JEE ADV Chemistry Unit Wise Tests & Sol
JEE ADV Chemistry Unit Wise Tests & Sol
JEE ADV Chemistry Unit Wise Tests & Sol
Unit wise
Practice Tests
CHEMISTRY
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Preface
Competitive examination preparation takes enormous efforts & time on the part of a
student to learn, practice and master each unit of the syllabus.
To check proficiency level in each unit, student must take self-assessment to identify
his/her weak areas to work upon, that eventually builds confidence to win. Also
performance of a student in exam improves significantly if student is familiar with the
exact nature, type and difficulty level of the questions being asked in the Exam .
With this objective in mind, we are presenting before you this book containing unit
tests. Some features of the book are -
a) The complete syllabus is divided into logical units and there is a self-assessment
tests for each unit
b) Tests are prepared by subject experts who have decade of experience to prepare
students for competitive exams
We have put our best efforts to make this book error free, still there may be some
errors. We would appreciate if the same is brought to our notice.
We wish to utilize the opportunity to place on record our special thanks to all faculty
members & editorial team for their efforts to make this book.
Best wishes
Career Point Team
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JEE Advanced
Syllabus: Chemistry
Physical chemistry
General topics: Concept of atoms and molecules; Dalton's atomic theory; Mole concept; Chemical formulae;
Balanced chemical equations; Calculations (based on mole concept) involving common oxidation-reduction,
neutralisation , and displacement reactions; Concentration in terms of mole fraction , molarity, molality and
normality.
Gaseous and liquid states: Absolute scale of temperature, ideal gas equation; Deviation from ideality, van der
Waals equation; Kinetic theory of gases, average, root mean square and most probable velocities and their
relation with temperature; Law of partial pressures; Vapour pressure; Diffusion of gases.
Atomic structure and chemical bonding: Bohr model , spectrum of hydrogen atom, quantum numbers; Wave-
particle duality, de Broglie hypothesis; Uncertainty principle; Qualitative quantum mechanical picture of
hydrogen atom, shapes of s, p and d orbitals; Electronic configurations of elements (up to atomic number 36);
Aufbau principle; Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule; Orbital overlap and covalent bond; Hybridisation
involving s, p and d orbitals only; Orbital energy diagrams for homonuclear diatomic species; Hydrogen bond;
Polarity in molecules, dipole moment (qualitative aspects only); VSEPR model and shapes of molecules (linear,
angular, triangular, square planar, pyramidal , square pyramidal, trigonal bipyramidal , tetrahedral and
octahedral).
Energetics: First law of thermodynamics; Internal energy, work and heat, pressurevolume work; Enthalpy,
Hess's law; Heat of reaction, fusion and vapourization; Second law of thermodynamics; Entropy; Free energy;
Criterion of spontaneity.
Chemical equilibrium: Law of mass action; Equilibrium constant, Le Chatelier's principle (effect of
concentration, temperature and pressure); Significance of llG and llGO in chemical equilibrium; Solubility
product, common ion effect, pH and buffer solutions; Acids and bases (Bronsted and Lewis concepts);
Hydrolysis of salts.
Electrochemistry: Electrochemical cells and cell reactions; Standard electrode potentials; Nernst equation and
its relation to llG ; Electrochemical series, emf of galvanic cells; Faraday's laws of electrolysis; Electrolytic
conductance, specific, equivalent and molar conductivity, Kohlrausch's law; Concentration cells.
Chemical kinetics: Rates of chemical reactions; Order of reactions; Rate constant; First order reactions;
Temperature dependence of rate constant (Arrhenius equation).
Solid state: Classification of solids, crystalline state, seven crystal systems (cell parameters a, b, C, a, 13, V),
close packed structure of solids (cubic), packing in fcc, bcc and hcp lattices; Nearest neighbours, ionic radii,
simple ionic compounds, point defects.
Solutions: Raoult's law; Molecular weight determination from lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling
point and depression of freezing point.
Surface chemistry: Elementary concepts of adsorption (exduding adsorption isotherms); Colloids: types,
methods of preparation and general properties; Elementary ideas of emulSions, surfactants and micelles (only
definitions and examples).
Nuclear chemistry: Radioactivity: isotopes and isobars; Properties of a, 13 and y rays; Kinetics of radioactive
decay (decay series excluded), carbon dating; Stability of nuclei with respect to proton-neutron ratio; Brief
discussion on fission and fusion reactions.
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Inorganic chemistry
Isolation/preparation and properties of the following non-metals: Boron, silicon, nitrogen, phosphorus,
oxygen, sulphur and halogens; Properties of allotropes of carbon (only diamond and graphite), phosphorus and
sulphur.
Preparation and properties of the following compounds: Oxides, peroxides, hydroxides, carbonates,
bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphates of sodium, potassium, magnesium and calcium; Boron: diborane, boric
acid and borax; Aluminium: alumina, aluminium chloride and alums; Carbon: oxides and oxyacid (carbonic acid);
Silicon: silicones, silicates and silicon carbide; Nitrogen: oxides, oxyacids and ammonia; Phosphorus: oxides,
oxyacids (phosphorus acid, phosphoric acid) and phosphine; Oxygen: ozone and hydrogen peroxide; Sulphur:
hydrogen sulphide, oxides, sulphurous acid, sulphuric acid and sodium thiosulphate; Halogens: hydrohalic
acids, oxides and oxyacids of chlOrine, bleaching powder; Xenon fluorides.
Transition elements (3d series): Definition, general characteristics, oxidation states and their stabilities, colour
(excluding the details of electronic transitions) and calculation of spin-only magnetic moment; Coordination
compounds:nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds, cis-trans and ionisation isomerisms,
hybridization and geometries of mononuclear coordination compounds (linear, tetrahedral, square planar and
octahedral ).
Preparation and properties of the following compounds: Oxides and chlorides of tin and lead; Oxides,
chlorides and sulphates of Fe2+, Cu 2+ and Zn 2+; Potassium permanganate, potassium dichromate, silver oxide,
silver nitrate, silver thiosulphate.
Ores and minerals: Commonly occurring ores and minerals of iron, copper, tin, lead, magnesium, aluminium,
zinc and silver.
Extractive metallurgy: Chemical principles and reactions only (industrial details excluded); Carbon reduction
method (iron and tin); Self reduction method (copper and lead); Electrolytic reduction method (magnesium and
aluminium); Cyanide process (silver and gold).
Principles of qualitative analysis: Groups I to V (only Ag+, Hg2+, Cu 2+, Pb2+, Bi 3 +, Fe 3+, Cr3+, AI 3+, Ca 2+, Ba2+,
Zn 2+, Mn2+ and Mg2+); Nitrate, halides (excluding fluoride), sulphate and sulphide.
Organic chemistry
Concepts: Hybridisation of carbon; C1 and TT-bonds; Shapes of simple organic molecules; Structural and
geometrical isomerism; Optical isomerism of compounds containing up to two asymmetric centres, (R,S and E,Z
nomenclature excluded); IUPAC nomenclature of simple organic compounds (only hydrocarbons, mono-
functional and bi-functional compounds); Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections);
Resonance and hyperconjugation; Keto enoltautomerism; Determination of empirical and molecular formulae of
simple compounds (only combustion method); Hydrogen bonds: definition and their effects on physical
properties of alcohols and carboxylic acids; Inductive and resonance effects on acidity and basicity of organic
acids and bases; Polarity and inductive effects in alkyl halides; Reactive intermediates produced during
homolytic and heterolytic bond cleavage; Formation, structure and stability of carbocations, carbanions and free
radicals.
Preparation, properties and reactions of alkanes: Homologous series, physical properties of alkanes
(melting points, boiling points and density); Combustion and halogenation of alkanes; Preparation of alkanes by
Wurtz reaction and decarboxylation reactions. Preparation, properties and reactions of alkenes and alkynes:
Physical properties of alkenes and alkynes (boiling pOints, denSity and dipole moments); Acidity of alkynes; Acid
catalysed hydration of alkenes and alkynes (excluding the stereochemistry of addition and elimination);
Reactions of alkenes with KMn04 and ozone; Reduction of alkenes and alkynes; Preparation of alkenes and
alkynes by elimination reactions; Electrophilic addition reactions of alkenes with X2, HX, HOX and H20
(X=halogen); Addition reactions of alkynes; Metal acetyl ides.
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Reactions of benzene: Structure and aromaticity; Electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration,
sui phonation, Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation; Effect of 0-, m- and p-directing groups in monosubstituted
benzenes.
Phenols: Acidity, electrophilic substitution reactions (halogenation, nitration and sui phonation); Reimer-Tieman
reaction, Kolbe reaction.
Characteristic reactions of the following (induding those mentioned above): Alkyl halides: rearrangement
reactions of alkyl carbocation, Grignard reactions, nucleophilic substitution reactions; Alcohols: esterification,
dehydration and oxidation, reaction with sodium, phosphorus halides, ZnCl2/concentrated HCI, conversion of
alcohols into aldehydes and ketones; Ethers: Preparation by Williamson's Synthesis; Aldehydes and Ketones:
oxidation, reduction, oxime and hydrazone formation ; aldol condensation, Perkin reaction; Cannizzaro reaction;
haloform reaction and nucleophilic addition reactions (Grignard addition); Carboxylic acids: formation of esters,
acid chlorides and amides, ester hydrolysis; Amines: basicity of substituted anilines and aliphatic amines,
preparation from nitro compounds, reaction with nitrous acid, azo coupling reaction of diazonium salts of
aromatic amines, Sandmeyer and related reactions of diazonium salts; carbylamine reaction; Haloarenes:
nucleophilic aromatic substitution in haloarenes and substituted haloarenes (excluding Benzyne mechanism and
Cine substitution).
Carbohydrates: Classification; mono- and di-saccharides (glucose and sucrose); Oxidation , reduction , glycoside
formation and hydrolysis of sucrose.
Amino acids and peptides: General structure (only primary structure for peptides) and physical properties.
Properties and uses of some important polymers: Natural rubber, cellulose, nylon, teflon and PVC.
Practical organic chemistry: Detection of elements (N, S, halogens); Detection and identification of the following
functional groups: hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic),carbonyl (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl, amino and nitro;
Chemical methods of separation of mono-functional organic compounds from binary mixtures.
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Practice Test Syllabus
CHEMISTRY
Unit Test-6 Solution and Colligative Properties, Solid state, Surface Chemistry
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CONTENTS
Test Paper Page No. Test Paper Page No.
12. Revision Test-2 159-174
1. Unit Test-l 1-14
• Paper-1 159
• Paper-2
Paper-1 1
•MajorPaper-2 167
• 9 13. Test 175-188
2. Unit Test-2 15-28
• Paper-2
Paper-1 175
• Paper-1 15
• 181
3.
•UnitPaper-2
Test-3
21
29-42
14. Answer Key 191-196
• Paper-2
Paper-1 29 15. Solution Unit Test-l 197-200
4.
•
Unit Test-4
35
43-58 16. Solution Unit Test-2 201-204
• Paper-1 43
5.
•UnitPaper-2
Test-5
51
59-74
17. Solution Unit Test-3 205-207
6.
• Paper-2
Revision Test-l
67
75-86 19. Solution Unit Test-5 212-214
• Paper-1 75
7.
•UnitPaper-2
Test-6
81
87-100
20. Solution Revision Test-l 215-217
8.
• Paper-2
Unit Test-7
93
101-114 22. Solution Unit Test-7 221-224
• Paper-1 101
9.
•UnitPaper-2
Test-8
107
115-130
23. Solution Unit Test-8 225-228
10.
• Paper-2
Unit Test-9
123
131-146 25. Solution Unit Test-l0 233-236
• Paper-1 131
11.
•UnitPaper-2
Test-l0
139
147-158
26. Solution Revision Test-2 237-240
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-l
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY : Atomic Structure, Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questions (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfar wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section-II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I (Maximum Marks: 28)
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Q.4 Which of the following statements are not correct ?
(A) All C-O bonds in CO~- are equal but not in H 2C0 3
(B) All C-O bonds in HCO Z- are equal but not in HC0 2H
(C) C-O bond length in HCO Z- is longer than C-O bond length in CO~
(D) C-O bond length in HCOZ- and C-O bond length in CO~- are equal
Q.6 Which of the following statements is/are not correct for following compounds ?
(I) SCIz(OCH3)2 & (II) SF 2(OCH3)z
(A) -OCH3 groups in both case occupy the same position
(B) CI-atoms occupy equatorial position in case of (I) & F-atoms occupy equatorial position in case (II)
(C) CI-atom occupy axial position in case of (I) & F-atoms occupy equatorial position in case of (II)
(D) There is one lone pair each in I & II
Q.8 A single electron in an ion has ionization energy equal to 217.6 eV. What is the total number of neutrons
present in one ion of it ?
Q.9 What will be the covalent radius (in A) between Hand F atom in HF ? If radius of hydrogen is lA and the
radius of fluorine is 0.5 A.
Q.I0 He+ ions in its ground state are irradiated with photons of energy 67.15 eV. Electrons ejected from He+
strikes the H -atom in its ground state.
Give the maximum number of spectral lines which can be obtained from de-excitation ofH-atoms.
Q.ll Speed of electron in 4th orbit of a hydrogen like ion is 2 .725 x 10 6 m/ sec . Give atomic
number of ion
Q.12 Determine the energy released due to formation of MgS lattice in kcallmol in nearest possible integers from
the following data.
Morm H (MgS) = - 82.2 kcallmol.
~sub H (Mg) = 36.5 kcallmol.
for Mg, IE, + IE" = 520.6 kcal/mol.
for S8 , ~atom H = 1065.6 kcallmol.
For S, ~eg H, + ~eg H" = -72.4 kcal/mol.
(Give your answer after divided by 100)
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SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks: 18)
• This section contains SIX questions of matching type.
• This section contains TWO tables (each having 3 colurrms and 4 rows)
• Based on each table, there are THREE questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Only one of these four options is correct.
• For each questions, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.15 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
The wave function, 'I'n ,e, m l is a mathematical function whose value depends upon spherical polar coordinates
(r, e, cp) of the electron and characterized by the quantum numbers n, e and m, Here r is distance form nucleus, e is
colatitude and cp is azimuth. In the mathematical functions given in the Table, Z is atomic number and 110 is Bohr radius
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
(I) 1s orbital (P)
(i) 'I'n ,f, m oc ( ~a J~ J~:)
(' 'I:'f
t
o
1\
E
§
..:
-- -
C
~
0
,~. '" r / ao
(II) 2s orbital (ii) One radial node :v/ (Q) Probability density at nucleus
I
oc -
<. a 30
(III) 2pz orbital ~ (R) Probability density is maximum
(iii) 'l'n 1 m
" I
OC ( ~
a
Yre - 2a,
o
( Zr )
cose at nucleus
(IV) 3d/ orbital (iv) xy- plane is a nodal plane (S) Energy needed to excite electron from
27 .. h
r\~\
n = 2 state to n = 4 state times t e
IS -
V 32
energy needed to excite electron from
n = 2 state to n = 6 state
Q.13 For the given orbital in Colurrm 1, the only CORRECT combination for any hydrogen-like species is
(A) (III) (iii) (P) (B) (II) (ii) (P) (C) (IV) (iv) (R) (D) (I) (ii) (S)
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Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
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II" work
SpaC8 for roup"
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Paper-l [OMR SHEET]
Correct
•
Do Not make any stray
marks In the form
I
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G) G) G) G) G)s
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'J) 'J) 7 'J) 'J)'J)
Paper -I
Paper -2
Medium
0
0
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters)
Damaged form IS
liable to be rejected
® ® ® ® ®§) Hindi 0 Examination Centre (In Capital Letters)
® ® ® ® ®2> English 0
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
1·0 ® © ® 1. 0 ® © @ 1·0 ® © ®
2·0 ® © ® 2·0 ® © @ 2·0 ® © ®
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Section II Section II Section II
8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @
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® ® CD CD ® ® ® CD CD ® CD ® ® CD CD
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(3)(3) 0 0 (3) (3) (3) 0 0 (3) (3) (3) 0 0
(3)
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-l
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY : Atomic Structure, Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding
A. GENERAL :
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
•
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO Incorrect option Is darkened.
SECTION - III
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct aptian. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -II (co!umn matching type), Section-III (inc!ude integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
(A)O +
s
0
s
CBl 0 + ~ (C) C::X:::>+ c::x:::>
p p
s p p p
Q.2 Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur. Yet H 2S is acidic while H 20 is neutral. This is because -
(A) Water is a highly associated compound
(B) Molecular mass ofH 2S is more than that of H 20
(C) H 2S is gaseous under ordinary conditions while H 20 is a liquid
(D) H-S bond is weaker than H-O bond
Q.3 An ion with mass number 56 contains 3 units of positive charge if ion contains 30.4 % more neutrons than
electrons. Identify the symbol of the ion -
(A) i~Al+3 (B) ~~SC +3 (C) ~~Fe+3 (D) i~Ti +3
Q.5 An electron is accelerated from a very low velocity (- zero speed) by the application of a potential difference
of V volts. If the de Broglie wavelength should change (i.e., decrease) by 1.0% what percent increase in V
causes it-
(A) 0.5% (B) 1% (C) 1.5% (D) 2%
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SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)
• The section contains SEVEN questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks + 1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened
Zero Marks o If none of the bubble is darkened.
Negative Marks -2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a wrong
option is also darkened.
Q.I0 An element M forms M2+ ion which has the electronic configuration Is2 2s2 p6 3s2 p6 d3 it is-
(A) That of an element in III group of periodic table (B) That of an element ofiV group of periodic table.
(C) That ofan element of V group of periodic table (D) That ofa transition metal
Q.ll Which of the following statement (s) is (are) correct?
(A) The electronic configuration ofCr is [Ar]3d5 4s'.(Atomic No. ofCr = 24)
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value
(C) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type. (Atomic No. of Ag = 47)
(D) The oxidationstateofnitrogeninHN3is -3
Q.12 n= 3 -1r------r1--
31
n=2--+----.1-2~--~~
n=I--~--~--------
For above transitions in hydrogen like atoms, select the correct relation( s) -
(A) V3 = VI + V2 (B) V3 = I 2
V V (C) 1..3 = AI + 1..2
VI +V2
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Q.l4 The angular momentum of electron can have the value(s) :
(A) O.S.!: (B) .!: (C) ~ (D) 2.S~
1t 1t O.S1t 21t
PARAGRAPHl
Consider the following two electronic transitions possibilities in a hydrogen atom
_ _.I.
t-
---r--,---- n = 3
---+--t
_ _L_ _ _ _
n= 2
n= I
Q.lS The ratio of 8E3 ... 2 to 8E3 ... I [8E x ... y = energy change for transition from x to y]
W~ ~)~ ~)12.1 ~~
12.1 12.2 1.9 1.2
Q.l6 What is true about wavelength & frequencies for the emitted radiation
(A) Frequency & wavelength are additive of emitted spectrum
(B) Frequency are additive but not wavelength
(C) Neither frequency nor wavelengths are additive
(D) Wavelength are additive but not frequency
PARAGRAPH 2
Four elements P, Q, Rand S have ground state electronic configuration as-
p ~ 1s2 2S2 2l3s 2 3p3
Q ~ Is2 2S2 2p6 3s2 3p'
R ~ Is2 2S2 2p6 3s 23p6 3dlO 4s2 4p3
S ~ Is2 2S2 2p6 3s23p6 3plO 4s2 4pl
Q.l7 Comment which of the following option represent the correct order of true (T) & false (F) statement.
I size ofP < size ofQ
II size of R < size of S
III size ofP < size ofR (appreciable difference)
IV size ofQ < size ofS (appreciable difference)
(A) TTTT (B) TTTF (C) FFTT (D) TIFF
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Paper-2 [OMR SHEET]
Medium
0
0 Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters)
Damaged form IS
liable to be rejected
®®®®® Hindi 0 Examination Centre (In Capital Letters)
® ® ® ® ®9 Engli sh 0
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
1·0 ® © ® 1·0 ® © @ 1·0 ® © ®
2·0 ® © ® 2·0 ® © @ 2·0 ® © @
3·0 ® © ® 3·0 ® © @ 3·0 ® © ®
4·0 ® © ® 4·0 ® © @ 4·0 ® © @
5·0 ® © ® 5·0 ® © ® 5·0 ® © ®
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-2
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Basic concept of chemistry, Redox & Volumatric Analysis, Hydrogen and its Compound
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - 11/
5. Bosed on Table Matching type questions (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfar wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
Q.l A sample of H20 2 solution labelled as "28 volume" has density of 26.5 giL. Mark the correct option(s)
representing concentration of same solution in other units:
w
(A) MH 0
2 2
= 2.5 (B) %-=17
v
(C) Mole fraction ofH20 2 = 0.2 (D) m H20 2 = 13.88
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Q.7 1.2 kg of iron pyrites (FeS2) are roasted to convert sulphur in (FeS2) to S02 with 80% efficiency. It is then
oxidised to S03 which is then absorbed in H20 to give H2S04. If the maximum & minimum possible
efficiencies are 60% & 30% respectively for any of these two steps, which of the following amounts of
H2S04 could possibly be obtained? (Fe = 56, S = 32)
(A) 1.44 (B) 2.88 (C) 5.76 (D) 9.6
Q.8 The ratio of concentration of NH3 in H20 to the concentration of NH3 in CHCI3 at 290 K is 24 at any
pressure. Through one litre of pure water ammonia gas was passed , the concentration ofNH3 was measured
2
to be 0.38 (M). To this solution 0.025 moles of CUS04 was added. In NH3 solution all Cu + ions form the
complex Cu (NH3);+ . Now over this solution one litre of CHCb was added , thoroughly shaken and
equilibrated. In CHCh layer, Cu(NH 3);+ was absent but in CHCb the concentration ofNH 3 was reduced to
0.0112 (M) at 290 K. Determine the value ofx in nearest possible integers.
Q.9 An acid 'A' is 0.4 N. In a neutralization process 50 ml of 'A' is mixed with 30 ml of sodium carbonate
solution (42.49/litre) and 10 mL of the resulting solution is diluted to 50 mL and then 5 mL of this solution
(B) is completely neutralised with certain volume of 40 times diluted solution of (A). find the volume of
diluted solution. of (A) required for the neutralization ofB (in mL)
Q.IO 0.7 g of a sample of Na2C0 3·xH 20 were dissolved in water and the volume was made to 100 m!. 20 ml of
this solution required 19.8 ml of Nil 0 HCI for complete neutralization. The value ofx is.
Q.ll One mole of N2H4 loses ten moles of electrons to form a new compound Y. Assuming that all the nitrogen
appears in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of nitrogen in Y ? (There is no change in the
oxidation state of hydrogen).
Q.12 Atomic weight of Al on a non-conventional scale is found to be 18 while on conventional scale, it is 27. On
the new scale an amu is defined as (~) lh part by weight of C-12. Here x is.
SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks: 18)
• This section contains SIX questions of matching type.
• This section contains TWO tables (each having 3 columns and 4 rows)
• Based on each table, there are THREE questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Only one of these four options is correct.
• For each questions, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : -I In all other cases.
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Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
, -
Column-l Column-2 .' Column-3
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
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2·0 ® © ® 2·0 ® © ® 2·0 ® © ®
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Section II Section II Section II
8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @
G) G) G) G) G) G) G) G) G) G) G) G) G) G) G)
® ® CD CD ® ® ® CD CD ® CD ® ® CD CD
® ® CD CD ® ® ® CD CD ® CD ® ® CD CD
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® ®® ® ® ® ®® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
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CD CD 0 CD CD CD CD 0 CD CD 0 CD CD CD CD
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-2
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Basic concept of chemistry ,Redox & Volumatric Analysis, Hydrogen and its Compound
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 marie will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - III
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct option. 3 mat1<S will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
bubble are 5 0 5 5
<0 ® ~ (J (I ®®®
T he a n swer of the que stions In (j) (j) (f) (f)
wrong or any other manner wi ll be
treated as wrong.
