OCT 2023 CHEMICAL ENGINEER REVIEW 1

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES PROBLEM SET

1. An earth sample contains 0.3 g of Pb and 1.7 g of U. Estimate its age.

A. 1.2 b.y. B. 2.4 b.y. C. 3.6 b.y. D. 4.8 b.y.

2. What is the time required to decay a 1 mg sample of rubidium to 0.6 mg?

A. 132 days B. 98 days C. 72 days D. 64 days

3. What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope if a third of a substance is left after 1.25 years?
A. 3.5 mos B. 7.5 mos C. 9.5 mos D. 11.5 mos

4. Carbon-14 most likely decays into _______.

A. C-12 B. N-14 C. C-13 D. N-15

5. Which type of colloid is whipped cream?

A. Sol B. Aerosol C. Foam D. Emulsion

6. A bulb emits 500 nm yellow light. If it emits 100 MW energy, calculate the number of photons emitted.
A. 1.5x1026 B. 2.5x1026 C. 1.5x1029 D. 1.5x1029

7. What is the de Broglie wavelength (x10-34 m) of a 75-g object that moves at 42 m/s?
A. 1.204 B. 2.104 C. 2.410 D. 4.012

8. What is the orbital angular momentum quantum number of the electron that is most easily removed
when ground-state chlorine is ionized?
A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 0

9. What is the valence electron configuration of silver?

A. 4s2 3d9 B. 4s1 3d10 C. 5s2 4d9 D. 5s1 4d10

10. What is the Balmer series limit?

A. 122 nm B. 365 nm C. 477 nm D. 656 nm

11. Which of the following is the largest?

A. sulfide B. chloride C. argon D. potassium ion

12. What is the third most abundant substance in dry air?

A. carbon monoxide B. argon C. carbon dioxide D. methane

13. Which of the following is FALSE about chemical bonding?

A. Different types have different strengths.
B. It needs a certain amount of energy to be broken.
C. It is the interaction of the molecules with one another.
D. None of the above.

14. Which of the following is isoelectronic with azide ion?

A. NO2− B. CO2 C. SO2 D. O3

15. What is the molecular geometry of bromine trifluoride?

A. trigonal planar C. T-shaped
B. trigonal pyramidal D. trigonal bipyramidal

16. What is the electron pair geometry of sulfur tetrafluoride?

A. tetrahedral C. square planar
B. see-saw D. trigonal bipyramidal
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17. What is the bond order of the C−O bond in the carbonate ion?
A. 1 B. 1.33 C. 1.5 D. 2

18. It is the sum of the average mass of atoms in an ionic compound.

A. atomic mass B. molar mass C. formula mass D. molecular mass

19. Which can be reacted to magnesium to form magnesium nitride?

A. ammonia B. sodium nitrate C. hydrazine D. none of these

20. It has been observed that there are more dead fish in a lake in summer compared to the colder season.
Which of the following best explains the situation?
A. More food is dissolved in the lake during warmer season.
B. More food is dissolved in the lake during colder season.
C. Less oxygen is dissolved in the lake during warmer season.
D. Less oxygen is dissolved in the lake during colder season.

21. ___ Fe2+ + ___ Cr2O72- + ___ H+ → ___ Cr3+ + ___ H2O + ___ Fe3+
A. 6, 1, 14, 2, 7, 6 B. 4, 2, 12, 4, 1, 4 C. 2, 4, 9, 3, 2, 2 D. 3, 1, 14, 2, 8, 3

22. What is the empirical formula of the compound that contains 47.37% carbon, 10.59% hydrogen, and
the balance, oxygen?
A. CH4O B. C2H3O2 C. C3H8O2 D. C6H16O4

23. Dolomite sand is an artificial sand recovered from a mountain in Southern Cebu. Despite its “so-called”
beauty, it poses harmful effects to humans if inhaled in sufficient amounts. What is the percentage of
oxygen in a pure dolomite sample?
A. 6.88 B. 8.68 C. 52.06 D. 60.25

24. A 16.8-g sample of mineral, containing magnesium carbonate was dissolved in acid. If 4.4 g of CO2
was generated, what is the percent of magnesium carbonate in the mineral?
A. 33 B. 50 C. 67 D. 80

For numbers 25-26:

Sodium hydroxide is used to neutralize phosphoric acid. If 35.60 g of the base is reacted with 30.80 g of the
acid, determine the following.

25. How many grams of the salt is formed?

A. 25.12 B. 48.64 C. 51.52 D. 68.44

26. How many grams of the excess reactant remained unreacted?

A. 1.72 B. 2.17 C. 2.71 D. 7.12

[Co(H2O)6]2+ + 4Cl− ⇌ [CoCl4]2－ + 6H2O

27. In the equilibrium reaction above, the [Co(H2O)6]2+ exhibits pink color, while [CoCl4]2－ exhibits blue
color. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Upon heating, the purple solution turned blue, therefore the reaction is exothermic.
B. Upon heating, the purple solution turned blue, therefore the reaction is endothermic.
C. Upon cooling, the purple solution turned pink, therefore the reaction is exothermic.
D. Upon cooling, the purple solution turned blue, therefore the reaction is endothermic.

For numbers 28-29:

One mol of hydrogen gas and one mol of oxygen gas were made to react in a 5 L flask. The equilibrium
reaction is H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI. At equilibrium, 0.316 M was found. Determine the following.
28. Equilibrium concentration of H2 (M)
A. 0.021 B. 0.042 C. 0.116 D. 0.158
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29. Equilibrium constant, KC

A. 0.006 B. 0.018 C. 57 D. 179

For numbers 30-31:

A 2.50-L container initially has 0.05 mol of each species in this gaseous equilibrium reaction:
PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2. Calculate the following if KC is 9.32x10-3.

