Answer Key: 2023-2024 - Comprehensive Test 7 - Comprehensive Test

2023-2024 | Comprehensive Test 7 | Comprehensive Test
ANSWER KEY
Question Number Answer
1 B
2 A
3 C
4 C
5 D
6 C
7 B
8 C
9 A
10 D
11 B
12 C
13 C
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 B
18 D
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 B
23 C
24 C
25 D
26 B
27 C
28 C
29 B
30 B
31 A
32 C
33 D
34 B
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35 C
36 C
37 B
38 D
39 C
40 B
41 C
42 A
43 C
44 B
45 A
46 C
47 C
48 B
49 A
50 B
51 A
52 C
53 D
54 B
55 C
56 C
57 C
58 A
59 A
60 C
61 B
62 B
63 D
64 B
65 B
66 D
67 B
68 D
69 B
70 C
71 C
72 B
73 D
74 C
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75 D
76 C
77 C
78 D
79 D
80 A
81 B
82 C
83 C
84 C
85 B
86 B
87 C
88 B
89 A
90 C
91 B
92 B
93 B
94 A
95 B
96 D
97 D
98 B
99 B
100 B
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Solution
Q 1) Consider the following statements about World Soil Day
1. It is observed annually on December 5, emphasising the significance of healthy soil

and advocating for sustainable soil management.
2. It was Proposed by the IUCN and UNCCD in 2014.
3. The theme for this year is “Soil and Water: A Source of Life.”
Which of the statements given above are correct? :

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) Only two
Statement 1 and 3 are correct only.
About World Soil Day (WSD):

It is observed annually on December 5, emphasising the
significance of healthy soil and advocating for sustainable
soil management. Proposed by the International Union of
Soil Sciences in 2002, it was formally established under
the Global Soil Partnership, with FAO’s support. The UN
General Assembly designated December 5, 2014, as the
first official World Soil Day, commemorating the late King
of Thailand Bhumibol Adulyadej’s commitment to sustainable
soil management. The theme for this year is “Soil and
Water: A Source of Life.”
Q 2) Consider the following statements about the Global Coal Plant Tracker (GCPT):
1. The GCPT provides detailed information on coal-fired power units globally,

including those generating 50 megawatts and above.
2. It is released by the Global Energy Monitor, a San Francisco-based NGO, and is
updated annually.
3. The tracker catalogs every operating, proposed since 2010, and retired since 2000
coal-fired generating unit.
How many of the statements given above are correct? :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: (a) Only one
Solution:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Global Coal Plant Tracker indeed provides information on coal-
fired power units around the world, focusing on units generating 30 megawatts and above.
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Statement 2 is incorrect. While the GCPT is released by the Global Energy Monitor, it is
updated biannually (not annually), specifically around January and July.
Statement 3 is correct. The GCPT catalogs every operating coal-fired generating unit, every
new unit proposed since 2010, and every unit retired since 2000, providing a comprehensive
overview of global coal-fired power generation.
Target Shots
Significance of the Global Coal Plant Tracker:

The GCPT is a valuable resource for understanding the scale and distribution of coal-fired
power generation globally. It aids in identifying trends in coal usage and assists policymakers,
researchers, and activists in making informed decisions and strategies related to energy and
environmental policies.
Role of the Global Energy Monitor (GEM):

GEM, by cataloging fossil fuel and renewable energy projects worldwide, plays a crucial role in
providing transparent and accessible data on energy projects. This information is vital for
tracking the progress of energy transition and the global response to climate change.
Q 3) What is Tritonal? :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Explanation:
Tritonal In news: Israel has been accused of using Mk-84 bombs in the ongoing conflict in
Gaza which
are generally filled with Tritonal.
Tritonal is a mix of one part Aluminium & three parts trinitrotoluene or TNT.
It is a dangerous explosive, especially when exposed to heat.
Transport of Tritonal by aircraft or railways is forbidden due to its explosive characteristics
Q 4) Consider the following statements about Indian Forest & Wood Certification
Scheme
1. The scheme offers voluntary third-party certification to promote sustainable forest

management and agroforestry in the country.
2. Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal will be responsible for overall
management of the scheme.
Choose the correct statements: :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Indian Forest & Wood Certification scheme offers voluntary third-party certification designed
to promote sustainable forest management and agroforestry in the country.
The scheme includes forest management certification, tree outside forest management
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certification and chain of custody certification.
It can provide market incentives to various entities that adhere to responsible forest
management and agroforestry practices in their operations.
This includes state forest departments, individual farmers, or Farmer Producer Organizations
engaged in agroforestry and farm forestry, as well as other wood-based industries in the value
chain.
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

It will be overseen by the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Council, which will act as a
multi-stakeholder advisory body.
Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal will act as the scheme operating agency and
will be responsible for overall management of the Indian Forest and Wood Certification
Scheme.
The National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies under the Quality Council of India
will accredit the certification bodies.
The certification bodies will carry out independent audits and assess adherence of various
entities on the standards prescribed under the scheme.
The Forest Management certification is based on the Indian Forest Management Standard.
Q 5) Bab al-Mandab Strait connects? :

Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
It is a strait between Arabia and Africa that connects the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and
the Indian Ocean.
The strait is bordered by Yemen on one side and Djibouti and Eritrea on the other.
It is a strategic route for oil and a chokepoint between the Middle East and the Horn of Africa.
It’s also a vital link in the maritime trade route between the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian
Ocean. About 10% of global trade passes through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.
Q 6) Consider the following statements about Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA)
1. It aims to enhance the world’s adaptive capacity, strengthening resilience and

reducing vulnerability to climate change.
2. It was proposed by the African Group of Negotiators (AGN) in 2013 and established
in 2015 under Paris agreement.
3. Glasgow–Sharm el-Sheikh work program (GlaSS) is an initiative under GGA.
Ans ) [C] : 3
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Exp ) Answer: c) All three
Explanation
The Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA) is designed to function as a cohesive framework, aiming
to mobilize political action and financial support for adaptation efforts at a scale equivalent to
mitigation.
A robust GGA framework should articulate a precise set of targets and indicators, providing
guidance for national initiatives on adaptation and resilience. The emphasis lies in fortifying
and monitoring adaptation actions and support.
Initially proposed by the African Group of Negotiators (AGN) in 2013, the GGA was formally
established in 2015 under the Paris Agreement. At COP28, negotiators will collaborate to
finalize and implement the GGA, a responsibility initially assigned to the Adaptation
Committee (AC) and the Least Developed Countries Expert Group (LEG) in 2015.
In pursuit of a comprehensive understanding and realization of climate change goals, the

signatory countries to the Paris Agreement, collectively known as the Conference of the
Parties serving as the Meeting of the Parties to the Paris Agreement (CMA), introduced the
Glasgow-Sharm el-Sheikh work program on the global goal on adaptation at COP 26 in 2021.
Q 7) Consider the following statements about Green Rising Initiative
1. Introduced by UNEP's Generation Unlimited in collaboration with India's Ministry

of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
2. Generation Unlimited, a global Public-Private-Youth Partnership was launched by

UN Secretary-General in 2018.
3. This initiative focuses on engaging youth for impactful environmental actions at

the grassroots level, aligning with the global effort to address the severe impacts of
climate change.
How many of the above statements are correct? :

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) Only two
statement 1 is incorrect only
Explanation:
Introduced by UNICEF’s Generation Unlimited in collaboration with India's Ministry of

Environment, Forest, and Climate Change at COP28, Dubai (2023)
o Generation Unlimited, a global Public-Private-Youth Partnership was launched by UN
Secretary-General in 2018 to co-create & deliver innovative solutions on global scale.
This initiative focuses on engaging youth for impactful environmental actions at the
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grassroots level, aligning with the global effort to address the severe impacts of climate
change
Q 8) Consider the following statements about Climate Change Performance Index

(CCPI) 2024.
1. It is Released by Germanwatch.
2. It assesses countries performance in 4 categories: GHG emissions; Renewable

energy; Energy use; Climate policy.
3. India is ranked 7th on this year's index.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) All three
Explanation:
Released by Germanwatch (Non-governmental Organisation based in Bonn, Germany)

CCPI is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance.
It assesses countries performance in 4 categories -
1. GHG emissions (40% of the overall score)
2. Renewable energy (20%)
3. Energy use (20%)
4. Climate policy (20%).
Top 3 places are vacant in CCPI.
Germanwatch also releases ‘The Global Climate Risk Index’
Q 9) Consider the following statements about Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)
1. It is a trilateral maritime security grouping formed in 2011, consisting of India, Sri

Lanka, & Bangladesh.
2. Maldives is the 4th member at the fifth meeting of national security advisers.
3. It has permanent secretariat based in Colombo to coordinate activities &

implement decisions.

Ans ) [A] : 1
statement 3 is correct only
Explanation:
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It is a trilateral maritime security grouping formed in 2011, consisting of India, Sri Lanka,
& Maldives.
o Mauritius is the 4th member at the fifth meeting of national security advisers.
o Bangladesh & Seychelles as observer countries.
It has permanent secretariat based in Colombo to coordinate activities & implement
decisions.
Envisaged Goal- focuses on enhancing & strengthening regional security in 5 pillars:
o Maritime Safety & Security
o Countering Terrorism & Radicalization
o Combating Trafficking & Transnational Organized Crime
o Cyber Security and Protection of Critical Infrastructure & Technology
o Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief
Significance - In line with vision of Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) and
Neighbourhood First Policy.
Q 10) Recently, India signed Electronic Origin Data Exchange System (EODES) with
which country :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) South Korea
Explanation:
India-South Korea Electronic Origin Data Exchange System (EODES)

In news: launched by Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs.
EODES will facilitate implementation of India-Korea Comprehensive Economic Partnership
Agreement (CEPA) by electronic exchange of origin information b/w two customs
administrations for goods traded under CEPA.
It will provide a fresh impetus to preferential trade b/w two countries
Q 11) Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary is located in: :

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) Karnataka
Explanation:
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) recently recommended to the authorities
that the Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary abutting the Bandipur Tiger Reserve be declared as a core
critical tiger habitat.
About Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is situated north of Bandipur National Park in Mysore District, Karnataka.

It covers about 30 sq km, and the northern part of the sanctuary is occupied by the Nugu
Reservoir. It is built across the Nugu River, a tributary of the Cauvery.
In 1974, Nugu was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary, and later, in year 2003-2004, the area of
Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary was added to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
Rainfall: The area receives rainfall from both south-west and north-east monsoons. The
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average amount of rainfall received in this area is 1000mm.
Vegetation: Most of the vegetation in the forests is dry, deciduous, interspersed with patches
of plantations.
Flora:
Common species of trees found in this sanctuary are Anogeissus latifolia, Tectonia grandis,
and Terminalia tomentosa.
Other species of trees that are dominant in this forest canopy include medicinal and
commercially important tree specieslike Emblica officinalis, Santalumalbum, Albizia spp., and
Dendrocalamus strictus.
Fauna: The wildlife population includes elephant, leopard, jungle cat, wild pig, spotted deer,
sambar deer, barking deer, mouse deer, jackal, hare, common mongoose, common otter, small
Indian civet, common palm civet, and porcupine.
Q 12) Consider the following statements regarding the International Tropical Timber
Organisation:
1. It is an intergovernmental organization which promotes sustainable management

and conservation of tropical forests.
2. All of its projects are funded by voluntary contributions from governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? :

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the 59th International Tropical Timber Council (ITTC) concluded on November 17,
2023 with major decisions.
It is the governing body of the International Tropical Timber Organisation (ITTO).

It meets at least once a year to discuss a wide-ranging agenda aimed at promoting sustainable
tropical forest management and the trade of sustainably produced tropical timber.
Key facts about International Tropical Timber Organisation
It is an intergovernmental organization promoting the sustainable management and

conservation of tropical forests and the expansion and diversification of international trade in
tropical timber from sustainably managed and legally harvested forests.
It was established under the International Tropical Timber Agreement 1983 (ITTA 1983),
negotiated under the auspices of the UN Conference on Trade and Development.
It facilitates funding for forestry projects in tropical timber producing countries.
All projects are funded by voluntary contributions from governments.
Members: 75 countries (including India)
Its members manage about 80 per cent of the world's tropical forests and are responsible for
90 per cent of the global tropical timber trade.
Headquarters: Yokohama, Japan
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Q 13) Which of the following best describes the term “Dark Sky reserves” ? :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Protected areas dedicated to preserving the natural night sky by minimizing
light pollution.
Explanation
Dark Sky Reserves:
Definition:
A Dark Sky Reserve refers to a land area, whether publicly or privately owned, renowned for
its exceptionally clear and star-filled night skies.
Stringent light pollution management ensures the preservation of the natural night
environment.
Designation Process:
Designated by the International Dark Sky Association, a U.S.-based non-profit organization.

Five categories of designation: International Dark Sky Parks, Communities, Reserves,
Sanctuaries, and Urban Night Sky Places.
Criteria for Designation:
The land must be publicly or privately owned, protected for scientific, natural, educational,
cultural, heritage, and public enjoyment.
Accessibility to the public, either partially or entirely, throughout the year.
The core area of the land must offer an outstanding dark sky resource in comparison to
surrounding communities and cities.
India's First Dark Sky Reserve:
Located in Hanle, Ladakh, within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary.

Aiming to promote sustainable and environment-friendly astronomy tourism.
Expected to become Southeast Asia's first Night Sky Sanctuary.
Q 14) With reference to ALTÉRRA Fund, consider the following statements:
1. It was announced at recently held COP28 climate summit in Dubai.

2. The fund aims to incentivize investment in the Global South.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? :

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
ALTÉRRA Fund was announced at COP28 climate

summit in Dubai. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The fund aims to attract $250 billion in investment by
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the end of the decade, with $25 billion allocated to
climate strategies and $5 billion to incentivize
investment in the Global South. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
The fund seeks to steer private markets towards
climate investments, especially in emerging markets
& developing economies.
The fund’s investments will be guided by 4 key pillars:
1. Energy Transition
2. Industrial Decarbonization
3. Sustainable Living
4. Climate Technologies
Q 15) With reference to Agriculture Innovation Mission for Climate (AIM for climate)
Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint initiative of USA, European Union and India.
2. It was launched at COP 26 of UNFCCC at Glasgow in 2021.
3. It aim is to significantly increase investment for climate smart agriculture.
4. Only governments are the participants of this initiative.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Statement 2 and 3 are correct only
Explanation:
India joins the initiative

AIM for climate Initiative is a joint initiative by USA &
UAE. Hence, statement 1 is wrong.
It was introduced at the I2U2 Business Forum in Abu
Dhabi in February 2023 & launched at COP 26 of
UNFCCC at Glasgow. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Aim- to address climate change & global hunger by
uniting participants to significantly increase
investment in & providing other support for climate
smart agriculture & food systems innovation over 5
years (2021-2025). Hence, statement 3 is correct
Participants - Government partner, Innovation sprint
partner & Knowledge partner. Hence, statement 4 is
Wrong.
Q 16) Which of the following statements about Geoengineering techniques are

correct?
1. Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI) is a type of Carbon Dioxide Removal

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(CDR) technique aimed at removing excess carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
2. Solar Radiation Management (SRM) techniques, such as Marine Cloud Brightening
(MCB), aim to reduce solar energy reaching the Earth’s surface to cool the planet.
3. Surface Albedo Modification (SAM) involves changing the reflectivity of land or sea
surfaces to influence the Earth’s climate. :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI) is not a Carbon Dioxide

Removal (CDR) technique; it is a Solar Radiation Management (SRM) technique. SAI aims to
reduce global warming by introducing aerosols into the stratosphere, creating a cooling effect
via global dimming and increased albedo, similar to the effects of a volcanic winter. It does not
directly remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: Solar Radiation Management techniques like Marine Cloud

Brightening (MCB) are designed to reduce the amount of solar energy that reaches the Earth’s
surface. MCB, for example, involves spraying sea water droplets into low-level clouds over the
ocean to increase their reflectivity and albedo, thereby cooling the planet.
Statement 3 is correct: Surface Albedo Modification (SAM) involves changing the reflectivity of
land or sea surfaces to affect the Earth’s climate. This can be done through various means,
such as painting roofs white, covering deserts with reflective sheets, or increasing ice cover,
all of which are aimed at reflecting more sunlight away from the Earth to reduce warming.
TargetShots
Geoengineering Techniques:
• Divided into two main categories: Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) and Solar Radiation
Management (SRM).
• Aim to combat climate change through large-scale interventions in the Earth’s climate
system.
CDR Techniques:
• Focus on removing excess carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

• Include methods like afforestation, biochar, BECCS, and ocean fertilization.
SRM Techniques:
• Aim to reduce solar energy reaching the Earth’s surface.

• Encompass strategies like SAI, Space-Based Reflectors, Marine Cloud Brightening, Cirrus
Cloud Thinning, and Surface Albedo Modification.
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Q 17) Which of the following statements about the Vaquita Porpoise are correct?
1. The Vaquita Porpoise is the largest species of cetacean in the world.

