Parishram Admission cum Scholarship Test

SAMPLE QUESTIONS
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR VII TO VIII MOVING

PHYSICS
1. Observe the figure given below.
5. A horse runs a distance of 1200 m in 2
minutes. What is its speed?
Insulated (A) 6 m/s (B) 10 m/s
copper wire (C) 24 m/s (D) 600 m/s
N
Switch 6. Why do we observe the Phenomenon of
W E
S lateral inversion in a mirror
(A) rectilinear propagation of light
Iron nail (B) curvilinear motion of light
(C) refraction of light
What will you observe in the compass (D) wave nature of light
shown in the above figure when the cir-
cuit is switched on? 7. When the switch is ON,
(A) It points towards east. (A) all electrons of conductor starts
(B) It points towards west. flowing
(C) It points towards north. (B) free electrons of conductor starts
(D) It points towards south. flowing
(C) protons of conductor starts flowing
2. Ram goes from Muzaffarpur to Patna in (D) atoms of conductor starts flowing
5 Hours and returns in 3 Hours. Find the
average velocity of Ram. [Distance Be- 8. The following is the figure of an igloo in
tween Muzaffarpur to Patna is 100 km] which eskimos live.
(A) 12.5 km/hr. (B) 25 km/hr.
(C) 50 km/hr. (D) 0 km/hr.

3. What happens to the image magnifica-

tion if the object is placed at centre of
curvature of concave mirror
(A) 1 (B) 2 Which of the following acts as am insu-
(C) >2 (D) > 2.5 lator in an igloo?
(A) Ice – Water (B) Snow – Water
4. Observe the circuit shown below:
(C) Air – Snow (D) Air – Water

9. Rainbow formation is an example of

(A) Scattering (B) dispersion
(C) reflection (D) diffusion.
P Q R
S 10. A body of density D is broken into two
parts now, the new density for substance
will be
Identify the bulbs that glow when switch (A) D (B) 2D
is in the ‘OFF’ position? (C) D/2 (D) None of these.
(A) P and Q only
(B) Only S 11. Which element has highest density
(C) R and S only (A) water (B) mercury
(D) None of the bulbs glow (C) ethanol (D) methanol.
Page No # 1
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

12. Composition of air can be best repre- 20. Which of the given graphs represents
sented by drawing constant speed of an object?
(A) pie-chart (B) bar graph
(C) histogram (D) line graph

Distance
13. If the slope of V-I graph is constant at 1, it

Distance
means
(A) Voltage is constant (A) (B)
(B) Current is constant
(C) Resistance is constant Time
Time
(D) None of these

14. The regular vibration of which of the fol-

Distance
lowing electrically driven crystal are used

Distance
for measuring time. (C) (D)
(A) calcite crystal
(B) quadric crystal Time Time
(C) chrome crystal
(D) quartz crystal 21. Study the given figure.

15. MCB stands for

(A) Multi Circuit Breaker
(B) Magnetic Circuit Breaker
(C) Miniature Circuit Breaker
(D) Magnetic Current Binder.

16. Newton’s disc is associated with

(A) diffraction (B) dispersion
(C) interference (D) refraction
A coil is wound around a core ‘P’.When
17. o
86 F is equivalent to the switch is closed,nails are atteracted
(A) 25oC (B) 30oC to P as shown in figure. On opening the
switch, all the nails get detached. Which
(C) 35oC (D) 40oC.
material could ‘P’ be?
18. Simple Harmonic Motion is an example (A) Steel (B) Plastic
of (C) Soft iron (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Periodic oscillatory
22. A man walks 3m North, then tuns right
(B) Non-Periodic Oscillatory
and move 4m. Find the shortest distance
(C) Periodic Non-oscillatory
between the inital & final position
(D) Non-Periodic Non-oscillatory.
(A) 3.5 m (B) 4.5 m
19. Which of the following can form a real (C) 5 m (D) 7 m.
and inverted image when objects are
placed in front of them? 23. At what temp, both celsius and farenheit
scale gives same reading.
(A) -20oC (B) 20oC
o
and and (C) -30 C (D) -40oC
(A) (B)
24. In a band of seven colours i.e., the com-
ponent of white light, the colour that ap-
pears between orange and green is
(C)
and (D)
and
(A) Yellow (B) Red
(C) Indigo (D) Blue.
Page No # 2
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

28. The letter that show lateral inversion-

25. Speed of sound in air at 00C is.
(A) Z (B) M
(A) 390 m/s (B) 360 m/s
(C) O (D) W
(C) 330 m/s (D) 300 m/s
29. A ray of light is incident on a plane
26. In a plane mirror, an object is 0.5 m in mirror at an angle of incidence of 30°.
front of the mirror. The distance The deviation produced by the mirror
between object and image is - is-
(A) 0.5 m (B) 1 m (A) 30° (B) 60°
(C) 0.25 m (D) 0.75 m (C) 90° (D) 120°
30. Two plane mirrors are inclined to one
27. An object 0.5 m tall is in front of a another at an angle of 40°. A point object
plane mirror at a distance of 0.2 m. is placed in between them. The
The size of the image formed is- number of images formed due to
(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.5 m reflection at both mirrors is-
(C) 0.1 m (D) 1 m (A) Infinite (B) 9
(C) 8 (D) 6

CHEMISTRY
1. A base reacts with an acid to forms salt 6. Galvanization is a process use to pre-
and water. What is this reaction called? vent the rusting of which of the following
(A) Oxidation reaction. (A) Iron (B) Zinc
(B) Neutralisation reaction (C) Aluminium (D) Copper
(C) Reduction reaction.
7. The silkworm is :
(D) Ionisation reaction.
(A) a caterpillar
2. The cut off ‘wool coat’ of a sheep (B) a larva
alongwith a thin layer of skin is called : (C) a caterpillar as well as larva
(A) grease (B) fleece (D) neither caterpillar nor larva
(C) fleet (D) skeet
8. Which of the following statements are
3. From where is the natural indicator lit- true of wind speed on a Beaufort scale?
mus extracted? (i) Wind at a speed of 4 km/h is called
(A) Mycorrhizu (B) Lichens breeze.
(C) Mucor (D) Mycelia (ii) Wind at a speed of 8 km/h is called a
strong wind.
4. A base reacts with an acid to forms salt (iii) Wind at a speed of 9 km/h and above
and water. What is this reaction called? is called storm.
(A) Oxidation reaction. (A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(B) Neutralisation reaction (C) Only (i) and (iii) (D) Only (iii)
(C) Reduction reaction.
9. The wool of sheep is removed only once
(D) Ionisation reaction.
a year before the beginning of :
5. Which of the following statements are (A) spring season
true of wind speed on a Beaufort scale? (B) summer season
(i) Wind at a speed of 4 km/h is called (C) winter season
breeze. (D) rainy season
(ii) Wind at a speed of 8 km/h is called a 10. Which of the following fibres are made
strong wind. of proteins ?
(iii) Wind at a speed of 9 km/h and above (A) silk and cotton
is called storm. (B) natural silk and artificial silk
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii) (C) rayon and wool
(C) Only (i) and (iii) (D) Only (iii) (D) wool and silk
Page No # 3
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

11. One of the following is not an organic acid. 19. Which of the following elements is a
This is : metalloid?
(A) acetic acid (B) formic acid (A) Sodium (B) Sulphur
(C) citric acid (D) carbonic acid (C) Silicon (D) Silver

12. The rusting of iron can be prevented by 20. The least reactive metal among the fol-
coating it with a layer of : lowing is :
a. Zinc b. Sodium (A) Magnesium (B) Lead
c. Chromium d. Carbon (C) Silver (D) Sodium
(A) a and b (B) b and c
(C) a and c (D) b and d 21. Which of the following reacts with cold
water vigorously?
13. The gas we use in the kitchen is called (A) Carbon (B) Sodium
liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). In the cyl- (C) Magnesium (D) Sulphur
inder it exists as liquid. When it comes
out from the cylinder, it becomes a gas 22. Metals generally react with dilute acids
(change - A), then it burns (change - B). to produce hydrogen gas. Which one of
the following statements partain to these the following metals does not react with
changes. Choose the correct one. dilute hydrochloric acid?
(A) Process A is a chemical change. (A) Magnesium (B) Aluminium
(B) Process B is a physical change. (C) Iron (D) Copper
(C) Process A is a physical change but
23. Which one of the following is used for
B is a chemical change.
making pencil lead ?
(D) Process A is a chemical change but
B is a physical change. (A) Graphite (B) Diamond
(C) Sulphur (D) None
14. Anaerobic bacteria digest animal waste
and produce biogas (change A). The 24. The metal that melts even when kept on
biogas is then burnt as fuel (change B). the palm is
The following statements partain to these (A) Cobalt (B) Gallium
changes. Choose the correct one : (C) Nickel (D) Mercury
(A) A is a chemical change whereas B is
a physical change. 25. Which of the following metal cannot dis-
(B) B is a chemical change whereas A is placed hydrogen ?
a physical change. (A) Copper (B) Silver
(C) Both A and B are physical changes. (C) Gold (D) All of these
(D) Both a and B are chemical changes.
26. A basic oxide will be formed by the ele-
15. Sulphur element is said to be : ment:
(A) Ductile (B) Hard (A) sulphur (B) phosphorus
(C) Malleable (D) Brittle (C) potassium (D) carbon

16. The non-metal which exists in the liquid 27. Metals are generally hard. Which of the
state at room temperature is : following metals is an exception and can
(A) Fluorine (B) Chlorine be cut with a knife?
(C) Bromine (D) Iodine (A) Iron (B) Sodium
(C) Gold (D) Magnesium
17. The element which is stored under kero-
sene is: 28. The element Z burns in air to form an
(A) Sulphur (B) Phosphorus oxide. The aqueous solution of this ox-
(C) Sodium (D) Silicon ide turns blue litmus to red. The element
Z is most likely to be.
18. Which of the following metal exists in the
liquid state at room temperature? (A) carbon (B) calcium
(A) Magnesium (B) Magnanese (C) iron (D) magnesium
(C) Mercury (D) Sodium
Page No # 4
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

29. Which of the following elements will pro- 30. The substance that will be flattened on
duce an oxide that will dissolve in water beating with a hammer is
to form an acid? (A) Crystal of iodine
(A) carbon (B) calcium (B) Lump of sulphur
(C) chromium (D) copper (C) Piece of coal
(D) Zinc granule

BIOLOGY
1. The mineral needed by plants to make 6. In a cactus plant, food is made by :
proteins is : a. Branches b. Roots
(A) neon (B) iodine c. Leaves d. Stem
(C) nitrogen (D) calcium (A) a and b (B) b and c
(C) only c (D) a and d
2. Gaseous exchange and photosynthesic
7. Frogs have the ability to live both on land
take place in the leaves of plants. The
and in water. Which of the following ad-
table shown how the gases P, Q, R and
aptations enable them to do so?
S are involved in the two processes.
(i) They can trap air bubbles in their
Process Gas taken in Gas given out throat.
Respiration P Q (ii) They have webbed feet that help them
Photosynthesis R S to swim and leap on land.
Which of the following correctly identifies (iii) They have lungs to help them breathe
P, Q, R and S? when they are on land.
(iv) Their skin when kept moist, can take
in the oxygen dissolved in the water.
P Q R S
(A) Only (and (ii)
Water Oxygen Carbon Carbon
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
vapour dioxide dioxide
Carbon Oxygen Oxygen Water (C) Only (i) and (iii)
dioxide vapour (D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Oxygen Carbon Hydrogen Hydrogen
8. Which of the following are saprophytes?
dioxide
Oxygen Carbon Carbon Oxygen a. Mango b. Mushroom
c. yeast d. Yak
dioxide dioxide
(A) a and b (B) b and c
3. Which of the following processes in- (C) c and d (D) a and d
volves oxidation of food within a living
body for the release of energy? 9. Which of the following show symbiosis?
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Respiration a. Alga and fungus
(C) Reproduction (D) Excertion b. alga and fish
c. Rhizobium and pea plant
d Rhizobium and money plant
4. Mature ovary forms the :
(A) a and b (B) b and c
(A) seed (B) stamen
(C) a and c (D) c and d
(C) pistil (D) fruit
10. Which of the following is not required for
5. Water from the undigested food is ab- photosynthesis by the green leaves of a
sorbed mainly in the plant?
(A) stomach (B) foodpipe (A) carbon dioxide (B) oxygen
(C) small intestine (D) large intestine (C) sunlight (D) water

Page No # 5
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

11. Mucus, hydroachloric acid and digestive 20. Which of the following helps in the up-
juices are secreted by the inner lining of: ward movement of water and dissolved
(A) pancreas (B) stomach minerals from the roots to the leaves
(C) small intestine (D) salivary glands through the stem ?
(A) transportation (B) translocation
12. The site of complete digestion and ab- (C) tropic movement (D) transpiration
sorption of food in the human digestive
system is: 21. Which of the following is the correct se-
quence of events in the sexual reproduc-
(A) stomach (B) small intestine
tion of a plant from the flowers ?
(C) large intestine (D) rectum
(A) pollination, seed, fertilisation, germi-
13. In human beings, the 16 teeth of each nation
jaw consist of : (B) pollination, fertilisation, seed, germi-
(A) 2 incisors, 4 canines, 4 premolars and nation
6 molars (C) pollination, seed, germination,
(B) 4 incisors, 2 canines, 6 premolars fertilisation
and 4 molars (D) pollination, fertilisation, germination,
(C) 4 incisors, 2 canines, 4 premolars seed
and 6 molars
22. Which of the following statements is not
(D) 2 incisors, 4 canines, 6 premolars correct ?
and 4 molars
(A) forests protect the soil from erosion
14. Which of the following is most likely to (B) plants and animals in a forest are not
have a much higher breathing rate ? dependent on one another
(A) man (B) dog (C) forests influence the climate and
(C) sparrow (D) fish water cycle
(D) soil helps forests to grow and regen-
15. Which of the following reproduces by the erate
method of fragmentation ?
23. largest cell is -
(A) potato (B) bryophyllum
(C) spirogyra (D) almonds (A) Nerve cell (B) Ostrich egg
(C) Muscle cell (D) Bacteria
16. The seeds/fruits of which of the follow-
24. .............. Have Irregular shape
ing plant are not dispersed by wind ?
(A) RBC (B) WBC
(A) drumstick (B) grass
(C) Amoeba (D) Both B&C
(C) coconut (D) cotton
25. Who discovered living cell?
17. One of the following is not produced by
(A) Schwann (B) Robert brown
the action of decomposers on the dead
(C) Robert hooke (D) Leeuwenhoek
parts of plants and dead bodies of ani-
mals. This one is :
26. 1  m is equal to -
(A) carbon dioxide (B) oxygen
(A) 106 m (B) 10-6 m
(C) water (D) nutrients
1
(C) m (D) 6 m
18. Cheek cells do not have _________ 10 6
(A) Cell membrane (B) Golgi apparatus 27. Read the following terms and select the
(C) Nucleus (D) Plastids pair that is related to inheritance of char-
acters.
19. Coagulation of blood in a cut or wound is (A) Cell wall and cell membrane
brough about by : (B) Chromosome and mitochondria
(A) plasma (B) platelets (C) Chloroplast and cell membrane
(C) white blood cells (D) red blood cells
(D) Chromosome and genes