30. Equilibrium molar concentration of PCl5.

A. 0.0048 B. 0.0152 C. 0.0248 D. 0.0445

31. Equilibrium molar concentration of Cl2.

A. 0.0048 B. 0.0152 C. 0.0248 D. 0.0445

32. Who discovered deuterium?

A. Priestley B. Cavendish C. Rutherford D. Urey

33. What is the intensity of radiation at 2 m if at 1-m distance, the activity is 28 mCi?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 14 D. 16

34. Who discovered neon?

A. Watson and Crick C. Ramsay and Travers
B. Maxwell and Planck D. Cavendish and Millikan

35. Who theorized that the entropy of a star collapsing into a black hole increases?
A. Bose and Einstein C. Hubble and Webb
B. Hawking and Bekenstein D. Cooper and Fowler

36. A 2.6-g sample of plant tissue is found to contain 3.6 μg zinc. What is the concentration of zinc?
A. 1.4 ppm B. 140 ppm C. 9.36 ppm D. 1400 ppm

37. How many grams per milliliter of NaCl are contained in a 0.250 M solution?
A. 14610 g B. 4.2779 g C. 0.1461 g D. 0.01461 g

38. How many grams Na2SO4 should be weighed out to prepare 500 mL of a 0.100 M solution?
A. 5.95 g B. 7.10 g C. 6.32x10-3 g D. 3.52x10-4 g

39. What is the concentration in g/L of potassium ion after mixing 100 mL of 0.250 M KCl and 200 mL of
0.100 M K2SO4?
A. 3.26 g/L B. 5.87 g/L C. 8.47 g/L D. 10.8 g/L

40. You wish to prepare 500 mL of a 0.100 M K2Cr2O7 solution from a 0.250 M solution. What volume of
the 0.250 M solution must be diluted to 500 mL?
A. 200 mL B. 250 mL C. 500 mL D. 1250 mL

41. To prepare a standard solution of Zn2+ you dissolve a 1.004 g sample of Zn wire in a minimal amount
of HCl and dilute to volume in a 500-mL volumetric flask. If you dilute 2.000 mL of this stock solution to
250.0 mL, what is the concentration of Zn2+, in μg/mL, in your standard solution?
A. 2.008 μg/mL B. 5.985 μg/mL C. 13.78 μg/mL D. 16.06 μg/mL

42. An iron ore was analyzed by dissolving a 1.1324-g sample in concentrated HCl. The resulting solution
was diluted with water, and the iron(III) was precipitated as the hydrous oxide by the addition of NH 3.
After filtration and washing, the residue was ignited at a high temperature producing 0.5394 g of pure
Fe2O3. Calculate the %Fe in the sample.
A. 8.31% Fe B. 16.62% Fe C. 32.33% Fe D. 49.86% Fe
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PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

43. To determine the amount of magnetite, Fe3O4, in an impure ore, a 1.5419-g sample is dissolved in
concentrated HCl, resulting in a mixture of Fe2+and Fe3+. After adding HNO3 to oxidize Fe2+ to Fe3+ and
diluting with water, Fe3+ is precipitated as Fe(OH)3 using NH3. Filtering, rinsing, and igniting the
precipitate provides 0.8525 g of pure Fe2O3. Calculate the %w/w Fe3O4 in the sample.
A. 38.13% B. 53.44% C. 80.16% D. 83.16%

44. A mixture containing only FeCl3 and AlCl3 weighs 5.95 g. The chlorides are converted to the hydrous
oxides and ignited to Fe2O3 and Al2O3 weighing 2.62 g. How much Fe and Al are in the original mixture?
A. 9.55% Fe and 18.2% Al C. 47.22% Fe and 52.7% Al
B. 18.2% Fe and 9.55% Al D. 52.7% Fe and 47.22% Al

45. A 0.2356-g sample containing only NaCl and BaCl2 yielded 0.4637 g of dried AgCl. Calculate the
percent of of BaCl2 in the sample.
A. 54.99% B. 45.01% C. 17.43% D. 10.63%

46. A silicate rock sample that weighs 0.8143 g is brought into solution and treated to yield a 0.2692-g
mixture of NaCl and KCl. The mixture of chloride salts is dissolved in a mixture of ethanol and water,
and treated with HClO4, precipitating 0.5713 g of KClO4. What is the %w/w Na2O in the silicate rock?
A. 9.026% Na2O B. 18.05% Na2O C. 27.30% Na2O D. 54.60% Na2O

47. What is the pH of 0.0015 M HNO3?

A. 1.41 B. 2.82 C. 5.65 D. 11.18

48. If 100 mg of sulfuric acid is added to water, bringing the final volume to 1.0 L, what is its pH?
A. 1.50 B. 1.35 C. 2.69 D. 2.99

49. All of the following are weak acids EXCEPT

A. HNO2 B. HClO3 C. H2SO3 D. H3PO4

50. Calculate the pH of 0.010 M barbituric acid (Ka = 9.8x10-5)

A. 3.03 B. 4.00 C. 5.03 D. 6.15

51. What is the pH of a 0.010 M solution of a weak acid that is 4.0% ionized?
A. 0.60 B. 0.80 C. 2.80 D. 3.40

52. The pH of a water sample is measured to be 7.5. The concentration of bicarbonate was measured to
be 1.3x10−3 M. For carbonic acid, pKa1 is 6.3 and pKa2 is 10.33. What are the concentrations of carbonic
acid and carbonate?
A. 8.79x10-1 M H2CO3 and 2.0x10-4 M CO32- C. 8.2x10-5 M H2CO3 and 1.9x10-6 M CO32-
B. 1.2x10 M H2CO3 and 1.8x10 M CO3
-5 -8 2- D. 8.2x10-5 M H2CO3 and 1.9x10-6 M CO32-

53. What mass of sodium formate must be added to 500.0 mL of 1.00 M formic acid (Ka = 1.8x10-4) to
produce a buffer solution that has a pH of 3.50?
A. 0.575 g B. 1.738 g C. 19.57 g D. 59.09 g

