. When you turn the mode Selectors to NAV, what are you looking for
on the panel?
a. Ensure that each ADIR has the ability to revert to the batteries by
observing the BAT light illuminating for several seconds.
3. What does the ON BAT light indicate?
a. It is illuminated amber if one or more IR(s) is supplied by the
aircraft battery.
Also illuminates briefly during the beginning of a full alignment
4. What does a flashing white ALIGN light mean?
a. IR alignment fault (aircraft moved during alignment).
b. No present position entered within 10 minutes of NAV selection.
c. Difference of 1’ lat/long between shutdown and entered position.
5. What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate?
a. The respective is in the Align mode.
6. What does it mean when the IR lights are extinguished?
a. Alignment has been completed.
7. How do you fast align an IR?
a. Tum all 3 IR mode selectors OFF momentarily (not more than 5
seconds) and then back on.
8. What does steady illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?
a. A fault affects the respective IR.
9. What does flashing illumination of the amber IR FAULT light
indicate?
a. You have lost the navigation portion. Attitude and Heading may
be recovered in ATT mode.
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10. What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?
a. A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference part.
11. Does turning the IR to OFF also turn off the ADR?
a. Yes
12. Can you turn the ADR OFF and still have the IR?
a. Yes
13. What would be missing on the Captain’s PFD if IR 1 failed or was
turned OFF?
a. Attitude and navigation information.
14. What action would recover the attitude and navigation information?
a. Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector.
15. What information must be input when the IR is in ATT?
a. Input Heading on the IR panel every 10 minutes.
16. With the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the Captain’s PFD?
a. Airspeed and Altitude information
17. What would restore the lost altitude and airspeed information?
a. Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS Switching Panel AIR DATA
Selector.
18. .How do you normally enter Present Position into the IR?
a. Insert the Lat/Long on the MCDU INIT page
Then press Align IRS
19. What does ELAC stand for?
a. .Elevator Aileron Computer
20. How many ELACs on the Airbus?
a. Two
21. What are the functions of the ELAC?
a. Normal aileron, elevator and stabilizer control
b. Alternate pitch
c. Direct pitch and roll
d. Abnormalrattitude.
e. Aileron droop
f. Acquisition of autopilot orders

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22. Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control?
a. Primary - Aileron control (roll)
b. Standby - Elevator I Stabilizer control (backs up ELAC 2)
c. Provides 5’ aileron droop
23. Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 2 control?
a. Primary - Elevator I Stabilizer (pitch)
Standby - Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1)
24. What backs up ELAC 2?
a. ELAC 1,which is backed up by SEC 2, which is backed
up by SEC 1
25. What does SEC stand for?
a. Spoiler Elevator Computer
26. How many SECs are installed?
a. Three
27. What functions are performed by the SECs?
a. Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
b. Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only)
c. Alternate pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only).
d. Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2)
e. Direct roll.
f. Abnormal attitude
28. Under Normal law, what do the 3 SECs control?
a. Primary - Spoiler control (roll)
Standby - Elevator/Stabilizer control (SEC 1 & 2 backup the
ELACs
29. What is the sole purpose of SEC 3?
a. Spoiler control
30. What does FAC mean?
a. Flight Augmentation Computer.
31. How many FACs are installed?
a. Two
32. What are the functions of the FACs?
a. Normal roll (tum coordination and yaw damping).

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b. Rudder trim
c. Rudder travel limit .
d. Alternate yaw
33. Under Normal law, what do the FAC’s provide (YAWL)?
a. Yaw Control - Damping and tum coordination, rudder limiter,
rudder trim)
b. Airspeed Protection Computation (Alpha Prot, high flow limits,
maneuvering speed; PFD speed scale)
c. Windshear protection .
d. Low Energy Warning Protection (“Speed, speed, speed”) .
34. Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes?
a. No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed.
35. What is the computer and priority for the Ailerons?
a. ELAC 1 backed up by ELAC 2
36. What is the computer and priority for the Elevator and Stabilizer? .
a. ELAC 2 BU by ELAC 1 BU by SEC 2 BU by SEC 1
37. How are the flight control surfaces controled and actuated?
a. All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated hydraulically.
38. When is automatic pitch trim available?
a. In flight under Normal law with bank angle less than 33° with or
without autopilotengaged.
39. If the active elevator actuator fails, what occurs? .
a. Control is transferred to the other actuator.
40. How is roll control normally achieved?
a. 1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing.
41. If both FAC's fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?
a. Yes, after slat extension.
42. What is checked on the EVAC panel during the Originating check?
a. CAPT & PURS switch In CAPT position
COMMAND pb is guarded.
43. How would the flight crew command an evacuation?
a. Press the EVAC COMMAND pb
Make a PA announcement
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44. What buses are powered by the emergency generator?
a. AC ESS and AC ESS SHED
b. 2. DC ESS and DC ESS SHED
Note: When landing gear is extended, emergency generator is no longer
powered. This automatically sheds the AC SHED & DC SHED
busses.
45. What does the RAT & EMER GEN red fault light indicate?
a. Loss of AC GEN BUS 1 & 2,
b. Airspeed above 100 knots
c. Emergency generator not supplying AC power
46. .What is the function of the RAT & EMERGEN pb?
a. AUTO - RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1 & 2 are not
powered and airspeed >100 knots
MAN - extend the RAT at any time
47. How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power?
a. 8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension 5 seconds to pressurize
the Blue hydraulic system and power the EMER GEN).
48. What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pb
indicate?
a. Normal AC is lost arid the emergency generator is not supplying
power.
49. When should the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pb be
expected?
a. During the 8 second RAT deployment and power up.
50. What powers the emergency generator?
a. Blue hydraulic power from the RAT.
51. What is the output of the Emergency Generator?
a. 5 KVA
52. Is there another way to deploy the RAT?
a. Yes, from the HYD panel.
53. What is different about this deployment?
a. Blue HYD pressure only - NO generator.

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54. Do pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST pb?
a. No - maintenance function only.
55. What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE pb?
a. The GEN 1 Line Contactor opens and the white OFF light
illuminates.
b. AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE
CONTACTOR.
c. GEN 1 powers 1 fuel pump in each wing tank.
56. When is the GEN LINE 1 procedure used?
a. Smoke procedures
57. What does the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicate?
a. Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting.
58. Besides the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb, will there be any
other indications of avionics smoke?
a. ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and
BLOWER pbs on the VENTILATION panel.
59. Pressing the SYS pb does what?.
a. Inhibits all EGPWS warnings except TERR system.
60. What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pb indicate on the
GPWS panel?
a. Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5.
61. Does this affect the TERRAIN mode?
a. No
62. What does LOG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?
a. Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing.
63. When would you press the FLAP MODE pb?
a. To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with flaps less than 3.
64. What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?
a. Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a landing with LESS
THAN Flap 3.
65. If the TERR mode failed does it affect the basic GPWS?
a. No

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66. What does the CVR record?
a. ACPs and cockpit area microphone.
67. When is the RGDR. normally on in AUTQ?
a. On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to
the aircraft.
b. When at least 1 engine is operating.
c. Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down.
68. How do you record the F/A’s PAs?
a. ACP 3 PA VOL knob out and in the 3 o’clock position.
69. How do you erase the RCDR tape?
a. RCDRON.
b. Aircraft on the ground
c. Parking Brake ON
d. Press the CVR ERASE pb (2 seconds)
70. When does the Digital Flight Data Recorder operate?
a. On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to
the aircraft.
b. When at least 1 engine is operating.
c. Continuously in flight, whether or not 'the engines are operating.
d. Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down.
71. What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?
a. The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent.
72. Does this mean all the passenger oxygen masks have deployed?
a. No, the flight attendants may have to manually deploy some of
the masks.
73. When do the masks automatically deploy?
a. When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet.
74. What method is used to supply passenger cabin supplemental
oxygen?
a. Chemical generators
75. How do cabin occupants activate oxygen flow to their masks?
a. Pull the mask toward the seat.