Page No # 6
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

28. Which of the following feature will help 30. The table given below has certain terms
you in distinguishing a plant cell from an and four blank spaces named A, B, C and
animal cell? D
(A) Cell wall (B) Mitochondria Cell Feature/Part Function
(C) Cell membrane (D) Nucleus Amoeba A Movement
Plant Cell Plastid B
C Spindle shaped Contraction
29. Identify the statement which is true for Nerve Cell D Stimuli and response
cells
From the options given below choose the
(A) Cells can be easily seen with naked correct combination of terms -
eyes. (A) A - Pseudopodia; B-Respirations; C-
(B) Insect's eggs is not a cell. Muscle Cell; D-Branched
(B) A-Pseudopodia; B-Photosynthesis;
(C) A single cell can perform all the func- C-Muscle Cell; D-Branched
tions in a unicellular organism. (C) A-Contractile vacuole; B-Photosyn-
(D) The size and shape of cells is uni- thesis; C-Blood Cell; D-Spindle shaped
form in multicellular organisms. (D) A-Pseudopodia; B-Photosynthesis;
C-Cheek cell; D-Spindle shaped

MATHEMATICS
5. A wire is bent into the shape as shown. It
1. The hour hand of a clock is 4.5 cm long. is made up of 5 semi-circles. What is
What distance on the clock does its tip the length of the wire? (Take  = 3.14)
cover in 12 hours?
(A) 56.56 cm (B) 33.6 cm 3 cm 6 cm 3 cm E 3 cm F3 cm
(C) 28.28 cm (D) 20 cm A
B C D

2. In the given figure, a square of area 50

sq. units is inscribed in a circle with cen- (A) 27 cm (B) 42.39 cm
tre O. (C) 45 cm (D) 27.92 cm
B C 6. The number of integers between  8
and 32 is :
O (A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
A D 7. If an angle of a regular polygon is 165o,
Which of the following is the circumfer- then the number of sides of the polygon
ence of the circle? is
(A) 100  units (B) 25  units (A) 30 (B) 24
(C) 50  units (D) 10  units (C) 18 (D) 15
8. The figures in the rectangle are 8 identi-
2 1 1
3. If x   7, then the vaue of x 3  cal quadrants. What is the area of the
x2 x3
shaded part? (Take   3.14 )
is
(A) 9 (B) 18
(C) 27 (D) 14
4. 10 men and 15 women finish a work in 6 6 cm
days. One man alone finishes that work
in 100 days. In how many days will a
12 cm
women finish the work?
(A) 125 days (B) 150 days (A) 22.52cm2 (B) 15.48 cm2
(C) 90 days (D) 225 days (C) 56.52 cm2 (D) 28.36 cm2
Page No # 7
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

2 4 1
9. If HCF (p,q) = 12 and then p x q = 1800n 16. Descending order of , , and
3 5 2
then LCM (p,q) is :
3
(A) 3600 (B) 900 is
4
(C) 150 (D) 90
4 1 3 2 4 3 1 2
(A) , , , (B) , , ,
5 2 4 3 5 4 2 3
10. If 24-carat gold is 100% pure gold, then
1 4 3 2 3 4 1 2
what percentage of pure gold isin 22-carat (C) , , , (D) , , ,
2 5 4 3 4 5 2 3
gold?
17. Which of the rational number between
2 2
(A) 61 % (B) 71 % 11 12
3 3 and
30 30
2 2
(C) 81 % (D) 91 % 1 16 19 17
3 3 (A) (B) (C) (D)
20 50 50 50
11. The sum of additive inverse and
18. W hat must be added to

multiplicative inverse of
3 1  x  x 2
 2x 3
 to obtain x3 ?
5
(A) x 3  x 2  x  1 (B)  1  x  x 2  3x 3
15 16
(A) (B) (C) 3 x 3  x 2  x  1 (D) None
16 15
p
16 34 19. If 2.5252525 .... 
(in the lowest form)
(C) (D) q
15 15 q
then what is the value of ?
7 p
12. Which is the decimal form of (A) 0.4 (B) 0.42525
2  52
3
(C) 0.0396 (D) 0.396
(A) 0.070 (B) 0.70
(C) 0.035 (D) 0.35 20. Which of the following is not the
4
2
13. W hich is the equivalent rational reciprocal of   ?
3
5 4 4
number of . 3 2
11 (A)   (B)  
2 2
50 45
(A) (B) 3
4
34
1100 55
(C)   (D)
2 22
55 10
(C) (D)  1
4 3 x
121  22 x 2
 0.0625 
x
21. Find x, if 8  
1 2
 1  (A) 0 (B) 4
14. Reciprocal of  m
 is
a  (C) 2 (D) 1
1 22. If 2 x 4  2 x  2  3 , then x is equal to
(A) a m (B) m
a (A) 0 (B) 2
(C) –1 (D) –2
1
(C) (D) a m
am 23. 1  21  2  1 1 equals
438 1 1
15. Standard form of is (A) (B) 
365 3 3
4 5 1
(A) (B) (C) –1 (D)
5 6 2

2 6 24. The value of 5 5 5.... is

(C) (D)
3 5 (A) 1 (B) 2.5
(C) 5 (D) 25

Page No # 8
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

x/y
x 0. 3  1.06
25. If x  y , then  
y x
is equal to 28. Simplify :
y 0. 5  0. 4
x 31 63
(A) x x / y (B) x y 1 (A) (B)
44 44
y
(C) x y / x (D) x x 1 32 44
(C) (D)
2 1 63 111
26. If 2  1.414 , then the value of 29. The value of x, if 2 x  2 x  2 x  192 is
2 1
is 1
(A) 0.172 (B) 0.414 (A) 5 (B)
6
(C) 0.586 (D) 1.414 (C) 6 (D) None of these
0.13 0.07
243   243  2x 1
27. The value of 30. If 4  , then x is
7   490.075  3430.2
0.25
32
is 5 4
(A) (B)
3 7 4 5
(A) (B)
7 3 3 5
(C) (D) 
3 2 5 4
(C) 1 (D) 2
7 7

SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. The last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate 7. The most important layer of the atmo-
was- sphere where almost all weather phe-
nomena occurs is -
(A) Khalji (B) Sayyids
(A) Troposphere (B) Exosphere
(C) Lodhi (D) Slave
(C) Stratosphere (D) Mesosphere
2. Which among the following is not one of
the nodel centres of British in India ? 8. Which of the following parties were in-
(A) Bombay (B) Calcutta volved in the “Tripartitle Struggle”?
(C) Masulipatnam (D) Madras (A) Cholas, Chahamanas, Rashtrakutas
(B) Gurjara - Paratiharas, Rashtrakutas
3. Archives are places where ________are and Palas
kept (C) The Palas, The pratiharas and the
(A) Manuscripts (B) Animals Rasthrakutas
(C) Coins (D) None of these (D) The Pratiharas, the Polas and
Mauryas
4. The main aim of product advertising is
to 9. Warm ocean currents originate from
(A) Improve the advertiser’s image (A) Tropics (B) Equator
(B) Send out messages to help people (C) Poles (D) Antarctica
(C) Encourage people to buy goods and
services 10. Which of these in an example of a peri-
(D) Give information odic wind ?
(A) Loo (B) Polar Easterlies
5. Brahmanas often received land grants (C) Westerlies (D) Monsoon
called as
(A) Jagir (B) Brahmadeya 11. Convectional rainfall is most common in
(C) Devedana (D) Bigland the
(A) Polar Regions
6. Ox-bow lakes are found in - (B) Equatorial region
(A) glaciers (B) Deserts (C) Subpolar Regions
(C) River Valleys (D) Sea (D) Subtropical Regions
Page No # 9
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

12. The forces of the moon and the sun act 18. The British completed their first census
in the same line giving rise to spring tides survey of India around the
every (A) mid-fifreenth century
(A) Full moon day (B) mid-eighteenth century
(B) New Moon Day (C) early nineteenth century
(C) Full Moon and New Moon Day
(D) late nineteenth century
(D) Spring Seasons
19. Which of these sources can provide in-
13. The Sufis formation about court prouedings from
(A) Believed in many gods the British period in India?
(B) Strictly followed the Islamic Code of (A) Survey
Social Conduct (B) Administrative records
(C) Were tolerant of Other religions (C) Newspapers reports
(D) Promoted brotherhood among men (D) Low books
from all sections of society
20. Which of the following properties of a sub-
14. Sandstone, clay and shale are stance does not make it a resources?
(A) Metamorphic rocks (A) Utility (B) Value
(B) Sedimentary Rocks (C) Quantity (D) Originality
(C) Igneous Rocks
(D) Fossil Fuels 21. Using resources carefully so as to give
them a gap to get renewed is
15. In the following diagram, which parts called........... .
have been wrongly labelled? (A) sustainable development
(B) depletion of resources
(C) renewable resources
(D) conservation of resources

22. ................ were formed from dead re-

mains of animals and plants which have
been buried under the earth for thou-
sands of years.
(A) Renewable resources
(B) Man-made resources
(A) Vent (B) Lava Flow (C) Ubiquitous resources
(C) Crater (D) Magma (D) Fossil fuels

23. We need Constitution because?

16. Match the Column :
(A) It highlights the strnctures of govern-
Column I Column II ment
(i). Rajaraja I a. Kitab-al-Hind (B) It clearly indicates the limits on the
powers of government
(ii) Al-biruni b. Ganga Valley
(C) It guarantees the rights of the people
(iii) Kadamba Mayursharman c. Rajasthan
(iv) Gujara Pratihara Harischandra d. Karnataka (D) All of the above
(A) i - b, ii- a, iii - d, iv - c 24. Which of the following resources is non-
(B) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b renewable but be recycled ?
(C) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a (A) Coal (B) Water
(D) None of these (C) Wood (D) Iron

25. Constitution is
17. Resources which are found in a region (A) the governing council of the state
but have not been utilised. (B) The head of the state
(A) Renewable (B) Developed (C) Collection of rules and regulations
(C) National (D) Potential (D) law making body

Page No # 10
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

26. Which one of the following is non-recy- (C) Set of values that changes from
clable? time to time
(A) Paper (B) Iron (D) Unalterable.
(C) Coal (D) Gold 29. Which of the following is an inexhaust-
27. The constitutional body that makes ible resource?
decision regarding the elections in India (A) forests (B) wildlife
(C) sunlight (D) fossil fuels
is
30. Fallow land refers to -
(A) Supreme Court
(A) Land not under cultivation
(B) UPSC
(B) Land with many gullies
(C) Election Commission
(C) A fertile land
(D) Auditor-General
(D) Cultivable land not cultivated for a
28. Constitutional amendments are the
season to regain its fertility
(A) Static document
(B) Powers of executive

MENTAL ABILITY
Directions : Find the missing term in the given Directions : Each of the following questions
figures consists of five figures marked 1, 2,
3, 4 and 5. These figures form a
101 43 48 34 series. Find out the one from the
answer figures that will continue the
38 ? series.
1.
35 15 56 184 6. Problem Figures

(A) 127 (B) 142

(C) 158 (D) 198
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
2. In a certain code, MONKEY is written as
XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in that Answer Figures
code?
(A) QDFHS (B) SDFHS
(C) SHFDQ (D) UJHFS (A) (B)

3. If rains is called pink, pink is called cloud,

cloud is called water, water is called
breeze, and breeze is called moon, what (C) (D)
do you wash your hands with?
(A) Water (B) Rain
7. 3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ?
(C) Breeze (D) Moon
Find the missing number:
4. Arrange the given words in alphabetical (A) 32 (B) 37
order and tick the one that comes last. (C) 41 (D) 28
(A) plane (B) plain 5 7 2
(C) player (D) place 8 3 6 5 3 5

5. If + is x,– is +, x is  and  is –, then 174 336 ?

8.
what is the value of given equation 21 
3 9 2 9 6 5
8 + 2 – 12 x 3 = ? 2 7 4

(A) 14 (B) 9 (A) 140 (B) 150

(C) 13.5 (D) 11 (C) 200 (D) 180
Page No # 11
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

9. Find out the two signs to be interchanged Direction (17) : In the following question, four
for making following equation correct : figures are given. Three of them are alike
9  5  4  3  6  12 in a certain way and one is different. Find
(A)  and  (B)  and  the odd one from the alternatives.
(C)  and - (D)  and -

Direction : (10) Find the missing numbers: 17. (A) (B)

3 5 5 7 3 5
33 48 ? (C) (D)
10.
6 3 5 4 5 4
18. In a row of trees, one tree is 11th from
(A) 47 (B) 45 either end of the row. How many trees
(C) 37 (D) 35 are there in the row?