54. A 50.00-mL portion of HCl solution required 29.71 mL of 0.01963 M Ba(OH)2 to reach an end point with
bromcresol green. Calculate the concentration of HCl.
A. 0.01166 M B. 0.02333 M C. 0.05832 M D. 0.07414 M

55. A 0.4126-g sample of primary-standard Na2CO3 was treated with 40.00 mL of dilute HClO4. The solution
was boiled to remove CO2, following which the excess HClO4 was back-titrated with 9.20 mL of dilute
NaOH. In a separate experiment, it was established that 26.93 mL of the HClO 4 solution neutralized a
25.00 mL portion of NaOH. Calculate the molarities of the HClO 4 and NaOH.
A. 0.1294 M HClO4 and 0.1394 M NaOH C. 0.2587 M HClO4 and 0.2787 M NaOH
B. 0.1946 M HClO4 and 0.2097 M NaOH D. 0.2787 M HClO4 and 0.2587 M NaOH
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56. A preparation of soda ash is known to contain 98.6% Na2CO3. If a 0.678-g sample requires 36.8 mL of
a sulfuric acid solution for complete neutralization, what is the molarity of the sulfuric acid solution?
A. 0.086 M B. 0.171 M C. 0.242 M D. 0.343 M

57. A solution contains NaHCO3, Na2CO3, and NaOH, either alone or in a permissible combination. Titration
of a 50.0 mL portion to a phenolphthalein end point requires 22.1 mL of 0.100 M HCl. A second 50.0-
mL aliquot requires 48.4 mL of the HCl when titrated to a bromocresol green end point. Determine the
composition and the molar concentrations of the components in the original solution.
A. 0.0084 M NaOH and 0.0442 M Na2CO3 C. 0.0084 M NaHCO3 and 0.0442 M NaHCO3
B. 0.0442 M NaOH and 0.0442 M NaHCO3 D. 0.0442 M Na2CO3 and 0.0084 M NaHCO3

58. A 0.7121-g wheat flour sample was analyzed by the Kjeldahl method. The NH3 produced by the addition
of concentrated base after digestion with H2SO4 was distilled into 25.00 mL of 0.04977 M HCl. The
excess HCl was then back-titrated with 3.97 mL of 0.04012 M NaOH. Calculate %N in the flour sample.
A. 1.067% B. 2.135% C. 4.269% D. 8.540%

59. It is the ability of multidentate ligands to form more stable complexes that those formed by similar
monodentate ligands.
A. denticity C. secondary valence
B. chelate effect D. coordination number

60. After removing the membranes from an eggshell, the shell is dried and its mass recorded as 5.613 g.
The eggshell is transferred to a 250-mL beaker and dissolved in 25 mL of 6M HCl. After filtering, the
solution that contains the dissolved eggshell is diluted in a 250 mL volumetric flask. A 10.00-mL aliquot
is buffered to a pH of 10. Titrating with 0.04988 M EDTA requires 44.11 mL to reach the end point.
Determine the amount of calcium in the eggshell as % w/w CaCO3.
A. 98.08% B. 44.04% C. 15.69% D. 0.981%

61. A 1.00-g sample containing aluminum required 20.5 mL EDTA for titration. EDTA was standardized by
titrating 25.0 mL of a 0.100 M CaCl2 with 30.0 mL EDTA. Calculate the percent Al2O3 in the sample.
A. 2.30% B. 8.71% C. 17.4% D. 52.3%

For numbers 62-63:

During standardization, 30.10 mL of Ni2+ solution reacted with 39.35 mL of 0.01307 M EDTA. The
standardized Ni2+ solution was then used to determine the concentration of cyanide in a sample. A 12.73 mL
sample containing cyanide was treated with 25.00 mL of Ni2+ to convert the cyanide into
tetracyanonickelate(II). Excess Ni2+ was then titrated with 10.15 mL of 0.01307 M EDTA.

62. What is the concentration of the Ni2+ solution?

A. 0.01709 M B. 0.02313 M C. 0.03356 M D. 0.09254 M

63. Determine the concentration of cyanide in the sample.

A. 0.01709 M B. 0.02313 M C. 0.03356 M D. 0.09254 M

64. The solubility of PbI2 is 1.3x10-3 M. What is the Ksp for PbI2?
A. 2.2x10-9 B. 8.8x10-9 C. 1.7x10-6 D. 3.4x10-6

65. What is the [OH−] in a suspension of the antacid Mg(OH)2? Ksp = 2.06x10-13
A. 7.4x10-5 M B. 5.9x10-5 M C. 4.7x10-5 M D. 3.7x10-5 M
66. Which of the following methods uses KSCN as titrant?
A. Mohr B. Fajans C. Volhard D. Kjeldahl

67. A 10.00 g sample contains only NaCl and KCl. The sample is dissolved and upon addition of AgNO 3,
21.62 g of AgCl was obtained. What is the weight percent of NaCl in the original sample?
A. 45.20% B. 54.80% C. 65.40% D. 86.60%
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68. A mixture containing only KCl and NaBr is analyzed by the Mohr method. A 0.3172-g sample is
dissolved in 50 mL of water and titrated with 36.85 mL of 0.1120 M AgNO 3 to the Ag2CrO4 end point. A
blank required 0.71 mL of titrant to reach the same end point. Report the % w/w KCl in the sample.
A. 16.87% B. 17.69% C. 82.31% D. 93.48%

69. What is the oxidation number of As in the compound K(NH4)2AsO4•6H2O?

A. -3 B. +1 C. +3 D. +5

70. When water is electrolyzed, hydrogen and oxygen gas are produced. If 1.008 g of H 2 is liberated at the
cathode, what mass of O2 is formed at the anode?
A. 32.0 g B. 16.0 g C. 8.00 g D. 4.00 g