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76. How long does the PAX oxygen last?
a. Approximately 13 minutes.
77. Where is oxygen stored for the crew?
a. In a single high-pressure cylinder.
78. Above what altitude will the crew oxygen masks provide 100%
oxygen regardless of the position of the N/100% selector?
a. 35,000 feet
79. What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the
CREW SUPPLY OFF light?
a. It opens a valve in the O2 manifold to supply low-pressure crew
oxygen.
80. What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM?
a. The XY would change from amber to green.
81. What indication would you have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal
discharge?
a. The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage
would be missing.
82. Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated
when the mask is stowed?
a. No, you must press the RESET slide switch.
83. How do you call a mechanic?
a. Press and hOld the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on
the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external hom.
84. How do you call the forward flight attendant & what happens when
you do?
a. Press the FWD button
b. Red light appears on the fwd area Call Panel
c. CAPT CALL appears on the FWDF/A indication panel
d. A green light illuminates
e. A low level chime sounds through the fwd cabin loudspeaker
85. What happens when you press the EMER pb?
a. Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels
b. EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels·
c. High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin
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loudspeakers.
86. What happens When the F/A’s initiate an emergency call?
a. The white EMER oN light and amber CALL lights flash.
b. The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs.
c. Three long buzzers sound in the cockpit.
d. System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant systems.
87. How do you command an emergency evacuation?
a. Make a PA then press the COMMAND EVAC pb
88. The RAIN RPLNT pb when pressed does what?
a. Timer applies a measured quantity of rain repellent to the
windshield.
89. When will the RAIN RPLNT pb not work?
a. On the ground with the engines stopped.
90. If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the
ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?
a. The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the gear
is retracted.
91. What is the correct position for the NAV & LOGO switch?
a. Position 2
92. When does the LOGO light illuminate with the switch in 2?
a. Main landing gear strut compression or slat extension.
93. Are the 1 and 2 positions.C9nnected to a single bulb?
a. No, they are separate bulbs.
94. What position should the STROBE switch be in during. preflight?
a. AUTO
95. When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
a. When the main landing gear strut is not compressed.
96. What does the APU MASTER SW pb to ON do?
a. Electrically powers the APU syStem (Blue ON light in pb)
b. ECB performs a power up test
c. APU ECAM page appears (if EXT or ENG GENAC power is
available)
d. APU air intake flap opens

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e. APU fuel isolation valve opens
f. APU fuel pump oPerates (if no tank pumps are on)
97. What happens when you push the APU START pb?
a. Blue ON light illuminates
When APU air intake flap opens the starter is energized
Ignition is turned ON 1.5 seconds after starter is energized
Starter is de-energized and ignition turned OFF at 55% N
Blue ON light in START pb extinguishes
Green AVAIL light illuminates 2 seconds after 95% N or above
99.5% N
APU page disappears from the ECAM 10 seconds later
98. With the APU running -and supplying bleed. air,. how do you shut
it.down?
a. APU BLEED pb OFF
APU MASTER SW OFF
APU will cool down for 60 - 120 seconds and then shut down.
APU inlet door to closes below 7%.
99. What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START pb indicate?
a. The APU at or above 95% and is available to provide electrical
power and/or bleed air.
100. With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green
AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?
a. APU
101. If the APU is running, it is necessary to manually select APU BLEED
OFF prior to APU shutdown?
a. No. When the APU MASTER SW is selected OFF, the bleed air
valve is closed and the APU is allowed to cool prior to shutdown.
102. Must you restart the APU if you inadvertently turn the APU Switch
off?
a. No. If the AVAIL light is on just tum the APU MASTER Switch
back ON.
103. The APU generator can supply 100% load to what altitude?
a. 25,000 feet
104. The APU can supply bleed air to what altitude?
a. 20,000 feet

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105. An amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW pb indicates?
a. The APU has been shut down by other than the normal method
(i.e. auto shutdown).
106. What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pb mean?
a. An APU bleed leak.
107. Does APU air or electric have priority?
a. Electric
108. When does the START switch ON light illuminate?
a. MASTER Switch ON and START Switch pushed. Goes out at
95%.
109. What happens when you press the APU FIRE push button?
a. Silences the Warning! & arms the Squib
b. Shuts down the ApU (sequenced by the ECB)
c. Shuts off the APU fuel pump;
d. Closes the low pressure fuel valve
e. Deactivates the Generator
f. Closes the APU Bleed Valve
g. Closes the Cross Bleed Valve.
110. Will a fire automatically shut down the APU in flight?
a. No.
111. Will the APU Fire Test shut down the APU if pushed?
a. No. But the APU Fire Test switch on the overhead MX panel will.
112. What are the five lights you will see on the APU Fire test?
a. 1 APU Fire Switch
b. 1APU Squib/Disch
c. 2 MASTER WARNING lights (with AC pwr)
d. 1 ECAM APU fire warning (with AC pwr)
e. CRC (with AC pwr)
113. APU fire detections consists of?
a. Two detection loops; One heat sensing element; FDU (Fire
Detection Unit).

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Study Questions
114. A fire warnings triggered if both fire detection lOOpS fail within
what time?
a. 5 seconds.
115. When securing the airplane with the APU running, what position
should the batteries be in?
a. AUTO (i.e. ON) to ensure fire protection.
116. What is different about the operation of the NO SMOKING switch on
N265AV & why?
a. On 265 you must place the switch to ON instead of AUTO like
the rest of the fleet This prevents the NO SMOKING signs from
going out when the gear retracts. However, the emergency
batteries will not charge with the switch in the ON pbsition so
turn the switch to OFF or AUTO at the end of the flight to enable
battery charging
117. When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?
a. With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and Normal AC power
is lost
b. DC SHED ESS BUS not powered
c. Cabin altitude is excessive (above 11,300 feet)
d. NO SMOKING signs illuminated
118. What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails?
a. Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
Overhead emergency lighting
119. What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to
ON?
a. Overhead emergency lighting
b. Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
c. EXIT lights
120. What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
a. All lights OFF
Amber EMEREXIT LT OFF light illuminates
121. What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is
lost?
a. Captain’s Instrument Panel
b. Right Dome Light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)

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c. Standby Compass
122. Is the engine anti-ice part of the normal pneumatic system?
a. No - it is a separate system independent of the pneumatic dueling.
123. When do you use engine anti-ice?
a. When OAT (Ground) I TAT (Flight) is 10° C or below with
visible moisture present, prior to and during descent in icing
conditions (including temperatures below -40° C SAT)
124. What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE pb indicate?
a. Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
125. With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?
a. Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
b. ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE
c. N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator)
d. N1 idle is increased
126. What.shQl.!ld you do if thert'1 is significant engine vibration due to
ice?
a. Increase N1 to 70% for a minimum of 15 seconds prior to
selecting a higher thrust.
127. With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected?
a. Yes, because idle thrust is increased.
128. Can you use the wing anti-ice on the ground?
a. No
129. What happens if you tum the switch on the ground?
a. The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30 second test and will
come on after takeoff.
130. What part of the wing is heated?
a. Outboard 3 slats.
131. When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?
a. On landing
b. Bleed leak detected
c. Loss of electrical power·
132. Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti-ice?
a. No

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133. What does the amber FAULt light in the WING ANTI ICE pb
indicate?
a. Position of the anti-icing control valve is not in the required
position
b. Low pressure is detected
134. In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if
electrical power is lost?
a. Wing - valves CLOSE.
b. Engine - valves OPEN
135. Which exterior aircraft components utilize electrical heating?
a. Cockpit windshields and sliding side windows
b. AOA, TAT, pitot probes, and static ports
c. Waste water drain masts
136. On the ground, with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in AUTO,
when are the probe and mast heaters activated?
a. LOW with at least one engine running (except the TAT probe)
b. HIGH is automatically selected after takeoff
137. What does the PROBEIW1NDOW HEAT pb do when pushed ON?
a. Manually activates the probe, drain mast, and window heaters.
138. With the PROBE/W1NDOW HEAT pb ON will the heaters
automatically switch to AUTO on takeoff?
a. No
139. What does the Ditching pb do?
a. Closes all valves below the water line.
140. Will the DITCHING pb always close the outflow valve?
a. Not if the outflow valve is under manual control.
141. Which valves will a close signal be sent to?
a. (CARPO)
Cargo (aft) outlet isolation valve (if installed)
Avionics Inlet and Extract valves
Ram air inlet
Pack Flow Control valves -
Outflow valve (only if in AUTO mode)

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142. Can the pilot control the outflow valve?
a. Yes, select MAN on the MODE SE l and use the MAN VIS CTl
switch.
143. Approximately what rate of cabin change does 1 click of the MAN
VIS CTl switch produce?
a. 50 FPM
144. How manycontrollers are in the pressurization system?
a. 2, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each
landing.
145. How do you manually switch pressurization controllers? Switch
MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
146. What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pb indicate?
a. Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.
147. The LOG ELEV selector in the AUTO position does what?
a. The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to construct an
optimized pressurization schedule..
148. Where does the pressurization system obtain the landing elevation
from?
a. FMGC database
149. When out of the AUTO position, what is different?
a. The pressurization system uses the manually selected landing
elevation.
150. What is the maximum cabin rate of descent with the pressurization in
AUTO?
a. 750 FPM
151. What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential
pressure?
a. Two pressure relief valves.
152. How many outflow valve motors are installed?
a. 3 - one for each automatic controller and one for manual control.
153. The pneumatic system is monitored and controlled by?
a. Two Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)