2. It is primarily found in the northern Gulf of California and is known for a
distinctive dark ring around its eyes.
3. The Vaquita Porpoise is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List and is
protected under CITES Appendix I. :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Vaquita Porpoise (Phocoena sinus) is actually the world’s
smallest cetacean, not the largest. Its name, which means “little cow” in Spanish, reflects its
small size.
Statement 2 is correct: The Vaquita Porpoise is indeed primarily found in the northern Gulf of
California, also known as the Sea of Cortez, in Mexico. It is most commonly seen in shallow
waters and is recognized by a distinctive dark ring around its eyes, along with a proportionally
large dorsal fin.
Statement 3 is correct: The Vaquita Porpoise is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN
Red List, reflecting its severely threatened status. Additionally, it is protected under CITES
Appendix I, indicating the highest level of protection against international trade.
TargetShots
Vaquita Porpoise:
• World’s smallest cetacean, known for its unique appearance and shy behavior.
• Native to the northern Gulf of California, favoring shallow waters.
Threats and Conservation:
• Faces critical threats due to illegal fishing practices and by-catch in gill-nets.
• Conservation efforts are crucial to prevent its extinction, with a sharp decline in population
numbers.
Protection Status:
• Classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

• Covered under CITES Appendix I for strict international trade protection.
Q 18) Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because: :
Ans ) [D] : 4
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Exp ) Answer: d) rate of respiration is decreased
Explanation:
• Fruits are influenced by physiological processes, which are respiration and transpiration.
Rate of respiration increases with increase in surrounding temperature – this decreases shelf
life of the fruit.
• Similarly, Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because rate of
respiration is decrease
Q 19) Regarding World Soil Day 2023, identify the correct statements:
1. The United Nations designates 5th December as World Soil Day each year.
2. The first official World Soil Day was established by the U.N. General Assembly in
2014, following a recommendation from the International Union of Soil Sciences
(IUSS) in 2002.
3. The theme for World Soil Day 2023 is “Soil and Water, a Source of Life,” and it is
celebrated in honor of the late King of Thailand, Bhumibol Adulyadej, for his
contributions to sustainable soil management. :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) All three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations celebrates 5th December each year as World Soil
Day. This day is recognized internationally to highlight the importance of soil in our ecosystem
and to promote sustainable soil management practices.
Statement 2 is correct: The International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS) recommended the
establishment of an international day to celebrate soil in 2002. Following this
recommendation, the U.N. General Assembly officially designated December 5 as World Soil
Day in 2014, thereby formally acknowledging the significance of soil in environmental health
and sustainability.
Statement 3 is correct: The theme for World Soil Day 2023 is “Soil and Water, a Source of
Life.” This theme emphasizes the integral relationship between soil and water in sustaining
life. Additionally, World Soil Day commemorates the birthday of the late King of Thailand,
Bhumibol Adulyadej, recognizing his lifelong commitment to raising awareness about
sustainable soil management.
TargetShots
World Soil Day:
• An international observance day to highlight the importance of soil.

• Established by the U.N. in recognition of the IUSS recommendation.
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• Commemorates the contributions of King Bhumibol Adulyadej to sustainable soil
management.
Theme and Significance:
• 2023 theme: “Soil and Water, a Source of Life.”

• Focuses on the critical role of soil and water in supporting life and ecosystems.
IUSS and Its Role:
• Founded in 1924, under the parent organization International Science Council.

• Played a pivotal role in promoting the establishment of World Soil Day.
Q 20) With regards to New York Declaration on Forests, consider the following:
1. It is a legally binding declaration that was launched at UN Climate Summit 2014.
2. It endorses to cut natural forest loss in half by 2020, and strive to end it by 2030.
3. It calls for restoring forests and croplands of an area larger than India.
How many of the above statements are incorrect? :

Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) Only one
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a voluntary and non-
binding international declaration to take action to halt global deforestation. It was first
endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in September 2014. However, it's not legally
binding.
Statement 2 & 3 are correct: For the first time, world leaders endorsed a global timeline to cut
natural forest loss in half by 2020, and strive to end it by 2030. It also calls for restoring
forests and croplands of an area larger than India. It seeks to restore 350 million hectares by
2030. Meeting these goals would cut between 4.5 and 8.8 billion tons of carbon pollution every
year - about as much as the current emissions of the United States.
Target Shots :: NYDF

- In September 2019 the list of NYDF supporters has grown to include over 200 endorsers:
national governments, sub-national governments, multi-national companies, groups
representing indigenous communities, and non-government organizations. These endorsers
have committed to doing their part to achieve the NYDF's ten goals and follow its
accompanying action agenda. However, India is neither an endorser nor a party to the NYDF
Q 21) In context of Pangolins, examine the following statements:

1. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature, Indian pangolins
and Chinese pangolins are classified as critically endangered.
2. The Chinese pangolin is found in the northeastern part of India.

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Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) 2 Only
Explanation:
Pangolins, despite being listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 continue to be
the world's most trafficked mammal. The primary demand for its scales in the making of
traditional East Asian medicines has led to an estimated illegal trade worth $2.5 billion every
year. To enforce the appropriate national and international laws and to track the decline of the
species, researchers of Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), Kolkata, have now developed tools to
tell apart the scales of Indian pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and Chinese pangolin (Manis
pentadactyla).
- According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature, Indian pangolins are
endangered and the Chinese pangolins are critically endangered. hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
- Though the Chinese pangolin is distributed mostly in Vietnam, Thailand, Cambodia, the
northeastern part of India is also its home.
Q 22) Examine the following statements:

1. Some plants can photosynthesize optimally under very low light conditions.
2. Seasonal variations in light intensity and duration act as cues for animal
behaviour.
3. Green algae are found in much deeper waters than the red algae.
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Many species of small plants (herbs and shrubs) growing in forests are
adapted to photosynthesize optimally under very low light conditions because they are
constantly overshadowed by tall, canopied trees.
Statement 2 is correct: For many animals, light is important in that they use the diurnal and
seasonal variations in light intensity and duration (photoperiod) as cues for timing their
foraging, reproductive and migratory activities.
Statement 3 is incorrect: all the colour components of the visible spectrum are available for
marine plants living at different depths of the ocean. Bluish portion of the spectrum has the
shortest wavelength and the highest energy. So, this bluish component is able to penetrate
deep down in the ocean depths. Since red algae can absorb blue light, they can live in much
deeper water where light of long wavelengths - like red can't reach. Red algae have been
found living in depths of over 500 feet. Green algae absorb red light while reflecting green
light. Since red light s ability to penetrate in water is less than the blue light, red algae are
found at much deeper waters than the green algae.
TargetShots: Photosynthesis
Plants have the amazing ability to harvest energy from the sun using chlorophyll and convert it
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into carbohydrates. These carbohydrates serve as chief energy source for almost all living
beings in the world, including plants themselves.
- Photosynthesis is the process through which the food is prepared by the plant from
chlorophyll, carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) in the presence of sunlight. The chemical
involve in the photosynthesis is :
6CO2 + 12H2O - C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2
- Most organisms that utilize photosynthesis to produce oxygen use visible light to do so,
although there are plants which use infrared radiation too. Photosynthesis occurs in
Chloroplats of plants and it done by Chlorophyll pigment. Magnesium is found in the
chlorophyll of plant leave and in the nucleus of the chlorophyll on atom of the magnesium
exists. The chemical substance chloroplast is called the nucleus of the photosynthesis.
Factors influencing photosynthesis

Light
Mainly, violet, blue and red light portion of sunlight is used for photosynthesis. Further,
photosynthetic activity is maximum in low intensity light; as the intensity of the light increases
photosynthetic activity decreases.
- Temperature
As the process of photosynthesis is the complex chemical reaction of the various enzymes and
these enzymes only being normal to participate in the chemical reaction up to a moderate and
optimum temperature. Thus photosynthetic activity increase from 0°C to 37°C but 37°C
onwards such activity decreases abruptly.
- Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Up to a definite level on increasing the concentration of CO2, photosynthetic activity
increases, but after the certain limit, the increase of its concentration does not affect the
photosynthetic activity.
- Water (H2O)
Due to the lack of water, the photosynthetic activity abruptly decreases because of steep fall of
the rate of evaporation. In fact, the pores of the plant leaves become partially closed and
ultimately the translocation of CO2 is disrupted through the leaves.
Q 23) Regarding the synthesis report of the first Global Stocktake released by the
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), identify the
correct statements:
1. The report was released ahead of the 18th G-20 summit in New Delhi, presenting
17 key findings indicating progress towards Paris Agreement targets.
2. The Global Stocktake, established under the Paris Agreement in 2015, is a periodic
review mechanism that takes place every five years, with the first scheduled to
conclude at COP28 in 2023.
3. Key recommendations of the report include scaling up renewable energy, halting
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deforestation, ensuring equitable economic transitions, and enhancing climate
finance access. :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) All three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The synthesis report of the first Global Stocktake was indeed released
ahead of the 18th G-20 summit in New Delhi. This report presents 17 key findings that paint a
concerning picture of the world’s progress towards achieving the targets set by the Paris
Agreement.
Statement 2 is correct: The Global Stocktake is a periodic review mechanism established

under the Paris Agreement in 2015. It occurs every five years, with the first-ever stocktake
scheduled to conclude at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP28) at the end of 2023. Its
primary objectives include assessing countries’ efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions
and transition to renewable energy sources.
Statement 3 is correct: Among the key recommendations of the report are the scaling up of
renewable energy, halting and reversing deforestation, and ensuring that the economic
transition away from fossil fuels is equitable and inclusive. Additionally, the report emphasizes
the need for enhanced access to climate finance and the importance of addressing loss and
damage due to climate change.
TargetShots
Global Stocktake Report:
• Provides a critical assessment of global efforts in meeting Paris Agreement targets.

• Highlights the limited progress and the need for urgent action to address climate change.
Key Recommendations:
• Calls for increased ambition in reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

• Emphasizes the importance of renewable energy, sustainable land use, and equitable
economic transitions.
• Stresses the need for transparent reporting on adaptation efforts and comprehensive
management of climate risks.
Q 24) Consider the following statements about the Namami Gange Programme (NGP):
1. The NGP is an integrated conservation mission aimed at the abatement of

pollution, conservation, and rejuvenation of River Ganga, including its tributaries.
2. It is divided into two phases: Namami Gange Mission-I from 2014-2021 and
Namami Gange Mission-II from 2022-2026.
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3. The programme’s key pillars include Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River-
Front Development, and Industrial Effluent Monitoring, among others, and it
primarily covers the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar, and
West Bengal.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) All three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Namami Gange Programme is indeed an integrated conservation

mission with the twin objectives of effectively reducing pollution, and conserving and
rejuvenating the River Ganga and its tributaries. It represents a comprehensive approach to
address the various challenges facing the river and its ecosystem.
Statement 2 is correct: The programme is structured into two phases. Namami Gange Mission-
I spanned from 2014 to 2021, focusing on laying the groundwork and initial efforts. Namami
Gange Mission-II, scheduled from 2022 to 2026, aims to build upon the achievements of the
first phase and further advance the programme’s objectives.
Statement 3 is correct: The key pillars of the Namami Gange Programme include Sewerage
Treatment Infrastructure, River-Front Development, River-Surface Cleaning, Bio-Diversity,
Afforestation, Public Awareness, Industrial Effluent Monitoring, and Ganga Gram. The
programme covers major states along the Ganga river basin, including Uttarakhand, Uttar
Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar, and West Bengal. These pillars represent a comprehensive
approach to rejuvenating the Ganga, encompassing various aspects of river management and
conservation.
TargetShots
Namami Gange Programme:
• Aims for holistic conservation and rejuvenation of the Ganga River.

• Structured in two phases for systematic implementation.
Key Aspects:
• Incorporates diverse strategies like treatment infrastructure, ecological development, and

public engagement.
• Geographically spans significant states in the Ganga basin, addressing regional variations in
river management.
Q 25) Which of the following statements about Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) is/are
incorrect?
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1. Ecologically Fragile Areas are areas within 20 kms around Protected Areas,
National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
2. ESZs are notified by MoEFCC, Government of India under the Wildlife protection
Act, 1972.
3. Establishment of hotels and resorts are prohibited in ESZ.

Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) None
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Eco-Sensitive Zones or Ecologically Fragile Areas are areas within
10 kms around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. The basic aim is to
regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to minimise
the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the protected
areas
Statement 2 is not correct: ESZs are notified by MoEFCC, Government of India under
Environment Protection Act 1986.
Statement 3 is not correct
Activities Allowed in ESZs-
• Prohibited activities: Commercial mining, saw mills, industries causing pollution (air, water,
soil, noise etc), establishment of major hydroelectric projects (HEP), commercial use of wood,
Tourism activities like hot-air balloons over the National Park, discharge of effluents or any
solid waste or production of hazardous substances.
• Regulated activities: Felling of trees, establishment of hotels and resorts(Not prohibited but
regulated), commercial use of natural water, erection of electrical cables, drastic change of
agriculture system, e. g. adoption of heavy technology, pesticides etc, widening of roads.
• Permitted activities: Ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting,
organic farming, use of renewable energy sources, adoption of green technology for all
activities.
Q 26) With regards to the Chipko Movement, examine the following statements:
1. Chipko movement was a Gandhian form of protest against deforestation by locals
in the Himalayan region.
2. The movement was led by Sunderlal Bahuguna.
3. The support for the movement came only from the women.
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 & 2 are correct.
- The Chipko movement was a Gandhian form of protest against deforestation by locals in the
Himalayan region. To stop deforestation, locals - primarily women - would make circles around
trees and stop men from cutting them down.
- The first Chipko action took place in April 1973 in Mandal village, now in Uttarakhand, and
spread over the next five years to many Himalayan districts.
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- The movement sparked after the government decided to allot a plot of forest area in the
Alaknanda valley to a sports goods company.
- With the help from a local NGO, the women of the area went into the forest and formed a
circle around the trees, protecting them from the men who came to cut down the trees.
statement 3 is incorrect.
- Sunderlal Bahuguna, who was leading the movement, appealed to then Prime Minister Indira
Gandhi to implement a ban on cutting down the trees. His appeal resulted in a 15-year ban on
chopping green trees in 1980.
- The Chipko movement was To stop deforestation, not only but primarily supported by women
- would make circles around trees and stop men from cutting them down.
TargetShots: Sunderlal Bahuguna: Chipko Movement
Why in News?
Chipko Movement:
- It was a non-violent agitation which originated in Uttar Pradesh's Chamoli district (now
Uttarakhand) in 1973.
- The name of the movement chipko comes from the word embrace, as the villagers hugged the
trees and encircled them to prevent being hacked.
- It is best remembered for the collective mobilisation of women for the cause of preserving
forests, which also brought about a change in attitude regarding their own status in society.
- It's biggest victory was making people aware of their rights to forests, and how grassroots
activism can influence policy-making regarding ecology and shared natural resources.
- It led to a ban on commercial felling of trees above 30 degrees slope and above 1,000 msl
(mean sea level) in 1981.
Sunderlal Bahuguna (1927-2021):

- Initiated the chipko movement to guard the trees on the Himalayan slopes.
- Known for coining the Chipko slogan 'ecology is permanent economy'
- After the Chipko movement in the 1970s, he gave the message across the globe that ecology
and ecosystem are more important. He was of the opinion that ecology and economy should go
together.
- Campaigned against the Tehri Dam on River Bhagirathi, a mega-project with devastating
consequences. He undertook one of India's longest fasts after Independence, over 56 days.
- Took 4,800 km Kashmir to Kohima padayatra (foot march) in the early 1980s to bring
attention to the entire Himalayan region.
- Supported women-led movements against the liquor mafia in the hills, and for the Beej
Bachao Andolan, a movement to save Himalayan agricultural biodiversity from being wiped
out by the unsustainable, chemical-intensive Green Revolution.
- He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2009.
Q 27) Consider the following statements about parasitism:
1. Parasitism is a relationship where one species (the parasite) benefits at the

expense of the other (the host).
2. Parasites often require intermediate hosts or vectors for their life cycle, such as
the malarial parasite needing a mosquito.
3. Ectoparasites feed on the external surface of their host, exemplified by lice on
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humans.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) All three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In a parasitic relationship, the parasite benefits by deriving nutrition or

other benefits, while the host is negatively affected, often suffering health detriments or other
harm.
Statement 2 is correct: Many parasites, including the malarial parasite, require an

intermediate host or vector for their life cycle. In the case of malaria, mosquitoes act as the
vector, transmitting the parasite from one host to another.
Statement 3 is correct: Ectoparasites, such as lice, live and feed on the external surface of
their host. This type of parasitism is characterized by the parasite feeding on the host’s skin,
blood, or other external materials.
TargetShots
Parasitism:
• Parasitism is a type of symbiotic relationship where the parasite benefits at the host’s
expense. This interaction is detrimental to the host, often causing various health issues.
Parasite Life Cycles:
• Many parasites, like the malarial parasite, have complex life cycles requiring intermediate
hosts or vectors. These life cycles can involve multiple hosts and stages, enhancing the
parasite’s ability to spread and survive.
Ectoparasites:
• Ectoparasites, such as lice, reside and feed on the external surface of their hosts. These
parasites typically access nutrients like blood or skin, causing discomfort or health problems
for the host.
Q 28) Which of the following is/ are true regarding carbon cycle:
1. Mountain upliftment can cause a decrease in global temperatures.
2. Increased concentration of carbon dioxide will enhance the weathering rates
thereby cooling the climate.
3. Carbon is a minor constituent of the atmosphere as compared to oxygen and
nitrogen.
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Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: d) All
Explanation:
Carbon Cycle as Climate Buffer
- Because of the role of CO2 in climate, feedbacks in carbon cycle act to maintain global
temperatures within certain bounds so that climate never gets too hot or too cold to support
life on earth.
- If global temperature cools as a result of some astronomical forcing, the lower temperatures
will result in lower rates of chemical weathering which implies less CO2 being drawn from the
atmosphere by weathering reactions thereby increasing the temperatures.
- If more rocks become available for weathering as a result of mountain uplift, the enhanced
weathering will draw down atmospheric CO2 and decrease global temperatures. But the
decreases temperatures will slow reaction rates thereby using less CO2 thus allowing
temperatures to moderate. statement 1 is correct .
- If the concentration of CO2 increases in the atmosphere, global temperatures will rise. Rising
temperatures and more dissolved CO2 will lead to increased weathering of crustal rocks as a
result of faster reaction rates. Enhanced weathering will use up the excess CO2 thereby
cooling the climate. statement 2 is correct
Target Shots: Carbon Cycle