71. Under basic conditions, MnO4– is used as a titrant for the analysis of Mn2+, with both the analyte and
the titrant forming MnO2. In the analysis of a mineral sample for Mn, a 0.5165-g sample is dissolved
and the Mn reduced to Mn2+. The solution is made basic and titrated with 34.88 mL of 0.03358 M KMnO 4
to reach the end point. Calculate the percent by weight of Mn in the mineral sample.
A. 6.435% B. 12.46% C. 18.86% D. 62.28%

72. A 0.1432-g sample was analyzed for its KClO3 content. The sample was dissolved in 50.00 mL of
0.09101 M Fe(NO3)2 and the solution was acidified. The excess Fe2+ was back-titrated with 12.60 mL
of 0.08362 M Ce(NO3)4 solution. What is the percentage by mass of KClO3 in the sample?
A. 14.86% KClO3 C. 49.89% KClO3
B. 38.94% KClO3 D. 90.17% KClO3

73. Which of the following shows the correct arrangement of the regions of the electromagnetic spectrum
in terms of wavelength?
A. infrared > ultraviolet > visible > microwave > radio waves
B. radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet
C. microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet > radio waves
D. ultraviolet > visible > infrared > microwaves > radio waves

74. Which of the following is used to bombard the sample in mass spectroscopy?
A. alpha particles C. electrons
B. neutrons D. protons

75. NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the _________ and spatial positions of _________.
A. electrons, protons C. nuclei, electrons
B. neutrons, electrons D. nuclei, neighboring nuclei

76. During the complete combustion of methane, what change in hybridization does the carbon atom
undergo?
A. sp3 to sp B. sp3 to sp2 C. sp2 to sp3 D. sp2 to sp3

77. He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1981 for his realization that a good approximation for
reactivity could be found by looking at the frontier orbitals (HOMO and LUMO).
A. Otto Diels C. Kenichi Fukui
B. Louis Feiser D. Robert Woodward

78. Constitutional isomers are

A. isomers with a difference in 3D arrangement.
B. isomers having atoms bonded to different atoms.
C. compounds having exactly the same physical properties.
D. compounds that are non-superimposable mirror images of each other.

79. Alkanes are also known as

A. Paraffins B. Olefins C. Acetylenes D. Arenes
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80. What is the name of the hydrocarbon given?

A. 2,3,5-trimethyl-4-propylheptane
B. 3,5,6-trimethyl-4-propylheptane
C. 2,3-dimethyl-4-sec-butylheptane
D. 5,6-dimethyl-4-sec-butylheptane

81. Halogenation of alkanes proceeds via

A. Electrophilic addition C. Nucleophilic substitution
B. Nucleophilic addition D. Free-radical substitution

82. Which of the following is TRUE when X2 adds to an unsymmetrical alkene?

A. Syn addition occurs.
B. The two X atoms are opposite each other.
C. In the first step, homolytic cleavage occurs and Br breaks the double bond.
D. Hydrogen becomes attached to the carbon with the most hydrogens attached to it already.

83. Which set of reagents can transform 1-butene into formaldehyde and acetaldehyde?
A. KMnO4 B. O3, Zn/H+ C. BH3, NaOH D. PCC

84. When an alkyne undergoes hydration, the product is a/an

A. ether B. ketone C. alcohol D. aldehyde

85. This aromatic hydrocarbon is formed by the incomplete combustion of organic materials. It is found in
cigarette smoke, automobile exhaust, and the fumes from charcoal grills.
A. toluene B. polystyrene C. naphthalene D. benzopyrene

86. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?

A. ortho-nitrophenol C. para-nitrophenol
B. meta-nitrophenol D. These isomers have identical boiling points.

87. Which of the following is TRUE in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS)?

A. The benzene ring acts as the electrophile.
B. During bromination of benzene, FeBr3 acts as the nucleophile.
C. Nitration of benzene requires nitric acid only as the source of electrophile.
D. In the first step, the electrophile is attacked by the π electrons of benzene forming a resonance-
stabilized carbocation.

88. Which of the following exhibit dipole-dipole forces of attraction?

A. alkanes B. alkenes C. alkyl halides D. hydrocarbons

89. All of the following are uses of alkyl halides EXCEPT

A. solvents B. fertilizers C. pesticides D. refrigerants

90. This compound is generally obtained from plant and animal sources. It has wide-ranging uses in the
food, medical, and pharmaceutical industries. In food and beverages, it serves as a humectant, solvent,
and sweetener, and may help preserve foods. It is also mildly antimicrobial and antiviral and is an FDA
approved treatment for wounds.
A. phenol B. ethanol C. glycerol D. ethylene glycol

91. Which alcohol will undergo acid-catalyzed dehydration under the mildest conditions?
A. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH C. (CH3)2CHCH2OH
B. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 D. (CH3)3COH

92. Which of the following reagents can form yellow to red-colored derivatives with carbonyl compounds?
A. 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine C. I2/KI, NaOH
B. Tollens reagent D. KMnO4
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93. Aldehydes and ketones react with hydrides to form

A. alkanes B. alkenes C. alcohols D. ethers

94. Which of the following exhibit hydrogen bonds?

A. hydrocarbons C. alcohols, amines, and carboxylic acids
B. alkyl halides and ethers D. esters, amides, anhydrides, and acid halides

95. Arrange the four compounds below in order of decreasing acidity.

I. CH3CH2COOH A. I, II, III, IV
II. CH3CH2CH2OH B. I, III, II, IV
III. C6H5OH C. III, I, IV, II
IV. CH3C≡CH D. III, IV, I, II

96. Arrange the carboxylic acids shown above in order of decreasing acidity.
A. I > II > III B. III > I > II C. III > II > I D. II > I > III