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154. If one BMC fails, can the other take over?
a. Yes, they are interconnected. If BMC 1 fails:
APU and ENG 1 leak defection are not monitored
ECAM APU BLEED LEAK waming is lost
155. On the EcAM Bleed page. how do you tell if GND HP air supply is
connected?
a. The GND unit temperature and pressure are indicated on the
ECAM BLEED PRECOOLER #1
156. The PACK FLOW selector has LO. NORM. and HI positions (A320).
What does this allow us to do?
a. Select pack flow rates representing LO 80%. NORM 100%, and
HIGH 120% of NORM according to number of pax and ambient
conditions.
157. What flow rate is automatically selected when APU bleed air is in use
or during single pack operation?.
a. HI (A320)
158. If the engine bleed air in-flight is too low what will occur?
a. Engine speed is automatically increased to provide adequate
bleed air pressure.
159. What would cause an amber PACK FAULT light to illuminate?
a. (PCS)
Pack outlet overheat
Compressor outlet overheat
Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve
Note: FAULT light will be illuminated during preflight as no bleed air is
supplied.
160. What does the amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pb indicate?
a. Bleed leak (APU bleed valve closes)
161. What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG BLEED pb?
a. (DOLO)
Disagreement - APU bleed valve open or Engine Start with bleed
valve not Closed
Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve
Leak/low pressure (wing or engine)
Overheat

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162. What are the two functions of the engine bleed valves?
a. Pressure regulation
b. Shut off valves
163. What is the RAM AIR pb used for?
a. Smoke removal in cabin
b. Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure
164. Ai what cabin differential pressure d0j3s the RAM AIR valve open?
a. 1 PSI P or less.
165. What logic controls the X-Bleed valve when the X-BLEED switch is
in AUTO?
a. When APU bleed valve is OPEN, the X-Bleed valve is open.
b. When APU bleed valve is CLOSED, the X-Bleed valve is dosed.
c. X-Bleed also CLOSES for wing, pylon, or APU duct leak (except
during engine start).
166. What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to automatically dose?
a. (DEEP C)
DITCHING pb is selected
Engine start sequence
Engine FIRE pb on the related side pressed
Pressure upstream below minimum
Compressor outlet overheat
167. What does the amber HOT AIR FAULT light indicate?
a. Duct overheat The Hot Air and Trim Air valves dose
automatically.
168. What is the function of the HOT AIR pb?
a. Controls the hot air pressure regulating valves which controls the
flow of hot air to the trim air valves. This hot air is mixed with the
pack-conditioned air for zone temperature control.
169. How many Zone Controllers are there?
a. 1 (2 channels - Primary/Secondary)
170. How many Pack Controllers?
a. 2 (2 channels each - Primary/Secondary)

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171. Describe how the air Conditioning system controls the temperature in
each zone.
a. Pack output temperature regulation is determined by the zone
requiring the coldest air.
Hot air is added to the individual zones by the trim air valves to
maintain the desired zone temperatures.
172. If the Zone Controller Primary channel fails how are the Packs
controlled?
a. Zones temps are controlled by the secondary channel to 24·C
(76°F).
b. Pack 1 controls the cockpit temperature.
c. Pack 2 controls the FWD and AFt Cabin temperatures.
d. The flow setting function and optimized temperature regulation
are not available.
e. HOT AIR and TRIM AIR valves close.
173. If both channels in the Zone Controller fail, what occurs?.
a. Packs default to fixed temperatures delivered to the mixing unit
of 68° F (20·C) from Pack 1, and 50° F (10°C) from pack 2. The
failure removes all information from the ECAM COND page,
which then displays PACK REG
174. If both channels of a pack controller fail, what will occur?
a. That pack's outlet temperature is controlled by the ant-ice valve
and is stabilized to a temperature between 5°C (41°F)
&30°C(86·F) in a maximum of 6 minutes.
175. If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, what occurs?
a. The affected pack will operate as a heat exchanger.
176. What effect will the engine start sequence have on the pack flow
control valves?
a. The pack flow control valve will close automatically.
177. After engine start with the APU BLEED pb ON, what source is
supplying bleed air to the packs?
a. APU Bleed
178. When does the Lav/Galley Extract Fan operate?
a. Continuously when electrical power is available.

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179. If the Lav/Galley Extract Fan fails, what occurs?
a. Cabin temperature defaults to a set value OF 15°C. Cockpit temp
regulation remains normal.
180. Describe what would happen if cabin altitude were to increase above
8000’ and continue climbing unchecked.
a. At 9,550 (± 350) =cabin altitude warning. At 11,300 =all cabin
signs illuminate.
b. At 14,000=passenger oxygen masks deploy.
181. How is the cabin pressurization schedule set?
a. System controllers are set by the active flight plan in the MCDU.
The QNH entry on the MCDU Approach performance page
refines the depressurization schedule for landing.
182. What indications wOuld you receive for avionics smoke?
a. BLOWER / EXTRACT FAULT fights illuminate, with SMOKE
light on GEN 1 LINE.
183. How is the avionics equipment cooled?
a. Through a heat exchanger.
184. What happens when either the BLOWER or the EXTRACT switch
on the VENTILATION panel is selected to OVRD?
a. Conditioned air is added to the system; Air is extracted directly
overboard via the extract door; and the blower fan is off.
185. By selecting the OVRD push button, can you tum off the extract fan?
a. No. This fan operates continuously.
186. Describe the Avionics Smoke configuration?
a. Inlet valve is dosed; Extract valve is open; Cooling air from the
air conditioning system is added and then exhausted overboard.
187. What is the maximum temp with no time restriction for the Avionics
Ventilation system?
a. 49’C
188. Cargo Heat HOT AIR FAULT indicates?
a. Dud overheat is detected.

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189. What comprises the Cargo Compartment smoke detection
equipment?
a. FWD: 2 loops with 1 smoke detector ori each loop.
b. AFT: 2 loops with 2 smoke detectors on each loop.
190. What are the fire suppression capabilities in the forward and aft
compartments?
a. 1 bottle supplies 1 nozzle in the FWD compartment, and the same
bottle supplies 2 nozzles in the AFT compartments.
191. When performing the Originating checklist, what is the minimum
Battery Voltage?
a. 25.5 Volts
192. What do you do if the BATT voltage is below 25.5V?
a. Select BATT pbs to ON with EXT PWR on aircraft.
193. How long wilt it take to charge the batteries?
a. 20 minutes
194. During the Originating Ch.ecklist, h.ow is th.e. Battery check
accomplished?
a. Select ECAM ELEC page - select
b. Switch BAT 1 & 2 - OFF then ON
c. Check BATT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within
10 seconds.
195. Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the SAT switches in
AUTO after AC power is removed?
a. No. Battery cut-off lOgic prevents complete discharge when the
aircraft is on the ground and unpowered.
196. How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
a. DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor
197. What does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY pb indicate?
a. .At least 1 generator load is above 100% rated output.
198. How does the GALLEY pb work in AUTO?
a. Sheds main galley (A319/320),all galleys (A321), and in-seat
power supply if:
a. Only 1 generator (APU or Engine) is available in, FLIGHT.
b. .Only 1 ENGINE generator is available on the GROUND.
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199. What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pb indicate?
a. A fault is detected by the GCU, and/or
The generator line contactor is open
200. When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT light illuminated?
a. Prior to engine start.
201. What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate?
a. Protection trip initiated by the GCU, or
Opening of the generator line contactor with the APU GEN pb
swat ON
202. When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?
a. APU speed to low
b. Line contactor OPEN after EXT PWR or ENG Generator takes
over
203. What is the function of the BUS,TIE in the AUTO position?
a. Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close
automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2:
b. Allows a single source to power the entire system.
c. Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT PWR to the system
inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously.
204. What does IDG stand for and what is its function?
a. Integrated Drive Generator
Converts variable engine speed to constant speed for optimum
generator operation
205. What does an IDG FAULT light indicate?
a. Oil pressure low (inhibited when N2 < 4%)
b. Oil outlet temperature overheat (above 185°C)
c. Light is inhibited when lOG is disconnected
206. What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?
a. Do not disconnect when the engine is not operating or
windmilling
b. Do not hold button longer than 3 seconds.
c. Only maintenance personnel can reconnect the IDG
207. .What does the AC ESS FEED amber FAULT light indicate?
a. The AC ESS BUS is not powered.