®®®®
® ® 0) ®
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CHEMISTRY
•
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
Q.3 Of the following reactions, only one is a redox reaction, IdentifY it-
(A) Ca(OH)z + 2HCI -+ CaCh + 2H 20
(B) BaCh + MgS04 -+ BaS04 + MgCh
(C) 2S20~- + 2H 20 -+ 4S0~- + 4H+
(D) Cu2S + 2FeO -+ 2Cu + 2Fe + S02
Q.4 Old lead paintings regain their original colour by washing with hydrogen peroxide solution. It is because -
(A) Hydrogen peroxide oxidise the dye
(B) Hydrogen peroxide reduce the oxidised coloured compounds
(C) Hydrogen peroxide oxidise black coloured PbS to white PbS04
(D) Hydrogen peroxide dissolves the blackened layer by virtue of its acidic nature
Q.6 Which of the following operation would cause removal of temporary hardness of water ?
(A) passing CO 2 gas through it (B) passing S02 gas through it
(C) adding calculated amount ofCa(OH)z (D) adding calculated amount of sodium hypophosphate
Q.7 Which of the following pairs of compound does not illustrate the law of multiple proportion?
(A) S02 & S03 (B) N0 2 & N 20 (C) MgO & Mg (OH)z (D) NO & N 20 s and CO 2
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SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)
• The section contains SEVEN questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks + 1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened
Zero Marks o If none of the bubble is darkened.
Negative Marks -2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a wrong
option is also darkened.
Q.8 If 100 mI of 1M H2S0 4 solution is mixed with 100 mI of98% (W/W) H 2S0 4 solution (d = 0.1 g I ml) then-
(A) Concentration of solution remains same (B) Volume of solution become 200 ml
(C) Mass of H 2S04 in the solution is 98 gram (D) Mass of H2S0 4 in the solution is 19.6. gram
Q.9 A sample of a mixture of CaCI 2 & NaCi weighing 4.44 gm was treated to precipitate all the Ca as CaC0 3
which was then heated and quantitatively converted to 1.12 gm of CaO Calculate the % of CaCh in the
mixture-
(Ca = 40, Na = 23, CI = 35.5)
(A) Mixture Contains 50% NaCI (B) Mixture Contains 60% CaCh
(C) Mass ofCaCh is 2.22 g (D) Mass ofCaCh 1.11 gm
Q.ll Amount oflime that can be produced by heating 100 g of90% pure lime stone-
(A) 50.4 gm (B) 0.98 gm (C) 0.9g molecule (D) 56 gm
Q.12 The first chemical compound of a rare gas element was prepared in 1962. since then several such compounds have
been prepared and characterized. What can be the formula of the compound ofXe(131). Which is 67.2% Xe and
32.8% 0 by mass.
(A) Xe 20s (B) Xe03 (D) XeOs
Q.13 In which of the following pairs do I gram of each have an equal number of molecule?
(A) N 20 and CO (B) N2 and C 30 2 (C) N2 and CO (D) N 20 and CO 2
Q.14 Which concentration can be calculated if mass fraction and density of an aqueous solution ofNaOH are known?
(A) Molality (B) Molarity (C) Percent by mass (D) ppm (mass by mass)
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SECTION - 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains TWO paragraphs
• Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
PARAGRAPHl
Ascorbic acid, C6HS06, also known as vitamin C is a dibasic acid undergoes dissociation as:
C6H s06 -="" C 6H 70 6 + H+; Kl = 8 x 10-5
C 6H 70 6 -="" C6H60~- + H+; K2 = 1 x 10- 12
The ascorbic acid is readily oxidized to dehydroascorbic acid as:
C6HS06 -+ C~606 + 2H+ + 2e
Q.l5 A given 1 litre solution of KI0 3 of unknown molarity is titrated by taking its 50 mL solution against KI
solution in strong acid medium of excess HC!. The equivalence point was detected when 10 mL to 0.1 M KI
was consumed. The molarity ofKI0 3 solution is:
(A) 4 x 10-3 M (B) 2 x 10-3 M (C) 8 x 10-3 M
Q.16 The 250 mL sample of fruit juice collected by crushing a fruit is supposed to have only one ingradient which
can react with KI0 3 is taken in 500 mL measuring flask and 250 mL of 1 M HCI is added. A 50 mL solution
is now pipette out and titrated against intermediate KI0 3 of concentration as reported in past problem [11]. It
was found that 1 mL ofKI0 3 were used. The molarity and strength of ascorbic acid are:
(A) 4.8 x 10-4 M, 84.5 mg/litre (B) 9.6 x 10-4 M, 169 mg/litre
(C) 2.4 x 10-4 M, 42.25 mg/litre (D) None of these
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PARAGRAPH 2
2.5 g sample of copper is dissolved in excess of H 2S04 to prepare 100 mL of 0.02 M CuS04(aq). 10mL of
0.02 M solution ofCuS04 (aq) is mixed with excess ofKI to show the following changes.
CUS04 + 2KI ~ K2S04 + Cuh
2CuI2 ~ CU2h + h
The liberated iodine is titrated with hypo (Na2S203) and requires V mL of 0.1 M hypo solution for its
complete reduction.
Q.18 The amount ofI2 liberated in the reaction of 10 mL ofO.2M solution with KIexcess is:
(A) 0.051 g (B) 0.0254 g (C) 0.102 g (D) 0.204 g
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II" work
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Paper-2 [OMR SHEET]
Medium
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0 Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters)
Damaged form IS
liable to be rejected
®®®®® Hindi 0 Examination Centre (In Capital Letters)
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PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
1·0 ® © ® 1. 0 ® © @ 1·0 ® © ®
2·0 ® © ® 2·0 ® © @ 2·0 ® © @
3·0 ® © ® 3·0 ® © ® 3·0 ® © ®
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-3
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Chemical Equilibrium, Ionic Equilibrium, s-Block Element
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - 11/
5. Based an Table Matching type questions (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfar wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
Q.l In 2HI(g) ~ H2(g) + 12 (g), 2mole HI, 4mole H2 and 4 mole of h are found at equilibrium. If some
hydrogen is now introduced into the container such that at equilibrium concentration of HI and h become
equal. Find the Number of mole ofH 2 added.
(A) 10 mole (B) 20 mole (C) I mole (D) None of these
Q.2 Increase in the pressure for the following equilibrium: H 20( e) ~ H20(g), result in the -
Q.3
(A) formation of more H 20(e)
(C) increase in b.p. of H 20 (C)
Q.4 Which of the following properties of the elements of group II (alkaline earth metals) increase (s) with
increasing atomic number?
(A) Stability of carbonate (B) Solubility of hydroxide
(C) Reactivity with water (D) First ionization energy
Q.S Sodium sulphate is soluble in water but BaS04 is sparingly soluble because -
(A) the hydration energy ofNa2S04 is more than its lattice energy
(B) the lattice energy of BaS04 is more than its hydration energy
(C) the lattice energy has no role to play in solubility
(D) the lattice energy ofNa 2S04 is more than its hydration energy
Q.6 Which of the following statements about LiCI and NaCI is wrong?
(A) LiCI has lower melting point than NaCI
(B) LiCI dissolves more in organic solvents whereas NaCI does not
(C) LiCI would ionise in water more than NaCI
(D) Fused LiCI would be less conducting than fused NaCi
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Q.7 Select the correct statements about Na2S203.5H20 ;
(A) It is also called as hypo (B) It is used in photography to form complex with AgBr
(C) It can be used as antichlor (D) It is used to remove stains of h
Q.8 If 50 ml of 0.2 M NaCN is mixed with 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl then (Kb for CW = 2 x 10- 5) Calculate
concentration Of[H30J in terms of molarity x 10-6.
Q.9 Calculate the pH at which Mg(OH)2 begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.1 M Mg+2 ions (Ksp
Mg(OHh = 10- ")
Q.IO Calculate pH of a solution of given mixture (0.1 mole CH 3COOH + 0.2mole CH 3COONa) in 100 ml of
mixture. Ka = 2x lO-5
Q.12 0.1 mole of each C2H 50H and CH 3COOH when allowed to react in 100 ml of non aqueous solution, it is seen
10 ml of the equilibrium mixture require 80 ml of 0.1 (N) NaOH for complete neutralisation. The equilibrium
constant,
For the reaction
CH3COOH+C2HsOH .~. CH3COOC2Hs+ H20 is expressed as ICc and the value of 32 ICc is
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Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l /// Column-2 Column-3
Flame colour of underlined atom
(I) Used as source of O 2 in (i) .Mg(CI04)2 (P) Brick Red
submarines, space shuttles and
oxygen masks
(II) Used in obtained the X-ray of the (ii) CaH 2 (Q) Crimson
stomach
(III) Used as a drying agent (iii) K02 (R) Voilet
(IV) React with water to produce H2 (iv) BaS04 (S) Colorless
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
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2·0 ® © ® 2·0 ® © @ 2. @ ® © ®
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Section II Section II Section II
8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ ® ®
G) G) CD CD G) G) CD CD CD G) CD G) G) CD CD
(3) (3) CD CD (3) (3) CD CD (3)
(3) CD (3) (3) CD CD
® CD CD ®
® CD CD CD CD ® CD ® ® CD CD
<9 0 0 <9
<9 <9 0 0 0 0 0 <9 0 0 0
® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
CD CD 0 CD CD CD CD 0 CD CD 0 CD CD CD 0
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test 3
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Chemical Equilibrium, Ionic Equilibrium, s·Block Element
A. GENERAL:
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
•
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of fOllowing types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - III
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct aptian. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers). Section -II ( co!umn matching type), Section-III (inc!ude integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
Q.l The reaction of sodium is highly exothermic with water. The rate of reaction is lowered by -
(A) Lowering the temperature (B) Mixing with alcohol
(C) Mixing with acetic acid (D) Making an amalgam
Q.S Alkali metal dissolve in liquid ammonia to give blue coloured solution due to formation of-
(A) Ammoniated electron (B) Ammoniated cation
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Q.6 There sparingly soluble salts A2X, AX and AX3 have the same solubility product. Their solubilities will be in
the order
(A) AX3 > AX > A2X (B) AX3 > A2X > AX (C) AX > AX3 > A2X (D) AX > A2X > AX3
Q.7 The equilibrium constant for the reaction CO(g) + H20 (g) ~ CO 2(g) + H 2(g) is 5. How many moles of
CO 2 must be added to 1 litre container already containing 3 moles each of CO and H20 to make 2M
equilibrium concentration of CO ?
(A) 15 (B) 19 (C) 5 (D) 20
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SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)
• The section contains SEVEN questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks + 1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened
Zero Marks 0 If none ofthe bubble is darkened.
Negative Marks -2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a wrong
option is also darkened.
Q.9 The hydrolytic constants are expressed as K hydr . At 25°C, pKhydr of the following cations are as given
Cations Mg"' Ca-" At>' Fe'"
pKhydr 11.4 12.6 5.1 9.5
(A) Smaller the value of ionisation constant of base, greater is the extent of hydrolysis
(B) Greater the polarisation power of the cation stronger the hydrolysis
(C) pKhydr for Fe3+ is expected to be lesser than 9.5
(D) pKhydr for Ba2+ is expected to be greater than 12.6
Q.ll A solution contains a mixture of 0.01 M Zn2+ and 0.01 M Mn2+ ions and is saturated with H 2S (a saturated
solution ofH 2S being 0.1 M). From the following statements, indicate the correct one-
(Given: ksp ofZnS = 1.0 x 10- 22 , ks p ofMnS = 5.6 x 10- 16 , [H+f [S-2] in saturated solution = 1.0 x 10- 22 )
(A) The pH at which MnS just starts precipitating is 4.38
(B) Zn2+ ions concentration in solution at above pH is 1.8 x 10-9 M
2 27
(C) IfCd + ions are also present at 0.01 M (Ksp of CdS = 8 x 10- ) the ease of precipitations of all these ions
2 2
increases in the order Cd + < Zn + < Mn2+
(D) The H+ concentration just required to precipitate each of these ions in the decreasing order is Mn2+ >
Zn2+ > Cd 2+ (Given: log 4.2 = 0.62)
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Q.12 An acid-base indicator has a Ka 00.0 x 10-5 The acid form of the indicator is red and the basic form is blue.
Then-
(A) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75% red (B) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 75% blue
(C) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 75% red (D) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75% blue
Q.l4 In the given question Ka values of five weak acids are given:
I Acids
Ka
I 10
HA I 8 HB
10""
I 2xl0
HC I HD I HE I
8
10 10
10 I
Select the correct statement (s) as per the above information. Given 10g2 = 0.3
(A) Among NaA. NaB, NaC, NaD and NaE, the NaD is most extensively hydrolysed
(B) Among NaA, NaB, NaC, NaD and NaE, NaB is most extensively hydrolysed.
(C) pH of 0.1 (M) aqueous solution of NaB is approximately 9.5
(D) 0.1(M) solution of HE and O.OI(M) solution ofHB are isohydric to each other approximately
PARAGRAPHl
Any acid or base can be classified as hard or soft by its apparent preference for the hard and soft reactants.
For example, a base B may be classified as hard or soft depending on the equilibrium constant, Keq for the
reaction
Ks
CH3Hg+ + B;::::::::::! CH3HgB+
Ka is the equilibrium constant of the reaction:
K
BW~ B+W
For hard base, pKa > log Ks, while for soft base, pKa is less than log Ks.
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For the three anions pKa and log Ks are as given:
Anions. pK. logKs
A- 14.2 21.2
B- 15.2 9.2
C- 3.2 1.2
PARAGRAPH 2
Mass action ratio or reaction quotient Q for a reaction can be calculated using the law of mass action
A(g) + B(g) ~ C(g) + D(g)
Q = [C] [D]
[A] [N]
The value of Q decides whether the reaction is at equilibrium or not.
At equilibrium, Q=K
For non equilibrium process, Q"* K
When Q > K, reaction will favour backward direction and when Q < K, it will favour forward direction.
Answer the following questions:
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-4
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Gaseous State, Chemical Energetics
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME:
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questians (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfor wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answ ers), Section-II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
Q.l The pressure of an ideal gas is increased isothermally at 298 K in a 5 L vessal from 1 bar to 2 bar. The
correct option (s) is /are-
(A) ~G = 2.7 kJ/mol (B) ~G = 1.7 kJ/mol (C) ~Sgas < 0 (D) ~SsuIToun<lings = 0
Q.2 A study of automobile speeds on a highway yielded the following data for a 1 hour period-
Speed in kmlhr Number of cars (n)
(i) 40 10
(ii) 45 8
(iii) 50 15
(iv) 55 10
(v) 60 12
Which of the following is/are correct-
(A) The most probable speed of the automobile is 50 kmlhr
(B) The root mean square speed 51 kmlhr (approximately)
Q.3
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Q.4 The radial distribution function [P(r)] is used to determine the most probable radius, which is used to find the
electron in a given orbital dP(r) for Is-orbital of hydrogen like atom having atomic number Z, is
dr
dP = 4~3 l2r _ 2Zr2 e -2Zr lao :
J
dr ao ao
Then which of the following statement is/are correct?
(A) At the point of maximum value of radial distribution function dP(r) = 0 ; one antinode is present
dr
(B) Most probable radius of Li 2+ is ~ pm
3
(C) Most probable radius ofHe+ is ~ pm
2
(D) Most probable radius of hydrogen atom is ao pm
Q.S Following represents the Maxwell distribution curve for an ideal gas at two temperature T\ and T 2. Which of
the following option(s) are true?
A \ = Area of small
rectangle I
A2 = Area of small
rectangle II
I dN
- x-
N dU
(A) Total area under the two curves is independent of moles of gas
(B) IfdU\ = JUmps , and dU 2 = JUmps, thenA\ =A2
(C) T\ > T2 and hence higher the temperature, sharper the curve
(D) The fraction of molecules having speed = Umps decreases as temperature increases
Q.6 A open ended mercury manometer is used to measure the pressure exerted by a trapped gas as shown in the
figure. Initially manometer shows no difference in mercury level in both columns as shown in diagram
P = 76 cm
!
gas A
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Porous plate
(II)
Q.7
Insulation
The given system is completely thermally insulated. P 2 < PI and T2 < TI consider molar volume at PI , TI is
VI and molar volume at P 2, T 2 is V2 . 1 mole of gas is transferred from piston (I) to piston (II) As per the
gi ven figure -
(A) Work done on the gas in piston (I) is PI VI and work done by the gas in piston (II) is P2V2
(B) Net work done, t':!.w = PI VI - P2V2
(C) The given process is constant enthalpy process.
(D) For the given process the change in internal energy, t':!.E *- 0
Q.8 Two vessels of equal volume are connected to each other by a value of negligible volume. One of the
containers has 2.8 g ofN2 12.7 g OfI2 at a temperature T I. The other container is completely evacuated. The
container that has N2 and h is heated to temperature T2 while the evacuated container is heated T2/3. The
value is now opened. Calculate the mass of N2 in container (B) after a very long time 12 sublimes at T 2.
(report your answer in nearst integer form in grams)
23 3
Q.9 In a container of volume 1 litre 10 gas molecules are present at the r. m . s. speed equal to 10 mls.
Determine the total kinetic energies of the gas molecules in kJ in nearest possible integers.
23 22
Given: N A = 6 x 10 and mass of one molecule = 10- gm
Q.I0 An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A ~ B ~ C ~ A as shown in the figure. If net heat supplied
to the gas in the cycle is 5J, the work done on the gas in the process C ~ A is ......... J-
t 2 ~B
----~ A
V
in m3 1
10
P ~ inN/m2
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Q.ll A person takes 20 breaths lmin. The amount of air inhaled per breath is 500 mi. The inhaled air contains 5%
by volume of oxygen. If enthalpy of combustion of sugar is -3690 J/mol and all the oxygen taken in is used
for combustion of sugar (CI2H22011), find out amount of heat energy liberated (in KJ) per day by combustion
of sugar. (air is inhaled at 1 atm and 27°C)
Q.12 A glass bulb containing a fine orifice was filled with oxygen gas at pressure of 2 atm. It was seen in
50 mins 0.1 gm of oxygen gas was effused out.
Now the glass bulb is completely evacuated and filled with a gas mixture containing oxygen and another gas
(x) (mol wt = 162) in the mole ratio of3:2 at the total pressure of 10 atm. In 100 mins howmany mg ofx will
be effused out of bulb in nearest possible integers?
Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3 (Titration Indicator)
(I) Salt ofWA + WB (i) pH = pKw +pKw +logC (P) Methyl orange
2
pK +pK -pK
(II) Salt ofWA + SB C)
11 pH = W a b (Q) Methyl Red
/ 2
(III) Salt of SA + SB ~~ C) H
111 P = pKw -pKb -logC (R) Phenolphthalien
............. 2
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Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(I) Root mean square velocity (i) ~RT (P) 1.085 x average velocity
2
~
(II) Most probable velocity (ii)
ltd
(Q) 0.816 rms
~~~",
(III) Average velocity C)ff
III - (R) ~kt ~~-j
(IV) KE of gas mor
i
(iv) r~T
d
(S)
2
ff ,
~/
.V
Q.16 Which of the following is incorrect combination as above data -
(A) IV, i, R (B) II, ii, P (C) I, iii, S (D) II, i, Q
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ ® ®
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-4
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Gaseous State, Chemical Energetics
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question·paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -II
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - III
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct option. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION -1 (Maximum Marks: 21)
• This section contains SEVEN questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
Q.l In the cyclic process shown in P-V diagram, the magnitude of the work done is-
V
--"'01-~
--,- ,
1 1
'---:!----:!--p
Q.2 What entropy change is involved in the isothermal expansion of5 mol of ideal gas from a volume of 10 L to
100 L at 300 K ?
(A) - 95.7 JK- I (B) + 95.7 JK- I (C) 28.72 kJK- I (D) - 28.72 kJK- I
Q.3 The direct conversion of A to B is difficult. Hence, it is carried out by the following shown path:
8S(A .... C) = 50 e.u., 8S(c .... 0) = 30 e.u.,
8S(B .... 0) = 20 e.u.
where e.u. is entropy unit, then 8S(A .... B) is-
(A) + 100 e.u. (B) + 60 e.u. (C) - 100 e.u. (D) - 60 e.u.
Q.4 Which of the following reperesents a plot of compressibility factor (Z) vs P at room temperature for helium?
Q.S A bulb of constant volume is attached to as manometer tube open at other end as shown in figure. The
manometer is filled with a liquid of density (1I3)rd that of mercury. Initially h was 228 cm.
Through a small hole in the bulb gas leaked assuming pressure decreases as dp/dt = - kP. If value of h is 114
cm after 14 minutes. What is the value ofk (in hour-I)?
[Use: In( 4/3) = 0.28 and density of
Hg = 13.6g1mL.]
(A) 0.6 hr- I (B) 1.2 hr- I (C) 2.4 hr- I (D) 7.2 hr- I
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Q.6 At low pressure the vander Waal equation can be written as (p+ : 2 ) V = RT. The compressibility factor of
Q.7 A particular amount of an ideal gas is filled in boxes of volume, V, V, V , V & so on connected in series
248
through tube of negligible volumes at pressure P & temperature T. This whole sample is now made to
confine in a volume V. The final res sure at the temperature T is -
V
(A) P (B) 2P (C) 3P (D) Infinite
Q.S The work involved in a reversible adiabatic process of expansion of an ideal gas from P I and V I to P2 and V2
is given by-
(A)W= P2 V2 -PI VI
'Y -I
(C) W = nCv (T2 - T I) (D) W = [efficiency of camot cycle x aabsorbed]
Q.9 180 gm of water are evaporated slowly under isothermal conditions at 100°C. Assuming water vapour to
behave ideally (~Hv = 2260 Jig) then
(A) ~U = 375.8 kJ (B) ~S = 177.5 JIK (C) ~G = 0 (D) Q = 406.8 kJ
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()I,b,
T-
1,2
rLH
(B)T 4
S-
3
1 1
(C)
H
/3,4
T-
(D)
H
\" T-
Q.ll For the reaction N 2(g) + 3H2(g) --+ 2NH 3(g) , standard enthalpy change and standard entropy change at 298 K
are -92 KJ and -198 JIK respectively. Identify the correct statement (s) regarding the reaction -
(A) The ~Go of the reaction is -33KJ
(B) The Kp value of the reaction is 6.03 x 105
(C) The optimum condition for maximum yield of ammonia is high temperature and high pressure
(D) The Kc value of the reaction is 0.098 (Given: --+ Antilog 0.78 = 6.03)
Q.13 One mole of an ideal gas is subjected to a two step reversible process (A-B and B--C). The pressure at A
and C is same. Mark the correct statement(s) :
T(K)
(A) Work involved in the path AB is zero
(B) In the path AB work will be done on the gas by the surrounding
(C) Volume of gas at C = 3 x volume of gas at A
(D) Volume of gas at B is 16.42 litres
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PARAGRAPH 1
v/3
On the nearly dis covered planet offound that gasses follow the relationship Pe = nCT where C is constant,
P = pressure, n = mol, V = vol. T = Temp. in Kelvin. A curve is plotted between P and V at 300 K and 3 moles of
gas as shown in figure.
1 atrn
pt
V (lit) --+
Q.15 The value ofC
(A) 1.1 x 10-3 (B) 1.1 x 10-2 (C) 2.2 x 10-4 (D) None of these
Q.16 Find the slope. of curve plotted vs T for closed container volume lit having same moles.
(A) ~ (B) ~ (C) ~ (D) ~
IOOOe IOOOe IOOOe IOOOe
PARAGRAPH 2
When a system is taken from state A to state B as shown in the figure along path ACB, 84 kJ of heat flow
into the system, and the system does 32 kJ of work-
f
p
c17l B
~~D
V-
Q.17 What is the change in internal energy along path A --+ B ?
(A) 52 kJ (B) -52 kJ (C) 116 kJ (D) -116 kJ
Q.18 When the system returned from B to A along the BA path, the work done on the system is 21 kJ. Then which of
the following conclusion is correct-
(A)8q=-3IkJ (B)8q=3JkJ (C)8q=73kJ (D)8q=-73kJ
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-5
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY IUPAC and Nomenclature, GOC, Isomerism
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questions (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfar wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
• This section contains SEVEN questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (8), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks :+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened
Zero Marks :0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks :- 2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get
+ 4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get + 2 marks; and darkening (A) and (8) will get -2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.