11. Find the missing number (A) 22 (B) 23

3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ? (C) 21 (D) None of these
(A) 192 (B) 183
(C) 162 (D) 147 19. Which letter represents the set of
persons who play all the three games?
Direction : (12) Find the missing numbers:
12. 0, 6, 20, 42, 72, ?
Tennis Badminton
(A) 106 (B) 112
(C) 110 (D) 108 a d e

13. In a row of ten boys, when Rohit was c

b f
shifted by two placed towards the left, he
becomes seventh from the left end what g
was his earlier position from the right end Volley ball
of the row ?
(A) First (B) Second (A) b (B) c
(C) Fourth (D) Sixth
(C) f (D) g
14. How many triangles in given figure
20. Find the missing number

256 2
128 4
(A) 7 (B) 8 ? 8
(C) 9 (D) 10
32 16
15. Sushant introduces Raj as the son of the
only brother of his father’s wife. How is
(A) 64 (B) 36
Raj related to Sushant?
(A) Cousin (B) Son (C) 34 (D) 60
(C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law
21. W hich number is opposite 4 in a
16. In the letter series one term is missing standard dice give below?
as shown. Choose the missing term out 1
of the options 5
BF, CH, ......, HO, LT 4
(A) DN (B) TV (A) 1 (B) 3
(C) EK (D) EM (C) 5 (D) Can’t determined
Page No # 12
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

22. Choose the correct mirror image from 26. Find the missing letters :
the given figures. A3P, C5N, E8K, G12G, ?
(A) I15D (B) I17B
(C) I17D (D) J16B

27. Find the missing number(s) :

4 7 6 9 1 7

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

53 87 ?
(A) I (B) II
(A) 49 (B) 50
(C) III (D) IV (C) 48 (D) 55
23. Choose the alternative which is closely
28. In a certain code ‘MONKEY’ is written as
resembles the water-image of the given
combination. XDJMNL, how is ‘TIGER’ written in that
code?
ACOUSTIC
(A) SHFDQ (B) QDFHS
(A) (B)
(C) SDFHS (D) QDHJS
(C) (D)
29. If L denotes x, M denotes  , P denotes +
24. Amit walks 2 km South, turned right and
and Q denotes –, then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6
walked 1 km, again turned North and
M2L3=?
walked 5 km, turned East and walked 5
13 1
km. How far is he from the starting point? (A) (B) 
6 6
(A) 3 km (B) 7 km
1
(C) 5 km (D) 6 km (C) 14 (D) 10
2
30. Find out that answer figure in which the
25. Which figure will come in place of ?
question figure is embedded

(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) I (B) II
(A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) IV
(C) III (D) IV

Page No # 13
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR VIII TO IX MOVING

PHYSICS
1. Which of the following is the action-at- 10. A mass kept on a smooth floor is
distance force ? exerted a 20N force parallel to the
(A) muscular force surface. when a force of 12N acts
(B) frictional force additionally in the same direction, its
(C) magnetic force acceleration is 4 m/s2. Find the mass
(D) mechanical force of body.
(A) 4 kg (B) 6 kg
2. The process in which any electrolyte (C) 8 kg (D) 10 kg
gets decomposed when electricity is
passed through it, is called 11. The pressure at any point in a liquid at
(A) electrolysis (B) decomposition rest depends only on the depth and on
(C) dissociation (D) splitting the ...... of the liquid.
(A) density (B) weight
3. The force exerted by one object on (C) colour (D) none of these
another by virtue of their masses is
(A) magnetic force 12. A positively charged ion is called
(B) electrostatic force (A) atom (B) anion
(C) gravitational force (C) cation (D) neutral ion
(D) frictional force
13. The instrument needed to measure the
4. Sound cannot travel through current flowing through a circuit is ?
(A) air (B) water (A) voltmeter (B) voltameter
(C) iron (D) vacuum (C) galvanometer (D) ammeter

5. The audible range of frequency is 14. A pressure of 10 kPa acts on an area

of 0.3 m2. The force acting on the area
(A) 200-2000 Hz (B) 20-20000 Hz will be:
(C) 20-23000 Hz (D) 220-20000 Hz
(A) 3000 N (B) 30 N
(C) 3 N (D) 300 N
6. The standard unit of force is
(A) metre/second (B) newton 15. Which of the following is the least ?
(C) metre/second 2 (D) gram-weight
(A) Static friction
7. The Celestial objects are: (B) Sliding friction
(A) The stars (B) The planets (C) Rolling friction
(C) The Moon (D) All of the above (D) Limiting friction

8. The day on which the whole disc of 16. In a plane mirror, an object is 0.5 m in
the moon is visible is known as the front of the mirror. The distance
(A) Full moon day (B) Lunar eclipse between object and image is -
(C) Solar eclipse (D) No moon day (A) 0.5 m (B) 1 m
(C) 0.25 m (D) 0.75 m
9. A force applied on a moving body may
17. An object 0.5 m tall is in front of a
(A) bring it to rest
plane mirror at a distance of 0.2 m.
(B) increase its speed The size of the image formed is-
(C) decrease the speed (A) 0.2 m (B) 0.5 m
(D) all of the above (C) 0.1 m (D) 1 m

Page No # 14
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

18. Friction between two flat surface can (A) Infinite (B) 9
be reduced by, (C) 8 (D) 6
(A) Greasing (B) Painting
(C) Using ball bearing (D) All of these 25. The smallest particle of matter is
..........
19. Ball bearings are used to
(A) An electron (B) A proton
(A) Increase friction
(C) A neutron (D) A atom
(B) Decrease friction
(C) Optimize friction
26. The neutron carries a charge of .........
(D) Remain same
(A) 1.66 × 10–19 Coulomb
20. A tightended string of instrument (B) –1.66 × 10 –-19 Coulomb
produces sound of ......... frequency. (C) No charge
(D) None of these
(A) lower (B) higher
(C) same (D) none of these
27. Static electricity ..............
21. A mosquito produces sound by (A) Does not flow
vibrating its... (B) Flows in the circuit
(C) Sometimes flows
(A) wings (B) vocal cords
(D) None of these
(C) legs (D) body
22. The letter that show lateral inversion- 28. The first Indian satellite:
(A) Z (B) M (A) Kalpana-1 (B) Aryabhatta
(C) O (D) W (C) INSAT (D) EDUSAT

23. A ray of light is incident on a plane 29. A spring balance is used for measuring
mirror at an angle of incidence of 30°. (A) weight (B) speed
The deviation produced by the mirror (C) acceleration (D) mass
is-
(A) 30° (B) 60° 30. An object produces a sound of 15 Hz.
(C) 90° (D) 120° Which of the following is correct ?
24. Two plane mirrors are inclined to one (A) this sound can be heard by us
another at an angle of 40°. A point object (B) this sound cannot be heard by us
is placed in between them. The (C) it does not produce sound
number of images formed due to (D) this sound can be heard only
reflection at both mirrors is- through solids

CHEMISTRY
1. An element is soft and can be cut easily 4. Which of the following elements is a
with a knife. It is very reactive and can- metalloid?
not be kept open in the air. It reacts vig- (A) Sodium (B) Sulphur
orously with water. This element is most (C) Silicon (D) Silver
likely to be :
5. Which of the following reacts with cold
(A) Magnesium (B) Potassium
water vigorously?
(C) Phosphorus (D) Aluminium
(A) Carbon (B) Sodium
2. Sulphur element is said to be : (C) Magnesium (D) Sulphur
(A) Ductile (B) Hard
6. Metals generally react with dilute acids
(C) Malleable (D) Brittle
to produce hydrogen gas. Which one of
3. The element which is stored under kero- the following metals does not react with
sene is: dilute hydrochloric acid?
(A) Sulphur (B) Phosphorus (A) Magnesium (B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium (D) Silicon (C) Iron (D) Copper

Page No # 15
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

7. The metal that melts even when kept on 16. Which of the following is a man-made
the palm is fibre prepared from wood-pulp?
(A) Cobalt (B) Gallium (A) Flax (B) Nylon
(C) Nickel (D) Mercury (C) Acrylic (D) Rayon
8. Metals are generally hard. Which of the 17. The non-stick coating on frying pans is
following metals is an exception and can that of a plastic called :
be cut with a knife? (A) Polyvinyl chloride (B) Melamine
(A) Iron (B) Sodium (C) Bakelite (D) Teflon
(C) Gold (D) Magnesium 18. Which one of the following is not a fossil
9. The element Z burns in air to form an fuel?
oxide. The aqueous solution of this ox- (A) Petrol (B) Coke
ide turns blue litmus to red. The element (C) Charcoal (D) Coal
Z is most likely to be.
19. Which of the following substances has
(A) carbon (B) calcium the lowest ignition temperature?
(C) iron (D) magnesium
(A) Kerosene (B) Spirit
10. Which of the following elements will pro- (C) Diesel (D) Mustard Oil
duce an oxide that will dissolve in water
20. On a cold winter night, a persons sleep-
to form an acid?
ing in a room with closed door and win-
(A) carbon (B) calcium dows with a coal fire burning inside may
(C) chromium (D) copper die due to the excessive accumulation
11. What is the chemical formula of copper of :
sulphate? (A) Nitrogen monoxide
(A) CuSO4 (B) CuCO3 (B) Nitrogen Dioxide
(C) CuCl2 (D) CuO
(C) Carbon Dioxide
12. Which one of the following gas burns with
the “pop” sound? (D) Carbon monoxide
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen 21. Which of the following fuels has the low-
(C) Chlorine (D) Hydrogen sulphide est calorific value?
13. Rayon is different from truly synthetic fi- (A) Kerosene (B) CNG
bres because : (C) Biogas (D) LPG
(A) It has a silk-like appearance. 22. Petroleum is mainly a mixture of which
(B) It is obtained from wood pulp. one of the following class?
(C) Its fibres can be woven like those of (A) Carbohydrates (B) Carbogens
natural fibres. (C) Hydrocarbons (D) Alcohols
(D) It can be dyed in wide variety of 23. Which one of the following is a petro-
colours. chemical?
14. The synthetic polymer which can be used (A) Ammonia (B) Coke
as a substitute for wool for making sweat-
ers and shawls, etc., is : (C) Acetone (D) Paraffin wax
(A) Nylon (B) Polyester 24. Full form of LPG
(C) Terylene (D) Acrylic (A) Light Petroleum Gas
15. Which of the following is not a synthetic (B) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
fibre?
(C) Long Pipe of Gas
(A) Nylon (B) Flax
(C) Acrylic (D) Polyester (D) Long Petroleum Gas

Page No # 16
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

25. Products obtained by the process of de- (C) Tidal energy

structive distillation are (D) Mechanical energy
(A) Coke, coal-tar, coal gas 28. Which gas helps in the process of com-
(B) Petrol, diesel, kerosene bustion?
(C) Paraffin wax, bitumen (A) Cooking gas (B) Nitrogen gas
(D) Compressed natural gas (C) Oxygen gas (D) Producer gas
26. Main constituent of LPG is 29. Which zone represents the partial com-
bustion in candle flame?
(A) Methane (B) Butane
(A) Outer zone (B) Middle zone
(C) Ethane (D) Propane (C) Inner zone (D) Lower zone
27. Which is non-renewable source of en- 30. Out of these, which is able to control
ergy’? fires?
(A) Natural gas (A) NH3 (B) H2
(C) CO2 (D) F2
(B) Wind energy

BIOLOGY
1. Who discovered the cell ? (C) Chromosomes are located in the
(A) Robert hooke (1665) nucleolus
(B) Robert brown (1665) (D) Cell membrane surrounds the
(C) Leeuwenhoek (1674) nucleus.
(D) Purkinje. 8. The most important function of cell mem-
brane is that it :
2. largest cell is -
(A) Controls the entry and exit of materi-
(A) Nerve cell (B) Ostrich egg als from cells.
(C) Muscle cell (D) Bacteria
(B) Controls only the entry of materials
3. .............. Have Irregular shape into cells.
(A) RBC (B) WBC (C) Controls only the exit of materials
(C) Amoeba (D) Both B&C from cells
4. Chloroplast is absent in - (D) Allows entry and exit of materials with-
out any control.
(A) Lotus leaf (B) Rose leaf
(C) Dog (D) Euglena 9. Which of the following feature will help
you in distinguishing a plant cell from an
5. Size of smallest cell (Bacteria) is ?
animal cell?
(A) 0.1 - 0.5  m (B) 10 - 15  m
(A) Cell wall (B) Mitochondria
(C) 1 - 10  m (D) 1 - 5  m
(C) Cell membrane (D) Nucleus
6. Read the following terms and select the
pair that is related to inheritance of char- 10. Which of the following is not a kharif
acters. crop?
(A) Cell wall and cell membrane (A) Paddy (B) Mustard
(C) Maize (D) Groundnut
(B) Chromosome and mitochondria
11. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(C) Chloroplast and cell membrane
(A) Soyabean (B) Peas
(D) Chromosome and genes
(C) Wheat (D) Linseed
7. Choose the correct statement :
12. The process of removing unwanted
(A) Genes are located in the chromo- plants from a crop field is called :
somes
(A) Breeding (B) Weeding
(B) Cell is located in the nucleus (C) Transplanting (D) Harvesting

Page No # 17
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

13. Weeds are the: 21. Which one of the following statements
(A) main crop plants is correct?
(B) insects and pests (A) Legumes fix nitrogen through
specialised bacteria that lives on their
(C) unwanted plants growing along the
leaves.
crop
(B) Legumes are incapable of fixing ni-
(D) chemical substances
trogen
14. In Agriculture, broadcasting is used for
(C) Legumes fix nitrogen only through
(A) Ploughing the Fields specialised bacteria that lives in their
(B) Rotation the crops roots
(C) Removing the weeds (D) Legumes fix nitrogen independently
of the specialised bacteria that live in
(D) Sowing the seed their roots
15. The best-technique of watering the fruit 22. The bread dough rises because of :
plant and trees is
(A) Heat (B) Grinding
(A) Chain pump system
(C) Growth of yeast cells (D) Kneading
(B) Sprinkler system
23. The most common carrier of communi-
(C) Moat cable diseases is :
(D) Drip system (A) Ant (B) Housefly
16. One of the following is a disease of poul- (C) Dragonfly (D) Spider
try : 24. The part of earth in which living organ-
(A) Anthrax isms exist (or which supports life) is
(B) Pebrine disease called :
(A) Lithosphere (B) Globe
(C) Ranikhet disease
(C) Hydrosphere (D) Biosphere
(D) Foot and mouth disease
25. Deforestation increases the level of one
17. Viruses are -
of the following in the atmosphere. This
(A) Living organisms one is :
(B) Non-living organisms (A) Ozone (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) In between living and non-living or- (C) Oxygen (D) Water vapour
ganisms 26. The sex of a child is determined by :
(D) None of the above (A) The presence of an X chromosome
in egg (or ovum).
18. Which of the following grows on wet
bread? (B) The presence of a Y chromosome in
sperm.
(A) Yeast (B) Mould
(C) The age of father and mother.
(C) Both A and B (D) None
(D) The length of the mother’s preg-
19. Yeast helps in the production of - nancy.
(A) Oxygen (B) Glucose 27. Adolescents should be careful about
(C) Alcohol (D) Salts what they eat because :
20. Bacteriophage virus - (A) Proper diet develops their brains.