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208. What does the AC ESS FEED pb white ALTN fight indicate?
a. The ACESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2.
209. What is the purpOse of the static inverter?
a. To provide AC power to the ACCESS bus from the battery when
operating in the Emergency Electrical Configuration.
210. What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
a. Battery charging current is outside limits (BAT contactor opens).
211. What are the three times the batteries are connected to the BATTERY
BUS?
a. APU start
b. Battery charging
c. AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered (EMERG ELEC config) and
airspeed below 100 knots
212. What is the priority sequence for electrical power?
a. On-side Engine Generator
b. EXT PWR
c. APU Generator
d. Off-side engine generator
e. RAT Emergency Generator
f. Batteries
213. With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR blue ON
light illuminated, which system is powering the aircraft?
a. EXT PWR
214. What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers on the
f1ight deck?
a. Green - Monitored by ECAM system
Red - Wing tip brake CIS
Yellow - pulled incompliance with prescribed procedure on
battery pwr only
215. Whatdoes.theGalley FAULT light mean?
a. An Engine or APU generator is exceeding 100% of its rated load.

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Note: The Main and Secondary Galley busses do not automatically
shed.
216. When does the Main Galley Shed?
a. When a single generator is supplying pwr (except on the gmd w/
APU or Ext).
217. The loss of GEN1 inflight (APU off) what happens?
a. GEN 2 powers AC bus 1 through the AC Tie Bus.
b. All Busses remain powered (except the Main Galley bus).
218. What does the FAULT on the GEN Switch indicate?
a. GCU detected a fault and tripped it; or the Generator Line
Contact is open.
219. What is the purpose of the Bus Tie switch?
a. The Airnus does not operate with parallel power. The Bus Tie
allows the Generators to pick up the opposite AC Bus in the event
of a generator failure. Additionally, it allows the APUor Ext Pwr
to power both AC Busses on the ground.
220. What does the EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate?
a. External power is connected and checked within limits.
221. If the APU and External power are available, which would normally
power the aircraft?
a. External power. You can switch to APU by deselecting EXT
PWR.
222. Where does the AC ESS Bus get its power from?
a. Normally AC Bus 1. AC Bus 2 if ALTN is selected. Emer Gen
with the loss of AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 2. SAT 1 via the Static
Invertor, if the Emer Gen is not available.
223. With the loss of AC BUS 1 & 2, what do you have and what is
powering it?
a. Prior to RAT extension:
AC 6SS powered by BATT 1 thru Static Inverter
DC ESS powered by BATT 2
(Powered = Capt. PFD, Upper ECAM, RMP 1 and ACP 1 & 2.)
224. After RAT extension (BLUE HYD POWERS EMER GEN):
a. EMER GEN > AC ESS and Shed

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DC ESS and Shed
Powered =Capt. PFO & ND, Upper ECAM, Capt. MCDU RMP 1
and ACP 1 & 2
225. “When the RAT cuts out” RAT below 140’ KIAS (may work down to
125 KIAS)
a. Battery 1 > Static Invertor> AC ESS only.
b. Battery 2 > DC ESS only.
(Powered: Capt. PFD, Upper ECAM, RMP 1, ACP 1 & 2).
226. Below 100 KIAS.
a. Battery.1 > Static Invertor >AC ESS only.
b. DC Bat Bus.
c. Battery 2 > DC ESS only.
d. DC Bat Bus.
227. Below 50 K1AS
a. Battery 1 > DC Bat Bus
b. Battery 2 > DC Bat Bus DC ESS
(NO DISPLAYS are powered.)
228. What happens with a loss of TR 1?
a. DC Bus 1 is powered by DC Bus 2 through the DC BAT Bus; DC
ESS-is powered by AC ESS through the ESS TR and No busses
are lost.
229. On Emergency Electrical power do you have fire extinguishing
capability?
a. Yes. Each engine has only bottle #1.
230. What does selecting ARM on the EMERGENCY EXIT LT switch)
do?
a. Arms the Emergency Exit lights and Path lighting to illuminate
with a loss of AC Bus 1.
b. Arms the Exit lights to illuminate with a loss of DC ESS Shed
Bus.
231. How many fuel pumps are installed (A320)?
a. 2 in each wing tank
b. 2 in center tank
c. 1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the tank pumps are
off

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232. With full fuel, when do the cerlter tank fuel pumps operate (A320)?
a. For 2 minutes after BOTH engines are started (if slats are UP will
continue to run)
b. Continuosly when slats are retracted and fuel in center tank
c. Continue to run for 5 minutes until the center tank is empty or
slats are extended.
233. What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL FAULT light?
a. Failure of the AUTO mode.
b. Center tank contains more than 550 Ib and either main tank has
less than 11,OOOlb.
234. When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks (A320)?
a. When the inner tank quantity reaches 1,650 lb.
235. If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 Ib, what happens to the other
transfer valve?
a. All 4 transfer valves open.
236. Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
a. Automatically at the next refueling operation.
237. How is the IDG cooled?
a. By fuel from the HP fuel pump drawn in from the fuel manifold
and then returned to it’s respective outer tank. When full, the
outer tank spills over to the inner tank.
238. If the IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks, what occurs?
a. The center tank pumps tum off until the wing tank quantity
reduces by 1,100 lbs.
239. What does an amber FAULT light in the FUEL PUMP pb indicate?
a. . Low fuel delivery pressure.
240. If the wing tank pumps fail; is suction feeding possible?
a. Yes - only from the inner wing tank cells.
241. Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another?
a. Only during ground refueling.
242. With full wing fuel what prevents the IDG fuel from overflowing the
wings?
a. Separate full level switches.

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243. Why are the outer wing tanks drained last?
a. Structural wing bending moment relief.
244. 244) When does the APUfuel pump run?
a. When the wing or center tank pumps are not on.
245. What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM indicate?
a. The refueling control panel door is not Closed.
246. What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate?
a. Sotne fuel is unusable.
247. What does a wing tank FAULT light indicate?
a. Low pump delivery pressure.
248. When do the fuel transfer valves open?
a. First inner tank sensor to indicate 1650 Ibs. or less opens both
transfer valves, or on landing (whichever occurs first).
249. How are the transfer valves reset closed?
a. Automatically when the aircraft is refueled.
250. What is the capacity of the outer tanks?
a. 1520 lbs.
251. Explain how the IDG’s are cooled?
a. By excess high pressure fuel passing through the IDG heat
exchanger. After cooling, the fuel is routed to the Outer Tank. If
the Outer tank is full, fuel goes to the Inner Tank. When the Inner
Tanks are full, the center Tank pumps tum off until inner
WingTanks reach 11,000 Ibs. of fuel. Then the Center Tank
pumps automatically restart.
252. What is the fuel system capacity?
a. 42,000 Ibs. (Wing tanks = 27,500 lbs. and center Tank 14,500
Ibs.)
253. What does the amber XX in fuel used indicate?
a. The information is not valid.
254. What does the half box around FOB (upper ECAM) indicate?
a. Total fuel qtty. displayed is not fully usable. Could be caused by
center Tank pumps failing, or Transfer valve failure.

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255. Is normal fuel feed sequencing automatic?
a. Yes.
256. What is the purpose of the Cross feed valve?
a. To permit engine feed from either side.
257. What regulates IDG temp?
a. The FADEC through the fuel return valve.
258. Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic systems?
a. No, you must have at least one.
259. What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pb?
a. The RAT extends providing pressure to the BLUE hydraulic
system.
260. Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?
a. No.
261. How many hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN system?
a. One Engine
b. 1 PTU
262. How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system?
a. 1 Electric
b. 1 RAT
263. How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW system?
a. 1 Engine
b. 1 Electric
c. 1 PTU
d. 1 Hand pump
264. When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate?
a. After the first engine is started
b. If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the MAINTENANCE panel
has been pressed with no engine running,
265. Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of BLUE pressure?
a. No, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN ON pb.
266. If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low, what should you do?
a. Obtain ground clearance, then tum ON the YELLOW ELEC