97. Which of the following reactions would NOT be an acceptable method to produce methyl benzoate?

A C

B D

98. Aniline is insoluble in water. Which reagent could be used to increase its solubility in water?
A. 1M HCl B. 1M NaOH C. diethyl ether D. toluene

99. Which of the following will react with (1) LiAlH4, diethyl ether (2) H2O produce a secondary amine?

A B C D

100. The conversion of glucose to ethanol is represented as 𝑥𝐶 𝐻 𝑂 → 𝑦𝐶 𝐻 𝑂𝐻 + 𝑧𝐶𝑂

What are the coefficients 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧, respectively, in the balanced equation?
A. 1, 2, 2 B. 1, 3, 3 C. 1, 1, 4 D. 2, 4, 2

101. Which of the following monosaccharides contain a ketone functional group?

A. ribose B. glucose C. fructose D. galactose

102. All of the following are polysaccharides EXCEPT

A. cellulose B. sucrose C. glycogen D. amylopectin
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103. Which of the following is TRUE about starch, glycogen, cellulose, and chitin?
A. All have 𝛼-1,4-linkages.
B. Each is built from a single type of monomer.
C. Starch is built from a different monomer than the others.
D. Chitin and cellulose differ from each other only in the extent of their branching.

104. All of the following are tests for reducing sugars EXCEPT
A. Fehling B. Molisch C. Tollens D. Benedict

105. Glycogen is present in all body tissues EXCEPT

A. liver B. brain C. kidney D. stomach

106. Lipids possess which of the following properties?

A. high energy content. C. structural component of cell membrane.
B. water insoluble and organic soluble. D. all of the above.

107. The major fat in adipose tissues in mammals is

A. cholesterol B. sphingolipids C. phospholipids D. triacylglycerols

108. All of the following are unsaturated fatty acids EXCEPT

A. oleic acid B. stearic acid C. linolenic acid D. arachinodic acid

109. Fatty fish like salmon and albacore are known to be rich in
A. omega-3 fatty acids C. omega-9 fatty acids
B. omega-6 fatty acids D. saturated fatty acids

110. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

A. Naturally occurring fatty acids have an even number of carbon atoms.
B. Double bonds in naturally occurring fatty acids generally have the Z configuration.
C. Solid fats contain a high amount of saturated fatty acids and are generally of animal origin.
D. Linoleic and linolenic acids can be synthesized by our bodies.

111. Which amino acids contain alkyl groups as their side chains?
A. Val, Leu, Ile C. Phe, Tyr, Trp
B. Ser, Cys, Met D. Lys, Arg, HIs

112. Which amino acids contain sulfur in their side chains?

A. Cys, Met B. Ser, Thr C. Asp, Glu D. Asn, Gln

113. Which of the following amino acids can be typically found in the interior of a globular protein?
A. Arg B. Asp C. Phe D. Glu

114. Calculate the isoelectric pH of Gly (pKa1 = 2.3, pKa2 = 9.6).

A. 2.30 B. 5.95 C. 9.60 D. 11.9

115. What is the pH of a solution containing Gly in which the α-NH3+ group is 33% deprotonated?
A. 9.1 B. 9.3 C. 9.6 D. 9.9

116. Which functional group is NOT commonly found in proteins?

A. alcohol B. amine C. amide D. aldehyde

117. The most abundant protein in vertebrates, it is found in cartilage, tendons, teeth, and blood vessels.
Gly and Pro account for a large fraction of its amino acid residues.
A. albumin B. collagen C. insulin D. hemoglobin
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118. The only covalent bonds that stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins.
A. peptide bond C. glycosidic bond
B. disulfide bond D. phosphodiester bond

119. The double helical structure of the DNA is proposed by

A. Peter Mitchell C. Watson and Crick
B. King and Wooten D. Pauling and Corey

120. Which of the following is FALSE?

A. RNA is resistant to dilute acid. C. RNA is readily hydrolyzed by hydroxide.
B. DNA with acid leads to loss of purine. D. DNA is susceptible to alkaline hydrolysis.

121. Which of the following does NOT have a linear graph for an ideal gas?
A. P-V (constant n, T) C. P-T (constant n, V)
B. V-T (constant n, P) D. All are linear graphs

122. A gas weighing 4.0 gas at 0ºC and 0.25 atm occupies 11.2 L. What is its molecular mass?
A. 32 g/mol B. 40 g/mol C. 44 g/mol D. 48 g/mol

123. At standard conditions, 45 L of oxygen gas weighs about 64 g, whereas 45 L of hydrogen weighs only
about 4 g. Which gas diffuses faster? By how much?
A. hydrogen, 4rO2 B. hydrogen, 2rO2 C. oxygen, 8rH2 D. oxygen, 3rH2

124. Palladium crystallizes in an FCC lattice with a theoretical density of 12.02 g/cm 3. What is the radius of
a palladium atom?
A. 137 pm B. 190 pm C. 224 pm D. 257 pm

125. The wavelength of the X-rays is 0.071 nm which is diffracted by a plane of salt with unit cell length of
0.28 nm. Determine the glancing angle for the second order diffraction if the distance between the
adjacent Miller planes is 1.98 angstrom.
A. 9º B. 14º C. 18º D. 21º

126. A certain compound is found to be electrically conductive when in aqueous state but not in its solid
state. Upon heating in an evaporating dish, there is no distinguishable change. Which of the following
is the most probable identity of the compound?
A. metallic C. molecular covalent
B. ionic D. covalent network

127. Free energy change of mixing two liquids is a function of the __________.
A. concentration of constituents C. temperature
B. quantities of constituents D. All of the above.

128. Which of the following is FALSE?

A. The chemical potential of a pure substance depends upon the temperature and pressure.
B. The chemical potential of a component in a system is directly proportional to the escaping tendency
of that component.
C. The chemical potential of species “i” in an ideal gas mixture approaches zero as the pressure or
mole fraction tends to be zero at constant temperature.
D. None of these.