~
COOCH3
(A)
Sf
0
COOH
and
$COOH
0
OCOCH3
(8)
I ¢F
Sf
Cl
and
(C)~rum ~
Q.2 The correct structure of the compound 2-Amino- 5-bromocyclohexane-l-carboxylic acid is/are-
QCOO~H2
r)
Sf NH2
(8) (C) (D) A
sr~cooH
HOOC
NH2 Sr
Q.3 Select the incorrect statement for the following pair of compounds -
CH3 Cl
~
(A) Constitutional isomer (8) Stereoisomer
(C) Different conformation of same compound (D) Diastereomers
Q.4 Identity the compound which does not have any meso stereoisomer -
(A) 2-hydroxypropanoic acid (8) 2,3-dichloropentane
(C) 2-chlorobutane (D) 2,3-dichlorobutane
Q.5 Which offollowing is/are optically active?
Me H
Me
H$OH
(8) HO H (C) r-\.Me (D)~F
HO
HO
H
Me
~Me H
OH
H
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Q.6 Which is resolvable?
Me,
(A) @=C
~
'----/@ (B)
Me
}:
OHC
=a CH = CH2
o
II
(C)Me-P-Ph (D) Ethylmethylphenyl amine at pH=2
I
CH= CH2
Q.7 Identify the incorrect option according to the property given in the parenthesis-
(y~H J~
(A) ~ l ~ <
N 0
(order of anion stability)
1
H
H3
(B) ~ ~
~N-C-CH2-H
I (3 < I < 20rder of deprotonation)
12
H
(C)*
COOH
(acidic strength)
N0 2
isobutene trans-2-butene
Q.S
COOH COOH
h C H3 hCl
V V
Unitwise Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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Q.' Th, ,ompo~d ( ~ ~ ), m '~Ik ,ompo"d dore 10 001" p,,;pho'l' 01',"0' '"~ti,g ruI".
follows huckel rule i.e. 4n + 2. What is the value ofn.
-T- >100'<:::
E!)
e
(V) CH2-~-CH3 > CH2=9-CH 3
o 00
Q.ll On reaction with 4 equivalent NaHC0 3 how many acidic hydrogen is removed
SO)H
HO-o--t-COOH
C=CH
Q.12 What is the value ofX-Y-Z+W. If
X = No. of resonating structure of benzene
Y = No. of resonating structure ofnapthalene
Z = No. of resontaing structure of anthracene
W = No. of resonating structure oftropyliumcation
Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(I) -N0 2 (i) - M effect (P) 0, P directing
(II) -0'" (ii) + M effect (Q) activating
(UI) - 0 - CH 3 (iii) + I effect (R) deactivating
(IV) - F (iv) - [ effect (S) meta directing
Q.13 CORRECT combination is :
(A) II (ii) R (B) II (i) P (C) II (iii) S (D) III (ii) Q
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Q.14 INCORRECT combination is :
(A) I (i) S (B) II (iii) Q (C) III (ii) P (D) None
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3 ")
(No. ofisomer)
(P) Three Isomer are soluble in
(I) Benzenoid isomer of C 7 HgO (i) 5
NaOH
(Q) Isomers are positional isomer
(II) C6H 3ClBr I Benzenoid Isomer (ii) 10
(Only)
(R) Five Isomers is cyclic other are
(III) C4H 100 (Structural Isomer) (iii) 7
open chain
(IV) CsHIO (Structural Isomer) (iv) 3 (S) It Include Alcohol & ether
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-5
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY IUPAC and Nomenclature, GOC, Isomerism
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
S. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - III
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct option. 3 maries will be awarded for each oorrect answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers). Section -II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
CH 2 CH 3
II I
Q.l The IUP AC name of C2HS-C-CHz-CHNH2 is -
(A) 4-arnino-2-ethylpent-I-ene (B) 2-ethylpentan-4-arnine
(C) arninopent-4-ene (D) 4-ethylpent-4-en-2-arnine
Q.2 Which of the following compounds has wrong IUP AC name?
(A) CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3:; ethylbutanoate (B) CHr-rH-CH2-CHO; ; 3-methylbutanal
CH 3
(A)
H3C
A ~E
yH 3
CH 3 H3C CH 3
(B)CH 2=CH-CH-CH 2CH 3 and 3-Methyl pentane
I
CH 3
Ao~AA~o~AA $
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) II > IV > I > III (B) I > II > III > IV (C) II > I > IV > III (D) I > III > II > IV
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Q.6 Select the incorrect statement among the following -
(A) Benzene undergoes predominant reactions by electrophilic substitution
(B) Toluene is more easily sulphonated than benzene
(C) Benzene reacts with CCl4 in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 to give triphenyl methyl chloride
(D) Benzene reacts with chlorine (Cb) in presence of light to give benzyl chloride
I
CH 3
(C)
°D CHrTi-CHrCH)
(B)
>
CI.............. CI
CE>
I
(D) @--NH- CH 3 > 0
CI ~
(stability order of anion) (pKb) H
(A)
°UO
°
I
OB
H
(B)@-COOH
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Q.I0 The correct order of heat of combustion values are-
(B)Q ~Me
Me ..llluM e
CH
>
(y 3
(A)U < Me Me Ll....Me
Q.12 Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing stability?
(A) CH] > CH 3CH2 > (CH3)2CW > (CH3)3C+ (B) CH 3CH2 > (CH3)2CW > (CH 3hC+ > CH]
(C) (CH 3hCW > CH3CH~ > (CH 3hC+ > CHr (D) (CH 3 hC+ > (CH 3hCH+ > CH 3CH2 > Cm
(II)
which is true for above isomeric form I & II respectively
(I) (II)
(A) Polarity more less
(B) Boiling point less more
(C) Heat of hydrogenation less more
(D) Solubility in water more less
(8)H*CH'
(D)
H~H H~H H~H H H
Ph H CH 2Ph H
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PARAGRAPH 1
The following plot was obtained during conversion of chair form of cyclohexane to its boat form.
B
t
Potential
energy
A
Conformations-
PARAGRAPH 2
Cyclo alkanes consisting of two rings only and having two or more atoms in common are named by taking the
prefix "bicyclo" followed by the name of the alkane/alkene/alkyne. In between bicyclo and alkane/alkene/
alkyne, number of C-atoms representing the bridge (except bridgehead positions) are written within bracket.
Bridgehead positions are those which join two rings.
~'----1 OR
OHc);
Q.18 Give IUP AC name for the following compound -
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Revision Test -1
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Units 1 to 5
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questians (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfor wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [Le. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answ ers), Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
Q.3 nd
In a sample of atoms hydrogen like electron is in 2 excited state, the binding energy of 4'h orbit of this atom
is l3.6 eV, then the -
(A) A 25 eV photon can set free the electron from the second excited state of this sample
(B) 3 different types of photon will be observed if electrons make transition up to ground state from the
second excited state
(C) If23 eV photon is used then K.E. of the ejected electron is I eV
(D) 2nd line of Balmer series of this sample has same energy value as IS' excitation energy ofH -atoms
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Q.5 203(g) ~ 302(g) , Kp = 109 atm
If at equilibrium total pressure = 10 atm then -
(A) Po 2 = 10 atm (B) Po 3 = 10 atm (C) Po 3 = 10- 3 atm (D) Po 2 = 10- 3 atm
Q.8 If 50 ml of 0.2 M NaCN is mixed with 50 rnl of 0.2 M HCl then (Kb for C~ = 2 x 10- 5) Calculate
concentration of [H30l interrns of molarity x W·.{;.
Q.9 Calculate the pH at which Mg(OH)2 begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.1 M Mg+2 ions (Ksp
Mg(OHh = 10- ")
Q.I0 Calculate pH of a solution of given mixture (0.1 mole CH 3COOH + 0.2mole CH 3COONa) in 100 rnl of
mixture. Ka = 2x lO- 5
Q.ll 4 mole each ofS0 2 and O2 gases are allowed to react to form S03 in a closed vessel. At equilibrium, 25% of O2
is used up. The total number of moles of all the gases at equilibrium is.
Q.I0 Under identical condition of temperature density of gas X is two times to that of gas Y while molecular mass
of gas Y is three times than of X. Calculate the ratio of pressure X and Y
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Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.1S by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(Charged on Carbon) (Hybridization of Charged Carbon)
(- )
(I) C6HS CH 2 (i) Pyramidal (P) Sp2
(-)
(II)
0 (ii) Resonance stabilized (Q) Sp3
(~~
~
(+)
(III) Me 3C (iii) Stabilized by Hyper conjugation (R) sp
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Revision Test -1
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Units 1 toS
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME:
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION-I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - 11/
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct option. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
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Q.l Given enthalpy of combustion of glucose is 2870 kl/mo!. What will be the amount of glucose a man has to eat
in order to climb a height of 100 m assuming 100% efficiency of the body system (weight of man = 60 kg) -
(A) 37 g (B) 3.7 g (C) 370 g (D) 180 g
Q.2 Calculate The pH of mixture of 400 mL of _1- M Ba(OH)2 and 400 rnl of ~ M HCI and 200 mL of water -
200 50
(A) 8.4 (B) 2.4 (C) 2.8 (D) None of these
3
Q.3 A stationary mass of gas is compressed without friction from an initial state of 0.3 m and 0.105 M Pa to a
3
final state of 0.15 m and 0.105 M Pa. The pressure remaining constant. During the process there is transfer
of37.6 kI ofheat from the system. During the process the amount of internal energy change is-
(A) - 28.85 kI (B) - 21.85 kJ (C) - 21.85 MJ (D) -53.35 kI
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SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)
• The section contains SEVEN questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks + 1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened
Zero Marks o If none of the bubble is darkened.
Negative Marks -2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a wrong
option is also darkened.
H3~
C
H)C
O
CH3
C
H3~
H3C
OH
< CH 3
(E) (F) (G)
(A) E, F and G are resonance structures (B) E, F and E, G are tautomers
(C) F and G are geometrical isomers (D )F and G are diastereomers
~~[]ODH
I II III IV V
(A) I & III are antiaromatic (B) III & IV are non aromatic
(C) II & V are aromatic (D) Only IV is non aromatic
Q.12 For which of the following species resonating structures can not be written-
Ell Ell Ell
(A) CH2=CH-CHz-CH2 (B) CHz=C -CHz--CH3 (C) CH2=CH-O--CH 3 (D) C H =CH-CHz--CH 3
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Q.13 Which of the following are not resonating structure
~H3 ~
(A)O-lL]
Q.14 For phase transition involving 3 moles of benzene
C6H6 (l, 80°C, I atm) ~ C6H6 (g, 80°C, 0.5 atm) If 80°C is normal Boiling point of C~6.
The correct statement about the transition is-
(A) L'1E < 0 (B) L'1G = - 0.49 kcal (C) L'1H > 0 (D) L'1G = 2.3 kcal
PARAGRAPH 1
Isomers that differ in their cis-trans arrangement on a ring or double bond are known as geometrical isomers.
Geometrical isomers are subclass of diastereomers. cis-trans or E, Z nomenclature is used for geometrical
isomers. (E) form is generally more stable than (Z) form.
Q.lS Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism?
(A) H><X)<
CH3 H
CH
3 (B) H)C=C=C <CH
Br C2HS
3
(C) CD (D) All of these
PARAGRAPH 2
Lithium only forms monoxide when heated in oxygen. Sodium forms monoxide and peroxide in excess of
oxygen. Other alkali metals form superoxide with oxygen, i.e., M0 2. The abnormal behaviour of lithium is
due to small size. The larger size of higher alkali metals also decides the role in formation of superoxides. All
the three anions abstract proton from water. The three anions are related to each other as follows :
.!.o,
0 2- 2 ) O~ ~ 20;-
oxide ion peroxide ion Superoxide ion
Q.17 Consider the following reaction:
M + O2 ~ M0 2
(M = alkali metal) (stable superoxide)
(A) M can not be Li and Na (B) M can not be Cs and Rb
(C) M can not be Li and Rb (D) None of these
Q.18 Which anion is stable towards water -
(A) 0 2- (B) O~- (C) O 2 (D) None of these
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Unit Test-6
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Solution and Colligative Properties, Solid state, Surface Chemistry
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questians (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfor wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answ ers), Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
• This section contains SEVEN questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks :+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks :- 2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get
+ 4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get + 2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.
Q.l In the unit cell ofNaCI, which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Na+ ions have six cr ions in its nearest neighbourhood
(B) cr ions have six Na+ ions in its nearest neighbourhood
(C) Second nearest neighbour ofNa+ ion are twelve Na+ ions
(D) NaCl has 68% of occupied space
Q.3 A sample ofH 20 2 solution labelled on '28 V density of26.5 giL. Mark the correct option(s) representing the
same in other units
(A) Molarity = 2.5 (B) % wN = 17
(C) Mole fraction ofH 20 2 = 0.2 (D) Molality = 13.88
Q.S Consider the following arrangement and select the incorrect options -
0.2 M : 0.18 M
Na,SO, :, KCI
Semipermeable membrane
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(A) O.P. ofNa2S04 solution is higher than the O.P. ofKCI solution
(B) Water will flow from KCI solution to Na2S04 solution
(C) O.P. ofNa2S04 solution is lesser than the O.P. ofKCl solution
(D) Water will flow from Na2S04 solution to KCl solution
Q.6 Which of the following are correct about the binary homogeneous liquid mixture?
(A) H20 and C 2HsOH (B) CJf6 and CJf SCH 3
MIsoI . > 0, ~Vol . > 0 MIsol. = 0, ~V,ol. = 0
(C) CH3COCH 3 and CHCb (D) H20 and HCl
MIsoI < 0, ~Vsol. < 0 MIsol. > 0, ~V,ol. < 0
Q.7 Select the correct statements among following -
(A) Volume of mixing of ideal solution is zero
(B) Enthalpy of mixing of ideal solution is zero
(C) When mixture is less volatile, there is negative deviation from Raoult's law
(D) Entropy of mixing is zero for ideal solution
Q.8 A solution of fatty acid "X" (M = 252 gmlmol) in benzene contain 4.2 gm of acid per litre. When this
solution is dropped in a water surface the benzene evaporates and fatty acid "X" forms a monolayer film. of
solid type. Ifwe wish to cover 10 m2 area with monolayer film of fatty acid "X", what volume of solution in
2
ml should we use? Each fatty acid molecule occupy 0.2 nm area
Q.9 When a graph is plotted between log xlm and log p, it is straight line with an angle 45 0 and intercept 0.3010
on y-axis. If initial pressure is 0.3 atm, what will be the amount of gas adsorbed per gm of adsorbent. Give
your answer after multiply by 5 .
Q.I0 A solution containing 0.1 g of a non-volatile organic substance P (molecular mass 100) in 100 g of benzene
raises the boiling point of benzene by 0.2°C, while a solution containing 0.1 g of another non-volatile
substance Q in the same amount of benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by O.4°C. What is the ratio of
molecular masses ofP and Q in term ofP/Q ?
Q.ll If the vapour pressures of pure A and pure B at 298 K are 60 and 15 torr respectively, what woule be the
mole percent of A in vapour phase (at this temperature) in a solution that contains 20 mole per cent of A in
the (A + B) binary mixture in the liquid phase? Express your answer as O.x. What is x
Q.12 You are given marbles of diameter 10 mm. They are to be placed such that their centres are lying in a square
bond by four lines each of length 40 mm. What will be the arrangements of marbles can be placed inside the
2
area. Determine the number of marbles in unit cm area.
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SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks: 18)
• This section contains SIX questions of matching type.
• This section contains TWO tables (each having 3 colurrms and 4 rows)
• Based on each table, there are THREE questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Only one of these four options is correct.
• For each questions, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(1) AAAA packing (i) CCP A (P) CN = 12
(II) ABABAB packing (ii) HCP
"'- (Q) CN=4
(III) ABCABC packing
(IV) body centre cubic
(iii) BCC
(iv) primitive
/,~
I ~" )
" (R) CN - 8
(S) CN = 6
?/
Q.13 Which one of the following combination is correct combination
(A) (I) (iv) (R) (B) (I) (iv) (S) (C) (I) (ii) (P) (D) (I) (i) (S)
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(I) Milk (i) gas dispersed in liquid (P) aerosol
(II) Dust /\" (ii) solid dispersed in liquid (Q) emulsion
(III) Cheese /<~ (iii) solid dispersed in gas (R) gel
,
(IV) Froth (iv) liquid dispersed in solid (S) foam
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
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Section II Section II Section II
8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ ® ®
G) G) CD CD G) G) CD CD CD G) CD G) G) CD CD
(3) (3) CD CD (3) (3) CD CD (3)
(3) CD (3) (3) CD CD
® CD CD ®
® CD CD CD CD ® CD ® ® CD CD
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<9 <9 0 0 0 0 0 <9 0 0 0
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® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
CD CD 0 CD CD CD CD 0 CD CD 0 CD CD CD 0
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-6
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Solution and Colligative Properties, Solid state, Surface Chemistry
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
S. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - III
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct option. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
Q.l Ferrous oxide has a cubic structure and edge length of the unit cell is 5.0 A. Assuming the density offerrous
2 2
oxide to be 3.84 g1cm3, the no. of Fe + and 0 - ions present in each unit cell be:
23
(use NA = 6 x 10 ) :
(A) 4 Fe 2+ and 40 2- (B) 2 Fe2+ and 20 2- (C) 1 Fe2+ and 1 0 2- (D) 3 Fe 2+ and 40 2-
Q.2 A2B molecules (molar mass = 259.8 g1mol) crystallises in a hexagonal lattice as shown in figure. The lattice
constants were a = 5 A and b = 8 A. If density of crystal is 5 g1cm3 then how many molecules are contained
in given unit cell? (use NA = 6 x 1023)
1
b
J-------+-7 1
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
Q.3 The density of solid substance A (A = 40 g1mol) is 1.68 g1mL at 40 K. If the atom of substance A is assumed
to be a sphere of radius 1.50 x 10-8 em, what % of solid A is apparently empty space?
(use NA = 6.023 x 1023 )
(A) 35.64 (B) 64.36 (C) 74% (D) None of these
Q.4 The gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and Dare 0.04, 0.004, 10 and 40 respectively. The
protective powers of A, B, C and D are in the order -
(A) A > B > C > D (B) B > A > C > D (C) D > C > A > B (D) D > C > B > A
Q.6 A graph between xlm and the pressure P of the gas at a constant temperature is called adsorption isotherm.
Where x is the no. of moles of the adsorbate and m is the mass of the adsorbent. Adsorption isotherms of
1/n
different shapes have been experimentally observed. According to Frundlich adsorption isotherm xlm = KP
Where k and n are constant parameters depend upon the nature of the solid and gas. Graph between
log (~) and log P is straight line at angle 45° with intercept OA as shown.
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1
x
logm A
Q.7 In a planar tetraatomic molecule, AB 3, A is at the centroid of the equilateral triangle formed by the atoms, B.
If the A-B bond distance is 1 A, what is the distance between the centres of any two B atoms?
(A) 11 J3 A (B) .J2A (C) J3A (D) 1/.J2A
Q.I0 The density ofa certain solid AB (formula mass = 119) is 2.75 g/cm3. The edge of the unit cell is 654 pm long.
What is/are true about the solid AB ?
(A) It has bcc unit cell (B) There are four constituents per unit cell
(C) Unit cell constituted by anion is fcc (D) Structure is similar to ZnS
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Q.ll In the unit cell ofNaCl, which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Na+ ions have six cr ions in its nearest neighbourhood
(B) cr ions have six Na+ ions in its nearest neighbourhood
(C) Second nearest neighbour ofNa+ ion are twelve Na+ ions
(D) NaCl has 68% of occupied space
Q.12 Crystalline solids have:
(A) sharp melting point (B) anisotropic character
(C) the character of supercooled liquid (D) smooth cooling curve
PARAGRAPH 1
The total vapour pressure of a binary solution is given by
P = (llOX A + l25X B ) mm Hg
where X A and X B are the mole fraction of components A and B, respectively.
Q.3 The mole fraction of A in the solution is 0.3 . The mole fraction ofB in the vapour phase, YB is-
(A) 0.38 (B) 0.73 (C) 0.27 (D) 0.46
Q.4 For the equimolar solution of A and B, which of the following is a correct statement ?
(A) P > p Ao (B) P < p Ao (C) P = p Ao (D) None of these
PARAGRAPH 2
The mineral perovskite has a structure that is the prototype of many ABX 3 solids; particularly oxides. The
perovskite structure is cubic with A atoms surrounded by l2X atoms and the B atoms surrounded by 6X
atoms. The sum of charges on the cations A and B must be +6; it can be achieved in several ways (A2+ B4+
and A3+s 3+ among them).
The perovskite structure is closely related to the materials that show interesting electrical properties, such as
piezoelectricity, ferroelectricity and high temperature superconductivity.
Perovskite is the name of a mineral containing calcium, oxygen and titanium having following unit cell structure:
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,
- -- ~ ----:..
"- ,
\.l
'\,
"
"Titanium-Oxygen oCalcium
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II" work
SpaC8 for roup"
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Paper-2 [OMR SHEET]
Medium
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0 Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters)
Damaged form IS
liable to be rejected
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PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-7
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Electro Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME:
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questians (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the carrect answer and
-1 markfor wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
• This section contains SEVEN questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks :+ 4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks :+I For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : - 2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get
+ 4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get + 2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.
E>c
E., = 2 E.,
Frequency factors for both the reaction are equal. Therefore-
(A) k2 = kl e -E" I RT (B) k2 = k~ /A (C) kl= Ak2 eE"/RT (D) Both (A) & (B) are correct
Q.2 For a first order reaction, which of following are not correct
(A) t718 = 3t3/4 (B) t3/4 = 2t1/2 (C) tJS/J6 = 4tl/2 (D) tJS/16 = 3t3/4
Q.4 Standard electrode potential of two metals A and Bare E? and E1 respectively. When half cells A2+/A and
B2+/B are connected electrons flow from A to B but when A is connected with standard hydrogen electrode
electrons flow from A to standard hydrogen electrode. If magnitude of E? and E1 are 0.25 and 0.34 volt
respectively the among the following the correct statement(s) is/are-
(A) E? for A2+ + 2e ~ A is -0.25 V
(B) E1 for B2+ + 2e ~ B is -0.34 V
(C) E~ell of the cell connecting these electrodes is 0.59 V
(D) E1 for B2+ + 2e ~ B is 0.34 V
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Q.S Which of the following expression(s) represent the voltage of cell at 298 K:
Ag (s) I AgI (saturated solution) II Ag2C204 (saturated solution) I Ag(s)
(B) Ecell = 0.0592 log [Ag +]Ag 2C 20 4
[Ag +]AgI
[2K (Ag C 0 )]' /3
(D) Ecell = 0.0592 10 sp 2 2 4
g [K sp (AgI)]' /2
Q.6 Standard electrode potential of two metals A and Bare E? and Egrespectively. When half cells A 2+/A and
2
B +/B are connected electrons flow from A to B but when A is connected with standard hydrogen electrode
electrons flow from A to standard hydrogen electrode. If magnitude of E?
and Eg
are 0.25 and 0.34 volt
respectively the among the following the correct statement(s) is/are -
(A) E? for A2+ + 2e ~ A is -0.25 V
(B) Eg for B2+ + 2e ~ B is -0.34 V
(C) E~ll of the cell connecting these electrodes is 0.59 V
(D) Eg for B2++ 2e ~ B is 0.34 V
Q.7 If9 gm H 20 is electrolysed completely with the current of 50% efficiency then-
(A) 96500 charge is required (B) 2 x 96500 C charge is required
(C) 5.6 L of O2 at S.T.P. will be formed (D) 11.2 L of 02 at S.T.P. will be formed
Q.S A current of 2 amp when passed for 5 hour through a molten salt deposits 22.2 g of metal of atomic mass
177. The oxidation state of the metal in the metal salt is.
Q.9 h(s)/r (0.1 M) half cell is connected to half cell a H+ (aq) I H2(1 bar) I Pt & emffound to be 0.7714 V. If
E; n- = 0.535V. Find the pH ofH+1H 2 half cell.
2
Q.I0 The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrode of area 100 cm2 separated by 10
cm was found to be 0.00010- 1 If volume enclosed between two electrode contain 1.0 mole of salt, what is
molar conductivity (S cm2 mor') of salt at same concentration. Express your answer by multiplying by 10.