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PUMP to pressurize the accumulator.
267. When does the PTU operate with pb in AUTO?
a. With a difference of 500 PSI between GREEN and YELLOW
pressure
After first engine start until second engine is started
268. When is the PTU inhibited?
a. PTU pbOFF
b. First Engine start
c. Parking brake is ON and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
d. NWS in towing position and parking brake ON
e. Cargo door operation
269. If the ECAM actions lead you to tum OFF the PTU for a Reservoir
Overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
a. No, not until the overheat subsides.
270. If the ECAM FAULT light in the PTU pb is ON, are there any other
indications on the HYD Panel?
a. Yes, also a FAULT light illuminated in the respective ENG
PUMP pb.
271. Can theYELlOW ElEC PUMP run the PTU?
a. Yes, which will then pressurize the Green hydraulic system.
272. Does operating the cargo door run the PTU?
a. No, it is inhibited.
273. Name several items that run from only the GREEN system?
a. Landing gear
b. Nosewheel steering
c. Normal Brakes
d. Slats and flaps
e. #1 Thrust reverser
274. Name several items that run from only the YEllOW system?
a. Alternate Brakes
b. Parking Brake
c. Cargo doors
d. #2 Thrust reverser

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275. What does anamber FAULT light in the PTU pb indicate?
a. (OLL)
Overtemp in reservoir
Low air pressure in the reservoir
Low quantity in the reservoir
276. What does an amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP pb indicate? .
a. (POLL)
Pump pressure low
Overtemp in reservoir (stays on until condition no longer exists)
Low air pressure in the reservoir
Low quantity in the reservoir
277. What.does a FAULTlight in the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP
indicate?
a. (POllO)
Pump pressure low
Overtemp in reservoir (stays on until condition no longer exists)
Low air pressure in the reservoir
Low quantity in the reservoir
Overheat of the Pump
278. Where are the HYD FIRE SHUTOFF VALVES located?
a. Between the reservoirs and the ENG pumps.
279. What is the function of the hydraulic priority valves?
a. Hydraulic power to the flaps, slats. landing gear, NWsteering, &
emergency generator is cut off if pressure drops below a
predetermined vaiue.
280. What is the purpose of the hand pump?
a. To provide Yellow hydraUlic pressure for cargo door operation.
281. What is the purpose and when will the PTU operate?
a. The PTUallows the Green &lor Yellow system to pressurize the
other system.
b. The PTU does not exchange fluid from the other system, it is a
reversible motor.
c. Differential pressure greater than 500 PSI (w/PTU switch in auto)
activates the PTU.

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282. What does the RAT MAN ON switch do?
a. Extends the RAT and pressurizes BLUE system, it-does not put
the EMER GEN on line.
283. What pressurizes the GREEN system?
a. Engine 1 pump; the PTU (if needed).
284. What important equipment do you irreversibly lose with a GREEN
system failure?
a. Gear retraction; #1 reversor; Nosewheel steering.
285. With the loss of the GREEN system are AUTO BRAKES available?
a. No. Antiskid may be available with YELLOW system pressure.
286. With the loss of both GREEN and YELLOW systems, what brakes
are available?
a. Yellow accumulator will provide 5 to 7 brake applications. Stay
in the green band on the triple indicator (no greater than 1000
PSI).
287. What pressurizes the Yellow system?
a. Engine pump #2; Yellow electric pump; PTU (if needed); Cargo
door.
288. What important equipment do you irreversibly lose with a YELLOW
system failure?
a. Parking Brake; Reversor #2; Cargo Door.
289. What equipment is irreversibly lost with a BLUE system failure?
a. The RAT.
290. When do the Autobrake DECEL lights illuminate?
a. When 80% of the selected rate is reached (5.6 fps low, 9.8 fps
med). It means the combination of reverse thrust, brakes, and
other forces are slowing the airaaft at least 80% of the selected
rate (not that the brake pucks are engaged).
291. Where are the engine fire loops installed?
a. Pylon nacelle
b. Engine core
c. Fan section

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292. What happens if both fire loops fail?
a. If the failure of both loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other,
a FIRE warning will be issued.
293. What does an amber DISCH light mean?
a. The fire extinguisher bottle has lost its pressure.
294. How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine?
a. Two
295. List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pb is pressed.
a. Silences the aural fire warning
b. Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
c. Closes the hydraulic fire valve
d. Closes the LP fuel and engine fuel return valves
e. Deactivates the engine generator
f. Closes the pack flow control and engine bleed valves
g. Disarmes FADEC
296. What occurs when you press the TEST pb cnthe ENGINE FIRE
panel?
a. ECAM FIRE WARNING (if AC pwr avail)
b. CRC sounds (if AC pwr avail)
c. MASTER WARN lights flash (ifAC pwr avail)
d. ENG FIRE pb illuminates red
e. SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate
f. FIRE light on the ENG panel illuminates
297. How many fire extinguishers are provided for the APU?
a. One
298. List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE pb is pressed.
a. Silences the aural fire warning.
b. Arms the APU fire extinguisher squib.
c. Closes the LP fuel valve and shuts OFF the APU fuel pump.
d. Deactivates the APU generator.
e. Closes the APU bleed and crossfeed valves.
299. What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST pb?
a. ECAM FIRE WARNING (1) (if AC pwr avail)
b. CRC sounds (ifAC pwr avail)

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c. MASTER WARN lights flash (2) (if AC pwr avail)
d. APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
e. SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (1)
300. Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is
detected in ground?
a. Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire
extinguisher will discharge.
301. Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is
detected in flight?
a. No
302. What is the AUDIO SWITCHING PANEL used for?
a. Allows for switching to ACP 3 if ACP 1 or 2 fails.
303. Do the pilots use the Maintenance panel?
a. No
304. If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTOEXTING TEST pb what would
occur?
a. The APU will shut down.
305. What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR amber FAULT light
indicate?
a. Duct overheat
306. What does the CARGO HEAT AFT ISOL VAlVE amber FAULT
light indicate?
a. Valve disagreement of inlet or outlet valve.
307. How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo
compartments?
a. 1 bottle, which can be discharged to either compartment.
308. What are the indications when you test the CARGO SMOKE
(2,2,2,2,2)?
a. 2 amber DISCH lights illuminate
b. 2 red SMOKE lights illuminate
c. 2 MASTER WARNING lights with CRC
d. 2 CARGO SMOKE lines on the ECAM
e. Test runs TWICE to check both SDCU channels

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309. What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pb indicate?
a. Both channels detect smoke, or
One channel faulty and the other detects smoke.
310. How many smoke detectors are there?
a. 2 fwd, 4 aft
311. With the CARGO SMOKE warning, what happens to the Isolation
Valve and Extract Fan?
a. Isolation Valve closes
b. Extract Fan stops
312. What is the purpose of the CABIN FANS?
a. To re-circulate cabin air to the mixing chamber and then back to
the cabin.
313. With BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in AUTO, how does the system
operate?
a. Ground - system is in OPEN configuration
b. Flight - system is in CLOSED configuration
c. Intermediate - Closed except Extract Valve is partially open
314. With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in OVRD, what are the
positions of the INLET and EXTRACT valves? .
a. INLET valve CLOSED
b. EXTRACT valve in INTERMEDITE POSITION
315. What fan is OFF in the above situation?
a. BLOWER fan OFF
b. EXTRACT fan ON
316. Is Pdr Conditioning ever introduced into the Avionics Compartment?
a. Yes, in the SMOKE configuration or Abnormal configuration.
317. Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in flight?
a. Yes, during SMOKE configuration.
318. What does a FAULT light on the BLOWERpb indicate?
a. SMOKE Warning is activated
b. Computer power supply failure
c. Low Blower pressure
d. Duct overheat

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319. What does a FAULT light on the EXTRACT pb indicate?
a. SMOKE Warning is activated
b. Computer power supply failure
c. Low Extract pressure
320. With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel, are there any
other indications?
a. Yes, the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 Line pb.
321. What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal
automatic start?
a. The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and
will provide appropriate ECAM cautions &procedures to follow
in the event of a start fault Automatic start interruption and auto-
crank are not available
322. With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START, what occurs when you
press the ENG MAN START pb?
a. The start valve opens
b. Both pack flow control valves close
323. Will the start valve then automatically close?
a. Yes, at 50% N2.
324. When would you use a manual start?
a. After a failed auto start (stall, EGT overlimit, no N1 rotation,
hung start)
b. A mature engine
c. Hotlhigh conditions
d. Low starting air pressure
e. Tail wind
325. How do you perform a manual start?

