City College 2023
City College 2023
City College 2023
SECTION B
1. Define Agricultural science base on your understanding
2. List and explain importance of agriculture you know
3. List and explain the types of agriculture
4. List 3 characteristics of agriculture
5. List four (4) areas of specialization in agriculture
6. Explain the following
a. Olericulture
b. Floriculture
d. Pomology
3. Rocks are the primary material from which soil is formed. Yes/No
4. ______ is the upper of the earth’s surface which is essential for the growth of
plants (a) Soil (b) Mood (c) Earth (d) Heaven
7. The following are types of weathering except ______ (a) chemical weathering (b)
biological weathering (c) physical weathering (d) water weathering
8. The following are composition of properties of soil except ______ (a) water (b) air
(c) organic matter (d) nutrient
10. ______ can be encouraged by ensuring that the amount of water in the soil is
controlled (a) soil aeration (b) soil population (c) soil look (d) all of the above
13. Water is the major component of the soil and it is very important in plant
growth. Yes/No
14. ______ is the exchange of carbon (iv) oxide and oxygen gases between the soil
and the atmosphere (a) soil aeration (b) pollution (c) nutrient (d) production
15. ______ is formed when igneous or sedimentary rock or both are subjected to
heat action and pressure (a) mentamorphical rock (b) metamorphic rock (c)
igneous solid rock (d) heat rock
SECTION B
4. List out the Three (3) types of rock you are taught in your class and explain one
3. Pathogens are disease including living organs or agents which pass through
regular cycle of ______ and ______ (a) development and reproduction (b)
respiration and movement (c) nutrient and physiological (d) sociology and
diffusion
4. The following are examples of physiological factors except ______ (a) nutrient
deficiency (b) heat (c) inorganic salt (d) irrigation water
5. The following are example of diseases on crops except ______ (a) death of plants
(b) reduced seed viability (c) a and b (d) respiration and cultivation
6. Disease of crop plant can be controlled by the following method except ______
(a) chemical control (b) biological control (c) cultural control (d) universal control
7. ______ involve the use of natural enemies of the disease to reduce or ttally
eliminate the disease (a) chemical control (b) biological control (c) idea control
(d) term control
8. The following are ways by which diseases spread on a crop farm except (a) by
rain splash (b) through irrigation water (c) through insect vectors (d) through
digging
9. A matured eggor ovum is released from the follicle in the ovary into oviduct.
This process is called ______ (a) ovulation (b) ovulazy (c) ovuu-reaction (d) none
of the above
10. ______ ensures the storage and maturation of sperm cells in the testes (a)
epididymis (b) organs (c) power (d) oxygen
11. ______ is the ability in animals to give ______ to ______ (a) sleep and birth (b)
birth and young (c) a and b (d) viviparous
12. The male reproductive system include the testes which produce the ______ (a)
seminiferous (b) spermatozoa (b) fertilizer (d) enveloping
13. The female reproductive system include the ovaries which produces the ovum
or ova (egg) enclosed by the graffian follicles and some hormones. True/False
14. ______ are diseases inducing living organisms (a) pathogens (b) plants (c)
internodes (d) fungicides
15. The following are types of crop pest except ______ (a) insects (b) birds (c)
monkeys (d) fowl
16. ______ is any plant that grows in a place where it is not expected to grow or
plant which grows out of place (a) weed (b) plant (c) maize leaves (d) tomatoes
seeds
17. ______ refers to the art and science of feeding farm animals (a) animal
reproduction (b) animal movement (c) animal nutrition (d) all of the above
19. ______ refers to the preservation of green and succulent forage crops under
anaerobic conditions (a) silage (b) wage (c) kilage (d) hage
20. The following are methods of preparing feed ingredients except ______ (a) dry
process (b) cotton seed meal (c) fish meal (d) composition method
SECTION B
1. List the general control of crop plant diseases
2. Mention FIVE ways by which diseases spread on a crop farm
3. Mention SIX effects if disease on crops
4. List out the FOUR examples of pathogens
5a. Define plant disease
5b. Mention the TWO causes of diseases
6. Explain the THREE general control of crop plant disease
````````ALL THE BEST````````
SECTION A
1. The Yorubas are known of eating amala while Akwa Ibom indigens
are known for eating ______ (a) Epaukukwe (b) Garri with Oha soup
(c) Isanr soup (d) Egusi soup
2. What differentiates the extended family from nuclear family is the
______ in the home (a) number of children (b) number of wives (c)
presence of other relations (d) type of authority exercised by the
father
3. Culture is not static means that culture is ______ (a) dynamic (b)
shared (c) similar (d) universal
4. The founder of Christianity religion is (a) Abraham (b) Jesus Christ
(c) John the Baptist (d) Prophet Elijah
5. Which of the following is not the teaching of Christianity? (a) Faith
in the word of God (b) giving alms to the poor (c) praying five times
daily (d) pilgrimage to the holy land
6. Religious organizations lay more emphasis on (a) appointing public
officers (b) moral development (c) economic development (d) killing
non–members
7. A cultural group can be identified in Nigeria by one of these; (a)
language (b) sex (c) complexion (d) type of nose
8. The Hausa call their traditional ruler ______ (a) Oba (b) Emir (c)
Igwe (d) Obi
9. Islam was founded by ______ (a) Jesus Christ (b) Prophet
Muhammed (c) John the Baptist (d) None of the above
10. Christians worship God through ______ (a) Mary Magdalene (b)
Jesus Christ (c) Prophet Muhammed (d) None of the above
11. The holy book of Christians is ______ (a) Quran (b) Bible (c) Liturgy
(d) none of the above
12. The holy book of Muslims is ______ (a) Bible (b) Quran (c) Dictionary
(d) none of the above
13. The African traditional religionist believe in the ______ (a) ten
commandment of God (b) laws and customs of the land (c) five
pillars if Islam (d) all of the above
14. Most Nigerian cultural groups are similar in the following areas
except in ______ (a) farming (b) marriage (c) celebration of festivals
(d) language
15. The following are agents of socialization except one (a) school (b)
peer group (c) family (d) none of the above
THEORY
1a. What is Culture?