Q.ll A drug becomes ineffective after 50% decomposition. The original concentration of a drug in a sample was
10 mg/ml which becomes 4 mg/ml during 10 months. Assuming the decomposition of drug of first order,
what is the expiry time of the drug in months? Give the answer in nearest possible integer in month.
Q.12 In the reaction of NO by H2 it was observed that equimolecular mixture of gases at 500 mm was half
changed in 100 seconds. In another experiment with an initial pressure of 250 mm, the reactions was half
completed in 200 seconds. Calculate the order of reaction-
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SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks: 18)
• This section contains SIX questions of matching type.
• This section contains TWO tables (each having 3 colurrms and 4 rows)
• Based on each table, there are THREE questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Only one of these four options is correct.
• For each questions, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
Electrol ysis Product at Catbode Product at Anode
(I) Aq solution ofNaCI (i) Na-Hg (P) H2
(II) Fused solution ofNaCl (ii) H2 (Q) Ch
,," >
(III) Very dilute solution ofNaCI (iii) H2 \ " (R) O 2
(IV) NaCI solution in presence of Hg catbode (iv) Na .J" / (S) Hg-<
Q.13 For tbe electrolysis of aq. Solution ofNaCl which is correct combination is
(A) (I) (ii) (Q) (B) (I) (ii) (R) (C) (I) (iii) (Q) (D) (I) (iii) (S)
Q.lS For tbe electrolysis of very dilute NaCl the correct combination is
(A) (III) (ii) (R) (B) (III) (iii) (R) (C) (III) (ii) (Q) (D) (III) (ii) (P)
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(Permitted coordination number) (arrangement of anion round the cation) (Example)
(I) 3 (i) Plane triangular (P) CsCI
(Il) 4 ,
/... ~....... \ ...... (ii) Cubic (body center) (Q) 8 20 3
(III) 6 _\...\~ (iii) Tetrabedral (R) ZnS
(IV) 8 ~ ..., \ (iv) Octahedral (S) NaCI
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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•
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PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
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Section II Section II Section II
8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ ® ®
G) G) CD CD G) G) CD CD CD G) CD G) G) CD CD
(3) (3) CD CD (3) (3) CD CD (3)
(3) CD (3) (3) CD CD
® CD CD ®
® CD CD CD CD ® CD ® ® CD CD
<9 0 0 <9
<9 <9 0 0 0 0 0 <9 0 0 0
® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
CD CD 0 CD CD CD CD 0 CD CD 0 CD CD CD 0
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-7
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks : 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Electro Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - III
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct option. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -I! ( column matching type), Section-II! (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
Q.l The half period of 14C is 5760 year. A piece of wood when buried in the earth, had 1% 14C. Now as charcoal
it has only 0.25% 14C. How long has the piece of wood been buried?
(A) 11524 year (B) 11500 year (C) 12426 year (D) 11324 year
Q.2 Two radio isotopes P and Q of atomic mass 10 and 20 respectively are mixed in equal amount by mass. After
20 days, their weight ratio Wp is found to be I : 4. Isotope Q has a half-life of 10 days. The half-life of
WQ
isotope Pis:
(A) Zero (B) 5 days (C) 20 days (D) Infinite
Q.3 The activity of a sample of radioactive element is AI at time tJ and A2 at time t2(t2 > tJ). The mean life of
sample is T, then:
time
Reaction time as shown in the figure. The overall order of the reaction is:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 1
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(A)j£
-I 0 I
~ll.IOY
(B)~
-I 0 I
(C)
±
-I 0
.10Y
•
I
(D):i:
-I 0 I
Q.6 A layer of 0.25 rnm thick chromium metal is to be electroplated on the rims of auto vehicle with a total area
of 32 m2 from a solution of CrO~- . What amount of electric current is required for electroplating the rims in
60 sec? The density of chromium metal is 7.2 glee -
(A) 4.9 x 103 amp (B) 1.78 x 103 amp (C) 5.3 x 104 amp (D) 10.69 x 106 amp
Q.7 An alloy ofPb-Ag weighing 1.08 g was dissolved in dilute HN0 3 and the volume made to 100 mi. A silver
electrode was dipped in the solution and the emf of the cell set-up, Pt(s), H2(g) IW (1M)IIAg+ (aq)1 Ag(s) was
0.62 V. If E~II is 0.80 Y, what is the percentage of Ag in the alloy? (At 25°C, RTIF = 0.06)
[log-l (-1.3026) = 0.05]
(A) 25 (B) 2.50 (C) 50 (D) I
Q.S Which of the following plot represents first order reaction :(r = rate at time 't' and ro is the initial rate)
k t
tl/2
Slope = 2.303
(B)
time -+ Concentration -+
- - - -log ro
rate
t ...t
OJ)
(C) (D) ..sa
Concentration -+ time-+
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Q.9 For a chemical reaction A -----t B ; the rate constant (K) is found to fit the following equation
. -I] -- 20 - 6600
Iog K [rrun --
T
Choose the correct statement for the reaction
(A) The reaction follow first order kinetics (B) Activation energy of reaction is 54.99 KJ
(C) Half-Life of reaction at 300 K is 69.30 min (D) Halflife is independent on concentration
Q.lO In a hypothetical reaction A~B, the activation energy for the forward and backward reaction are 15 & 9 kJ/mol
respectively. The potential energy of A is 10 kJ/mo!.
(A) Heat of reaction is 6 kJ/mol (B) The threshold energy of reaction is 25 kJ
(C) The potential energy ofB is 16 kJ (D) Heat of reaction is 9 kJ
Q.ll For a first order chemical reaction: A ~ P, then the correct statement(s) is/are -
(A) The extent of reaction completed at any time 't' is independent of initial concentration of the reactant
(B) The reaction must be an elementary reaction
(C) The time required for 99% completion of reaction is {(2tIl2)/log2}
(D) There are very less number of reactions with order one
Q.l4 The amount of ion discharged during electrolysis is directly proportional to-
(A) resistance (B) time (C) current (D) chemical equivalent of the ion
PARAGRAPHl
In the acidic medium the standard reduction potentials (in volts) of the following are as follows
MnO:; 0.56) MnO~- 2.26) Mn02 ~ Mn3+ 1.51) Mn2+ - 1.18) Mn
In the neutral or alkaline medium the standard reduction potentials (in volts) of the following are as follows
MnO:; 0.56) MnO~- 1.43) Mn02 -0.73) Mn3+ 1.51) Mn2+ - 1.18) Mn
Given: Ksp ofMn(OH)2 = 10- 13
Given: .!. O2 + 2H ++ 2e ~ H20 EO = 1.23 V
2
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Q.15 What is the reduction potential ofMnO:; to Mn02 in acidic medium?
(A) 1.33 volt (B) 1.69 volt (C) 2.82 volt (D) 1.78 volt
PARAGRAPH 2
The instantaneous rate of an elementary chemical reaction: aA + bB ~ cC + dD can be given by:
rate = KtfAJ' [B]b - Kb[C]c [D]d
where, Kr and Kb are rate constants for forward and backward reactions respectively for the reversible
reaction. If the reaction is an irreversible one, the rate is expressed as: rate = K[ A J' [B]b where, K is rate
constant for the given irreversible reaction and (a + b) is order of reaction. It is also evident from the
stoichiometry of reaction that rate of disappearance of A is ~ times the rate of disappearance of B. The
b
variation of rate constant K with temperature is expressed in terms of Arrhenius equation: K= Ae- E, /RT
whereas, the ratio Kr is expressed in terms of van't Hoff isochore: .!S.. = Ae-dH /RT where, Ea and i1H are
Kb Kb
energy of activation and heat of reaction respectively.
Q.17 If the reaction: aA + bB ~ cC + dD is at equilibrium then which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) Equilibrium constant Kc = Kr (B) i1G = 0
Kb
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-8
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Hydrocarbon, Aromatic Chemistry, Halogen Derivative
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME:
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION-II
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questians (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfor wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answ ers), Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
Q •1 (
COOH
+ 0:::0-...
~P
----,
1,I NaHCO , )Q OWIH,O) R W /6 )
S
(A)P=~ COOH
(B)R3
H
A-r-
Y\COOE>
OH
(C)Q-,0- (D)S-~ 0./ 11 0
o
CH2CH3 ale. KOH , Y
Q.2
© O
H1IEq)
NBS, (X)
I
1Eq lag. KOH , Z
P + Q
Iodide Alcohol
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Q .3 CH r CH r CH 2-CH-CH 3 ~ He [F] Br, / CCI,) C SHIOBr2 (G)
I - H,O
OH
Which of the following statements are correct for this process?
(A) F contains total 3 product including stereoisomer
(B) G product contain 3 enantiomeric pair
(C) Total no. of a-H in F Isomers are 11
(D) Total isomers ofG produce is 6 (including stereoisomer)
o 0 0 0
o I II II II
Q.4 A ~ H-C -CH2CHZ-C -C -CHrCHz-CH
i H
(A) 10 (B)<)--<)
h 3
(C)U (D)
CH 3
I
Q.5 Which of the following reactions are expected to give CH 3 - C - CH = CH 2 as the major product-
I
CH 3
CH 3 CH3
I I
(A) H3C- C- CH -CH3 (B) CH 3- C -CH 2- CH 2-OH POCh+ Base,
I I I
CH3 0H CH 3
CH 3 CH 3
I ale.KOH/A I Na/liq.NH 3
(C) CH3- C - CH - CH3- - - - (D) CH 3-C-C=CH ,
I I I
CH 3 Br CH3
H,IPdBaSO, OsO,/NaHSO,
'x
Q.6 CH3-C=C-CH3 ~ NalNH,
XandYare-
,y
KMnO, cold/Dilute
(A) H
"0=t=" "=t=0" OH HO H (B) HO"=t=oH H=t=oH H H OH
CH 3 CH 3 CH3 CH 3
(C) HO
H=t=oH H0=t=H CH 3 CH 3 H (D)HO
H=t=H H0=t=H OH H OH
H OH CH 3 CH 3
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Q.7 Which is not correct product (as major product)
(cis) H
H--+-Br
(D)
H - t - Br
CH 3
trans-But-2-ene
Meso -2, 3-dibromobutane
Q.8 In the Zerewitnoffs determination of active hydrogens in an alcohol (Z), 0.225 g of compound Z was treated
with CHNgBr when 224 mL of CH4 was evolved at STP. A rest determination showed that Z had molecular
weight of 180. How many acidic hydrogens are present per molecule of the compound Z?
Q.9 Find out number of alcohols that can give positive iodoform test.
OH
(a)~
OH
(b)~
OH
(c)
OH
o-~H-CH3 (d) 00
OH
HOO
(e) CHrCHrOH (f) o-CH:rOH (g)Q (h)
0
II (1) 'X' RMgX
Q.I0 CI-C-OC 2H s ) 3°Alcohol. Find out value of 'X'.
NH,CI
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Q.ll How many reaction involve SN I mechanism
CH 3 CH 3
I Hl I
(I) CH 3-y-0-H ----=--+ (II) CHr CH 2-Oi-CH 3 ~
CH 3 CH 3
(III)~~ (IV) @--o-CH 3 ~
CH 2 -OH
(V) @ c H2-O-CH-CH 3
9 H3
~ (VI)©
HI (less cone)
Polar solvent
CH
&
3 CI
Q.12
o NaNH,
liq. NH 3 '
In above reaction how many isomeric product will be formed? (Benzyne mechanism)
Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
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Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
(IV) 0 e
(iv) BH3 I THF I H 20 2 I 0 H
(S) Optically inactive compound
\
Q.16 Which of the following is incorrect set:
(A) (I) (i) (R) (B) (II) (ii) (R) (C) (III) (ii) (Q) (D) (IV) (i) (P)
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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Section II Section II Section II
8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ ® ®
G) G) CD CD G) G) CD CD CD G) CD G) G) CD CD
(3) (3) CD CD (3) (3) CD CD (3)
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® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-8
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Hydrocarbon, Aromatic Chemistry, Halogen Derivative,
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL :
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -"
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - 11/
6. Passage based multiple choice questians with single correct option. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
Ph+Brl
Br
+Br I CI
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) IV < II < III < I (B) I < II < III < IV (C) IV < I < III < II (D) IV < I < II < III
Q.2 Consider the following reaction:
(CH 3hC - CH = CH 2 + HCI ~
The major product obtained in the reaction is-
(A) (CH 3)3 C - CH -CH3
I
CI
(C) (CH 3hC - CH(CH 3)2
I
CI
Q.3 Select the reagent that will yield the greater amount of substitution on reaction with CH 3- CH 2 - Br
(A) CH 3CH 20K in dimethyl sulphoxide (DMSO)
(B) (CH 3h COK in dimethyl sulphoxide (DMSO)
(C) Both (1) and (2) will give comparable amounts of substitution
(D) Neither (1) nor (2) will give any amount of substitution
Q.4 Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AICh to give predominantly-
(A) n-Propyl benzene (B) iso-Propyl benzene
(C) 3-Propyl-I-chlorobenzene (D) No reaction
Q.6 B
H20, H,SO.,JHgS04 0- C=CH
D20, HgSOJ H2S04 A, A, Band Care -
I
BHl fHF
H,Oz/Ofr
C
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(A) OnCHD2,OnCH), OCH2CHO (B) II, I and III
o 0
(I) (II) (III)
Q.7
lH) ?CH)
(C) CH)i-CH-CH) (D) No reaction
CH)
(C) 0
/
Har )
~
Me)('l
(D) Me ~_
H~/ H,O)HO ~
MeX'l
Me Me Me
Br
Q.9 Which of the following gives Red ppt with ammonical Cu2Ch
(A) CH=CH (B) CH:r-C=C-H (C) CH:r-C=C-CH 3 (D) CH2=CH2
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Q.ll The product in following reaction:
) (P)
6 '"
Q.12 Which of the following gives same product with SN, & SN 2 reaction (including stereo product)-
CH 3
W', (c)@-OI'-c' '" '"', (0) oc, '" '"',
CH 3
I
Q.13 CHr CH 2-CH-CH 2-CH 3 CI,/ hv
What is correct -
(A) total four products are formed including stereoisomer
(B) total 8 product are formed including stereoisomer
(C) 4 Enantiomeric pair are formed
(D) major product is 2° halide
Q.14 Which of the following compounds would not liberate two moles of methane when treated with methyl
magnesium bromide?
(A) CH 3-CH-CHz--C=CH (B) CH3-C-CH 2-CH 20H
I II
OH o
(O)~
COOC2H S
PARAGRAPH 1
Vladimir Markovnikov rule:
Alkene undergo electrophilic addition reaction. It is triggered by the acid acting as a electrophile toward
n-electrons of the double bond.
Markovnikov's rule states that when an unsymmetrically substituted alkene reacts with a hydrogen halide, the
hydrogen atom adds to the carbon that has the greater number of hydrogen, e.g.
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~D<CH3
D- ~ CH3+H-CI
I-methyl cyclopentene
Cl
I-chloro-I-methyl-cyclopentane
Mechanism:
Step-I:
D-cQ2
Step-2 :
- CIS
(fast)
PARAGRAPH 2
Mixed chloro fluoro carbons, sometimes called CFC, such as CFCI3, CF2Ch, CF3Cl are known as "Freons". They
are unreactive and are widely used as refrigeration fluids. Freons are very much more effective "greenhouse gases
" in the atmosphere than C02; though the amount of freons present is extremely small. Much more seriously, the
freons have penetrated the upper atmosphere and causing damage to the ozone layer.
Q.17 In which of the following way freons damage the ozone layer?
(A) By producing CCh free radicals (B) By producing CFCI free radicals
(C) By producing fluorine free radicals (D) By producing chlorine free radicals
Q.18 Hydro fluoro carbons (HFCs) such as CH2 FCF3 and hydro chloro fluoro carbons (HCFCs) such as
CHChCF3 are used as substitutes ofCFCs because
(A) HFCs & HCFCs are not green house producing
(B) HFCs and HCFs are liquid not gases
(C) HFCs and HCFCs are also green house producing but they do not remain in the atmosphere for so long
(D) HFCs and HCFCs are lesser green house producing than CFCs
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-9
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Alcohol,Phenol,Ether, Carbonyl Compound, Carboxylic Acid and Derivatives, Nitrogen containing Compound,
Carbohydrate and Protein (Biomolecule)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME:
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - 11/
5. Based an Table Matching type questions (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfar wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken cirde properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (indude single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers). Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (indude integer answer type)]
bubble are 5 ) 5 5
8 ® ~ (J (it ® ® ®
T he a n swer of the questions In C]) C]) C]) (j)
wrong or a ny other manner will be
treated as wrong.
®®®®
®®0 ®
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
NH2
(C)©
KOBr
(D) CHr -CHr C-NH 2
II
o
Q.2 For the given sequence
@--eN H,O$ ) X NH)/d ) Y KOBr) Z CHCl)/KOH) W
Which of the following is/are correct:
(A) Wand Ph-CN are Functional group isomer (B) Z is more basic than pyridine
(C) Compound X gives effervescence with NaHC0:J (D) On hydrolysis ofW compound Z is formed
CH 3 H
Q.4 Compound X react with NaN0 2 & H2S0 4 & Then react with ortho cresol to form sharp colour compound
then compound X may be-
o
II
C-NH2
(A)~
~OH
(C)©
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Q.S Which of the following can distinguish?
CH 3 H
I I
CHrCH - NH2 and CHrCH r N -CH3
(A) CHCh / base (B) NaN0 2 + HCI (C) CS 2, HgCh (D) Ag20/~
Q.6
Q N2
hv
o -.....:;:.:-.... H 20
, p- ----=---+, Q
LiAlH4 R H+/t,.
---,,---+, ---__+. S
Identity correct option (s) -
~o~~'O~o~:'O~o,
H OH H OH H OH
(A) this carbohydrate is a polymer ofD glucose (B) it has a(1, 4) glycosidic linkage
(C) it is a non reducing carbohydrate (D) it does not give fehling test
Q.8 How many products are possible between given inter conversion:
o
II
@- NH
2
CH,-C-CI
(I)
[X] HNO,+H,SO~ [Y]~[Z]
"
(2)
(3)
ICI
CH,COOH
(4)
[W]
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(2) X ~ @-NH-C-CH3
II
o
o
II
NH- C-CH3
l~l
NH2
(7)W~ ~
(8)W~ 0-
N0 2
IYI N02
Q.9 How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4HIIN.
(2) H
t
Q.IO
(3) .... ©(N?(l) I
(!)
NO, (mononilration))
(4))" N 0
I
H
the nitration will mainly take place at position.
Q.ll How many products will be obtained when propane is subjected to vapour phase nitration.
Q.12 How many molecules of methyl bromide should react with ethylamine successively to convert the latter into
a quaternary ammonium salt.
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Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(I) Teflon COOH NH2
(i) (tH I
2)4 + (CH 2)6 (P) in fabrics
I I
COOH NH2 / '....
(II) Nylon - 6, 6 Cl
I (Q) as rubber
~ . . ,,>
(ii) CH 2=C-CH=CH 2
(III) Bakelite (iii) F2C = CF2 (R) in electrical switches
(IV) Neoprene (iv) H-C-H+@-OH
II (S) non stick cookware
0
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(Conversions) (Name reactions) (Reagent)
(I) R-C-NH2~R-CH2-NH2 (i) Schmidt reaction (P) Br2 I KOH
I
°0II (ii) Reaction with P20 S (Q)4H
(II) R- C -NH2 ~ R-NH2
0 (iii) Hofmann Bromamide reaction (R) PC Is I SOCb
II
(III) R- C -NH2 ~ R-CN .~\
0 (iv) Reaction with LiAIH4 (S) NaN 3 1 H 20
(IV) R-~ -Cl (i) NaN 3
(ii) H 20 , d
) RNH2
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II" work
SpaC8 for roup"
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8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test-9
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks : 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Alcohol,Phenol,Ether, Carbonyl Compound, Carboxylic Acid and Derivatives, Nitrogen containing Compound,
Carbohydrate and Protein (Biomolecule)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - 11/
6. Passage based multiple choice questians with single correct option. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers). Section -II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
a°
NH2 NH2
(N~N
NJl~J
H0l'0'-j N H0l'0~
(A) 'r--' (B) 'r--'
OH OH
°
~
(D) HO-f-0l'0~
fex N NH2
OH 'r--'
OR
Q.S (P) ( (i) NH)/ II
@-C-OH NH)/ II ) (Q)~(R)
(ii)KOD / Br, II p,o,
° (i) CH)MgBr)
(ii)H,o$
(S) (i)H, NOH)
(ii)W I II
T+U
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(I) P=@-NH 2 (II)Q=@-rr-NH2 (III)R=@-C=N (IV) S = @-C-C H3
II
o o
(V) T = Phi-NH-CH3(Vl) 0 = CHr rr- NH- Ph
o 0
(A) I, II, III, IV only (B) II, III, IV, V, VI (C) I, III, IV, V (D) All are correct
H2
Q.7 8 OH
0
HNO,
"
l (A); Product (A) is -
0 0
Ph Me Ph Et
I I I I H 2SO4
Q.8 Ph-C- C-Me + Ph-C- C-Et )
I I I I
OH OH OH OH
(P) (Q)
When (P) and (Q) react with H2 S04, product obtained are-
Ph 0 Ph 0 Ph 0 Ph 0
I II I II I II I II
(A)Ph-?-C-Me (B)Ph-?-C-Et (C) Ph-?-C-Me (D)Ph-?-C- Et
Me Et Et CH3
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Q.9 8CH~c5
This transformation can be carried out by-
(A) H+/~, Zn(Hg), HCI (B) KMnOJ OH-, Sodalime/~, H-O-H
(C) HI04, LiAlH4 (D) Pb(OACh, NaBH4
(A) cQo
0 I
Me
(B)
oo
0
Me- Cl
"" (C) ~Me (D) cQr:f~~O
N
'H
CHO
N
...-:.
~N0cl ' H
(A) QH
OH
~ Racemic mixture
(B) CD
OH
CH)
W
~ Major product
consist of even no.
(C)(Q
of a-hydrogen
w will not undergo w Product is a ketone
~ dehydration (D)++ ~
OHOH
OH
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/COCH 3
(B) C6Hs - CH = C ......... C C ' C6HS- CH = CH - COCH3
00 2HS
C6Hs - CH = CH - COOH
/COCH 3 /COCH 3
(C) C~s - CH = C ......... COOC H ' C6HS- CH = C ......... COOH
2 s
C6HS - CH = CH - COOH
OH
/COCH 3 I /COCH 3
(D) C6Hs - CH - CH ......... COOC2Hs ,C6HS- CH - CH .........
COOH
C H _CH=C/COCH 3
6 5 ......... COOH
PARAGRAPHl
The aldol condensation also offer a convenient way to synthesize molecules with five and six membered
ring. This can be done by an intramolecular aldol condensation using a dialdehyde, a keto aldehyde or a
diketone as the substrate. The major product is formed by the attack of the enolate from the ketone side of the
molecule that adds to the aldehyde group. The reason the aldehyde group undergoes addition preferentially
may arise from the greater reactivity of aldehyde towards nucleophilic addition generally. In reaction of this
type five membered rings form far more readily than seven membered rings and six membered rings are
more favourable than four or eight membered rings when possible.
(A)
et CH3
o
(B)Q
o
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Q.16 CHrC-H + H-C-H
l l
Excess
(B) 9r~H
HO OH
(C)+ (D) LfJ
HO
OH
PARAGRAPH 2
Starch is Homo polymer of (l-D Glucose. Starch molecule has 2 parts amylose & amylopectin amylose is
20% part and amylopectin is 80% part. Branches are present in Amylopectin
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test -10
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Co-ordination Compound, d and f-Block Elements, p-Block, Metaliurgy,Salt Analysis
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questions (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfar wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section-II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
• This section contains SEVEN questions .
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks :+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +I For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks :- 2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get
+ 4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get + 2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.
Q.l Which of the following statements is not true about the complex ion [CrCI(N0 2) (en)2t?
(A) It has two geometrical isomers cis and trans
(B) cis and trans forms are not diastereomers to each other
(C) Only the cis isomer displays optical activity
e
(D) It has three optically active isomers : d, and trans forms
Q.3 In test of NO) ion, the dark brown ring complex is formed, which is true of this complex ?