- Carbon is a minor constituent of the atmosphere as compared to oxygen and nitrogen. so
statement 3 is correct
- However, without carbon dioxide life could not exist because it is vital for the production of
carbohydrates through photosynthesis by plants.
- It is the element that anchors all organic substances from coal and oil to DNA
(deoxyribonucleic acid: the compound that carries genetic information).
- Carbon is present in the atmosphere, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide (CO2).
- Carbon cycle involves a continuous exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and
organisms.
- Carbon from the atmosphere moves to green plants by the process of photosynthesis, and
then to animals.
- By process of respiration and decomposition of dead organic matter, it returns to the
atmosphere. It is usually a short term cycle.
- Some carbon also enters a long term cycle. It accumulates as un-decomposed organic matter
in the peaty layers of marshy soil or as insoluble carbonates in bottom sediments of aquatic
systems which take a long time to be released.
- In deep oceans, such carbon can remain buried for millions of years till geological movement
may lift these rocks above sea level.
- These rocks may be exposed to erosion, releasing their carbon dioxide, carbonates and
bicarbonates into streams and rivers.
- Fossil fuels such as coals, oil and natural gas etc. are organic compounds that were buried
before they could be decomposed and were subsequently transformed by time and geological
processes into fossil fuels. When they are burned the carbon stored in them is released back
into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
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Q 29) Evaluate the following intricate statements regarding the ‘Building Materials
and The Climate: Constructing A New Future’ report by the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP):
1. The report underscores the necessity of transitioning toward low-carbon building

materials to contribute to global efforts aimed at limiting warming to 1.5°C, as
outlined in the Paris Agreement.
2. It identifies that embodied carbon, which includes emissions from the
manufacturing, transportation, installation, maintenance, and disposal of building
materials, accounts for approximately 11 percent of annual global greenhouse gas
emissions.
3. The report emphasizes the role of the construction sector as a minor contributor to
global greenhouse gas emissions and downplays the urgency of its decarbonization.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The report does indeed stress the importance of transitioning to low-
carbon building materials. This shift is crucial to meet the objectives of the Paris Agreement,
particularly the goal of limiting global warming to 1.5°C.
Statement 2 is correct: The report highlights that embodied carbon, encompassing emissions
from all stages of a building material’s life cycle, contributes to about 11 percent of annual
global greenhouse gas emissions. This underscores the significant impact of building materials
on the environment.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Contrary to the statement, the report identifies the construction
sector as a major contributor to global greenhouse gas emissions, accounting for a substantial
37 percent of total emissions. It emphasizes the urgent need for the sector’s decarbonization
to achieve climate goals.
Q 30) Consider the following statements regarding Global Tiger Forum (GTF):
1. It is the only Inter-governmental international body established to embark on the
global campaign to protect the Tiger.
2. GTF's general assembly meets every 3 years and its standing committee at least
once a year.
3. The Secretariat of GTF is headed by a Secretary-General and is located in
Dehradun, India.
Ans ) [B] : 2
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Explanation:
Global Tiger Forum (GTF)
Natural resources dependent community an important aspect of tiger conservation; 'people
agenda' ranks prominently in India's 'Tiger agenda'.
- statement 1 is correct. The Global Tiger Forum (GTF) is the only inter-governmental
international body established with members from willing countries to embark on a global
campaign to protect the Tiger.
- Utilizing co-operative policies, common approaches, technical expertise, scientific modules,
and other appropriate programmes and controls the GTF is focused on saving the remaining 5
sub-species of Tigers distributed over 13 Tiger Range countries of the world.
statement 2 is correct.
- The GTF has a General Assembly meeting every 3 years and Standing committee meetings at
least once a year.
- A Chairperson, usually a Minister from one of the Tiger Range countries heads GTF for a
fixed tenure of 3 Years.
- The Secretariat of GTF is headed by a Secretary-General and is located in New Delhi, India.
statement 3 is incorrect.
Target Shots :: History

- The GTF was formed in 1993 on recommendations from an international symposium on Tiger
Conservation in New Delhi, India.
- The first meeting of the Tiger Range countries to set up the forum was held in 1994, in which
India was elected to the Chair and was asked to form an interim secretariat.
- In 1997, the GTF became an independent organization. Bangladesh was Chair twice followed
by Nepal. India was elected as Chair in March 2011, replaced by Bhutan in 2014.
Members
- Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar, India, Vietnam, and Cambodia.
Q 31) Consider the following statements about Indian Mouse Deer
1. It is endemic to the Indian Subcontinent.

2. It is listed as Endangered in IUCN Red list.
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
Smallest Indian Deer:
The Indian Mouse Deer or Spotted Chevrotain holds the title of being India's smallest deer,
exhibiting highly nocturnal behavior.
Scientific Name: Moschiola indica
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Distribution:
Endemic to the Indian Subcontinent.

Predominantly found in peninsular India, with historical records extending to Nepal.
Sri Lanka houses a distinct species named the spotted chevrotain (Moschiola meminna).
Commonly encountered within India in various forest areas spanning the Western Ghats,
Eastern Ghats up to Orissa, and central Indian forests.
Features:
Compact in size, standing at 25-30 cm shoulder height and weighing between two to four kg.
Dark brown fur with white underparts, featuring four or five rows of light white spots on the
back.
Males exhibit tusk-like upper canines.
Unique digestive system with a three-chambered stomach instead of the typical four-
chambered structure found in other ruminants.
Forages on the forest floor for fruits, roots, leaves, and herbs.
Occasionally observed consuming insects, crustaceans, and small mammals.
Conservation Status:
IUCN classifies it as "Least Concern," indicating a relatively stable population and low
conservation risk.
Q 32) With reference to the Dual-member constituencies, consider the following

statements:
1. The dual-member constituencies were introduced by the Government of India Act,

1935.
2. It was introduced to reserve seats with sizeable SC and ST populations.
3. In the 1952 Lok Sabha elections, Uttar Pradesh had the maximum two-member
seats.
3. It was discarded through the Two-Member Constituencies (Abolition) Act 1961.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Only three
Dual-member constituencies were introduced by the Delimitation Commission Act, of 1952.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It was introduced to reserve seats with sizeable SC and ST populations. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
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Seats with more than half the population belonging to SCs or STs were single-member
constituencies.
However, after the first two Lok Sabha elections, in 1952 and 1957, the system was discarded
through the Two-Member Constituencies (Abolition) Act, 1961. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
There were 86 two-member seats in the 1952 Lok Sabha elections. Uttar Pradesh had the
most, with 17 seats out of a total of 69, while Madhya Pradesh and the former Vindhya
Pradesh had the largest percentage, with 50%. West Bengal had the sole three-member seat,
with one MP from the general, one from the SC, and one from the ST categories. There were
91 two-member seats in 1957, with UP having the most (18) and Odisha having the largest
proportion (50%). In 1951, there were 579 two-member Assembly seats (and one three-
member seat in the former Bombay state) and 551 in 1957. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Dual-membership faced major criticism after the 1957 election as 20 such constituencies saw
winners from the same group, either SC or ST, and did not elect a general candidate.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 33) Consider the following:
1. Increase the area of any state.
2. Alter the boundaries of any state.
3. Alter the name of any state.
4. Form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or
more States
How many of the above can the Parliament legislate on under Article 3? :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) All four
Article 3 of the Constitution of India provides for formation of new States and alteration of
areas, boundaries or names of existing States.
Parliament may by law—
(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States
or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;
(b) increase the area of any State;
(c) diminish the area of any State;
(d) alter the boundaries of any State;

Page 28
(e) alter the name of any State.
Except on the recommendation of the President and unless the proposal contained in the Bill
affects the area, boundaries, or name of any of the States, no Bill for this purpose shall be
introduced in either House of Parliament.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 34) With reference to the legislative authority over cooperative societies in India,
as per the 97th Amendment Act, consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India has the authority to pass legislation governing all types of
cooperative societies, including both Multi-State and Other Cooperative Societies.
2. Only the State Legislatures have the power to pass legislation governing
Cooperative Societies, as per Entry 32 in List II of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian
Constitution.
3. The 97th Amendment Act related to cooperative societies was unanimously upheld
by all High Courts in India.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is not correct. The Parliament of India has the authority to
legislate on Multi-State Cooperative Societies, but not on other types of cooperative societies,
which fall under the jurisdiction of State Legislatures.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. Entry 32 in List II of the Seventh Schedule of the
Indian Constitution specifically grants State Legislatures the power to legislate on matters
concerning cooperative societies.
Statement 3: This statement is not correct. The 97th Amendment Act, particularly concerning
cooperative societies, was challenged in several High Courts, with the Gujarat High Court
ruling it as unconstitutional in the case of Rajendra N. Shah v. Union of India.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Target Shots
The 97th Amendment Act's challenge in the High Courts, particularly in the case of Rajendra
N. Shah v. Union of India, highlights the complex interplay between the Centre and States in
legislative powers.
This case emphasizes the importance of judicial review in maintaining the balance of powers
Page 29
and ensuring adherence to the Constitution.
The case is significant for students of Indian polity as it provides insights into federalism,
cooperative federalism, and the role of the judiciary in interpreting the Constitution.
Q 35) With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act (MGNREGA), consider the following statements:
1. MGNREGA aims to provide 100 days of unskilled work per year to every rural
household across the country, including those in districts with a 100% urban
population.
2. If work under MGNREGA is not provided within 15 days of demand, the worker
must be given a daily unemployment allowance.
3. Wages under MGNREGA must be paid according to the statutory minimum wages
specified for agricultural laborers in the state under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
4. At least one-third of beneficiaries have to be women in this scheme.
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) Only three
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is not correct. MGNREGA covers all districts in the country
except those with a 100% urban population. Its primary objective is to provide 100 days of
unskilled work per year for every rural household that wants it.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. If work is not provided within 15 days from when it is
demanded under MGNREGA, the worker has to be given a daily unemployment allowance.
Statement 3: This statement is correct. Wages under MGNREGA must be paid according to the
statutory minimum wages for agricultural laborers in the state as specified under the
Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
Statement 4: This statement is correct. At least one-third of beneficiaries have to be women in

this scheme.
Target Shots
MGNREGA is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in the world, launched in 2005,
and plays a crucial role in rural development and employment.
The scheme emphasizes the empowerment of women, with at least one-third of beneficiaries
required to be women.
Understanding MGNREGA is essential for comprehending rural development policies in India,
highlighting the government's approach to reducing poverty and enhancing rural livelihoods.
Page 30
Q 36) With reference to the legal provisions of bail in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Statutory bail is a right that accrues when the police fail to complete the
investigation within 60 days for most offences, and 90 or 180 days for certain specific
cases, as provided in the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
2. Regular bail is granted to an accused person in custody, typically on the basis of
surety or personal bond.
3. Anticipatory bail is granted after an arrest has been made and is intended to
secure the release of the accused from custody.
4. The eligibility for bail depends on factors like the nature of the crime, severity of
the offence, likelihood of fleeing from justice, and past criminal record.
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) Only three
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is correct. Statutory bail is a right that accrues under the Code of
Criminal Procedure when the police fail to complete an investigation within a specified period,
which is generally 60 days for most offences and 90 or 180 days for certain specific cases.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. Regular bail is granted to an accused person who is in
custody, usually on the basis of surety or personal bond.
Statement 3: This statement is not correct. Anticipatory bail is granted before arrest and is
meant to protect an individual from being arrested.
Statement 4: This statement is correct. The eligibility for bail depends on several factors,
including the nature and severity of the crime, the accused’s likelihood of fleeing from justice,
their past criminal record, and the strength of the evidence against them.
Additional Information for Students:
Understanding the different types of bail and their conditions is crucial for comprehending the
legal system's approach to personal liberty and public safety.
The recent Supreme Court ruling emphasizes the protection of the accused's rights under
Article 21 of the Constitution, particularly in relation to default bail.
The role of Article 32 in the context of bail underscores the significance of constitutional
remedies in upholding fundamental rights.
Q 37) With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG), consider
the following statements:
Page 31
1. The CAG is appointed by the Prime Minister of India and has a tenure of 5 years or
until the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.
2. The CAG can be removed by the President of India only in accordance with the
procedure mentioned in the Constitution, which is the same as the removal of a
Supreme Court Judge.
3. After retirement or resignation, the CAG is eligible to hold office either under the
Government of India or any state government.
4. The CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and acts as the
chief guardian of the public purse, ensuring the accountability of the government to
Parliament and State Legislatures.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is not correct. The CAG is appointed by the President of India by
warrant under his hand and seal and not by the Prime Minister. The tenure is for 6 years or
until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. The CAG can be removed from office only in
accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution, which is similar to the removal
of a Supreme Court Judge.
Statement 3: This statement is not correct. The CAG is not eligible to hold any office, either
under the Government of India or any state government, after retirement or resignation.
Statement 4: This statement is correct. The CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts
Department and acts as the chief guardian of the public purse, playing a crucial role in
ensuring the accountability of the government and other public authorities to Parliament and
State Legislatures.
Target Shots
The CAG's role is fundamental in maintaining transparency and accountability in the financial
administration of India.
Understanding the CAG's functions and powers is essential for comprehending the checks and
balances in India's democratic framework.
The independence of the CAG's office is crucial for effective auditing of government
expenditures and ensuring responsible use of public funds.
Q 38) With reference to the use of technology in Indian elections, consider the
Page 32
following statements:
1. The 'None of the Above' (NOTA) option was first used in the Lok Sabha elections in
2014.
2. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) systems were used in all constituencies
during the 2019 Lok Sabha polls.
3. The first use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) occurred in the general
election in Kerala in May 1982, but was invalidated by the Supreme Court due to the
absence of a specific law prescribing its use.
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer:
(d) All of the above
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is correct. The NOTA option was first introduced in the Lok Sabha
elections in 2014 following a Supreme Court ruling in 2013 that mandated the right to register
a "none of the above" vote.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. VVPATs, which allow voters to verify that their votes
are cast as intended, were used in all constituencies during the 2019 Lok Sabha polls, marking
a significant advancement in ensuring transparent and verifiable elections.
Statement 3: This statement is correct. The first use of EVMs was in the general election in
Kerala in May 1982. However, this election was struck down by the Supreme Court due to the
absence of a law specifically authorizing the use of EVMs at that time.
Target Shots
The evolution of election technology in India, from the introduction of EVMs to the
implementation of VVPAT systems, reflects the commitment to enhancing the efficiency and
integrity of the electoral process.
The inclusion of the NOTA option represents a significant step in acknowledging voter
autonomy and providing a means for expressing disapproval of all candidates.
Understanding these developments is crucial for students studying the electoral process and
democratic practices in India.
Q 39) Consider the following statements regarding the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities in the Constitution of India:
1. Originally, the Constitution of India did not include any provision for the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
2. The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and
allowances, service conditions, and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for
Linguistic Minorities.
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3. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities submits annual reports to the
President through the Union Home Minister.
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) Only one and two
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is correct. Initially, the Constitution of India did not make any
provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. The Constitution, after the Seventh Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1956, which added Article 350-B, does not specify the qualifications,
tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions, or procedure for removal of the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Statement 3: This statement is not correct. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities,
designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities, falls under the Ministry of Minority
Affairs at the Central level and submits the annual reports or other reports to the President
through the Union Minority Affairs Minister.
Target Shots
The creation of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities reflects India's commitment to
protecting the rights and interests of linguistic minority groups.
The recommendation by the States Reorganisation Commission and the subsequent
constitutional amendment demonstrate the dynamic nature of the Indian Constitution in
responding to the country's diverse needs.
Understanding these roles and provisions is crucial for students studying Indian polity,
especially in the context of India's linguistic diversity and federal structure.
Q 40) Consider the following statements about the Right to Information Act, 2005:
1. Applications under the Right to Information Act must be submitted exclusively in