1b. With examples, mention the two aspects or components of culture
3a. List five names we can call God in different communities in Nigeria
3b. Name five things that religion teaches us
4a Identified three major similarities in the types of religion
4b. What is adornment?
GOOD
LUCK!!!
3. The legal union of a man and a woman to become husband and wife is
called (a) engagement (b) association (c) companionship (d) marriage
4. The two types of marriage in Nigeria are ______ and ______ (a)
monogamous and polygamous (b) polyandry and polygamous (c) nuclear
and extended (d) none of the above
5. Which of the marriage is common among Muslims families in Nigeria? (a)
Monogamous (b) polygamous (c) polyandrous (d) none of the above
6. The type of marriage that involves one man and a one woman as
husband and wife is the ______ family (a) monogamous (b) polygamous (c)
polyandrous (d) unigamous
7. The type of marriage that involves a man and a two or more spouses is
known as ______ (a) polygamous (b) monogamous (c) polygamous (d)
polygamy
8. The following are forms of marriage except (a) court or ordinance (b)
customary or traditional (c) Christian marriage (d) society marriage
11. Who officiates at an Islamic marriage? (a) Pastor (b) Reverend (c) Church
leader (d) Imam
14. The legal union of a man and a woman as husband and wife is called
______ (a) association (b) courtship (c) marriage (d) friendship
15. Polyandry is ______ (a) having more than one husband at a time (b)
having more than one wife at a time (c) having one wife at a time (d)
living happily with two wives
SECTION B
1a. What is marriage?
1b. State two major types of marriage
GOOD
LUCK!!!
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Civic Education Class: Senior Secondary School 1
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four
(4) in section B
SECTION A
2. Franchise means the right to (a) contest for political post (b) join
association (c) vote and be voted for (d) vote and win election
4. Law making is the primary function of (a) the federal government (b)
legislature (c) the judges (d) the executives
5. A political system in which citizen rule through their representative
chosen in periodic election is called (a) representative democracy (b)
representative political (c) capitalist (d) democracy
6. The most popular definition of democracy was given by (a) Martin Luther
King (b) Abraham Lincoln (c) Kwame Nkrumah (d) Nelson Mandela
7. Democracy originated from (a) USA (b) Britain (c) Germany (d) Greece
8. Human rights are basic natural rights which people enjoy primarily
because they are (a) members of a political party (b) international citizens
(c) members of a communities (d) Human beings
9. Citizens can be deprived of their rights during (a) public holidays (b)
political campaign (c) emergency rule (d) democratic regime
10. Human right abuse can be prevented through the following except (a)
constitutional mean (b) protest (c) court of law (d) mass
12. All of the following can limit the right of a citizen except (a) war (b) state
of emergency (c) universality (d) military rule
13. The 2019 chibok girls were (a) abducted while praying in the mosque (b)
kidnapped while praying in the mosque (c) kidnapped while praying to
write WAEC (d) Abducted while wandering along the street
14. Loving our country more than other nations is (a) patriotism (b) nepotism
(c) nationalism (d) favoritism
15. Which of these does not relate to civic education (a) Government (b)
Citizenship education (c) voters education (d) Demographic
16. A Nigerian citizen enjoys (a) all the rights and privileges in Nigeria (b)
partial rights and privileges in Nigeria (c) only right in Nigeria (d) only
privileges in Nigeria
17. Civic education is studied to achieve one of the these (a) increase in
social vices (b) discourage voting in Nigeria (c) promote national unity (d)
encourage disobedient to government
18. Citizenship education is derived from civic (a) economy (b) business (c)
education (d) religion
19. HIV/AIDS can be spread through the following ways except _____ (a)
blood transfusion (b) breast feeding (c) unsterilized sharp objects (d)
sleeping with an infected person
20. The right to vote and be voted for is _____ (a) franchise (b) francis (c)
franshine (d) frankly
SECTION B
GOOD
LUCK!!!