(A) Parasitize man (B) Proper diet is needed for the rapid
growth taking place in their body
(B) Parasitize bacteria
(C) Adolescents feel hungry all the time.
(C) Parasitize cattles
(D) Taste buds are well developed in teen-
(D) Parasitize dogs agers.
Page No # 18
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

29. Which of the following is not a way to con-

28. Which of the following human disease
serve water?
can be prevented by the same hormone
which brings about metamorphosis in (A) Replace (B) Reduce
frogs? (C) Reuse (D) Recycle

(A) Diabetes (B) Anaemia 30. The phenomenon of marble cancer is

due to
(C) Goitre (D) Rickets
(A) Soot particles (B) CFCs
(C) Fog (D) Acid rain

MATHEMATICS
1 The sum of additive inverse and 8. The square root of (7+ 3 5 )(7- 3 5 ) is-
3
multiplicative inverse of (A) 5 (B) 2
5
(C) 4 (D) 3 5
15 16
(A) (B) 9. Find the value of 3
16 15 441  16  4
16 34 (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
(C) (D)
15 15
10. If x + y + z = 9 & xy + yz + zx = 23,
2. The value of 256 0.16  256 0.09 is then the value of (x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz)
is -
(A) 64 (B) 256.25
(C) 16 (D) 4 (A) 108 (B) 207
(C) 669 (D) 729
3. If x  0.7 , then 2x is
(A) 1.4 (B) 1. 5 11. If (x5 – 9x2 + 12x – 14) is divided by (x
– 3), the remainder is -
(C) 1.54 (D) 1.45
rx  s px  q
(A) 184 (B) 56 (C) 2 (D) 1
p  q
4. If      , then the value of x 12. The value of expression (16x2 + 24x
 q p
+ 9) for
is
3
x = – is -
qs 4
(A) 1 (B) (A) 2 (B) 1
pr
(C) 0 (D) –1
qr qr
(C) (D) 13. What is the sum of the squares of the
qs ps
following numbers?
5. If 2 x 4  2 x 2  3 , then x is equal to 3 3 2
, ,
(A) 0 (B) 2 2 1 2 1 3
(C) –1 (D) –2 2
(A) 16 (B) 16
3
3 12n   9 2n7 
6. The value of is 2
3 5n (C) 18 (D) 18
3
1 9 14. The ages of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 7.
(A) (B)
3 13 Four years from now the ratio of their
ages will be 3 : 4. The present age of B
1 2
(C) (D) is
9 3
(A) 20 years (B) 28 years
7. If 18225 =135, then the value of (C) 15 years (D) 21 years
( 182.25  1.8225  0.018225  0.00018225 is
15. 12x2 + 60 x + 75 = ?
(A) 1.499985 (B) 14.9985 (A) (2x + 5) (6x + 5) (B) (3x + 5)2
(C) 149.985 (D) 1499.85 (C) 3(2x + 5)2 (D) None of these
Page No # 19
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

16. pq2 + q(p – 1) – 1 = ? 25. In the figure. BEST is a rhombus, Then

(A) (pq + 1) (q – 1) (B) p(q + 1) (q – 1) the value of y – x is
(C) q(p – 1) (q + 1) (D) (pq – 1) (q + 1)
17. 1 – 2ab – (a2 + b2) = ?
(A) (1 + a – b) (1 + a + b)
(B) (1 + a + b) (1 – a + b)
(C) (1 + a + b) (1 – a – b)
(D) (1 + a – b) (1 – a + b)
18. A number is first increased by 10% and
then reduced by 10%. The number (A) 40o (B) 50o
(A) Does not change (C) 20o (D) 10o
(B) Decreases by 1% 26. Which of the following is not true for
(C) Increases by 1% an exterior angle of a regular polygon
with n sides ?
(D) None of these
19. A man sold two chairs for Rs. 500 each. 360 o
(A) Each exterior angle =
On one he gains 20% and on the other n
he loses 12%. His net gain or loss per (B) Exterior angle = 180o – interior angle
cent is
360 o
(A) 1.5% gain (B) 2% gain (C) n 
exterior angle
(C) 1.5% loss (D) 2% loss
20. A sells a box to B at a profit of 15%, B (D) Each exterior angle =
n  2x180 o
sells the same to C for Rs. 1012 and n
makes a profit of 10%. A’s cost price is 27. The sum of the interior angles of a poly-
(A) Rs. 720 (B) Rs. 680 gon is six times the sum of its exterior
(C) Rs. 880 (D) Rs. 800 angles. Then the number of the sides of
the polygon are
21. 45% of 1500 + 35% of 1700 = ?% of
3175 (A) 16 (B) 12
(A) 30 (B) 35 (C) 14 (D) 10
(C) 45 (D) None of these 28. If the ratio of areas of two circles is 4
22. A reduction of 20% in the price of : 9, then the ratio of their
oranges enables a man to buy 5 circumferences will be:
oranges more for Rs. 10 The price per (A) 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2
orange before reduction was : (C) 4 : 9 (D) 9 : 4
(A) 20 paise (B) 40 paise 29. A powder tin has a square base with
(C) 50 paise (D) 60 paise side 8 cm and height 14 cm another
23. The difference between compound tin has circular base of with diameter
interest and simple interest on a sum 8 cm and height 14 cm. The difference
for 2 years at 8% p.a. is Rs. 768. The in their capacities is:
sum is (A) 0 (B) 132 cm3
(A) Rs. 100000 (B) Rs. 110000 (C) 137.1 cm3 (D) 192 cm3
(C) Rs. 120000 (D) Rs. 170000 30. The ratio of total surface area to lateral
24. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 8 : 9, then surface area of a cylinder whose
A : C is: radius is 20cm and height 60cm, is:
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 (A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 2
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 3 (D) 5 : 3
Page No # 20
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. Jemes mill divided the Indian History 8. The British Victory at ______ lad Shah
into........... periods ? Alam II to grant the Diwani of Bengal,
(A) Four (B) Three Bihar and Odisha to the EIC.
(C) Two (D) Five (A) Buxar (B) Plassey
2. Name the type of activity that includes all (C) Seringapalam (D) Pavipat
those connected with extraction and pro- 9. Secularism means
duction of natural resources :
(A) Separation of politics from religion
(A) Primary (B) Tertiary
(B) Non - equality in religious affairs
(C) Secondary (D) Livelihood
(C) Government force same one to do
3. Minerals are examples of as per the wish of a particular reli-
(A) non-renewable resources gion
(B) abiotic resources (D) Following religion of government’s
(C) potential resources choice
(D) Both (A) and (B) 10. Secularism means
4. Constitution is (A) Separation of politics from religion
(A) the governing council of the state (B) Non - equality in religious affairs
(B) The head of the state (C) Government force same one to do
as per the wish of a particular reli-
(C) Collection of rules and regulations
gion
(D) law making body
(D) Following religion of government’s
5. In a monarchical constitution, the laws choice
that are formulated are
11. Permanent Settlement was introduced
(A) Arbitrary in nature by -
(B) Democratic in nature (A) Warren Hastings
(C) Customary in nature (B) Lord Cornwallis
(D) Moral in nature (C) Lord Wellesley
6. Arrange the following companies in the (D) Narendra Modi
order in which they established their trad-
12. The bill is required to pass through the
ing centres in India, Starting from the first.
__________ in order to become a law
(a) The Portuguese (b) The French
(A) The constituent assembly
(c) The British (d) The Dutch
(B) Both Lok sabha and Rajya sabha
(A) a,d,c,b (B) a,b,c,d
(C) Rajya Sabha
(C) a,c,b,d (D) a,d,b,c
(D) Lok Sabha
7. Shelter belts help in
13. Which fundamental right protects all
(A) preventing leaching and wearing away other fundamental rights?
of the top soil
(A) Right to equality
(B) restricting the speed of the wird these
(B) Right to constitutional remedies
checking the soil erosion
(C) Right to freedom
(C) Soil wash on slopes
(D) None of the above
(D) None of these
Page No # 21
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

14. Contour ploughing and terrace cultivation 21. A sentence given by an Indian court can
is common along. be reduced by the
(A) Prime minister
(A) River valleys (B) Steep slopes
(B) Vice-president
(C) Deltas (D) Plains
(C) President
15. It is not a characteristic of commercial
farming (D) Central council of ministers

(A) Transport and communication is im- 22. Granitic rocks usually produce
portant (A) Coarse soils (B) Fine soils
(B) Yield per hectare is low (C) Black soils (D) None of these
(C) Plots of land are fragmented 23. Which of the following is not a method of
(D) The pressure of population on land checking soil erosion?
is high
(A) Afforestation
16. The practice of growing two or more (B) Terracing
crops simultaneously on the same piece
of land is called. (C) Salinisation

(A) Subsistence agriculture (D) Contour ploughing

(B) Commercial agriculture 24. Which of the following is not a type of

millet?
(C) Pastoral farming
(A) Jowar (B) Bajra
(D) Mixed croping
(C) Ragi (D) Mustard
17. Proposal for a law is called -
25. The British prohibited shifting cultivation
(A) Bill (B) An act in reserved forests because they
(C) Ordinance (D) Constitution (A) Wanted to prevent the cutting of trees
18. Which of the following types of historical (B) Wanted to save wildlife
source material is official? (C) Wanted the shifting cultivators to
(A) Survey reports settle elsewhere
(B) Personal letters (D) Wanted to use the trees as sources
of timber
(C) Newspaper reports
26. Which of the following is illegal in India?
(D) Folk songs
(A) Not following any religion
19. Which of the following were called dikus
(B) Changing one’s religion
by the Mundas?
(C) Following any religion
(A) Tribal gods
(D) None of these
(B) Moneylenders, officials, traders,
27. In which year the calico act was passed?
middlemen and missionaries
(A) 1721 (B) 1723
(C) Clearers of forests
(C) 1725 (D) 1735
(D) Munda territory
28. Digboi in Assam is noted for it
20. A country is a ___________ if it has an
(A) Coalfields
elected head of state.
(B) Goldmines
(A) Republic (B) Sovereign
(C) Secular (D) Democratic (C) Oil fields
(D) Diamond mines

Page No # 22
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

29. Which one of the following best de- (D) A senior British Government admin-
scribes a Resident with respect to Brit- istrative officials positioned in a local
ish India place and controlling the happenings of
(A) A local money lender collecting rev- the kingdom.
enue 30. In the late 18th century. Calcutta,
(B) A local landlord to keep a check on Bombay and __________ rose in impor-
the land revenue. tance as presidency cities and were the
centres of British power :
(C) An official which administers oath to
the soldiers. (A) Madras (B) Nagpur
(C) Hyderabad (D) Kanpur

MENTAL ABILITY
1. Sushant introduces Raj as the son of the 7. Find out the missing number which will
only brother of his father’s wife. How is come in place of .............. from amongst
Raj related to Sushant? the four alternatives.
(A) Cousin (B) Son 5, 9, 15, 23, 33, 45, .............
(C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law (A) 55 (B) 57
2. Showing the man receiving a trophy in a (C) 59 (D) 61
prize distribution. Ramesh said, “He is 8. Find out the missing letters which will
the brother of my uncle’s daughter”. Who come in place of .............. from amongst
is the man to Ramesh? the four alternatives.
(A) Son (B) Cousin ........ a b ........ a b ........ a ........ p a b
(C) Nephew (D) Uncle (A) a a b p (B) a p a p
3. In a certain code ‘ROAD’ is written as (C) p p p b (D) b b a a
‘URDG’. How is ‘SWAN’ written in that
9. In a row of trees, one tree is 11th from
code?
either end of the row. How many trees
(A) VXDQ (B) VZDQ are there in the row?
(C) UXDQ (D) VZCQ (A) 22 (B) 23
4. If ‘air’ is called ‘water’; ‘water’ is called (C) 21 (D) None of these
‘green’; ‘green’ is called ‘dust’; ‘dust’ is
10. Which letter represents the set of
called ‘yellow’ and ‘yellow’ is called ‘cloud’;
persons who play all the three games?
which of the following do the ‘fish’ live in?
Tennis Badminton
(A) Air (B) Water
a d e
(C) Green (D) Dust c
5. If × means +, ÷ means –, – means × and b f
+ means ÷, then 8 × 7 – 8 + 40 ÷ 2 = ? g
Volley ball
2
(A) 1 (B) 7 (A) b (B) c
5
(C) f (D) g
3
(C) 8 (D) 44 11. Find the missing number
5
6. In the letter series one term is missing 256 2
as shown. Choose the missing term out 128 4
of the options ? 8
BF, CH, ......, HO, LT 32 16

(A) DN (B) TV
(A) 64 (B) 36
(C) EK (D) EM (C) 34 (D) 60
Page No # 23
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

12. W hich number is opposite 4 in a 18. Find out that answer figure in which the
standard dice give below? question figure is embedded

1
5
4

(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) Can’t determined
13. A man walks 9 km due East and then 12
km due South. How far is he from the
starting point?
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) 15 km (B) 6 km
(A) I (B) II
(C) 7 km (D) None of these
(C) III (D) IV
14. Find the missing letters 19. Which figure will come in place of ?
ZOA, XMF, ?, TIP, RGU, PEZ
(A) YXX (B) WLL
?
(C) UKK (D) VKK
15. If CRICKETER is codes as
DQJBLDUDS, then PLAYER will coded
as
(A) QMBZFS (B) OMZZDS
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(C) QKBXFQ (D) QKBZDS
(A) I (B) II
16. Choose the correct mirror image from (C) III (D) IV
the given figures. 20. How many triangles in given figure

(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
21. The figure (X) given below is the unfolded
position of a cubical dice. This unfolded
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
figure is followed by four different figures
(A) I (B) II of dice. You have to select the figure
(C) III (D) IV which is identical to the figure (X).
17. Choose the alternative which is closely 1
resembles the water-image of the given
combination. 4 3 6
(x) 2
ACOUSTIC
5
(A)
(B) 2 4
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 3 6
(D)
3 3
(C) 5 (D) 4
2 1

Page No # 24
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

22. Find the missing number(s) : 27. If L denotes x, M denotes  , P denotes +

and Q denotes –, then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6
4 7 6 9 1 7 M2L3=?