English or Hindi.
2. Applications under the Act can be handwritten or typed.
3. Information requested under the Act is to be supplied within 15 days from the
receipt of the application by the public authority.
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
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Statement 1: This statement is not correct. Applications under the Right to Information Act,
2005, can be submitted in English, Hindi, or in the official language of the area in which the
application is made, thus not limited to just English or Hindi.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. The Act allows applications to be either handwritten or
typed, providing flexibility to applicants in submitting their requests.
Statement 3: This statement is not correct. In the normal course, information to an applicant
under the Right to Information Act is to be supplied within 30 days from the receipt of the
application by the public authority, not 15 days.
Target Shots
The Right to Information Act, 2005, is a landmark legislation in India that operationalizes the
right to information for citizens, enhancing transparency and accountability in governance.
The provision for urgent requests concerning the life or liberty of a person, to be addressed
within 48 hours, shows the Act's sensitivity to critical situations.
Understanding the provisions of this Act is crucial for students studying democratic processes
and citizen rights, as it empowers citizens to participate actively in governance and hold
authorities accountable.
Q 41) Consider the following statements regarding the First Past the Post (FPTP)
system and Proportional Representation (PR) in electoral systems:
1. In the FPTP system, the candidate with the majority of votes is declared the
winner, whereas in PR, the number of seats won is proportionate to the number of
votes received.
2. The FPTP system is preferred for its simplicity and ease of understanding for
voters, even those without specialized knowledge in politics and elections.
3. In the FPTP system, voters have a clear choice between parties and specific
candidates, whereas PR often involves choosing a party and representatives are
elected based on party lists.
4. The makers of the Indian Constitution believed that a PR-based election system
would be more suitable for providing stable government in a parliamentary system.
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) Only three
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is correct. In the FPTP system, a candidate who gets more votes
than any other candidate is declared the winner. In contrast, in the PR system, the number of
seats won is proportionate to the number of votes received.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. The FPTP system is known for its simplicity and is easy
Page 35
to understand for the general electorate.
Statement 3: This statement is correct. The FPTP system offers voters a choice not just
between parties but specific candidates, ensuring clear accountability and representation for a
locality.
Statement 4: This statement is not correct. The makers of the Indian Constitution felt that a
PR-based election may not be suitable for a parliamentary system as it may not produce a clear
majority, potentially affecting the stability of the government.
Additional Information for Students:
The choice of the FPTP system in India reflects a balance between simplicity and effective
representation, ensuring the electoral process is accessible to the diverse and large population
of the country.
Understanding different electoral systems is crucial for students studying democratic
processes, as they shape how representatives are elected and how governments are formed.
The debate between FPTP and PR systems reflects a broader discussion on representation,
accountability, and governance in democratic societies.
Q 42) What are the primary sources of constraints on the freedom of individuals, and
how does a democratic government play a role in this context? :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect because it focuses solely on economic factors as the source of
constraints on freedom, which is not the primary focus of the provided text. The role of a
democratic government in managing economic factors is also not the central theme discussed.
Option (b) is correct. This option accurately reflects the content of the text, which states that
constraints on individual freedom often arise from domination and external controls, which
may be enforced through laws or force. It also correctly identifies that democratic
governments can help protect individual freedom by allowing citizens to have some control
over their rulers.
Option (c) is incorrect as it suggests that constraints on freedom are mainly due to internal
self-regulation, which is not mentioned in the text. Additionally, the role of democratic
governments is not addressed correctly in this option.
Option (d) is incorrect because it points to cultural norms as the primary source of constraints,
which is not the focus of the provided text. The role of democratic governments in reinforcing
cultural norms is also not discussed in the text.
Target Shots
The Sources of Constraints

Restrictions on the freedom of individuals may come from
Page 36
domination and external controls. Such restrictions may be imposed
by force or they may be imposed by a government through laws
which embody the power of the rulers over the people and which
may have the backing of force. This was the form of constraint
represented by colonial rulers over their subjects, or by the system
of apartheid in South Africa. Some form of government may be
inevitable but if the government is a democratic one, the members
of a state could retain some control over their rulers. That is why
democratic government is considered to be an important means of
protecting the freedom of people
Q 43) In political theory, how are negative and positive liberty conceptualized, and
what is the central issue in defining the scope of negative liberty? :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Negative liberty is about defining and defending an area of non-interference
where the individual is free to act, while positive liberty involves the expansion of
opportunities to express oneself.
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect because it reverses the concepts of negative and positive liberty.
Negative liberty is about the absence of external constraints, while positive liberty is about the
expansion of opportunities for self-expression.
Option (b) is incorrect as it doesn’t accurately represent either concept. Negative and positive
liberty are not primarily about government provision of services and benefits, but about the
concepts of freedom from interference and freedom to pursue opportunities.
Option (c) is correct. This option accurately captures the essence of negative and positive
liberty as described in the text. Negative liberty is focused on creating a space where the
individual is free from external interference, and positive liberty is about expanding
opportunities for individuals to express themselves. The central issue in negative liberty is
determining the extent or size of the area of non-interference.
Option (d) is incorrect because it incorrectly assigns economic freedoms to positive liberty and
cultural and social freedoms to negative liberty. The concepts are broader and not limited to
these specific areas.
Target Shots
In political
theory these have been called negative and positive liberty. ‘Negative
liberty’ seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual
would be inviolable, in which he or she could ‘do, be or become’
whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’. This is an area in
which no external authority can interfere. It is a minimum area
that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to
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be interfered with. The existence of the ‘minimum area of non-
interference’ is the recognition that human nature and human
dignity need an area where the person can act unobstructed by
others. How big should this area be, or what should it contain, are
matters of discussion, and will continue to be matters of debate
since the bigger the area of non-interference the more the freedom
Q 44) What does the concept of 'equality of opportunities' imply in a society, and how
should inequality be understood in this context? :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) It suggests that all individuals should have equal access to basic goods like
education, health care, and safe housing, and differences in talents or success do not imply
societal inequality.
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect because it confuses equality of opportunities with equality of outcome.
The concept of equality of opportunities does not demand that everyone ends up with the same
wealth and status.
Option (b) is correct. This option accurately reflects the idea that equality of opportunities is
about ensuring all individuals have equal access to basic goods and services like education,
health care, and safe housing. It acknowledges that differences in talent and success in
careers do not inherently indicate societal inequality.
Option (c) is incorrect as it misinterprets the concept by suggesting that people should not
have different preferences or choices. The essence of equality of opportunities is to allow for
diverse choices and talents while ensuring equal access to basic services and opportunities.
Option (d) is incorrect because it limits the concept of equality of opportunities to legal rights
only. The text emphasizes that equality of opportunities encompasses broader aspects like
access to education, health care, and housing, which are essential for a just society.
Target Shots
Equality of Opportunities
The concept of equality implies that all people, as human beings,
are entitled to the same rights and opportunities to develop their
skills and talents, and to pursue their goals and ambitions. This
means that in a society people may differ with regard to their choices
and preferences. They may also have different talents and skills
which results in some being more successful in their chosen careers
than others. But just because only some become ace cricketers or
successful lawyers, it does not follow that the society should be
considered unequal. In other words, it is not the lack of equality of
status or wealth or privilege that is significant but the inequalities
in people’s access to such basic goods, as education, health care,
safe housing, that make for an unequal and unjust society
Page 38
Q 45) Consider the following statements about Article 356
1. The proclamation of President’s Rule should be approved in both Houses of

Parliament within one month of its issue.
2. After initial six months, President’s Rule can be extended for a period of three
years with parliamentary approval, every one year.
3. A proclamation of revocation of President’s Rule does not require approval by
Parliament.
Ans ) [A] : 1
Explanation:
Article 365 Authority:
President’s Rule can be imposed under Article 365 if a state fails to comply with Union
directions on empowered matters.
Also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency.
Parliamentary Approval Requirement:
Imposition of President’s Rule necessitates parliamentary approval.

The proclamation must receive approval in both Houses within two months, achieved through
a simple majority.
Duration and Extension:
Initially set for six months, President’s Rule can be extended up to three years with
parliamentary approval, renewable every six months.
The 44th Amendment imposes constraints, limiting extension beyond one year unless a
national emergency occurs or the Election Commission certifies difficulties in conducting state
assembly elections.
Revocation Process:
President’s Rule can be revoked at any time through a subsequent proclamation by the
President.
Unlike imposition, revocation does not require parliamentary approval.
Q 46) Analyze the following statements regarding the inscriptions of Emperor Asoka
and identify which are correct:
1. The Kandahar inscription of Asoka was composed in both Greek and Aramaic
languages.
2. In the Lampaka inscription located in Afghanistan, Asoka is referred to as
"Devanampiya" in the Aramaic language.
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3. James Princep succeeded in deciphering both the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts,
which were employed in Asoka's inscriptions.
Ans ) [C] : 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Kandahar inscription of Emperor Asoka is indeed bilingual,

inscribed in both Greek and Aramaic languages. This reflects the widespread influence and
diplomatic relations of Asoka’s empire.
Statement 2 is correct: In the Lampaka inscription, which is located in Afghanistan, Asoka is

referred to as "Devanampiya" (Beloved of the Gods) in the Aramaic language. This title was
commonly used by Asoka in many of his inscriptions.
Statement 3 is correct: James Princep, an officer in the British East India Company, is
renowned for his decipherment of the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts. This breakthrough
enabled the understanding of many ancient Indian texts, including the inscriptions of Asoka,
where he identified the reference to a king named Piyadassi, later identified as Asoka.
Q 47) Consider the following statements about ancient Indian coinage:
1. The Kushanas were prominent for issuing a substantial number of gold coins, with
their coinage found extensively across North India, including Bihar. They depicted
various Indian, Persian, and Greek deities on their coins.
2. Indo-Greek coins display intricate artistic designs, including the realistic portrayal
of kings on the obverse side and the depiction of various deities on the reverse.
3. The Gupta kings issued the largest number of gold coins, while the Satavahanas
are known for their lead and potin coins, with their copper coins featuring a ship
symbol being notably found in Avanti.
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Correct Answer: c) All three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Kushanas are historically significant for their extensive issuance of
gold coins, which spread across a large part of North India, reaching as far as Bihar. These
coins often featured a blend of Indian, Persian, and Greek deities, reflecting the cultural and
religious diversity of their empire.
Statement 2 is correct: The coins minted during the Indo-Greek period are distinguished for
their artistic craftsmanship. They typically feature lifelike portraits of the kings on the obverse
side, showcasing a high level of skill in metalwork and portraiture. On the reverse side, these
coins commonly depict various deities, reflecting the cultural and religious influences in the
region during that time.
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Statement 3 is correct: The Gupta period is distinguished by the prolific minting of gold coins
by the Gupta kings, marking a significant era in Indian numismatics. Conversely, the
Satavahanas are known for their coins made of lead and potin, and their copper coins,
particularly those with a ship symbol, were abundantly found in the region of Avanti.
Thus, all three of the statements provided are correct.
Q 48) Consider the following statements
1. Susharman was the founder of the Kanva dynasty.

2. Vasudeva Kanva was the last king of the Kanva dynasty.
3. Its capital was Pataliputra.
4. The Kanva dynasty was succeeded by the Satavahanas.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation: statement 3 and 4 are correct only.
Kanva Dynasty
Vasudeva Kanva was the founder of the Kanva dynasty and it was a Brahmin dynasty. Its
capital was Pataliputra.
Susharman was the last king of the Kanva dynasty. The Kanva dynasty was succeeded by the
Satavahanas.
Q 49) Consider the following statements regarding the Gupta Empire and the
Allahabad Inscription:
1. Srigupta is mentioned in the Allahabad Inscription.

2. The Gupta Empire was contemporary with the Satavahana and Kushana empires.
3. The Allahabad Inscription mentions the four regions of Magadha, Saketa
(Ayodhya), Prayag, and the Gangetic Basin.
Which of the above statements are correct? :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Correct Answer: a) Only one
statement 1 is correct only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Allahabad Inscription, which is a critical source for the history of
the Gupta Empire, does mention Maharaja Srigupta and Maharaja Ghatotkacha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gupta Empire rose to prominence after the decline of the
Satavahana and Kushana empires, around the middle of the 3rd century A.D. Therefore, it was
Page 41
not contemporary with these empires.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Allahabad Inscription does not mention the four regions of
Magadha, Saketa, Prayag, and the Gangetic Basin. Such geographical details are found in the
Puranas, not in the Allahabad Inscription.
Q 50) In medieval India, Uluq and Dawa were :

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) Postal system
In India the postal system is of two kinds. The horsepost, called uluq, is run by royal horses
stationed at a distance of every four miles. The foot-post has three stations per mile; it is called
dawa, that is one- third of a mile ... Now, at every third of a mile there is a wellpopulated
village, outside which are three pavilions in which sit men with girded loins ready to start.
Each of them carries a rod, two cubits in length, with copper
bells at the top. When the courier starts from the city he holds the letter in one hand and the
rod with its bells on the other; and he runs as fast as he can. When the men in the pavilion
hear the ringing of the bell they get ready. As soon as the courier reaches them, one of them
takes the letter from his hand and runs at top speed shaking the rod all the while until he
reaches the next dawa.
And the same process continues till the letter reaches its destination. This foot-post is quicker
than the horsepost; and often it is used to transport the fruits of Khurasan which are much
desired in India.
Q 51) Consider the following statements regarding the political organizations during
19th century in India.
1. The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha was formed by associates of Raja Ram Mohan
Roy.
2. Bengal British India Society was set up by Sisir Kumar Ghosh in London.
3. Indian league was started in Calcutta by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Only statement 1 is correct.
The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha was formed in 1836 by associates of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
The main aim of the organization was to promote Bengali education by means of polemics and
build up public opinion.
On 25 September1875 the Indian League was founded under the leadership of Sisir Kumar
Ghosh.
Bengal British India Society founded in Calcutta in 1843 by William Adam, a friend of Raja
Ram Mohan Roy in England. The Bengal British India Society was an organisation dominated
by a section of the Bengal intellectuals, particularly by the young Bengal group.
Page 42
Q 52) In Gandhi-Irwin Pact the government agreed on
1. immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence.

2. remission of all fines not yet collected.
3. withdrawal of emergency ordinances.
4. public enquiry into police excesses.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Statement 4 is incorrect.
Explanation
Gandhi-Irwin Pact On January 25, 1931, Gandhi and all other members of the Congress
Working Committee (CWC) were released unconditionally. The CWC authorised Gandhi to
initiate discussions with the viceroy. As a result of these discussions, a pact was signed
between the viceroy, representing the British Indian Government, and Gandhi, representing
the Indian people, in Delhi on March 5, 1931. This Delhi Pact, also known as the Gandhi-Irwin
Pact, placed the Congress on an equal footing with the government. Irwin on behalf of the
government agreed on: 1. immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence;
2. remission of all fines not yet collected; 3. return of all lands not yet sold to third parties; 4.
lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned; 5. right to make salt in
coastal villages for personal consumption (not for sale); 6. right to peaceful and non-aggressive
picketing; and 7. withdrawal of emergency ordinances. The viceroy, however, turned down two
of Gandhi’s demands. (i) public enquiry into police excesses, and (ii) commutation of Bhagat
Singh and his comrades’ death sentence to life sentence. Gandhi on behalf of the Congress
agreed: (i) to suspend the civil disobedience movement, and (ii) to participate in the next
Round Table Conference on the constitutional question around the three linchpins of
federation, Indian responsibility, and reservations and safeguards that may be necessary in
India’s interests (covering such areas as defence, external affairs, position of minorities,
financial credit of India, and discharge of other obligations).
1. The four Circuit Courts were abolished and their functions transferred to collectors
under the supervision of the commissioner of revenue and circuit.
2. Sadar Diwani Adalat and a Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad for the
convenience of the people of Upper Provinces.
3. In the Supreme Court, English language replaced Persian.
Under whose Governor Generalship above reforms were initiated :

Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) William Bentinck
Page 43
Explanation
Reforms under William Bentinck (1828–33) ● The four Circuit Courts were abolished and their
functions transferred to collectors under the supervision of the commissioner of revenue and
circuit. ● Sadar Diwani Adalat and a Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad for the
convenience of the people of Upper Provinces. ● Till now, Persian was the official language in
courts. Now, the suitor had the option to use Persian or a vernacular language, while in the
Supreme Court, English language replaced Persian. 1833 : A Law Commission was set up
under Macaulay for codification of Indian laws. As a result, a Civil Procedure Code (1859), an
Indian Penal Code (1860), and a Criminal Procedure Code (1861) were prepared.
Reforms under Warren Hastings (1772–85) ● District Diwani Adalats were established in
districts to try civil disputes. These adalats were placed under the collector and had Hindu law
applicable for Hindus and the Muslim law for Muslims. The appeal from District Diwani
Adalats lay to the Sadar Diwani Adalat which functioned under a president and two members
of the Supreme Council. ● District Fauzdari Adalats were set up to try criminal disputes and
were placed under an Indian officer assisted by qazis and muftis. These adalats also were
under the general supervision of the collector. Muslim law was administered in Fauzdari
Adalats. The approval for capital punishment and for acquisition of property lay to the Sadar
Nizamat Adalat at Murshidabad which was headed by a deputy nizam (an Indian Muslim)
assisted by chief qazi and chief mufti. ● Under the Regulating Act of 1773, a Supreme Court
was established at Calcutta, which was competent to try all British subjects within Calcutta
and the subordinate factories, including Indians and Europeans. It had original and appellate
jurisdictions. Often, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court clashed with that of other courts.
Reforms under Cornwallis
Q 54) Which of the following policy measures were adopted by the British
Government towards the Princely States after the revolt of 1857?
1. Britishers to abandon the policy of annexing princely states.