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Civic Education Class: Senior Secondary School 2
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four
(4) in section B
SECTION A
1. _____ is not a way of preserving our customs in Nigeria (a) greetings (b)
dressing (c) food (d) investment
2. Nigeria is located at the _____ Africa sub-region (a) south (b) east (c)
north (d) west
3. National _____ is the awareness that one is a citizen of a particular
nation (a) identity (b) unity (c) consciousness (d) integrity
4. All are the ways of national consciousness, integrity and unity except
_____ (a) intolerance (b) harmony (c) patriotism (d) inter marriage
5. An economic system in production of goods distribution and ownership
of labour lie in the hand of private individuals is referred to as _____ (a)
socialism (b) gerontocracy (c) plutocracy (d) capitalism
6. The non-engagement of factors of production to earn their reward is
called _____ (a) unemployment (b) manufacturing (c) employment (d)
producer
7. Political parties compete for powers through the following ways except
_____ (a) campaign (b) manifesto (c) lorries (d) slogan
8. The feeling of not interested in political politics of a nation is called _____
(a) political association (b) political socialization (c) political neutrality (d)
political apathy
9. The Nigeria federation started under the council of _____ (a) Sir Herbert
Macaulay (b) Sir Bernard Boudillon (c) Sir Hugh Clifford (d) Sir Lord
Luggard
10. The father if Nigeria nationalism is traced to _____ (a) Sir Lord Luggared
(b) Sir John MaCpherson (c) Chieg Olusegun Onasanjo (d) Chieh
Anthony Enahoro
11. A chemical that changes a person’s mood or behavior is _____
12. Forms of drugs abuse include _____, _____, _____ and _____
13. Nitrous is also called _____
14. The recent Corona virus originated in _____ two countries
15. Son stand for _____
16. NAFDAC was established by military
17. The agency responsible for the enforcement and arrest of drug traffickers
is ______
18. The first female directors of NAFDAC was _____
19. The running mate to Alhaji Atiku Abubakar in the 2019 general election
in Nigeria was _____
20. Nigeria is a multi-party state, simply because she ________
SECTION B
1a. Define the term Drug
1b. In what FOUR ways can drugs be taken
GOOD
LUCK!!!
GOOD
LUCK!!!
GOOD
LUCK!!!
SECTION A
1. The term use to collectively identify all the elements that have some impact on the
actual performance of a market is ____ (a) marketing environment (b) marketing
feasibility (c) social environment (d) social marketing
2. _____ environment refers to the forces that are close to the company and affect its
ability to serve its consumers (a) Micro (b) Macro (c) Nano (d) Major
3. The following are factors that influence a micro environment except (a) political (b)
supplies (c) customers (d) public
4. The following are classes of consumers except (a) technological consumer (b)
ultimate consumer (c) industrial consumer (d) international consumer
5. An intermediary who purchase goods with the view to resell them at a profit is a
_____ (a) reseller (b) purchaser (c) profit maker (d) sharp seller
6. Consumers who purchases goods and services for producing other goods and
services are called _____ (a) industrial consumer (b) ultimate consumer (c) define
consumer (d) government consumer
7. The consumers that may be individual and wholesalers are classified as _____ (a)
ultimate consumer (b) intermediary consumer (c) potential consumer (d) arbitrary
consumer
8. Those who sell goods and services of the same and similar description in the same
market are _____ (a) competitors (b) neighbors (c) firm brothers (d) share holders
9. Factors such as salary level, credit trends and pricing patterns that can affect
consumer spending habits and purchasing power are _____ environment (a)
economic (b) socio-cultural (c) political (d) technological
10. Forces that affect the basic value, behavior and preferences of the society which
also affect a consumer marketing decision are _____ environment (a) socio-cultural
(b) unstable (c) public (d) anti-social
11. The process of forming crowds, groups, association and organization for the pursuit
of collective goals is termed _____ (a) mobilization of work force (b) cooperation of
force (c) distribution network (d) none of the above
12. The action that ultimately sell every product and service as well as every
organizational agenda is _____ (a) marketing activity (b) marketing curriculum (c)
marketing strategies (d) marketing mix
13. A place where two or more people meet to exchange goods and services is called a
_____ (a) market (b) store (c) warehouse (d) industry
14. A market that involves an individual who buys products and services for personal
use is called a _____ (a) consumer market (b) political market (c) international
market (d) personal market
15. Characteristics of consumer market based on gender, age, income occupation etc is
called _____ (a) demographic characteristics (b) psychological characteristics (c)
behavioural characteristics (d) none of the above
16. Consumer market characteristics by market size, region, population density and
climate are referred to as _____ (a) geographical characteristics (b) demographical
characteristics (c) social characteristics (d) environmental
17. The following are types of organizational market except (a) consumer (b) producer
(c) reseller (d) government market
18. The study of individuals, groups or organization and the processes they use to
select, use and dispose products is called (a) consumer behavior (b) customer value
(c) customer relationship (d) customer interest
19. Factors influencing consumer’s behavior include the following except (a) climatic
factor (b) cultural factor (c) social factor (d) personal factor
20. The following are classified under personal factor influencing consumer’s behavior
except (a) roles and status (b) occupation (c) economic situation (d) personality
SECTION B
1a. Define Consumer behavior
1b. State FOUR factors influencing consumer behavior
2a. Define Consumer market
2b. State FOUR characteristics of consumer market
3a. Define Market activities
3b. State FOUR actions taking to maximize the potential of distribution channel and
marketing program
4a. Define Marketing environment
4b. State FOUR factors influencing micro-environment
5. List and explain the factors that influence a macro environment
GOOD
LUCK!!!