13 1
(A) (B) 
6 6
53 87 ?
1
(C) 14 (D) 10
(A) 49 (B) 50 2
(C) 48 (D) 55 28. The numbers follow a series as per some
23. Find the missing number(s) : rule. Find out the missing number which
will come in place of________ from
3 4 5
amongst the four alternatives.
2 23 4 3 39 5 4 ? 6
5, 11, 24, 51, 106, ________
5 6 7
(A) 217 (B) 212
(A) 120 (B) 59
(C) 214 (D) 216
(C) 62 (D) 22
24. Pointing to a lady in the photograph, 29. This question is based on letter series in
Manish said, “She is the daughter of my which some letters are missing. The
grand father’s only son.” missing letters are given in a proper se-
quence as one of the alternatives among
How is Manish related to that lady? the given four alternative.
(A) Father (B) Uncle b ––– a b b c ––– b b c a ––– b c a b b –
(C) Brother (D) Nephew –– a b
25. In a certain code ‘MONKEY’ is written as (A) a c a a (B) a c b a
XDJMNL, how is ‘TIGER’ written in that (C) c a b c (D) c a c c
code?
30. How many triangles in the following fig-
(A) SHFDQ (B) QDFHS ure.
(C) SDFHS (D) QDHJS
26. I went 15 m North and then turned south,
covered 5 m and then turned east and
covered 10 m. In which direction am I
from my house?
(A) East (B) West
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) North (D) None of these (C) 6 (D) 5

Page No # 25
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR IX TO X MOVING

PHYSICS
1. Audible Range to Human ear is 8. Newton's law of gravitation is
(A) 0 Hz – 10 Hz (B) 0 Hz – 10 kHz applicable to–
(C) 0 Hz – 20 Hz (D) 20 Hz – 20 KHz (A) bodies on the earth only
2. What do you mean by Tension force. (B) planets only
(A) force in spring (C) bodies in the solar system only
(B) force in string (D) all bodies of the universe
(C) force due to rolling 9. When a net force acts on an object, the
(D) attractive force object will be accelerated in the direction
of the force with an acceleration propor-
3. A body of mass 2 kg thrown upward with
tional to the:
initial velocity 19.6 m/s. After 2 sec, its
velocity will be (A) velocity of the object
(A) 9.8 m/s. (B) 6 m/s (B) force on the object
(C) 4.8 m/s (D) 0 (C) inertia of the object
4. A body is falling from a height of 10 m. Its (D) mass of the object
acceleration will be
10. A body is released from rest from top of
(A) 10 m/s2 (B) 9.8 m/s2 a tower of height 3H. The ratio of times it
(C) 9 m/s2 (D) 0 m/s2 takes to fall through equal height H is :
5. Earth is revolving around sun due to
(A) Circular force
(A) 1:  
2 1 : 3 2 
(B) Centripetal force (B) 1:  2  1 :  3 2

(C) Frictional force (C) 1 : 1 : 1

(D) Normal reaction force (D) 9 : 4 : 1
6. When a body falls freely from a certain 11. A body is moving with constant accelera-
height
tion from A to B in a straight line. C is the
(A) its acceleration increases.
mid-point of AB. If u and v are the speeds
(B) its velocity increases. at A and B respectively. The speed of C
(C) its weight increases is :
(D) Its temperature increase
uv v u
7. A boy plays a musical note on a piano. (A) (B)
2 2
Next he plays another note of higher pitch
to make it louder. Which of the following u2  v 2 v 2  u2
(C) (D)
is true of the second sound when com- 2 2
pared with the first?
Frequency of Amplitude of 12. If a force is conservative :
second sound second sound (A) Work is path independent
(A) Smaller Smaller (B) Work is path dependent
(B) Smaller Larger (C) Potential energy remains constant
(C) Larger Larger
(D) None of these
(D) Larger Smaller

Page No # 26
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

13. A spring balance A reads 2 kg with a block (C) A planet moves around the sun in an
of mass m suspended from it. Another elliptical orbit with the sun at the focus
balance B reads 3 kg when a beaker with (D) A planet moves around the sun in an
a liquid is put on its pan. The two bal- elliptical orbit with uniform speed.
ances are now so arranged that the hang-
16. A pump can lift water of 150 kg in 15 s, to
ing mass m is fully immersed inside the store it in an overhead tank at a height of
liquid in the beaker as shown in the fig- 15 m. Find the power of the pump. (g =
ure. In this situation. 9.8 m s-2)
(A) 1070 W (B) 1270 W
A (C) 1470 W (D) 1570 W
17. When an object undergoes acceleration:
(A) its speed always increases
(B) its velocity always increases
(C) it always falls towards the Earth
(D) a net non-zero force always acts on
B it
18. Observe the given distance-time graph.
(A) the balance A will read 2 kg and B will
read 5 kg.
(B) the balance A will read 2 kg and B will 4 C
read 3 kg.
(C) the balance A will read less than 2 kg
Distance (in km)

and B will read between 3 kg and 5 kg. A B

(D) the balance A will read less than 2 kg 2 G
and B will read 3 kg.
14. Four blocks are kept in a row on a smooth F
D E
horizontal table with their centres of mass O 1 1.5 2.0
collinear as shown in the figure. An ex- Time (in h)
ternal force of 60 N is applied from left
on the 7 kg block to push all of them along Identify the respective speeds of the body
when it moves from O to A and B to C.
the table. The forces exerted by them
are: (A) 2 km h-1, 4 km h-1
P Q R S (B) 1 km h-1, 3 km h-1
60 N 7 kg 5 kg 2 kg 1 kg (C) 3 km h-1, 4 km h-1
(A) 32 N by P on Q (D) 4 km h-1, 6 km h-1

(B) 28 N by Q on P 19. A horse while running at a constant ve-

(C) 22 N by Q on R locity of 15 ms-1, develop a momentum

of 300 Ns. The mass of horse is :
(D) 14 N by S on R
15. Which of the following statements cor- (A) 18 kg (B) 30 kg
responds to Kepler's laws of planetary (C) 20 kg (D) 25 kg
motion? 20. The momentum 'P' and kinetic energy 'E'
of a body of mass 'm' are related as
(A) A planet moves around the sun in a
circular orbit. 1
(A) P  2mE (B) P  mE
2
(B) A planet moves around the sun in an
elliptical orbit with the sun at the geometri- 2m
(C) P  (D) P = 2mE
cal centre. E
Page No # 27
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

21. A body having a mass 100 gram is al- 27. A string is used to pull a block of mass
lowed to fall freely from a height 1000m
m vertically up by a distance h at a
under the action of gravity. Its kinetic en-
ergy after 10 seconds is (take g = 1000 g
constant acceleration . The work done
cm / sec2) 3
(A) 5 joules (B) 50 joules by the tension in the string is
(B) 500 joules (D) 5000 joules 2 mgh
(A) mgh (B)
22. The weight of a body at the centre of 3 3
the earth is– 4
(C) mgh (D) mgh
(A) zero 3

(B) infinite 28. If 250 J of work is done in sliding a 5 kg

block up an inclined plane of height 4 m.
(C) same as at the other places
Work done against friction is (g = 10 ms–
(D) equal to that at the surface of the 2)
earth
(A) 50 J (B) 100 J
23. The rate of change in momentum of a
body is (C) 200 J (D) Zero
(A) Equal to the force applied on it 29. A man carries a load on his Head through
(B) Proportional to the force applied on it a distance of 5 m. The maximum amount
of work is done when he
(C) In the direction of applied force
(A) Moves it over an inclined plane
(D) All of the above are true
24. An engine develops 10 kW power. How (B) Moves it over a horizontal surface
much time will it take to lift a mass of (C) Lifts it vertically upwards
200 kg to a height of 40m? (take g = 10
m s–2) (D) None of these

(A) 10s (B) 20s 30. Work done by frictional force

(C) 7s (D) 8s (A) Is always negative
25. The relation between g and G is– (B) Is always positive
GM (C) Is zero
GM
(A) g = (B) g = R 2
R (D) May be positive, negative or zero
G
(C) g = GMR2 (D) g =
MR 2
26. A ball is thrown upward from a point P,
reaches to the highest point Q :
(A) Kinetic energy at P is equal to kinetic
energy at Q
(B) Potential energy at P is equal to kinetic
energy at Q
(C) Kinetic energy at P is equal to
potential energy at Q
(D) Potential energy at P is equal to
potential energy at Q

Page No # 28
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

CHEMISTRY
1. Which one of the following statements 7. Which of the following statements does
is not correct about the three states of not go with the liquid state?
matter?
(A) Particles are loosely packed in the
(A) Molecules of a solids posses least liquid state.
energy whereas those of a gas (B) Fluidity is the maximum in the liquid
possess highest energy state.
(B) The density of solid is highest (C) Liquids can be compressed.
whereas that of gases is lowest
(D) Liquids take up the shape of that con-
(C) Gases like liquids possess definite tainer in which these are placed.
volumes 8. When more solute is dissolved in water
(D) Molecules of a solids possess then its boiling point will -
vibratory motion (A) Increase (B) decrease
2. Kinetic energy of molecules is highest (C) remain same (D) can’t say
in –
9. Why excess of salt is added to the ice
(A) Gases (B) Solids accumulated on the street after a
(C) Liquids (D) Solutions heavy snowfall in the cold countries?
3. Diffusion mainly occurs in – (A) To melt the ice
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (B) To decrease the freezing point of
(C) Gas (D) All of these water

4. Which of the following statements is/ (C) Both A & B

are correct? (D) None of these
(A) Intermolecular forces of attraction in 10. What is the value of 0 K on celsius
solids are maximum. scale?
(B) Intermolecular forces of attraction in (A) 0  C (B) 273 .15  C
gases are minimum.
(C) - 2 73 .15  C (D) - 173 .15  C
(C) Intermolecular spaces in solids are
minimum. 11. The substance which can readily
sublime is
(D) All of the above
(A) Ammonium chloride
5. Which of the following is not correct for
gases? (B) Sodium chloride
(A) Gases have definite mass. (C) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Gases have definite shape. (D) chlorine gas
(C) Gases have definite volume. 12. The boiling point of pure water at sea level
(D) Both (B) and (C) is 100C . The boiling point of water at a
6. W hich of the following is/are hill station about 1500 m above will be -
application(s) of high compressibility of
(A)  100C (B)  100C
gases?
(C)  100C (D) can not say
(A) L.P.G. is used as fuel in homes for
cooking food 13. Which one of the following is not a met-
alloid?
(B) Oxygen cylinders are supplied to hos-
pitals. (A) Boron (B) Silicon
(C) C.N.G. is used as fuel in vehicles. (C) Gallium (D) Germanium
(D) All of these
Page No # 29
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

14. The elements which normally exist in the

22. The reference standard taken for
liquid state are :
defining atomic mass unit is –
(A) Bromine and iodine
(A) H (B) C-12
(B) Mercury and chlorine (C) C-13 (D) C-14
(C) Iodine and mercury 23. The element whose gram atomic mass
(D) Bromine and mercury and gram molecular mass is same,
15. Which of the following are homogeneous is–
in nature? (A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen
(i) ice (ii) wood (C) Nitrogen (D) Helium
(iii) soil (iv) air 24. 1 mole of H2O2 has gram molecular
mass equal to –
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iv)
(A) 32 (B) 33
(C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)
(C) 34 (D) 30
16. Which one of the following is most likely
to exhibit Tyndall effect ? 25. Which of the following is a correct
(A) Sugar and water mixture combination?

(B) Potash alum and water mixture (A) Aluminium sulphate : Al2(SO4)3

(C) Chalk powder and water mixture (B) Calcium carbonate : Ca(CO 3)2
(D) Potassium permanganate and wa- (C) Silver sulphide : AgS
ter mixture (D) Barium Carbonate : Ba(CO 3)2
17. Milk of magnesia is : 26. Which of the following represents a
(A) A colloid polyatomic ion ?
(B) A true solution (A) Sulphide (B) Chloride
(C) A homogeneous mixture (C) Sulphate (D) Nitride
(D) A suspension 27. The formula of the sulphate of an element
18. Which of the following can be called a X is X2(SO4)3. The formula of nitride of
suspension? element X will be:
(A) Milk (A) X2N (B) XN2
(B) Milk of magnesia (C) XN (D) X2N3

(C) Salt solution 28. If 32 g of sulphur has x atoms, then the

number of atoms in 32 g of oxygen will
(D) Vinegar be :
19. One of the following represents the so-
x
lution of solid in a solid. This one is : (A) (B) 2x
2
(A) Boron (B) Brass (C) x (D) 4x
(C) Beryllium (D) Bread 29. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering
20. The value of the Avogadro constant is– experiment led to the discovery of :
(A) 6.022 × 1024 (B) 6.022 × 1022 (A) Nucleus (B) Electrons
(C) 60.22 × 1023 (D) 6.022 × 1023 (C) Protons (D) Neutrons
21. The atomic mass of sodium is 23. the 30. Which of the following is the correct elec-
number of moles in 46 g of sodium is– tronic configuration of sodium?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) 2, 8, 1 (B) 8, 2, 1

(C) 2.3 (D) 4.6 (C) 2, 1, 8 (D) 2, 8, 2

Page No # 30
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

BIOLOGY
1. Term ‘Cell’ is come from 12. Find out incorrect sentence
(A) latin word (B) Greek word (A) Parenchymatous tissues have inter-
cellular spaces
(C) Indian word (D) British word
(B) Collenchymatous tissues are irregu-
2. “Omnis cellula e cellula” term Given by-
larly thickened at corners
(A) R. Virchow (1855)
(C) Apical and intercalary meristems are
(B) R. Virchaw (1665) permanent tissues
(C) Purkinje (1855) (D) Meristematic tissues, in its early
(D) Robert Brown (1665) stage, lack vacuoles
3. Which cell have variable shape- 13. Parenchyma cells are
(A) Amoeba (B) WBC (A) Relatively unspecified and thin walled
(B) Lignified
(C) Plant cell (D) Both A & B
(C) Thick- walled and specialised
4. Size of Eukanyotic cell-
(D) None of these
(A) 10 - 100  m (B) 1 - 10  m
14. The dead elements present in the phloem
(C) 0.5  m (D) 1 - 10.5  m
is
5. Robert hooke published a book-
(A) Companion cells (B) Phloem fibres
(A) origin fo species (B) Cellula
(C) Phloem parenchyma
(C) system nature (D) Micrographia (D) Sieve tube cells
6. All types of cell Have - 15. Cell organelle which differentiates plant
(A) chloroplast (B) Plasma membrane cell from animal cell
(C) Cell wall (D) Vacuole. (A) Cell membrane (B) Plastids
7. Plasmolysis occurs due to (C) Nucleolus (D) Vacuoles
(A) absorption (B) endosmosis 16. Girth of stem increases due to
(C) osmosis (D) exosmosis (A) Apical meristem
8. Cell wall of plant cells is chiefly com- (B) Lateral meristem
posed of (C) Intercalary meristem
(A) hemicellulose (B) cellulose (D) Vertical meristem
(C) phospholipids (D) proteins 17. Find out incorrect sentence
9. Aleuroplasts in a cell store (A) Parenchymatous tissues have inter-
cellular spaces
(A) starch (B) oil
(B) Collenchymatous tissues are irregu-
(C) protein (D) nutrients
larly thickened at corners
10. The only cell organelle seen in prokary-
(C) Apical and intercalary meristems are
otic cell
permanent tissues
(A) mitochondria (B) ribosomes
(D) Meristematic tissues, in its early
(C) plastids (D) lysosomes stage, lack vacuoles
11. Meristematic tissues in plants are 18. The dead elements present in the phloem
(A) Growing in volume is
(B) Localised and permanent (A) Companion cells
(C) Localised and dividing cells (B) Phloem fibres
(D) Not limited in certain regions (C) Phloem parenchyma
(D) Sieve tube cells
Page No # 31
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

19. If the tip of sugarcane plant is removed 25. The body of organisms has chitinous cell
from the field, even then it keeps on grow- wall and is made up of hyphae and myce-
ing in length. It is due to the presence of lium
(A) Cambium (A) Spirogyra (B) Rhizopus
(B) Apical meristem (C) Funaria (D) Riccia
(C) Lateral meristem 26. Naked seeds are present in
(D) Intercalary meristem (A) Pinus (B) Mango
20. Which of the following does not lose their (C) Mustard (D) Lemon
nucleus at maturity?
27. The excretory organs of Annelida are
(A) Vessel
(A) Nephridia
(B) Companion cells
(B) Statocysts
(C) Red blood cells
(C) Archeocytes
(D) Sieve tube cells
(D) None of the above
21. Basic taxonomic category is
28. Find the incorrect pair
(A) population (B) Spices
(A) Leech - phylum Annelida
(C) Variety (D) breed
(B) Octopus - Phylum Mollusca
22. Who has proposed two kigdom classifi-
(C) Fasciola - phylum Platyhelminthes
cation?
(D) Starfish - Phylum Chordata
(A) R. Whittaker (B) Carolus Linnaeus
29. Jaundice is disease of -
(C) Schimper (D) Eichler
23. Which taxonomic term may be substi- (A) Kidney (B) Liver
tuted for any rank in the classification? (C) Pancreas (D) Duodenum
(A) Class (B) Genus 30. Immuno–deficiency syndrome could
(C) Species (D) Taxon develop due to -

24. In Whittaker's classification, unicellular (A) Defective liver

organisms are grouped under (B) Defective thymus
(A) Protista (B) Porifera (C) AIDS Virus
(C) Fungi (D) Protozoa (D) Weak immune system.