GLARESHIELD/FCU
326. What does the fed AUTO LAND light indicate?
a. (BLEAD)
Below 200 feet RA:
LOC or GIS signals lost
Excessive deviation (LOC or GIS)
Autopiiots both lost

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Difference of 15 feet between the RAs
327. What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?
a. It illuminates in front of the pilot losing authority.
328. How would you regain control?
a. The last pilot to press the pb on the sidestick will have authority
An aural “Priority Left” or “Priority Right” will sound
329. What does the flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK
PRIORITY lights indicate?
a. Both sidesticks have been moved simultaneously and neither
pilot has taken priority.
330. What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on the
sidesticks?
a. The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits
b. An aural “Dual Input” will sound
c. Green CAPT and FlO lights will illuminate
331. What is the function of the LOC pb?
a. Arms, engages, or disengages the LOC mode
332. When do you press the APPR button?
a. When cleared for the approach.
333. After pressing the APPR button, what do you check for?
a. ILS - Blue LOC and GS in FMA
b. RNAV - APP NAVand FINAL
334. What is the function of the Flight Control Unit?
a. Permits short term interface between the pilot and FMGS
b. Allows temporary modification of any flight parameter (HOG,
SPO, ALT, VIS)
c. Used to select operational modes of the autopilots, flight
directors, and A/THR system
335. What do dashes in the FCU display windows along with the adjacent
white dot indicate?
a. FMGS Managed Guidance is in use
336. How is Selected Guidance engaged?
a. Pull the appropriate selector knob.

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337. How do you confirm all autopilot. FD. and A/THR inputs?
a. Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the FMA
338. Will the FCU Altitude window ever display dashes?
a. No. Pilot selected altitude will always be displayed.

Primary Flight Display

339. What does each column mean on the PFD?
a. A/THR
b. VERTICAL LATERAL
c. APPROACH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA
d. AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS
340. How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
a. A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.
341. HOW are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
a. Blue-armed
b. Magenta - armed because of a constraint
c. Green - engaged
342. When is the side stie!< position indication icon (white cross)
displayed?
a. Displayed when the first engine is started
b. Disappears at liftoff
343. What would the large red arrowheads indicate?
a. Pitch attitude of +300
344. After you input the destination and ILS information into the MCDU,
what do you check for?
a. After the ILS pb is pressed. green light
b. LS frequency and course on PFD
c. ILS identifier once identified
d. LOC and GS scales displayed on PFD
345. What does the MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY in red mean?
a. You are in Mechanical Backup.
346. What does USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM in amber mean?
a. You are in Direct Law

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347. What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated by the green =
signs?
a. Pitch: +300’ up/15’ down
b. Roll: +/- 67’
348. How can you determine you are in Alternate Law?
a. Amber Xs at the pitch (30° UP/15’ DN) and bank (67’) limits
Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the airspeed scale.
349. When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?
a. In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it is now a
blue beta target.
350. What does the yellow spOOd tren< lline on the airspeed display
indicate?
a. The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/
deceleration remains constant.
351. What is the difference between the magenta and blue target
airspeeds?
a. Magenta - Managed speed computed by the FMGC
b. Blue - Selected speed on the FCU
352. What is VLs and how is it displayed?
a. Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate
margin to the stall speed.
Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale
In approach mode is equivalent to VREF
353. What speed does VMfV( represent and how is it displayed?
a. It is the lowest of Vmo/Mmo, Vle, or Vfe
Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed
scale.
354. What is Green Dot speed?
a. Engine-out operating speed in clean configuration
b. Appears when the aircraft is in the dean configuration
c. Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio
355. What is Ground Speed Mini?
a. Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway
b. Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this

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calculated groundspeed.
356. What does it mean when you see the magenta target airspeed triangle
above VAAP on approach?
a. Ground Speed Mini has increased speed due to a higher headwind
component at your present location than what was calculated at
the runway.
357. Is this protection available in Selected speed?
a. No - Managed speed only
358. What would be indicated if the altitude window changed from yellow
to amber?
a. The aircraft has deviated from the FCUselected altitude or flight
level.
359. When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?
a. When slats are extended with the landing gear down.
b. On approach after glide slope capture.
360. What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to
amber?
a. The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the
FMGC.
361. When is Radio Height displayed on the PFO?
a. Below 2,500 feet
362. Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?
a. Captain’s PFD
b. F/O’s NOD
363. What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?
a. Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS display is
not selected.

NAVIGATION DISPLAY
364. What displays .or modes are available on the NO?
a. Rose ILS
b. RoseVOR
c. Rose NAV
d. ARC

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e. PLAN
365. What colors are used to represent the various displayed flight plans?
a. Active - continuous green line
b. secondary -continuous white line
c. Temporary- dashed yellow line
d. A1temate- dashed blue line
e. Missed approach - continuous blue line
366. Top of Descent and Continue Descent arrows are displayed in blue or
white, what is the difference?
a. Top of Descent - Always white (never armed).
b. Continue Descent - Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT
armed.
367. What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?
a. White - constraint is not taken into account
b. Magenta - constraint is predicted to be satisfied
c. Amber - constraint is predicted to be missed
368. If mode range data fails what should you expect to see on the ND?
a. ROSE NAVand 80 nm range.
369. Where is VOR data displayed?
a. Both NDs and the DDRMI

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY
370. What are the three levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications?
a. WARNINGS - Assoc.w/ red MASTER WARN, CRC, & require
immediate action
b. CATIONS - Assoc. w/amber MASTER CAUT, single chime, &
req crew awareness
c. ALERTS - Assoc. w/amber E/WD message, no aural signal, &
requires monitoring
371. If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the
crew?
a. A level three Warning has priority over level two Caution which
has priority over a level one Alert.

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372. What types of failure are presented to the crew?
a. Independent - Failure affecting an isolated system/item without
degrading other systems/items
b. Primary - Failure of a system/item that affects the use of other
systems/items
c. Secondary - Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary
failure
373. Which part of the E/WD would the crew find indication of Primary
failures?
a. On the lower left portion of the screen.
374. What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures?
a. Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the
E/WD and are preceded by an *.
375. What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of
the E/WDscreen indicate?
a. Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must
scroll down using the CLR pb on the ECAM panel.
376. What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?
a. Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary
distractions during critical phases of flight.
377. What types of warnings are NOT inhibited during takeoff?
a. ENGINE FIRE
b. APU FIRE
c. ENG FAIL (ENG SHUT DOWN)
d. ENG OIL LO PR
e. L+R EVEV FAULT
f. A/P OFF
g. CONFIG
h. fWC1+2 FAULT
378. What are the Takeoff Configuration Warnings/Cautions?
a. SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN T.O. RANGE
b. PITCH TRIM NOT IN T.O. RANGE
c. SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED
d. SIDESTICK FAULT
e. HOT BRAKES

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f. DOOR NOT CLOSED
g. PARK BRAKE ON
h. FLEX TEMP NOT SET (unless thrust levers in TOGA detent)
379. When does the Takeoff Memo appear?
a. Two minutes after the second engine is started or when the T.O.
CONFIG TEST pb is pressed with one engine.
b. Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied.
380. When does the Landing Memo appear?
a. Below 2,000’ RA with gear down or 800’ RA with gear up.
b. Below 2,000 feet RA regardless of gear position (aircraft
withnew fWC)
c. Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots)

SYSTEM DISPLAY
381. In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the
SD?
a. Relative to the current phase of flight, or
b. When a system malfunction is detected
382. When is a STATUS page displayed?
a. After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have
been cleared.
b. Display will reappear when the slats are extended.
383. What does the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the SD?
a. The STATUS page holds messages other than CANCELLED
CAUTIONS.
b. Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other
applicable messages.

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL

384. What is the function of the 2 landing Gear Control and Interface Units
(LGCIU)?
a. Provide sequencing, operation, monotoring, and indications fo
rthe landing gear.
b. Provide aircraft ‘In Flight’ or ‘On the Ground’ signals to other
aircraft systems.

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385. What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors.
a. Green
386. After Emergency Landing Gear Gravity Extension, what other system
is affected?
a. Nose wheel steering will be inoperative.
387. Is normal hydraulic power available to the gear after Emergency
Landing Gear Gravity Extension?
a. No
388. When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?
a. Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing
configuration and the landing gear is not locked down.
389. What happens if your airspeed is 280 knots and you place the
Landing Gear lever to DOWN?
a. Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing
gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots.
390. What do the red UNLK lights indicate?
a. The landing gear is not locked in the selected position.
391. What controls the LOG GEAR lights?
a. LGCIU 1
392. If LGCIU 1 fails, will the lights still work?
a. Yes, as long as it is still powered.
393. What controls and manages all braking functions?
a. The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)
394. What happens when you switch the AlSKlO & NIW STRG to OFF?
a. Lose Nosewheel steering
b. Braking is powered by the YeUowsystem
c. Anti-skid is deactivated.
395. Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?
a. Normal brakes - Green
b. Alternate brakes - Yellow backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
396. When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if armed?
a. When the ground spoilers deploy.