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Marketing Class: Senior Secondary School 2
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four (4) in section B
SECTION A
1. The activities involving storage of goods on a large scale in a systematic and
orderly manner is called _____ (a) warehousing (b) keeping (c) storing (d)
housing
2. The logistic function of an organization ability to provide high levels of
customer service is describe as _____ (a) warehousing (b) customer
relationship (c) organization satisfaction (d) optimistic service
3. By bridging the time gap between production and consumption of goods,
warehousing creates _____ (a) time utility (b) time wasting (c) time gap (d)
time limit
4. The function of ware house to store large stock of goods is called _____ (a)
storage of goods (b) keeping of goods (c) production of goods (d) financing
5. A document issue by ware houses is called (a) ware house peeper’s warrant
(b) warehouse-investment warrant (c) warehouse finance warrant (d) none of
the above
6. The function of warehouse becoming responsible for any loss, theft or
damage of products/goods is called (a) risk bearing (b) precaution bearing (c)
branding (d) grading
7. The collection of goods from place of production an also sending the goods
to the place of delivery on request is (a) transportation (b) processing (c)
relocation of goods (d) none of the above
8. A warehouse in which the government regulate its function and operation is
the (a) public warehouse (b) bonded warehouse (c) co-operative warehouse
(d) private warehouse
9. Warehouses in which owners are licensed to accept imported goods for
storage before payment of custom duties are ____ warehouses (a) bonded
warehouses (b) co-operative warehouses (c) government warehouses (d)
optative warehouses
10. The following are function of warehouse except (a) marketing (b) financing (c)
processing (d) grading and branding
11. The activities of a warehouse include the following except (a) buying (b)
smoothing (c) contingencies (d) order product
12. Anything that can be offered to a market to satisfy a need or want is called
_____ (a) product (b) item (c) materials (d) service
13. The goods and services purchased and used by final consumers are _____
product (a) primary (b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) none of the above
14. The following are forms of convenience product except (a) shopping product
(b) staple product (c) impulse product (d) emergency product
15 Products purchased without planning or search effort are _____ product (a)
impulse (b) staple (c) specially (d) shopping
16. The product in which consumers take time to compare the price, quality,
durability, taste before making a decision to buy is the _____ product (a)
shopping (b) specially (c) unsought (d) convenience
17. Product that are purchased and used for production of other products are
_____ products (a) industrial (b) primary (c) common (d) intervention
18. A product that involve manufacturing machine upon whch production of
product is hinged is _____ products (a) foundation (b) entering (c) facilitating (d)
staple
19. Forms of entering products include the following except (a) installation (b) raw
material (c) fabricating material (d) none of the above
20. _____ defined marketing channel as the set of all the firms and individual that
co-operate to produce, distribute and consume the particular goods or services
of a particular producer (a) Kotler (1980) (b) Longman (1990) (c) Anyakoha
(1988) (d) Kebiru (2010)
SECTION B
1. Discuss FIVE forms of primary and secondary market
2. Define the following product
(i) Staple product (ii) Impulse product (iii) Emergency product (iv) Shopping product (v)
Specially product
3. Discuss FIVE advantages of warehousing
4. List and explain FIVE activities of warehousing
5. State FIVE characteristics of ideal warehousing
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Basic Technology Class: Junior Secondary School 1
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four (4) in
section B
SECTION A
SECTION A
1. _____ is a narrow path between two points on a surface (a) A line (b) A
segment (c) A chord (d) A dash
2. The type of line used for all visible outlines is the _____ (a) continuous
thick line (b) short dashes (c) thick long chain (d) wavy line
3. ____ are lines used for long break (a) Ruled line and short zigzag (b)
Arrow head line (c) continuous thin line (d) The thick long chain
4. To bisect a line means to ____ a line (a) divide (b) construct (c) join (d)
erase
5. Lines used for irregular boundary are the ____ (a) thick continuous wavy
line (b) continuous thin line (c) short zigzag (d) short dashes
6. ____ is formed when two straight lines meet at a point (a) Angle (b)
Bisection (c) Construction (d) none of the above
7. Angles that add up to 900 are ____ angles (a) complementary (b)
supplementary (c) excess (d) none of the above
8. The following are standard angles except (a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 450 (d) 600