MATHEMATICS
1. The value of 0.23  0.22 is 9n  35  (27)3
3. If = 27, then n equals–
(A) 0.45 (B) 0.43 3  (81)4
(C) 0.45 (D) 0.45 (A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
2. Which one of the following is a correct
statement? x y 10
4. If  
(A) Decimal expansion of a rational y x 3 and x+y=10, then the
number is terminating value of xy will be :
(B) Decimal expansion of a rational (A) 16 (B) 9
number is non-terminating (C) 2 (D) 10
(C) Decimal expansion of an irrational 5. Evaluate :
number is terminating.  a  b 2  b  c 2  c  a 2
(D) Decimal expansion of an irrational  
 b  c  c  a   a  b  c  a   a  b  b  c 
number is non-terminating and non- (A) 0 (B) 1
repeating. (C) 2 (D) 3
Page No # 32
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

6. If x + y = 5 and xy = 6, the value of (x3 12. In the figure shown AB is parallel to

+ y3 ) is - DE. The difference between angles x
(A) 91 (B) 133 and y is:

(C) 35 (D) 343 A o

B
35
7. When x13 + 1 is divided by x + 1, the C
y
remainder is -
x
(A) –1 (B) 0
o
(C) 1 (D) 2 53
D E
8. The polynomial 11a  12 2 a  2 on
2 (A) 0o (B) 4o
factorization gives (C) 10 o (D) 12 o

  
(A) 11a  2 a  2 13. If the angles A, B, C and D of a quadrilat-
eral ABCD in the same order are in the
(B) a  2 11a  2  ratio 3:7:6:4, then ABCD is a

(C) a  11a  2  (A) Parallelogram (B) rhombus

(C) trapezium (D) kite
(D) 11a  2 a  2 
14. In the given figure AD and BE intersect
12 at C such that BC = CE, ABC  40 o
9. The surd , after
3 5 2 2
and DEC  85 o . Find BAC  CDE .
rationalizing the denominator becomes E

(A) 5  2  10  1 85o
A C
(B) 5  10  2  1
D
(C) 10  2  5  1 40o
B
(D) 5  10  2  1
(A) 45o (B) 125o
10. If (x + 2) and (x – 1) are the factors of (C) 55o (D) 110o
(x3 + 10x2 + mx + n), the values of m 15. In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a square.
and n are - A line segment CX cuts AB at X and the
(A) m = 5, n = – 3 diagonal BD at O such that and then the
value of x is :
(B) m =17, n = – 8
D C
(C) m = 7, n = –18
(D) m = 23, n = – 19
80o
11. In the figure shown AB is parallel to O
DE. The difference between angles x
and y is: xo
A B
x
A B
35
o
(A) 125  (B) 120 
y C (C) 130  (D) 140 
x 16. If , be the zeroes of the polynomials
o
53 2 2 21
D E 2x2+5x+k such that       ,
4
(A) 0 o (B) 4 o then K = ?
(C) 10 o (D) 12 o (A) 3 (B) -3
(C) -2 (D) 2
Page No # 33
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

24. In the given figure, measure of <QPR is

17. If amongst two supplementary angles,
P
the measure of smaller angle is four S
times its complement, then their differ- 0
ence is 21

(A) 30  (B) 36 
y
x
(C) 43  (D) 45 
Q R T
18. If an angle of a regular polygon is 165o, (A) 10.50 (B) 420 C
then the number of sides of the polygon (C) 1110 (D) 500
is 25. In the figure shown, chord ED is parallel
(A) 30 (B) 24 to diameter AC of a circle. If CBE  60  ,
(C) 18 (D) 15 then DEC must be :
B
19. All the three sides of a ΔABC have o
60
lengths in integral units, with AB = 2001
units and BC = 1002 units. The possible A C
number of triangles with this condition is: O

(A) 2001 (B) 2002

E D
(C) 2003 (D) 2004

(A) 15 (B) 30 
20. The figure formed by joining the mid-
points of the adjacent sides of a rhom- (C) 10  (D) 20 
bus is a 26. The height h of a cylinder equals the cir-
cumference of the cylinder. In terms of
(A) Square
h, what is the volume of the cylinder?
(B) Rectangle
h3 h2 h3
(C) Trapezium (A) (B) (C) (D) h3
4 2 2
(D) None of these 27. If a sphere is inscribed in a cube, then
21. If one angle of a parallelogram is 24o less the ratio of the volume of the sphere to
than twice the smallest angle, then the the volume of the cube is
measure of the largest angle of the par- (A)  : 2 (B)  : 3
allelogram is (C)  : 4 (D)  : 6
(A) 176o (B) 68o 28. The mode of the distribution
(C) 112o (D) 102o 3,5,7,4,2,1,4,3,4 is
22. If AD is median of  ABC and P is a point (A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1
on AC such that ar (ADP) : ar 29. In a triangle ABC, BC = 5 cm, AC = 12
(ABD)  2 : 3 , then ar (PDC) : ar cm and AB = 13 cm. The length of the
altitude drawn from B on AC is:
(ABC) is
(A) 4 cm (B) 5 cm
(A) 1 : 5 (B) 2 : 5 (C) 2 cm (D) 7 cm
(C) 1 : 6 (D) 3 : 5 30. A card is drawn at random from a pack
23. The coordinates of the point lying on the of 52 cards. What is the probability that
negative side of x-axis at a distance of 5 the card drawn is a spade or a king ?
units from origin are
4 3
(A) (0, 5) (B) (0, –5) (A) (B)
13 13
(C) (–5, 0) (D) (5, 0) 2 1
(C) (D)
13 13
Page No # 34
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. The southernmost tip of the Indian 7. There are 40 villages in a district where
union and the main land - the government has made no provision
(A) Indira Point (B) Delhi for drinking water. These villagers met
(C) Chennai (D) All the above and considered many methods of forc-
2. Match the following: ing the government to responds to their
need. Which of these is not a democratic
State Neighbouring Country
method?
A. Uttaranchal i. Myanmar
(A) Filing a case in the courts claiming
B. Rajasthan ii. Pakistan
that water is part of right to life.
C. Meghalaya iii. China
(B) Boycotting the next elections to give
D. Nagaland iv. Bangladesh
a message to all parties.
(A) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(C) Organising public meetings against
(B) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
governments policies.
(C) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(D) Paying money to government officials
(D) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
to get water.
3. Poverty eradication programmes
launched by the Government of India aim 8. Which of the following statements about
at______. the reasons for conducting elections are
false?
(A) Eradicating poverty in rural areas
(B) Eradicating poverty in urban areas (A) Elections enable people to judge the
performance of the government
(C) Eradicating unemployment
(D) Increasing literacy rate (B) People elect the representatives of
their choice in an election
4. Out of the following statements which
one is not right about 82 30'E longitude (C) Elections enable people to evaluate
(A) This is standard meridian of India the performance of the judiciary
(B) The local time of this meridian is 5:30 (D) Elections enable people to indicate
hours ahead of greenwich which policies they prefer
(C) The meridian passes through Andhra 9. The wind blowing in the northern plains
Pradesh in summers in known as:
(D) The meridian divides India into two
(A) Kaal Baisakhi
equal parts
(B) Loo
5. The Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana aims
at______. (C) Trade winds
(A) Self-employment (D) None of the above
(B) Rural housing 10. Which of the following decisions was
(C) Urban housing taken by the convention ?

(D) Health and sanitation (A) Declared France a constitutional

monarchy
6. Who among the following reintroduced
slavery in France after it was abolished (B) Abolished the monarchy
by Jacobin regime? (C) All men and women above 21 years
(A) Louis XIV (B) Robespierre got the right to vote
(C) Napoleon (D) Marat (D) Declared France a Republic

Page No # 35
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

11. Multiple Cropping refers to : 18. Lenin mentioned his three demands “war
be brought to a close, land be transferred
(A) cultivation of wheat and rice
to the peasants, and banks be
(B) cultivation of two crops in alternate nationalised” in his writing
rows
(A) ‘April Theses’
(C) cultivating more than one crop on the
(B) ‘Imperialism, the Highest Stage of
same field each year
Capitalism’.
(D) cultivating crops and rearing animals (C) ‘The State and the Revolution’
on the same farm
(D) ‘What is to be done?’
12. ‘Two Treatises of Government’ was writ-
19. Machines are called fixed capital
ten by:
(A) because it can be used in production
(A) Rousseau (B) John Locke
for many years.
(C) Montesquieu (D) None of these (B) because without machines produc-
13. Passive Citizens of France were : tion is not possible.
(A) Only men above 25 years (C) because machines are made by hu-
man beings.
(B) Only propertied men
(D) because machines are not the work-
(C) Men and women who didn’t vote
ing capital.
(D) Only propertied women
20. Who wanted Russian Society which tol-
14. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of erated all religions?
India, forming its boundary with Myanmar (A) Liberals (B) Radicals
are collectivity called :
(C) Conservatives (D) Democrats
(A) Himachal Pradesh
21. Who refuted the doctrine of the divide and
(B) Uttrakhand absolute right of the monarch?
(C) Purvanchal (A) John Locke (B) Rousseau
(D) Himalayas (C) Montesquieu (D) None of these
15. Cash in hand is a component of : 22. What does broken chain stand for dur-
ing French Revolution?
(A) physical capital
(A) Freedom from slavery
(B) working capital
(B) Freedom from monarchy
(C) fixed capital
(C) Revolution
(D) both (A) and (B)
(D) socialism
16. What was the national Anthem of
23. In which of the following state is the
France ?
Simlipal bio-reserve located?
(A) Marseillaise
(A) Punjab (B) Delhi
(B) Jan-Gan man
(C) Odisha (D) West Bengal
(C) Guillotine
24. Who were called Kulkas?
(D) None of these (A) Well to do farmers of Russia
17. Russian peasants pooled their land to- (B) Well to do farmers of France
gether periodically and their commune
(C) W ell to do farmers of India
was known as the
(Palampur)
(A) ‘budeonovka’ (B) ‘kolkhoz’
(D) None of these
(C) ‘kulaks’ (D) ‘mir’
Page No # 36
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

25. What type of economic activity is quar- 28. Who among the following is known as
rying? the child of the ‘French Revolution’?
(A) Primary (B) Secondary (A) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Tertiary (D) None of these (B) Louis XVI
26. Investment in human resource can be (C) Voltaire
implemented through : (D) Rousseau
(A) Food and good living 29. German children had to join Jungvolk at
(B) Food and health the age of
(C) Education and health (A) 5 (B) 10
(D) Technological advancement (C) 15 (D) 20
27. Trade, transport, communication, bank- 30. Which term is used for virgin vegetation,
ing, education, health, tourism, etc., are which have come from outside India are
activities included in the : termed as exotic plants.
(A) Primary sector (A) Indigenous plants
(B) Secondary sector (B) Endemic species
(C) Tertiary sector (C) Exotic Plants
(D) State sector (D) None of these

MENTAL ABILITY
1. Sushant introduces Raj as the son of the (A) Air (B) Water
only brother of his father’s wife. How is (C) Green (D) Yellow
Raj related to Sushant?
5. If × means +, ÷ means –, – means × and
(A) Cousin (B) Son + means ÷, then 8 × 7 – 8 + 40 ÷ 2 = ?
(C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law 2
(A) 1 (B) 7
2. Direction 5
(i) A + B means A ‘is the daughter of ’ B 3
(C) 8 (D) 44
5
(ii) A – B means A ‘is the husband of ’ B
6. Choose the missing term from the given
(iii) A × B means A ‘is the brother of ‘ B :
options
then, If P × Q + R, which of the following
KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, ...........
is true?
(A) BX17 (B) BY17
(A) P is the brother of R
(C) CY18 (D) CY17
(B) P is the uncle of R
7. Find out the missing number which will
(C) P is the son of R come in place of .............. from amongst
(D) P is the father of R the four alternatives.
3. In a certain code ‘CLOCK’ is written as 5, 9, 15, 23, 33, 45, .............
‘KCOLC’. How is ‘STEPS’ written in that (A) 55 (B) 57
code?
(C) 59 (D) 61
(A) SPEST (B) SPSET
8. Find the next number in the following
(C) SEPTS (D) SPETS sequence
4. If ‘air’ is called ‘water’; ‘water’ is called 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, .............
‘green’; ‘green’ is called ‘dust’; ‘dust’ is
(A) 13 (B) 15
called ‘yellow’ and ‘yellow’ is called ‘cloud’;
which of the following do the ‘fish’ live in? (C) 12 (D) None of these
Page No # 37
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

9. Find out the missing letters which will 15. The figures given below show the two
come in place of .............. from amongst different positions of a dice. Which
the four alternatives. number will appear opposite to number
........ a b ........ a b ........ a ........ p a b 2?
(A) a a b p (B) a p a p
4 5
(C) p p p b (D) b b a a (i) 2 (ii) 6
3 4
10. John ranked 21st in a class of fifty one
students. What is his rank from the end? (A) 3 (B) 4
(A) 30th (B) 32nd (C) 5 (D) 6
(C) 20th (D) 31st 16. Amit walks 2 km South, turned right and
11. Kapil ranked thirteen from the top and walked 1 km, again turned North and
twenty six from the bottom among those walked 5 km, turned East and walked 5
who have passed in the annual km. How far is he from the starting point?
examination in a class, If six students (A) 3 km (B) 7 km
have failed in the annual examination,
how many students appeared? (C) 5 km (D) 6 km

(A) 45 (B) 38 17. Find the missing letters

(C) 44 (D) 50 ZOA, XMF, ?, TIP, RGU, PEZ
12. Which letter represents the set of (A) YXX (B) WLL
persons who play Tennis and Volley ball (C) UKK (D) VKK
but not Badminton 18. Find out that answer figure in which the
Tennis Badminton question figure is embedded
a d e
c
b f
g
Volley ball

(A) g (B) e
(C) c (D) b
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
13. Find the missing term
(A) I (B) II
B C ? (C) III (D) IV
O Q S 19. Which figure will come in place of ?
M N R
×
(A) A (B) D
?
(C) G (D) P ×
14. Find the missing number ×

2 1 1 ×
× ×
14 16 6 12 14 5 11 ? 4

2 3 10 ×
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) 0 (B) 5 (A) I (B) II

(C) 10 (D) 15 (C) III (D) IV
Page No # 38
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

20. How many triangles in given figure 25. Find the missing letters :
A3P, C5N, E8K, G12G, ?
(A) I15D (B) I17B
(C) I17D (D) J16B
26. On the basis of two figures of dice, you
have to tell what number will be on the
opposite face of number 5?
(A) 7 (B) 8
6 5
(C) 9 (D) 10 4 3
3 1
21. In a certain code, 256 means you are (i)u (ii)
good, 637 means we are bad and 358
means good and bad. Which of the fol- (A) 1 (B) 2
lowing does represent and in that code? (C) 4 (D) 6
(A) 2 (B) 5 27. The numbers follow a series as per some
(C) 8 (D) 3 rule. find out the missing number which
22. Find the missing number(s) : will come in place of ______ from
amongst the four alternatives.
1 4 6 7, 15, 33, 71,___
9 5 5 3 8 3
(A) 147 (B) 148
551 246 ?
(C) 149 (D) 151
3 4 7 9 2 1
6 8 4 28. Choose the missing term from the given
(A) 262 (B) 622 options.