2. Britishers to stop interfering in day to day affairs of princely states.
3. Princely States were to be completely subordinated to British Crown.

Ans ) [B] : 2
statement 1 and 3 are correct only.
Explanation:
Most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the
latter in suppressing the Revolt. Moreover, the experience of the Revolt had convinced the
British authorities that the princely states could serve as useful allies and supporters in case of
popular opposition or revolt. The
Revolt of 1857 led the British to reverse some aspects of their policy towards the Indian
States.
Page 44
• Some of the relaxation announced by the British to the princely states were:
o Before 1857, the British availed every opportunity to annex princely states. This policy was
now abandoned. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The right of princes to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories
guaranteed against future annexation.
• On the other hand, some of the old policies were applied even after the revolt of 1857:
o Princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power as the price of their
continued existence. In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of the Empress of India to
emphasize British sovereignty over the entire Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
o British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.
o They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents but insisted
on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers
themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Their perpetuation was only one aspect of the British policy towardé the princely state.
Complete integration of princely states with British India was another aspect of the British
policy towardé the princely states.
Q 55) Consider the following statements about the Tebhaga movement
Statement-I: Share-croppers were demanding two-thirds of the produce from the

land.
Statement-II: The Floud Commission was set up to look into the demands of this
movement.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? :

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
The Tebhaga movement was led by the sharecroppers of the Bengal region in 1946-47 against
the Jotedars of the region. They were having huge shares of land and also exercised control
over poor cultivators, local markets, money lending, etc. In rural villages, they were having
more control than the Zamindars. The sharecroppers (also known as bhagadars) were
responsible for the cultivation of large agricultural areas
under the jotedars, who handed over half of the crop after the harvest to the jotedars.
• Statement 1 is correct: The share-croppers demand two-third of the produce from the land.
There was huge participation of peasants from rural areas. North Bengal was the epicentre of
the movement. The demands of sharecroppers were incorporated in the Bengal Bargadars
Temporary Regulation Bill. At the request of the jotedars, the police suppressed the
sharecroppers and the movement slowly disappeared by the end of March 1947.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The demands were based on the recommendation of the Floud
Commission also known as the Bengal Land Revenue Commission which recommended two-
third share to the bargardars (sharecroppers).
Q 56) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to August Offer?
Page 45
1. It explicitly offered dominion status for India.
2. A constituent assembly to be set up after the war where Indians would decide the
Constitution.
3. It provided for the majority of Indians in expanded Viceroy’s executive council.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) All three
Explanation
Lord Linlithgow Viceroy of India announced the August Offer (August 1940) which proposed:
Dominion status as the objective for India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Expansion of Viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians (who would
be drawn from major political parties). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Setting up of a constituent assembly after the war where Indians would decide the
Constitution according to their social, economic, and political conceptions, subject to
fulfilment of the obligation of the government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties with
States, all Indian services. No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of
minorities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 57) Arrange the following events in chronological order of their occurrences.

1. Nadir Shah's invasion
2. Battle of Buxar
3. Third Battle of Panipat
4. Death of Tipu Sultan
Select the correct answer using the code given below. :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) 1-3-2-4
Explanation
Nadir Shah had risen from a shepherd boy to Shah (King) by saving Persia from sure decline
and disintegration. In 1729 he won back Herat after defeating the Abdalis and expelling the
Ghalzais from Isfahan and central and southern Persia. After long and bitter warfare he
compelled Turkey to give back all conquered territory. In 1735, he signed a treaty with Russia
receiving back all seized territory. Next year, he deposed the last of the Safavi rulers and
made himself the Shah. In the following years, he reconquered the province of Qandahar.
• Nadir Shah was attracted to India by the fabulous wealth for which it was always famous. He
entered Indian territory towards the end of 1738, without meeting with any opposition. He
attacked Delhi in March 1739. His army easily defeated the Mughals at the Battle of Karnal.
The greedy invader took possession of the royal treasury and other royal property, levied
tribute on the leading nobles, and plundered the rich of Delhi. His total plunder has been
estimated at 70 crores of rupees. He also carried away the famous Koh-i-nur diamond and the
jewel-studded Peacock Throne of Shahjahan. He compelled
Muhammad Shah to cede to him all the provinces of the Empire west of the river Indus.
• After Muhammad Shah’s death in 1748, bitter struggles and even civil war took out among
Page 46
unscrupulous and power-hungry nobles. Furthermore, as a result of the weakening of the
north-western defenses, the Empire was devastated by the repeated invasions of Ahmed Shah
Abdali, one of Nadir Shah's ablest generals, who had succeeded in establishing his authority
over Afghanistan after his master's death. Abdali repeatedly invaded and plundered northern
India right down to Delhi and Mathura between 1748 and 1767. In 1761, he defeated the
Marathas in the Third Battle of Panipat and thus gave a big blow to their ambition of
controlling the Mughal Emperor and thereby dominating the country,
• As a result of the invasions of Nadir Shah and Abdali and the suicidal internal feuds of the
Mughal nobility, the Mughal Empire had by 1761 ceased to exist in practice as an all-India
Empire. It remained merely as the Kingdom of Delhi. Shah Alam II, who ascended the throne
in 1759, spent the initial years as an Emperor wandering from place to place far away from his
capital, for he lived in mortal fear of his own wazir. He was a man of some ability and ample
courage. But the Empire was by now beyond redemption. In 1764, he joined Mir Qasim of
Bengal and Shuja-ud-Daula of Avadh in declaring war upon the English East India Company.
Defeated by the British at the Battle of Buxar, he lived for several years at Allahabad as a
pensioner of the East India Company.
• NOTE: Tipu Sultan was the ruler of the Kingdom of Mysore based in South India and a
pioneer of rocket artillery. He introduced a number of administrative innovations during his
rule, including a new coinage system and calendar, and a new land revenue system which
initiated the growth of the Mysore silk industry. In the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War, a combined
force of British East India Company troops supported by the Marathas & the Nizam of
Hyderabad defeated Tipu. He was killed on 4 May 1799 while defending his stronghold of
Seringapatam.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 58) In the context of left movement in the British India period, consider the
following pairs:
Book/Newspaper Published by
1. Gandhi and Lenin : M. Singaravelu

2. The Socialist : S. A. Dange
3. Langal : Ghulam Hussain
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? :

Ans ) [A] : 1
Pair 2 is correctly matched only.
Explanation:
A powerful left-wing group developed in India in the late 1920s and 1930s contributing to the
radicalization of the national movement. socialism became the accepted creed of Indian youth
whose urges came to be symbolized by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose. Socialist
ideas now
began to spread rapidly especially because many young persons who had participated actively
in the Non- Cooperation Movement were unhappy with its outcome and were dissatisfied with
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Gandhian policies and ideas as well as the alternative Swarajist program.
• Several socialist and communist groups came into existence all over the country.
o In Bombay, S.A. Dange published a pamphlet Gandhi and Lenin and started the first socialist
weekly, The Socialist. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
o In Bengal, Muzaffar Ahmed brought out Navayug and later founded the Langal in
cooperation with the poet Nazrul Islam. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
o In Punjab, Ghulam Hussain and others published Inquilab; and
o In Madras, M. Singaravelu founded the Labour-Kisan Gazette. Hence pair 1 is not correctly
matched.
Q 59) Consider the following pairs?

1. Culturable Wasteland: Land that has been uncultivated for more than a year.
2. Current Fallow Land: Land that has been fallow for more than five years.
3. Net Area Sown: Physical extent of land where crops are sown and harvested.

Ans ) [A] : 1
Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched
Culturable Wasteland is any land, which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years.
• It can be brought under cultivation after improving it through reclamation practices.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched
• Current Fallow is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one
agricultural year.
• Following is a cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest.
• The land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes.
Pair 3 is correctly matched
• The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown
area.
Q 60) Which of the following statement best describes “Virgin Vegetation”? :

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: Plant community which has grown naturally without human aid and has been
left undisturbed.
Explanation:
The type of vegetation which has grown on its own naturally without any aid from human
beings or those which have been left untouched or undisturbed by the human beings for a long
time are termed as “Virgin vegetation”.
• The virgin vegetation, which are purely Indian are known as endemic or indigenous species
but those which have come from outside India are termed as exotic plants. Thus Example -
Unreachable areas of the Amazon rainforest, Trenches in the Ocean etc.
• Plant community which is endemic to a particular area is known as native species.
• Plant community formed due to primary succession in an ecosystem are known as Pioneer
species.
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• Plant community newly introduced in an ecosystem is known as exotic species.
Q 61) Consider the following statements:

1. Eastern Ghats are broken and uneven whereas Western Ghats form a continuous
ridge.
2.The Eastern coastal plains are narrower as compared to the Western coastal plains.
3. Rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Vamsadhara all drain into the Bay of
Bengal.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Eastern Ghats are indeed broken and uneven, unlike the Western
Ghats, which form a more continuous and uniform ridge. The Eastern Ghats are characterized
by their discontinuous and eroded nature, with gaps created by rivers draining into the Bay of
Bengal. In contrast, the Western Ghats present a more continuous and elevated range along
the western coast of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Eastern coastal plains are generally broader than the Western
coastal plains. The Eastern coastal plains, also known as the Coromandel Coast, are wide and
level, formed by the large deltas of the rivers like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and
Kaveri. In contrast, the Western coastal plains, also known as the Konkan, Malabar, and
Kannada coasts, are comparatively narrow.
Statement 3 is correct: The rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Vamsadhara all drain into
the Bay of Bengal. These are among the major peninsular rivers of India, flowing eastward and
forming large deltas at their mouths before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
TargetShots
Geographical Features:
• Eastern Ghats: Broken and uneven terrain, with significant gaps and lower elevation
compared to the Western Ghats.
• Western Ghats: A continuous and elevated mountain range, running parallel to the western
coast of India.
Coastal Plains:
• Eastern Coastal Plains: Wider, forming large deltas due to major rivers like the Mahanadi,
Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.
• Western Coastal Plains: Narrower, with a rugged terrain and limited river delta formations.
River Systems:
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• Rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal: Include Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and
Vamsadhara, shaping the landscape and agriculture of eastern India.
Q 62) Consider the following statements about the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
(ITCZ):
1. The ITCZ is a broad trough of low pressure located in equatorial latitudes.

2. This zone is where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge.
3. The ITCZ extends beyond the tropics, particularly over landmasses like the Tibetan
plateau.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is indeed a broad trough
of low pressure typically found in equatorial latitudes. This region is characterized by low
pressure and is where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres meet,
leading to significant cloud formation and precipitation.
Statement 2 is correct: The ITCZ is the area where the northeast and southeast trade winds
converge, often referred to as the doldrums due to its calm, windless weather. This
convergence zone is key to global atmospheric circulation and influences weather patterns in
the equatorial region.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the ITCZ primarily lies in the equatorial region, it can shift
beyond the tropics, especially over landmasses with significant heating, such as the Tibetan
plateau. This shift is due to the differential heating of land and water, and the ITCZ can move
north or south of the equator following the sun’s zenith point. During certain times of the year,
such as when the Tibetan plateau heats up, the ITCZ can indeed extend beyond the Tropic of
Cancer, affecting weather patterns in those regions.
TargetShots
ITCZ Characteristics:
• A crucial component of global atmospheric circulation, lying primarily in equatorial latitudes.

• The convergence zone for northeast and southeast trade winds, influencing equatorial
climate.
ITCZ Movement:
• Seasonally shifts north and south of the equator, with notable shifts over landmasses due to
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differential heating.
• Can extend beyond the tropics, impacting weather patterns in regions like the Tibetan
plateau.
Q 63) Which of the following factors play a role in determining the climate of any
given region:
1. Latitude of the region
2. Pressure and wind system
3. Ocean currents and relief features
4. Longitude passing through the region
5. Vegetation of the region
6. Distance from the sea/ocean

Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer:
(b) All
Explanation:
In determining the climate of any given region, most of the factors listed play a significant
role. These factors are also known as ‘controls of the climate’. Let’s analyze each one:
1. Latitude of the region: Correct. Latitude significantly influences climate. Areas closer to the
equator receive more direct sunlight throughout the year, leading to warmer climates, while
regions closer to the poles receive less direct sunlight, resulting in colder climates.
2. Pressure and wind system: Correct. The pressure and wind systems influence weather
patterns, including precipitation and temperature. Different latitudes and altitudes affect these
systems, which in turn impacts the climate.
3. Ocean currents and relief features: Correct. Ocean currents can warm or cool the air above
them, affecting the climate of coastal regions. Relief features like mountains can affect wind
patterns and precipitation, creating varied climates within short distances.
4. Longitude passing through the region: Incorrect. Longitude primarily affects time zones
rather than climate. It’s the latitude, not longitude, that plays a significant role in determining
climate.
5. Vegetation of the region: Incorrect, but with a caveat. Vegetation is more often a result of
the climate than a determining factor. However, large-scale changes in vegetation can impact
local climates, but this is generally not considered a primary climate control.
6. Distance from the sea/ocean: Correct. Proximity to the sea or ocean can significantly
influence a region’s climate. Coastal areas tend to have milder climates compared to inland
areas due to the moderating effect of the ocean. This phenomenon is known as ‘continentality’.
Q 64) Which of the following are intrusive volcanic landforms?

1. Batholiths
2. Laccoliths
3. Caldera
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4. Dykes
5. Crater

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(c) Only three
Explanation:
Intrusive volcanic landforms are formed when magma cools and solidifies before it reaches the
surface of the Earth. The characteristics and names of these landforms are based on the
shape, size, and manner in which the magma intrudes into the surrounding rock. Let’s
examine the provided options:
1. Batholiths: Correct. Batholiths are large masses of igneous rock that have solidified deep
beneath the Earth’s surface. They are a major type of intrusive igneous formation and often
form the cores of mountains.
2. Laccoliths: Correct. Laccoliths are dome-shaped intrusions that form when magma intrudes
between layers of sedimentary rock, creating a dome or blister-like formation.
3. Caldera: Incorrect. Calderas are not intrusive but extrusive landforms. They are large,
cauldron-like hollows that form following the evacuation of a magma chamber in a volcanic
eruption. When the chamber is emptied, the support that the magma had provided to the
chamber’s roof is gone, and it collapses.
4. Dykes: Correct. Dykes are narrow sheets of intrusive igneous rock that cut across the layers
of surrounding rock. They form when magma intrudes into a crack then solidifies.
5. Crater: Incorrect. Craters are also extrusive volcanic landforms. They are funnel-shaped
depressions at the top of a volcanic vent, typically formed by the explosion or collapse of the
volcano’s top.
Q 65) Consider the following assertions about the weathering process:

1. Weathering occurs more quickly in places formed by deposited sediments.
2. A wider diurnal temperature range delays the weathering process.
3. Flatland is more prone to erosion.
4. Less vegetation helps to accelerate weathering.
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Weathering is defined as mechanical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rocks

through the actions of various elements of weather and climate. Weathering processes are
conditioned by many complex geological, climatic, topographic and vegetative factors.
Statement 1 is correct: Hard rocks are less prone to weathering as compared to soft rocks.
Sedimentary deposits can be easily eroded, so weathering will be faster. Example. Himalayas
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have sedimentary deposits and hence more weathering as compared to harder basaltic rocks
in deccan.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Climate is an important factor that influences the weathering. Most
of the physical weathering processes are caused by thermal expansion and pressure release.
Higher diurnal range temperature and humid conditions increases the rate of weathering. Due
to rapid change in temperature, there is constant expansion and contraction of rocks, leading
to weathering.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Topographic factor plays a role in weathering as it determines the
rate of removal of eroded particles. Flatland is less prone to weathering as compared to slopy
terrain as there is slow removal of denunded particles.
Statement 4 is correct: Biological weathering is contribution to or removal of minerals and
ions from the weathering environment and physical changes due to growth or movement of
organisms.
• Less vegetation helps in mixing and creating new contacts between air, water and minerals
in the earth materials. Thus, it facilitates in improving the power of the weathering agent.
• Decaying plant and animal matter help in the production of humic, carbonic and other acids
which enhance decay and solubility of some elements. Plant roots exert a tremendous pressure
on the earth materials mechanically breaking them apart.
Q 66) Consider the following statements regarding The Rubber Board
1. The Board’s headquarters is located at Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu.
2. The Rubber Board is a statutory Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture

and Farmer's Welfare.
Ans ) [D] : 4
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Board’s headquarters is located at Kottayam in Kerala.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Rubber Board is a statutory organization constituted under

Section (4) of the Rubber Act, 1947 and functions under the administrative control of Ministry
of Commerce and Industry.
TargetShots
Recently, under the aegis of the National Consortium of Regional Federations of Rubber
Producer Societies India, an umbrella organisation for rubber growers, a day-long sit-in
protest was staged in front of the Rubber Board headquarters in Kottayam, Kerala.
India is currently the world’s fifth largest producer of natural rubber while it also remains the
second biggest consumer of the material globally.
About Rubber Board:

- The Rubber Board is a statutory organization constituted under Section (4) of the Rubber Act,
1947 and functions under the administrative control of Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
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- The Board is headed by a chairman appointed by the Central Government and has 28
members representing various interests of natural rubber industry.
- The Board’s headquarters is located at Kottayam in Kerala.
- Kerala alone accounts for nearly 75% of the total production.
- The Board is responsible for the development of the rubber industry in the country by way of
assisting and encouraging research, development, extension, and training activities related to
rubber.
- It also maintains statistical data of rubber, takes steps to promote marketing of rubber and
undertake labour welfare activities.
- The activities of the Board are exercised through Five Departments General Services,
Extension & Advisory Services, Research Services (rubber Research Institute of India),
Training (Rubber Training Institute) & Finance. There are 5 independent divisions viz.,
Internal audit, Planning, Market Promotion, Publicity & Public Relations, Vigilance.
Q 67) Consider following pairs?