(A) The colour is due to charge transfer spectra
(B) Iron and NO both have + 1 charge
(C) The complex species can be represented as [Fe i (H 20)sNO]2+
(D) Iron has +2 oxidation state and NO is neutral
Q.4 Which is correct statement(s) ?
(A) [Ag(NH3)2t is linear with sp hybridized Ag+ ions
(B) NiCI~- , crO~- and MnO:; have tetrahedral geometry
(C) [Cu(NH 3)4]2+, [Pt(NH 3)4]2+ and [Ni(CN)4tbave dsp2 hybridisation of the metal ion
(D) Fe(CO)s has trigonal bipyramidal structure with d z 2 Sp3 hybridized ion
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Q.7 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the slag obtained during the extraction of a metal
like copper or iron?
(A) The slag is lighter and has higher melting point than the metal
(B) The slag is lighter and has lower melting point than the metal
(C) The slag is heavier and has higher melting point than the metal
(D) The slag is heavier and has lower melting point than the metal
Q.8 A (Light pink colour complex) Pb,O,/dil.HNO, ) HMn0 4 H ,SI W ) A (Ligh pink colour complex).
t.
Calculate CFSE value in light pink colour complex.
Q.9 Calculate value of "x + y" if x is the total number of cr bonds and y is total number of 1t bonds in ligand
EDTA and phenantharolene.
{EDTA = Ethylene diarnine tetraacetate, phen = 1, 10 - N, N-Phenanthrolene}
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Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Unit Test -10
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Co-ordination Compound, d and f-Block Elements, p-Block, Metaliurgy,Salt Analysis
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -"
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - 11/
6. Passage based multiple choice questians with single correct option. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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Q.l Amphibole silicate structure has 'x' number of comer shared per tetrahedron. The value of 'x' is:
Q.3 CrO~- (yellow) changes to Cr20~- (orange) in pH = x and vice-versa in pH = y. Hence, x and yare:
(A) 6,8 (B) 6, 5 (C) 8, 6 (D) 7, 7
Q.4 Hydrated aluminium chloride is ionic compound and soluble in water giving:
(A) Ae+ and CI- ions (B) [AI(H 20)6l 3+ and CI- ions
(C) [AICh(H 20)4t and [AIC4(H 20hr ions (D) None of these
Q.5 The sodium salt on treatment with MgCh give white precipitate only on heating. The anion of the sodium
salt is -
(C) HCO)" (D) NO)"
HN03
Q.7 (X) • Brown residue + colorless solution
t
Scarlet
red H2sf ~2Cr04
&;1
WithHN0 3
& Mn(N0 3)2 Black ppt yellow ppt
Soluble in
Purple solution dilHN0 3
Therefore (X) is -
(A) Hgh (B) HgO (C) Pb0 2 (D) Pb30 4
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SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)
• The section contains SEVEN questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks + 1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened
•
Zero Marks
Negative Marks
o If none of the bubble is darkened.
-2 In all other cases. •
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a wrong
option is also darkened.
Q.8 Which of the following is/are correct regarding the active nitrogen?
(A) It is produced by the passage of electric discharge through the molecular nitrogen
(B) It reacts with hydrocarbon to produce HCN
(C) It reacts with H2S to give blue solid
(D) When electric discharge is stopped it produces a yellow afterglow due to recombination of atomic
nitrogen
Q.9 Which of the following compounds can not be prepared by direct reaction between the constituent elements?
(A) XeF 2 (B) XeF4 (C) XeOF4 (D) Xe03
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• This section contains TWO paragraphs
• Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
PARAGRAPH 1
r-FeC~13:...:s.;;..01",n~. (E)
o
Dil.HCI
Violet colour
compound
Q.16 Compound (B) on reactin with [Ni(en)3] (N0 3)z gives a coloured complex exhibiting-
(A) Optical isomerism (B) Geometrical isomerism
(C) Linkage isomerism
• (D) No isomerism
PARAGRAPH 2
A salt (A) when heated with K2 Cr207 and conc.H 2S04 liberates a gas which is absorbed in NaOH solution
turns yellow. When this solution is acidified with acetic acid and lead acetate solution is added, a yellow
precipitate (B) is formed.
(A) is mixed with Mn02 and heated with conc. H 2S0 4 when a gas (C) is evolved which turns starch iodide
paper blue.
Q.18 What is the colour of gas which is evolved when salt (A) is heated with Mn02 and H 2S04 ?
(A) Violet (B) Brown (C) Greenish yellow (D) Colourless
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Revision Test -2
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Units 6to 10
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questians (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfor wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers). Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
.
0
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0
0
0
0
•
0
0
0
0
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SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
• This section contains SEVEN questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks :+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +I For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks :- 2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get
+ 4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get + 2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.
aCt
o
IRO-
! 1
RC(-
~. •
•
CI
(IV)
* RCJ
(VII)
tfocf
+ +
(UI) (V)
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, VII (C) VI, VII (D) I, IV, V
Q.2 An autocatalytic reaction is represented as A + B ~ D where initial concentrations of A and B each equal
to ao. initial concentration of D is zero-
(A) An autocatalytic reaction is the such reaction in which product itself increases the speed ofreaction
(B) In an autocatalytic reaction product form a complex oflower activation energies.
(C) The maximum rate for the above autocatalytic reaction is obtained when [D] = aJ3
(D) The overall order of the above reaction is three
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Q.3 Standard electrode potential of two metals A and Bare E? and E~ respectively. When half cells A 2+/A and
B2+/B are connected electrons flow from A to B but when A is connected with standard hydrogen electrode
electrons flow from A to standard hydrogen electrode. If magnitude of E? and E~ are 0.25 and 0.34 volt
respectively the among the following the correct statement(s) is/are-
(A) E? for A2+ + 2e ~ A is -0.25 V
(B) E~ for B2+ + 2e ~ B is -0.34 V
(C) E~ell of the cell connecting these electrodes is 0.59 V
(D) E~ for B2+ + 2e ~ B is 0.34 V
2
Q.4 A sample of water has a hardness expressed as 77.5 ppm Ca +. This sample is passed through an ion
2
exchange column and the Ca + is replaced by H+. Select correct statement(s) -
(A) pH ofthe water after it has been so treated is 2.4
(B) Every Ca 2+ ion is replaced by one H+ ion
(C) Every Ca2+ ion is replaced by two H+ ions
(D) pH of the solution remains unchanged
Q.S Which of the following are possible products from aldol condensation of 6-oxoheptanal ?
O~ /CH3 O~ /H
C C
The correct option (s) is/are (Assuming major product is formed in each reaction) -
Q.7 When 100 ml of 0.1 M KN0 3, 400 m1 ofO.2M HCI and 500 m1 of 0.3 M H2 S04 are mixed.
Then in the resulting solution
(A) The molarity ofK+ = 0.01 M
(B) The molarity of SO~- = 0.15 M
(C) The molarity of ofH+ = 0.38 M
(D) The molarity of NO) = 0.08 M and cr = 0.01 M
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Q.8 In molecule of nitro glycerin the number ofN atoms present are ..... . .. . .. .
Q.9 The total number of geometrical isomers exist for the complex M (AA) B 2C 2 is . ........ . . .
Q.IO A drug becomes ineffective after 50% decomposition. The original concentration of a drug in a sample was
10 mg/ml which becomes 4 mg/ml during 10 months. Assuming the decomposition of drug of first order,
what is the expiry time of the drug in months? Give the answer in nearest possible integer in month.
Q.ll One mole ofa substance is cooled at the rate of 0.04 KJ/rnin as shown in the graph
800 - A
I
t I
temp in K 400
100 D
5 10 40 50
time in minutes -
As represent cooling of liquid, BC represent conversion of liquid to solid, CD represent cooling of solid. The
entro py of fusion is ... . ...... J/mollK
Q.12 How many structure from the following are correctly matched with their IUPAC name
Structure IUPAC name
OHC CH 3
I. \==! .=<CH 3 3, 7 dimethyl oct- 2, 6, dienal
"--.J "CH 3
III. 90
EI
3-ethyl-7-iodobicyclo (2.2.1) heptane
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Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.lS by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
(I) -N0 2 (i) -M effect (P) 0 , P directing
(II) - 0 '" (ii) + M effect (Q) activating
(Ill) - 0 - CH 3 (iii) + I effect (R) deactivating
(IV) -F (iv) - I effect (S) meta directing
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
I
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Paper-l [OMR SHEET]
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I
@) @) @) @) @)
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PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
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Section II Section II Section II
8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ @ ® @ @ ® ®
G) G) CD CD G) G) CD CD CD G) CD G) G) CD CD
(3) (3) CD CD (3) (3) CD CD (3)
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Revision Test -2
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Units 6 to 10
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME :
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - III
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct aptian. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
~
Ph-CH-C-H
I HO-
Q.2 -----:-:-,:---t) Q. P and Q are isomers Identify Q -
OH H,O
(P)
~ ~ ~
(A) Ph-CHz-C-OH (B) Ph-C-OCH3 (D) H-C-CHz-O--Ph
Q. 3 What is compound Z ?
$
Z
o
II
(A) CH 3-CH=CHCOH (B) CH r CHz-CH 2CH=NOCH 2CH 3
~
(C) CH 3-CHz-CH 2CH(OCH 2CH 3h (D) CH 3-CHz-CH 2--c-OCH 2CH 3
Q.4 irritating smell
[Yl + K 2Cr207 + H 2S04 ----t green solution
[Xl and [Yl are, respectively -
(A) soj- ,S02 (B) cr, HCl
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Q.S P- tolyl chloride and sodium-p- toluate react to produce-
(A) P-toluic Anhydride (B) Toluic Acid (C) Benzoic Acid (D) p- toludene
Q.7 In a Cu-voltameter, mass deposited in 30s is m gm. If the time-current graph is shown in the following figure
200 rnA - - - - - - - - - - - - -
t I
current :
I
100 rnA
20 s 30 s
time_
What is the electrochemical equivalent of Cu ?
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Q.9 Select the correct order among the following :
02N
0
N02
L S O]H
(B) On treatment Ofl2J with Bry'water (in excess) it results in a dibromo product
(C) When HCOOEt is treated with MeMgBr in excess followed by hydrolysis it will results in the formation of
tertiary alcohol.
Me CI
I I
(D) MeCH2 - CH - CH - Me aq.KOH) Product.
Optically pure SN2
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Q.l3 A layered sequence for a~~
FCC = ~CP ~metal;
S shown b~~OW :
CD 9 7
4 3 8
Z=O Z=aJ2 Z=a.
A face diagonal passes through the centre of atom 4 and the centre (s) of which other atom (s)?
(A) 1 (B) 2, 5 (C) 8, 12 (D) 9, 10
PARAGRAPHl
Machanism for the monochlorination of alkane:
Light supplies the energy to break down the chlorine-chlorine bond homolytically. Reaction, radical
substitution starts with homolytic bond cleavage.
CH2CH) CH 2CH)
Step II Hiliftl I -"H ,t'lCI
~H~+ ' - H C ~
~\.
H)C ) ~H
Trigonal planar
(Facilitates attack from both
sides equally well)
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Step IV
(a) Cl·+Cl· ---+ Clz
In step II Cl' can abstract 1° as well as 2° radical Actually Cl' is less selective towards 1° and 2° .
Quantitatively it is observed that Cl' is 3.8 times more reactive towards 2° (Hs) in comparison to 10(Hs) and
that is 5 times more reactive towards 3° (Hs).
l-chloro-2-methyl butane is one of the possible product. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the
formation of l-chloro-2-methyl butane from 2-methyl butane-
(A) The formation involves 1° radical in step II
(B) The formation does not involve any kind of racernisation
C'2 ,hv
rate= rIl
PARAGRAPH 2
Mixed chioro fluoro carbons, sometimes called CFC, such as CFCh, CF2Ch, CF3CI are known as "Freons". They
are unreactive and are widely used as refrigeration fluids. Freons are very much more effective "greenhouse gases
" in the atmosphere than CO 2 ; though the amount offreons present is extremely small. Much more seriously, the
freons have penetrated the upper atmosphere and causing damage to the ozone layer.
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Q.17 In which of the following way freons damage the ozone layer?
(A) By producing CCl 2 free radicals (B) By producing CFCI free radicals
(C) By producing fluorine free radicals (D) By producing chlorine free radicals
Q.18 Hydro fluoro carbons (HFCs) such as CH 2 FCF 3 and hydro chloro fluoro carbons
(HCFCs) such as CHCI 2CF 3 are used as substitutes ofCFCs because
(A) HFCs & HCFCs are not green house producing
(B) HFCs and HCFs are liquid not gases
(C) HFCs and HCFCs are also green house producing but they do not remain in the atmosphere for so long
(D) HFCs and HCFCs are lesser green house producing than CFCs
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Major Test
[Paper-I]
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Full Syllabus
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME:
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions :-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION -/I
5. Numerical response type questions. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and no negative marking for wrong answer
in this section. Answers to this Section are to be given in the form of single digit integer type.
SECTION - III
5. Based an Table Matching type questians (Single Correct Answer type). 3 marks will be awarded for the correct answer and
-1 markfor wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section-II (column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-l (Maximum Marks: 28)
Q.l For a reaction: 2A + 2B --t Products, the rate expression is r = K[A]2[B] ; which of the following is/are
correct?
(A) the reaction is first order with respect to B (B) the reaction is of second order with respect to A
(C) overall the reaction is of third order (D) slowest step of the reaction is given as A + B --t AB
Conc.
t= t
Time
Select the correct statements about the reaction discussed above:
(A) at point A, [P] = [Q] (B) at point A, [Q] > [P]
. nPo . 1+ n
(C) at pomt A, [P] = - (D) at pomt A, [P] = -
1+ n nPo
Q.3 The specific rate constant for a first order reaction is independent of the:
(A) concentration of the reactants (B) time
(C) temperature (D) Catalyst
Q.4 Which one of the following square planar complexes will be able to show geometrical isomerism?
(A) MX4 (B) Ma3b (C) M(aa'h (D) M(aa)2
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Q.6 Dimethyl glyoxime is used for estimation of
(A) Nickel (B) Cobalt (C) Zinc (D) Manganese
Q.7 The main function of roasting is -
(A) To remove the volatile matter (B) Oxidation
(C) Reduction (D) To make slag
Q.8 The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrode of area 100 cm2 separated by 10
cm was found to be 0.0001 0 - 1 If volume enclosed between two electrode contain 1.0 mole of salt, what is
molar conductivity (S cm2 mor 1) of salt at same concentration. Express your answer by multiplying by 10.
Q.9 A 4.0 molar aqueous solution ofNaCI is prepared and SOO mL of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to
the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolved is.
Q.I0 An alloy of Pb-Ag weighing 1.08 g was dissolved in dilute HN0 3 and the volume made to 100 ml. A silver
electrode was dipped in the solution and the EMF of the cell set up
Pt(s), H2Cg) IH+ (1M) II Ag+ (aq) I Ag(s)
was 0.62 V. IfEo",u = 0.80 V. What is the percentage of Ag in the alloy? [At 2SoC, RTIF = 0.06]
[At. wt. Ag= 108]
Q.ll The following sequence of reactions may be used to extract zinc from its sulphide ore
2ZnS + 302 ~ 2ZnO + 2S0 2
ZnO +C ~Zn+CO
How many tans of Zn can be obtained from 10 tons of ZnS, assuming that the yield is 7S%?
(Zn = 6S.3 & S = 32)
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SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks: 18)
• This section contains SIX questions of matching type.
• This section contains TWO tables (each having 3 columns and 4 rows)
• Based on each table, there are THREE questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Only one of these four options is correct.
• For each questions, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Ne ative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.15 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
Column-l Column-2 Column-3
Cons H 2SO4 , (i) Rearrangement involve transfer of (P) One Product
R-C=N-OH
(1) I Alkyl group at e- deficient soluble in NaOH
R' heteroatom
R C N H2 ' (ii) Better migratory group transfer (Q) a 0 amide is product
(II) II Br2IKOH
0
0 (iii) CROSS Product are not formed (R) Product gives
(III)
6 6~H H30
PhC03H ,
Ell
(iv) Configuration of migratory group
do not change
Isocyanides test
(If) SF4 <., \ (ii) spjd", square planar (Q) No. ofL.P = 1
(III) SF6 -( ....... , \ .....' (iii) spJ d , distorted octahedral
2
(R) No. ofL.P = 2
spJ d 2 , octahedral
(IV) XeF6 .\~ (iv)
(S) No. ofB.P = 6
(v) 90°
Q.16 Which of the only correct option?
(A) (I) (S) (B) (II) (R) (C) (III) (Q) (D) (IV) (S)
Q.17 Which of the following is only correct?
(A) (I) (iii) (v) (B) (II) (ii) (v) (C) (III) (iv) (v) (D) (I) (v) (ii)
Q.18 Which is only incorrect option?
(A) (I) (ii) (R) (B) (III) (iv) (S) (C) (II) (ii) (P) (D) (IV) (iii) (Q)
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Paper-l [OMR SHEET]
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PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Section I Section I Section I
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Section II Section II Section II
8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
@ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @ @
CD CD CD CD CD CD CD CD CD CD CD CD CD CD CD
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CD CD ®
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Major Test
[Paper-2]
Time allowed: 1 hours Max. Marks: 61
SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY Full Syllabus
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
A. GENERAL:
1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the question numbers on the
answer sheet in the respective subjects.
2. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
3. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. MARKING SCHEME:
Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-
SECTION -I
4. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. 3 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-1 mark for each wrong answer.
SECTION -/I
5. Multiple choice questions with multiple correct option. 4 marks will be awarded for each correct answer and
-2 mark for each wrong answer. However, +1 mark will be awarded for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
SECTION - 11/
6. Passage based multiple choice questions with single correct option. 3 maries will be awarded for each correct answer and No negative
marking for wrong answer.
C. FILLING THE OMR :
7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle properly.
8. Use only HB pencil or blue/black pen (avoid gel pen) for darking the bubbles.
9. While filling the bubbles please be careful about SECTIONS [i.e. Section-I (include single correct, reason type, multiple correct
answers), Section -II ( column matching type), Section-III (include integer answer type)]
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CHEMISTRY
Q.l to mL of 0.2 N HCI is added to 10 mL of 0.1 M H 2S0 4 and 10 mL of 0.4 N Ba(OH)2 solution. If Ba(OH)2 is
completely ionized, the resulting solution will be-
(A) neutral (B) strongly acidic (C) alkaline (D) slightly acidic
Q.2 The number of moles of KMn04 required to react completely with two moles of ferrous oxalate in acidic
medium is-
(A) 0.6 mol (B) 1.2 mol (C) 1.67 mol (D) 0.8 mol
Q.3 An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dehydrate is made upto 250 mL. The volume of
0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize to mL of this solution is-
(A) 40 mL (B) 20 mL (C) to mL (D) 4 mL
Q.4 0.6 g ofa metal on oxidation gave 0.84 g of its oxide. The equivalent mass of the metal is-
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 30
Q.5 The density of gas A is twice that to B at the same temperature, the molecular weight of gas B is twice that
of A. The ratio of pressure of gas A and B will be -
(A) I: 6 (B) I : I (C) 4 : I (D) I : 4
Q.6 Calculate the number of moles of gas present in the container of volume to L at 300 K. If the manometer
containing glycerin shows 5m difference in level as shown diagram.
(Given: dglycin= 2.72g ImL ; dmercury = 13.6 g/mL)
P"m = [atm
(A) 0.94 mole (B) 0.49 mole (C) 0.64 mole (D) none of these
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SECTION - 2 (Maximum Marks: 28)
• The section contains SEVEN questions
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is( are) correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks + 1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened
Zero Marks o If none of the bubble is darkened.
Negative Marks -2 In all other cases.
• For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get -2 marks, as a wrong
option is also darkened.
~
COOH COOH
(A) ©r OH
< ~
A,;di, ,treogili oc,,", (8) Boiling point order
OH N02
Cl Cl ~C/COOH
(C) ~ < ©rei M"ti., po;nl ocd~ (D) II <
H/C~OOH HOO~C"H
H"C/COOH
II Acidic strength
Cl
Q.9
0;/
_, I Na/liq.NH, ) (A)
(A) On treating with hot alkaline kMn04 (A) gives propan-I,3-dioic acid
(B) On treating with aqueous KOH (B) gives cyclohexanol
(C) The product (C) is 3,6-dimethylcyclohex-I,4-diene
(D) On ozonolysis one mole of(C) gives one mole each of propan -1,3-dia I and 2-methylpropan-I,3-dial
(D)H
Q.ll Alkene are not significant products because BrEl is a poor base.
The work involved in a reversible adiabatic process of expansion of an ideal gas from P, and V, to P2 and V2
r
is given by-
w=-ncvT{I-(~~
CP
(A) W = P2 V2 -P,V,
y-l
(B) ]
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Q.12 For resonating structures
0- 0
0
aCOo~a<ll
Q.13 Electrolys is ) Major product
9 Ell
C00 Na
Q.14 Which of the following compounds is most reactive for Wurtz reaction?
(C)o*
Br Br
(B) ~
PARAGRAPH 1
0.5 gm bleaching powder was suspended in water & excess 1<1 is added. On acidifying with di!. H 2S04, Iz was
liberated which required 50 ml of Ni l 0 Hypo (Na2S203.5H 20) in presence of starch. Reaction involved are
I. CaOCIz + H 2S04-----+ CaS04 + H 20 + Clz
II. 21<1 + Clz -----+ 2KCl + 12
III. 2Na2S203 + h -----+ Na2S406 + 2Nal
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PARAGRAPH 2
In real gases due to force of attraction between the molecules & finite size of the molecules. There is deviation in
the behaviour of the real gases from the ideal gas behaviour. Experimentally curves for PVm (Z, compressibility
RT
factor) were determined
Real gas Temp. T
p
The plot of Z vs P depends on the temperature.
~/J'~~:al
P
Real
gas
~ Ideal \'(
gas
gas
v v v v
Q.18 Given Z Vs P graphs for a real gas at different temperature
Real gas P
P
Identify the incorrect statement [TB = boyle temp. Tc= critical temp.]