(C) 631 (D) 226 AKU, FPZ,____, PZJ, UEO, ZJT

23. Find the missing number(s) : (A) KUE (B) JTD

(C) JUE (D) KVE
1 5 9 29. In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front
4 8 12 while Mukul is 25th from behind and
7 ? 15 Mamta is just in the middle of the two. If
there be 50 persons in the queue, what
(A) 11 (B) 12
position does Mamta occupy from the
(C) 13 (D) 16 front?
24. Kishan walks 10 km towards North. From (A) 20th (B) 19th
there, he walks 6 km towards South.
(C) 18th (D) 17th
Then, he walks 3 km towards East. How
far and in which direction is he with ref- 30. If  means ‘addition’, – means ‘division’,
erence to his starting point?  means ‘subtraction’ and + means ‘mul-
tiplication’, then which of the following
(A) 5 km, North equations is correct?
(B) 5 km, North-East (A) 16  5  10 + 4 = 19
(C) 7 km, East (B) 16 + 5  10  4 – 3 = 9
(D) 7 km, West (C) 16 + 5 – 10  4  3 = 9
(D) 16 – 5  10  4 + 3 = 12

Page No # 39
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR X TO XI MOVING

PHYSICS
1. What is the angle of deviation? 5. The magnetic lines of force :
(A) Angle between the reflected ray and (A) intersect at the neutral point
incident ray (B) intersect near north and south poles.
(B) Angle between the reflected ray and (C) cannot intersect at all
refracted ray. (D) depend upon the position of the mag-
(C) Angle between the incident ray and net
emergent ray 6. Electrons are emitted from an electron
(D) Angle between the incident ray and gun where they are accelerated by a po-
tential difference of 1500 V. The energy
refracted ray
imparted to each electron will be :
2. If ‘I’ is the current through a wire and e is (A) 2.4 x 10–16 J (B) 2.8 x 10–14 J
the charge of electron, then the number
(C) 3.2 x 10–15 J (D) 2.4 x 10–14 J
of electrons in t second will be given by :
7. Three resistance each of 8  are con-
le nected to a triangle. The resistance be-
(A) (B) lte
t tween any two terminals :
e It (A) 12  (B) 2 
(C) (D)
It e 16
(C) 6  (D) 
3. A metallic sphere is charged negatively, 3
its mass will : 8. In fig. a ray of light undergoes refraction
from medium A to medium B. If the speed
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
of light in medium A is v then the speed
(C) Remains same (D) None of these of light in medium B will be -
4. Observe the given figure N

Opaque wall
o
60
R Q X Y
30o
Observer
1
N
S
P 
(A) 3  (B)
Bulbs 3


(C) 2  (D)
2
9. If the far point of an eye is at 4 m, then
Plane mirror
identify the defect of eye and the lens
needed to correct this.
(A) Hypermetropic and needs – 1.25 D
How many bulbs can the observer see
lens.
from the mirror without changing the po-
(B) Hypermetropic and needs + 2.5 D
sition of his eye and bulbs?
lens.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) Myopic and needs + 0.25 D lens.
(C) 3 (D) 4 (D) Myopic and needs –0.25 D lens.
Page No # 40
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

10. The reciprocal of resistance is conduc-

16. If there are three resister each of 2 ohm
tance. If the unit of resistance is ohm,
and generate the effective resistance of
then the unit of conductance is :
3 ohm so how will the connection of the
(A) ohm (B) mho three resistances in the circuit?
(C) ohm m-1 (D) none of these (A) A parallel combination of two resis-
11. Which of the following graphs represents tances and one is series
a ohmic conductor?
(B) A series combination of two resis-
tances and one in parallel
V V (C) Three are in series
(A) (B) (D) Three are in parallel
I I
17. If resistance of a wire is R ohm and wire
is stretched to double its length, then
V V
what is its resistance?
(C) (D) (A) R (B) 2R
I I
R
(C) 4R (D)
2
12. In an electric motor, conversion takes
place of : 18. The current in the given circuit is
(A) Chemical energy into electrical en-
ergy 10 5V
(B) Electrical energy into mechanical en-
ergy
(C) Electrical energy into light
(D) Electrical energy into chemical en-
ergy 2V 20
13. In the figure shown the current flowing
through 2 R is : (A) 0.1 A (B) 0.2 A
(C) 0.3 A (D) 0.4 A
19. The potential difference between points
A and B of adjoining figure is

A 3 3 B
(A) from left to right
(B) from right to left 36V
(C) no current 4 3
(D) None of these
14. An object 0.5 m tall is in front of a
D C
plane mirror at a distance of 0.2 m. 4 4
The size of the image formed is-
(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.5 m (A) 20V (B) 12V
(C) 0.1 m (D) 1 m (C) 24V (D) 18V
15. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle 60o, 20. Magnetic effect of current was discov-
an object is placed asymmetrically be- ered by:
tween them. Then number of images
formed will be : (A) Faraday (B) Oersted

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) Ampere (D) Bohr

(C) 7 (D) 9
Page No # 41
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

21. The reading of the ammeter as per fig- 26. Two bulb of 40W and 60W (rating at
ure shown is 120V) are connected in series with AC
2
power supply of 100V. Which bulb will
glow brighter?
16V
(A) 40W (B) 60W
2 (C) Both equal (D) None
A 27. Find power dissipation is 6 resistance
2

2 7
2
1 3
(A) A (B) A
8 4
32V 9 1
1
(C) A (D) 2A
4
22. The letter that show lateral inversion- 8 10
(A) Z (B) M
(C) O (D) W (A) 8W (B) 16W
23. The mirror which can produce a magni- (C) 32W (D) 24W
fication of +1 is
28. How many images are formed when two
(A) Convex Mirror mirrors are placed at an angle of 72o ?
(B) Concave Mirror
(A) A (B) 5
(C) Plane Mirror
(C) 6 (D) 7
(D) Both Concave Mirror and Plane Mir-
ror 29. What is the current supplied by the bat-
24. A current of 2A flows in a system of con- tery in the circuit shown below? Each
ductors as shown. The potential differ- resistance used in circuit is of 1 k and
ence (VA - VB) will be potential difference VAB = 8 V
A

2 3
A
2A
D C

3 2 B

B
(A) +2V (B) +1V
(C) –1V (D) –2V (A) 64 mA (B) 15 mA
25. Find potential difference across resis- (C) 9.87 mA (D) 1 mA
tance X if point A and B is connected by
a battery of 8V. 30. All the following are equivalent to watt
except
4 2
(A) Amperes/ohm
5 (B) Joules/sec
A X 2 B
(C) Amperes X volt

4 2 (D) Amperes/volt
(A) 1V (B) 2V
(C) 0V (D) 5V
Page No # 42
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

CHEMISTRY
1. The valency of lead (Pb) in lead 9. Which of the following statements is/are
sulphate is– correct?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) A chemical equation tells us about the
(C) 4 (D) 3 substances involved in a reaction.
(B) A chemical equation informs us about
2. The chemical formula of lead nitrate
the symbols and formulae of the sub-
is–
stances involved in a reaction.
(A) PbSO4 (B) Pb(SO 4)2 (C) A chemical equation tells us about
(C) Pb(NO 3)2 (D) PbO the atoms or molecules of the reactants
3. What is the common name of nitrogen and products involved in a reaction.
trihydride (NH3 ) (D) All are correct
(A) Water (B) Common Salt 10. In the reaction xPb(NO3)2 Heat yPbO
(C) Quick lime (D) Ammonia + zNO2 + O2 x, y and z are-
4. The empirical formula of hydrogen (A) 1, 1, 2 (B) 2, 2, 4
peroxide is– (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 4, 2, 2
(A) H2 O2 (B) HO 11. A metal sulphate has the formula MSO4.
(C) NaOH (D) CH4 The phosphate of the same metal will
have the formula -
5. In the balanced equation - aFe2O3 + bH2
cFe + dH2O The values of a, b, c, (A) M3(PO4)3 (B) M2PO4
d are respectively - (C) M(PO4)2 (D) M3(PO4)2
(A) 1, 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 1, 1, 1 12. One mole of NH3 means :
(C) 1, 3, 2, 3 (D) 1, 2, 2, 3 (A) 2.24 litre of NH3 gas at STP
6. Which of the following reactions is not (B) 1.7g of NH3
balanced?
(C) 6.023 x 1023 molecules of NH3
(A) 2NaHCO3 Na2CO3 + H2O +
(D) 34g of NH3
CO 2
13. The chemical reaction between quick-
(B) 2C 4 H 10 + 12O 2 8CO 2 +
lime and water is characterised by :
10H2O
(A) Evolution of hydrogen gas
(C) 2AI + 6H2O 2AI (OH)3 + 3H2
(B) Formation of slaked lime precipitate
(D) 4NH3 + 5O2 4NO + 6H2O
(C) Change in temperature of mixture
7. The equation- Cu + xHNO 3
Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O The values (D) Change in colour of the product
of x and y are- 14. Which of the following is an example of
(A) 3 and 5 (B) 8 and 6 oxidation reaction?
(C) 4 and 2 (D) 7 and 1 (A) Sn+2 - 2e  Sn+4
8. Which of the following statements is/are (B) Fe+3 + e-  Fe+2
true? (C) Cl2 + 2e  - 2Cl-
(A) The total mass of the system remains (D) None of these
same in a chemical change.
15. You are given the following chemical
(B) A chemical change is permanent and equation:
irreversible.
Mg(s) + CuO(s)  MgO (s) + Cu(s)
(C) A physical change is temporary and
This equation represents :
reversible.
(A) Decomposition reaction as well as
(D) All of these.
displacement reaction
Page No # 43
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

(B) Combination reaction as well as (A) Calcium carbonate

double displacement reaction (B) Calcium hydroxide
(C) Redox reaction as well as displace- (C) Calcium hydroxide
ment reaction
(D) Calcium oxide
(D) Double displacement reaction as well
22. Bauxite is an ore of
as redox reaction
(A) Iron (B) Aluminium
16. Name an element which is common to
all acids? (C) Mercury (D) Copper
23. The sulphide ores are converted into ox-
(A) Sulphur (B) Chlorine
ides by heating strongly in the presence
(C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen of excess air. This process is known as
17. What type of reaction takes place when (A) Roasting (B) Smelting
an acid dissolves in water :
(C) Calcination (D) Refining
(A) Exothermic 24. In electrolytic refining, the cathode is
(B) Endothermic made up of
(C) Substitution (A) Pure metal (B) Impure metal
(D) Double-displacement (C) Alloy (D) Metallic salt
18. What happens when an acid reacts with 25. Which of the following alloys contains a
metal oxide? non-metal as one of its constituents?
(A) Salt and water is formed (A) Steel (B) Brass
(B) Metal hydride is formed (C) Amalgam (D) Bronze
(C) Oxyacid will be formed 26. An element has an atomic number of 15
with which of the following elements will
(D) Salt and Hydrogen gas is formed it show similar chemical properties?
19. Which statement is correct regarding (A) Be(4) (B) Ne(10)
acids?
(C) N(7) (D) O(8)
I. Acid is a molecule which donates a pro-
27. The increasing order of the atomic radii
ton or accepts electron pair in reactions.
of elements Na, Rb, K, Mg is
II. Acid increases the concentration of hy-
(A) Na < K < Mg < Rb
drogen atoms or hydronium atoms in
water. (B) K < Na < Mg < Rb
III. Acids have a pH value of less than 7. (C) Na < Mg < K < Rb
(D) Mg < Na < K < Rb
IV. The acid in the stomach helps in the
digestion of food. 28. Electronic configuration of Al+3 is
(A) Only I (B) Both II and IV (A) 2, 8, 3 (B) 2, 8, 8
(C) I, III and IV (D) All the above (C) 2, 8 (D) 2, 8, 8, 3
20. Which of the following is the milk of mag- 29. Arrange the following elements into the
nesia? increasing order of their metallic charac-
ter along a period.
(A) Ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH)
(A) S < Si < P < Al
(B) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
(B) S < P < Si < Al
(C) Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)
(C) Si < P < S < Al
(D) Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
(D) Si < S < P < Al
21. A metal compound reacts with dilute hy- 30. Two elements X and Y belong to group 1
drochloric acid to produce effervescence. and 2 respectively in the same period.
The gas evolved extinguishes a burning The formulae of this oxides are
candle. If one of the compounds formed
is calcium chloride. Then, what’s the (A) XO, YO (B) X2O, YO
name of the metal compound? (C) X2O, Y2O (D) XO, YO2
Page No # 44
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

BIOLOGY
1. Monomer of carbohydrate is - 11. Which of the following statements about
(A) Glycogen (B) Cellulose the autotrophs is INCORRECT?
(C) Glucose (D) Sucrose (A) They synthesise carbohydrates from
2. Which of the following is Not essential carbon dioxide and water in the presence
Life Processes- of sunlight and chlorophyll.