Type of drought Characteristics
1. Meteorological drought Characterized by low soil moisture
2. Hydrological drought Low availability of water in reservoirs
3. Agricultural drought Prolonged period of inadequate rainfall
4. Ecological drought Low productivity of ecosystem due to shortage of water

Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Drought is a complex phenomenon as it involves elements of meteorology like precipitation,
evaporation, evapotranspiration, ground water, soil moisture, storage and surface run-off,
agricultural practices, particularly the types of crops grown, socio-economic practices and
ecological conditions.
Types of Droughts:
• Meteorological Drought : It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate
rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.
• Agricultural Drought : It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by low soil
moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if
an area has more than 30 percent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is
excluded from the drought-prone category
• Hydrological Drought : It results when the availability of water in different storages and
reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish.
• Ecological Drought : When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of
water and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem.
Q 68) Consider the following sentences:

1. Tea thrives in both subtropical and temperate climes.
2. The Tea plant requires heavy seasonal rainfall for its optimum growth.
3. India is the world's largest producer of tea.
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Ans ) [D] : 4
Explanation:
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. It is also an important beverage crop
introduced in India initially by the British. Today, most of the tea plantations are owned by
Indians. Statement 1 is incorrect
• The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile
well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-
free climate all through the year. Statement 2 is incorrect
• Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender
leaves. Tea is a labor-intensive industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour. Tea is
processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness. Major tea producing states are
Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart
from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also
tea- producing states in the country.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. India is the second largest producer of tea after China
Q 69) Which of the following pair(s) given below is/are correct?

Glacier. Rivers
1. Alkapuri Bhagirathi
2. Sumeru. Mandakini
3. Bhara Shigiri Chenab
4. Gangotri Gomti
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
The accumulation of snow over thousands of years on this mighty range have led to the
formation of these glaciers. The top layers of the snow exert pressure on the lower layers
transforming them into ice. Again, the pressure combined with the force of gravity make the
glaciers move.
Pair 1 is incorrect. The Alaknanda has its source in the Alakapuri glacier above Badrinath.
Pair 2 is correct. The River Mandakini has its source in the Sumeru glacier above the
Kedarnath Temple.
Pair 3 is correct. The Bhara Shigiri glacier in the Chandra Valley of Lahaul in Himachal
Pradesh feeds the Chenab river.
Pair 4 is incorrect. Gomukh is the snout of the Gangotri glacier and it is from here that the
Bhagirathi, one of the important streams of the Ganges, flows down to the temple town of
Gangotri and beyond. This Glacier has many tributaries — Raktavarn, Chaturangi, Satopant
and Kirti glaciers to name a few
Q 70) In terms of soil quality, examine the following statements:

1. Salinity refers to the prevalence of sodium chlorides and calcium, calcium, and
magnesium sulphates in the soil.
2. Alkalinity refers to the dominance of sodium salts in soil, specifically sodium
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carbonate.
3. Alkaline soil has a pH greater than 8.5, whereas Saline soil has a pH less than 8.5.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Explanation:
1. Salinity in Soil: Correct. Soil salinity is characterized by the presence of various salts,
including sodium chlorides and sulfates of calcium and magnesium. These salts accumulate in
the soil, affecting its quality and the growth of most plants. Salinity often arises due to factors
like over-irrigation, especially in arid and semi-arid regions.
2. Alkalinity in Soil: Correct. Alkaline soils are primarily dominated by sodium salts,
particularly sodium carbonate. This type of soil tends to have high pH values, indicating its
alkaline nature. Alkalinity can interfere with nutrient availability and water uptake by plants.
3. Soil pH Levels: Correct. The pH value is a key indicator of soil’s chemical properties.
Alkaline soils typically have a pH greater than 8.5, indicating higher alkalinity. In contrast,
saline soils have a pH less than 8.5, indicating the presence of salts but at a lower pH than
alkaline soils.
Q 71) Which statement best describes "Private Captive Networks"? :

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Networks set up by private entities for their own use within an organisation.
“Private Captive Networks” refer to networks established by private entities exclusively for
their internal use. This concept is distinct from public telecommunications services offered to
general consumers or businesses. Private Captive Networks are specifically tailored to meet
the unique requirements of a single organization, providing a dedicated and secure
communication infrastructure.
Recently, the Indian Government has introduced regulations allowing enterprises to directly
acquire spectrum from the government for establishing Captive Non-Public Networks (CNPN).
These regulations stipulate that these networks are not for commercial telecommunication
services, meaning they cannot be used to provide services to outside entities or the general
public within their operational area.
Key points about Private Captive Networks under these new rules include:
1. Exclusivity: These networks are designed for the exclusive use of a single organization,
ensuring privacy and tailored functionality.
2. Government Licensing: Enterprises can obtain spectrum directly from the government, a
move that facilitates the creation of these networks by bypassing traditional telecom
providers.
3. Non-commercial Nature: The networks are not permitted to provide commercial
telecommunication services, underscoring their role as internal communication tools.
4. License Duration and Fees: The license for these networks is valid for 10 years and can be
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renewed. While there is no entry or license fee, there is a one-time non-refundable processing
fee of INR 50,000.
Q 72) Consider the following statements regarding the new Quantum-Technology

Backed Green Hydrogen Production developed by the Green Keplerate Team from
Banaras Hindu University:
1. The technology aims to promote bulk production of green hydrogen.

2. It includes a state-of-the-art photochemical-reactor design with built-in
illumination assembly and external concave reflective panels.
3. The produced hydrogen gas requires additional purification before use.
4. This innovation has potential applications in sectors like energy production,
transportation, and agriculture.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The technology developed by the Green Keplerate Team from Banaras
Hindu University is focused on enhancing the production of green hydrogen on a large scale,
which aligns with the goals of the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
Statement 2 is correct: The technology includes an advanced photochemical-reactor design,

which features built-in illumination and external concave reflective panels to optimize solar
energy capture, crucial for efficient green hydrogen production.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A significant advantage of this technology is the production of high-

purity hydrogen gas that doesn’t require additional purification, thereby improving the overall
cost-effectiveness of the system.
Statement 4 is correct: The innovation has potential applications across various sectors,
including energy production, transportation, and agriculture, indicating its wide-ranging
impact.
TargetShots
Quantum-Technology Backed Green Hydrogen Production:
• Developed by Banaras Hindu University’s Green Keplerate Team.

• Aims to enhance green hydrogen production using quantum technology.
Key Features:
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• Next-generation quantum-powered photo-catalyst for energy generation.
• Innovative photochemical-reactor design with optimal solar energy capture.
• Continuous electron coupled proton supply system, using industrial metal-waste.
Significance:
• Produces high-purity hydrogen gas, eliminating the need for additional purification.
• Cost-effective and eco-friendly alternative for energy production.
• Broad application potential in sectors like energy, transportation, and agriculture.
Q 73) Consider the following statements about “Specs 2030” initiative:
1. “Specs 2030” is an initiative launched by the World Health Organization (WHO) to

provide integrated and people-centered eye care worldwide.
2. The initiative was launched during the 74th World Health Assembly in 2021 in
response to the global vision problems crisis.
3. “Specs 2030” aims to ensure that everyone in need of refractive error intervention
has access to quality, affordable, and people-centered refractive error services.
4. The initiative’s mission is to support Member States in achieving the 2030 target
on effective refractive error coverage as endorsed by the 74th World Health
Assembly.

Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer:
(d) All
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: “Specs 2030” is indeed an initiative by the WHO, focusing on providing
integrated and people-centered eye care to address the widespread issue of vision problems,
particularly in low- and middle-income countries.
Statement 2 is correct: This initiative was launched during the 74th World Health Assembly in
2021, marking a significant step towards addressing the global challenge of vision impairment
and lack of access to eye care.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the primary visions of “Specs 2030” is to ensure access to
quality, affordable, and people-centered refractive error services for everyone in need of a
refractive error intervention, highlighting the initiative’s commitment to universal eye care.
Statement 4 is correct: The mission of “Specs 2030” is to support Member States in reaching
the 2030 target on effective refractive error coverage, a goal endorsed by the 74th World
Health Assembly. The initiative emphasizes coordinated global action across multiple strategic
pillars.
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TargetShots
Specs 2030 Initiative:
• Launched by the WHO at the 74th World Health Assembly.

• Aims to address the global need for spectacles and quality eye care.
Goals and Mission:
• Envisions universal access to refractive error services.

• Supports Member States in achieving effective refractive error coverage by 2030.
• Focuses on coordinated action across various strategic pillars for improving refractive error
services worldwide.
Q 74) Consider the following statements about Blockchain technology:
1. It is a peer-to-peer ledger that users share.
2. Any transaction on the blockchain requires permission from all nodes in a network.
3. It can be used in the real estate industry.
4. With each blockchain transaction, authority is transferred to the next node.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Only three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Unlike traditional data structures like arrays, pointers, etc, a
Blockchain is a peer- based ledger which is shared amongst users. There is no one authority
controlling it. It is available to anyone who wants to test the veracity of the transactions, or to
anyone who wants to add a new transaction.
Statement 2 is correct: As soon as a transaction is stored it becomes immutable or

unchangeable, as permission from all the computers/ nodes in a network is required to
authorise any transaction on the blockchain, including creating changes. Changing the code
linking the blocks disconnects them from the blockchain thus alerting them to the breach.
Thus, a blockchain ledger is immutable and transfer-proof as no hacker can enter and change
data discreetly without anyone noticing.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no one authority controlling the blockchain. Since it is

shared and operations on it require the consensus of all the nodes on a network, blockchain
ledgers are said to be decentralised. Every node has equal authority, and no one node has
extra powers with respect to the blockchain.
Statement 3 is correct: Storing digital currencies like cryptocurrency is one of the many uses
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of the blockchain technology. The individual blocks in a blockchain are essentially like empty
vessels and can be used to store data related to any sort of transaction - like contracts, real
estate, sale of assets like property, information related to supply chain, etc
TargetShots
What are Blockchains?

They are a new data structure that is secure, cryptography-based, and distributed across a
network. The technology supports cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin, and the transfer of any
data or digital asset.
Spearheaded by Bitcoin, blockchains achieve consensus among distributed nodes, allowing the
transfer of digital goods without the need for centralized authorization of transactions.
How does it operate?

1. The technology allows transactions to be simultaneously anonymous and secure, peer-to-
peer, instant and frictionless.
2. It does this by distributing trust from powerful intermediaries to a large global network,
which through mass collaboration, clever code and cryptography, enables a tamper-proof
public ledger of every transaction that’s ever happened on the network.
3. A block is the “current” part of a blockchain which records some or all of the recent
transactions, and once completed, goes into the blockchain as permanent database.
4. Each time a block gets completed, a new block is generated. Blocks are linked to each other
(like a chain) in proper linear, chronological order with every block containing a hash of the
previous block.
Q 75) What is 'Side-Channel Attacks' (SCAs)? :

Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) a security exploit that attempts to extract secrets from a chip or a
system.
Explanation:
A side-channel attack is a security exploit that attempts to extract secrets from a chip or a
system.
TargetShots
What is a side-channel attack?

A side-channel attack is a security exploit that attempts to extract secrets from a chip or a
system. This can be achieved by measuring or analyzing various physical parameters.
Examples include supply current, execution time, and electromagnetic emission. These attacks
pose a serious threat to modules that integrate cryptographic systems. Indeed, many side-
channel analysis techniques have proven successful in breaking an algorithmically robust
cryptographic operation and extracting the secret key.
How does a side-channel attack work?

A side-channel attack does not target a program or its code directly. Rather, a side-channel
attack attempts to gather information or influence the program execution of a system by
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measuring or exploiting the indirect effects of the system or its hardware. Put simply, a side-
channel attack breaks cryptography by exploiting information inadvertently leaked by a
system. One such example is the van Eck phreaking attack, which is also known as a Transient
Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST). This attack monitors the
electromagnetic field (EMF) radiation emitted by a computer screen to view information
before it is encrypted.
What attacks use side-channel analysis?

There are a growing number of known side-channel attack vectors. Some of the most common
attacks are:
- Timing attack Analyzes the time a system spends executing cryptographic algorithms.
- Electromagnetic (EM) attack: Measures and performs signal analysis on the electromagnetic
radiation emitted from a device.
- Simple power analysis (SPA): Directly observes the power and electromagnetic (EM)
variations of a cryptographic system during operations.
- Differential power analysis (DPA): Obtains and analyzes detailed statistical measurements
across multiple operations.
- Template attack: Recovers cryptographic keys by exploiting an identical ―template‖ device
and comparing side-channel data.
Q 76) Which of the following defence technologies was created indigenously in India?
1. The long-range artillery cannon, Dhanush
2. INS Vikrant
3. Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher
4. Close Quarter Battle Carbines

Ans ) [C] : 3
Explanation:
Option 1 2 and 3 are correct
1. The long-range artillery cannon, Dhanush

2. INS Vikrant
3. Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher
TargetShots
Recently, Defence Minister called for indigenous development of defence equipment and
platform technologies, stressing that the import of systems, with foreign software codes, can
prove to be dangerous for the security apparatus as it opens the window of vulnerability.
These defense technologies asked in the question are seen in news for the last one year and
therefore becomes important from the exam point of view.
Dhanush is the first indigenous long-range artillery gun developed by Ordnance Factory Board
(OFB) and manufactured by the Gun Carriage Factory. The gun is a 155 mm-45 calibre gun
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with a maximum range of 36.5 km and the capability of automatic alignment and positioning. It
is equipped with inertial navigation-based sighting system, auto-laying facility, onboard
ballistic computation and an advanced day and night direct firing system.
India is signing a deal with UAE for acquiring 93,895 Close Quarter Battle (CQB) carbines.
They are miniaturized assault rifles featuring an overall shorter barrel and is comparatively
lighter in weight and easier to handle compared to Assault Rifle.
INS Vikrant is the first aircraft carrier designed and built in India. It has over 76 percent of
the material and equipment which is indigenous. The ship is 262 m long, It has over 2,300
compartments designed for a crew of around 1700 people including specialised cabins to
accommodate women officers. The ship is equipped with numerous high-end technologies,
including network-centric distributed data processing and control systems and state-of-the-art
weapons such as the Barak LR-SAM (long-range surface-to-air missile) and sensors.
Pinaka Multi Barrel Rocket Launcher is the upgraded version of the Pinaka which has been in
service with the Indian Army for the last decade. The system is jointly designed by laboratories
of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) – Armament Research &
Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune and High Energy Materials Research Laboratory
(HEMRL), Pune. The extended range of the new Pinaka is over 70 km, as opposed to the 45 km
the system currently has. Moreover, it has the ability to strike within 10 metres of where it is
aimed, allowing the army to destroy a terrorist camp, or an enemy post, logistics dump or
headquarters without needing to send soldiers across the border.
Q 77) Consider the following statements regarding Stand-off Anti-tank (SANT)

missile:
1. It is an indigenously designed and developed air-to-surface missile.
2. The missile has both lock-on before launch and lock-on after launch capability.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Both
Statement 1 is correct: It is an indigenously designed and developed air-to-surface missile.
Statement 2 is correct:The missile has both lock-on before launch and lock-on after launch
capability.
TargetShots
India has successfully test-fired Stand-off Anti-tank (SANT) missile from a roof-top launcher at
the Integrated Test Range (ITR) off the coast of Odisha. The missile has been designed and
developed by Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad in coordination with other DRDO labs.
This is the third in the series of indigenous standoff weapons to be tested in recent times after
long range bomb and smart anti airfield weapon for strengthening the arsenal of IAF.
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SANT is one of the best airborne anti-armour guided missiles in the world. The\ missile has
both lock-on before launch and lock-on after launch capability. The missile will be inducted
after a couple of similar tests from on-board light combat helicopters and advanced light
helicopters.
SANT is the fourth-generation missile upgraded variant of HELINA (helicopter-based NAG)

missile developed by DRDO.
SANT is an indigenously designed and developed air-to-surface missile.
It is equipped with a state-of-the-art millimetre wave (MMW) seeker, which provides high
precision strike capability from a safe distance, the weapon can neutralise targets in a range
upto 10 km (not 1000).
Q 78) Consider the following statements about the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023 and
the discovery of Quantum Dots:
1. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023 was awarded to Moungi G Bawendi, Louis E
Brus, and Alexei I Ekimov for their discovery and synthesis of quantum dots.
2. Alexei Ekimov was the first to observe the anomalous behavior in Copper Chloride
nanoparticles, marking the initial discovery of quantum dots.
3. The distinctive properties of nanoparticles, like quantum dots, are due to the
emergence of quantum effects when particles are reduced to the nanoscale.
4. The size of quantum dots determines the color of light they emit, with smaller dots
emitting blue light and larger ones emitting yellow and red light.

Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer:
(d) All
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The 2023 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was indeed awarded to Moungi G
Bawendi, Louis E Brus, and Alexei I Ekimov for their groundbreaking work in the discovery
and synthesis of quantum dots.
Statement 2 is correct: Alexei Ekimov was a pioneer in this field, being the first to observe
anomalous behavior in Copper Chloride nanoparticles, which later contributed to the
understanding and development of quantum dots.
Statement 3 is correct: The unique properties of nanoparticles, such as quantum dots, arise
due to quantum effects. These effects become significant when particles are reduced to the
nanoscale, leading to different behaviors compared to larger particles of the same element.
Statement 4 is correct: One of the notable features of quantum dots is that their size dictates
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the color of light they emit. Smaller quantum dots emit blue light, while larger ones emit light
in the yellow and red spectrum.
TargetShots
Quantum Dots and Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023:
• Recognition of the significant contributions of Moungi G Bawendi, Louis E Brus, and Alexei I
Ekimov in the field of quantum dot research.
• Their work has been instrumental in advancing the understanding of nanoscale particles and
their unique properties.
Discovery and Characteristics of Quantum Dots:
• Quantum dots are nanoscale particles exhibiting unique behaviors due to quantum effects.
• The size-dependent color emission of quantum dots is a key feature that differentiates them
from larger particles of the same element.
• The laureates’ research has opened up new possibilities in nanotechnology and materials
science, enhancing our understanding of quantum behaviors in small-scale particles.
Q 79) Which of the following pairings is the proper match?
Acid - Use
1. Benzoic Acid : Accumulation batteries
2. Acetic Acid : Processing of foods
3. Citric Acid : Washing metals
4. Oxalic Acid : Bleaching of leather :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) All the pairs are correct
Explanation:
All the pairs are correctly matched
TargetShots
- Oxalic acid is used in the bleaching of leather, removal of ink, photography, clothing printing.
- Acetic Acid is used as a solvent, in preparation of vinegar, acetone, and processing of food.
- Citric Acid is used in washing metals, processing of food and drugs, in the cloth industry.
- Benzoic Acid is used for the preservation of medicine and food.
- Sulphuric Acid is used in accumulation batteries.
Q 80) Consider the following Amyloidosis reference:
1. It is a rare human disease caused by a lack of amyloid protein.

2. Amyloid is made up of various types of proteins.
3. It is entirely hereditary and cannot be caused by external factors.
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Ans ) [A] : 1
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Amyloidosis is a rare disease that occurs when an abnormal protein,
called amylold, increases in one's organs, affecting their shape and functioning.
Statement 2 is correct: Amyloid isn't normally found in the body, but can be formed from
several different types of proteins. Some varieties of amyloidosis occur in association with
other diseases. These types may improve with treatment of the underlying disease.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While some varieties are hereditary, others are caused by outside
factors, such as inflammatory diseases or long-term dialysis.
TargetShots
Recently, former Pakistan President has been hospitalized due to a complication of his ailment
Amyloidosis.
What is Amyloidosis?
o A rare disease that occurs when an abnormal protein, called amyloid, builds up in one's
organs, affecting their shap and functioning
o Amyloid deposits can build up in the heart, brain, kidneys, spleen and other parts of the
body, leading to life threatening conditions like organ failure.
o Amyloid isn't normally found in the body, but can be formed from several different types of
proteins Some varieties of amyloidosis occur in association with other diseases
o These types may improve with treatment of the underlying disease Some varieties of
amyloidosis may lead to life-threatening organ failure.
o It may be secondary to a different health condition or can develop as a primary condition as
well.
o Sometimes, it is due to a mutation in gene, but usually, the cause of it remains unknown.
Cause:
o Many different proteins can lead to amyloid deposits, but only a few lead to major health
problems.
o The type of protein and where it collects tell the type of amyloidosis one has.
o Amyloid deposits may collect throughout one's body or in just one area.
Treatment:
o There is not currently a cure for the disease.
o The amyloid deposits cannot be directly removed. But there are treatments to stop more of
the abnormal proteins being produced and treat your symptoms
o These treatments can give your body time to gradually clear the deposits before they build
up again. This can help prevent organ damage.
Q 81) Regarding "Biomaterials," consider the following statement:
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1. They are unable to be cultured in synthetic media.
2. They are capable of replacing damaged tissues.
3. They can be used to regulate the function of stem cells.
4. Biomaterials can only be made from living cells and tissue

Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Blomaterials play an integral role in medicine today-restoring
function and facilitating healing for people after injury or disease. Biomaterials may be natural
or synthetic, cultured in labs.
Statement 2 is correct: They are used in medical applications to support, enhance, or replace
damaged tissue or a biological function.
Statement 3 is correct: Stem cells are not specialized, so they have the potential to transition
into any specific kind of cell under the right conditions. Biomaterials can be used to control
stem cell fate and function.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Metals, ceramics, plastic, glass, and even living cells and tissue all
can be used in creating a biomaterial. They can be reengineered into moulded or machined
parts, coatings, fibers, films, foams, and fabrics for use in biomedical products and devices.
These may include heart valves, hip joint replacements, dental implants, or contact lenses.
TargetShots
• A biomaterial is any matter, surface, or construct that interacts with biological systems. The
development of biomaterials, as a science, is about fifty years old. Biomaterials science
encompasses elements of medicine, biology, chemistry, tissue engineering and materials
science. Biomaterials can be derived either from nature or synthesized in the laboratory using
a variety of chemical approaches utilizing metallic components or ceramics.
• They are often used and/or adapted for a medical application, and thus comprises whole or
part of a living structure or biomedical device which performs, augments, or replaces a natural
function.
• Biomaterials are also used every day in dental applications, surgery, and drug delivery. A
construct with impregnated pharmaceutical products can be placed into the body, which
permits the prolonged release of a drug over an extended period of time.
• A biomaterial may also be an autograft, allograft or xenograft used as a transplant material.
• For burn victims and sufferers of skin-related conditions, replacement skin may soon be
easily available as scientists have claimed in 2012. The researchers are able to grow sheets of
skin by placing individual cells into a gel-like sheet, and they can even be grown into specific
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shapes — such as letters.
• To perfect the technique biomaterials were mixed, causing a chemical reaction that forms a
‘mosaic hydrogel’ - a sheet-like substance compatible with the growth of cells into living
tissues, into which different types of cells can be seeded in very precise and controlled
placements. This is unlike more typical methods, for instance scaffolding, where cells are
seeded onto an artificial structure capable of supporting three dimensional tissue formations.
In this process, cells are planted onto the mosaic hydrogel sheets as they are being created -
generating the perfect conditions for cells to grow. The placement of the cells is so precise
that scientists can spell words and can precisely mimic the natural placement of cells in living
tissues.
Q 82) Consider the following statements about recent Nobel Laureates in the field of
Chemistry:
1. Carolyn R. Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, and K. Barry Sharpless won the Nobel Prize in
Chemistry in 2022 for the development of click chemistry and bioorthogonal
chemistry.
2. The 2021 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to Benjamin List and David
MacMillan for the development of asymmetric organocatalysis.
3. Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna received the Nobel Prize in
Chemistry in 2020 for the development of lithium-ion batteries.
4. Frances H. Arnold and George P. Smith and Sir Gregory P. Winter were the Nobel
Laureates in Chemistry in 2018 for their work on the directed evolution of enzymes
and the phage display of peptides and antibodies, respectively.

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) Only three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to Carolyn R.
Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, and K. Barry Sharpless for their significant contributions to the
development of click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry.
Statement 2 is correct: Benjamin List and David MacMillan were recognized with the 2021
Nobel Prize in Chemistry for their groundbreaking work in asymmetric organocatalysis.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2020 was awarded to Emmanuelle
Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna, not for the development of lithium-ion batteries, but for
their development of a method for genome editing, specifically CRISPR-Cas9 technology.
Statement 4 is correct: In 2018, the Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to Frances H.
Arnold for the directed evolution of enzymes, and to George P. Smith and Sir Gregory P.
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Winter for their work on the phage display of peptides and antibodies.
TargetShots
Recent Nobel Laureates in Chemistry:
• 2022: Bertozzi, Meldal, and Sharpless for advancements in click chemistry and bioorthogonal
chemistry.
• 2021: List and MacMillan for asymmetric organocatalysis.
• 2020: Charpentier and Doudna for CRISPR-Cas9 genome editing.
• 2018: Arnold for enzyme evolution; Smith and Winter for phage display.
Q 83) Which statement best describes the applications of Attosecond Physics? :

Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) The correct answer is c) Attosecond Physics involves using attosecond pulses for
capturing ultrafast atomic and molecular processes, with applications in materials science,
medical diagnostics, advancing electronics, and enhanced imaging and spectroscopy.
Explanation:
• Studying Short-Lived Processes: Attosecond pulses are incredibly short bursts of energy that
allow scientists to observe extremely fast processes at the atomic and molecular levels. This is
crucial in fields like materials science, electronics, and catalysis, where understanding rapid
changes can lead to significant advancements.
• Medical Diagnostics: In medical diagnostics, attosecond pulses have the potential to
revolutionize imaging and detection techniques. They can identify specific molecules based on
their transient signatures, offering a new level of precision in medical imaging.
• Advancing Electronics: The field of electronics stands to benefit greatly from attosecond
physics. The ability to observe and manipulate ultrafast processes can lead to the development
of faster and more efficient electronic devices, pushing the limits of current computing and
telecommunications technologies.
• Enhanced Imaging and Spectroscopy: Attosecond physics also opens up new possibilities in
imaging and spectroscopy. The manipulation of attosecond pulses can achieve higher-
resolution images, which has applications across various fields, from biology to astronomy.
Target Shots:
1. Ultrafast Process Observation: Attosecond pulses enable the observation of ultrafast

processes, a significant breakthrough for scientific research in various fields.
2. Revolutionizing Medical Diagnostics: The use of attosecond pulses in medical diagnostics
promises to bring about improved imaging techniques, enhancing the accuracy and efficiency
of medical examinations.
3. Electronics Development: Attosecond physics contributes to the advancement of electronics,
suggesting a future with faster and more powerful electronic devices.
4. Broad Application Spectrum: The applications of attosecond physics extend beyond just one
field, influencing areas ranging from materials science to astronomy through enhanced
imaging and spectroscopy capabilities.
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Q 84) With regards to ultraviolet (UV) rays, consider the following statements:
1. UV-A is responsible for the majority of UV radiation that reaches the earth.
2. UV-B promotes vitamin D synthesis in humans.
3. The ozone layer filters out UV-C.
Ans ) [C] : 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Ultraviolet light, or UV light, is the light of wavelengths shorter than
we can see as humans. UV-A is the long wave light that accounts for 95% of the UV radiation
that reaches the earth.
Statement 2 is correct: UV-B penetrates the skin to a short extent, causes delayed sunburn but
also helps in the synthesis of vitamin D. When exposed to sunlight, a compound called 7-
dehydroxycholesterol (7-DHC) which is also known as provitamin D, is converted into pre
vitamin D. This in turn isomerises into Vitamin D. The pre vitamin D, and Vitamin D, absorb
UVB light and produce substances useful for the body. For this reason, Vitamin D is also
known as the sunshine vitamin. Vitamin D is known to help in regulating calcium and
phosphate metabolism.
Statement 3 is correct: Among the UV Light, UV-A light has wavelength that spans the range
of 315-400 nanometres; UV-B light, spanning 280-315 nanometres; and UV-C, spanning
100-280 nanometres. UV-A is the least harmful of these types of radiation. UV-C is quite
harmful but is filtered out by the ozone layer.
TargetShots
What is UV Light?
UV light (ultraviolet light) has a wavelength between 10 and 400 nm that is shorter than the
visible light but longer than the X-rays and is a type of electromagnetic radiation. These are
present in sunlight and contribute 10% of the total light from the sun.
Classification of UV Radiation
1. UV-C:
o Short-wavelength.
o Most harmful but are completely absorbed by the Earth’s atmosphere and does not reach the
Earth’s surface.
2. UV-B:
o Medium-wavelength.
o Biologically active but cannot penetrate beyond the superficial skin layers.
o Responsible for delayed tanning and burning.
o Enhances skin ageing and significantly promotes the development of skin cancer.
o Exposure to UV-B rays can cause DNA and cellular damage in living organisms.
o Most solar UVB is filtered by the atmosphere.
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3. UV-A:
o Relatively long-wavelength.
o Accounts for approximately 95% of the UV radiation reaching the Earth's surface.
o Penetrate into the deeper layers of the skin and is responsible for the immediate tanning.
o Enhances the development of skin cancers.
Q 85) In the context of mineral exploration in India consider the following

statements:
Statement-I: Mining Licence (ML), which means that once the licence is granted, the
licensee can begin mining operations after obtaining the requisite clearances.
Statement-II: Composite Licence (CL) allows the licensee to conduct further

geological exploration of the area to ascertain evidence of mineral contents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? :

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-1.
Explanation
Twenty critical mineral blocks are currently up for auction, featuring lithium ore crucial for
batteries and electric vehicles, along with 10 other minerals designated as "critical" by the
government. The auction, initiated on November 29 and accepting bids until January 22, is
valued at approximately Rs 45,000 crore, accounting for potential discoveries or revisions in
inferred reserves.
This marks the first instance of auctioning mining rights for lithium ore to private entities. The
mineral blocks span eight states, with seven in Tamil Nadu, four in Odisha, three in Bihar, two
in Uttar Pradesh, and one each in Gujarat, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Jammu & Kashmir.
Among the 20 blocks, four are auctioned for a Mining License (ML), enabling immediate
mining post-clearance. Three of these are in Odisha, containing nickel, copper, graphite, and
manganese, while the fourth, in Tamil Nadu, holds molybdenum deposits.
The remaining 16 blocks are auctioned for a Composite License (CL), allowing geological
exploration before applying for an ML. The licensee has a timeframe of three to five years for
exploration; otherwise, the license is revoked.
Before commencing operations, the licensee must obtain 15 approvals and clearances,
including forest and environmental clearances, Gram Sabha consent, etc., covering 17% of
forest land within the concession area.
Two lithium blocks in J&K and Chhattisgarh are auctioned for CL. The J&K block has an
inferred reserve of 5.9 million tonnes of bauxite containing over 3,400 tonnes of lithium metal
content and 70,000 tonnes of titanium metal content. The Chhattisgarh block, with lithium and
REEs, awaits drilling for total reserve estimation.
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Nickel ore reserves are found in blocks in Bihar, Gujarat, and Odisha, with the Odisha block
also containing copper deposits. It holds an inferred value of 2.05 million tonnes of nickel ore,
equivalent to 3,908 tonnes of nickel metal content, and 6.09 million tonnes of copper ore, with
28,884 tonnes of copper metal content.
Q 86) With reference to the National Pension System (NPS), consider the following
statements:
1. It is administered and regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development

Authority (PFRDA).
2. All citizens of India aged between 18 – 65 years can join NPS.
3. It is mandatorily applicable to all the Central Government employees.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Some states, such as Himachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh are facing this issue as they have a
large number of employees whose total years of service is around 10 years, an issue that has
also been raised in the discussions of the Centre appointed committee to look into improving
the National Pension System (NPS) for government employees.
— The National Pension System (NPS) is being administered and regulated by Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) set up under PFRDA Act, 2013. Hence,
— NPS is a market linked, defined contribution product. Under NPS, a unique Permanent
Retirement Account Number (PRAN) is generated and maintained by the Central
Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for individual subscriber.
— This scheme includes Central and State Government Employees. NPS is mandatorily
applicable to Central Government employees (except Armed Forces) recruited on or after
01.01.2004. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
— Companies can adopt NPS for their employees with contribution rates as per the
employment conditions.
— The All Citizens Model of the NPS allows all citizens of India aged between 18 – 65 years to
join NPS on voluntary basis. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 87) Consider the following crops:
1. Wheat
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2. Sunflower
3. Barley
4. Coffee
How many of the above crops are covered under the Minimum Support Price? :
Ans ) [C] : 3
— Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India
to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
— The MSPs are announced by the Union government and as such, it is the government’s
decision. But the government largely bases its decision on the recommendations of the
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
— The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of
the sowing season for certain crops.
— During each cropping season, the government announces minimum support prices for 23
crops.
— Crops covered by MSPs include:
(i) 7 types of cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi and barley).
(ii) 5 types of pulses (chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong and masur).
(iii) 7 oilseeds (rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower,

nigerseed).
(iv) 4 commercial crops (cotton, sugarcane, copra, raw jute).
Q 88) With reference to the revenue expenditure, consider the following statements:
1. It is incurred to maintain the earning capacity.
2. It benefits more than one accounting year.
3. It is incurred on the day-to-day conduct of business.

Ans ) [B] : 2
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Revenue Expenditure is incurred to maintain the earning capacity. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
— It is incurred on the day-to-day conduct of business. It is a recurring expenditure. Hence,

— It normally benefits one accounting year. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— Revenue expenditure (subject to adjustment for outstanding and prepaid amount) is

transferred to trading and profit and loss accounts.
Q 89) With reference to the liquidity, consider the following statements:
1. Liquidity in the banking system refers to readily available cash that banks need to
meet short-term business and financial needs.
2. Abundant liquidity condition could lead to a rise in the government securities

yields.
3. Tight liquidity can pose risks to price stability.