(A)T, ""Tc (B)T4 > Tc (C)T B < T2 < Tc
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Paper-2 [OMR SHEET]
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Practice Test for JEE Advanced
Answer Key
• UNIT TEST -1
Paper-l
•
Paper-2
1. (8) 2. (D) 3.(C) 4.(C) S. (D) 6.(C) 7.(C)
8. (8,D) 9.(8,C) 10. (C,D) 11. (A,8,C) 12. (A,D) 13. (A,8,D) 14. (A,8,C)
15. (A) 16. (8) 17. (8) 18. (A)
• UNITTEST-2 •
Paper-l
1. (A,8,C) 2. (8,C,D) 3. (8,C) 4. (A,8,C) S. (A,D) 6. (A,8 ,C,D) 7. (A,8 ,C)
8.4 9.5 10.2 11. 3 12.8 13. (8) 14. (A)
15. (8) 16.(C) 17. (8) 18. (C)
Paper-2
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4.(C) S.(C) 6.(C) 7.(C)
8. (A,8,D) 9.(A,C) 10. (8,C) 11. (A,C) 12. (A,C) 13. (C,D) 14. (A,8,C)
15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (8) 18. (8)
• UNITTEST-3 •
Paper-l
1. (D) 2. (A,C) 3. (A,C,D) 4. (A,8 ,C) S. (A,8) 6.(C) 7. (A,8 ,C,D)
8.7 9.9 10.5 11.2 12.2 13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (D)
Paper-2
1. (D) 2. (A) 3.(C) 4.(C) S. (A) 6. (D) 7. (8)
8. (A,8,C,D) 9.(A,8,C,D) 10. (8,D) 11. (A,8) 12. (A,8) 13. (C,D) 14. (A,C,D)
IS.(C) 16. (8) 17. (C) 18. (A)
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Unitwise Practice Test for JEE Advanced
• UNIT TEST -4
Paper-l
•
Paper-2
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) S. (B) 6.(C) 7. (B)
8. (A,B,C) 9. (A,C,D) 10. (A,B,C) 11. (A,B) 12. (A,C) 13. (C,D) 14. (A,B,C)
15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (D)
• UNITTEST-S •
Paper-l
1. (C,D) 2. (A,B) 3. (B,C,D) 4. (A,B,C) S. (A,C,D) 6. (B,C,D) 7.(C)
8.3 9.3 10.3 11. 2 12.2 13. (D) 14. (A)
15. (D) 16.(C) 17. (B) 18. (D)
Paper-2
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4.(C) S. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B)
8. (B,C,D) 9. (A,B,C,D) 10. (A,C,D) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B,C) 14. (A,B,C)
IS.(C) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
Paper-2
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (D) S. (D) 6. (A) 7. (D)
8. (C,D) 9. (A,C) 10. (B,C,D) 11. (A,C,D) 12. (A,B,D) 13. (A,C) 14. (B,C)
IS.(C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (D)
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• UNIT TEST -6 •
Paper-l
1. (A,B,C) 2. (A,B,C,D) 3. (A,C,D) 4. (B,C,D) S. (C,D) 6. (A,B,C) 7. (A,B,C)
8.5 9.3 10.2 11.5 12. 1 13. (B) 14. (A)
IS.(C) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D)
Paper-2
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) S. (B) 6. (B) 7.(C)
8. (A,B,D) 9. (A,B,C) 10. (B,C) 11. (A,B,C) 12. (A,C) 13. (A,B,D) 14. (B,C,D)
15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D)
• UNIT TEST -7 •
Paper-l
1. (D) 2. (A,D) 3. (A,C) 4. (A,C,D) S. (B,D) 6. (A,C,D) 7. (B,C)
8.3 9.3 10.1 11.8 12.2 13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (D)
Paper-2
1. (A) 2. (B) 3.(C) 4. (D) S. (B) 6. (D) 7.(C)
8. (A,B,D) 9. (A,C,D) 10. (A,B,D) 11. (A,C) 12. (B,C,D) 13. (A,D) 14. (B,C,D)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C)
• UNIT TEST -8
Paper-l
•
1. (A,B,C) 2. (B,C,D) 3. (A,B,D) 4. (A,C) S. (B,C,D) 6.(C) 7. (A)
8.8 9.4 10.3 11. 4 12.2 13.(C) 14. (D)
15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D)
Paper-2
1. (A) 2.(C) 3. (A) 4. (B) S. (D) 6. (A) 7.(C)
8. (A,B,C) 9. (A,B) 10. (B,C) 11. (B,C) 12. (C,D) 13. (B,D) 14. (B,C,D)
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C)
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Unitwise Practice Test for JEE Advanced
• UNITTEST-9 •
Paper-l
1. (A,B,D) 2. (A,C,D) 3. (A,C) 4. (B,D) S. (A,B,C) 6. (A,D) 7. (A,C,D)
8.4 9.4 10.4 11. 4 12.3 13.(C) 14. (D)
IS.(C) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C)
Paper-2
1. (C) 2. (D) 3.(C) 4. (D) S. (B) 6.(C) 7. (A)
8. (A,B) 9. (B,C,D) 10. (A, B) 11. (B,C,D) 12. (A,B,C,D) 13. (A,B,D) 14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B)
Paper-2
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4.(C) S.(C) 6. (D) 7. (D)
8. (A,B,C,D) 9. (C,D) 10. (A,B,C) 11. (A,B,D) 12. (B,C,D) 13. (A,D) 14. (A,D)
IS.(C) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C)
Paper-2
1. (B) 2.(C) 3. (D) 4. (A) S. (A) 6.(C) 7. (B)
8. (A,C,D) 9. (B,C,D) 10. (A,B,C,D) 11. (A,B,C,D) 12. (A,B,C,D) 13. (B,C,D) 14. (A,C,D)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C)
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• MAJOR TEST
Paper-l
•
1. (A,B,C) 2. (A,C) 3. (A,B) 4.(C) 5.(C) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. 1 9. 1 10.1 11.5 12.4 13.(C) 14. (D)
15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C)
Paper-2
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4.(C) 5.(C) 6. (A) 7. (A)
8. (A,B,D) 9. (B,D) 10. (A,C,D) 11. (C) 12. (A,B,C) 13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (C)
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Unitwise Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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Unit Test-l
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [B,C,D] Z2 42
I $I excitation energy 3 - = 13.6 x 2 = 13.6 x 2 eV
3 3
24 = 13.6 (~ __
1) Z2
= 24.178 eV
e 22
4. [C,D]
~ Z2 = 2.3529 and z = 1.5339 o 0-
I.E. = 13.6 x Z2 = 32 eV H----C"'" - - H-c( B.O. = 2 + 1 = 1.5
"0- "'0 2
= 13.6 Z2 C~ -
312 ) B.O. = 2+1+1 =~=1.33
3 3
8 32x8 C-O bond length in HCOO- is less than C-O
=32x-eV=--eV
9 9 bond length in CO~-
Excitation energy = Excitation potential
5. [A,C]
= 32x8 Volt
2.
9
[A,B]
I~ J}"dT No. of (j bonds in [BF4r = 4
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7. [B,C) Mg(s) + (1 /8) S8(S) ~ MgS(s) t.H = -82.2
Due to incomplete octet.
8. [5]
Z2
36'1
Mg(g)
1
S(g)
1332
LE
IE = 13.6 x -2 eV
n
Z = 4 , so th IS·IS B e 3+
· 520.~
Atomic mass of Be is 5. Mg2+(g)
9. [I]
rcovalent = rA + rB - 7 (t.X)2
= 100 + 50 -7 x (1.9)2pm
= 1.25 A
10. [6] 36.5 + 133.2 + 520.6 -72.4 + LE = - 82.2
Energy of e- ej ected from He + ion or LE = - 82.2 + 72.4 - 36.5 - 133.2 - 520.6
= Ep - I.E. He+ or LE = - 700.1 kcallmol.
= (67.15 - 54.4) eV = 12.75 eV :. energy released due to formation of lattice
Let e- of H-atom goes to nth orbit after being :: 700 kcallmol
stroken by e- ofHe+ ion then
13. [B]
12.75=En- E ,
2s orbital
= -13.6 x n12 + 13.6 = 13.6 ( 1- n12 ) No. of radial node = n - e- I = 2 - 0- I = I
E2 4 27
11. [5] Energy -....:::!.- =-
E 2-+ 6 32
v = 2.18 x 106 x Z mlsec 16. [0]
4
Theory based
=> 2.725 x 106 = 2.18 x 106 x Z
4
17. [0]
=>Z=5
Theory based
12. [7]
18. [0]
Theory based
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• Solution Paper-2
1. [B)
It is not true direction of overlapping because 6. [C)
overlapping occur's in only e-. IP, => Li Be B C
,j, ,j, ,j,
,j,
2. [D) IP2 => He Li Be >B
l
H 2S is more acidic than H 20. It is due to the fact I IPt I
than H-S bond is weaker than H-O bond. : . so Li > B > C > Be
7. [C)
3. [C)
Suppose the no. of electrons in ion = x Force = kq,Q2 => F oc ~
r2 r2
. . 30.4
no. 0 f neutrons Ion = x + - - x x
III and .: roc n2
100
I
= x + 0.304x : . F oc 4
n
= 1.304x
Number of electrons in neutral atom = x + 3 8. [B,D)
..
Number of protons in neutral atom = x + 3 SnCh ~ Sp2 hybridisation /Sn"
Mass number = P + x Cl CI
Bent
56 = x + 3 + 1.304 x (0)
53 = 2.304 x N
·N02~ / ~
53 o 0 Bent
x= - - =23 Rest are linear.
2.304
no. of protons = 23 + 3 = 26 => ~~Fe+3 9. [B,C)
A=~I~O
For d-blockgroup no. = no. ofe-in 3d + no. ofe- 4s
=3+2=5
or A.JV = constant
11. [A,B,C)
5
.JVdA+ ~dV=O 24Cr = [Ar]'8 3d 4s' (exceptional configuration)
2"V 'm' can have values from - € to +€
dA 1 dV 'Ag' ~ [Kr]36 4d'o 5s'
--=--
A 2 V
,j, ,j,
I dV
18 ~ +112 S = +112
100 2 V
18 ~ -112 S = - 112
dV 2
V 100
or % increase in V = 2%
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12. [A, D)
E3 = EI + E2 => hV3 = hVI + hV2
he he he AIA 2
- = -+ - =>A3=---'--=-
A3 AI A2 AI +A 2
13. [A,B,D)
fact
14. [A,B,C)
nh
mvr= -
21t
D is not correct
15. [A)
tlE 3.... 2 = E3 -E2 3.4-1.5 1.9
tlE 3.... 1 E3 - EI 13.6 -1.5 12.1
16. [B)
I he he
he - = - + -
A AI A2
17. [B)
I -; Size of'P' < Size of 'AI'
II -; Size of 'As' < Size of 'Ga'
m -; Size of'P' < Size of 'As'
IV -; Size of 'AI' ~ Size of 'Ga'
18. [A)
Order ofIE I -; P > As > Ga > Al
Chemistry
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Unit Test-2
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [A,B,C) S. [A, D]
V strength = 56; Mass of I mole CO 2 = 44 gm
28 I
:. M= - =2.5 1 gm = u
11.2 1.67 x 10-24
:. 1 contain 2.5 moles ofH 20 2
or 2.5 x 34 = 85 g H 20 2 = 100 x 10 24x44 u
167
wt. of I litre solutin = 265 g (.: d = 265 giL)
:. wH,o = 180g or moles of H 20 = 10 = 4400 x 10 24 u
167
x = 2.5 = 0.2 = 2.65 x 1025 u
HP, 2.5+ 10
% w = 2.5 x 34 x 100 = 8.5 6. [A,B,C,D]
v 1000
m = 2.4 x 1000 = 13.88
+IC_H
~ -~
H-C-DH ~
+3C-D-
180
(A) +36-DH ~ +36_0 + I
+3C-D-
2. [B,C,D] II II
o II
3Sn2++ 14W + crO~- --+ 3Sn3+ + 2c?+ + 7H20 0 o
2 -3 -1 / 2
(B) P2 H 4 ~ PH 3 + P4H 2
3. [B,C)
16 o +1-3
no = - =0.5N A no. of molecules (C) P4 + NaOH ~ NaH 2P0 2 + PH 3
, 32
o -I +5
(D) CaOCI 2 ~ CaCI 2 + Ca(Ce0 3)2
16
n = -=0.33 atoms = 0.5 x 2NA
0, 48
no. of molecules of
0 3 = 0.33 NA = 0.99 NAatom
4. [A,B,C)
CS 2 + 3Ch --+ CCI 4 + S2Ci 2
1 2
74 71 x3
1 2 :. H 2S04 can be between 1.44 mole to 5.76 mole
74 213
before = 0.0135 0.0093 8. [4]
reaction (Limiting reagent) Initial moles ofNH3 = 0.38 moles
0.0135 - .0093 0.0093 x 154
Moles ofNH3 remaining after completation
0.0042 x 74 = 1.45 gm CCI 4
= (0.38 - 0.025x)
formed
Moles of NH 3 in water = 24
MoiesofNH3 inCHCI 3
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. . Moles ofNH3 in CHCI 3 N 2H4 -+ Y + lOe-
2X +4=0
= MoiesofNH3 in water = 0.0112
X=-2
24
.: two nitrogen atoms losses = 10 e-
.. 0.38 - 0.025 x = 0.0112 x 24 + 0.0112
: . I nitrogen atoms losses = 5e-
= 0.0112 x 25 N"2 -+ N+3
.. 0.025 x = 0.38 - 0.0112 x 25
= 0.38 - 0.28 = 0.1 12. [8]
0.1 12
orx=--=4 27= - x l8
0.D25 x
x= 12 x 18=8
9. [5]
0.,.
27
No. ofm equ. OfNa2C03 in 80 ml of resulting
. 42.4 13. [B]
so IutlOn = - x 30 - 0.4 x 50
53 Theory based
=4
No. ofm equ ofNa2C0 3 in 10 ml of above 14. [A]
Theory based
solution = 0.5
No. ofm equ in 50 ml of diluted solution 15. [B]
=0.05
So 0.05 = Normality of 40 times diluted A x V Theory based
• Solution Paper-2
1. [C]
Structure of H2S 20 g is 2. [D]
~ ~
+ 2+
MnO:; + 8H + 5e- -+ Mn + 4 H20] x 2
H-O-S-O-O-S-O-H
C20~- -+ 2C0 2 + 2e-] x 5
~ ~
It contains peroxide linkage for which oxidation
number of these two O-atoms will be -I each 2+
2 Mn + 10 CO 2 + 8 H20
:. 2 x (+I)+2x+6 x (-2)+2 x (-1)=0
Thus, the coefficient of oxalate ion C20~- is 5.
or 2 + 2x - 12 - 2 = 0 or x = + 6
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3. [DJ 10. [B, C)
Only in reaction (d), the O.N. of the elements CH,COOH + C2HsOH -+ CH3COOC2H5+ H20
undergo a change 72 grn 2.77 x 1025 x 1.67 x I 0-24
+1- 2 +2 0 0 +4
Cu 2S+ 2FeO --+ 2Cu+ 2 Fe+S02 72 = 2.77 x 1.67 x 10
60
i.e. O.N. of Cu decreases from + 1 to 0 and that of
Fe decreases from +2 to 0 while that of S increases 1.2 2.77 x 16.7 = 1.005
46
from -2 to +4. Therefore, it is a redox reaction.
alcohol is limiting reagent
4. [C) acetic acid is excess reagent
Blackness appears in lead paintings due to its slow
and gradual conversion to PbS. H 20 2 oxidises 11. [A, C)
black lead sulphate to white lead sulphate. CaC03 --+ CaO + CO 2
100 gm
5. [C)
:. 100 gm --+ = 56 gm
Sodium hexameta phosphate
56
:.90 gm-+ = -x90
6. [C) 100
Ca(OHh removes soluble bicarbonates in the form = 50.40 gm
of insoluble CaC0 3. or 0.9 gm molecule
c£. ~l
+ 4.44 grn
CaCI2
CaCI 2 ~ CaC0 3 -+ CaO
M~
Illgm 56gm
Only ppm can not be calculate
.. 56 gm CaO req. = III gm CaCI 2
III
.. 1.12 grn ofCaO req. = - x 1.12 = 2.22 grn 15. [AJ
56
Meq. OfKl03= Meq. ofKl 215++ lOe -+ I~
2.22
% CaCI 2 = - - x 100 = 2.22 gm
4.44 M x 5 x 50 = lO x 0.1 x I 2r --+ I~ + 2e
=50% :. M=4 x 10-3
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16. [A)
Meq. of ascorbic acid in 50 mL solution mixture
withHCI
= Meq. ofKI0 3 (Is+ + 6e ~ 1)
3
= 4 x 10- x 6 x I = 0.024
Meq. of ascorbic acid in 500 mL
= 0.24 meq. in 250 ml
mixture of original solution
:. N x 1000 = 0.96
or N = 9.6 x 10-4
17. [B)
Meq. ofCuS04 in 100 mL = 100 x 0.02 = 2
2x249.6 = 0.499
.. Wcuso, = 1000 g
18. [B)
10 x O.02 -4
Eq. 12 = Eq. ofCuS04 = = 2 x 10
1000
.. ~=2xlO-4
254 / 2
:. WI, = 0.0254 g
Chemistry
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Unit Test-3
Hints &Solutions
• Solution Paper-1
1. [D] For the acids and it's conjugate base
KaKb = 10- 14
Kc= [H 2 ][I 2 ] = 4x4 =4 I Ox 10- 14
[HI]2 22 Hence Ka for HCN = ' 5 = 5 x 10- 10
2x10-
2HI ~ H2 + 12
2+2x (4+a-x) 4-x (H30+] = (CN"] = ~KaC = ~5xI0-1O x 0.1
(4-x)=2+2x = 7 x 10-6
x = 2/3
2. [A,C] 9. [9]
H 20( e) ~ H 20(g) Ksp Mg(OHh = [Mg+2] [OHl 2
If pressure is increased 10- 11 = [.I] [OIrf
equilibrium shift in backward [OIr]2 = 10- 10
so more H 20(e) formed and b.p. increased pOH=5
pH+pOH=14
3. [A,C, D]
On conversion of ice into water pH= 14-5=9
Solid ~ liquid
Entropy increases. 10. [5]
free energy decrease due to which process is We have
spontaneous. [Salt]
pH=-logK + log - -
4. [A,H,C] a [Acid]
Because size of cation increases. 0.2 x 1000
5. [A,B] 5 100
=-log2x 10- + log O.lxIOOO
When hydration energy of compound is more
than its lattice energy then only it is soluble 100
=4.7 + 0.3 = 5
6. [C]
F 11. [2]
BF
I
B >
fJ_ F > (b CI-F
/p,
I
(OJ
NH 40H
I
~
0
3/",
F F
F 'F \YIF c(1-a) ca ca
Given pH = 11
7. [A,B,C,D] :. [H+] = 10- 11
factual [~Irl = 10-3 = ca
Since, c = 0.05
8. [7]
10-3 10-3 -2
NaCN + HCI------t HCN + NaCI :. a=-=-=2xI0 or 2%
c 0.05
[HCN] = 0.2x50 = 0.1 M
100
HCN + H 20 ~H30+ + CN-
Unitwise Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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12. [2J 13. [OJ
CH, COOH + C,H,OH ~ CH, coo C,H, + H,O By Theory
Initially: O. I mol 0.1 mol o o 14. [OJ
At equilibrium : (0.1 - xl mol (0.1 - xl mol x x
By Theory
In 10 mI solution at equilibrium moles of 15. [OJ
CH3COOH present=O.1 (0.1- x)=O.1 (O.l-x) By Theory
moles ofNaOH
:. 0.1 (O.l-x) = 80 x 10-4 = 8 x 10- 3 16. [OJ
or 0.01-0.lx=0.008 By Theory
or x = 0.02
17. [C)
x2 (0.02)2
Kc = -----,;-
(0.I-x)2
1
= 32 Kc = 32 x - = 2
16
(0.08)2 = 42 =16
By Theory
18. [OJ
By Theory
0.,.
• Solution Paper-2
1. [OJ : . order of solubility
(Na + Hg) => Sodium amalgam. S2 > Sl > S3
due to amalgam decrease the rate of reaction. AX > A2X > AX3
2. [AJ 7. [BJ
T LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH ) B CO + H20 ~C02 + H2
so lub ilityt Initial conc. 3 3 x 0
3. [C) At eqn. 2 2 (x + 1) 1
(i) Mg3N2+ 6H 20 ~ 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH3(A) ( X +1)
5 = - - = 20 = x + 1
(ii) AIN + 3H20 ~ AI(OHh+ NH3(B) 4
(iii) Na202 + 2H 20 ~ 2NaOH + H20 2(C) => x = 19
4. [C) 8. [A, B, C, OJ
Correct order of stability is Due to smaller size BeH2 & MgH2 are covalent.
BeS04 > MgS04 > CaS04> SrS04 For stability BeH2 containts 3 centre 2e bond.
Down the group solubility of sulphates of
alkaline earth metal decreases. 9. [A,B,C,DJ
5. [AJ K hydr = Kw or log K hydr = log Kw + pKb
M + (x + y) NH3 ~ M+ (NH 3)x + e- (NH3)Y Kb
Ammoniated Ammoniated or pK hydr = pKw - pKb
cation electron or pKhydr = 14 - pKb
Blue colour due to ammoniated electron.
Smaller Kb for the base, greater is pKb value
6. [OJ hence smaller will be the pKhydr and hence extent
A2X ~ 2A+ + X- of hydrolysis increases.
2s l Sl Hydrolysis of Fe3+ is more acidic, hence pKb is
AX~A++X- Ksp -- S22 higher, therefore, for Fe 3+ pK hydr is greater than
S2 S2
AX3 ~A+3 + 3:A that ofFe2+.
S3 3S3 Hydrolysis of Ba2+is more basic, therefore pKb is
smaller, hence pK hydr is higher.
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10. [B,D) 14. [A,C,D)
2 K 10- 14
HA~H+ +A- Ca
Ka=-- ForNaA Kh = ~= _ _ =10-6
, K. 10-8
(I-a)
CCI-a) Ca Ca K 10- 14
ForNaB K h = ~= _ _ =10-8
.
Smcea«I,hencea= ~Ka
C = JKa
JC
, K. 10-6
Kw 10- 14 10 ~
ForNaC,Kh= - 2 8
A-+H20~ HA+Olf" K. 2x10-
Excess ofHA present in the system reduces the K 10- 14
ForNaD K h = ~= _ _ =10-4
hydrolysis ofHA. , K. 1010-
For isohydric solution of two weak acid initial
K 10- 14
concentration of H+ must be equal. ForNaE K h = ~= _ _ =1O-7
, K. 10-7
11. [A,B) Since Kh ofNaD is the highest, therefore, NaD is
Ksp(MnS) = 5.6 x 10- 16 = [Mn2+] [S-2] most extensively hydrolysed
I
~ [S-2] = 5.6 x 10- 14 (For precipitation ofMnS) ForNaBpH= -(pKw+pK.+logC)
Now [H+]2 [S-2] = 1.0 x 10-22 2
I I
+ 10-22 or pH = - (14 + 6 + log - )
~[H]- .J--~ 2 10
14
5.6x 10- I I
="2 (20-1)= "2x19
=4.2 x IO-S M
~ pH = 5 - log 4.2 = 5 - 0.6232 = 4.38 orpH =9.5
For isohydric solution, Kal C I = Ka2C 2
10-22 .: 10-7 x 0.1 = 10-6 x 0.0 I = 10-8
At this pH, [Zn 2+] =
9
14 = 1.8 x 10- M
5.6 x 10- Hence, O.I(M) HE is isohydric to O.OI(M) HB
Now Ksp(CdS) < Ksp(ZnS) < Ksp(MnS) So ease solution
of precipitation of ions is in order of
15. [C)
Cd 2+ > Zn 2+ > Mn2+ .
For A-: log Keq = 21.2 - 14.7 = 7
Again higher [Hj i.e. lower [S-2] ion concentration
ForB-:logK eq =9.2-15.2=- 6
Cd2+ is most easily precipitated so it needs least
[S-2] conc. hence maximum [Hj so order of For C- : log Keq = 1.2 - 3.2 = - 2
required [Hj conc. is Mn2+< Zn2+< Cd2+ 16. [Bt
[H ] = [OIr] = 10-7 only at T = 298 K on
changing temperature Kw changes so conc of H+
12. [A,B)
& OIr also changes.
HIn ---..:::::.. In- + H+
~ 17. [C)
Red blue
a2
H = pK + log [In-] K = Increase 10 pressure will
P c V(I- a)
In [HIn]
decrease volume. To have Kc constant a i.e.
(A) pH = (5-log 3) + log (~~) degree of dissociation of PC Is should decrease.
18. [A)
=4.05 An increase in temperature will favour backward
reaction (endothermic). Also
(B) pH = pKln + log G~) Kc for 2S0 2 + O 2 ~ S03 will
= 5 - log 3 + log 3 = 5 2.303 log K c, = t.H [T2 - TI]
KCI R TIT2
13. [C, D) t.H = -ve
On decreasing the conc. of H2 Qc < Kc so eqm
shifting forward and on adding CO in eqm it
shifts in forward direction.
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Unit Test-4
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [A,C,D) (B) From expression of Maxwell distribution
fraction of molecules between V mps ---+ V mps + f
~G=RT In P2
PI V mps is independent of value of V mps and is
dependent only on!
2
= 8.314 x 298 x 2.303 log - (C) T2 is higher temperature
1 (D) As seen from graph, :. A, B, D
P2
~S=-Rln- <0
PI 6. [A,B,D)
PT = (1 + 3 x) = 1 + 3 x 0.1 = 1.3 atm
2. [A,B,C) ~P = 0.2 atm or 76 x 0.3 cm ofHg
U rms= or 760 x 0.3 mm ofHg.
.---~----~--~~----~----~
8 (2)
3. [A,B,C,D)
Number of moles ofN 2 in vessel
PV= ~RT
M (A) at TI = 2.8 = 0.1
2.8
Number of moles oflzin
4. [A,B,C,D)
At the point of maximum value ofRDF Vessel (A) at TI = 12.7 = 0.05
254
dP =0
dr
2zr2) a
( 2r-~ =0; r= ~
where Z = 3 for Li2+ and Z = 2 for the He + ; A B
Z = 1 for hydrogen Vessel (A) is heated to T2 the evacuated vessel
(B) is heated to T2/3. On opening stop-cock lz
S. [A,B,D) sublimes in (A) and its vapours condense to solid
(A) .: area under the curve gives fraction of lz in (B). Let the number of moles ofN2 moved
molecules and total area is constant from (A) to (B) at equilibrium be x.