9. An angle that is more than 90 0 but less than 1800 is ____ angle (a) obtuse
(b) acute (c) reflex (d) vertex
10. A plane figure bounded by a curved line called circumference is ____ (a)
circle (b) triangle (c) rectangle (d) rhombus
11. The part of a circle bounded by two radi and an arc is the ____ (a) sector
(b) chord (c) segment (d) radius
12. The one-fourth of a circle is called is called a ____ (a) quadrant (b)
diameter (c) tangent (d) chord
13. A straight line drawn through the center of a circle meeting the
circumference at both ends is ____ (a) diameter (b) radius (c) segment (d)
chord
14. An angle less than 900 is called ____ (a) an acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c)
isosceles angle (d) right angle
15. A plane figure bounded by three straight lines is a ____ (a) triangle (b)
pentagon (c) octagon (d) square
16. A triangle whose two sided are equal in length is a ____ triangle (a)
isosceles (b) equilateral (c) scalene (d) none of the above
17. The following are parts of a triangle except (a) tangent (b) vertex (c) base
(d) vertical height
18. The total sum of angles in a triangle is ____ (a) 180 0 (b) 3600 (c) 900 (d)
2700
19. An angle greater than 1800 but less than 3600 is ____ angle (a) reflex (b)
obtuse (c) acute (d) octal
20. The sum of angles in a circle is ____ (a) 3600 (b) 2700 (c) 1800 (d) 900
SECTION B
1a. Define a line
1b. List EIGHT types of lines that you know
2. Fill in the angles as appropriates
(i) The angle is a semicircle is _____
(ii) The angle is a right angle is ____
(iii) An acute angle is less than ____
(iv) Supplementary angles add up to ____
(v) A reflex angle is greater than ____ but less than ____
3. With a neat and well labelled diagram, draw a circle and labelled its parts
4a. Inscribe a square in a circle of a diameter 6cm
4b. Construct angle 600 using a pair of compass
5a(i). Define an angle
5a(ii) State THREE classes of an angle
5b(i) Define a triangle
5b(ii) Mention THREE types of triangles by the length of their sides
SECTION A
1. ____ is the conscious act violating an existing standard (a) law (b) disobedient (c)
desobedient
2. ____ and ____ were the first human beings to disobey God (a) Cane and Abel (b)
Adam and Eve (c) Faith and Paul
3. The devil came in the form of a ____ and tempted them to eat the fruit (a) rat (b)
lizard (c) serpent
4. Adam and Eve became ashamed of themselves and ____ from God (a) hid (b)
praise (c) clean
5. A resultant effect from an action done wrongly is called ____ (a) concequence (b)
karma (c) consequence
6. As a result of the disobedience of Adam, Eve and serpent, they were all ____ by
God (a) love (b) punished (c) flogged
7. ____ is the means or process by which we bring back or restore good
relationship that has been broken between two individuals or groups of people
(a) reconciliation (b) recoped (c) commitment
8. After repenting we come to the second stage of reconciliation which is ____ (a)
thanksgiving (b) forgiveness (c) hugging
9. The first state of reconciliation is ____ (a) forgiveness (b) crying (c) repentance
10. To Eve, God said, you shall have painful ____ (a) headache (b) childbirth (c)
pregnancy
SECTION B
1. Give the biblical account of the first disobedient
2. Mention the consequences of Adam and Eve sin
3. Explain the TWO stages of reconciliation
4. Explain FOUR ways of reconciling with offenders
5. Explain the conditions necessary for reconciliation
6a. What is Disobedience?
6b. What is Reconciliation?
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Culture and Creative Art
Class: Junior Secondary School 1 Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four (4) in section B
SECTION A
1. ____ of music is the basic elements of constituents which make up music (a)
theory of music (b) fundamentals of music (c) series of music
2. ____ is the relative highness and lowness of the sound we have (a) harmony (b)
pitch (c) melody
3. ____ is the simultaneous combination of two or more sounds in a progression (a)
harmony (b) rhythm (c) melody
4. ____ refers to the interweaving of the melodic and harmonic component of music (a)
timbre (b) pitch (c) texture
5. ____ is the movement which may be slow moderate, very slow or fast (a) rhythm (b)
texture (c) harmony
6. ____ is a type of literature that is written or composed for the purpose of
performance on stage in the presence of an audience (a) play (b) drama (c) theatre
7. ____ is a building where performances of dance and musical shows take place (a)
theatre (b) drama (c) stadium
8. ____ is a male or female that play the various role which play wright has written
into the play as characters (a) the dancers (b) electricians (c) actor
9. ____ is in charge of lightening in the production (a) costume designer (b) music
director (c) lighting designer
10. ____ conceptualizes and compose dance and movement in a performance (a)
choreographer (b) dancers (c) actor
SECTION B
1. What is Music Theory?
1b. List and explain THREE fundamentals of music
2a. Mention and explain the kinds of texture
2b. Explain notes on the keyboard
3a. What is the meaning of Octave?