Ans ) [A] : 1
— Liquidity in the banking system refers to readily available cash that banks need to meet
short-term business and financial needs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— On any given day, the banking system’s liquidity is said to be in deficit if it is a net borrower
from the RBI under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), and it is said to be in surplus if it
is a net lender to the RBI.
— The LAF refers to the RBI’s operations through which it injects or absorbs liquidity into or
from the banking system.
— The deficit in the liquidity situation has been caused by an uptick in the bank credit,
advance tax payments by corporates, intervention of the RBI into the forex market, and also
incremental deposit growth not keeping pace with credit demand.
— A tight liquidity condition could lead to a rise in the government securities yields and
subsequently lead to a rise in interest rates for consumers too. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
— The RBI announced I-CRR as a temporary measure to absorb excess liquidity from the
banking system. The level of surplus liquidity in the system surged because of the return of Rs
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2,000 banknotes to the banking system, RBI’s surplus transfer to the government, pick up in
government spending and capital inflows.
— Excess liquidity can pose a risk to both price stability and financial stability. As a result,
effective liquidity management necessitates continuous assessment of the level of surplus
liquidity so that additional measures can be taken as needed to impound the element of excess
liquidity. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 90) Consider the following statements about Web Portal UDGAM:
1. This portal has been developed for use by members of the public to facilitate and
make it easier for them to search their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks in
one place.
2. The user would be able to access the details of their unclaimed deposits in all the
banks.
3. The portal will aid users to identify their unclaimed deposits/ accounts.
4. The portal was launched by the Reserve Bank of India.

Ans ) [C] : 3
— The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India launched a Centralised Web Portal, UDGAM
(Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access Information). Hence, statement 4 is correct.
— This portal has been developed by RBI for use by members of public to facilitate and make it
easier for them to search their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks in one place. Hence,
— The launch of the web portal will aid users to identify their unclaimed deposits/ accounts
and enable them to either claim the deposit amount or make their deposit accounts operative
at their respective banks. Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd (ReBIT), Indian
Financial Technology & Allied Services (IFTAS) and participating banks have collaborated on
developing the portal. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— The users would be able to access the details of their unclaimed deposits in respect of seven
banks presently available on the portal. These banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National
Bank, Central Bank of India, Dhanlaxmi Bank Ltd., South Indian Bank Ltd., DBS Bank India
Ltd. and Citibank N.A. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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Q 91) Reflecting on the India Infrastructure Report 2023 on Urban Planning and
Development, consider the following statements about its key aspects and content:
1. The report focuses exclusively on the technical aspects of urban infrastructure,

such as construction and engineering.
2. Key aspects of the report include Planning and Governance, Smart Initiatives, PPPs
(Public-Private Partnerships) and Financing, Housing and Migration, Public Service
Delivery, Integrating Infrastructure, and Urban Redevelopment.
3. The report is a collaborative effort solely by government bodies and UN-Habitat
4. One of the primary objectives of the report is to address complex issues related to
urban planning and development, including the integration of infrastructure and
urban redevelopment.
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement is not correct. The India Infrastructure Report 2023 covers a
broader range of topics beyond just the technical aspects of urban infrastructure, including
governance, smart initiatives, and public service delivery.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. The report includes various key aspects such as
Planning and Governance, Smart Initiatives, PPPs and Financing, Housing and Migration,
Public Service Delivery, Integrating Infrastructure, and Urban Redevelopment.
Statement 3: This statement is not correct. The report is a collaborative effort by the IDFC
Foundation, Infrastructure Development Corporation (Karnataka) Ltd. (iDeCK), and the
National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA), indicating a mix of governmental and non-
governmental participation.
Statement 4: This statement is correct. The report aims to address complex issues in urban
planning and development, emphasizing the integration of various aspects of urban
infrastructure and redevelopment.
Target Shots
The India Infrastructure Report 2023 provides insights into the challenges and opportunities
in urban planning and development, a key area for India's growing urban population.
Understanding the report's findings and recommendations can help students and future
policymakers in framing sustainable and efficient urban development strategies.
The involvement of diverse stakeholders in the report's creation reflects the multidisciplinary
approach required for effective urban planning.
Q 92) Consider the following statements.
1. Central Depositories Services India Ltd is a Market Infrastructure Institution that

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is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure.
2. Central Depositories Services India Ltd is the only state-owned share depository in
India.
3. Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an
enabler for securities transactions.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Solution: b)
Statement 2 is incorrect only
CDSL, or Central Depositories Services India Ltd, is a government-registered share depository,

alongside its other state-owned counterpart National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL).
Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for
securities transactions, playing a somewhat similar role to what banks play in handling cash
and fixed deposits. While banks help customers keep their cash in electronic form, share
depositories help consumers store shares in a dematerialised form.
CDSL was founded in 1999. It is a Market Infrastructure Institution or MII that is deemed as a
crucial part of the capital market structure, providing services to all market participants,
including exchanges, clearing corporations, depository participants, issuers and investors.
Q 93) Consider the following statements regarding National Food Security Act (NFSA)
2013.
1. The law mandates that 75% of the total population must be covered by the PDS.
2. The NFSA requires that the latest completed Census be used to calculate the total
PDS coverage.
3. Some States use their own budgets to top up PDS coverage through the Open
Market Sale Scheme (OMSS).

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Solution: b) Only two
Statement 1 is incorrect only
The National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 expanded the coverage of the PDS substantially.
The law mandates that 50% of the urban and 75% of the rural populations must be covered by
the PDS.
The NFSA requires that the latest completed Census be used to calculate the total PDS
coverage.
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Some States use their own budgets to “top up” PDS coverage through the Open Market Sale
Scheme (OMSS) — for example, Tamil Nadu — or local procurement — for example, Odisha
and Chhattisgarh.
Q 94) Which of the following ratio refers to the 'Money Multiplier' in the economy? :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: (a) The ratio of M3 and M0
Explanation:
The Money Multiplier is defined as the ratio of the money supply (M3) to the monetary base
(M0) in the economy. The components of M0 include Currency in Circulation, Bankers’
Deposits with RBI, and Other deposits with RBI.
Monetary Base (M0):

M0 = Currency in Circulation + Bankers’ Deposits with RBI + Other deposits with RBI
The broader money supply, M3, consists of M1 and Time deposits with the banking system,
where M1 includes Currency with the public, Demand deposits with the Banking system
(current account, savings account), and Other deposits with RBI.
Money Supply (M3):

M3 = M1 + Time deposits with the banking system
M1 = Currency with public + Demand deposits with the Banking system + Other deposits with
RBI
During the period from April to December 2022, the money multiplier remained relatively
stable at an average of 5.1, compared to 5.2 in the corresponding period of the previous year.
However, when adjusting M0 for the reverse repo, which is akin to banks’ deposits with the
RBI, the adjusted money multiplier was lower at 4.3 at the beginning of FY23. As of December
30, 2022, with M0 adjusted for the reverse repo now closer to M0, the money multiplier and
adjusted money multiplier were recorded at 5.21 and 5.03, respectively. Therefore, option (a)
is deemed correct.
Q 95) With reference to Open Network for Digital Commerce, Consider the following
statements
1. It was the initiative of National Informatics centre along with Quality council of
India
2. It aims to provide free access of e-commerce platform to small online retailers
Which of the statements given above is/are correct :

Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has launched the Open
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Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) project on a limited scale. This initiative aims to
provide small merchants and local stores in certain regions with access to technologies and
processes commonly utilized by large e-commerce platforms like Amazon and Flipkart.
Therefore, Statement 1 is inaccurate.
Regarding the operational aspects of the ONDC project, such as seller onboarding, vendor
discovery, price discovery, and product cataloging, there is a proposal to make them open
source. Open source implies that the code or steps of a process are freely available for others
to use, redistribute, and modify, similar to the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) model.
To illustrate, if the ONDC is implemented and mandated, it would standardize processes for all
e-commerce companies. This standardization has the potential to benefit smaller online
retailers and new entrants significantly, creating a level playing field.
Hence, Statement 2 is accurate.
Q 96) A higher credit-to-GDP ratio indicates :

Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) Increase in aggressive participation of the banking sector in the real
economy
Explanation:
The credit-to-GDP ratio serves as an indicator of the banking sector's active involvement in the
real economy. A higher ratio reflects a more robust and aggressive participation, while a lower
ratio suggests a greater need for formal credit. This dynamic is a pivotal reason why
economists and analysts advocate for the privatization of state-run banks, aiming to stimulate
credit growth.
According to a research report by the State Bank of India (SBI), the proportion of incremental
bank credit to incremental nominal GDP is anticipated to surpass the 50 percent threshold in
the current financial year. This marks a notable increase from the decade-low of 27 percent
observed in FY2022.
Hence, option (d) is deemed correct.
Q 97) Chief economist outlook which was seen recently in News is released by :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) World economic forum
Explanation:
The World Economic Forum's Chief Economists Outlook for January 2023, released amid
persistent economic uncertainty and unprecedented challenges, seeks to provide a
comprehensive overview of the evolving economic landscape. Its objective is to outline the
current economic environment's emerging features and pinpoint priorities for policymakers
and business leaders. These priorities aim to address the compounding shocks experienced by
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the global economy due to geo-economic and geopolitical events.
Key components of the 2023 Chief Economists Outlook include an exploration of significant
trends in the economic landscape. This encompasses an analysis of growth prospects, inflation
considerations, and the trajectory of monetary and fiscal policies. Additionally, the report
delves into the challenges faced by businesses and anticipates likely responses in the coming
months.
The insights presented in the report are derived from the collective perspectives of a
distinguished group of chief economists. These perspectives are gathered through the Chief
Economists Survey conducted by the World Economic Forum and consultations with the Chief
Economists Community.
As per the latest survey findings from the World Economic Forum's Chief Economists
Community, there are cautiously optimistic indications, including the potential for a resolution
or alleviation of the cost-of-living and energy crises by the end of the current year.
Therefore, option (d) accurately reflects the content of the Chief Economists Outlook.
Q 98) Consider the following statement about the Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS):
1. It estimates employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ and

‘Current Weekly Status’ in both rural and urban areas annually.
2. The Female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) has been showing an
increasing trend since 2017-2018.
3. It is released by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Ans ) [B] : 2
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect only
Explanation:
The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) was initiated by the National Statistical Office (NSO)
in April 2017. The primary objectives of PLFS are twofold:
Urban Employment and Unemployment Indicators:
To assess key employment and unemployment indicators (such as Worker Population Ratio,
Labour Force Participation Rate, and Unemployment Rate) within a short three-month
interval. This analysis focuses specifically on urban areas in the 'Current Weekly Status'
(CWS).
Annual Estimation in Both Rural and Urban Areas:
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To estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both 'Usual Status' (ps+ss) and CWS
for both rural and urban areas on an annual basis.
Hence, Statement 1 accurately represents the goals of PLFS.
Regarding the female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in usual status for individuals
aged 15 years and above, the data reveals an increasing trend. The LFPR percentages were
24.5%, 30.0%, and 32.5% for the years 2018-19, 2019-20, and 2020-21, respectively.
Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
However, Statement 3 is not accurate. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted
by the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI) since the fiscal year
2017-18 to collect data on Employment and Unemployment.
1. Current Situation Index (CSI) and Future Expectations Index (FEI) are released by
Reserve Bank of India.
2. The Indira Gandhi Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS) comes under Ministry of
Social Justice and Employment.
3. For implementing the New Public Sector Enterprises Policy, the Department of
Public Enterprises has been brought under the Ministry of Finance

Ans ) [B] : 2
statement 1 and 3 are correct only
Explanation - RBI's Consumer Confidence Survey:
The RBI's Consumer Confidence Survey indicated a positive trend in consumer sentiment.
Conducted through physical interviews in 13 major cities, the survey covered aspects such as
the general economic situation, employment scenario, overall price situation, and personal
income and spending. Key highlights include:
Improved Consumer Confidence:
While consumer confidence has been on an upward trajectory since the historic low in July
2021, perceptions for the current period remained somewhat pessimistic.
Recovery in Economic Indicators:
The survey observed signs of recovery in the perception of the general economic situation,
employment scenario, and household income.
Optimism for the Future:
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Household confidence for the year ahead continued to rise, reflected in the upward trend of
the Future Expectations Index (FEI). This optimism is bolstered by positive expectations for
household income and the employment scenario.
Expenditure Trends:
Increased expenditure on essential items was noted, indicating a rise in overall expenditure.
Sentiments toward non-essential expenditure remained steady.
Hence, these survey findings suggest a nuanced improvement in consumer confidence.
Explanation - National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP):
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the
Ministry of Rural Development, designed as a social security initiative for specific vulnerable
groups. Targeting individuals in below-poverty-line households, the scheme encompasses five
sub-schemes:
Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS)

Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS)
Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS)
National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS)
Annapurna Scheme
Since 2007, the program expanded its coverage to include all eligible individuals below the
poverty line. Notably, the scheme for elderly individuals was renamed the Indira Gandhi
National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS). The central assistance varies, providing Rs. 200
per month for individuals aged 60-79 and Rs. 500 per month for those aged 80 or above.
Implementation involves the identification, sanction, and disbursement of benefits by the
States/UTs. The scheme covers a total of 221 lakh beneficiaries across rural and urban areas
in all States/UTs.
To implement the New Public Sector Enterprises Policy, the Department of Public Enterprises
(DPE)
has been brought under the finance ministry, which was earlier under the ministry of heavy
industries
and public enterprises. It is seen as a move to speed up privatization and exercise greater
financial
control over state-run enterprises.
Q 100) Consider the following statements about The Global Expert Review on Debt,
Nature and Climate, often seen in the news recently.
1. It is an initiative of India, Kenya and France to tackle debt & climate change.
2. It is an expert group established at the 2023 United Nations Climate Change
Conference (COP28).
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) 2 only
Page 81
Explanation
Global Expert Review on Debt, Nature, and Climate:
Initiative by Kenya, Colombia, and France.

Aims to address debt and climate change through structural economic transformation for low-
carbon growth.
Objectives:
Assess how sovereign debt affects developing countries in conserving nature, adapting to
climate change, decarbonizing economies, and promoting sustainability.
Establishment:
Expert group formed at the 2023 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28).
Scope:
Comprehensive assessment of sovereign debt's impact on low- and middle-income countries in
addressing climate change, conserving nature, and achieving decarbonization.
Purpose:
Facilitate structural economic changes to promote a low-carbon, sustainable future.
Page 82

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2023-2024 | Comprehensive Test 7 | Comprehensive Test

1. It is observed annually on December 5, emphasising the significance of healthy soil

2. It was Proposed by the IUCN and UNCCD in 2014.

Which of the statements given above are correct? :

Statement 1 and 3 are correct only.

About World Soil Day (WSD):

1. The GCPT provides detailed information on coal-fired power units globally,

Significance of the Global Coal Plant Tracker:

Role of the Global Energy Monitor (GEM):

1. The scheme offers voluntary third-party certification to promote sustainable forest

It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

Q 5) Bab al-Mandab Strait connects? :

Q 6) Consider the following statements about Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA)

1. It aims to enhance the world’s adaptive capacity, strengthening resilience and

In pursuit of a comprehensive understanding and realization of climate change goals, the

Q 7) Consider the following statements about Green Rising Initiative

1. Introduced by UNEP's Generation Unlimited in collaboration with India's Ministry

2. Generation Unlimited, a global Public-Private-Youth Partnership was launched by

3. This initiative focuses on engaging youth for impactful environmental actions at

How many of the above statements are correct? :

statement 1 is incorrect only

Introduced by UNICEF’s Generation Unlimited in collaboration with India's Ministry of

Q 8) Consider the following statements about Climate Change Performance Index

2. It assesses countries performance in 4 categories: GHG emissions; Renewable

3. India is ranked 7th on this year's index.

How many of the above statements are correct? :

Released by Germanwatch (Non-governmental Organisation based in Bonn, Germany)

Q 9) Consider the following statements about Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)

1. It is a trilateral maritime security grouping formed in 2011, consisting of India, Sri

3. It has permanent secretariat based in Colombo to coordinate activities &

How many of the above statements are correct? :

statement 3 is correct only

India-South Korea Electronic Origin Data Exchange System (EODES)

Q 11) Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary is located in: :

About Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary:

It is situated north of Bandipur National Park in Mysore District, Karnataka.

1. It is an intergovernmental organization which promotes sustainable management

2. All of its projects are funded by voluntary contributions from governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? :

It is the governing body of the International Tropical Timber Organisation (ITTO).

It is an intergovernmental organization promoting the sustainable management and

Dark Sky Reserves:

Designated by the International Dark Sky Association, a U.S.-based non-profit organization.

Located in Hanle, Ladakh, within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary.

Q 14) With reference to ALTÉRRA Fund, consider the following statements:

1. It was announced at recently held COP28 climate summit in Dubai.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? :

ALTÉRRA Fund was announced at COP28 climate

How many of the above statements are correct? :

Statement 2 and 3 are correct only

India joins the initiative

Q 16) Which of the following statements about Geoengineering techniques are

1. Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI) is a type of Carbon Dioxide Removal

(b) Only two

Statement 1 is incorrect: Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI) is not a Carbon Dioxide

Statement 2 is correct: Solar Radiation Management techniques like Marine Cloud

• Focus on removing excess carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

• Aim to reduce solar energy reaching the Earth’s surface.