129. What is the enthalpy of reaction (kJ/mol) at 298 K for the reaction below?
𝐻𝑔 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻 → 𝐻𝑔 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙
𝛥𝑆 = −31 𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 ∙ 𝐾 𝛥𝑈 = −27.61 𝑘𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝛥𝐺 = −25.82 𝑘𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙

A. -38.69 B. -35.06 C. 38.69 D. 35.06

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130. What is the maximum energy change can be extracted as work at 298 K for the combustion of glucose?
𝛥𝑆 = 182.4 𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 ∙ 𝐾 𝛥𝑈 = −2180 𝑘𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝛥𝐺 = −1630 𝑘𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙

A. -2234 kJ B. -4443 kJ C. -2755 kJ D. -1684 kJ

131. What will happen if liquid water is immediately transferred in a vacuum container?
A. None B. Freeze C. Decompose D. Vaporize

132. At 25ºC, the vapor pressure of acetone is 201 mm Hg and of chloroform is 173 mm Hg. If the solution
boils at 181 mm Hg, determine the mole fraction of chloroform in the vapor phase.
A. 0.2857 B. 0.3173 C. 0.6827 D. 0.7143

133. Which is TRUE about a binary liquid that obeys Raoult’s Law?
A. Partial pressure of a component at equilibrium is proportional to its mol fraction in the vapor mixture.
B. The volume of the mixture is greater than the sum of the volumes of each component before mixing.
C. Intermolecular interactions in the mixture are identical to those in the pure components.
D. None of the above.

134. Given the properties of nitrogen, which of the following is TRUE?

A. Liquid N2 is denser than solid N2.
B. At very high pressure, N2 can be liquefied at 150 K.
C. Liquid and gaseous N2 can coexist at 63.1 K and 1 atm.
D. If N2 is heated from 60 to 70 K at 0.100 atm, it sublimes.

135. What is the boiling point of a solution formed by adding 9.65 g barium nitrate to 300 mL of water?
A. 100.06ºC B. 100.13ºC C. 100.19ºC D. 100.27ºC

136. At 20ºC, what is the volume (mL) of water that must be added to 750 mL ethanol (k b = 1.22ºC/molal) in
order to increase its boiling point by 15ºC?
A. 90 mL B. 100 mL C. 110 mL D. 130 mL
Normal melting point 63.2 K
137. What is the osmotic pressure of a 0.10 M sodium phosphate Normal boiling point 77.4 K
solution at 20ºC? Triple point 0.127 atm, 63.1 K
A. 8.6 C. 10.6 Critical point 33.5 atm, 126.0 K
B. 9.6 D. 11.6

138. What is the identity of a metal that is dissolved in wastewater and was identified using electrolysis? The
mass deposited in the electrode is 0.30 g over 75 mA current in an hour.
A. Iron B. Gold C. Silver D. Copper

139. What is the mass (g) of iron from ferrous sulfate solution that is deposited using the same circuit wherein
0.54 g of silver was deposited after electrolysis?
A. 0.09 B. 0.14 C. 0.28 D. 0.38

140. It is the only measured value for the observable property corresponding to Â.
A. wave function B. eigenvalue C. eigenstate D. eigenfunction

141. Initially, a certain microorganism (Ks = 70 mg/L) is exposed to 1.0 g/L of substrate. Its specific growth
rate is 0.62 hr-1. Predict its maximum specific growth rate (hr-1)?
A. 0.66 B. 0.95 C. 1.054 D. 0.89

142. A 1500-L bioreactor has a flow rate of 400 L/hr. What is the dilution rate?
A. 0.8/hr B. 0.27/hr C. 3.75/hr D. 0.72/hr
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143. If the number of living microorganism in a test tube was reduced from 8x10 14/mL to 2x103/mL, determine
the inactivation ratio and del factor.
A. 2.5x10-12, 26.71 B. 4x1011, 26.71 C. 2.5x10-12, -26.71 D. 4x1011, -26.71

144. A microorganism utilizes both glucose and maltose to produce ethanol. If it is inoculated in a reaction
tank containing 1 metric ton of feed (30% glucose, 18% maltose, 32% oligosaccharides, 20% others)
per day and 85% of the substrate is converted to the product, how much product is produced daily?
A. 208.53 kg B. 212.78 kg C. 250.33 kg D. 365.85 kg

145. The cell growth of a certain microorganism in fructose medium follows the Monod model. The given
parameters are: maximum specific growth rate = 0.6 hr-1, half velocity constant = 100 mg/L, yield
coefficient of biomass per substrate = 0.25. When this organism is grown in a 4L chemostat on a
medium containing 1000 mg/L fructose added at a flow rate of 1L/h, what will be the steady state
concentration of biomass in the reactor?
A. 232 mg/L B. 250 mg/L C. 207 mg/L D. 18 mg/L

146. Calculate the specific growth rate (hr-1) of a certain microorganism (µmax = 0.75 hr-1, Ks = 40 mg/L) at a
substrate concentration of 1.5 g/L.
A. 0.28 B. 0.73 C. 0.20 D. 0.70

147. Given that µ = 100 and µmax = 200, what can be said about Ks and S?
A. Ks = 0.5S B. Ks = 0.75S C. 0.5Ks = S D. Ks = S

148. A certain microorganism (µmax = 0.7 hr-1) is exposed to 2.0 g/L of substrate. Find the specific growth
rate (hr-1)? Ks = 150 mg/L
A. 0.65 B. 0.39 C. 0.41 D. 0.35

149. Calculate the dilution rate (h-1) of a 2-m diameter chemostat with a liquid height of 4 m and a flow rate
of 800 L/h.
A. 0.05 B. 63.7 C. 0.06 D. 50.0