3b. A keyboard instrument is made of ____ and ____ keys
4. List TEN people (Artists) involve in drama/theatre
5. Mention and explain SIX functions of drama
6a. State any FOUR uses of Music
6b. Mention THREE impacts music has had on the society
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Culture and Creative Art
Class: Junior Secondary School 2 Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four (4) in section B
SECTION A
1. ____ is the art of creating and organization of any of the essential visual arts or
auditory elements in a theatre production (a) set design (b) scene design (c) theatre
design
2. ____ are technical dresses, ornaments and accessories such as dresses or attires (a)
make-up (b) costumes (c) gown
3. ____ is a cosmetics applied to the face to entrance or alter appearance (a) make-up
(b) costume (c) dressing
4. ____ deals with the auditory sense and as such it is oral (a) flood (b) sound (c)
lighting
5. ____ refers t the physical outline of materials and elements on stage (a) line (b) mass
(c) colour
6. Texture refers to how the surface ____ of materials register to an audience (a)
interest (b) appearance (c) show
7. ____ is based on the interrelated ideas of balance and proportion (a) mass and
composition (b) movement (c) sound reinforcement
8. ____ is a type of dance that is created solely as dance and basically as an
exploration into the potentials of dance as an act (a) pure dance (b) dance drama (c)
comic dance
9. ____ describes a dance sequence created and performed for the purpose of amazing
an audience (a) dramatic dance (b) comic dance (c) pure dance
10. ____ means preparation for a performance through a regular process where all
elements of theatre related to the production are tired and tested for suitability (a)
dance (b) rehearsal (c) drama
SECTION B
1. What is theatre design
1b. Mention the area of therea design in the theatre
2a. Explain the term scene design
2b. Mention FIVE objectives of scene design
3. List FIVE importance of consume
4. Mention and explain the elements of theatre design
5a. Mention FOUR pre-rehearsal stage
5b. What is rehearsal/
6. Mention and explain SIX types of dance
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Home Economics Class: Junior Secondary School 2
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four (4) in section B
SECTION A
1. The struggle between two or more people who disagree is called (a) conflicts (b)
crisis (c) problem (d) challenge
2. Not all conflicts are ____ (a) poor (b) rich (c) bad (d) hard
3. Unresolved conflicts can lead to ____ (a) hostility (b) peace (c) harmony (d)
negotiation
5. Conflicts in families can arise from any of the following (a) dancing, singing and
laughing (b) talking, jumping and dancing (c) situation, personality, power and
struggle (d) personality, love and care
6. Which of the following is a deficiency diseases (a) malaria (b) fever (c) headache (d)
kwashiorkor
7. ____ is important for body tissues and fluids (a) fats (b) sugar (c) water (d) bread
8. Surplus carbohydrate in the body is stored as (a) starch (b) acid (c) water (d)
glucose
9. ____ are for protecting the body from diseases (a) starch (b) carbohydrate (c)
vitamins (d) oils
10. Which of the following is a body builder? (a) Yam (b) fat (c) beans (d) oil
SECTION B
1. Explain the meaning of food hygiene
SECTION A
1. The important thing which the family requires for survival is known as ____ (a)
resources (b) needs (c) goals (d) articles
2. Secondary needs are family (a) wants (b) goals (c) standards (d) show
3. Which of the following is not human resources? (a) Money (b) skills (c)
knowledge (d) energy
4. Surplus carbohydrate in the body is stored as body (a) fat (b) protein (c) starch
(d) glucose
5. Human resources exits in ____ (a) books (b) families (c) schools (d) people
6. Which of the following is not body builder (a) soya beans (b) meat (c) milk (d)
cassava
7. One of the following helps digestion and bowel movement (a) starch (b) protein
(c) vitamins (d) minerals
8. One of the following is not part of uses of food to the body (a) healthy growth (b)
strong bones (c) smart brain (d) climbing trees
9. ____ are used for family needs (a) standards (b) books (c) resources (d) cars
10. ____ is not part of the food additives (a) beautifying (b) colouring (c) preserving
(d) glazing
SECTION B
1. State THREE ways in which healthy feeding habits can help the body
SECTION A
1. A political organized body of people inhibiting a defined geographical entity
with an organized legitimate government is called _____ (a) nation (b) society
(c) locality (d) state
2. _____ is not a form of power (a) political (b) social (c) economic (d) physical
4. _____ is responsible for policy formulation (a) executive (b) legislative (c)
judiciary
5. A constitution which is easy to amend is (a) written (b) flexible (c) rigid (d)
unwritten
6. The ruling party in Nigeria is _____ (a) PDP (b) APC (c) LP (d) ANN
1. ____ is an object or body launched into the air and allowed to move on its
own or more freely under gravity (a) projectile (b) progression (c) throw (d)
height
2. The time required for a projectile to return to the same level from which
it was projected is ____ (a) time of flight (b) time to reach maximum
height (c) time to run (d) none of the above
3. The horizontal distance from the point of projection to the point where
the projectile hits the projection plane again is called ___ (a) range (b)
distance (c) height (d) mission
5. The range is maximum when θ equal to ____ (a) 450 (b) 600 (c) 900 (d) 750
8. ____ is the point at which the elastic material loses its elasticity
permanently and become plastic (a) yield point (b) elastic limit (c)
proportionality limit (d) none of the above
9. The limit of force beyond which the stretched wire does not return to its
original length when the stretching force is removed is ____ (a) elastic
limit (b) break limit (c) yield limit (d) shiff limit
10. The force required to give a unit extension is called (a) elastic constant (b)
Hook’s law (c) Young modules (d) none of the above
11. A force 0.8N stretches on elastic spring by 0.02m. Find the elastic
constant of the spring (a) 40N/m (b) 60N/m (c) 100N/m (d) 25N/m
12. Calculate the tensile strain on an elastic material of length 6.0m which
undergo an extension of 30m (a) 0.5 (b) 2.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
14. A spring is stretched 40mm by a force of 15N. What is the work done by
the force? (a) 0.3j (b) 0.4j (c) 0.5j (d) 0.6j
16. The force acting along the surface of a liquid causing the liquid surface to
behave like a stretched elastic skin is ____ (a) surface tension (b)
capillarity (c) water proof (d) none of the above
17. ____ is the tendency of a liquid to rise or fall in a narrow tube (a)
Capillarity (b) Surface tension (c) Viscosity (d) Cohesion
18. The force of attraction between molecules of the same kind is ____ (a)
cohesion (b) Adhesion (c) Terminal velocity (d) friction
20. The internal friction between layers of a liquid or gas in motion is termed
____ (a) Viscosity (b) acceleration (c) water rise (d) cohesion
SECTION B
(ii) Capillarity
(iii) Viscosity
(iv) Adhesion
(v) Cohesion
3b. A stone of mass 20g is released from a catapult whose rubber has been
stretched through 4cm. If the force constant of the rubber is 200Nm -1.