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397. What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?
a. LOW- progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after
ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 5.6 FPS.
b. MED - progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after
ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 9.8 FPS
398. What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?
a. Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.
399. What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes?
a. MAX
400. What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on an RTD?
a. Airspeed above 72 knots
b. Thrust Levers at IDLE
c. Ground spoiler extension
401. If you lose Green hydiaulic pressure will you have Auto Brakes?
a. No, not with the Alternate Brake system.
402. Is Anti-skid available with Alternate Brakes?
a. Yes, if certain conditions are met.
403. With spoilers not armed, will the spoilers deploy for an RTD?
a. Yes - when at least one engine is in reverse.
404. How many brake applications are available with accumulator
pressure?
a. Approximately 7 full applications.
405. When should the brake fans be selected to ON?
a. ON when brake temperature exceeds 300’C and OFF when the
temperature decreases to 250’C.
406. What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?
a. Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
b. Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
407. How do you perform the brake check during initial taxi?
a. Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows, and check the
brake pressure on the triple indicator is zero, indicating the Green
hydraulic system has taken over.

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EIS SWITCHING PANEL
408. What computers feed data to the six display units?
a. Three Display Management Computers (DMC)
409. What does each of the DMC's normally supply? .
a. DMC 1- Captain PFD,ND, upper ECAM DU
b. DMC 2 - F/O PFD, ND, lower ECAM DU
c. DMC 3 - Backup
410. How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
a. Adiagonal line will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM
display unit.
411. What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?
a. The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM
display.
412. If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/
WD information?
a. Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer the SD
to either ND.

ECAM SWITCHING PANEL

413. If the UPPER DISPLAY knob was switched to OFF, what would
occur?
a. The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the lower
display.
414. With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you
view SD information?
a. Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM
CONTROL panel you wish to view.
415. How long will this information be available?
a. 30 seconds
416. What does the ALL pb do?
a. Displays ALL the system pages successively in one second
intervals when held down.
b. Release the pb to maintain display of the selected page.

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417. What does pressing the RCL pb?
a. Allows you to recall any warning or caution messages that the
activation of the CLR pb or flight phase inhibition may have
suppressed.
b. If held longer than three seconds, the E/WD will show any
caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pb.
418. If you press the STS pb and the system has no STATUS messages
what will be displayed?
a. “NORMAL” for five seconds
419. If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel which buttons are still
functional?
a. EMER CANC
b. All
c. CLR
d. STS
e. RCL
420. What does the EMER CANC do?
a. Cancels the current Level 1 or 2 warning for the remainder of the
flight.
b. Cancels the current level 3 warning for that occurrence.
421. What do you look for on the FHED check?
a. Fuel- fuel quantity, configuration, and balance
b. Hyd - hydraulic quantity
c. Eng - oil quantity above 12.5 quarts
d. Door - doors closed, slides armed. crew oxygen pressure .
422. What occurs during the Before Takeoff Checklist when the T.O.
CONFIG pb is pressed?
a. The system simulates the application of T.O. power and checks
certain systems for proper configuration.
b. A warning is displayed if a system is not configured property.
c. “TO.CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section
if the configuration is correct.

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TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL STABILIZER
423. How is the THS normally operated in flight?
a. The flight control computers control trim functions automatically
424. If NO hydraulic power is available, can the THS be positioned?
a. No, the THS requires hydraulic power from the Green or Yellow
systems.
425. f a complete flight control computer failure occurs, can the THS be
positioned?
a. Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the
Pitch Trim Wheel.
426. Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working
normally?
a. Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The autopilot
will disconnect.
427. What happens to the THS after landing?
a. The trim automatically resets to zero.

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

428. What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
a. FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)
429. What functions does the FADEC control?
a. (FEES)
Fuel metering
Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
Engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD
Start sequencing .
430. What redundancy does the FADEC have?
a. Dual channel redundancy - one channel is active while the other
is standby.
431. What is the power source for the FADEC?
a. The system has its own alternator making it indeoendent of the
aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value
b. If this alternator faiols, the FADEC automatically switches to
aircraft electrical power.

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Study Questions
432. When will the FADEC abort a start?
a. Hot start
b. Stalled start
c. No ignition
433. If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any crew
intervention required?
a. No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and
attempt a restart
b. (if warranted) automatically.
434. When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?
a. Bleed demands
b. Approach Configuration
c. High engine or IDG temperatures
435. How many igniters fire during a Normal automatic ground start
sequence?
a. One igniter with the other serving as a backup.
b. The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at
each start.
436. How many igniters fire 6n Manual or In-flight starts?
a. Both A and B
437. When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
a. Engine Anti-ice ON
b. Engine flameout detection
c. Failure of the EIU
438. What are the 5 detent positions of the thrust levers?
a. TOGA
b. FLX MCT
c. CL
d. IDLE
e. MAX REV
439. On the ground, how do you arm the A/THR?
a. By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a
FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU).
At least one FD must be ON A/THR to arm during takeoff.

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Study Questions
440. What is the active range of the A/THR?
a. Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines).
b. Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine).
441. What is the normal operational position of the thrust levers when A/
THR is active?
a. The CL detent
442. What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able
to command?
a. The position detent of the thrust lever.
443. What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?
a. A/THR pb
b. Instinctive Disconnect buttons
c. Thrus tLevers to IDLE
444. What is the preferred method of disconnecting A/THR?
a. Set the thrust levers to match the TLA to the existing N1 and
disconnect using the instinctive Disconnect buttpn for 15
seconds.
445. How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?
a. Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect button for 15 seconds.
446. Will you be able to restore A/THR?
a. No
447. What else will you lose?
a. Alpha Floor Protection
448. What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you
reach Alpha Floor?
a. Thrust - TOGA
b. FMA-A.FLOOR
449. What occurs during Alpha Floor protection after speed increases
above Vls?
a. FMA changes to TOGA LK
450. How do you then regain normal A/THR?
a. Move Thrust levers to the TOGA detent
b. Press the Instinctive Disconnect button

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c. Retum Thrust Levers to CL detent
d. Push the A/THR pb to engage A/THR
451. When is Alpha Floor Protection active?
a. From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach
452. When would Thrust Lock occur?
a. Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pb on the FCU is pushed
b. A/THR disconnects due to a failure
453. Explain the Normal start sequence.
a. ENG MODE to IGN/START
b. ENG MASTER to ON
c. Observe Start Valve Open and gray N2 background
d. At 22% N2 HP fuel
e. At 50% N2 starter cutout
f. Approximately 58% gray N2 background disappears
g. Idle at 60%
454. Explain the Manual start sequence.
a. ENG MODE to IGN/START
b. ENG MAN START pb ON
c. At maximum N2 motoring speed (min 20%), ENG MASTER ON
d. Observe AB Ignition, fuel flow increase, EGT and N1 increase in
15 seconds
e. At 50% observe N1 starter cutout and Ignition off.
f. ENG MAN START pb - OFF
455. What controls the engine LP fuel valves?
a. Engine MASTER switch
b. ENGINE FIRE pb
456. What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate?
a. Auto Start Abort
b. Switch disagreement between HP valve and it’s commanded
position
457. What is the rated thrust of each engine?
a. A320 - 27,000 Ib

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Study Questions
TRANSPONDER
458. How many transponders are installed?
a. Two
459. Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of all
transponder capability?
a. No, only the selected transponder has failed

FLAPS/SLATS
460. With only Green hydraulic system pressure available, will both the
flaps and slats operate?
a. Yes, at half speed.
461. What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry?
a. Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
462. What causes the WTBs to activate?
a. (ROAM)
Runaway
Overspeed (flaps)
Asymmetry
Movement (un-commanded)
463. If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still
operate?
a. Yes, only flap operation is inhibited.
464. How may SlaUFlap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?
a. Two
465. What would occur if one SFCC failed?
a. The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.
466. What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS
lever and how do they differ?
a. CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1)
+ flaps
b. CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
c. When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

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467. During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats) will
automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.
468. What is Alpha Lock?
a. This function inhibits retracting flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at a high
angle of attack or low airspeed.
469. When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the upper ECAM display,
what is indicated?
a. Flaps/slats in transit
470. What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
a. The ailerons droop 5’.
471. Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is
inhibited?
a. A320 - Flaps FULL
472. When do the Ground Spoilers automatically extend?
a. Partial - When reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine
with the other at idle and one main landing gear strut compressed
b. Full - At touchdOwn of both main gear, or in case of RTO with
airspeed above 72 knots, when BOTH thrust levers at IDLE(if
ground spoilers armed) or when reverse thrust is selected on at
least one engine with the other thrust lever at IDLE (if the ground
spoilers are not armed)
473. At touchdown with reverse selected and only one landing is
compressed, will the ground spoilers extend?
a. Partially - Full extension is limited until both main gear are
compressed.
474. When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?
a. Thrust levers at idle and speed brake lever is down
b. When at least one thrust lever is advanced above IDLE
475. When is speedbrake extension inhibited?
a. SEC 1 and 3 have failed
b. L or R elevator has failed
c. Flaps in configuration FULL (A319/320)
d. Flaps in configuration 3 or FULL (A321)
e. Thrust levers above the MCT position

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f. Alpha Floor is active
476. In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power
is lost?
a. The spoiler automatically retracts.