150. What is the del factor if an initial cell count of 2x108/mL is reduced to 5x102/mL?
A. 12.9 B. 5.6 C. -12.9 D. -5.6

151. What is the del factor if the sterility level is 2.86x10-5?

A. 4.54 B. -10.46 C. 10.46 D. -4.54

152. The del factor increases when the final cell number __________.
A. increases C. remains constant
B. decreases D. reached zero

153. A 1000-kg mixture containing 23% galactose, 37% glucose, 16% fructose, and 24% non-fermentable
residues is fermented by yeast to produce ethanol. How much ethanol is produced if 85% of the
substrate is converted to ethanol and 15% is converted to biomass?
A. 760.0 kg B. 434.4 kg C. 646.0 kg D. 330.2 kg

154. A 4000-L bioreactor operating at a steady-state flowrate of 850 L/hr is operated to produce 940 mg/L
biomass of a microorganism (µmax = 0.8 hr-1, Ks = 50 mg/L). Calculate the yield of biomass per substrate
consumed if the initial substrate concentration is 850 mg/L.
A. 0.23 B. 1.11 C. 3.24 D. 1.13

155. An amount of 1 g of bacteria was found to utilize a substrate at a rate of 40 g/day when the substrate
concentration is high. Another experiment found that the same mass of bacteria can utilize the substrate
at a rate of 20 g/day when the substrate concentration is 28 mg/L. What is the rate of consumption in
g/day by 2 g of bacteria if the substrate concentration is set at 10 mg/L?
A. 10.53 B. 20.0 C. 21.05 D. 14.21
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156. A municipal landfill has available space of 16.2 ha at an average depth of 10 m. Seven hundred sixty-
five cubic meters of solid waste is dumped at the site 5 days a week. This waste is compacted to twice
its delivered density. Estimate the expected life of the landfill in years.
A. 16 years B. 23 years C. 9 years D. 10 years

157. A power plant in a college town is burning coal on a cold, clear winter morning at 8:00 AM with a wind
speed of 2.6 m/s measured at 30 m elevation and an inversion layer with its base at a height of 697 m.
The effective stack height is 30 m. Calculate the distance downwind 𝑋 at which the plume released
will reach the inversion layer and begin to mix downward.
A. 12.2 km B. 9.5 km C. 5.8 km D. 13.7 km

158. A hazardous waste incinerator is being fed methylene chloride at a concentration of 5858 mg/L in an
aqueous stream at a rate of 40.5 L/min. Calculate the mass flow rate of the feed .
A. 189.04 g/min B. 237.25 g/min C. 77.12 g/min D. 508.21 g/min

159. A small lake is surrounded by agricultural land. The lake is 150 m long, 120 m wide, with ave depth is
30 m. The lake is fed by a small pollution-free stream having an ave flow rate of 1.5 m3/s. Greatcrop
herbicide is detected at a concentration of 45.2 µg/L in the lake. Greatcrop degrades biologically with
a rate constant of 0.22/day. Assuming that the lake is at steady-state conditions and completely mixed
at the time of sampling, what would have been the mass input of herbicide? Assume that the stream is
the only source of water to the lake and that evaporation, precipitation, and seepage can be neglected.
A. 11.2 kg/day B. 27.4 kg/day C. 3.5 kg/day D. 6.0 kg/day

160. The Flins Company is considering opening one of two possible plants on either the Veles River or on
its twin, the Perun River. Among the decisions to be made are what effect the plant discharge will have
on each river and which river would be affected less. Effluent data from the Rongo canning plants A
and B are considered to be representative of the potential discharge characteristics. In addition,
measurements from each river at summer low-flow conditions are available.

Effluent Parameter Plant A Plant B

Flow (m3/s) 0.0500 0.0500
Ultimate BOD at 25ºC (kg/day) 129.60 129.60
DO (mg/L) 0.9 0.9
Temperature (ºC) 25.0 25.0
k at 20ºC (day-1) 0.110 0.0693

River Parameter Veles River Perun River

Flow (m3/s) 0.500 0.500
Ultimate BOD at 25ºC (mg/L) 19.00 19.00
DO (mg/L) 5.85 5.85
Temperature (ºC) 25.0 25.0
Speed (m/s) 0.100 0.200
Average depth (m) 4.00 4.00
Bed activity coefficient 0.200 0.200
As a chemical engineer, which plant-river combination will you recommend?
A. Plant A and Perun River C. Plant B and Veles River
B. Plant A and Veles River D. Plant B and Perun River

161. A city of 200,000 people disposes of 1.05 m3·s-1 of treated sewage that still has a BODu of 28.0 mg·L-1
and 1.8 mg·L-1 of DO into a river. Upstream from the outfall, the river has a flowrate of 7.08 m3·s-1 and
a velocity of 0.37 m·s-1. At this point, the BODu and DO in the river are 3.6 and 7.6 mg·L-1, respectively.
The saturation value of DO (at the temperature of the river) is 8.5 mg·L-1. The deoxygenation coefficient,
kd, is 0.61 day-1, and the reaeration coefficient, kr, is 0.76 day-1. Assume complete mixing and that the
velocity in the river is the same upstream and downstream of the outfall. What is the critical distance
(km) and the minimum DO (mg/L)?
A. 9.83, 17.0 B. 27.1, 17.0 C. 34.2, 5.7 D. 27.1, 2.8
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162. The High tannery with a wastewater flow of 0.011 m3/s and a BOD5 of 590 mg/L discharges into the
Low Creek. The creek has a 10-year, 7-day low flow of 1.7 m3/s. Upstream of the tannery, the BOD5 of
the creek is 0.6 mg/L. The BOD rate constants (k) are 0.115 day -1 for the tannery and 3.7 day-1 for the
creek. Calculate the initial ultimate BOD after mixing.
A. 4.22 mg/L B. 1.43 mg/L C. 8.61 mg/L D. 9.27 mg/L

163. Professor Dexter has made measurements of her household solid waste (see table). If the container
volume is 0.0757 m3, what is the average density of the solid waste produced in her household during
the period of Mar 18 through Apr 18? Assume that the mass of each empty container is 3.63 kg.