Calculate the velocity with which the stone leaves the catapult
(i) Stress
(ii) Yield point
4b. With the aid of diagram, describe briefly the behavior of a wire that is
gradually to its breaking
5b. A stone propelled from catapult with a speed of 50m/s attains height of
100m. Calculate
SECTION A
1. All of the following are input devices except ____ (a) notebook (b) mouse (c)
scanner (d) digital camera
2. ____ is a pointing device used to move the cursor in any direction (a)
keyboard (b) light pen (c) mouse (d) joystick
3. ____ is not part of the keys on the keyboard (a) function keys (b) control keys
(c) alphabetic keys (d) keyboards letters
4. ____ is a machine that can read electronic cards (a) keyboards (b) mouse (c)
card reader (d) ATM machine
5. Alphabetic keys are labelled ____ (a) Z to A (b) A and B (c) A to Z (d) A and Z
6. Light pen is used to draw and pointing device shape on a display screen (a)
true (b) dare (c) false (d) none of the above
7. Digital camera is also known as (a) digtacam (b) digicam (c) digicam (d)
digital
8. One of the following is not a function of keyboard (a) it is used to enter data
into computer system (b) it is used to give command to the operating system
(c) it is used to play computer games (d) it is used for dancing
9. The two basic types of computer mouse are (a) optical and computer mouse
(b) mechanical and computer mouse (c) mechanical and optical mouse (d)
mechanic and mechanical mouse
10. One of the following is not function of the mouse (a) pointing (b) clicking
(c) dragging (d) jumping
SECTION B
1. Define a keyboard
SECTION A
1. ICT is a pre-modern concept (a) true (b) false (c) a and b (d) none of the
above
2. A telecommunication device that is used to send and receive audio signals
across distance is known as ____ (a) telephone (b) internet (c) television (d)
satellite
3. A graphic package will do the following except (a) drawing (b) painting (c)
arithmetic calculation (d) printing
4. All are links and relationship between computer and ICT except (a) people that
understand the technology and operations of computer are better ICT users (b)
most discoveries in ICT and IT were as a result of access to a computer (c) ICT
gadgets are programmable just as computer (d) computer through internet and
ICT have not created knowledge
5. IT stands for ___ (a) information technology (b) internet technology (c)
information techniques (d) information timing
6. These are examples of ICT gadgets except the ____ (a) telephone (b) satellite (c)
CPU (d) Telex
7. ICT is used for the following except ____ (a) information management (b) timing
and control (c) communication (d) deleting
8. Which of the following graphics packages can be used to draw? (a) Harvard
graphics (b) MS-paint (c) Corel draw (d) none of the above
9. A graphics program can be used to create a company logo (a) true (b) false (c)
both a and b
10. MS-paint program was invented by a Nigerian. True/False
SECTION B
1. List any FIVE graphics software packages that you know
2. Define ICT and communication
3. Discuss FIVE uses of ICT
4. List FIVE ICT gargets
5. Describe FIVE advantages of ICT
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Physical Health Education Class: Junior Secondary School 1
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four
(4) in section B
SECTION A
1. The game of volley ball was formed by ___ (a) Willam Crooker (b) Morgan
James (c) Willaim Morgan (d) James Chaduik
2. Volleyball was formed in the year ____ (a) 1985 (b) 1958 (c) 1998 (d) 1895
3. Volleyball was formerly named ____ (a) minonette (b) minionette (c)
milonet (d) minions
4. Morgan published the first volleyball rules in the year (a) 1997 (b) 1897
(c) 1798 (d) 1789
5. The following sports allow body contact except (a) soccer (b) table tennis
(c) wrestling (d) judo
6. Volleyball is a game ____ by two ___ on a ____ court divided by a ____ (a)
played, teams, plain, net (b) teams, played, net, plain (c) plain, net, team,
played (d) played, plain, net, teams
7. The volleyball playing surface should be (a) flat, horizontal and uniform
(b) rough, vertical and uniform (c) rough, horizontal and uniform (d) flat,
vertical and uniform
8. The following are player’s equipment in volleyball except (a) jersey (b)
book (c) socks (d) sport shoe
9. A volley ball playing team is made up of __players (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d)
22
10. Each team in a volleyball is entitled to ____ touches (a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
SECTION B
1a. Define
(i) Sports
(ii) Games
1b. List FIVE equipment in the game of volleyball
1c. List THREE skills in volley ball
2a. List TWO functions of each of the following
(i) The first referee
(ii) The second referee
(iii) The scorer
2b. (i) What are contact sports
(iii) List TWO examples of contact sports
(iv) Give Two differences between contact and non-contact sports
3a. List FIVE benefits of contact sports