RADAR
477. What capabilities does the RADAR system have?
a. Weather avoidance
b. Turbulence defection
c. Terrain mapping
d. Predictive windshear detection
478. What would prevent the weather display on the ND?
a. Mode selector in PLAN
b. TERR selected ON
479. When is WX/TURB mode available?
a. At ranges of 40 nm or less
480. Does predictive windshear detection work when the RADAR system
is switched OFF?
a. Yes, if the Windshear switch is in AUTO.
481. What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection
feature?
a. Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,500
feet AGL.
482. When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?
a. When on the ground above 100 knots until reaching 50 feet AGL.
b. When landing below 50 feet AGL.
483. How many RADAR systems are installed?
a. Two

RADIO MGMT Panel

484. How are the communications radios controlled?
a. From anyone of the 3 RMPs

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Study Questions
485. Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?
a. RMP1
486. Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency
Electrical Configuration?
a. VHFCOM 1, HF 1
487. What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMPs?
a. When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP
is tuned by another RMP.
488. If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto
tune navaids?
a. No - RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers
b. NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
c. Normal radio communication is still available

AUDIO CONTROL Panel

489. With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT position and the
side stick transmit switch keyed, what will you transmit on?
a. The radio selected by its transmission key on the ACP.
490. What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?
a. Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or
mask microphone.
b. The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only.
491. What does the illumination of the CALL light on the VHF or HF
transmission keys indicate?
a. The SELCAL system detects a call.
492. Will the loudspeaker control knob control the loudness of the aural
alert and voice messages?
a. No

MCDU/FlIGHT MANAGEMENT GUIDANCE SYSTEM

493. What are the main components of the FMGS?
a. 2FMGCs
b. 2 MCDUs
c. 1 FCU

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d. 2 FACs
494. What are the functions of the Flight Management Guidance
Computers?
Flight Guidance
Flight Management
495. What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?
a. Independent
b. Single
c. Dual
496. What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?
a. Managed Guidance
b. Selected Guidance
497. What is the Managed mode of flight guidance used for?
a. Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by
the FMGS.
498. What is the Selected mode offlight guidance used for?
a. Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with
the FCU.
499. Does Selected or Managed Guidance have priority?
a. Selected Guidance
500. What type of database is periodically updated in the FMGS?
a. Navigation database
501. Can the crew modify data in the navigation database?
a. The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational
data.
502. How do you determine the validity of the navigation database?
a. On the Aircraft Status page.
503. What input does each FMGC use for position determination?
a. A hybrid IRS/GPS position.
504. What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?
a. Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as
slave.

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505. How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?
a. If one autoPil6fis engaged, the respective FMGS is master.
b. If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1will be the master.
506. If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the
NO what action should the crew take?
a. An FMGS has failed and both NOs must be set to the same mode
and range.
507. Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase ot flight?
a. No, only during an ILS approach.
508. What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in
the MCDU?
a. Large - Pilot entries and modifiable data
b. Small - Default/computed non-modifiable data
509. When would a Takeoff Shift be entered on the PERF TO page?
a. When take off begins at a runway intersection.
510. If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF Page of the
MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what
will occur?
a. A warning will be generated.
b. Continue to move the thrust levers to the TOGA detent and
execute a max thrust takeoff
511. Where do you enter the Zero Fuel Weight?
a. INIT B page
512. What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?
a. An entry is mandatory.
513. What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft
flies into a flight plan discontinuity?
a. NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engages.

Landing Gear & PARKING BRAKE

514. What effect does setting the Parking Brake have on other braking
modes?
a. All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.

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515. When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it re-charged?
a. With the Yellow system electric pump.
516. By what means is the parking brake activated when you tum ON the
Parking Brake switch?
a. Electrically
517. Is it required to depress the brake pedals while setting the Parking
Brake?
a. No
518. How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?
a. ECAM PARKING BRK memo
b. Triple indicator brake pressure
519. If during an engine start with the parking brake ON, the aircraft starts
to move due to a parking brake failure, what must you quickly do?
a. Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore Normal braking
with the pedals.
520. When is the rudder nose wheel steering angle reduced?
a. Beginning at 40 kts. It is progressively reduced to zero at 120 kts.
521. Do you have Nose Wheel Steering after manual gear extension?
a. No.
522. The Red arrow on the landing Gear Selector lever indicates?
a. The landing gear is not down and locked when the aircraft is in
the landing configuration. A RED warning will appear on the
ECAM.
523. The Green gear light indictors operate off which LGCIU?
a. The # 1 LGCIU
524. Can you land with a green and red gear indication on the ECAM?
a. Yes. Only one is required.

AFT PEDESTAL Misc

525. When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the rudder?
a. Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch.

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526. What happens if you tum the Rudder Trim with the autopilot
engaged?
a. Nothing
527. What is the RUD TRIM reset button used for?
a. To reset the rudder trim to 0’.
528. Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged?
a. No
529. Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or
tum coordination functions?
a. No
530. What three things occur when you tum the Mariual Gear Extension
Handle?
a. Removes Green hydraulic pressure
b. Opens gear doors
c. Unlocks the uplocks
531. How many cranks does it take to lower the gear manually?
a. One crank (but three clock-wise turns)

NOSE WHEEL STEERING

532. What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?
a. Green
533. The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in
each direction?
a. +/- 75’
534. When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering
angle begin to reduce?
a. Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero
degrees at130 knots.
535. What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand
wheel do?
a. Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from
the rudder pedals until released.

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536. What would occur if the A/SKID & NIW STRG switch were selected
to OFF?
a. (NAY)
Nose wheel steering is lost
Anti-skid is deactivated
Yellow hydraulic system wq.uldsupply the brakes

FLIGHT CONTROL LAWS

537. What protections do you have in Normal Law?
a. High Speed
b. High Angle of Attack (AOA alpha protection)
c. Load Factor Limitation (+2.5/-1.0)
d. Pitch Attitude (30’ UP/15° DN)
e. Bank Angle (67’)
538. How does the High Speed Protection operate?
a. If Vmo/Mmo plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system
induces a pitchup input to limit aircraft speed.
539. Can the pilot override this pitch-up?
a. No
540. What is Alpha Max?
a. The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, indicated
by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.
541. How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?
a. When the angle of attack exceeds a prot, pitch trim ceases and
angle of attack is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to
exceed a max even with full aft sidestick deflection.
542. What protections do you have in Alternate law
a. Load Factor
b. High speed stability
c. Low speed stability
543. Can you override the high or low stabilities in Alternate law?
a. Yes
544. What protections do you have in Direct law?
a. None

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545. If you are in Pitch Alternate law, what law would Roll be?
a. Direct law
546. When the landing gear is extended, what happens to Pitch Alternate
law?
a. Degrades to Pitch Direct law
547. When is there a direct relationship between sidestick and flight
control surface deflection?
a. When in Direct law.
b. When below 100 feet.
548. How would you get into Abnormal law?
a. By exceeding approximately double the Nonnal law limits.
549. Can you stall the aircraft in Nornal law?
a. Not in Nornal law, but the aircraft can be stalled in all other laws.
550. What is the purpose of Abnornal Alternate law?
a. Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.
551. After recovery from an unusual attitude, what law will you be in?
a. Abnormal
552. Will Abnormal Law revert to Direct Law on landing gear extension?
a. No
553. What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?
a. Green =for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits
b. Amber/black (alpha prot) airspeed tape
554. What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber X's?
a. You are not in Norma Law.
555. What would cause you to revert to another law?
a. Multiple failures of redundant systems.
556. What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the
ground?
a. Normal Law, Ground Mode
557. Can the aircraft be flown with a 10$s of aU flight control computers?
a. Yes, with Mechanical Backup.

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558. How is the airplane controlled in Mechanical Backup?
a. Pitch - Trim wheel (horizontal stabilizer)
b. Yaw - Rudder pedals (rudder)
c. Speed - Thrust levers

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