Date Can # Gross Mass (kg) Date Can # Gross Mass (kg)
Mar 18 1 7.26 Apr 8 1 6.35
Mar 18 2 7.72 Apr 8 2 8.17
Mar 25 1 10.89 Apr 8 3 8.62
Mar 25 2 8.17
Mar 25 3 7.26

A. 58.4 kg/m3 B. 106.4 kg/m3 C. 85.4 kg/m3 D. 160.4 kg/m3

164. Consider the data given below.

Seeded Wastewater Seeded Dilution Water

Initial DO 8.6 mg/L Initial DO 8.6 mg/L
Final DO (after 5 days) 2.1 mg/L Final DO (after 5 days) 7.3 mg/L
Volume of wastewater 2.5 mL Volume of seeded dilution water 300.0 mL
Total volume in BOD bottle 300.0 mL Temperature 20°C

Calculate the BOD of the sample.

A. 946 mg/L B. 625 mg/L C. 585 mg/L D. 740 mg/L

165. How long will it take for leachate to migrate through a 0.9-m clay liner with a hydraulic conductivity of
1x10-7 cm/s if the depth of leachate above the clay layer is 30 cm and the porosity of the clay is 55%?
A. 7 years B. 3 years C. 12 years D. 14 years

166. Bacterial cells have been represented by the chemical formula C5H7NO2. Compute the theoretical
oxygen demand (in grams O2/mol of cells).
A. 64 B. 224 C. 160 D. 288

167. The Nairyosangha landfill located in Peshdadians serves a population of 562,400 people generating
MSW at a rate of 1.89 kg/cap-day. The volume of the landfill is 11,240,000 m 3. At the present time,
63% of the landfill is used. The ratio of the cover to compacted fill is 1.9. Determine projected life
remaining for the landfill. Assume the density of the compacted waste to be 490 kg/m 3.
A. 2.76 years B. 5.98 years C. 4.01 years D. 3.67 years

168. If the BOD5 of a waste is 220.0 mg/L and the ultimate BOD is 320.0 mg/L measured at 20ºC, determine
its rate constant at 15ºC.
A. 0.095/day B. 0.186/day C. 0.124/day D. 0.235/day

169. The Bay Stone Works employs six people. Assuming that the density of uncompacted waste is 480
kg·m3, determine the annual volume of solid waste produced by the stone works assuming a waste
generation rate of 1 kg/capita·day.
A. 4.6 m3/year B. 1.7 m3/year C. 5.0 m3/year D. 3.2 m3/year
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170. The BOD of a wastewater sample is estimated to be 180 mg/L. What volume of undiluted sample should
be added to a 300-mL bottle? Also, what are the sample size and dilution factor using this volume?
Assume that 4 mg/L BOD can be consumed in the BOD bottle.
A. 2.33%, 43 B. 60%, 45 C. 60%, 0.0233 D. 2.33%, 0.0233

171. Which of the following is CORRECT?

A. Hazardous waste poses substantial danger, now or in the future to living elements only.
B. Hazardous waste must be handled or disposed with special precautions.
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

172. The amount of oxygen needed by microbes for the biochemical reactions that sustain them.
A. Chemical Oxygen Demand C. Microbial Oxygen Demand
B. Biochemical Oxygen Demand D. Total Organic Carbon

173. Humans are classified as C. Photoheterotrophs

A. Chemoheterotrophs D. Photoautotrophs
B. Chemoautotrophs

174. The adiabatic lapse rate for a dry atmosphere, which may contain water vapor but which has no liquid
moisture present in the form of fog, droplets, or clouds, is approximately
A. 1ºC/1000 m C. 100ºC/1000 m
B. 10ºC/1000 m D. 1000ºC/1000 m

175. Level of wastewater treatment where biological processes are involved.

A. Primary C. Advanced
B. Secondary D. Preliminary
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PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES PROBLEM SET

Answer Key

1 A 26 A 51 D 76 A 101 C 126 B 151 C

2 D 27 B 52 D 77 C 102 B 127 D 152 B
3 C 28 B 53 C 78 B 103 B 128 C 153 D
4 B 29 C 54 B 79 A 104 B 129 B 154 D
5 C 30 C 55 C 80 C 105 B 130 A 155 C
6 B 31 B 56 B 81 D 106 D 131 D 156 A
7 B 32 D 57 D 82 D 107 D 132 C 157 C
8 C 33 A 58 B 83 B 108 B 133 C 158 B
9 D 34 C 59 B 84 C 109 A 134 D 159 A
10 B 35 B 60 A 85 D 110 D 135 C 160 D
11 A 36 A 61 B 86 C 111 A 136 D 161 C
12 B 37 D 62 A 87 D 112 A 137 B 162 D
13 C 38 B 63 D 88 C 113 C 138 C 163 A
14 B 39 C 64 B 89 B 114 B 139 B 164 B
15 C 40 A 65 A 90 C 115 B 140 B 165 C
16 D 41 D 66 C 91 D 116 D 141 A 166 B
17 B 42 C 67 A 92 A 117 B 142 B 167 A
18 C 43 B 68 C 93 C 118 B 143 A 168 C
19 A 44 B 69 D 94 C 119 C 144 B 169 A
20 C 45 B 70 C 95 B 120 D 145 A 170 D
21 A 46 A 71 C 96 D 121 A 146 B 171 B
22 C 47 B 72 C 97 D 122 A 147 D 172 B
23 C 48 C 73 B 98 A 123 A 148 A 173 A
24 B 49 B 74 C 99 D 124 A 149 C 174 B
25 B 50 A 75 D 100 D 125 D 150 A 175 B