3b. List THREE benefits of non-contact sports
3c(i). State THREE techniques in COMBATIVE contact sports
3C(ii). State THREE techniques used in NON-COMBATIVE contact sports
4a.(i) List FOUR skills in field events
(i) State FOUR skills in throw events
(ii) State Two skills in track events
4b.(i). State FOUR skills in swimming
(ii) List TWO safety measures in contact sports
(iii) Enumerate Two safety measures in non-contact sports
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Physical Health Education Class: Junior Secondary School 2
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four
(4) in section B
SECTION A
1. The game of table tennis was made popular by which country (a) China
(b) The UK (c) The USA (d) Nigeria
2. “The grip” is a skill in table tennis and it has two types namely (a) the
four hand grip and the back hand grip (b) the forehand grip and the back
hand grip (c) the four hand grip and the back hand grip (d) the forehand
grip and the side hand grip
3. The game of table tennis can be played as (a) single or double (b) singular
or double (c) singular and plural (d) singles or plural
4. A/An is a ____ situation in which someone is ____ or something is ____
without anyone intending it to be so (a) accident, damaged, injured (b)
accident, injured, damaged (c) damage, accident, injured (d) injury,
damaged, accident
5. There are ____ types of injury (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
6. In your note, you were given __types of sport injuries (a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d)
10
7. A ____ is an injury to a joint in which one or more ligaments that support
the joints are over stretched (a) strain (b) bruise (c) cut (d) sprain
8. A ____ is a break in the bone (a) fracture (b) out (c) dislocation (d) wounds
9. A ____ is the displacement of one or more bones at a joint (a)
displacement (b) dislocation (c) fracture (d) cut
10. The following are examples of fracture except (a)green stick (b) compound
(c) simple (d) blue stick
SECTION B
1a. List FOUR basic skills in table tennis
1b. List FOUR equipment in table tennis
1c. List TWO types of defensive strokes
2a. Explain the service as used in table tennis
2b. What is an injury
2ci. List the types of injury
2cii. State TWO safety measurement at home
3a. List TWO safety measures for each of the following
(i) Playground
(ii) The motorist
(iii) The motorcyclist
3b. Define bruise
3c. Give TWO treatments for wounds
4a. List the types of wounds
4b. Give TWO first aid treatment for each of the following
(i) Fracture
(ii) Dislocation
4c. List FOUR signs of fracture
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Basic Science Class: Junior Secondary School 2
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four
(4) in section B
SECTION A
1. The human skeleton is divided into (a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 2 (d) 3
2. There are ____ types of skeleton (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
3. ____ gives shapes and support to the body (a) muscles (b) bones (c)
skeletons (d) tendors
4. A joint is a place where ____ or ____ _____ meet (a) three, two bones (b)
two, more bones (c) bones, muscles, joint (d) muscles, cartilage, joint
5. There is/are types of movable joints (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 8 (d) 4
6. In aerobic respiration, ____ is the main product formed (a) glucose (b)
water (c) carbon(iv)oxide (d) ATP
7. In anaerobic respiration, ____ is/are the by-product(s) formed (a) C 2H5OH
(b) C2H5OH and CO2 (c) energy, ATP (d) CO2
8. There are ____ types of breathing (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
9. There is/are ____ types of muscles (a) 2, voluntary and involuntary (b) 3,
voluntary, involuntary and associate (c) 1, voluntary (d) 4, voluntary,
involuntary, complimentary and associates
10. Bones are attached to muscles by means of whitish cords called ____ (a)
muscle attachment (b) muscular pigment (c) ligament (d) tendons
SECTION B
1a. Define
(i) Growth
(ii) Development
1b. Give FOUR differences between growth and development
1c. Give two characteristics of each of the following
(i) Infancy stage
(ii) Adulthood stage
2a. Define a Skeleton
2b. List the types of skeleton
2c. List the FOUR main structures present in a movable joint
2d. List the types of movable joints
3a. Define
(i) Voluntary muscles
(ii) Involuntary muscles
3b. List SIX functions of the skeletal system
3c. List the constituents of the pelvic girdle
3d. Define respiration
4a. There are basically two types of respiration. Name them
4b. Give the reaction that occurs in both types of respiration mentioned
above
4c. List FOUR parts of the human body that feature in the respiration
process
CITY COLLEGE, AUCHI
Second Terminal Examination for 2022/2023 Academic Session
Subject: Basic Science Class: Junior Secondary School 1
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in section A and any four
(4) in section B
SECTION A