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Pressure ofN 2 in (A) = Pressure ofN 2 in (B) 1 mole 12 mole t.H =-3690 J/mole By 12 moles
(0.1 - x)RT2 xRT2 of O 2, heat liberated = -3690 J
V 3V => By 29.27 moles of O 2, heat liberated
One solving, x = 0.075 = 29.27 x (-3690) J
: . Mass ofN 2 is vessel (A) = 0.7g 12
Mass ofN 2 in vessel (B) = 2.lg 12 (9)
0.1 I mol
At 2 atm pressure, ro = - x - - .
9 (5) , 32 50 mm
No. of moles of gas molecules present
In lInd case, Po, = 6 atm and Px = 4 atm
10 23 I
,0.1 I 3 mol
6 x lO 23 -"6 At 6 atm pressure, r 0 = - x _ x - .
23 , 32 50 mm
Mol wt. of gas = 6 x 10 x 10- 22 = 60
u~
3RT
or
rx [32 4 4 2
M ~ xJ... x3 = V162 x "6 =9" x "3
Mu~s 32 50
or RT 4 2 0.1 I mol
3 or rx = - x - x - x - x3 - .
Mu~ 9 3 32 50 mm
Per mol KE = ~2 RT = 3 x
I
, 2 3 2 = ~ x ~ x ~ x J... x 3 x 162 gm
Mu~ 9 3 32 50 min
I I 2 I 8 0.1 I
:. for - mol, total KE = - x M x U nns x - or rx = - x - x - x 3 x 162
6 2 6 27 32 50
I 10 I 3
= - x 60 x 10 x - Arg = 5 x 10 J = 5 kJ = 0.3 x 3 gm
2 6 100 min
10 (5) :. in 100 mins, wt ofx gas effused out
t.WA-+B=-10J = 0.9 gm = 900 mg
t.WAB = Pt.V; t.W BC = 0 = 9000J = 9 KJ
t.q = t.E - t.W 2
= 8.314 x 298 x 2.303 log -
t.E=O I
t.q=5=0-t.W
t.W = - 5J = t.W A-+ B+ t. W B-+ C + t.W C-+ A
or - 5 J = - 10+ 0 + t.W C-+ A
13. [D)
t.WC-> A= 5 J
By theory
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• Solution Paper-2
1. [C]
W =-PliV
=-rrr2
r = _P2_-_P_1 = _V,,---2-_V--,-I
2 2 7. [B)
PV PV PV
2. [B) 111 = RT 112= 2RT 113 4RT
v
liS = nR In _2 = 2.303 nR log-2
V
( nl+n2+n3····)RT
VI VI A Iso fiIIId pressure = -'--'---=------"---'---
V
= 2.303 x 5 mol x (8.314 JK- I mol-I) log 100L
10L =P (1+~+~+i+ ... .)
= 95.7 JK- I
3. [B)
=P (1+.!.+~+~+
2 2 2
....)
liS A-> c = Sc - SA = 50 e.u. . .. (i)
liSC->D = SD- Sc = 30 e.u. . .. (ii)
liS B-> D = SD - SB = 20 e.u. . .. (iii) =P [_II]=2P
liS A-> B= SB- SA 1- -
2
eq (i) + eq (ii) - eq. (iii)
= 50 + 30-20
=60 eu 8. [A,B,C]
liu = Q + w ~ nCv liT = 0 + W (In adiabatic
4. [A) process Q = 0)
Plot given in Figure 'a' gives variation of z vs. P. ... ..(i)
{Since C v = ~}
5. [B) y-l
..... (ii)
P = Poe
-kt 228
P = - + 76 = 152cmHg Againw=-nCv (TI-T2)=-nCV [1- ~~ ]TI
. o 3
. ll4 p j(Y-ll/Y]
Att= 14 mill; P = -+76 =1l4cmHg ~w=-nCvTI 1- ( p~
r
3 [
~ 152e-kt = ll4
[1-(~~
Cp
1 152 1
~ k= -€n-=-xO.28 =-nCvTI ] .... (iii)
t ll4 14
= 0.02 x 60hr- 1 = l.2 hr-I
9. [A,C,D)
6. [C] Qp = Qv + PliV = Qv+ P(Vv- VI)
= Qv + nRT (": V v< < VI)
Compressibility factor Z = PV
RT Qp = 2260 x 18 x 10 = 406.8 kJ
Qv =Qp-nRT=406.8-lO x 8.314x W- 3 x373
From the given equation (p + ~2 ) V = RT = 375.8 kJ
~ =RTorPV= (RT- ~)
liS = 406800 = 1091 Jik
orPV+ 373
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10. [A,B,C] 18. [D)
by theory Along path BA,
~E = -52 k.J and ~W=21 k.J
11. [A,B)
: . ~q=~ E -~W=-52-21=-73k.J
~G ;98 =-92+298 x 198 x 1O- 3 = - 33KJ
~Go = -2.303 x 8.314 x 298 x 10-3 log Kp
- 33
~ 10gKp= = 5.78
- 2.303 x 8.314 x 298 x 10- 3
~ Kp = 6.03 x 105
optimum condition for high yield is high pressure
and low temperature (- 700K)
12. [A,C]
K > 103 ~Ptotal=Po , =10
P J
& ~ = 10 ~ Po = 10- 3 atm
Po'J J
13. [C,D)
AtV A = IxR x 100 = 100R
1
VB = I x R x 600 = 200 R
3
-: VB > V A so expansion of gas takes place
VB = 200 x 0.0821 = 16.42 L.
14. [A,B,C]
~H = ~U + P.~V + v.~P + ~P . ~V
is correct relation.
15. [A)
V/3
Pe = nCt
1 x eO= 3x C x 300
C = -1= l . l x IO- 3 •
900
16. [B)
3
Slop = ~= nC = 3x 1.l x lO-
T e V /3 e2/ 3
3.3x 10- 3
e I
3.3
IOOOe
17. [A)
Along path ACB,
~q = 84 k.J and ~ W = -32 k.J
~E = ~q + ~ W = 84 - 32 = 52 k.J
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Unit Test-S
Hints &Solutions
• Solution Paper-1
1. [C,D) 6. [B,C,D)
[C] Both have same IUPAC name Me,,-~
....-'C = C
=o<Me ~ pos present
3-ethyl-2,5,6-trimethyl-4-[ methyl propyl] Ph...- Ph
heptane ~ Optically inactive & not resolvable
[D] Both have same IUPAC name B,C,D in all there is no syrnrn. Element and
4-arnino-2-chloro methl-3-fluoromethyl bulan-I-ol resolvable & optically active
2. [A,B) 7.
A & B both have same IUPAC name as given in
question.
3. [B,C,D)
CH3 Cl
Cl~CH3& ):d
~ Both are positional isomer of each other
~H
4. [A,B,C)
HO CliO H
I I I I
H3C-C-C-OH H3C-C-C-CH 2-CH 3 H3C-C-CH:rCH3
I I I I N0 2
OH J-[H Cl
(A) (B) (C)
!
For meso chiral centre &
Example where SIR is possible
syrnm. both are essential Me'N/Me COOH COOH
[D] sym. & chiral centre both present ~ so meso Me~Me ~CH3 ~Cl
5.
form possible
[A,C,D)
LQJ 'LQJ 'LQJ
Me Me 9. (3)
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W=>7[6
=2-3-4+7=>2
13. [D]
Theory Based
14. [A]
Theory Based
11. [2] 15. [D]
S03H Theory Based
HO-o--t-COOH -+ only-S03H and 16. [C]
Theory Based
C",CH 17. [B]
-COOH group react with NaHC0 3 so only 2 Theory Based
equivalent of NaHC0 3 is used or (2) acidic
hydrogen is removed 18. [D]
Theory Based
12. [2]
X=>2
V=> 3
r~-co'"
l~ 00
"'-CO:?'I~::,..::,..~
b'lCXO
• Solution Paper-2
1. [D]
(4-ethyl pent-4-en-2-amine) •
(3-methylbutan2-01)
5. [D]
4. [C]
Due to opposite configuration I and II
compounds are enantiomer but. Due to different
structures I and II are structural isomers.
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6. [OJ
When benzene react with Ch in presence of
sunlight, gives benzene-hexachloride by free
radical addition reaction, not benzyl chl oride.
O
~
..v
+ 3CI, h' , CI A
C1 V CI
CI
CI 11. [A]
CH r CHrCH 3 } No lone pair least basic
CHrCHrSH} sizet B.S. ,J..
CH 3- CH 2- OH} E.N. t B.S . .J,.
'
(C 6II 6CI 6)
CH r CH 2- NH 2 Size same
7. [BI
2' 3' 4'
(I H,-CH,-C- CH3
- - II
o
2-(3' oxobutyl) cyclohexan -I-one
12. [0]
+ I,J.. ofCH 3
E9 +
(CH 3h-C > (CH 3)2 CH > CHr CH 2 > CH3
+ +
Stability ,J..
8. [B,C,DJ 13. [B,C]
For
CH 3 ....... EB /CH 3
(A) C I Jl = 0 so cis is more soluble in water
6H II Jl '" 0 so more polar in nature
is more stable due to the more stabilizing
14. [A,B,C]
resonance structure
3 2 '
(B) 2nd is more acidic due to vacant d-orbital CH 3- CH 2-CH 2-pH
resonance. A & B is W.r.t. to C, - C 2
(C) Cl .......C ({CI C is W.r.t. to C 2 - C3
I D is not possible because it takes carbon.
CI
is more stable due to involvement of vacant d 15. [C]
(D) In 0
orbital of chlorine with carbon anion
pyrole lone pair is part of aromatic
St. order => chair form > twist boat > Boat > Half chair
energy order => Half chair(B) > Boat (D) > twist
Boat(C) > Chair (A)
~ 16. [C]
H Twist boat form is optically active
sextet. So it is least basic
17. [A]
~ _~1~3
9. [A,B,C,D]
..j_.i·_/"-5
_ -_ -_ - OH => Bicyclo [3.1.1] heptan-2-ol
I 2
18. [B]
10. [A,C,D]
UCH'< QM' Me
2
5-[2,'4'-dihydroxy cyclobutyl] Bicyclo [4.3 .0]
non-7-ene
Chemistry
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Revision Test-l
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [B,C,D] 4. [B,C,D]
st
1 excitation energy 3 -
[Constant temperature,
24 = 13.6 (~ __
I ) Z2 -+ For a perfect gas U is independent of volume.
12 22
-+ In case of attraction (real gases) U increases
=> Z2 = 2.3529 and z = 1.5339
with volume as molecules on an average go apart
I.E. = 13.6 x Z2 = 32 eV
z2 -+ If repulsions are dominant the internal energy
B.E.=-E4=13.6 x - eV=2eV decreases with isothermal expansion of the gas.
16
nd
2 excitation energy 5. [A,C]
= 13.6 z2 C~ -312 )
K>10 3 =>Ptotal=Po 2 =10
Po'
& - ' = 10 => Po = 10-3 atrn
8 32x8 Po', '
=32 x - eV= - - e V
9 9
Excitation energy = Excitation potential 6. [B,D]
..
= 32x8 Volt SnCI2 -+ Sp2 hybridisation /Sn"
9 CI CI
2. [A,B] Bent
o
Atom may be He+ or LiH N
·N0 2 -+ ,/ ~
If no of photons absorbed = no. of photons emitted o 0 Bent
then excited state of ions is 1st excited state. Rest are linear.
So energy absorbed by 7. [B,C]
He+ = 13 6 x. i = (~- _I
e22 ) = 40 .80 V (SiH 3)3 N lone paire electron participate in back
donation.
energy absorbed by
8. [7]
Li 2+= 13 6x 3 2 (~ __I )= 918 eV NaCN + HCI ~ HCN + NaCl
. 12 22 .
[HCN] = 0.2x50 = 0.1 M
3. [A,B] 100
Z2 HCN + H 20 ~ H30+ + CN-
B.E. = 13.6 x 2""
4
For the acids and it's conjugate base
=> Z2 = ~ x B.E = ~ x 13.6 => z = 4 KaKb = 10- 14
13.6 13.6 14
HenceKa forHCN= 1.0x10- =5x 10- 10
I.E. from 2 nd excited state 2x10- 5
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9. [91 12. [61
Ksp Mg(OH)z = [Mg+2] [OHl 2
10- 11 = [.1] [OIr]2 dx =2d mx=m P1 = ~xRT
ml
[OIr]2 = 10- 10
pOH=5 my= 3 m P2 =~RT
pH+pOH=14 m2
pH= 14-5=9 .!L = ~ x m 2 = 2d x 3m = 6
P2 ml d2 m d
10. [51
We have
13. [DI
[Salt] J\s per theory
pH=-logK + log - -
a [J\cid]
14. [C)
0.,.
0.2 x 1000
J\s per theory
= - log 2 x 10- 5 + log 0.1 ~010000 15. [DI
100 J\s per theory
=4.7+0.3=5
16. [DI
11. [71 J\s per theory
2S0 2 + O2 -+ 2S0 3 17. [BI
total 4 4 0 J\s per theory
at eqrn 4-2 4-4 xO.2 2
18. [DI
=2 =3 2
J\s per theory
Total moles 2 + 3 + 2 = 7
• Solution Paper-2
6. [AI
1. [BI EA, in general increases along the period from
180 left to right but Ar being a noble gas has stable
w = mgh' 58.8 x - -
, 2870 configuration and bence possess zero electron affinity.
2. [BI 7. 101
2 1
-400x-+400x-
N= 200 50
400 + 400 + 200
= [OH-] =4 x 10- 3 pH = 3 - 0.6 = 2.4
3. [BI
!1W =- 105 x (0.15 - 0.3) kJ = + 15.75 kJ
!1q =-37.6kJ 8. [C,DI
o 0-
:. !1E=!1W+!1q=-37.6+ 15.75=-21.85kJ H----e7 +-+ H- c.' B 0 = 2+1= 15
4. [DI
'0- """0" 2 .
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9. [A,C)
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Unit Test-6
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [A,B,C) 4. [B, C, D]
(A)Na+ present in octahedral void have six cr (A) For different solution Krrnay be different.
around
(B) cr have 6Na+ at it edge 5. [C,D]
(C) second nearest nighbour ofNa+ ion are twelve (C) O.P. of more concentrated solution is move.
centre) 6. [A,B,C)
(A) H20 & C2HsOH shows +ve deviation
2. (B) C6H6 & C6HsCH3 almost behaves ideally.
(C) CH 3COCH 3 & CHCh shows -ve deviation.
7. [A,B,C)
For ideal solution ~ V = 0, m = 0, ~S = +ve
If solution is less volatile, i.e. case of -ve deviation
8. [5]
The no. of fatty acid molecule required
(B) Fe present in tetrahedral void distance from 10 =5 x 1019
a,fj 0.2xlO- 18
corner = --
:. The no. of moles offatty acid "X" required
4
= ~ x 10-4
(C) Na+ present in tetrahedral void from comer = a,fj 6
4
(D) The nearest distance between two nearest Wt 0f Co
latty aCl'd reqUire
. d = -5 x 10-4 x 252
6
particles from comer to body centre = a,fj = 2.1 x 10-2 gm.
2 : . vol. of fatty acid solution in benzene required
2.1 x lO-2 3
3. [A,C,D] ---'-------'--- litre = 5 x 10- litre = 5 ml
M = 28/1 1.2 = 2.5 4.2
=> IL => 2.5 mole H 20 2 = 85g H 20 2 & wt of 9. [3]
I L solution = 265 g x 1
265-85 log - = log K + - log p
.. mole of H 20 = 10 m n
18 I
- = tan 45° = => x = 1
..
X
H 20 2
=~=0.2
25+10
x
log k = 0.310
k=2
% w 2.5x34 xI00=8.5
V 1000 ' X
- = 2x(0.3)
I
m
m= ~x 1000 = 13.88 => x = 0.6
180
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w"
10. [2)
Kb X(WB XI000)
(Ll.T)P = m B xw A p
12. [1)
The arrangement of maximum number of spheres
of 10 mm diameter is shown above.
• Solution Paper-2
1. [A)
Mass of unit cell = d x V No. of molecules present in given unit cell
= (5 x 10-8)3 x 3.84 x 6 x 1023 = 519.6=2
=288 a.mu. 259.8
Mass offormula unit ofFeO = 56 + 16 = 72 a.mu.
. 288 3. [B)
:. no.o ftiormuaumt=-=4
I
72 Vol. of all atoms in 1.68 g of A
2. [D) = 1.68 x 6 x 10 23 x ~ x 22 x (1.50 3 x 10- 8 )
2
Vol. of unit cell = a sin 60° x b 40 3 7
24 3
= 173.2 x 10- cm = 0.3564
a=5A Vol. of solid A = 1 cm3
Mass of unit cell = 173.2 x 10-24 x 5 x 6 x 1023 % of empty space = (1- 0.3564) x 100
= 519.6 g = 64.36
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4. [B] 11. [A,B,C!
Protecting strength oc gold no. (A) Na+ present in octahedral void have six cr
around
5. [B] (B) Cl- have 6Na+ at it edge
As2 S3 is negative colloidal solution.
(C) second nearest nighbour of Na+ ion are
6. [B] a
I
twelve Na+ ion at distance fi (4 body
log (x/m) = - log P + log K
n center, 8 edge centre)
0
1
tan 45 = - 12. [A,C]
n The vectors given in choices (A) and (C) are
~n= 1 .... .... ....
log K= log 2 meaningful since u x (v x w) = vector product
K=2 of two vectors.
~ --+ --+ --+
( : ) = 2 (p)1 = 2(2) = 4. ( u . v ) w = scalar multiple of w with a scalar
Chemistry
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Unit Test-7
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [D] E~II = 0.34 + 0.25 = 0.59 V
k2=A e- E" /RT ; k, =A e-E., /RT
Ink2= In AEa2
- - & Ink,= lnEAa-,-
RT RT s. [B, D]
A The given cell is concentration cell :
or Ea2= RTln Alk2 & Ea = RT In -
, k, Ag ~ (Ag+) LHE + e
(Ag) RHE + e~ Ag
.. 2RT In ~ = RTln~ + +
k, k2 Net reaction: (Ag )RHE ~ (Ag kHE
.. In (~)2
k,
= In ~
k2
Ecell = 0 - 0.0592 log [Ag:1 LHE
[Ag lRHE
. (~)2 ~
= 0.0592 log [Ag+1RHE
[Ag+1LHE
2. [A,D] [Ag+1AgI
.
In AgI solutIOn,
+
[Ag 1= Ksp (AgI)
,n
Amount. J-!u..4 ~ ~ ~ ~
Remammg 2 4 8 16 In Ag2C204 solution [Ag+]
Amount o~.!.~l~7..~.!2
consume 2 4 8 16
tl/2 2tl/2 3tl/2 4tl/2
3. [A,C]
If E~ell = -ve then reaction will be non spontaneous
For option A & C, EO = -ve 6. [A,C,D]
The A is more oxidising than B and A is more
4. [A,C,D] oxidising than H2
The A is more oxidising than B and A is more
:. A~A2++2e E? =0.25V
oxidising than H2
: . A~A2++2e E? =0.25V A2++2e~A E? =-0.25V
A~A2++2e
A2++2e~A E? =-0.25V B2++2e~B
A~A2++2e A+B2+ ~ A2+ +B
B2++2e~B E~II = 0.34 + 0.25 = 0.59 V
A + B2+~ A2+ + B
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7. [D,C)
Let expiry time of the drug, te = .!. In 2
k
_9_=~ x O.5
18 / 2 96500 In 2
or t = 1 0 - -
Q = 96500 x 2 e 1n5 / 2
V IO x O.693 IO x O.693
0, =96500 or t =
22.4 / 4 e (In5-ln2) (lnlO-2In2)
[D]
By theory
H+ = 10-3
15. [A]
pH=3
By theory
10. [I]
16. [D]
fc 10 -5
By theory
K= - = - x 0.0001 = 10
a 100
5 17. [A]
Am= K x lOOO 10- xlOOO =0.1
By theory
m 0.1
Multiplication by 10 = 0.1 x 10 = 1 18. [D]
By theory
11. [8]
k= ~ In ~ = ~ In 5/2
t ao-x 10
Chemistry
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• Solution Paper-2
1. [A]
Given ' 1No = 1%; N'4 c = 0.25% 4. [D]
4c
P+Q--+R+S
and tl/2 = 5760 year
Given: T75% = 2 x T50'10 (for P)
t = 2.303 log No Since tl/2 is independent of concentration and
.. A N
thus it is first order for P.
2.303 x 5760 I I From graph it is clear that reaction is of zero
0.693 og 0.25 order with respect to Q
= 11524 year [Q]t = [Q]o - Kt
So overall order will be = 1 + 0 = 1
2. [B]
Let wg of each be taken, then 5. [B]
log Q = 0 E = EO = 1.1 V
Initial mole ofP = ~ ; mole ofQ = ~
The value of Ecell will decreases with increase in
value oflog Q
Final moleofP= 5:{0;
- - I og Q
E -- EO -0.059
. 4w, n
Fmal mole ofQ = - -
20x5
6. [D]
ForP Nop = e Ap xt Volume of coating = Area x thickness
Np 4
= 32 x 10 x 0.025
N = 8000 cm3
ForQ ~=eAQxt
NQ mass = value x density
= 8000 x 7.2
:. ForP wx5xl0 = eAp x20 = 57600 gm
10xw,
ItE
... (i) w=--
96500
w x 20 x 5 _ AQx20
For Q - e ... (ii) Ix60x(52 / 6)
20xw, x4 57600 = 96500
By Eqs. (i) and (ii) 4 = e(Ap-AQ)x20 1= 10.69 x 106Amp
.. 20(Ap - AQ) = log. 4
7. [C]
or 21 0.693 _ 0.693J = log. 4 Cell reaction is
vl t' /2 10 H 2(g) + 2Ag+ ~ 2Ag(g) + 2H+(aq)
2xO.06x2.3031 [A +]
0.62 = 08
. + 2 og g
10g[Ag+] = -1.3026
[Ag+] = 0.05 M
no. of moles in 100 rnl = 0.005
mass of silver = 0.005 x 108 gm
or A2 = e(t, -t,).A = e(t, - t,)/T
A, 0.005x108x100 0
%inl.08gmofalloy= 1.08 =50Yo
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8. [A, B, D) 16. [C)
Theory Mn2++ 2e~Mn EO=-1.l8volt
0.0591
E Mn2+lMn = Eo Mn2+lMn - - E
9. [A,C,D) - og or
2 [Mn2+]
-Ea
=-6600 0.059
2.303R Mn2+/Mn = E oMn2+lMn+ - - Iog [M n2..,J
2
so, Ea = 54.99 kJ 0.059
or E Mn2+/Mn = -1.18 + --log Ksp
10. [A,B,D) 2
0.0591
- og 10-
13
t 25 or E Mn2+lMn = -I. 18 + -
2
kJ
9 0.059
or E Mn2+lMn = -1. 18 - - - x 13
2
= - 1.5635 volt
01------
Chemistry
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Unit Test-8
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [A,B,C] 4. [A,C]
Alkyne gives 1,2-dicarbonyl on the other hand
A,B,C are correct and D is wrong.
alkene gives carbonyl compounds by breaking
e +0-COOH:::-'"
~~ P
v--z:.COOH
I
5.
double bond in Reductive ozonolysis.
[B,C,D]
In case of (A) product obtained is-
! l,lNaHCO,
CH3 CH3
&fr-
'_8__
o
C
II
I ~ y~000
y;?'~
rr
A-r HO
OH R
CH3 -
I
T- CvH
CH3
- CH3 + H+=H;O CH3 - T:Jt£H - CH3
I
CH3
o 0
:OH
O~OOH
2. [B,C,D]
CHz-CH3 6. [C]
© 7.
X is erythro; Y is Threo.
[A]
'A' is Birch reduction and in this trans alkene is formed .