(A) Nutrition (B) They store carbohydrates in the form

of starch.
(B) Reproduction
(C) They covert carbon dioxide and wa-
(C) Respiration ter into carbohydrates in the absence of
(D) Excretion sunlight.
3. 1 gm glucose provide............ energy. (D) They are BGA & Green plants.
(A) 4.5 Kcal (B) 4.8 Kcal 12. Stomata controls
(C) 9.3 Kcal (D) 4.1 Kcal (A) The loss of food material from the
4. Which of the following is Not Monosac- plant
charides.. (B) The loss of water from plant
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) The loss of air from plant
(C) Sucrose (D) Galactose (D) The loss of energy from plant
5. Main fuel of body is - 13. Proteins A Peptones
(A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate Identify the enzyme A involved in the
(C) Lipid (D) Water above reaction.
6. Lactose is Made up of . (A) Salivary amylase (B) Bile juice
(A) 2 Molecule of Glucose (C) Pepsin (D) Lipase
(B) Glucose + Galactose 14. Which of the following represents the
photosynthesis correctly?
(C) Glucose of Fructose
(A) 6CO 2  12H2 O  C 2H12 O 6  6H2O  6O 2
(D) Glucose of Sucrose
Sunlight
(B) 6CO 2  12H2O   C 6H12 O 6  O 2  6H2O
7. Example of polysaccharides is / are-
Sunlight
(A) Starch (B) Glycogen (C) 6CO 2  12H2 O Chlorophyl
  C 6H12 O 6  6H2O  6O 2
l

(C) Cellulose (D) All Sunlight

(D) 6CO 2  12H2 O Chlorophyl
  C 6H12 O 6  6CO 2  6H2 O
l
8. Monomer of protein is
15. Bile juice is stored in which organ of hu-
(A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid man body?
(C) Amino acid (D) Glycerol (A) Kidney (B) Gall bladder
9. Two molecule of Glucose are attached (C) Pancreas (D) Liver
with-
16. EMP is ___________
(A) Peptide bond
(A) Glycolysis (B) Kreb’s cycle
(B) Glycosidic bond
(C) ETS (D) Fermentation
(C) Hydrogen bond
17. Grafting is not possible in monocot plant
(D) Covalent bond because they
10. How many types of amino acid Make pro- (A) have parallel venation
tein-
(B) have only one cotyledon
(A) 200 types (B) 20 types
(C) lack cambium
(C) 210 types (D) 2 types
(D) have scattered vascular bundle.
Page No # 45
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

18. In respiration pyruvic acid is 23. A blood vessel which carries blood back
(A) Broken down into two cardon frag- to the heart is :
ments and carbon dioxide (A) Artery (B) Vein
(B) Formed only when oxygen is avail-
(C) Capillary (D) Platelet
able
24. It has been found that people living in very
(C) One of the products of Kreb’s cycle
high mountains have many more red cor-
(D) A result of protein break down
puscles in their blood than people living
19. The blood leaving the tissues becomes in plains. Which one of the following best
richer in
accounts for this phenomenon?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Water
(A) the cold climate stimulated the pro-
(C) Heamoglobin (D) Oxygen duction of red corpuscles to keep the
20. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of body warm
human beings, pyruvic acid is converted
(B) people of high mountains breathe
into lactic acid in the
more quickly
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Chloroplast
(C) the low air pressure requires more
(C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi body
red corpuscles to supply the body cells
21. The correct sequence of anaerobic re- with oxygen.
actions in yeast is
(D) the low air pressure in high moun-
cytoplasm
Glucose  Pyruvate tains speeds up the blood circulation so
(A) mitochondria
 Ethanol  Carbondioxide that more red corpuscles are needed.
25. Which of the following has three-cham-
cytoplasm
Glucose  Pyruvate bered heart?
(B) cytoplasm
 Lactic Acid (A) Pigeon (B) Lizard
cytoplasm
Glucose  Pyruvate (C) Fish (D) Lion
(C) mitochondria 26. Which one of the following has cyto-
 Lactic Acid
plasm but no nucleus:
cytoplasm
Glucose  Pyruvate (A) Xylem vesel (B) Sieve tube
(D) cytoplasm
 Ethanol  Carbondioxide (C) Tracheid (D) Companion cell
22. Which of the following is most appropri- 27. Excretion is
ate for aerobic respiration ? (A) Removal of substances not required
mitochondria by body
Glucose  Pyruvate
(A) cytoplasm (B) Removal of useless substances and
 CO2  H2O  Energy
substances present in excess
cytoplasm
Glucose  Pyruvate (C) Formation of substances having
(B) mitochondria some role in body
 CO2  H2O  Energy
(D) All the above
cytoplasm
Glucose  Pyruvate  Energy
28. Which one is uricotelic?
(C) mitochondria
 CO2  H2O
(A) Frog and toads
cytoplasm
Glucose  Pyruvate  Energy (B) Lizards and birds
(D) mitochondria (C) Cattle, monkey and man
 CO2  H2O  Energy
(D) Molluscs
Page No # 46
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

29. Correct order of excretory organs in 30. Nitrogenous waste products are elimi-
cockroach, earthworm and rabbit are re- nated mainly as
spectively (A) Urea in tadpole & ammonia in adult
(A) Skin, malpighian tubules, kidney frog
(B) Malpighian tubules, nephridia, kidney (B) Ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult
frog
(C) Nephridia, malpighian tubules, kidney
(C) Urea in Both tadpole & adult frog.
(D) Nephridia, Kidney, green gland
(D) Urea in tadpole and uric in adult frog.

MATHEMATICS
1. The number of integers between  8 7. If the polynomial
P x   2x 4  x 3  5x 2  x  1 is divided
and 32 is:
by the polynomial Q x   x 2  x then the
(A) 5 (B) 6
remainder is a linear polynomial
(C) 7 (D) 8
Rx   ax  b . Then a  b equals :
2. If x, y, z are real numbers such that
(A) -2 (B) -1
x  1  y  2  z  3 = 0 then the (C) 1 (D) 2
values of x, y, z are respectively 8. If a x  b , b y  3 c and c z  a then
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 0, 0, 0 the value of xyz is :
(C) 2, 3, 1 (D) None of these
1 1
2 (A) (B)
3. If ( 2  3 )  a  b 6 , where a, b  2 3
Q, then –
(A) a = 5, b = 6 (B) a = 5, b = 2 1 1
(C) (D)
6 12
(C) a = 6, b = 5 (D) None of these
4. If V be the volume and S the surface 9. If xy + yz + zx = 0 then the value of
area of a cuboid of dimensions a,b,c
 1 1 1 
1 
then is equal to:  x 2  yz  y 2  zx  z 2  xy 
V  

S 2  1 1 1 (A) 3 (B) 2
(A) (a + b + c) (B)    
2 S a b c  (C) 0 (D) x + y + z
2S
(C) (D) 2S(a + b + c) 10. In the adjoining figure PQRS is a
abc
rectangle 8 cm x 6 cm, inscribed in
5. Euclid’s division lemma states that for
the circle. The area of the shaded
two positive integers a and b, there
portion will be :
exist unique integers q and r such that
a = bq + r, where r must satisfy
(A) 1 < r < b (B) 0 < r < b P S

(C) 0 < r <b (D) 0 < r < b

4 Q R
4
6. If x  2  2 , then x  is :
x4


(A) 2 3  2  (B) 6 2  2 (A) 48 cm2 (B) 42.50 cm2
(C) 32.50 cm2 (D) 30.5 cm2
(C) 6  2 (D) 12
Page No # 47
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

11. If ,  are the roots of x2 + px + q = 15. A motor boat takes 12 hours to go down-
  stream and it takes 24 hours to return
0, the value of + is - the same distance. What is the time taken
 
by boat in still water ?
p2  2q p2  2q
(A) (B) (A) 15 h (B) 16 h
q q
p2  2q p2  2q (C) 8 h (D) 20 h
(C) (D)
q q 16. The point of intersection of straight lines
12. Consider the following statement : 2x - y + 3 = 0, 3x - 7y + 10 = 0 lies in :

If in a frequency table, the class (A) I quadrant (B) II quadrant

intervals are 40-44, 45-49, 50-54, etc., (C) III quadrant (D) IV quadrant
then when made continuous, they will 17. In an equilateral triangle ABC, if AD 
be 39.5-44.5, 44.5-49.5, 49.5-54.5 etc. BC, then
This statement is: (A) 2 AB2 = 3 AD2 (B) 4 AB2 = 3 AD2
(A) wrong as 40-44 actually means (C) 3 AB2 = 4 AD2 (D) 3 AB2 = 2 AD2
40-44.999... etc and hence when made 18. In a  ABC, AD is the bisector of  BAC.
continuous, they will be 40-45, 45-50, If AB = 8 cm, BD = 6 cm and DC = 3 cm.
50-55 etc. Find AC
(B) wrong as there are no readings (A) 4 cm (B) 6 cm
between 44 and 45, between 49 and (C) 3 cm (D) 8 cm
50 etc and hence the correct intervals 19. If ABC is a right triangle right-angled at B
are 40-44, 45-49 etc. and M, N are the mid-points of AB and
BC respectively, then 4 (AN2 + CM2) =
(C) correct. Although the interval is
actually 40-45 etc., there is the (A) 4 AC2 (B) 5 AC2
possibility of recording errors at each 5
(C) AC2 (D) 6 AC2
interval, namely 40, 45, 50 etc. and 4
hence the intervals should be taken as 20. 2
 ABC ~  DEF, ar (  ABC) = 9 cm , ar
39.5-44.5, 44.5-49.5, 49.5-54.5 etc. (DEF) = 16 cm2. If Bc = 2.1 cm, then the
measure of EF is
(D) correct, because the mid-values
of 40-44, 45-49, 50-54 etc. and 39.5- (A) 2.8 cm (B) 4.2 cm
44.5, 44.5-49.5, 49.5-54.5 etc. are the (C) 2.5 cm (D) 4.1 cm
same. 21. One card is drawn at random from a
13. The minimum value of the polynomial pack of 52 cards. What is the probability
p(x) = 3x2 - 5x + 2 is that the card drawn is either a red card
or a king ?
1 1
(A)  (B) 6 1
6 6 (A) (B)
13 2
1 1 7 27
(C) (D)  (C) (D)
12 12 13 52
p p sin   q cos 
7 6 8 9 22. If tan   then
14. Solve for x & y :   15 &  q p sin   q cos 
3x 2y 3x 2y
(A) -3, -2 (B) -2, -3 p 2  q2 q2  p 2
(A) (B)
1 1 1 1 p 2  q2 q2  p 2
(C) , (D)
2 3 3 2
p 2  q2
(C) (D) 1
p 2  q2
Page No # 48
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

sin A sin A 28. If the centroid of the triangle formed by

23. If   x , then x is :
1  cos A 1  cos A the points (a, b), (b, c) and (c, a) is at the
origin, then a3 + b3 + c3 =
1
(A) (B) 2 sin A (A) abc (B) 0
cos 2 A

2 2 (C) a + b + c (D) 3 abc

(C) (D) 2
sin A sin A 29. The angles of depression of two ships
24. The equation x2 + 4x + k = 0 has real from the top of a light house are 45o and
roots, then- 30o towards east. If the ships are 100 m
(A) k  4 (B) k  4 apart, the height of the light house is
(C) k  0 (D) k  0
50 50
25. Out of the following four relations : (A) m (B) m
3 1 3 1
sin A sin A 2 (C) 50 ( 3  1) m (D) 50 ( 3  1) m
(I)  
1  cos A 1  cos A sin A
2
30. In the adjoining figure, POQ is the diam-
 1  cos A  1  cos A
(II)    eter of the circle. R and S are any two
 sin A  1  cos A
points on the circle. Then,
sin 10 o
(III) 1
cos 80 o
(IV) sin 4 A  cos 4 A  1  sin 2 A
the wrong one is
(A) I (B) II (A)  PRQ >  PSQ
(B)  PRQ <  PSQ
(C) III (D) IV
(C)  PRQ =  PSQ
26. The sum of all positive integral multiples
of 5 less than 100 is – 1
(D)  PRQ =  PSQ
2
(A) 950 (B) 1230
(C) 760 (D) 875
27. If the system of equations
3 x  y  1, ( 2 k  1) x  ( k  1) y  ( 2 k  1)
has no solution, then the value of k is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) -2 (D) 1

Page No # 49
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR VII TO VIII MOVING

PHYSICS
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A)
7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A)
13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (A)
25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (C)

CHEMISTRY
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A)
7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (C)
13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C)
19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B)
25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (D)

BIOLOGY
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D)
7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D)
19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D)
25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B)

MATHEMATICS
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (D)
7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C)
19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (C)
25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (D)

SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C)
7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D)
19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)

MENTAL ABILITY
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D)
7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (C)
13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C)
19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (C)
25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (D)

Page No # 50
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

ANSWER KEY FOR VIII TO IX MOVING

PHYSICS
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (A)
15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (A)
22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (A) 30. (B)

CHEMISTRY
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (D)
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C)
22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C)
29. (B) 30. (C)

BIOLOGY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (A)
8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D)
15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (C)
22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (C)
29. (A) 30. (D)

MATHEMATICS
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B)
15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D) 21. (D)
22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A)
29. (D) 30. (C)

SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (C)
22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C)
29. (D) 30. (A)

MENTAL ABILITY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (C)
8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (D)
22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (A)
29. (C) 30. (B)

Page No # 51
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

ANSWER KEY FOR IX TO X MOVING

PHYSICS
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B)
22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (A)
29. (C) 30. (D)

CHEMISTRY
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B)
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D)
15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (B)
22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (B)
29. (A) 30. (A)

BIOLOGY
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (B)
22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (D)
29. (B) 30. (C)

MATHEMATICS
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (C)
22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (B)
29. (B) 30. (A)

SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (A)
22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (A)
29. (B) 30. (C)

MENTAL ABILITY
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C)
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (D) 21. (C)
22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (A)
29. (C) 30. (C)

Page No # 52
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

ANSWER KEY FOR X TO XI MOVING

PHYSICS
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (D)
8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (D)
22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (B)
29. (B) 30. (D)

CHEMISTRY
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (A)
22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (C)
29. (B) 30. (B)

BIOLOGY
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (D)
22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B)
29. (B) 30. (B)

MATHEMATICS
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (C)
22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (D)
29. (D) 30. (C)

Page No # 53
 Q
A

IIT-JEE | NEET | Nurture

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