8. [8]
Let the compound Z be ROH
Hg(OAc),
NaBH4 ROH + CH~gBr~ CH4 + Mg(OH)Br
No. of mole ofZ= 0.00125
No. of mole of CH4 = 0.01
': 0.00125 mol of alcohol gives O.oI molofCH4
:. 1 mol of alcohol gives 8 mol ofCH4
9. [4]
3. [A,B,D] Following four compound give +ve iodoform test
(D) '-..../"'--..../ W l t.)"' ./'... /. + OH
~ T - Hel ""v' ~ (b)/"'V
OH 1 Pentene (c) @-TH-CH3
~+~ OH
Trans 2pentene cis 2-pentene HO~
(e) CHrCHrOH (h) U
Unitwise Practice Test for JEE Advanced
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10. [3J 13. [C)
_~_~-"g_X-+)~I_,-+1b- ~
CH - C == C - H H,sO,IHaSO,IHO)
3 Acidic hydration of Alkyne
Cl- C -
II
(0
0 - Et
(1st mole)
\.00
OEt
-Cl
R - CCYOEt
II
(0
CH3- fi -CH3
o
l
~~gX 14. [DJ
(2nd mole) e
Ph - C == C - H BH 1 [THFlH,o,IO H )
Ph-CH 2 - fi -H
R
I 0$ X
RM
~ R
I ~ 15. [DJ
o
R-C-R ( g R-C-R +-R-C-OEt e
I (3rd mole) II o'it c. 1 CH 3- C == C - CH 3 BH1ITHFIHPliO H )
00 0) 00
CH 3 -fi - CH 2- CH 3
l
R
NH4Cl 0
Ketone (not aldehyde)
I 16. [AJ
R-C-R By Theory
I
OH 17. [BJ
By Theory
11. [4J .
I, II , V, VI involve fonnation of stable carbocatlOn. 18. [DJ
By Theory
• Solution Paper-2
1. [AI CH 3
SN reaction proceeds with carbocation so I +
CH3
2.
reactivity order is I> III > II> IV.
Ic)
CHCb;r -
CH3 1 : 2 ~H3 shift
CH rr I
-CH=CH 2 ~
w 1
CH r C-CH-CH3
CH 3
(j) lcr
CH 3 CH3
I I
CH r C-CH-CH3
I
Cl
Chemistry
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3. [A) 9. [A,B)
CH 3-CH 2-Br 10AIkyi halide mainly give SN 2 Terminal Alkyne give ppt.
2
mechanism strong neucleophile favours SN
2
mechanism inert solvents are used in SN 10. [B, C)
mechanism Mg I Ether
CH 3 -CH 2 -CH 2 -CH 2 -X
4. [B) n-butyl halide
n-Propyl carbocation formed as intermediate,
rearranges through 1, 2-hydride shift to form
more stable iso-propyl carbocation.
©
5. [D) CH 3 - CH2 -CH2 -CH3
n- butane
+ CH2Cl2 Aiel, ) many products are
11. [B,C)
there CHr CH(Br) CH 3 EtOH »
(a)O+CH2~O>CH2
Williamson's syn .(NSR)
CH r CH-CH 3
I
OEt
EtONa » CH r CH=CH 2
EtOH
(Elimination)
12. [C,D)
CHrCH2-CH-CH2-CHz-CI
TH 3 *
2"=21=2
CH 3-C-CH=CH 2 +
6H 3
CH 3
I *
CH r CH2-CH-CHz-CH-CI
(Alkoxy mercuration-Demercuration) 2n=;2 = 4 tl
8. [A, B, C)
yH 3
CH 3-CH,---C-CH 2--CH 3
A Br, » Anti addtion
CCI,
- I
Cl
B CH ,COOH» Anti addtion +
H + I H 20 yH 2-CI
C H- Br» by M.K. Rule CHrCHz-CH-CHz-CH3
Total (8) Product
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14. [B,C,D) Chlorine free radicals reacts with ozone and
CH3MgBr+ produce CIO -
CH3iH-CH:rC=CH- 2moles of CH 4 The CIO - formed decompose slowly, reforming
OH CI- The CI- react further 03 molecules.
15. [B]
From - stability of carbocation
further react with 03
16. [D)
From - stability of carbocation 18. [C)
The hydrogen atoms in HFCs and HCFs are
attacked by hydroxyl radicals in upper
17. [D)
atmosphere, producing trifluoro acetic acid. The
In the upper atmosphere freons undergo
CF3COOH is not so toxic, removed from the
photolytic reaction and yield chlorine free
radicals. atmosphere during raining and in soil CF3COOH
is destroyed by the bacteria.
photolysis
Freons ) Cl-
Chemistry
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Unit Test-9
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [A,B,D] 6. [A,D]
(A) Backmann rearrangement
(B) Anti to Br group
(C) Isocynide product
(D) Hoffinann degradation
2. [A,C,D]
8. [4]
4. [B,D] o o
II II
Compound should be aromatic amine & also have H
$~-'"":f, ~
o@NH-C-C 3
II NM/~
-NH2 gr [10 amine] to show diazotisation reaction ~
@- NH CH,-C-CI
, (I)
0 ( )
[~}
2 [Y] [Z]
NH
S. [A,B,C] 0 ~
*
NaNO,+HCl I
CHlCOOH
(A) CHChlBase ----t Carbyl amine test
NO, NO,
(B) NaN0 2IHCI----t Diazotisation tests
[w]
(C) CS 2, HgCl 2 ----t Hinsberg test
(D) Ag20/t':!.----t Tollen's test not used to I~I
Distinguish between 1 amine & 2 amine
0 0
NO,
[Product]
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9. [4J 12. [3J
11 0
amine I ·0Hlr
CHr CH 2-NH 2
I" ' CH 3-CHz-j'!H-CH 3
(3) CH 3-CH--CH2-NH2 CH 3 CH 3
1
CH 3 Quaternary Ammonium Bromide
!:@XN~-I
16. [OJ
By Theory
N 0 17. [OJ
1 By Theory
H
At position 4th e- density is maximum that why at 18. [C)
4th position nitration takes place By Theory
11. [4J
(4)CH r NO z
Chemistry
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• Solution Paper-2
1. [C) 8. [A,B)
Glyptal is polymer of ethylene glycol & pthallic
acid Ph Me Ph Me Ph
I I I I I
Ph-C-C-Me H, 4. Ph-C-C-Me~ Ph-C-C-Me
(A) -t Terylene (B) -t Nylon-6,6 S0
(C) -t Glyptal (D) -t Nylon-6 I I + I I II
OHOH OH Me 0
2. [D)
Milk sugar => Lactose
Ph Et Ph Et Ph
Lactose => [/3 .D-G lucose + /3 .D-Galactose1
I I I I I
H, 4. Ph-C-C-Et
S0
Ph-C-C-Et ~ Ph-C-C-Et
3. [C) I I $ I I II
OHOH OH Et 0
Phosphate linked to Cs' in a nucleotide is
9. [B,C,D)
o
attached to C3' of the next nucleotide.
4. [D) HO CH -DH 0 LAH OH
o
HIOJ~. 6~6
o f
11
N
(:
~
NH
2
o
I
HO-f-O---r- o 1 N NH2
HO
A& N
C-OH
aoH+cao.6
OH
OH 'r-' U -co,t
OH
5. [B) -H-Co-H
Pb(OAC).
SBH) OOH
Ph- II
NDz( (i)NH ,/ ~ @-C-OH NH,/~ )
(ii)KOD/Br, ~
10. [A,B)
@-Ti-NH,
o
(i)CH , MgBr
(ii)H,om
Beckmann)
Ph-C-NH-CH3
Rearrangemen t
&
+ CH 3-C- NH-Ph
& 11. [B,C,D)
6. [C) Victor mayer test
Due to aromatic ring benezenediazonium salt is
stable. I ° Alcohol ~ Red colour
2° Alcohol ~ Blue colour
7. [A)
3° Alcohol ~ Colourless
Carbocation and Ring expansion.
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12. [A,B,C,D) (D)
~N
(A)
C-H @-CH-CN
o~o~~~c5
l
@- I
I OH
o OH
Optically active
OH +OH 2 Racemic mix 14. [A)
(B)
c$~cP-CP("H~4)
CH3 CH3 CH 3
(C) o 0 o
II ~ ~
./Y ~l No reaction because ofBredt's rule c "' a H,o" II ,C-C,,- -H,o
H'C~~_Ph
~
HO
[No carbocation] ij> ~
C=CH- Ph -
[Y]
Et
1CC~CH_Pb
~
a
Et-O-c"
~
o
OH
HO OH Reaction Me II ~
o
o [Z]
13. [A,B,D)
The use of II' decreases nucleophilicity but
15. [A]
mcreases electrophilicity. HCN/OIr gives 1,2-
adition.
IX ~HrCHl (1)0,
(A) ~ (2) H,O/Zn Hi+CH2""fi-CHrCHl
1Na~HI~
OH CN
a-Hydroxy nitrile
(B)
e
HCN + OH
(Basic medium) e
(nu)
fe
weak nu ~Strong~u
16. [B)
CH3-C-H + H-C-H
__ -=~~H:""-_ _ l H? i OH
18. [B)
CHrCHrC-H
1, 4 - GB & 1, 6 - GB
I II
CN 0
Chemistry
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Unit Test-lO
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [B,D] compound. Brown colour is just due to charge
-L
+ transfer spectra.
r----..... T/
Cl
N0 4. [A,B,C,D]
eDlGn
I
e~cD
3+
2
5. [A,D]
N0 2 M ~ L, In metal carbonyl complexes, C-O
Trans-form cis-form bond length increases compared to that in CO
(optically inactive) (optically active) molecule as filled 'd' orbital of metal atom overlaps
cis and trans are diastereomers to each other. with 1t-antibonding M.O. of CO [CrCh(H 20)3].
3H20 is not hydrate isomer of [Cr(H 20)6]Ch.
2. [A,B,D] Facial and Meridional isomers of [Ma 3b3 r+
[CoF 6]3-: ~o < P and High spm complex complex are optically inactive as each one contains
+ plane of symmetry.
Cl
~llIyNH3 [A,D]
e~co", FeO + CO ISOO- I600'C) Fe + C02
I NH3 Si02 + CaO 800-JOOO'C) CaSi0 3
NH3
cis-form 7. [A,C,D]
=> Asymmetric configuration hence exist in d and As per theory
eforms 8.
+
CI
~lllVNH3
e~co", => Optically inactive
I
Cl
NH3
]~
trans-form
11 11 11 It2g
+ d xy dyz dzx
NH3
CFSE of pink colour complex
~luVCl
e~lo~1 => Optically inactive
NH3
trans-form
Total isomers ~ 4 9. [5]
EDTA Phen
3. [A,B,C] cr bond 31 + 24 55
Nitrate ion gives a brown ring when reacts with 1t bond 4 + 7 11
conc. H 2S0 4 in presence of FeS04 due to 55
formation of [Fe(H 20)sNO]S04 complex x+y=-=5
II
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10. [8) 13. [C]
(i) [Fe IF(CN) (H 20) (en)] As per theory
x = 12 (active isomer)
14. [C]
(ii) [MoCh F2(gly)r
As per theory
y = 4 (active isomer)
x-y= 12-4 => 8 15. [C]
As per theory
11. [1)
16. [A)
Metal (M) => Mo (z = 42) As per theory
Mo(COh(NO)y +NO l Mo(NO)z
-co 17. [D)
Ify = 2, then x = 3 and z = 4, As per theory
hence x = y - z = 3 + 2 - 4 = 1
18. [D)
As per theory
12. [5)
Complexes No. of geometrical isomers
(i) [Pt(NH 3h(SCN)z] 2
(ii) [Co(N02)J(NH 3h] 2
(iii) [Pt( en)Ch] o
(iv) [Cr(en)2Br2t 2
(v) [Rh(en)3]3+ o
(vi) [CoChBr2]2- o
Hence, sum of total number of geometrical isomers =6
• Solution Paper-2
1. [B)
2. [C]
NH4Ci + NaN0 2 -----+ NH4N0 2 + NaCI
N~N02 ~ N2 t 2H 20
Ba(N3)z -----+ Ba + 3N2.J,
2NH4Cl + CaO -----+ CaCl 2 + 2NH3 t + H 20
3. [A)
2CrO~- + 2H+ ~ Cr20~- + H 20
Chemistry
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5. [C) 10. [ABC)
MgCh + NaHC03 ~ Mg(HC03h + NaCI Al forms layer of Al 20 3 over surface
Soluble 11. [A, B, D)
7. [D) ....-;-ltl....-;-lt
It tl-;-;-rt t ~ t t I:[ll]
M-:--:T 77"1
3
Ittl t Mttl:
I_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ J
Pb30 4 + HN03~ Pb02 Tetrahedral, sp ,
(black residue) + Pb(N03h diamagnetic
Pb(N03h + K2Cr04~ PbCr04 (B) is correct [Ni(CN)4]2-
(yellow ppt)
Pb(N03h + H 2S ~ PbS
(black ppt)
2
Pb02+ Mn ++ HN03~ HMn04 (D) is correct because Cl- is weak field ligand,
(purple solution) does not cause pairing of electron.
8. [A,B,C,D)
[NiC4]2-
The active nitrogen is more reactive than ---------------
molecular nitrogen because it contain atomic
....-;-ltl....-;-lt
It tl-:--:T t I t I j [ll] Itt Itt Ittl
t M--:-T ""7O
nitrogen. Active nitrogen when reacts with H2S ---------------
blue solid is obtained because of the formation of paramagnetics Sp3, tetrahedral
sulphur nitride ofm.f. (NS).
The nitrogen atoms have three unpaired 13. [A,B)
electrons. When two such atoms combine, an H20 & Cl- are weak ligand
XeF 6 + H 20
XeF 6 + 3H20
~
~
XeOF4 + 2HF
Xe03 + 6HF
Mn+2 = 111111 11 11 1 D
cr is weak ligand, can not paired up the
electrons.
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14. [A,D)
alkali medium
Na2[Fe(CN)s(NO)] + 2NaOH + H2S t
-t N14[Fe(CN)s(NOS)] + 2H 20 + 2H 20
Purple
Ferrocene Dibenzene Na2S203 + [Ni(en)3](N0 3)2-t
chromium [Ni(en)3]S203,} + 2Na+ + 2N03
Chemistry
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Revision Test-2
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [B,C] 4. [A,C]
The path of the reaction is. Ca2+ + RH2 ~ CaR + 2H+
•
or 3x (x - ao) - ao (x - ao) = 0 (major)
or (3x - ao) (x - ao) = 0 6. [B,D]
:. x = ao or x = ao/3 CH 2--CH - (CH2)3 - CHO Me,CuLi)
3. [A,C,D] \/
The A is more oxidising than B and A is more MeCH2CH (CH 2)3CH = [X]
oxidising than H2 I II
OH 0
: . A~A2+ +2e E? =0.25V
A2+ + 2e~A E? =-0.25 V lpcc
A~A2++2e
B2++2e~B
A + B2+ ~ A2+ + B NC~O
U N CN
E •
Lo-E~H
U MeCH2tr(CH2)]CHO; [Y]
E~ell = 0.34 + 0.25 = 0.59 V
[P] [l] 0
1 LiAIH4
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crfir
7. [A, D, C, D]
When the three solutions are mixed then the
C~ B
molarity of each solution changes but number of Cis B &CisC
moles does not change. Hence it is similar to
dilution. 10. [8]
ForKN0 3 M,V ,= M 2V2 1 ao 1
k = - In - - = - In 512
100 x 0.1 = M2 x 1000 t ao-x 10
=> M2 = 0.01
=> resulting molarity ofKCI = O.oJ
Let expiry time of the drug, te = .!.. In 2
k
=> K+ = O.oJ M In 2
Cr=O.OI M or te= 1 0 - -
ln5 / 2
ForHCI M,V, =MN2
IO x O.693 IOxO.693
0.2 x 400 = M2 x 1000 or te=
(InS -In 2) (InI0-2In2)
=> M2 = 0.08
=> H+=0.08 M or t = lOx 0.693 IOxO.693
NO) =0.08M e (2.303-2In2) (2.303 - 2 x 0.693)
For H 2S04 M,V , =M 2V2 or t = lO x 0.693 6.93 = 7.56
0.3 x 500 = M2 x 1000 e (2.303 - 1.386) 0.917
=> M 2=0.15 or te "" 8 months
=> H+= 0.3 M
SO~-=0.15M 11. [3]
Fusion occur along BC.
cr = 0.01 M;
Hence in the solution K+ = 0.01 M;
For fusion , t.q = 0.04 x 30 x 103J
NO) =0.08M;H+=0.38M; sol- =0.15M For fusion T = 400 K
8. [3] t.S fu = t.q = 40 x 30 = 3 J/mol K
The structure of nitroglycerin is s T 400
IH IH IH 12. [3]
H-C C C-H In option [III] Ethyl is at 2 position
I I I
000 13. [D]
I I I Theory based
N N N
0/ '0 0/ '0 0/ '0 14. [A]
Theory based
15. [D]
9. [3] Theory based
16. [C]
Theory based
17. [D]
Theory based
18. [D]
Cis B & trans C Cis C & trans B Theory based
Chemistry
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• Solution Paper-2
7. [B)
1. [B)
Total current passed in 30 sec.
In DMSO SN2 mechanism occurs in
CF 3CH 20H, it accept proton Ph -CH2 attacks at
= ..!. x 100 x 10 + 100 x 10 + 100 x 10 + ..!.
2 2
p-position x 100 x 10
=3xlOOxlOmA x s
2. [C) = 3000 x 10-3 amp s = 3 C
o
II ow @cP~ W = EQ or W = E = Z = m
F Q F 3
Ph-CH-C-H ) Ph-C-C-H----+
I I
OH OH 8. [A, C, D)
(N~hC03 ~ NH 2CONH 2 + H 20
0-
I moles of (NH 2) C0 3 = 11.52 = 0.12 = moles of
Ph-C~C-H ----+ 96
I urea.
OH
2 Mn04 + 5(NH 4 )zC 20 4 ~
2Mn+2 + 10 CO 2 + 10 NH/
----+ Ph-C-CH,OH
II Meq of (NH4)2 C 20 4 = Meq ofKMn04
o W
- - x 1000 = 20 x 1 6 x 5
3. [D) M/2 .
X = CHr CH 2-CHrC=N
moles of (NH4)2 C20 4 = W = 0.08
Y = CH3-CHrCH2-C02H M
Z = CH 3-CHrClz--c-OEt
9 (i) (CNh + 4H20 ~ (NH4)2 C 20 4
0.08 0.08
Y ----+ Z is esterificatin reaction (ii) (CN)2 + 2H 20 ~ NH2 CO NH2
0.12 0.12
4. [A)
total moles of(CN)2 = 0.08 + 0.12 = 0.2
Since S02 has a burning sulphur smell which is
0.2
imitating, hence, X is soi- , and Y is S02 which
0/'
/0 purity = - - = 86.67 %
12/52
turns acidified K2Cr207 solution green due to its
reduction to Cr3+ ions. . case (.)
Progress IS I -
0.08 x 100 = 40 %
0.2
s. [A) . case ( 11
Progress III .. ) -0.12 x 100 = 60 %
0.2
::;C'6<6<6
9.
HOHoc - - -
stability
locH 30cH 40cH
~~,md~6<6<6
6. [C)
Decomposition of iodide is followed for Zr
(b)O<O<D
HOC oc No. of cation
Ti, Hf, Si etc. '
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14. [A,C,D]
KCl crystallise in rock salt having six nearest
neighbor of K+ and cr
ion. Packing fraction is
nd
0.74. The number of 2 nearest neighbor of
Resonance energy ex; delocalisation/conjugation cation is 12.
simple < cross < exterded
<d) ,sH>(~y>c5
15. [B]
CH 2CH J CH2CH J CH 2CH J
CHJI~H Ch, hy
ClCH21~H CHJ I~H+
Basicity ex; e- density on N atom HJC CH J ClCH 2
R S
10. [A,B,C,D]
Racemic mixture of
(a) Amine inversion
l-chloro-2-methyl butane
(b) Steric hindrance
(c) In boat form eclipsed condition & flag-pole Racemisation due to reaction at enantiotropic face.
interaction is present
(d) Large arp is more stable at equatorial 16. [C]
Abstraction of hydrogen is reduction
11. [A,B,C,D] So primary isotopic effect is observed
(A) Ethanol can solvate anion of
@H
r) < rll
QJ)\~/)l(j)W
photolysis
Freons ) Cl-
(B)
Chlorine free radicals reacts with ozone and
o 0 0 0is present in
No flipping 2° amine 3° aminel.p.
produce CIO -
The CIO - formed decompose slowly, reforming
more ENorbital Cl- The Cl- react further OJ molecules.
(C) L.G. tendency does not depend on solvent nature. rapid
(D) Polar Aprotic solvent does not solvate anion Cl- + 03 -~)--- Cl2 + ClO-
Chemistry
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Major Test
Hints &Solutions~
• Solution Paper-1
1. [A,B,C] 10. [B,C]
~® ~
Theory based
2. [A,C]
Theory based
(Highly stable) ~H ~n
3. [A,B]
!Bre Ye
4.
Theory based
[C] !Br
5.
Theory based
[C]
MBr
(rnaj or product)
qBr
Test tube III contains ~[Fe(CN)6]. Which does 55%
not give test for Fe +2 and CN- ions.
11. [A,B,C]
6. [A] tm=Q+w=> nCv ~T= 0+ W
Dimethyl glyoxime is used to detect nickel.
(In adiabatic process Q = 0)
7. [B] => W = nC v (T2 - T)) .... (i)
Roasting involves heating of an ore in limiting
supply of air (oxidation) below it m.p., to remove = -
nR
(T2-T)) {Since C v = ~}
S, Se, As. and Sb y-I y-I
12. [4]
i, ii, iv, vii finally produce alcohol
13.[C]
By theory
14.[D]
By theory
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15.[D] 17. [D]
By theory By theory
16. [D]
18. [C]
By theory
By theory
• Solution Paper-2
1. [A]
Milli-equivalents ofHCI = to x 0.2 = 2
Milli equivalents of H 2S0 4 = to x 0.1 x 2 = 2 6. [A]
( .: normality of H2S04 = 0.1 x 2) hgdg = h Hg d Hg ; 5 x 2.72 = 13.6 h Hg
Milli-equivalents ofBa(OH)2 = 10 x 0.4 = 4 hHg= 1 m
Thus, total milli-equivalents of acids (2 + 2) are Pgas =0.76dg+ Ig= 1760mmofHg
equal to those of alkali (4) therefore, the solution
1760 x to = n x R x 300
will be neutral. 760
2. [B] 7. [A]
(Equivalent)KMnO, = (Equivalent) Fec,o, By Boyle's law PV = constant
PdV + VdP= 0
x x 5=2 x 3
VdP=-PdV
x=6 / 5=1.2
dP dV
3. [A] P V
Normality of oxalic acid solution
8. [A,B,D]
= 6.3 x 1000 = O.4N
200 63 (A) .: area under the curve gives fraction of
N,V, =N 2V2 molecules and total area is constant.
i.e. to x 0.4 = V x 0.1 or V = 40 mL (B) From expression of Maxwell distribution
fraction of molecules between Umps ~
4. [C]
Umps + f Umps is independent of value of
Wt.ofmetal 8
Eq. mass = x Umps and is dependent only on f.
mass of oxygen combined
(C) T2 is higher temperature
= ~x8=20 (0) As seen from graph; :. A, B, 0
0.24
9. [B,D]
5. [C]
dA = 2dB ; 3M A = M B ; PM = dRT 10. [A,C,D]
_ P MA d RT (b), (c), (d), (e), (h) are correct
- - A x- = -Ax -
PB MB dB RT Acidic strength oc - I, - M.
= PA x ~ =2 11. [C]
PB 2
Theory based
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12. [A,B,C)
13. [AI
-2.- )OCOO·
COO·
-2CO, )
O:~O
14. [B]
(C) & (D) are 3°allyl halide mainly give alkene
structure (b) forms 2°benzylic free radical which
is highly stable.
15. [B]
Theory based
+2 2.5
16. [A] Na 2S20 3 ~ Na 2S40 6
17. [D]
Theory based
18. [C)
Theory based
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Unitwise Practice Test for JEE Advanced
•
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